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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper

1984
1. The velocity of light in a medium is 2

1010 cms/sec. The refractive index of the

medium is
1) 1.4
2) 2.3
3) 1
4) 1.5
2. If Cg, Cw, Cv are velocities of light in glass , water and vacuum, then the correct
relation is
1) Cw = Cg = Cv
2) Cg< Cv, Cw > Cg
3) Cv > Cg, Cg > Cw
4) Cg = Cw,
Cw > Cg
3. If C1 and C2 are the velocities of light in two media and the respective angles of
incidence and refraction are 1 and 2, then the correct relation is
1) C1 cosec 1 = C2 cosec 2
2) C1 cot 1 = C2 cot 2
3) C1 tan 1 = C2 tan 2
4) C1 sin 1 = C2 sin 2
4. The critical angle for a medium is 450, the refractive index is
1) 1/

2)

3)

4) 2/

5. Total internal reflection takes place when light passes from


1) Water to glass
2) glass to diamond
3) air to water 4) glass to air
6. The brilliance of diamond is
1) entirely due to refractive index
2) entirely due to total internal reflection
3) partly due to total internal reflection
4) none of the above
7. The focal length of an equiconvex lens ( = 1.5) is 30 cms. The radii of curvature of
the faces are respectively
1) 15, 30
2) 14, 28
3) 30, 30
4) 15, 15
8. A travelling microscope is focussed on an ink dot. When a glass slab ( = 1.5) of
thickness 9 cm. is introduced on the dot , the travelling microscope has to be
moved by
1) 3 cms. Upwards 2) 5 cms. Upwards
3) 3 cms. downwards 4) 5 cms.
downwards
9. A lens of power +2D and a lens of power -1D are kept in contact. The combination
behaves as
1) a lens of power +3D
2) a lens of power -3D
3) a lens of power +1D
4) a lens of power -1D
10. Two lenses of power +2D and -5D are kept in contact. The focal length of the
combination is
1) -1/3m
2) 1/3m
3) 3m
4) -3m
11. A swimmer is inside a tank. Supposing that the surface is calm, the swimmer, when
looking up sees the outside with an angular separation of

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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper


12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

1) 400
2) 900
3) 980
4) 1010
Mirages are observed on some days when
1) density of air increases with height
2) density of air decreases with height
3) earth acts like a mirror
4) air is dense uniformly
The angles of a total reflecting prism are
1) 450, 500, 850
2) 450, 450, 900
3) 900, 900, 900
4) 450, 450,
450
The angles of incidence and emergence of an equilateral prism are 500 and 400, the
angle of deviation is
1) 400
2) 500
3) 600
4) 300
when the deviation of yellow line of a spectrum is minimum, then the refracted
ray is ( in a prism)
1) Parallel to base 2) perpendicular to base
3) both
4) none of
these
An object is placed at a distance 18 cms. from a convex lens. The image is formed
at a distance of 9 cms. The focal length of the lens is
1) 6 cms
2) 9 cms
3) 10 cms
4) 18 cms
The focal length of a lens is 5 cms. If the least distance of distinct vision is 25 cms,
then magnification is
1) 20
2) 10
3) 6
4) 1
The focal length of a convex lens of radii of curvature 20 cms and 30 cms is 24. Its
refractive index is
1) 1.0
2) 1.3
3) 1.5
4) 2.4
Two lenses of powers +2D and -6D are kept in combination. Focal length of the
combination is
1) -0.25 m
2) 0.25 m
3) 2.5 m
4) -0.025 m
An air bubble in water behaves as
1) a convex lens
2) a concave lens
3) a convex mirror
4) a
concave mirror
A Galilean telescope consists of
1) a concave and convex lens
2) 2 convex lenses
3) 2 concave lenses
4) a plano-convex and a biconvex lens
The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is 15. If the focal length of
objective is 90 cm, then focal length of eye piece is
1) 5/30 cm
2) 1 cm
3) 6 cm
4) 1350 cms
In a compound microscope, the magnification is maximum when focal length of
objective is
1) large
2) small
3) equal to that of eye piece
4) none of these

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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper


24. A spectrometer consists of
1) prism table
2) collimator 3) telescope
4) all the above
25. The principle used in the Direct Vision Spectroscope is
1) dispersion without deviation
2) dispersion with deviation
3) deviation without dispersion
4) deviation with dispersion
26. Optical fibers are used in
1) polarimeter
2) photometer 3) voltmeter 4) gastroscope
27. The rays of light travelling from a distant object are incapable of converging at a
common point after refraction through a thin lens; this fact is known as
1) spherical aberration
2) chromatic aberration
3) invisibility
4) astigmatism
28. Band spectrum is emitted by
1) atoms
2) ions
3) gases
4) molecules
29. A metal which emits colours when heated to certain temperature absorbs the
same colours when cooled. This was said by
1) Fraunhofer
2) Taylor
3) C.V. Raman 4) Kirchhoff
30. Fraunhofer lines indicate
1) presence of certain elements in interior of sun
2) presence of certain elements in exterior of sun
3) absence of certain elements in interior of sun
4) absence of certain elements in exterior of sun
31. The explanation for presence of Fraunhofer lines was given by
1) Kirchhoff 2) Fraunhofer 3) Leibig
4) Layman
32. Helium was discovered in suns atmosphere by analysing
1) Mayerhoff bands 2) Fraunhofer lines
3) spectrum
4) spectrometer
33. The wavelength of infrared rays is
1) greater than that of visible light
2) less than that of visible light
3) greater or lesser, depending on the source
4) none of these
34. Light is not transmitted through two nicols if
1) their shorter diagonals are parallel
2) their shorter diagonals are perpendicular
3) their longer diagonals are parallel
4) their longer diagonals are perpendicular
35. The specific rotation of an optically active substance of length l cm and
concentration of c with an optical rotation of is given by
1) l c/10
2) lc/10
3) 10/lc
4) 10/lc
36. Unit of Luminous Intensity is (in SI units)
1) Lux
2) Phot
3) Candela
4) weber

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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper


37. A source of 10 CP is placed at a distance of 1 cm; then the intensity of illumination
is
1) 10 Lux
2) 10 cm candles or phot
3) 10 ft. candles
4) 10 C.P.
38. When light pass through a>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
1) refracted
2) reflected
3) undeviated 4) none of these
39. When light incident on a refracting surface is polarized by reflection then angle
between the refracted and reflected ray is
1) 450
2) 480
3) 900
4) 980
40. Waves that cannot be polarized are
1) longitudinal
2) transverse 3) electromagnetic
4) light
41. The planes of vibration and polarization are
1) orthogonal
2) parallel
3) non-existent 4) orthogonal and parallel
42. The correct expression relating polarizing angle and refractive index is
1) sin ip =1
2) cot ip =1 3) tan ip =1 4) cosec ip =1
43. The specific rotation of a liquid of length 10 cm, concentration 2 gm/cc is 400 .The
angle of rotation is
1) 100
2) 700
3) 800
4) 900
44. In calcite, double refraction doesnt take place
1) perpendicular to optic axis
2) along optic axis
3) both perpendicular to and along the optic axis
4) transversely
45. An example for a diamagnetic substance is
1) copper
2) iron
3) nickel
4) aluminium
46. The charges on a body can be detected with
1) electroscope
2) electrometer 3) voltmeter 4) ammeter
47. When a glass plate is introduced in between two charged bodies, the force
between them
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains the same
4) becomes zero
48. The electric potential at a point at a distance r from a charge q is E. When the
charge q is replaced by a charge 4q the potential at the same point will be
1) same
2) 1/2E
3) 2E
4) 4E
49. A force repulsion is felt by a charge in front of a charged plate, keeping the distance
and the charge constant. The interspace is filled with wax; then
1) the force of repulsion changes to force of attraction
2) the force of repulsion increases
3) the force of repulsion gets lowered
4) the force of attraction increases or decreases
50. Four charges of magnitude 2 esu, 8 esu, 5 esu and -10 esu are placed at corners of
a square ABCD of side 2 cm. The potential at the centre is
1) 5/

units

units

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2) 10

units

3) 4.5/

units

4) -10

Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper


51. If the distance between the plates of a parallel plate condenser is increased, then
capacity
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remains same
4) none
52. When a dielectric medium is introduced between two charged plates then capacity
1) decreases
2) increases
3) remains same
4) none
53. Two condensers of capacities 2 F and 3 F are connected in series. Two more
condensers of capacity 4/5 F is connected in parallel with the combination; the
effective capacity is
1) 29/20 F
2) 20/29 F
3) 2 F
4) 1 F
54. Two condensers of capacities 5 and 10 F are connected in series. Two more
condensers of capacities 2 and 4 F are separately connected in series. Then, if the
two combinations are connected in parallel the effective capacity is
1) 13/3 F
2) 14/3 F
3) 3/14 F
4)
3/13 F
55. Charges present on clouds are due to
1) motion of water drops
2) earths magnetic field
3) lightning
4) movement of the cloud
56. The p.d. across resistance of 1 is 1 V, then the current is
1) 1 amp
2) 10 emu
3) 10 amp
4) 1
emu
57. The resistance of a conductor is
1) Directly proportional to area of across-section
2) Inversely proportional to length of conductor
3) Directly proportional to length of conductor
4) Inversely proportional to temperature of conductor
58. The specific resistance of a wire of length 1 m, area of cross-section 0.5 m2 is 25
micro-ohm. The resistance of the wire is
1) 2 106
2) 6 105
3) 3 106
4) 5
10-5

59. The emf of a cell is 1.5 volts and when it is connected to an external resistance of
value 2 ohms the current in the circuit is 0.2 amp. The internal resistance of the cell
would be
1) 0.25 ohm
2) 5.5 ohm
3) 1 ohm
4) 2 ohm
60. The emf of a cell (internal resistance 6 ) is 12 V. If this is connected to an
external resistance 6 , then p.d. across it is
1) 6 V
2) 0.6 V
3) 1/6 V
4) 1/60 V
61. If E is the emf of a cell of internal resistance r and external resistance R, then
p.d. across R is given as
1) V = E/(1 + r)
2) V = ER/(R + r)
3) V = E/(1 + r/R)
4) V = E/(1 + R/r)

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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper


62. If n batches of m cells are connected in parallel with a cell of emf E, then current
through external resistance ( R), internal resistance ( r) is given by
1) I = mnE/(mr + nR)
2) I = mnE/(mR + nr)
3) I = (mE/n)/(mR + nr)
4) I = (nE/m)/(mr + nR)
63. The algebraic sum of products of current and resistance in a closed electrical path
is equal to
1) total emf in that path
2) total resistance in that path
3) total current in that path
4) None of these
64. If the resistance of a wire t 00 and 1000C are 8 and R find (a = 0.0008/0C)
1) 0.8064
2) 8064
3) 80.64
4) 8.64
65. The current that flows through a conductor of length 1 cm bent in the form of
an arc of a circle of radius 2 cm to produce a magnetic field of strength 0.1
oersted at its centre is
1) 1 amp
2) 4 amp
3) 1/2 amp
4) 0.1 amp
66. The direction of motion of a conductor carrying current due to a magnetic field
is given by
1) Flemings left hand rule
2) Flemings right hand rule
3) Laplaces rule
4) Herberts rule
67. The sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer can be increased by using
1) more number of turns
2) a thinner suspension
3) both of above
4) none of these
68. In converting a galvanometer to an ammeter
1) a high resistance is connected in series
2) a high resistance is connected in parallel
3) a low resistance is connected in parallel
4) a low resistance is connected in series
69. In an ideal voltmeter, the resistance is
1) very high
2) near to zero
3) very low
4) none of
these
70. Thermistor is
1) a resistor
2) a thermally sensitive resistor
3) An adiabatic resistor
4) None of these
71. When current flows through a conductor, heat is produced; this is
1) Seebeck Effect
2) Thompson Effect

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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper

72.

73.

74.

75.

3) Peltier Effect
4) Joule Effect
The emf developed in a circuit opposes the cause to which it is due This is
1) Lamberts law
2) Faradays law
3) Lenzs law
4) Newman law
When two conductors carrying current in the same direction are placed parallel
then
1) The conductors move away
2) The conductors come closer
3) No change is observed
4) None of these
In an AC circuit containing inductance
1) Current lags behind voltage by /2
2) Voltage lags behind current by
3) Current leads voltage by /2
4) None of these
The rms value of voltage in a circuit is 100 V. Then the peak voltage is (in volts)
1) 100/

2) 100

3) 300/

4) 300

76. The impedance in an AC circuit (LCR) is given as


1)
2)
3)
4)
77. The induction of e.m.f. in a coil when current flows through it is called
1) Mutual induction
2) Analogous induction
3) Self induction
4) Pure induction
78. The cores of transformer are made of
1) Soft iron
2) Steel
3) Copper
4) Gold
79. In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of propagation of wave is inclined to the
magnetic and electric fields by
1) 450 and 450
2) 450 and 900
3) 900 and 900
4) 900 and 450
80. When an electron is placed in a magnetic field then the velocity of electron
1) Increases

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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

88.

2) Depends on strength of field


3) Decreases
4) Is independent of field strength
Isotopes are elements which have
1) Same atomic number but different atomic weights
2) Different atomic numbers but the same atomic weight
3) Same value for both
4) Different values for both
When deuterium and helium are subjected to accelerating field simultaneously
1) Both acquire the same velocity
2) Deuterium accelerates faster
3) Helium accelerates faster
4) Neither of them is accelerated
An particle can be represented by
1) A helium ion
2) A hydrogen ion
3) A helium nucleus
4) A hydrogen nucleus
The rate of decay of radioactive substance is
1) Directly proportional to number of atoms present at that time
2) Directly proportional to mass of substance
3) Directly proportional to temperature
4) Inversely proportional to half life
State which of the following is true.
1) Mean life is greater than half life
2) Half life is greater than mean life
3) Mean life is equal to half life
4) None of these
State which of the following is incorrect.
1) Gamma rays have more penetrating power than -rays
2) -rays have maximum ionizing power
3) X-rays have minimum ionizing power
4) -rays have maximum penetrating power
Packing fraction is given by the relation
1) A/(M A)
2) (A M)/A
3) M/(M A)
4) (M A)/A
The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14.003 and its mass number is 14. The packing
fraction is
1) -2 10-4
2) 5

10-4

3) 2

10-4

4) 6

10-4

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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper


89. The atomic weight of C12 is 12.0032. Its mass defect is
1) 12
2) 0.0032
3) 0.032
4) 0.32
90. The process of splitting a heavy nucleus into constituent particles (or lighter ones)
is
1) Nuclear fission
2) Nuclear fusion
3) Splitting
4) Cutting
91. The mass of hydrogen atom is (in atomic mass unit)
1) 1.0073
2) 2.0072
3) 1.073
4) 1.73
92. The reactions taking place in solar and stellar atmospheres are
1) Thermonuclear 2) ionic
3) covalent
4) fission reaction
93. Boron rods are used in nuclear reactors because
1) Boron can absorb neutrons
2) Strength is given to the plants
3) Boron speeds up neutrons
4) The rectors look good
94. If 0.03 gm of mass is converted to energy, energy liberated is
1) 20.9 10-7 ergs 2) 18.9 10-8 ergs
3) 9 109 ergs
4) 2.7
1019 ergs
95. 1eV is equal to
1) 1.6 10-19 J
12

2) 1.6

10-12 Joule

3) 1.6

10-20 erg

4) 1.6

erg
96. Energy of a photon (light particle) of frequency v is given by
1) h/v
2) v/h
3) hv/k
4) hv
97. when the velocity of the electron is increasing the DeBroglie wavelength of the
electron
1) increases
2) decreases
3) remains the same
4) increases sometimes and decreases sometimes
98. The frequency of the incident photons which is just sufficient to liberate
photoelectrons is known as
1) Resonant frequency
2) Minimum frequency
3) Photoelastic frequency
4) Threshold frequency
99. A diode can be used as
1) An oscillator
2) A rectifier
3) An oscilloscope
4) A triode
100.
A p-type semiconductor has
1) More electrons compared to holes
2) More electrons compared to electrons
3) Equal number of holes and electrons
4) More photons compared to holes and electrons

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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper

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Karnataka Common Entrance Test Question Paper


A

91

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100

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