Mechanical Engineering Questions and Answers

Mechanical Engineering Questions and Answers:
46 :: What are the differences between pneumatics and hydraulics?

*
a)
Working
fluid:
Pneumatics
use
air,
Hydraulics
use
Oil
*
b)
Power:
Pneumatic
power
less
than
hydraulic
power
*
c)
Size:
P
components
are
smaller
than
H
components
* d) Leakage: Leaks in hydraulics cause fluid to be sticking around the components. In pneumatics, air is leaked
into
the
atmosphere.
* e) Pneumatics obtain power from an air compressor while hydraulics require a pump
* f) Air is compressible, hydraulic oil is not
Is This Answer Correct?
10 Yes
0 No
6 Yes
1 No
47 :: What is enthalpy?
Enthalpy is the heat content of a chemical system.

48 :: What is a positive displacement pump?
A positive displacement pump causes a liquid or gas to move by trapping a fixed amount of fluid or gas and
then forcing (displacing) that trapped volume into the discharge pipe. Positive displacement pumps can be
further classified as either rotary-type (for example the rotary vane) or lobe pumps similar to oil pumps used in
car engines. These pumps give a non-pulsating output or displacement unlike the reciprocating pumps. Hence,
they are called positive displacement pumps.
0 Yes
1 No
49 :: Why would you use hydraulics rather than pneumatics?

Hydraulics is suitable for higher forces & precise motion than pneumatics. This is because hydraulic systems
generally run at significantly higher pressures than pneumatics systems. Movements are more precise
(repeatable) because hydraulics uses an incompressible liquid to transfer power whilst pneumatics uses gases.
Pneumatic systems have some advantages too. They are usually significantly cheaper than hydraulic systems,
can move faster (gas much less viscous than oil) and do not leak oil if they develop a leak.
2 Yes

50 :: What is the formula for Heat loss in a pipe?
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(1) Pitot tube is used for measurement of

(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Discharge
(d) Velocity
Ans.: (d) Velocity
(2) Slow plastic deformation of material under constant stress is

(a) Creep
(b) Fatigue
(c) Endurance
(d) Elastic deformation

Ans.: (a) Creep
(3) Mass balancing is done to

(a) Avoid flutter
(b) Increase bending stress
(c) Reduce drag
(d) Distributing mass on control surface
Ans.: (a) Avoid flutter
(4) Short columns are preferred over long columns from

(a) Strength consideration
(b) Buckling consideration
(c) Weight consideration
(d) None of the above
Ans.: (b) Buckling consideration
(5) Centre of pressure of an aerofoil with an increase of angle of attack will

(a) Move forward
(b) Move backward
(c) Not move

Ans.: (a) Move forward
(6) Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as compared to diesel engine plant
(a) Higher
(b) Lower
(c) Same
(d) May be higher or lower
Ans.: (a) Higher
(7) A closed cycle gas turbine works on

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Joule cycle
(d) Atkinson cycle
Ans.: (c) Joule cycle
(8) A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by

(a) Keeping the core dia of threads equal to the dia of unthreaded portion of bolt
(b) Keeping the core dia of threads smaller than the dia of unthreaded portion of bolt
(c) Keeping the nominal dia of threads equal to the dia of unthreaded portion of bolt

Ans.: (a) Keeping the core dia of threads equal to the dia of unthreaded portion of
bolt
(9) Stress concentration factor is defined as ratio of

(a) Max stress to endurance limit
(b) Nominal stress to endurance limit

(c) Max stress to nominal stress
(d) Nominal stress to max stress
Ans.: (c) Max stress to nominal stress
(10) Principle effect of humidity is

(a) Corrosion
(b) Leaking from sealed enclosures
(c) Permanent set of packing and gaskets
(d) Differential contraction of metal parts
Ans.: (a) Corrosion
(11) Backlash is
(a) Sum of the clearance of two gears
(b) Mutual play between two gears
(c) Amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth
on pitch circle
(d) Any of the above
Ans.: (c) Amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the
engaging tooth on pitch circle
(12) Teflon is used for bearings because of
(a) Low co-efficient of friction

(b) Better heat dissipation
(c) Smaller space constraint
(d) All of the above
Ans.: (a) Low co-efficient of friction
(13) When two elastic bodies collide with each other

(a) Two bodies will momentarily come to rest after collision
(b) The two bodies tend to compress & deform at the surface of contact
(c) Two bodies begins to retain their original shape
Ans.: (d) All of the above
(14) Antifriction bearings are

(a) Thick lubricated bearing
(b) Thin lubricated bearing
(c) Ball & roller bearing
(d) Plastic bearing
Ans.: (c) Ball & roller bearing
(15) What is Hertzian stress?
(a) Tensile stress on inner surface of cylinder

(b) Bending stress on two contact surface
(c) Contact stress on two contact surfaces
(d) Shear stress on two contact surfaces
Ans.: (c) Contact stress on two contact surfaces
(16) Mohrs circle can be used to determine following stress on inclined surface
(a) Principal stresses
(b) Normal stresses
(c) Maximum shear stresses
Ans.: (a) Principal stresses
(17) What size of material required for making rolled threads?
(a) Pitch diameter

(b) Root diameter
(c) Major diameter
(d) None
Ans.: (a) Pitch diameter
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1. Normalizing operation is carried out in

a) Water
b) Oil
c) Air
d) Furnace
Ans.: c) Air
2. The main purpose of heat treatment of steels is to change the

a) Chemical composition
b) Mechanical properties
c) Surface finish
d) Physical properties
Ans.: b) Mechanical properties
3. Which of the following is a non-destructive test
a) Impact test
b) Charpy test
c) Cupping test
d) Radiography test
Ans.: d) Radiography test
4. Polymerization is associated with
a) Stainless steel
b) Cast iron
c) Thermoplastic
d) Duralumin
Ans.: c) Thermoplastic
5. The material of pattern in the investment casting is
a) Resin
b) Sand
c) Wax
d) Wood
Ans.: c) Wax
6. Shell moulding process requires
a) Wooden pattern
b) Plastic pattern
c) Sand pattern
d) Metal pattern
Ans.: d) Metal pattern
7. Liquid nitrogen containers can be made from
a) Ferritic stainless steel
b) HSLA steel
c) Titanium
d) Austenitic stainless steel
Ans.: d) Austenitic stainless steel
8. Stretching of rolled rings is done to
a) To meet dimensional requirement
b) To relieve stresses
c) To introduce stresses
d) To improve finish
Ans.: b) To relieve stresses
9. During manufacturing of spring, the coiling pitch is assumed to be larger than

specified pitch by
a) 5-8%
b) 10-12%
c) 2-5%
d) none
Ans.: a) 5-8%
10. Metric thread have included angle:
a) 60
b) 55
c) 30
d) None
Ans.: a) 60
11. Which part of the cutting tool is prone to crater wear
a) Flank
b) Face
c) Shank
d) Base
Ans.: b) Face
12. The crater wear of a cutting tool is due to
a) Chemical action of the coolant
b) Excessive heat generated during cutting operation
c) Rubbing of tool against the work piece
d) Abrasive action of the chip
Ans.: d) Abrasive action of the chip
13. Crater wear is predominant in

a) Carbon tool steels
b) Tungsten carbide tools

c) High speed steel tools
d) Ceramic tools
Ans.: b) Tungsten carbide tools

14. Identify the single point cutting tool
a) Milling cutter
b) Hacksaw blade
c) Grinding wheel
d) Cutting tool used in a slotting machine
Ans.: d) Cutting tool used in a slotting machine

15. The angle between the tool face and the plane parallel to the base of the
cutting tool is called
a) Lip angle
b) Cutting angle
c) Rack angle
d) Shear angle
Ans.: c) Rack angle
16. In metal cutting operation, the cutting angle is defined as the angle
a) between the flank and the horizontal machined surface
b) between the shear plane and the direction of tool travel

c) between the face of tool and the line tangent to the machined surface at the cutting point
d) between the tool face and the ground end surface of flank
Ans.: c) between the face of tool and the line tangent to the machined surface at
the cutting point
17. The angle between the face and the flank of the single point cutting tool is
known as
a) Rack angle
b) Clearance angle
c) Lip angle
d) Point angle
Ans.: b) Clearance angle

18. Cutting tool may be provided with large positive rack angle to
a) Have a better heat dissipation
b) Avoid rubbing with the finished surface
c) Increase the strength of cutting edge
d) Reduce the magnitude of cutting forces
Ans.: d) Reduce the magnitude of cutting forces

19. Single point thread cutting tool should ideally have
a) Zero rack angle

b) Positive rack
c) Negative rack
d) Normal rack
Ans.: a) Zero rack angle

20. With an increase in nose radius of single point cutting tools
a) Tool life increases
b) Excessive heat is generated
c) Surface finish deteriorates
d) Cutting speeds have to be kept small
Ans.: a) Tool life increases

21. Tool signature
a) Is a pictorial view of the tool
b) Outlines the orthographic projection of the tool
c) Represents complete specification of the tool
d) Is a numerical method of tool identification
e) Indicate life of tool
Ans.: d) Is a numerical method of tool identification
22. The cutting speed of a tool refers to

a) Revolution made by the tool in a specified time
b) Revolutions turned by the job in a specified time
c) Distance travelled by the tool in one revolution of the job
d) Rate at which cutting edge of the tool passes over the surface of work piece
Ans.: d) Rate at which cutting edge of the tool passes over the surface of work
piece
23. Which is not the primary function of coolant in a metal cutting operation
a) To cool the tool and work piece and conduct the heat generated
b) To improve the cutting action
c) To help in giving bright shining surface to the job
d) To reduce the friction at the cutting point
Ans.: a) To cool the tool and work piece and conduct the heat generated
24. Choose the coolant that would be most appropriate for light cuts on aluminum
alloys
a) Kerosene
b) Mineral oil
c) Soluble oil or emulsions
d) Straight fatty oil
Ans.: a) Kerosene
25. Tool life may be measured by the

a) Total time the tool has been in contact with the job
b) Quantity of material removed between the total sharpening
c) Number of work pieces machined between tool sharpening
d) Time for the flank wear to reach a certain dimension
e) Any one of the above
Ans.: e) Any one of the above

26. The tool life is influenced maximum by
a) Cutting speed
b) Tool material and geometry
c) Cutting fluid
d) Surface conditions of the workpiece
e) Skill of the operator
Ans.: a) Cutting speed

1. How Cavitation can be eliminated in a Pump?
Cavitation means bubbles are forming in the liquid.
To avoid Cavitation, we have to increase the Pump size to One or Two Inch;
To increase the pressure of the Suction Head, or
Decrease the Pump Speed.
2. Which pump is more efficient Centrifugal pump or Reciprocating pump?

Centrifugal pump.
Because flow rate is higher compared to reciprocating pump. Flow is smooth and it requires
less space to install. Lower initial cost and lower maintenance cost.
3. Why Centrifugal Pump is not called as a Positive Displacement Type of Pump?

The centrifugal has varying flow depending on pressure or head, whereas the Positive
Displacement pump has more or less constant flow regardless of pressure.
Likewise viscosity is constant for positive displacement pump where centrifugal pump have up
and down value because the higher viscosity liquids fill the clearances of the pump causing a
higher volumetric efficiency. When there is a viscosity change in supply there is also greater
loss in the system. This means change in pump flow affected by the pressure change.
One more example is, positive displacement pump has more or less constant efficiency,
where centrifugal pump has varying efficiency rate.
4. Why the centrifugal pump is called high discharge pump?

Centrifugal pump is a kinetic device. The centrifugal pump uses the centrifugal force to push
out the fluid. So the liquid entering the pump receives kinetic energy from the rotating
impeller. The centrifugal action of the impeller accelerates the liquid to a high velocity,
transferring mechanical (rotational) energy to the liquid. So it discharges the liquid in high
rate. It is given in the following formulae:
Centrifugal force F= (M*V2)/R.
Where,
M-Mass
V-Velocity
R-Radius
5. Why cavitation will occur in Centrifugal Pumps and not in Displacement pumps?
The formation of cavities (or bubbles) is induced by flow separation, or non-uniform flow
velocities, inside a pump casing. In centrifugal pumps the eye of the pump impeller is smaller
than the flow area of pipe. This decrease in flow area of pump results in increase in flow rate.
So pressure drop happened between pump suction and the vanes of the impeller. Here air
bubbles or cavities are formed because of liquid vapour due to increase in temperature in
impeller. This air bubbles are transmitted to pump which forms cavitation.
What is a radial-flow turbine?

In a radial-flow turbine, steam flows outward from the shaft to the casing. The unit is usually a
reaction unit, having both fixed and moving blades.
What are four types of turbine seals?

Carbon rings fitted in segments around the shaft and held together by garter
or retainer springs.
Labyrinth mated with shaft serrations or shaft seal strips.
Water seals where a shaft runner acts as a pump to create a ring of water
around the shaft. Use only treated water to avoid shaft pitting.
Stuffing box using woven or soft packing rings that are compressed with a
gland to prevent leakage along the shaft.
What are two types of clearance in a turbine?
Radial clearance at the tips of the rotor and casing.
Axial the fore-and-aft clearance, at the sides of the rotor and the casing.
What is the function of a thrust bearing?

Thrust bearings keep the rotor in its correct axial position.
What are some conditions that may prevent a turbine from developing full
power?
The machine is overloaded.
The initial steam pressure and temperature are not up to design conditions.
The exhaust pressure is too high.
The governor is set too low.
The steam strainer is clogged.
Turbine nozzles are clogged with deposits.
Internal wear on nozzles and blades.
What is a stage in a steam turbine?

In an impulse turbine, the stage is a set of moving blades behind the nozzle. In a reaction
turbine, each row of blades is called a "stage." A single Curtis stage may consist of two or
more rows of moving blades.
What is a diaphragm?
Partitions between pressure stages in a turbines casing are called diaphragms. They hold the
vane-shaped nozzles and seals between the stages. Usually labyrinth-type seals are used.
One-half of the diaphragm is fitted into the top of the casing, the other half into the bottom.
What are the two basic types of steam turbines?
Impulse type.
Reaction type.
What are topping and superposed turbines?

Topping and superposed turbines arc high-pressure, non-condensing units that can be added
to an older, moderate-pressure plant. Topping turbines receive high-pressure steam from new
high-pressure boilers. The exhaust steam of the new turbine has the same pressure as the old
boilers and is used to supply the old turbines.
What is a combination thrust and radial bearing?

This unit has the ends of the Babbitt bearing extended radically over the end of the shell.
Collars on the rotor face these thrust pads, and the journal is supported in the bearing
between the thrust collars.
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN RATED SPEED AND ECONOMIC SPEED?

THE RATED SPEED TELLS US ABOUT THE MAXIMUM SPEED WHICH CAN BE ACHIEVED BY A
VEHICLE OR SOME OTHER MACHINE BUT THE ECONOMICAL SPEED MEANS THE SPEED LIMIT AT
WHICH THE MACHINE WORKS EFFICIENTLY WITH LEAST CONSUMPTION OF FUEL.EG-IN NORMAL
BIKES(NOT RACING),THE MAX.SPEED LIMIT SHOWN ON SPEEDOMETER IS UPTO 120 KMPH BUT
COMPANIES ALWAYS ADVICE THEIR CUSTOMERS TO DRIVE SUCH BIKES AT AROUND 60 KMPH TO
HAVE MAXIMUM MILEAGE.
What is the purpose of scrapper ring

scrap the excess lube oil from the cylinder walls.there by preventing oil from entering combustion zone.
What are the causes of main engine black smoke?

There is many cause of black smoke.
1.is improper mixture of fuel supply by carburetor like very rich mixture so the fuel improper burn.
2. it is when piston or piston ring is fail so back side cooling oil release in combustion chamber it cause black smoke.
3.improper ignition system like not sufficient time of pressure rise delay period .
how cooling tower height selected?

The Function of a cooling tower is to cool the water coming from condenser.The water coming from condenser is hot
and it is sprayed in a cooling tower and a air coming out from bottom cool the water which is coming down.Outside
air is cool and air in inside the cooling tower is hot due to humidity.So there is a density difference between outside
and inside air which caused pressure difference.
Pr Difference = g x H x ( density difference)
Where,
H = Height of chimney
Pr Difference = Pr Difference so that air can flow to cooling tower from outside
How does axial thrust balance in multistage pump?

A BALANCING LINE FROM DISCHARGE END IS CONNECTED TO SUCTIONSIDE TO BALANCE AXIAL
THRUST.
how to calculate the boiler efficiency?any formula is there?

boiler efficiency= (heat transferred to feed water inconverting it to steam)/(heat released by completecombustion of
fuel)
n(eta)= Mass of steam * (h- H(water))/(mass of fuel *calorific value fuel)
What is the significance of torque(in N-m) given in the engine specification

it give the moment about any point or simple rotation.
what is the exact requirement of priming?

priming is done in pumps to remove the entrapped air from the suction pipe thus aiding in smooth operation and
avoiding in excess load on the pump.
What is the use of a PULLEY?

transmission of power(force) in rotary form
why does cycle rim dont bend even in heavy loads?

Because of rubber tires. The load is distributed and its effect reduces i.e. tires absorbs heavy load and shocks with the
support of steel rim.
The rim has many spokes. The spokes distribute the load equally and the rubber tires absorb more than half of the
load.
How tonnage can be controlled in PLC base hydraulic press

customintegration of press interlocks to interfacingwith other parts of the hydraulic press line such as thefeeder or
transfer systems.
what is BHP?
Brake horsepower is the amount of work generated by a motor under ideal conditions. This work is calculated without
the consideration of effects of any auxiliary component, that may slow down the actual speed of the motor. Brake
horsepower is measured within the engines output shaft and was originally designed to calculate and compare the
output of steam engines.
As per the conventions, 1 BHP equals to:
745.5 watts
1.01389 ps
33,000 ft lbf/min
42.2 BTU/min
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Different between technology & engineering?

Engineering is application of science. Technology shows various methods of Engineering. A
bridge can be made by using beams to bear the load,by an arc or by hanging in a cable; all
shows different technology but comes under civil engineering and science applied is laws of
force/load distribution.
how a diesel engine works in generator?

Diesel engine is a prime mover,for a generator,pump,and for vehicles etc.generator is
connected to engine by shaft.mostly in thermal power plat ,there is an engine is used to drive
generator to generate power.
WHAT IS THE OTHER NAME OF MICROMETER & VERNIER CALLIPER

Micrometers other name is Screw Gauze & Vernier calipers other name is slide caliper.
What is flashpoint?
Flash point: the lowest temperature at which the vapor of a combustible liquid can be ignited
in air.
what is basic difference between impulse turbine and reaction turbine
In impulse turbine, jet is used to create impulse on blades

which rotates the turbine and in reaction turbine, no jet
is used pressure energy is converted into kinetic energy.
In impulse turbine fluid enter& leave with same energy ,but in reaction turbine fluid enter with
pressure energy&
leaves with kinetic energy
In impulse turbine all the pressure drops in nozzle only &
in reaction turbine pressure drops both fixed & moving
blades.the difference is due to blade profiles.
What is the need for drafting?

Drafting is the allowance give to casting process.it also used to remove the casting from
mould without damage of
corners.
what is the difference between BSP thread and BSW thread?

The British Standard Pipe thread (BSP thread) is a family
of standard screw thread types that has been adopted
internationally for interconnecting and sealing pipe ends
by mating an external (male) with an internal (female) thread.
British Standard Whitworth (BSW) is one of a number of
imperial unit based screw thread standards which use the
same bolt heads and nut hexagonal sizes.
What is refrigerant?
Any substance that transfers heat from one place to another,
creating a cooling effect. water is the refrigerant in absorption machines.
The amount of carbon present in Cast Iron

Carbon is basically present in the form of cementite in cast iron.Its percentage lies in the
range of 2.03-6.67(% by weight of cementite for Cast Iron.If the amount is less than the above
range than it is stainless steel.
What are the loads considered when designing the Nut and Bolts?
Shear Loads & crushing loads
what is the effect of reheat on rankine cycle? 1.efficiency increases 2.work

output increases 3. both 4. none of these.
1.Efficiency increases.
this prevents the vapor from condensing during its expansion which can seriously damage the
turbine blades, and improves the efficiency of the cycle, as more of the heat flow into the
cycle occurs at higher temperature.
1.
In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar, then the
delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
A.
1 bar
B.
16 bar
C.
64 bar
D.
256 bar
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum
2.
The compressed air may be used
A.
in gas turbine plants
B.
for operating pneumatic drills
C.
in starting and supercharging of I.C. engines
D.
all of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
3.
A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air-craft velocity is __________ the jet velocity.
A.
equal to
B.
one-half
C.
double
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
4.
The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating air compressors is about
A.
10 to 40%
B.
40 to 60%
C.
60 to 70%
D.
70 to 90%
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
5.
The maximum temperature in a gas turbine is
A.
200C
B.
500C
C.
700C
D.
1000C
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. L
26 :: Where do you put the oil in a compressor?

In
the
reciprocating
compressors,
you
fill
the
crankcase
with
the
lubricante.
In screw compressors, there is a reservoir to separate oil from compressed air, that reservoir works as the oil
sump of the screw compressor.
1 Yes
0 No
27 :: What is a pneumatic system?

Pneumatic system is a system that uses air to power something. For instance, have you seen the tube systems
at bank drive-up tellers? Air is used to push the tubes back and forth from the teller to the customer.
Air is also used to power drills, sanders, grinders, and the like at garages and car body shops.
2 Yes
0 No
28 :: What kinds of pipes are used for steam lines?

Normally galvanized pipes are not used for steam. Mild steel with screwed or welded fittings are the norm.
Pressure and temperature are very important factors to be considered in what type of materials to be used.
Steam even at low pressures can be extremely dangerous.
2 Yes
1 No
29 :: What is the difference between shear center flexural center of twist and elastic center?
The shear center is the centroid of a cross-section. The flexural center is the center of twist, which is the point on
a beam that you can add a load without torsion. The elastic center is located at the center of gravity. If the object
is homogeneous and symmetrical in both directions of the cross-section then they are all equivalent.
1 Yes
0 No
2 Yes
0 No
30 :: What is ferrite?
Magnetic iron rock
Q1. Give reasoning for decrease in temperature as we move higher.

Ans. The earth can be considered as isochoric system that is volume of air is constant around our
globe. As at constant volume the pressure is directly proportional to temp. as a result temp will also
decrease as pressure decreases as we move higher and higher.
Q2. Explain heat exchanger and its usage.
Ans. A heat exchanger (HX) is used for exchanging heat between two mediums i.e fluids.
Its consists of following two groups;
1. Inirect Contact HX
2. Direct Contact HX
In other words, heat exchanger is a device used for heat dissipation from a certain part where excess
heat may can prove to be harmful to the system.
It increases the heat dissipation by simply exposing more area to the atmosphere as the heat transfer
directly depends on the availability of area for heat transfer. For instance, fins on the engine cylinder
Q3. Differentiate between stress and pressure?

Ans. Pressure is exerted only in case of fluid or liquid or gases whereas stress is applied only on
solid.
Q4.Expain how can we find bearing number or bearing size?

Ans. We can find bearing number or bearing size through a commercial catalog for some companies
like SKF or by reading the size on the cylinder block
Q5. What psi represent?

Ans. psi is an abbreviation for pounds force per square inch and can be commonly seen on pressure
gauges as unit.
Q6. Define four stroke engine?

Ans. In four stroke engine there are two valves i.e. one is inlet and another is exhaust. The stroke is
done one by one in sequence as suction, compression, power and exhaust and for every four stroke
there is one power.
Q7. Differentiate between a pipe and tube?

Ans. Pipe is usually denoted by OD x gauge. Pipe is used to transfer liquid or gas. Pipe is flexible.
Pipe is disignated with its Inner dia.
Tube is denoted by ID which is NB x sch.Tube is used to transfer Heat. Tube is Rigid and is disignated
with Outer Diameter.
Q8. What will be the consequence when water flowing through pipe is suddenly
cut?
Ans. When water flowing through a pipe is suddenly stopped, a pressure wave eqiuvalent to sound
will get created and will move to and fro. It causes damage to pipe by suddenly hitting the pipe wall
which is known as water hammering
Q9. Amongst four stroke engine or a two stroke which one is more efficient?
Why?
Ans. Since there is one power stroke for every 2 strokes in 2-Stroke engine, it is more
efficient and compact for same power generation although four stroke engine is more frequently
used.
Q10. If I have a thermal flask in which i have to fill the boiled water. Along with
I also have thermocol, saw dust and silver paper. Arrange these materials to
attain minimum heat loss.
Ans. The arrangement can be thermal flask outside silver paper outside saw dust and finally
thermocol because thermal condutivity of silver is more than sawdust and thermal conductivity of saw
dust is more than thermocol arrangement is like this.
Q11. Explain the four basic quantities in engineering mechanics?

Ans. Length, time, mass and force are the four basic quantities in engineering mechanics.
Length is required to locate the position of a point in space and hence describe the size of a physical
system .
Time is taken as a sucession of events. The principles of statics are time dependent and play an
important role in the study of dynamics.
Mass is property of matter and using it we can compare the action of one body with that of another.
Force is considered as a push or pull which is exerted by one body on another body.
Q12. Explain viscosity ?

Ans. Viscosity is the measure of the resistance of a fluid which is being deformed by either shear
stress or tensile stress. It is internal friction. Water and petrol are thin because they have lower
viscosity, whereas honey is thick because it has higher viscosity
Q13. Define Mechanical Engineer?

Ans. Mechanical Engineer is a discipline of engineering which applies the principles of physics and
materials science for manufacturing, design, analysis, and maintenance of mechanical systems. It is
the branch of engineering that encompasses the generation and application of heat and mechanical
power and also in the design, production, and use of machines and tools.
Q14. Why you chose mechanical branch?

Ans. It is the Power Centre of Technical field and is very dynamic in nature. It started with to do
something afresh. So mechanical engineering is just different from all other branch with its merits on
other.
Q15. Define autocad?

Ans. It is very important for engineers and uses 3d drawings, solids modeling, wire frame modeling,
fast working, 2D drawings etc
Q16.Define Electrical motor maximum speed?
Ans. RPM (ROTATION PER MINUTE) determines it.
Q17. Explain the method to find the amount of natural gas required to
generate 1 kwhr of energy?
Ans. It can be found by heat rate of power plant run by natural gas divided gross calorific value of the
natural gas.
Q18. Explain the procedure to check wheather a gear and pinion are properly
aligned or not for both running and static condition?
Ans. It can be checked by the shaft(axis) of the pinion and gear must in 90 degree.
Q19. What do you think is boiler a closed system?

Ans. Yes.
Q20. Explain Hess Law?

Ans. According to this, the energy transfer is simply independent of the path followed. The same
amount of energy will be dissipated or absorbed if the reactant and the product of the whole process
are the same.
Explain the Second Law of Thermodynamics.

The entropy of the universe increases over time and moves towards a maximum value.
How do you measure temperature in a Wet Bulb Thermometer?

Wet bulb temperature is measured in a wet bulb thermometer by covering the bulb with a
wick and wetting it with water. It corresponds to the dew point temperature and relative
humidity.
What is Bending moment?

When a moment is applied to bend an element, a bending moment exists in the element
What are the points in the Stress Strain curve for Steel?
Proportional limit, elastic limit or yield point, ultimate stress and stress at failure.
Define Reynolds number.

Reynolds number is the ratio of inertial force and viscous force. It is a dimensionless number.
It determines the type of fluid flow.
What is a Newtonian fluid?

A Newtonian fluid possesses a linear stress strain relationship curve and it passes through the
origin. The fluid properties of a Newtonian fluid do not change when any force acts upon it.
How many Joules is 1 BTU?

1 BTU is equal to 1055.056 joules.
What is PS?
PS is Pferdestarke, the German unit for Horsepower.
Explain Otto cycle.

Otto cycle can be explained by a pressure volume relationship diagram. It shows the
functioning cycle of a four stroke engine. The cycle starts with an intake stroke, closing the
intake and moving to the compression stroke, starting of combustion, power stroke, heat
exchange stroke where heat is rejected and the exhaust stroke. It was designed by Nicolas
Otto, a German engineer.
Explain the nomenclature of a 6203-ZZ bearing.

6 is the type code, which shows it is a single-row ball bearing, 2 is the series, means light, 03
is the bore, which is 17 mm and ZZ is the suffix meaning double shielded bearing.
What is Gear ratio?

It is the ratio of the number of revolutions of the pinion gear to one revolution of the idler
gear.
What is Annealing?
It is a process of heating a material above the re-crystallization temperature and cooling after
a specific time interval. This increases the hardness and strength if the material.
Define Torque.
Torque is defined as a force applied to an object that results in rotational motion.
What is Ductile-Brittle Transition Temperature?

It is the temperature below which the tendency of a material to fracture increases rather than
forming. Below this temperature the material loses its ductility. It is also called Nil Ductility
Temperature.
Based on engineering methods, mechanical engineers provide efficient solutions to processes and
products, in a variety of fields and industries.
They supervise installation, testing, operation and maintenance to ensure that products, usually mechanical
equipment, function according to engineering specs.
The required skills for these engineers are: team player, creativity, highly innovative, naturally science/math
oriented, and excellent communication skills.
The education/qualifications requirements are: Bsc. /Msc. in mechanical engineering. MBA is an
advantage, as are other advanced degrees in specialized engineering fields and documented engineering
experience.
Mechanical Engineer
Job Interview Questions and Answers
Question: Tell me about yourself. As a mechanical engineer, are you experienced in design work,
research and development, manufacturing, installation and final commissioning?
Answer: If you worked across a variety of projects stages as listed above, describe your involvement in
these projects.
Question: Have you been involved in managing or leading a team or projects?
Answer: If you did, relate some of your managerial experience; highlight how your background as a
project/team manager can benefit the prospective employer.
Question: What type of mechanical engineering projects have you supervised or engineered?
Answer: Mechanical engineers can work in many industries and each may bring useful related experience
to the table. As a candidate, indicate your significant involvement in any related field, such as research and
development in any sector. For example, discuss your experience in power, mechanical devices,
construction, maintenance and any other industry.
Question: When designing/planning projects and products, have you considered issues such as cost
effectiveness, time on market, safety, reliability and QA?
Answer: As an experienced mechanical engineer, you must have worked on these aspects and surely can
provide details of your experience, in:
Solving complex mechanical issues.
Developing production processes.
Ensuring product reliably and performance under specific operating environments.
Managing projects under standardized engineering principles/techniques.
Question: Describe an innovative project you developed or key product element that you designed.
Answer: Speak enthusiastically about any unique approach you took to develop a mechanism or new
system. Explain the steps/methods you utilized to enhance production, or freshen perspectives, enabling
superior development of specific elements. Relate any creative ideas you initiated for providing practical
solutions or any innovative solutions to complex issues.
Question: What type of mechanical tools do you utilize in your day to day work?
Answer: Mechanical engineer incorporate computer-aided engineering (CAE) programs into their
design/analysis processes, including 2D/3D solid modeling computer-aided design (CAD) or computeraided manufacturing (CAM). Explain your knowledge and experience with these tools and any others.
1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR U.S. CITIZENS
General
What is a security clearance?
A security clearance is a determination by the United States Government that a person or
company is eligible
for access to classified information. The term eligibility for access means the same thing as
security
clearance and appears in some Government record systems. There are two types of
clearances: Personnel
Security Clearances (PCLs) and Facility Security Clearances (FCLs).
What are the security clearance levels?
Security clearances can be issued by many United States Government agencies, including the
Department of
Defense (DoD), the Department of Homeland Security, the Department of Energy (DoE), the
Department of
Justice, and the Central Intelligence Agency. DoD, which issues more than 80% of all
clearances, and most
other agencies have three levels of security clearances:
Confidential
Secret
Top Secret
DoE primarily issues L, and Q Access Authorizations, which are roughly equivalent to
Secret and Top Secret
clearances, respectively.
What was DISCO and DOHA?
The Defense Industrial Security Clearance Office (DISCO) was part of the Defense Security
Service (DSS), an
agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISCO processed and adjudicated Personnel
Security Clearances
(PCL) and Facility Security Clearances (FCL) for defense contractor personnel and defense
contractor facilities.
The Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA) worked with DISCO and adjudicated the
most problematic
DISCO cases. Previously DISCO/DOHA was one of nine Central Adjudication Facilities (CAFs)
within DoD.
What is DoDCAF?
In summer 2011 all nine DoD Central Adjudication Facilities relocated to a new building on
Fort Meade, Md.
Between August 2012 and January 2013 six of these CAFs (Army CCF, DoNCAF, AFCAF,
JCSCAF, WHSCAF, and
DISCO/DOHA consolidated into one DoDCAF. The new CAF will have full operational capability
by September
2013, including responsibility for Employment Suitability and HSPD-12 credentialing
determinations. There has
been no decision regarding consolidation of the remaining three CAFs (NSA, DIA, and NGA).
They will continue
to remain separate entities while the matter is being studied.
What type of information is requested on a security clearance application?
The application form, Standard Form 86SF86 (Questionnaire for National Security Positions),
requires
personal identifying data, as well as information regarding citizenship, residence, education,
and employment
history; family and associates; and foreign connections/travel. Additionally, it asks for
information about
Security Clearance Frequently Asked Questions
Questions and answers related to US Government security clearances, including those
administered under
the National Industrial Security Program (NISP), and compiled by
ClearanceJobs.com.1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS
FOR U.S. CITIZENS
criminal records, illegal drug involvement, financial delinquencies, mental health counseling,
alcohol-related
incidents and counseling, military service, prior clearances and investigations, civil court
actions, misuse of
computer systems, and subversive activities. The number of years of information required on
the form varies
from question to questionmany require 7 years, some require 10 years, and others are not
limited to any
period of time.
How long does a clearance remain in effect?
Generally as long as cleared individuals remain employed by a cleared contractor or
government agency and
are reasonably expected to require access to classified information, their personnel security
clearance will
remain in effect, provided they comply with Periodic Reinvestigation requirements.
When is a clearance terminated?
A clearance is terminated when a person permanently leaves a position for which the
clearance was granted.
Cleared individuals who no longer require access to classified information, but who remain
continuously
employed by the same cleared contractor (or government agency) and do not anticipate
future access can
have their clearances administratively downgraded or withdrawn until such time that they
require access
again, provided their security clearance investigation has not expired. Under such
circumstances the clearance
can be administratively restored.
What do the terms active, current, and expired mean?
People either have a clearance or they dont have a clearance. The Personnel Security
Investigation (PSI) on
which the clearance is based can be either current or expired. PSIs are current if they are
not more than
five years old for a Top Secret clearance, 10 years old for a Secret clearance, or 15 years old
for a Confidential
clearance. Generally, if the PSI is out-of-date (expired) or there has been a break-in-service of
two years or
more, a person must be nominated for a new clearance, complete a new application, and
undergo a new PSI.
People commonly use the terms active, current, and expired to mean:
Activea clearance that has not been terminated.
Currenta terminated clearance that is still eligible for reinstatement.
Expireda terminated clearance that is no longer eligible for reinstatement.
Can a clearance be reinstated after it has been terminated?
Yes. If a person previously had a clearance and the investigation is still current, the clearance
can be
reinstated by the agency that originally granted the clearance or it can be accepted and
reciprocally granted
by a different agency, provided there hasnt been a break-in-service of two years or more.
This can be done
without the individual submitting a new SF86; however, for clearances involving special
access authorizations
a new SF86 can be required if there has been a break-in-access of more than 60 days or if a
polygraph
examination is required.
What is an interim security clearance?
An interim clearance (also known as interim eligibility) is based on the completion of
minimum investigative
requirements and granted on a temporary basis, pending the completion of the full
investigative requirements
for the final clearance. Interim Secret clearances can be granted in a few days once the
clearance granting
authority receives a properly completed SF86. Interim Top Secret clearances take one or two
months longer.
Interim clearances can be declined, if unfavorable information is listed on the SF86. All
industrial applicants 1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS
FOR U.S. CITIZENS
(defense contractor personnel) are considered for interim clearances. Interim clearances can
be withdrawn at
any time significant unfavorable information is developed during the investigation. It is not
possible to appeal
the declination or withdrawal of an interim clearance, and the CAF is not required to provide a
reason for the
declination/withdrawal. Effective 1 August 2012 the term declined was replaced by the term
Eligibility
Pending, which has the same effect as the declination of an interim clearance.
With some exceptions an interim clearance permits a person to have access to classified
material at all levels
of classification up to the level of the interim clearance granted. Interim Secret clearances are
not sufficient
for access to special categories of classified information, such as COMSEC, Restricted Data,
and NATO. Interim
Top Secret clearances are sufficient for access to most Top Secret information and to COMSEC,
NATO, and
Restricted Data at the Secret and Confidential levels only.
Getting a Clearance
Can I obtain a security clearance on my own?
No. You must be sponsored by a cleared contractor or a Government agency. To be sponsored
you must be
employed (or hired as a consultant) in a position that requires a clearance. As an exception, a
candidate for
employment may be submitted for a clearance if the employer has made an offer of
employment and the
candidate has accepted the offer. Both the offer and acceptance must be in writing. The offer
of employment
from a cleared contractor must indicate that employment will begin within 30 days of
receiving the clearance.
Can a Naturalized Citizen get a Personnel Clearance?
Yes. The source of US citizenship does not make a difference for security clearance eligibility.
Can non-US citizens obtain security clearances?
No. Non-US citizens cannot obtain a security clearance; however, they may be granted a
Limited Access
Authorization (LAA). LAAs are grant in those rare circumstances where the non-US citizen
possesses unique or
unusual skill or expertise that is urgently needed to support a specific US Government
requirement involving
access to specified classified information (no higher than Secret), and a cleared or clearable
US citizen is not
readily available.
Personnel Security Clearances (PCL)

Who issues clearances?
The Department of Defense Central Clearance Facility (DoDCAF) at Fort Meade, Md. issues
Personnel
Clearances (PCL) for most DoD civilians, military personnel, and contractor personnel.
Previously the DISCO
issued clearances to most defense contractor personnel; however, DISCO was consolidated
into DoDCAF in
October 2012. Other DoD agencies that issue clearances are DIA, NGA, and NSA. Other
Executive Branch
departments that issue PCLs include the departments of Energy, State, Homeland Security,
Transportation,
Agriculture, Labor, Commerce, Treasury, Justice, Interior, Housing and Urban Development,
Veterans Affairs,
Health and Human Services, and Veterans Affairs. Many component agencies of these
departments, as well as
independent agencies (i.e. CIA, OPM, EPA, GAO, FCC, USITC, etc.), issue clearances. Clearance
determinations
are based on completed personnel security investigations (PSI) using the Adjudicative
Guidelines for
Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Information.1.877.386.3323
www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR U.S. CITIZENS
How much does it cost to get a PCL?
At this time, there is no direct charge for a PCL issued by DoD and most other federal
agencies.
What is a collateral clearance?
The term collateral clearance is used to describe a security clearance without any special
access authorizations.
What is a special access authorization?
Access to classified defense information is based on an appropriate level of security clearance
(Confidential, Secret or Top Secret) and a need-to-know. Need-to-know can be either a
formal
or an informal determination. All classified defense information exists within one of these two
need-to-know domainsformal or informal. Information that exists within the domain of
informal
need-to-know determinations is referred to as collateral classified information. Information

that
requires a formal need-to-know determination (also known as a special access authorization)
exists
within Special Access Programs (SAP), including Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI)
and Restricted
Data (RD).
Acronyms such as ATOMAL, CNWDI, COMSEC, COSMIC, CRYPTO, NOFORN, ORCON, SAP, SCI,
RD, SIOP-ESI,
SPECAT, SIOP-ESI, etc., are not clearances. They are categories of classified information, some
of which have
extra need-to-know restrictions or require special access authorizations. For example, COSMIC
stands for
Control of Secret Material in an International Command. COSMIC Top Secret is the term used
for NATO Top
Secret Information. There are many such markings (caveats) stamped or printed on classified
material, but
most are only acronyms denoting special administrative handling procedures.
How can I be granted Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) access?
Since SCI encompasses several categories of compartmented information, CAFs grant
eligibility for access
to SCI. In order to be considered for SCI eligibility, a cleared individual must first be nominated
for an
SCI billet and approved by the government agency that controls the information. Once this
eligibility has
been established, a person can be granted a special access authorization for a specific
category of
information within SCI. SCI access eligibility is divided into 3 sensitivity levels and each has a
different
investigative requirement:
SSBI without polygraph
SSBI with Counterintelligence Scope polygraph
SSBI with Full Scope polygraph
What is a Special Access Program (SAP)?
A SAP is defined as: a program established for a specific class of classified information that
imposes
safeguarding and access requirements that exceed those normally required for information at
the same
classification level. Technically, SCI is a SAP. Some SAPs are referred to as black programs,
the very
existence of which can be classified.
Can you get an interim eligibility for access for SCI/SAP?
Interim access eligibility for Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) and Special Access
Programs (SAP) are
granted under very limited circumstances.1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com
SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR U.S. CITIZENS
Clearance Process
What are the steps to getting a Personnel Clearance (PCL)?
For DoD clearances a cleared contractor or Government agency identifies an employee with a
need to have
access to classified information. Once identified, the contractors Facility Security Officer
(FSO) or the
Government agencys Security Officer (SO) submits an investigation request through the Joint
Personnel
Adjudication System (JPAS) and ensures that the employee completes a clearance application
in the Electronic
Questionnaires for Investigations Processing (e-QIP). The FSO or SO then reviews, approves,
and forwards the
completed e-QIP to the DoDCAF for their approval, issuance of an interim clearance, and
release to Office
of Personnel Management (OPM). OPM conducts an investigation and sends the results of the
investigation to
DoDCAF. DoDCAF either grants a clearance or issues a Letter of Intent to deny clearance.
Clearances for other
federal agencies are processed in essentially the same manner, but can involve a different
Investigation Service
Provider (ISP).
How are security clearance investigations carried out?
A National Agency Check (NAC), police record checks, and credit check are components of all
clearance
investigations. When possible these are done centrally by an Investigation Service Provider
(ISP), like OPM.
Some police record checks must be done locally by field investigators. For investigations
requiring other record
checks, reference interviews, and/or a Subject Interview, tasking is sent from the ISP
simultaneously to field
investigators (either federal agents or contract investigators) in all locations involved. If the
investigation
develops information that requires further action in another location, tasking is sent from the
investigator that
developed the information to another field office. Investigative reports are electronically
submitted as the
work is completed. When all reports have been received at the ISP, the case is reviewed for
completeness,
and then forwarded to the appropriate Central Adjudication Facility (CAF).
How long does it take to process a security clearance?
In April 2012 DISCO reported average end-to-end processing time of 99 days for the fastest
90% of defense
contractor Top Secret clearances and 52 days for Secret clearances.
With some exceptions most federal agencies are completing the fastest 90% of all initial
clearances (Secret
and Top Secret) close to the average of 60 days as required by the 2004 Intelligence Reform
and Terrorism
Prevention Act (IRTPA). This average for the fastest 90% can include cases that take up to
about 180 days.
The remaining 10% can take from 6 months to over a year.
Will my clearance be granted faster because I had a clearance three years ago?
No. A new application with need to be submitted and a completely new investigation will need
to be
conducted and adjudicated.
Will my clearance be granted faster, if I have immediate family members who have
clearances?
No.
Why does it take so long to get a clearance?
Compared to a few years ago, the vast majority of clearances are now being completed much
faster than
they previously were, but some clearances continue to take a long time. For these cases part
of the answer
involves the applicant and requires a better understanding of the process. There are three
phases to clearance 1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS
FOR U.S. CITIZENS
processing: 1) application initiation, 2) investigation, and 3) adjudication. In the past most
clearance delays
occurred during the investigation phase. Due primarily to a significant increase in the number
of investigators,
the average time for investigations has been significantly reduced. Today most of the delays
in getting a
clearance occur in the application initiation phase and the adjudication phase. The problems
that cause these
delays are:
1. The applicant is not available for a Subject Interview
2. Missing or inaccurate data on security clearance application forms
3. Problems involving fingerprint submission
4. Serious security/suitability issues
5. Queuing time
Problem #1 occurs during the investigation phase and is usually due to the applicant being
out of the country.
If the applicant is in a war zone, the Subject Interview is usually conducted when the applicant
returns to the
United States. There can also be substantial delays when an applicant is in a location, such as
Germany, Japan,
Great Britain, or South Korea.
Problems #2 and #3 occur primarily at the application initiation phase and can result in an
application being
rejected by the CAF or ISP and returned to the requestor. About 10% to 12% of all clearance
applications are
rejected. This can result in delays of 30 to 60 days. Reviews of applications at the CAF and at
the ISP before
an investigation is opened can only discover obvious errors and omissions. These reviews do
not discover wrong
addresses, telephone numbers and dates, nor do they discover omitted foreign travel,
relatives, residences,
employment or education. These errors and omissions are only discovered during the
investigation phase where
the case can also be delayed.

Problems #4 and #5 occur primarily at the adjudication phase and can result in much longer
delays. Serious
issues may require additional information or investigation. When a CAF requests additional
information or
investigations, it can delay a case for months. A certain amount of queuing time is necessary
for efficient
operations, but when there is a backlog of cases with major issues, queuing time becomes
excessive.
What can I do to speed up the process of getting a clearance?
1. Download a printable copy of the application form (Standard Form 86SF86) from the OPM
website.
Complete the printed copy of the SF86, before attempting to complete the electronic (e-QIP)
version
online. You will save yourself a lot of time and frustration.
2. Provide complete and accurate information. Too often applicants fail to list short-term
employment,
residence, education, and other seemingly unimportant information. When an investigation
turns up
missing or discrepant information, it adds extra time to the investigation. Among other things,
failure
to list the organization that is sponsoring your clearance as you current employer will cause
your
application to be rejected.
3. Postal Zip Codes are critical. A wrong Zip Code can result in part of your investigation being
sent to the
wrong investigative office, and the case could languish for days before the error is noticed.
Get Zip
Codes at https://www.usps.com/zip4/.
4. Get a free credit report from www.annualcreditreport.com and review it before completing
an SF86.
Something you were unaware of may appear on the report and cause delays.1.877.386.3323
5. When entering the Name of Person Who Knew You in the Residence Section of the SF86,
try to list
neighbors. Avoid listing relatives in any section of the SF86, except Section 17Marital Status
and
Section 18Relatives.
6. Dont indicate dual citizenship just because you were born in a foreign country, unless you
are certain
you have dual citizenship. Go to www.opm.gov/extra/investigate/IS-01.pdf and check the
citizenship
laws of the foreign county where you were born. If you have dual citizenship, you should
indicate in the
SF86 your willingness to renounce foreign citizenship.
7. If you have a foreign passport due to dual citizenship, arrange with the security office
processing your
clearance to either surrender or destroy the passport. Indicate in the Optional Comments
field of
the e-QIP version of the SF86 that you have either surrendered the passport to the
appropriate security
officer or destroyed it in his/her presence. Obtain a written receipt or a statement from the
security
officer regarding the disposition of your foreign passport. Do not contact any foreign official
regarding
the foreign passport or citizenship, unless you are instructed to do so by a representative of
the
U.S. Government.
8. If you had mental health or substance abuse counseling in the past 7 years, contact the
facility where
the counseling occurred and determine if they will accept a standard government forms for
release
of medical information. If not, get a blank copy of their release and take it with you when you
are
interviewed by an investigator.
9. If you left a job under less than favorable circumstances, explain the situation in the
Optional
Comments field of section of Section 22 of your e-QIP, and give the name and/or position of
the person
who terminated you or asked you to quit.
10. Couch any unfavorable security and suitability information in terms directly applicable to
the mitigating
conditions listed in the Adjudicative Guidelines. The most recent version of the Adjudicative
Guidelines for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Information was issued on
December 29,
2005 and implemented in 2006. There are 13 guidelines covering such things as alcohol
consumption,
drug involvement, financial considerations, criminal conduct, etc. Each provides examples of
potential
disqualifying conditions and mitigating conditions.
Who should I list as references on my clearance application?
There are 4 sections of the clearance application (Where You Have Lived, Where You Went
To School,
Your Employment Activities, and People Who Know You Well) that require names and
contact information
for people who can be interviewed as references. Unless there is no other choice, do not list
any relatives
in these sections. For your residences you should list current and former neighbors. For
employment you
should list current and former supervisors. If you believe the investigator will have trouble
locating a former
supervisor, use the Optional Comments field and add contact information for a former
coworker or second
tier supervisor. For schools you should list former classmates or faculty members who will
remember you.
For People Who Know You Well try to list at least one person who has known you for the past
seven
years and who knows who your other friends are. Try not to list the same person more than
once on your
clearance application.
Will I be interviewed by an investigator?
If you are being investigated for a Top Secret clearance or for a Secret clearance that requires
access
to a designated Special Access Program (SAP), an Enhanced Subject Interview (ESI) is a
regular part of
the investigation. ESIs can also be required in an investigation for a Confidential or Secret
clearance, 1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR U.S.
CITIZENS
if a suitability/security issue is listed on your clearance application or surfaces during the
investigation. A
Special Interview (SPIN) can be required in any investigation, if a previously undisclosed
suitability/security
issue surfaces during an investigation after an ESI was conducted.
What will I be asked during a security clearance interview?
During a ESI, the investigator will cover every item on your clearance application and have
you confirm the
accuracy and completeness of the information. You will be asked about a few matters that are
not on your
application, such as the handling of protected information, susceptibility to blackmail, and
sexual misconduct.
You will be asked to provide details regarding any potential security/suitability issues.
During a SPIN, the investigator will only cover the security/suitability issue(s) that triggered
the SPIN. The
purpose of the SPIN is to afford the applicant the opportunity to refute or to confirm and
provide details
regarding the issue(s).
Should I reveal unfavorable information about myself on the clearance application?
You must answer all questions on the clearance application form truthfully and completely,
but you do not
have to volunteer unfavorable information that is not related to any of the questions on the
form. Many
clearance denials for financial problems, drugs, alcohol, and criminal conduct also involve
providing false
information during the clearance process. Often the act of providing false information is more
serious than
the issues people try to hide. Passage of time is a major mitigating factor for all issues
involving misconduct.
Willfully providing false information on a clearance application or during a Subject Interview is
a serious
criminal offense and is very difficult to mitigate because of the recency of the offense.
What are the most common errors requiring correction before the investigation is opened?
1. Fingerprints not received with required timeframe of 14 days

2. Missing information on employment.
3. Missing information on references (education, employment, and/or character references)
4. Illegible Certification/Release forms
5. Certification/Release forms not meeting date requirements
6. Missing information on relatives
7. Missing Selective Service registration information
8. Incorrect date or place of birth (i.e. information on fingerprint card and SF86 dont match)
9. Missing financial information
10. Missing information on cohabitant
11. Missing information on spouse
12.Incorrect Certification/Release form number
13.Incorrect social security number
How can I find out the status of my clearance application?
For DoD clearances only your security officer may inquire about the status of your security
clearance
application. This can be done by checking the Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)
and/or the Security
and Investigations Index (SII) or by telephoning the DoD Security Service Center at 888-2827682. 1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR U.S.
CITIZENS
How will I be informed when I am granted a clearance?
Normally you will be contacted by your security office, receive a security briefing, and
required to sign a
Classified Information Non-disclosure Agreement, prior to be granted access to classified
information.
What types of things can prevent someone from receiving a security clearance?
With rare exceptions the following will result in a clearance denial:
criminal conviction resulting in incarceration for a period of one year or more
current unlawful use of or addiction to a controlled substance
determined to be mentally incompetent by a mental health professional approved by DoD
discharge or dismissal from the Armed Forces under dishonorable conditions
unwillingness to surrender a foreign passport
Otherwise, the most common reasons for clearance denial are serious repeated financial
problems, intentional
false statements in connection with a clearance investigation, recent illegal drug involvement,
repeated
alcohol abuse, and a pattern of criminal conduct or rule violation. For many people these
issues can be
mitigated, if presented properly during a security interview or in response to a Letter of Intent
to deny
clearance.
The 2005 Adjudicative Guidelines for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified
Information list various
conditions under 13 separate guidelines that could result in clearance denial.
What happens when a security clearance is denied?
When a case contains significant unmitigated derogatory information, the adjudicator issues a
Letter of
Intent (LOI) to deny a clearance. The LOI is a preliminary, tentative decision and will contain
a Statement of
Reasons (SOR) detailing the issues that are the basis of the decision. The LOI contains
instructions on how to
request a copy of the investigative file on which the decision to issue the LOI was based.
Industrial applicants (federal contractor personnel) can submit a written rebuttal to the SOR
and request a
hearing. If the applicant does not rebut the SOR, DoDCAF will deny the clearance. If the
applicant rebuts
the SOR without requesting a hearing, DoDCAF sends the applicant a File of Relevant Material
(FORM) that
will be presented to an Administrative Judge (AJ) for a clearance decision based on the written
record. The
applicant can submit a written response to the FORM, which will also be presented to the AJ. If
the applicant
requests a hearing, the applicant (with or without an attorney or personal representative) may
present
witnesses and other evidence at the hearing. The applicant may also cross-examine witnesses
and challenge
evidence presented by the DoDCAF Department Counsel (an attorney representing DoD). The
AJ makes a
written decision and a copy is sent to the applicant. DoDCAF is then directed to grant or deny
the clearance in
accordance with the AJs decision. If the clearance is denied, the applicant is notified in writing
and advised of
their right to appeal the decision. It is possible that an adjudicator could grant the clearance
after reviewing
the applicants response to the SOR, thus obviating the need to present the case to an AJ.
DoD civilian employees and military personnel can submit a written rebuttal to the SOR, but
they are not
entitled to a hearing. If the applicant does not rebut the SOR, DoDCAF will deny the clearance.
If they submit
a written rebuttal to the SOR, the adjudicator will decide to grant or deny the clearance in
light of information
submitted in the rebuttal. If a decision is made to deny a clearance, the applicant is notified in
writing and
advised of their right to appeal the decision. 1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com
Can I appeal a clearance denial or revocation?
Any applicant may appeal a clearance denial or revocation to the federal agencys threemember Personnel
Security Appeals Board (PSAB). PSAB decisions are made by a majority vote.
Industrial applicants are limited to submitting a written appeal, but the PSAB will not consider
any new
evidence. The appeal must be based on procedural error(s) by the AJ. In industrial cases the
DoD Department
Counsel can appeal the favorable decision of an AJ. The PSAB issues a written decision
addressing the material
issues raised on appeal and a copy is sent to both parties. The PSAB can affirm, reverse, or
remand a case to
the original AJ with instructions for further review. If the original decision is reversed or
affirmed, the decision
of the PSAB is final.
DoD civilian employees and military personnel have the choice of submitting a written appeal
with supporting
documents directly to their PSAB or requesting a personal appearance before an AJ. In either
case new
evidence can be submitted. Those who choose to appear before an AJ are permitted to explain
their case
(with or without an attorney or personal representative), submit supporting documents, and

present witnesses,
but it is not a hearing and there is usually no opposing counsel. The AJ evaluates all the
information and
makes a written clearance recommendation to the applicants PSAB. The PSAB is not required
to follow the
recommendation of the AJ. The PSAB notifies the applicant of their final decision and includes
reasons for
their decision.
Applicants who are denied a clearance with or without an appeal are barred from applying for
a security
clearance for a period of one year.
What is the EPSQ (Electronic Personnel Security Questionnaire)?
The EPSQ was the only electronic security clearance application used within the DoD until July
2005, when it
was gradually replaced by e-QIP.
What is e-QIP (Electronic Questionnaire for Investigations Processing)?
E-QIP is an Office of Personnel Management (OPM) web-based computer program in which an
applicant
enters the same information as required on the Questionnaire for National Security Positions
(Standard
Form 86SF86). E-QIP became available in July 2005 and slowly replaced the EPSQ. E-QIP
now accounts for
over 95% of all clearance applications.
What is JPAS (Joint Personnel Adjudication System)?
JPAS is the official personnel security clearance database management system for DoD,
including National
Industrial Security Program (NISP) cleared contractors. This system is used for all types of
personnel clearance
actions, including initiating requests for clearance investigations. JPAS is managed by the
Defense Manpower
Data Center (DMDC). For more information, visit the DMDC website.
How can I get a copy of my clearance investigation?
First you must determine who conducted your investigation. The Defense Security Service
(DSS) and the Office
of Personnel Management (OPM) have conducted more than 90% of all clearance
investigations over the past 35
years. Additionally, due to the transfer of the DoD personnel security investigations function
from DSS to OPM
on February 20, 2005, any requests for DSS investigations completed after February 20, 2005
should be sent to
the OPM. DSS only maintains those personnel security investigations completed by DSS prior
to the February
20, 2005 transfer.1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR
U.S. CITIZENS
For OPM investigations mail or fax a request with your hand written signature to:
FOI/P, OPM-FIPC
P.O. Box 618
1137 Branchton Road
Boyers, PA 16018-0618
FAX: 724-794-4590
Include the following information in your request:
Full name
Social Security Number
Date of birth
Place of birth
Current home address (a Post Office Box is not acceptable; the records are sent by certified
mail
and require your signature)
For DSS investigations mail a written request with your original notarized signature to:
Defense Security Service (DSS)
Office of FOIA and Privacy
27130 Telegraph Rd.
Quantico, VA 22134
Include the following information in your request:
Full current name
Any other names you may have used in the past
Date of Birth
Social Security Number
A brief description of the records you are seeking
Any other information that you feel may help in searching for records pertaining to you
Polygraphs
What are polygraphs?
Polygraphs are instruments that measure physiological responses (respiration, pulse, blood
pressure, and
galvanic resistance) to stress. Polygraphs are used to help determine an individuals eligibility
for a special
assignment or access to specifically designated information protected within SAPs. They are
not generally
use for collateral security clearances, unless they are necessary to resolve serious credible
derogatory
information that cannot be resolved through conventional investigative means. Polygraph
examinations are
conducted as a supplement to, not as a substitute for, other forms of investigation that may
be required under
the circumstances. Polygraphs exams are only administered by agencies with approved
personnel security
polygraph programs and these exams are only conducted by government trained and certified
examiners.1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR U.S.
CITIZENS
What are the differences between Counterintelligence, Lifestyle, and Full Scope Polygraphs?
Within the context of security clearances, the purpose of a polygraph exam is to assist in
determining whether
or not an applicant can be trusted with sensitive information. Within DoD, polygraph
screening exams used
to determine initial eligibility for special assignment or special access are limited to two types
of polygraph
exams, and either one or both exams may be administered.
A Counterintelligence Polygraph is the most common type of polygraph exam. A
Counterintelligence Polygraph
asks the candidate questions limited to those necessary to determine whether the examinee
ever had any
involvement with or knowledge of:
Espionage
Sabotage
Terrorist Activities
Deliberate damage of U.S. Government Information Systems
Intentional compromise of U.S. Government Classified Information

Secret contact with a foreign national or representative
A Lifestyle Polygraph asks the candidate questions concerning their personal life and conduct
and can
involve all aspects of present and past behavior. Questions asked might concern drug and
alcohol use, sexual
misconduct, mental health, family relationships, compulsive or addictive behavior, and more.
A Lifestyle
Polygraph can also attempt to look for issues in a persons private life for which he or she
might be susceptible
to blackmail or coercion. DoD Lifestyle Polygraph exam questions cover the following topics.
Involvement in a serious crime
Personal involvement with illegal drugs during the last seven years
Deliberate falsification of the security forms
A Full Scope Polygraph exam is a combination of both the Counterintelligence and Lifestyle
polygraphs
Types of Investigations
NACLC (National Agency Check with Local Agency Checks and Credit Check)
An NACLC is the type of investigation required for a Secret or Confidential clearance for
military and
contractor personnel. It includes a credit bureau report and a review of records held by federal
agencies
and by local criminal justice agencies. It generally does not require an interview with an
investigator. The
investigation routinely covers no more than the past seven years of a persons life or a
shorter period if the
applicant is less than 25 years old.
ANACI (Access National Agency Check with Inquiries)
An ANACI is an investigation required for a Secret or Confidential clearance for new federal
employees. It is
a combination of the National Agency Check with Inquiries (NACI) used for federal
employment suitability and
the NACLC. It includes all the components of an NACLC plus written inquires to past and
present employers,
schools, and references covering the past 5 years.1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com
SSBI (Single Scope Background Investigation)

An SSBI is a more detailed investigation than the NACLC and is required for a Top Secret
clearance, for
Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) access, and for designated Special Access
Programs (SAP) at
the Secret level. It includes an NACLC, an Enhanced Subject Interview (ESI), interviews of
former spouses;
interviews of character, employment, neighborhood, and educational references; reviews of
residence,
employment, and academic records. The investigation routinely covers no more than the past
10 years
of a persons life or a shorter period if the applicant is less than 28 years old.
SSBI-PR (Single Scope Background InvestigationPeriodic Reinvestigation)
An SSBI-PR includes an NACLC, ESI, references interviews, and record reviews, covering at
least the past
five years.
PPR (Phased Periodic Reinvestigation)
In September 2005 OPM made the PPR available as a less comprehensive and less expensive
alternative to the
SSBI-PR. The investigation includes an NACLC, ESI, and limited reference interviews and
record reviews. PPRs
may not be requested when certain questions on the clearance application contain responses
indicating a
possible security or suitability issue.
Interval of Periodic Reinvestigations
People with security clearances must be routinely reinvestigated at set intervals based on the
level of
clearance they possess. A PR is done to ensure that cleared personnel are still suitable for
access to classified
information. The type of reinvestigation and frequency required depend on the level of
clearance:
Top Secret requires an SSBI-PR or PPR every 5 years
Secret requires an NACLC every 10 years
Confidential requires an NACLC every 15 years
In the near future the interval of PRs for Confidential and Secret clearance will change to 5
years. There is
a plan to change the PR interval for Top Secret clearances to 1 year by December 2013.
Reimbursable Suitability Investigation (RSI)
The RSI consists of a focused investigation to provide additional specific information to
resolve developed
issue(s) that fall outside the scope of coverage of other investigative products offered by the
Office of
Personnel Management (OPM).
Trustworthiness Investigation
A trustworthiness investigation is a DoD term used for a background investigation for a
person who is
nominated for non-critical sensitive or critical sensitive national security position that does not
involve
access to classified information. Non-critical sensitive positions require the same investigation
and
reinvestigation required for a Secret clearance and critical sensitive positions require the
same investigation
and reinvestigation required for a Top Secret clearance.
Suitability Investigation
Suitability investigations are conducted on all new federal employees, either immediately
before or shortly
after they are hired. They are also conducted on federal contractor personnel being
considered for Public 1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS
FOR U.S. CITIZENS
Trust positions or a Personal Identity Verification (PIV) card required by Homeland Security
Presidential
Directive 12 (HSPD-12). Within DoD a PIV is called a Common Access Card (CAC).
When based on the submission of an SF86 (Questionnaire For National Security Positions)
rather than an SF85P
(Questionnaire For Public Trust Positions), some suitability investigations are used to
determine eligibility for
both a Public Trust position and a Secret clearance.
Facility Security Clearances (FCL)
What is the National Industrial Security Program (NISP)?
The NISP is the industrial security program that governs the contractual security obligations of
DoD contractors
and contractors of 23 other federal agencies. The Defense Security Service (DSS) has primary
responsibility for
monitoring NISP compliance. All NISP requirements are contained in the National Industrial
Security Program
Operating Manual (NISPOM) and NISPOM supplements.
How does a company get a facility clearance (FCL)?
A company must be sponsored for an FCL by a federal agency or a cleared contractor. A
company cannot
sponsor itself for an FCL. The cleared contract or federal agency requests the FCL when a
definite, classified
procurement need has been established.
How does a cleared contractor sponsor a company for a FCL?
Sponsorship is in the form of a letter to the Facility Clearance Branch of the Defense Security
Service,
requesting that a particular company be processed. The letter provides the prospective
companys name,
address, phone number and point of contact. It should also provide the contract number for
the classified
procurement, a copy of the Contract Security Classification Specification, facility clearance
level needed and
the requestor point of contact and phone number.
What is a DoD Security Agreement (DD Form 441)?
A DD Form 441 is required for an FCL. It is an agreement between the Government and the
contractor. The
the Government agrees to issue the FCL and inform the contractor of the security
classification of information
to which the contractor will have access, and the contractor agrees to abide by the security
requirements set
forth in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM).
What is a Contract Security Classification Specification (DD Form 254), and how does it relate
to a FCL?
A DD Form 254 is issued when classified work is contracted to a facility. It provides the
security classification
and safeguarding requirements to be applied to information. The federal agency or cleared
contractor
issues the 254 to the contracted facility and justifies the need for a FCL. One or more active
DD Form
254 is necessary to maintain an active FCL. The DD Form 254 will determine the level of the
FCL granted
to the company. A companys FCL level must be as high as the highest classification specified
in any of its
DD Forms 254.
What is a DSS Industrial Security Representative (IS Rep.)?
Once sponsored for a FCL, contractors are assigned an IS Rep (a DSS employee). The IS Reps
job is to assist the
contractor in following the requirements of the NISPOM the entire time it is a NISP
participant.1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR U.S.
CITIZENS
What is a DSS inspection/review?
A DSS review is a periodic visit to the contractor facility by a DSS IS Rep. The review is
conducted to assist
the contractor in following the requirements of the NISPOM and ensure that safeguards
employed by the
contractor are adequate for the protection of classified information. The IS Rep determines the
frequency
of such formal reviews, but reviews are normally conducted annually.
Who has to be cleared in connection with a FCL?
A DSS Industrial Security Representative (IS Rep) with the help of the companys POC will
determine which
individuals must be cleared in connection with the FCL. Ordinarily, those who have control
over the company
(e.g., owners, officers, directors, and executive personnel) and the Facility Security Officer
(FSO) must be
cleared. Those individuals cleared in connection with a FCL are called Key Management
Personnel (KMP).
What happens if a controlling officer cannot be cleared in connection with the FCL?
The facility is not eligible for a FCL. The National Industrial Security Program Operating
Manual (NISPOM) has
provisions for excluding certain KMP (but not the senior management official or FSO), if they
are unable
to obtain a clearance. Under this provision there must be a resolution by the companys
executive body
(e.g., Board of Directors) that the named individual will not be provided any classified
information, can be
effectively excluded from access to all classified information, and is not in a position to
adversely affect
the performance of the classified contract. Alternatively, the officer can officially step down
from his or her
position as an officer/director and relinquish control of the facility.
What is a Facility Security Officer (FSO)?
The FSO is a KMP who has responsibility over the facilitys security program. During the time a
facility is
cleared, the FSO is the main POC for the DSS IS Rep.
Does the FSO have to have a personnel clearance? What level?
Yes. The FSO must have a clearance at the same level as the FCL.
How does a company get a Top Secret FCL?
A company must be sponsored for a Top Secret FCL, even if it already has a lower level FCL.
The cleared
contractor or federal agency must follow the same sponsorship procedures, and personnel
clearances for all
KMPs must be upgraded as well.
How much does it cost to get a FCL?
At this time, there is no direct charge for a FCL issued by the Defense Security Service.
What is FOCI (Foreign Ownership, Control or Influence)?
A contractor is determined as having FOCI when under such a level of foreign control or
influence that it
cannot be cleared without a negation method. DSS assists the contractor in selecting a
negation method;
however, some levels of FOCI cannot be negated and the contractor is determined ineligible
for an FCL.
What are SCIFs and SAPFs?
A SCIF (Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility) and a SAPF (Special Access Program
Facility) are
specially constructed facilities to safeguard SCI and SAP information.1.877.386.3323
Who inspects SCIFs and SAPFs?
DSS is responsible for inspections of these facilities, unless they have been specifically
carved out of the NISP
by the Government customer. In such cases the Government customer who approved the
facility and owns the
information inspects the facility.
Security Clearance Jobs
Where can I search for jobs that require a security clearance?
Candidates with active clearances can search for jobs that make use of that clearance at
ClearanceJobs.com
(http://www.ClearanceJobs.com).
If I dont have a security clearance, where can I find job opportunities that dont require a
clearance?
Candidates without clearances can search for jobs that do not require clearances at other
internet-based
career sites like Dice.com (for IT candidates), Rigzone.com (oil & gas professions),
HealthCallings.com
(healthcare professions), and eFinancialCareers.com (finance professions).
Security Clearance Processing
How can I better understand the course of events that have shaped the personnel security
clearance process?
The history is fairly long and complicated. However, certain specific events give a clear
understanding of how
the security clearance process has evolved since 1972, and the difficulties the US
Government has faced.
Its important to recognize that federal security clearance processing does not exist within a
single monolithic
structure with one agency conducting investigations and one agency making clearance
decisions. There are
dozens of federal agencies that process clearances. All agencies use the same basic
procedures and standards
for granting or denying clearances, but many agencies use their own resources to make
clearance decisions.
Most agencies use the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) as their Investigation Service
Provider (ISP),
but many agencies have statutory or delegated authority to use other ISPs or their own
internal investigative
personnel. Consequently there are significant differences in the time it takes to complete a
security clearance.
About 87% of all Personnel Security Investigations (PSIs) are conducted on DoD personnel
(federal employees,
military, and contractors). The next largest are DHS (including its component agencies) at
about 3% and DoE
at about 1.2%. Each of the other agencies processes only a fraction of 1% of the 850,000 PSIs
conducted
each year. Because the DoD personnel security program dwarfs the combined size of all other
federal agency
programs, its necessary to focus on DoD when discussing security clearance processing.
In 1972 the responsibility for Army, Navy, Air Force, and DoD contractor PSIs was transferred
to the newly
created Defense Investigative Service (DIS). A DoD Personnel Security Working Group (PSWG)
published a report
In April 1975 documenting the lack of standardization throughout the personnel security
program. The PSWG
reported that adjudications for collateral clearances were being performed in several
thousand locations
across DoD and repeated criticized the inconsistencies in adjudicative decisions. It also
recommended that the
number of different types of PSIs be reduced. Many of the PSWGs recommendations were
implemented during
the 1970s and 1980s, including the consolidation of several thousand adjudicative offices
into 18 DoD Central
Adjudication Facilities (CAFs). In December 1979 DoD Directive 5200.2, Personnel Security
Program, and its 1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR
U.S. CITIZENS
implementing regulation, DoD 5200.2-R were issue, and for the first time, most of the
elements of personnel
security were standardized throughout DoD. In 1981 the first formal Adjudicative Guidelines
were established
and incorporated into DoD 5200.2-R.
From its inception DIS was understaffed and had 48,000 pending cases (twice its optimum
workload), many
of which were overdue. From 1974 to 1985 its workload increased over 58% with 17% fewer
investigators than
the military had to do the job prior to 1972. A General Accounting Office (GAO) report in 1981
estimated
that delays for initial clearances were costing the Government $920 million a year in lost
productivity. That
same year DIS imposed a moratorium on conducting Periodic Reinvestigations (PRs) for
clearances involving
access to Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI), in order to deal with a large backlog of
requests for
initial investigations. In 1983 it resumed these PRs and also began conducting PRs for
collateral Top Secret
clearances. In 1985 the Stillwell Commission report recommendations resulted in additional
funding for DIS
and PRs for Secret clearances. DIS had about 850 field investigators at the time and began
adding additional
personnel. In 1991 it reached a high point of about 3,100 investigative personnel, including
2,400 field
investigators. However, in anticipation of a reduction in security clearance requests because
of the peace
dividend resulting from the end of the Cold War, a hiring freeze was imposed. A 48%
reduction-in-force
occurred over the following 3 years and left DIS with about 1,600 investigative personnel of
which 1,250 were
field investigators.
During a second reform effort in the 1990s, the number of DoD CAFs was further reduced
from 18 to 8, and
the types of PSIs were reduced to 3. The Single Scope Background Investigation (SSBI)
increased the amount
of investigative work required for Top Secret clearances, and a neighborhood investigation
component
was added to the SSBI-PR. With only half the investigative personnel it previously had, DIS
was forced to
implement a quota system for PRs, restricting the number of requests defense agencies were
allowed to
submit. Nevertheless the backlog of cases at DIS began to grow. In 1998 the new
investigative standards
required by Executive Order 12968 were issued. The implementation of these standards
immediately resulted
in a backlog of 400,000 PRs, most of which were required by the new standards but not yet
submitted to the
Defense Security Service (DSS), which had changed its name from DIS 2 years earlier.
In 2000 DoD began shifting a large portion of security clearance investigations from DSS to
the Office
of Personnel Management (OPM). OPM was previously responsible for conducting federal
employment
suitability investigations (including those for DoD), as well as a relatively small number of
security clearance
investigations for other federal agencies. In 1996 OPM disestablished its Office of Federal
Investigations and
privatized the field portion of that organization through the creation of the US Investigations
Services (USIS)
under an Employee Stock Ownership Plan (ESOP). USIS was awarded a 3-year non-competitive
contract to
conduct investigations for OPM.
Foreshadowing the requirements of the Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act
(IRTPA), the 2004
Defense Authorization Bill directed DoD to begin submitting almost all of its security clearance
investigations
to OPM in early 2004, and DSS investigators began conducting those investigations under
OPM control.
According to a 2004 GAO report, DSS and OPM had a combined investigative staff of 4,200
government and
contractor personnel. OPM estimated that about 8,000 were needed. The average turnaround
time for an SSBI
hit a high of about 396 days.
In December 2004 the IRTPA became law. It required that, to the extent possible, all executive
branch security
clearance investigations be conducted by one agency. It also required that 90% of all security
clearances be
completed in an average of 60 days by December 2009. In January 2005 GAO designated the
DoD Personnel
Security Program as a high-risk program. In March 2005 1,600 federal investigative personnel
officially 1.877.386.3323 www.clearancejobs.com SECURITY CLEARANCE JOBS FOR U.S.
CITIZENS
transferred from DSS to OPM. By the end of 2005 the Federal Investigative Services Division
of OPM increased
its combined contractor and federal work force to about 8,000, including 6,500 field
personnel. By 2008 OPM
investigative staff reached a high of 9,421 personnel, but has declined somewhat since then.
Unlike DSS, which
was an appropriated fund activity, OPM conducts investigations on a fee-for-service basis and
has the authority
to set the prices it charges other Government agencies for the investigations they request.
The combination of
being paid for the investigations it conducted and using contract investigators to do the
majority of the work
afforded OPM the flexibility to rapidly adapt to changes in the number and type of
investigations it conducted.
Gradually the backlog of cases and the average turnaround time for investigations began to
decline.
In early 2007 the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), the Office of the Director of
National Intelligence
(ODNI), OPM and DoD created a Joint Security and Suitability Reform Team (JSSRT) to
completely revamp
and unify the process. The JSSRT issued its initial report in April 2008 outlining a general
framework for near
and long term goals to modernize and streamline security clearance, employment suitability,
and access to
federally-controlled facilities and information systems government-wide. In December 2008
the JSSRT issue a
progress report detailing the changes it initiated and planned to implement over an 18 month
period. Some of
these changes were implemented on schedule, some were delayed, modified, or partially
implemented, and
new changes were added. Full implementation of all the original or modified changes will
probably not occur
until 2014.
The most notable events that have occurred since 2008 are:
Aug 2009 Secure Web Fingerprint Transmission (SWFT), a web-enabled biometric system,
became
available to defense contractors to transmit electronic fingerprints to OPM for security
clearance applicants. Federal contractors will be required to submit all fingerprints via
SWFT by December 2013.
Apr 2010 The Case Adjudication Tracking System (CATS) became operational at all major DoD
Central
Adjudication Facilities. This enabled the electronic transfer of completed investigations
from OPM and conversion of these files to a machine readable format. It resulted in reducing
the transfer time by 50% and permitting electronic adjudication (eAdjudication) of
about 25% of Secret clearance investigations.
Jul 2010 The Defense Central Index of Investigations (DCII) was transferred from DSS to the
Defense
Manpower Data Center (DMDC). This completed the transfer of DoD Personnel Security
IT Systems from DSS to DMDC. Previously the Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS),
the Secure Web Fingerprint Transmission (SWFT), and the improved Investigative Records
Repository (iIRR) were transferred from DSS to DMDC. These systems will eventually be
integrated into the Defense Information Systems for Security (DISS) along with the Industrial
Security Facility Database (ISFD) and Educational Network Registration and On-Line Learning
(ENROL). DISS also provides Automated Records Check (ARC) and eAdjudication functionality
and is the single point of entry for DoD personnel security.
Oct 2010 The Enhanced Subject Interview (ESI) replaced the Personal Subject Interview (PRSI)
as
a standard component of all Single Scope Background Investigations (SSBIs), Background
Investigations (BIs), and Moderate Risk Background Investigations (MBIs). It also partially
replaced the Special Interview (SPIN) required on investigations for Secret clearances when
an interview of an applicant is needed to resolve unfavorable information.1.877.386.3323
Oct 2010 OPM eliminated the Limited Investigation (LI), the Periodic Reinvestigation
Residence
(PRI-R), and the Public Trust Special Background Investigation (PTSBI), which had previously
been used for Public Trust positions.
Feb 2011 The Government Accountability Office (GAO) reported removal of the Department of
Defense (DOD) Personnel Security Program from its list of High Risk Programs, because
of improvements to the program since it was first placed on the list in 2005.
Sep 2011 December 2010 version of the SF86 (Questionnaire for National Security Positions)
was
fully implemented.
Dec 2011 Title 5 Code of Federal Regulations Part 731 (5 CFR 731), Suitability, was changed
to
require Periodic Reinvestigations (PRs) on all covered Public Trust positions at 5-year
intervals. PRs were previously not required by 5 CFR 731.
Aug 2012 Six DoD Central Adjudication Facilities (CAFs) began consolidating into a single a
CAF. The
consolidation is expected to be completed by January 2013. By September 2013 the new
DoDCAF is expected to expand its responsibilities to adjudicating federal employment
suitability and Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 credentialing determinations.
The 3 other DoD CAFs (National Security Agency, Defense Intelligence Agency, and National
Geospatial Intelligence Agency) are not included in the consolidation.
Overall the Government has met the IRTPA timeliness requirement to complete 90% of initial
clearances in
an average of 60 days, but major problems involving reciprocity of security clearances still
exist and a single
integrated database of all security clearances has not been created. OPM has significantly
reduced the time it
takes to conduct investigations, but the quality of investigations has declined and increased
the time required
to adjudicate problematic cases.
In 2013 the interval for Periodic Reinvestigations (PRs) for Confidential and Secret clearances
will be shortened
to 5 years, and in 2014 PRs for Top Secret clearances will be conducted annually. The scope of
an investigation
for a Top Secret clearance will change significantly. There will be a greater reliance on a
combination of
commercial and government database searches and a reduction in the number and type of
interviews and
record checks conducted by field investigators.

Mechanical Engineering Questions and Answers

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Mechanical Engineering Questions and Answers

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Mechanical Engineering Questions and Answers:

46 :: What are the differences between pneumatics and hydraulics?

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49 :: Why would you use hydraulics rather than pneumatics?

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Mechanical Design Engineer Interview Questions | Job

(1) Pitot tube is used for measurement of

(2) Slow plastic deformation of material under constant stress is

(d) Elastic deformation

(3) Mass balancing is done to

(4) Short columns are preferred over long columns from

(5) Centre of pressure of an aerofoil with an increase of angle of attack will

(d) None of the above

(7) A closed cycle gas turbine works on

(8) A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by

(d) None of the above

(9) Stress concentration factor is defined as ratio of

(b) Nominal stress to endurance limit

(10) Principle effect of humidity is

(12) Teflon is used for bearings because of

(a) Low co-efficient of friction

(13) When two elastic bodies collide with each other

(14) Antifriction bearings are

(15) What is Hertzian stress?

(a) Tensile stress on inner surface of cylinder

(17) What size of material required for making rolled threads?

(a) Pitch diameter

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Job Interview Questions And Answers | Work Interview

1. Normalizing operation is carried out in

2. The main purpose of heat treatment of steels is to change the

9. During manufacturing of spring, the coiling pitch is assumed to be larger than

Ans.: d) Abrasive action of the chip

13. Crater wear is predominant in

b) Tungsten carbide tools

Ans.: b) Tungsten carbide tools

Ans.: d) Cutting tool used in a slotting machine

b) between the shear plane and the direction of tool travel

Ans.: b) Clearance angle

Ans.: d) Reduce the magnitude of cutting forces

a) Zero rack angle

Ans.: a) Zero rack angle

Ans.: a) Tool life increases

Ans.: d) Is a numerical method of tool identification

22. The cutting speed of a tool refers to

25. Tool life may be measured by the

Ans.: e) Any one of the above

e) Skill of the operator

Ans.: a) Cutting speed

2. Which pump is more efficient Centrifugal pump or Reciprocating pump?

3. Why Centrifugal Pump is not called as a Positive Displacement Type of Pump?

4. Why the centrifugal pump is called high discharge pump?

What is a radial-flow turbine?

What are four types of turbine seals?

Labyrinth mated with shaft serrations or shaft seal strips.

What are two types of clearance in a turbine?

Radial clearance at the tips of the rotor and casing.

What is the function of a thrust bearing?

The machine is overloaded.

The exhaust pressure is too high.

The governor is set too low.

The steam strainer is clogged.