FUNDA Q & A

Concepts of Man and His Basic Human Needs

1.) The theory on man as a Biopsychosocial andSpiritual being by Sister Callista
Royconceptualizes the following EXCEPT:
A.) Man, as a biologic being is like all other men
B.) Man, as a psychologic being is like no other man
C.) Man, as a social being is like some other men
D.) Man, is a spiritual being only when heprofesses that he believes in God
Ans: D>According to the theory on Man asBiopsychosocial and Spiritual Being, all
men arespiritual by nature. This is because of the willand intellect; virtues of faith,
hope, and charity,and the belief of existence of supreme power who guides mans
faith and destin
y2.) Which of the following is NOT a characteristicof an open system?
A.) It is self-sufficient and is totally isolated fromother systems
B.) It exchanges matter, energy or informationwith the environment
C.) It allows sustaining elements to enter thesystem to nourish it
D.) It is easily affected by changes in other systems
Ans: A>An open system needs to exchange matter,energy and information. It is
interrelated andinterdependent with other systems
3.) Which aspect of mans nature isdemonstrated by making a choice
therapeuticregimen reluctantly?
A.) Limited and unlimited nature
B.) Mature nature with core of immaturity
C.) A creature of indecisiveness
D.) Rational and logical, yet irrational at times
Ans: C> Man is a creature of indecisiveness. He isalways at the crossroad of
choosing
4.) Body image is:

A.) The way a person appears and his style of grooming

B.) The way the person looks at a certain age
C.) The way a person pictures/perceives hisappearance and function and how he
compareshimself with others.
D.) A body with complete parts and functions
Ans: C>Body image is the way a person perceives hisappearance and function
5.) The nursing diagnosis Body ImageDisturbance is most likely to be written for
whichof the following persons?
A.) A patient with above the knee amputation
B.) A patient with second degree burns
C.) A quadriplegic patient
D.) A person entering the health care systemafter moving from wellness to illness
Ans: D>A person entering a health care system mostlikely would experience
alteration in body image
6.) The nurse should assess the activitytolerance of the patient with which of
thefollowing conditions?
A.) Diabetes mellitus
B.) Diarrhea
C.) Anemia
D.) Kidney stones
Ans: C>Activity intolerance is an appropriate nursingdiagnosis for a client with
anemia. IN anemia,there is low oxygen-carrying capacity of theblood, so the client
experiences weakness andfatigue
7.) According to Maslows hierarchy of needs,which of the following is a basic
physiologicneed after oxygen?
A.) Water
B.) Freedom from infection
C.) Love and belongingness
D.) Self-esteem

Ans: A>Water is next to oxygen in the hierarchy of physiologic needs for survival
8.) Mrs. Sy, diagnosed with cancer of the breast,is scheduled to undergo
chemotherapy. Howshould the nurse deal with the topic of hair losswith client?
A.)Discuss about hair loss as it occurs
B.)Provide reading material about chemotherapy
C.)Acknowledge that hair loss may be a difficultside effect and explore the patients
feelingabout this
D.) Give the patient information about headscarf, hats or wigs
Ans: C>Focusing on the feelings of the client regardinghair loss is therapeutic.
Discussing about wigs,headscarf, and hats will be dealt with later
9.) The following are characteristics of basichuman needs EXCEPT:
A.) Priorities are uniform to all individuals
B.) Needs may be met in different ways
C.) Needs are interrelated
D.) Needs may be deferred
Ans: A>Priorities vary from individual to individual,according to stage of growth and
development,life situations and other factors
10.) Which of the following needs is consideredby the nurse when she implements
reverseisolation for the client with leukemia?
A.) Physiologic need
B.) Safety and security
C.) Love and belongingness
D.) Self esteem
Ans: B>The client with leukemia has low resistance toinfections. Protecting him
from infection byimplementing reverse or protective isolationtechnique meets his
need for safety and security
11.) Who among the following clients should beattended first by the nurse?
A) The client with cough and colds
B.) The client with pain on the chest

C.) The client with fever due to infection

D.) The client who is for discharge
Ans: B >The client with pain on the chest should beattended first by the nurse
because he needs tobe assessed and managed immediately beforesevere problem
occurs. The clients with signsand symptoms of infections may be dealt withafter
those without infections to preventcontamination. The client for discharge
wouldrequire longer nursing time for health teachings,and may be dealt with later
Concepts of Health and Illness
12.) The following are concepts of health:
1...) Health is a state of complete physical,mental, and social well being and not
merely theabsence of disease or infirmity
2.) Health is the ability to maintain balance
3.) Health is the ability to maintain the internalenvironment
4.) Health is the integration of all parts andsubparts of an individual
A.) 1,2,3
B.) 1,3,4
C.) 2,3,4
D.) 1,2,3,4
Ans D1-WHO concept of health2-Walter Cannons concept of health
onhomeostasis3-Claude Bernards concept of health on internalmilieu4- Neumans
concept of health on integration of parts and subparts of an individual
13.) The theorist who advocates that health is the ability to maintain dynamic
equilibrium is:
A.) Claude Bernard
B.) Walter Cannon
C.) Hans Selye
D.) Martha Rogers
ANS: B> Walter Cannon advocates that health is theability to maintain dynamic
equilibrium(homeostasis)
14.) The Health-Illness Continuum Theorydescribes which of the following:

1.) The effect of environment to well-being andillness

2.) High level wellness is achieved if a person isable to function independently
3.) Precursor of illness may be hereditary,environmental and behavioral factors
4.) The relationship between agent, host andenvironment
A.) 1,2,3,4
B.) 1,3,4
C.) 1,2,3
D.) 2,3,4
ANS: C> 1,2,3 Dunns Health-illness ContinuumTheory describes the following:1.)
The effect of environment to well-being andillness2.) High level wellness is achieved
if a person isable to function independently3.) Precursor of illness may be
hereditary,environmental and behavioral factors
15.) Which of the following statements is not trueis high-level wellness?
A.) It is applicable only to healthy individuals
B.) It is the ability to perform activities of dailyliving
C.) It connotes maximizing ones potentialities
D.) It is the ability to perform self-care
ANS: A> The statement which is NOT TRUE in highlevel wellness is that, it is
applicable only tohealthy individuals. High level wellness isapplicable to both the
well and the ill, as long asone maximizes his potentialities and
functionsindependently
16.) Mrs. De Guzman had been diagnosed tohave hypertension since 15 years ago.
Sincethen, she had maintained low sodium diet, tocontrol her blood pressure. This
practice isviewed as:
A.) Her superstitious belief
B.) Her cultural belief
C.) Her personal
D.) Her health belief
ANS: D> Health belief of an individual influences his/her preventive health
behavior. Health beliefs maybe influenced by individual perceptions,modifying

factors, perceived benefits of preventive actions and perceived barriers

topreventive actions
17.) The Role Performance Model of healthviews that:
A.) Health is the absence of signs andsymptoms of disease
B.) Health is successful adaptation
C.) Health is the ability to perform ones work or job
D.) Health is realization of ones potential
ANS: C> The Role Performance Model of health bySmith views that health is the
ability to performones societal roles such as ones work or job
18.) Mr. Salvador practices excessive alcoholintake. This is considered as which type
of precursor to illness?
A.) Behavioral factor
B.) Environmental factor
C.) Hereditary factor
D.) Genetic factor
ANS: A> Taking alcohol excessively is a behavioralprecursor of illness. Other
behavioral factors thatmay lead to illness are as follows: cigarettesmoking, poor
diet, sedentary lifestyle, poor hygiene, inadequate rest and sleep, excessiveworry
and tension,etc
19.) A person who may or may not be affectedby disease is:
A.) Agent
B.) Carrier
C.) Victim
D.) Host
ANS: D> A host is an individual who may or may not beaffected by disease
20.) Health promotion activities are directed toachieve the following:
1. Increasing level of wellness
2. Improving quality of life
3. Relying on health care personnel to maintainhealth

4. Promoting healthful lifestyle

A.) 1,2,4
B.) 2,3,4
C.) 1,2,3
D.) 1,2,3,4
ANS: A> 1,2,4 Health promotion activities are directedto achieve the following:1.)
Increasing level of wellness2.) Improving quality of life3.) Promoting healthful
lifestyleFurthermore, health promotion involves theprinciples of self responsibility
for ones health
21.) Which of the following behaviors is notexpected when a client assumes the sick
role?
A.) The client seeks for sick leave
B.) The client consults a physician because of headache and perceived fever
C.) The client takes medications as prescribedby the physician
D.) The client ignores his dizziness, with thehope that it will be relieved
spontaneously
ANS: D> Ignoring signs and symptoms of a disease isnot a sick role behavior. Sick
role emphasizesthat the person: is not held responsible for hiscondition ; is excused
from social roles; isobliged to get well as soon as possible; isobliged to seek for
competent help, i.e. seekingadvice of health professionals for validation of real
illness, explanation of symptoms andreassurance or prediction of outcomeHealth
and Illness- Asepsis and Infection Control
22.) Which of the following situations may causedroplet transmission of
microorganisms?
A.) Facing a clients who is coughing andsneezing within a distance of 3 feet
B.) Eating contaminated shell fish
C.) Puncture from intravenous needle removedfrom a client with hepatitis B
D.) Exposure to flood water
Ans: A> Facing client who is coughing and sneezingmost likely would cause droplet
transmission of microorganisms

23.) Which of the following is most effectivepractice by caregivers and family, when
caringfor a client with low resistance to infection due tocancer.
A.) Allow two visitors only, at a time
B.) Wash hands frequently
C.) Wear masks in the clients room at all times
D.) Meticulous cleaning of the clients room
ANS: B> Handwashing is the most effective practice toprevent transfer of
microorganisms
24.) The primary why the faucet is considered ascontaminated is:
A.) It is located in unsterile area
B.) Many people are using it
C.) It is frequently used
D.) It is opened by dirty hands
ANS: D> The faucet is considered contaminatedprimarily because it is opened by
dirty hands
25.) The nurse enters the room of the client onairborne precautions due to
tuberculosis. Whichof the following are appropriate actions by thenurse?
1. She wears the mask, covering the nose andmouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the
clientssecretions
3. She removes gloves and mask before leavingthe clients room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in a trash can found in the clients
room
A.) 1 and 2
B.) 1 and 3
C.) 1,2 and 3
D.) 1,2,3, and 4
ANS: D> 1,2,3, and 4 the mask should cover the noseand mouth snugly. The hands
should be washedbefore and after removing gloves. Gloves andmask should be

removed before leaving theclients room, to contain the microorganismwithin the

clients unit. Contaminated articles likesuction catheter should be discarded in a
trashcan found in the clients room to preventcontamination of the outside
environment.
26.) A 14-yar old male is to be admitted to theunit due to high fever related to
influenza. Withwhom among the following clients should beplaced together in the
room?
A.) The 12-year old male client who hadundergone appendectomy
B.) The 12-year old female with flu
C.) The 12-year old boy with flu
D.) The 12- year old boy with leukemia
ANS: C> Clients infected with the same type of microorganism may cohabitate . The
gender andthe age of the clients should also be considered.Clients of the same
gender and approximately of the same age group will stay together well
27.) After caring for a client with extensive bodyburns, the nurse performs which of
the followingactions when removing protective wear?
A.) Remove, mask, gown, gloves, cap and shoecover
B.) Remove gloves, mask, gown, cap and shoecover
C.) Remove gown, mask, gloves, cap and shoecover
D.) Remove cap and shoe cover, mask, gloves,gown
ANS: B> To remove protective wear, peel off glovesfirst, then the mask, gown cap
and shoe cover.This is to prevent contamination of skin by thecontaminated gloves
28.) When discarding used needle and syringes,which of the following is appropriate
nursingaction?
A.) Remove needle from the syringe and discardthem in separate containers
B.) Recap needle, then discard the needle stillattached to the syringe into a
container
C.) Discard the uncapped needle and syringeinto a container
D.) Break the needle, then discard syringe into acontainer

ANS: C > Discard the uncapped needle and syringe intoa leak-proof, puncture-proof
container. This is toprevent needle puncture of self. Universalprecaution: NEVER
RECAP NEEDLE
29.) When performing surgical hand scrub,which of the following nursing actions
ensureprevention of contamination?
1. Keep fingernails short, clean, without nailpolish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot contro
l3. Keep hands above elbows when washing andrinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, and shoe cover after handscrub
A.) 1,3,4
B.) 1,2,3
C.) 1,2,4
D.) 2,3,4
ANS: B> 1,2 and 3- Surgical hand scrub involves thefollowing actions: Keep
fingernails short, clean,without nail polish, open faucets with knee or foot control;
keep hands above elbows whenwashing and rinsing. Cap, mask, shoe cover should
be worn before hand scrub, to preventcontamination of the scrubbed hand
30.) When removing gloves, which of thefollowing is inappropriate nursing action?
A.) Wash gloved hands first
B.) Peel off gloves inside out
C.) Use glove-to-glove, skin-to-skin technique
D.) Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
ANS: D> When removing gloves, it is inappropriate to remove mask and gown first
before gloves. Appropriate nursing actions are: wash gloved hands first, peel off
gloves inside out; use glove-to-glove, skin-to-skin techniques. Remove gloves first,
followed by the mask, gown, cap, and shoe cover
31.) When pouring sterile solution, the nurse performs which of the following actions
correctly?
A.) Hold bottle 6 inches above receptacle on thesterile field
B.) Remove cap of bottle and place it with theunderside lid down on a flat surface

C.) Return excess solution from sterilereceptacle to the bottle

D.) Place the bottle of sterile solution within thesterile field
ANS: A> When pouring sterile solution, hold bottle 6inches above receptacle on the
sterile field. Cap of the bottle should be placed with underside lipup, on a flat
surface. Excess solution should not be returned to the bottle because this is
considered contaminated. The bottle of the sterile solution should be placed outside
the sterile field because the outside part of the bottleis nonsterile. Remember,
sterile field/object should come in contact with sterile objects only, to maintain
sterility. STRESS, ADAPTATION,HOMEOSTASIS
32.) Which of the following does not characterizestress?
A.) Stress is a nervous energy
B.) A single stress does not cause a disease
C.) Stress in inherent to life
D.) Stress may be protective but at timesproblematic
ANS: A> This is an incorrect statement because stressis not a nervous strategy; it is
apsychophysiologic response
33.) Adaptive responses of man to stressors arecharacterized by the following:
1. They are attempts to maintain equilibrium
2. They are fairly uniform in all individuals
3. They are limitless
4. They are always adequate to overcomestressors
A.) 1 and 2
B.) 1 and 3
C.) 1 and 4
D.) 2 and 4
ANS: B> 1 and 3 adaptive responses are attempts tomaintain equilibrium and they
are not limitless
34.) The first manifestation of inflammation is:
A.) Heat

B.) Redness
C.) Swelling
D.) Pain
ANS: B> The first manifestation of inflammation isredness. This is due to increased
blood flow tothe area affected
35.) The primary cause of pain at the site of inflammation is:
A.) Release of bradykinin
B.) Injury to nerve endings
C.) Compression of local nerve endings byedema fluids
D.) Impaired circulations
ANS: C> The primary cause of pain at the site of inflammation is the compression of
local nerveendings by edema fluids
36.) The client is in stress because he was toldby the physician that he needs to
undergosurgery for removal of tumor in his stomach.Which of the following are
effects of activation of the sympatho-adreno-medullary response in theclient?
1. Constipation
2. Urinary frequency
3. Hypoglycemia
4. Increased BP
A.) 1 and 2
B.) 1 and 3
C.) 2 and 3
D.) 1 and 4
ANS: D>1 and 4- Effects of SAMR are due to release of norepinephrine and
epinephrine. These includeconstipation and increase BP
37.) The client is on NPO since midnight, aspreparation for blood test. Adrenocorticalresponse is activated. Which of the following isan expected response?A.) Low
BPB.) Decrease urine outputC.) Warm, flushed, dry skinD.) Low serum Na levels
ANS: B> Adreno-cortical response involves release of aldosterone that leads to
retention of sodiumand water. This results to decreased urineoutput38.) The client

fell from the stairs, and hadtwisted her ankle. The injury causedinflammation of the
ankle. The nursinginterventions for the inflamed ankle would leastlikely include
which of the following?A.) Elevate the ankle with pillow supportB.) Apply warm
compress over the ankle for thefirst seventy-two hoursC.) Apply compression
bandage over the ankleD.) Administer anti-inflammatory drug asordered by the
M.D.ANS: B> Application of warm compress over aninflamed body part for the first
72hours of injuryis not included in the nursing interventions for inflammation. Cold
compress is preferablyapplied during the first 72hours to causevasoconstriction and
prevent/reduce swelling.39.) Which of the following events characterizethe GAS
stage of Alarm?A.) Fight-or-flight response is activatedB.) The person regains
homeostasisC.) Adaptive mechanisms failD.) Levels of resistance are increasedANS:
A> During the GAS stage of Alarm, fight-or-flightresponse is activated40.) The client
is a 57 year old male who worksas a traffic officer. He is exposed to sunlightfrom
morning until afternoon. Which of thefollowing is considered as a physiologic
adaptivemode of the client?A.) He learns to interpret different traffic signsB.) He
sees to it that he wears his uniform asdignified as a policeman doesC.) He develops
dark skinD.) He learns the skill of giving traffic directionsto drivers and
pedestrianANS: C> Development of dark skin due to prolongedexposure to sunlight,
is an example of physiologic adaptive mode41.) The first protective cells launched
at the siteof tissue injury are the:A.) BasophilsB.) EosinophilsC.) MonocytesD.)
NeutrophilsANS: D> Neutrophils are the first protective cellslaunched at the site of
injury to performphagocytosisTherapeutic Communication42.) Therapeutic nursepatient relationship isdescribed as follows:1. It is based on friendship and mutual
interest2. It is a professional relationship3. It is focused on helping the patient
solveproblems and achieve health-related goals4. It is maintained only as long as
the patientrequires professional helpA.) 1,2,3B.) 1,2,4C.) 2,3,4D.) 1,3,4ANS: C>
2,3,4- Nurse-patient relationship is aprofessional relationship, it is a
helpingrelationship; it is maintained only as long as thepatient requires professional
help. It is not basedon friendship and mutual interest.43.) During the working phase
of therapeuticrelationship, the nurse performs the followingactivities EXCEPT:A.)
Reviews the clients medical recordB.) Establishes a contract with the
clientregarding expectations and responsibilitiesC.) Decides with the client on
mutually agreedupon goalsD.) Discusses with the client on time frame of the
relationshipANS: A> Reviewing the clients medical record is anactivity done during
the pre-interaction phase of the therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. All theother
choices are performed during the workingphase44.) The client has been scheduled
to undergosurgery for removal of tumor in her right breast.Which of the following
manifestations indicatethat she is experiencing mild anxiety?A.) She has increased
awareness of theenvironment detailsB.) She focuses on selected aspect of her
illnessC.) She experiences incongruence of thoughts,feelings and actionsD.) She
experiences random motor activityANS: A> Increased awareness of the
environmentdetails is a manifestation of mild anxiety45.) Which of the following
nursing interventionswould least likely be effective when dealing witha client with
aggressive behavior?A.) Approach in calm, direct manner B.) Provide opportunities

to express feelingsC.) Maintain eye contact with the clientD.) Isolate the client from
other clientsANS: D> Isolating the client who manifests aggressivebehavior would
be ineffective intervention. Thismay further agitate him. Providing outlets,
likephysical activities will be more effective, to divertthe clients energy46.) The
client express fear that God will not besupportive and might be punitive. He
isexperiencing which of the following responses?A.) Spiritual painB.) Spiritual anger
C.) Spiritual anxietyD.) Spiritual lossANS: C>Spiritual anxiety is expression of fear
that Godwill not be supportive and might be punitive47.) The client verbalizes, Im
nothing. Whichof the following is the most appropriate responseby the nurse?A.)
Are you suggesting that you feel worthless?B.) Of course, youre everything.C.)
Thats not true.D.) You should not feel that way.ANS: A

50.) The pancreatic enzyme which completesdigestion of fats isA.) AmylaseB.)

LipaseC.) TrypsinD.) RenninANS: B> Lipase is the pancreatic enzyme thatcompletes
digestion of fats51.) Kwashiorkor is a condition characterized by:A.) Calorie
deficiencyB.) Vitamin DeficiencyC.) Protein deficiencyD.) Mineral deficiencyANS: C>
Kwashiorkor is protein deficiency52.) Which of the following is most effectivenursing
measures to relieve anorexia EXCEPT:A.) Provide small, frequent feedingsB.) Remove
unsightly articles from the patientsunitC.) Provide three full meals a dayD.) Provide
good hygienic measuresANS: A> Providing small frequent feedings is mosteffective
nursing measure to relieve anorexia53.) The following factors increase
calorierequirements EXCEPT:A.) Cold climateB.) Activity and exerciseC.) Fever D.)
sleepANS: D> Sleep reduces calorie requirement by 10 to15% . A,B,and C are
factors that increasecalorie requirement.54.) The following are good sources of
calciumEXCEPT:A.) CheeseB.) MilkC.) Soy productsD.) Carbonated drinksANS: D>
Carbonated drinks are not sources of calcium.A,B and C are good sources of
calcium.55.) Which of the following is the richest sourceof iron?A.) MongoB.) MilkC.)
Malunggay leavesD.) PechayANS: A> Among these choices, mongo (a legume) isthe
richest source of iron. The richest source of iron is liver, next is lean meat, then
legumes,then green leafy vegetables56.) Which of the following is a good source of
vitamin A?A.) EggsB.) Liver C.) FishD.) PeanutsANS: B> Liver is very good source of
fat-solublevitamins (A,D,E,K)57.) The following may be given to relievenausea and
vomiting EXCEPT:A.) Dry toastB.) MilkC.) Cold cola beverageD.) Ice chipsANS: B>
Milk does not relieve nausea and vomiting.A,B,C may relieve nausea and
vomiting58.) The most life threatening complication of vomiting is:A.) AspirationB.)
DehydrationC.) Fever D.) MalnutritionANS: A> The most life-threatening
complication of vomiting is aspiration. It causes airwayobstruction.59.) The vomiting
center is found in the ________.A.) CerebellumB.) HypothalamusC.) Medulla
OblongataD.) CerebrumANS: C> The vomiting center in the Medulla Oblongata60.)
The best indicator of nutritional status of theindividual is:A.) WeightB.) HeightC.)
Arm muscle circumferenceD.) Adequacy of hair ANS: A> The best indicator of
nutritional status is theweight61.) To assess the adequacy of food intake,which of

the following assessment parameters isbest used?A.) Food preferences and

dislikesB.) Regularity of meal timesC.) 3-day diet recallD.) Eating style and
habitsANS: C> Dietary diary e.g. 3-day diet recall, is the bestassessment parameter
for adequacy of foodintake62.) Prolonged deficiency of vitamin B12 leadsto:A.)
beriberiB.) Pernicious anemiaC.) PellagraD.) Peripheral neuritisANS: B> Prolonged
Vit B12 deficiency results topernicious anemia63.) The vitamin necessary for
absorption of calcium is:A.) Vit DB.) Vit AC.) Vit CD.) Vit EANS: A> Vit D promotes
absorption of calcium64.) Vit. K is necessary for:A.) Bone and teeth formationB.)
Integrity of skin and mucous membraneC.) Blood coagulationD.) Formation of
RBCANS: C

> Vit K is necessary for blood clotting. Prolongeddeficiency of this vitamin leads to
bleeding65.) The following are signs and symptoms of dehydration EXCEPT:A.)
Weight lossB.) Decreased urine outputC.) Elevated body temperatureD.) Elevated
BPANS: D> Elevated BP is not a sign of dehydration.A,B,C are signs and symptoms
of dehydration.66.) The client is experiencing hypokalemia.Which of the following
should be included in hisdiet?A.) BananaB.) MilkC.) CheeseD.) FishANS: A>
Hypokalemia is low serum potassium level.Providing potassium-rich foods like
banana andother fresh fruits is effective nursing interventionfor this condition67.)
During insertion of NGT, which position isbest assumed by the client?A.) LowFowlersB.) Semi-FowlersC.) High-FowlersD.) LateralANS: C> During insertion of
NGT, the patient is bestplaced in high-Fowlers position with neckhyperextended
until the tube is in theoropharynx. Once the NGT is in the oropharynx,the client is
instructed to flex the neck andswallow, as the tube is advanced.68.) The length of
NGT to be inserted iscorrectly measured;A.) From the tip of the nose to the
umbilicusB.) From the tip of the nose to the xiphoidprocessC.) From the tip of the
nose to the earlobe to theumbilicusD.) From the tip of the nose to the earlobe to
thexiphoid process.ANS: D> The length of NGT to be inserted is measuredfrom the
tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to thexiphoid process (N-E-X) which is
approximately50cm69.) When inserting NGT, the neck should:A.) FlexedB.)
HyperextendC.) Tilted to the leftD.) In neutral positionANS: B> When inserting NGT,
the neck is initiallyhyperextended70.) The most accurate method of
assessingmethod of placement of NGT is:A.) AspirationB.) Testing the pH of gastric
aspirationC.) X-ray studyD.) Introduction of air into NGT and auscultate atthe
epigastric area.ANS: C> The most accurate method of assessingplacement of NGT is
through X-ray.71.) Which of the following is inappropriatenursing action when
administering NGTfeeding?A.) Assist the client in Fowlers positionB.) Introduce
feeding slowlyC.) Place the feeding 24 inches above the pointof insertion of NGTD.)
Instill 60mls of water into the NGT after feedingANS: C> During NGT feeding, the
height of the feedingis 12 inches above the point of NGT insertion,not 24 inches. If
the height of feeding is too high,this results to very rapid introduction of

feeding.This may trigger nausea and vomiting.72.) The primary purpose of

gastrostomy is:A.) For feedingB.) For drainageC.) To prevent flatulenceD.) To prevent
aspiration of gastric reflexANS: A> The primary purpose of gastrostomy is for
feeding73.) The most important nursing action beforegastrostomy feeding is:A.)
Check VSB.) Assess for patency of the tubeC.) Measure residual feedingD.) Check
for placement of the tubeANS: B> The most important nursing action
beforegastrostomy feeding is to assess for patency of the tube. This is done by
instilling 15-30 mls of water into the tube.74.) The primary advantage of
gastrostomyfeeding is:A.) It ensures adequate nutritionB.) It prevents aspirationC.)
It maintains integrity of gastro-esophagealsphincter D.) It minimizes fluid-electrolyte
imbalancesANS: C> The primary advantage of gastrostomy feedingis, it maintains
the integrity of gastro-esophagealsphincter ( cardiac sphincter) of the stomach75.)
Vit B3 (Niacin) deficiency leads to:A.) PellagraB.) BeriberiC.) ScurvyD.) RicketsANS:
A> Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency leads topellagra--Basic Human Needs: Bladder
and Bowel &Elimination76.) Constipation is best described as:A.) Irregular passage
of stoolB.) Passage of stool every other dayC.) Passage of hard, dry stoolD.)
Seepage of liquid fecesANS: C> Constipation is passage of hard, dry stool77.) The
accumulation of hardened, putty-likefecal mass at the rectum isA.) ObstipationB.)
ConstipationC.) TympanitiesD.) Fecal impaction

ANS: D> Fecal impaction is the accumulation of hardened, putty-like fecal mass at
the rectum78.) The following are appropriate nursingmeasures to relieve
constipation EXCEPT:A.) Include fruits and vegetablesB.) Have adequate activity and
exerciseC.) Take laxatives at regular basisD.) Answer immediately to the urge to
defecateANS: C> Regular use of laxative is inappropriatenursing measures to
relieve constipation79.) Castor oil acts as a laxative by:A.) Providing chemical
stimulation of theintestinal mucosaB.) Softening the stoolC.) Increasing the bulk of
the stoolD.) Lubricating the stoolANS: A> Castor oil provides chemical stimulation to
theintestinal mucosa, to increase peristalsis andpromote defecation80.) Which of
the following foods should beavoided by the client prevent flatulence?A.) Fruit
juiceB.) CabbageC.) MeatD.) FishANS: B> To prevent flatulence, avoid gas-forming
foodslike cabbage81.) Which of the following antidiarrhealmedications absorb gas or
toxic substancesfrom the bowel?A.) DemulcentB.) CabbageC.) MeatD.) FishANS: B>
Absorbent anti-diarrheal medications absorbgas or toxic substances from the
bowel82.) The most common-side effect of overuse of laxatives is:A.) DiarrheaB.)
Nausea and vomitingC.) ConstipationD.) FlatulenceANS: C> The most common sideeffect of overuse of laxative is rebound constipation83.) Which of the following
should be included inthe diet of the patient with diarrhea?A.) BananaB.) PapayaC.)
PineappleD.) AvocadoAns: A> Banana should be included in the diet of theclient
with diarrhea. It is rich in potassium and itreplaces potassium losses due to
diarrhea84.) Which of the following fluids may be givento a client with diarrhea?A.)

MilkB.) CoffeeC.) TeaD.) GatoradeANS: D> Gatorade may be given to a client

withdiarrhea because it is rich in potassium85.) Which of the following laxative
increasesthe bulk of the stool?A.) ColaceB.) MetamucilD.) DulcolaxD.) DuphalacANS:
B> Metamucil increases bulk of the stool and itprovides adequate mechanical
stimulation for peristalsis86.) The following are appropriate nursingmeasures to
relieve diarrhea EXCEPT:A.) Provide high-fiber dietB.) Promote restC.) Include
banana in the dietD.) Avoid fatty or fried foodANS: A> High fiber die stimulates
peristalsis andtherefore inappropriate for a client with diarrhea87.) The following are
solutions used as non-retention enema EXCEPT:A.) Tap water B.) Carminative
enemaC.) Normal Saline SolutionD.) Fleet EnemaANS: B> Carminative enema is
used for retentionenema. A,C, and D are solutions used as non-retention enema88.)
The medication that relieves flatulence is:A.) Imodium (Loperamide)B.) Plasil
(Metochlopramide)C.) Prostigmin (Neostigmine)D.) Colace ( Na Docussate)ANS: C>
Prostigmin is cholinergic, so it stimulatesperistalsis. It is used to relieve
flatulence89.) The best position of the adult client duringenema administration is:A.)
Left lateralB.) SupineC.) Right lateralD.) Semi-FowlersANS: A> Left lateral position
is the best position for theadult client receiving enema. This positionfacilitates the
flow of the solution into the colonby gravity90.) Which of the following is
inappropriatenursing action during rectal tube insertion torelieve flatulence?A.)
Insert rectal tube for 3-4 inchesB.) Use rectal tube size Fr.22-30C.) Keep rectal tube
in place for 45 minutesD.) Insert well-lubricated rectal tube in rotatingmotionANS:
C> Keeping the rectal tube in place for 45 minutesis inappropriate. Beyond 30
minutes rectal tubecauses irritation of the mucous membrane in therectal area.91.)
The following are correct nursing actionswhen administering enema EXCEPT:A.)
Provide privacyB.) Introduce solution slowlyC.) Alternate NSS with tap water and
soap suds

D.) Increase the flow rate of the enema solutionif abdominal cramps occur ANS: D>
Increasing flow rate of enema solution if abdominal cramps occur is inappropriate
nursingaction. Temporarily stop flow of solution if abdominal cramps occur, until
peristalsisrelaxes.92.) The functional unit of the kidneys is the:A.) GlomerulusB.)
Bowmans capsuleC.) NephronD.) TubulesANS: C> The nephron is the unit of the
kidney93.) Which of the following initiates voiding?A.) Valsalva maneuver B.)
Increased intraabdominal pressureC.) Sympathetic response stimulationD.)
Parasympathetic response stimulationANS: D> The PNS promotes contraction of the
bladder and promotes relaxation of urethral sphincter.Therefore, it initiates
voiding.94.) The following are normal characteristics of urine EXCEPT:A.) Appears
clear B.) pH= 3.5C.) Sp.Gr=1.020D.) Amber ANS: B> Urine pH of 3.5 if too low. This
indicatesacidosis. The normal pH of urine is slightlyacidic, an average of 695.)
Frequent scanty urination is:A.) UrgencyB.) hesitancyC.) PollakuriaD.) PolyuriaANS:
C> Pollakuria is frequent scanty urination96.) The volume of urine in the bladder

thattriggers the urge of an adult patient to void is:A.) 50-100mlsB.) 100-200 mlsC.)
250-450 mlsD.) 500-600 mlsANS: C> 250-450 mls of urine in the bladder makes
anadult client feel the urge to void97.) Which of the following is not as
assessmentfinding in urinary retention?A.) Flat sound over the suprapubic area
onpercussionB.) Smooth, firm ovoid mass at the suprapubicareaC.) Protrusion
arising out the pelvisD.) Frequent passage of small amount of urineANS: A> Flat
sound over the suprapubic area onpercussion does not indicate bladder
distention.Accumulation of urine in the bladder will producedull sound98.) Which of
the following is most effectivenursing measure to relieve urinary retention?A.) Allow
the patient to listen to the sound of running water B.) Dangle fingers in warm water
C.) Provide privacyD.) Pour warm water over perineumANS: C> providing privacy is
the most effective nursingmeasure to relieve urinary retention.99.) The best
position for female during urinarycatheterization is:A.) SupineB.) Dorsal
recumbentC.) LateralD.) Semi-FowlersANS: B> Dorsal recumbent position is the
best positionduring urethral catheter insertion in a femaleclient.100.) The female
urethral meatus is located:A.) Above the clitorisB.) Below the vaginalC.) Between
the clitoris and vaginal orificeD.) Between the vaginal orifice and anusANS: C> The
female urethral meatus is locatedbetween the