2A

PREVIOUS SNAP QUESTION PAPER

SNAP 2011

Symbiosis International University

SNAP TEST 2011
SNAP ID
Time: 120 minutes
Sunday December 18, 2011
Please read the following instructions carefully. Do not open the seal until the Invigilator instructs you to
open.
1. Answer OMR Sheet is contained inside the Test Booklet. Make sure that the Answer OMR Sheet is not
damaged in any way.
2. Use only a blue/black ball point pen to darken circles on Answer OMR Sheet.
3. Write your SNAP-Id and darken appropriate circles in the Answer OMR Sheet.
4. The sequence of the sections differs in each Booklet series. However as mentioned in SNAP Test 2011
Bulletin, the Sections remain the same;
Sr.
No
1
2
3
4
5.

Total
Marks
General English
40
Quantitative & Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency
40
General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, Business Scenario
40
Analytical & Logical Reasoning
60
Total
180
Sections

No. of
questions
40
40
40
30
150

In the Answer OMR Sheet, darken the circles against the question numbers indicating your answers. For
example, if your answer is 2 for a question, then darken as follows:
1
2
3
4

Darken only one circle. If you darken more than one circle against any question, you will score zero mark.
Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen for filling the OMR sheet. DO NOT use pencil.
6. For every wrong answer, you will score 25% negative marks.
7. Do not attempt to copy nor allow or help others in copying. Any malpractice will invalidate your
candidature.
8. Return Answer OMR Sheet to the Invigilator before you leave the hall.
9. Do not leave the hall at any point of time without handing over your Test Booklet and Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator.
10. You may take the question paper back with you.
11. Once you go out of the hall, re-entry is not permitted.

PP-02

2A.1

www.TestFunda.com

Use this Page for Rough Work

PP-02

2A.2

www.TestFunda.com

Section I - General Awareness

For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each.
1. Swayamsidha is a scheme launched by the
Government of India to help

following statements best represents

important difference between the two?

(1) School Children only

(2) Health workers only
(3) Senior citizen without any regular income
(4) Women only

(1) FII helps bring better management skills

and technology while FDI only bring capital
(2) FII helps in increasing capital availability in
general, while FDI only targets specific
sectors
(3) FDI flows only into secondary markets while
FII targets primary markets
(4) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI

2. What is Share swap?

A. A business takeover in which acquiring
company uses its own stock to pay for the
acquired company.
B. When a company uses its own share to get
some short term loan for working capital
requirement
C. When companies are require to float a new
issue to earn capital for their expansion
programmes, each shareholder gets some
additional preferential share. The process is
known as Share Swap.
(1) Only A
(3) Only C

5. In context of global oil prices, Brent crude oil is

frequently referred to in the news.
What does this term imply?
1) It is a major classification of crude oil
2) It is sourced from North sea
3) It does not contain sulphur
Which of the statement given above is /are
correct?

(2) Only A and B

(4) None of the above

(1) 2 only
(3) 1 and 3 only

3. Regarding carbon credits which of the following

statements is not correct?

(2) 1 and 2 only

(4) 1, 2 and 3

6. With reference to Look East Policy of India

consider the following statements:

(1) The carbon credits system was ratified in

conjunction with Kyoto Protocol
(2) Carbon credits are awarded to those
countries or groups who have reduced the
green house gases below their emission
quota
(3) The goal of carbon credit system is to reduce
carbon dioxide emission
(4) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed
from time to time by the United
Environment Programme

1.

2.
3.

India wants to establish itself as an

important regional player in the East Asian
affairs.
India wants to plug the vacuum created by
the termination of Cold war.
India wants to restore the historical and
cultural ties with its neighbors in Southeast
and East Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(1) 1 only
(3) 3 only

4. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and

Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to
investment in a country. Which one of the

PP-02

an

2A.3

(2) 1 and 3 only

(4) 1, 2 and 3

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
7. Recently oilzapper was in news. What is it?

11. Besides USA, India has signed, with which of the

following countries the agreement being named
as Cooperation Agreement on the development
of Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy?

(1) It is eco friendly technology for the

remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(2) It is the latest technology developed under
sea oil exploration
(3) It is genetically engineered high biofuel
yielding maize variety
(4) It is the latest technology to control
accidentally caused flames from oil wells.

(1) Italy
(3) France

12. Which of the following country is not a member

of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)?
(1) Russia
(3) Italy

8. Why is the offering of teaser loans by

commercial banks a cause of economic concern?
1.

2.

The teaser loans are considered to be an

aspect of sub prime lending and banks may
be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
The teaser loans are given to inexperienced
entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or
export units.

(1) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds

(2) Foreign Convertible Credit Bonds
(3) Financial Consortium and Credit Bureau
(4) None of these
14. As per the reports published in various
newspapers, RBI has asked banks to make plan to
provide banking services in villages having
population of 2000. This directive issued by the
RBI will fall in which of the following categories?

(2) 2 only
(4) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Why is the government of India disinvesting its

equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises
(CPSE)?
1.

2.

(1) Plan for financial inclusion

(2) Efforts to meet Priority sector lending
(3) Extension of Internet and Branchless banking.
(4) None of these

The Government intends to use the revenue

earned from disinvestment mainly to pay the
External debt
The Government no longer intends to retain
the management control of CPSEs

15. Which of the following is/ are treated as artificial

currency?

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(1) 1 only
(3) Both 1 and 2

(1) ADR
(2) GDR
(3) Both ADR and GDR
(4) SDR

(2) 2 only
(4) Neither 1 nor 2

10. The book Unto this Last which influenced

Gandhiji, was authored by
(1) Boris Yeltsin
(3) Ruskin Bond

PP-02

(2) USA
(4) Iran

13. Many times we read in the newspaper that

several companies are adopting the FCCBs route
to raise capital. What is the full form of FCCB?

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(1) 1 only
(3) Both 1 and 2

(2) Germany
(4) Australia

16. Which of the following terms indicates a

mechanisms used by commercial banks to
provide credit to the Government?

(2) Pushkin
(4) John Ruskin

(1) Cash Credit Ratio

(2) Debit Service Obligation

2A.4

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
(3) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

24. The limit beyond which the stars suffer internal

collapse is called the
(1) Raman Effect
(2) Chandrashekhar limit
(3) Aurora Borealis (4) Quasan Zone

17. Who among the following was not part of the

drafting committee of the Lokpal Bill?
(1) Salman Khurshid (2) Anna Hazare
(3) Arvind Kejriwal (4) Kiran Bedi

25. UNDP reports publishes every year the Human

Development Index. Which of the following is not
a criteria used to measure the Human
Development Index?

18. Criminal procedure is a subject of which of the

following lists?
(1) State List
(3) Union List

(1) Health
(2) Education
(3) Living Standards (4) Human Rights

(2) Concurrent List

(4) Both 1 and 3

26. The software company I flex Solutions was

originally a division of which famous financial
services company?

19. One of the worlds biggest Uranium resources

was recently found in
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Maharashtra
(3) Jharkhand
(4) Uttarakhand

(1) Citicorp
(3) HSBC

20. Which of the following was the first venture of

Kishore Biyani
(1) Pantaloons
(3) Central

27. Which of the following is not a member of

SAARC?

(2) Big Bazaar

(4) Future Capital Holdings

(1) Bhutan
(3) Burma

21. Who among the following is often referred to as

father of Indias Green Revolution?

(1) Art 345

(3) Art 348

(2) Art 343

(4) Art 334

29. India has finally woken up to the needs of the

countrys elderly. With the number of people in
the 60 plus age group in India expected to
increase to 100 million in 2013 and to 198
million in 2030, the health ministry is all set to
roll out the

22. Who among the following directed the movie

Peepli Live?
(1) Ashutosh Gowarikar
(2) Kiran Rao
(3) Anusha Rizvi
(4) Seema Chisti

(1) National Programme for Health care of the

Elderly
(2) National Programme for Senior Citizens
(3) National Programme for Old Aged
(4) Rashtriya Vriddha Swasthya Yojana

23. The point at which soild, liquid and gaseous

forms of a substance co exist is called

PP-02

(2) Bangladesh
(4) Maldives

28. Which article of the Indian constitution

recognizes Hindi in Devanagari Script as the
official language of India?

(1) Dr. Verghese Kurien

(2) Dr. Amrita Patel
(3) M. S. Swaminathan
(4) Gurudev Khush

(1) sublimation
(3) triple point

(2) ICICI
(4) ABN Amro Bank

(2) distillation point

(4) melting point

2A.5

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
30. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.
2.

36. Which of the following countries was the host of

First Asian Yoga Championship held recently?

Non resident Indians (NRIs) can now cast

votes in their home constituencies in India.
The NRI can cast his vote by postal balloting.

(1) 1 only
(3) Both 1 and 2

(1) Thailand
(3) Vietnam

(2) 2 only
(4) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Who among the following has been defeated by

Saina Nehwal, who has won the Swiss Open
Grand Prix Gold title recently, becoming the First
Indian to do so?

31. In a landmark move, which of these State

governments has set up a Savarna Aayog, a
commission to identify the deprived and
underprivileged families among upper castes?

(1) Ji Hyun Sung

(2) Wang Lin
(3) Kamilla Rytter Juhl
(4) Shinta Mulia Sari

(1) Uttar Pradesh

(2) Bihar
(3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Rajasthan

38. On March 6, 2011, the Supreme Court held that

has ample powers to enact legislation with
respect to extra territorial aspects for the
security of India?

32. Which of these countries has announced one

billion US dollar aid for the reconstruction of
Nalanda University?
(1) Japan
(3) Malaysia

(2) Singapore
(4) China

(1) President
(3) Supreme Court

33. What is the name of the in - house magazine to be

published by the Indian Railways, to be
distributed to the passengers on high end trains?
(1) Rail Vishwa
(3) Rail Mail

(2) Rail Bandhu

(4) Rail Patra

(1) Thailand
(3) Malaysia

(2) Singapore
(4) Indonesia

40. Anant Pai, better known as Uncle Pai, who

recently died was the creator of which among the
following comic series?
(1) Chacha Chaudhary
(2) Chandamama
(3) Indrajaal
(4) Amar Chitra Katha

(1) Nandan Nilekani (2) Apoorva Sinha

(3) Sangam Chitra (4) All of these
35. Which of these countries has been added in the
BRIC (Brazil Russia India China) groupin of
emerging economies?

PP-02

(2) Prime Minister

(4) Parliament

39. Which country has appointed Brigadier General

Ravinder Singh as its next Army chief, the first
Sikh in nearly 30 years to be given the forces
batton

34. The government, in February 2011, set up a task

force to create a way to provide direct subsidies
to the ultimate beneficiaries on petroleum
working gas and fertilizers. The task force will be
headed by -

(1) South Korea

(3) South Africa

(2) Cambodia
(4) Laos

(2) Venezuela
(4) Malaysia

2A.6

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011

Section II Analytical & Logical Reasoning

For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 2 mark each.
Directions for questions 41 and 42: Each question
consists of a set of numbered statements. Assume
that each one of these statements is individually true.
Each of the four choices consists of a subset of these
statements. Choose the subset as your answer where
the statements therein are logically consistent among
themselves:

Directions for questions 43 to 45: These questions

are based on the data given below.
There are only four members of a family viz., A, B, C
and D and there is only one couple among them.
When asked about their relationships, following were
their replies:
a.
b.
c.
d.

41.
A. Only if the water level in the coastal areas
rises, then the people change their lifestyle.
B. People change their lifestyle only if they are
rewarded.
C. If people are rewarded, then they will not
change their lifestyle.
D. If the temperature rises, then the water level
in the coastal areas rises.
E. Whenever the water level in the coastal area
rises, then the temperature rises.
F. Unless the people change their lifestyle,
temperature rises.
G. People are rewarded.
H. Water level in the coastal areas does not rise.
(1) C, D, F, G and H
(3) E, F, G, H and B

43. Who always speaks the truth?

(1) A

(1) Father
(3) Wife

(3) C

(4) D

(2) Mother
(4) Husband

45. Which of the following statements must be true?

(1) As grandmother alternates between the
truth and lie.
(2) Cs wife always speaks the truth.
(3) As grandfather always speaks the truth.
(4) Bs daughter always tells lies.

(2) G, F, D, B and H
(4) None of the above

A. If Kumar sings, then the audiences sleep.

B. If Kumar sings, then the audiences dance.
C. Unless audience do not dance, the concert
will be successful.
D. Only if the audience dance, the concert will
be successful.
E. If Vina dances, then Kumar sings.
F. Kumar sings only if Vina dances.
G. Vina dances
H. The concert is successful.

PP-02

(2) B

44. How is B related to C?

42.

(1) C, F, G, B and H
(3) E, C, G, B and H

A: B is my son. D is my mother.
B: C is my wife. Dis my father.
C: D is my mother in law. A is my daughter.
D: A is my grand daughter. B is my daughter in
law.

Directions for questions 46 to 48: These questions

are based on the following information.
A cube of 7cm 7cm 7cm is kept in the corner of a
room and painted in three different colours, each face
in one colour. The cube is cut into 343 smaller but
identical cubes.
46. How many smaller cubes do not have any face
painted?

(2) A, C, F, G and H
(4) Both (2) and (3)

(1) 125
(3) 144

2A.7

(2) 180
(4) 216

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
47. How many smaller cubes have exactly one colour
on them?
(1) 108

(2) 72

(3) 36

53. In the above question (51), what is the final value

of Y?

(4) 24

(1) 4

48. How many smaller cubes have at the most two

faces painted?
(1) 343
(3) 256

(1) 360
(3) 560

Directions for questions 49 and 50:

(1) 300
(3) 720

49. Amit started at the intersection of streets no. 7

and 8. He drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km
south. Which further route could bring him back
to his starting point?

56. If Sunil is ranked sixth and Ankit is ranked fifth,

which of the following can be true?

50. After driving as stated in question no. 49 above,

Amit did not return to his starting point, but
instead drove 4 km east and 1 km north. How far
is he from his starting point?

(1) Vicky is ranked first or fourth

(2) Raman is ranked second or third
(3) Tony is ranked fourth or fifth
(4) Deepak is ranked third or fourth

(4) 7 km

Directions for questions 51 to 55: Refer to the

following data and answer the questions that follow:

57. If Raman gets the highest, Vicky should be ranked

not lower than:

A numerical machine accepts two values X and Y.

Then it updates these values as X = XY and Y = Y + 1 in
every step. The machine stops at X N.

(1) Second
(3) Fourth

51. For X = 3, Y = 2 and N = 100, how many steps are

performed before the machine stops?
(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

PP-02

(2) 20

(3) 72

(2) Third
(4) Fifth

58. If Raman is ranked second and Ankit is ranked

first, which of the following must be true?

(4) 5

(1) Sunil is ranked third

(2) Tony is ranked third
(3) Priya is ranked sixth
(4) None of these.

52. In the above question (51), what is the final value

of X?
(1) 6

(2) 360
(4) 860

Seven students Priya, Ankit, Raman, Sunil, Tony,

Deepak and Vicky take a series of tests. No two
students get similar marks. Vicky always scores more
than Priya. Priya always scores more than Ankit. Each
time either Raman scores the highest and Tony gets
the least, or alternatively Sunil scores the highest and
Deepak or Ankit scores the least.

(2) II only
(4) II and III only

(3) 1 km

(2) 500
(4) 2160

Directions for questions 56 to 60: Refer to the

following statements and answer the questions:

I. 3 km east, then 2 km south

II. 1 km north, then 3 km east
III. 1 km north, then 2 km west

(2) 4 km

(4) 20

55. If X = 2 and Y = 3, what should be the minimum

value of N such that final value of Y is 7?

Amit was driving in New Town, where all roads either

north south or east west forming a grid. Roads
were at a distance of 1 km from each other in parallel.

(1) 5 km

(3) 6

54. If the value of N is changed to 500, what would be

the final value of X?

(2) 342
(4) 282

(1) I only
(3) ! and II only

(2) 5

(4) 360
2A.8

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
59. If Sunil is ranked second, which of the following
can be true?

(3) Economists warned that inflation would

continue.
(4) Much of the quarterly increase in the price
level was due to a summer drought effect on
food price.

(1) Deepak gets more than Vicky

(2) Vicky gets more than Sunil
(3) Priya gets more than Raman
(4) Priya gets more than Vicky

Direction for question 63: Pick up the appropriate

analogy.

60. If Vicky is ranked fifth, which of the following

must be true?

63. Birth : Dirge

(1) Sunil scores the highest

(2) Raman is ranked second
(3) Tony is ranked third
(4) Ankit is ranked second

(1) Sunset : sunrise

(2) security check : arrival
(3) marriage : alimony
(4) welcome address : vote of thanks

61. In 2002, according to a news poll, 36% of the

voters had leaning towards party Y. In 2004,
this figure rose to 46%. But in another survey the
percentage was down to 40%. Therefore, the
party Z is likely to win the next election. Which
of the following, if true, would seriously weaken
the above conclusion?

64. Beautiful beaches attract people, no doubt about

it. Just look at this citys beautiful beaches, which
are among the most overcrowded beaches in the
state.
Which of the following exhibits a pattern of
reasoning most similar to the one exhibited in the
argument above?

(1) People tend to switch their votes at the last

minute.
(2) It has been showed that 85% of the voters
belonging to the party Y vote in an election
as compared to 80% of the voters belonging
to party Z.
(3) 35% of people favour party Z.
(4) No one can predict how people will vote.

(1) Moose and bear usually appear at the same

drinking hole at the same time of day.
Therefore, moose and bear must grow
thirsty at about the same time.
(2) Children who are scolded severely tend to
misbehave more often than other children.
Hence if a child is not scolded severely that
child is less likely to misbehave.
(3) This software programme helps increase the
work efficiency of its users. As a result, these
users have more free time for other
activities.
(4) During weather my dog suffers from fleas
more than during cooler weather. Therefore,
fleas must thrive in a warm environment.

62. Inflation rose by 5% over the second quarter, by

4% during the first quarter and higher than 3%
recorded during the same time last year.
However, the higher price index did not seem to
alarm National stock Index as stock prices remain
steady.
Which of the following, if true, could explain the
reaction of National stock Index?

65. No national productivity measures are available

for underground industries that may exist but
remain unreported. On the other hand, at least
some industries that are run entirely by self
employed industrialists are included in national
productivity measures.

(1) RBI announced that it will take necessary

corrective measures
(2) Stock prices were steady because of a fear
that inflation would continue.

PP-02

2A.9

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
From the information given above, it can be
validly concluded that
(1) there are at least some industries run
entirely by self employed industrialists
that are underground industries
(2) no industries that are run entirely by self
employed
industrialists
operate
underground.
(3) there are at least some industries other than
those run entirely by self employed
industrialists
that
are
underground
industries.
(4) there are at least some industries run
entirely by self employed industrialists
that are not underground industries
66. Nilu has never received a violation from the
Federal Aviation Administration during her 16
year flying career. Nilu must be a great pilot.
Which of the following can be said about the
reasoning above?
(1) The definitions of the terms create
ambiguity
(2) The argument uses circular reasoning
(3) The argument is built upon hidden
assumptions
(4) The argument works by analogy

68. What number should replace the question mark?

(1) 1

(2) 4

(3) 12

(4) 6

69. The fewer restrictions there are on the

advertising of legal services, the more lawyers
there are who advertise their services, and the
lawyers who advertise a specific service usually
charge less for that service than lawyers who do
not advertise. Therefore if the state removes any
of its current restrictions, such as the one against
advertisements that do not specify fee
arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will
be lower than if the state retains its current
restrictions.
If the statements above are true, which of the
following must be true?
(1) Some lawyers who now advertise will
charge more for specific services if they do
not have to specify fee arrangements in the
advertisements.
(2) More consumers will use legal services if
there are fewer restrictions on the
advertising of legal services.
(3) If the restrictions against advertisements
that do not specify fee arrangements is
removed, more lawyers will advertise their
services.
(4) If more lawyers advertise lower prices for
specific services, some lawyers who do not
advertise will also charge less than they
currently charge for those services.

67. Many people argue that the death penalty deters

murder. However, the notorious killer Tom
Hanks deliberately moved to a state that imposes
the death penalty just before embarking on a
series of ferocious murders. Thus, it seems clear
that the existence of the death penalty does not
serve as a deterrent to murder.
The argument above may best be characterized
as:
(1) an appeal to emotion.
(2) a flawed analogy.
(3) a general conclusion based on a specific
example.
(4) circular reasoning.

PP-02

2A.10

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
70. Which of the following, if true, would most
seriously weaken the argument concerning
overall consumer legal costs?
(1) The state is unlikely to remove all of the
restrictions that apply solely to the
advertising of legal services.
(2) Lawyers who do not advertise generally
provide legal services of the same quality as
those provided by lawyers who do
advertise.
(3) Most lawyers who now specify fee
arrangements in their advertisements
would continue to do so even in the
specification were not required.
(4) Most lawyers who advertise specific
services do not lower their fees for those
services when they begin to advertise.

PP-02

2A.11

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011

Section III Quantitative

For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each.
71. A train travelling at 36 kmph crosses a platform
in 20 seconds and a man standing on the platform
in 10 seconds. What is the length of the platform
in meters?
(1) 240 meters
(3) 200 meters

(2) 100 meters

(4) 300 meters

72. By walking at 4/5th of his usual speed, a man

reaches office 10 minutes later than usual. What
is his usual time?
(1) 20 min
(3) 30 min

(2) 36
(4) None of these

74. Two people were walking in opposite directions.

Both of them walked 6 miles forward then took
right and walked 8 miles. How far is each from
starting positions?

75. Four men and three women can do a job in 6

days. When 5 men and 6 women work on the
same job, the work gets completed in 4 days. How
long will 2 women and 3 men take to do the job?
(2) 10

(3) 8

(4) 6

78. A trader makes a profit equal to the selling price

of 75 articles when he sold 100 of the articles.
What % profit did he make in the transaction?
(1) 33.33%
(3) 300%

(2) 75%
(4) 150%

79. In a 100 M race, if A gives B a start of 20 meters,

then A wins the race by 5 seconds. Alternatively,
if A gives B a start of 40 meters the race ends in a
dead heat. How long does A take to run 200 M?
(1) 10 seconds
(3) 30 seconds

(3) 8.3

(1) 4%
(3) 75%

(2) 20 seconds
(4) 40 seconds

(2) 300%
(4) 400%

81. A number G236G0 can be divided by 36 if G is:

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) More than one values are possible.

(4) 12

76. Ram completes 60% of a task in 15 days and then

takes the help of Rahim and Rachel. Rahim is
50% as efficient as Ram is and Rachel is 50% as
PP-02

(2) 7

80. A 4 cm cube is cut into 1cm cubes. What is the

percentage increase in the surface area after such
cutting?

(1) 14 miles and 14 miles

(2) 10 miles and 10 miles
(3) 6 miles and 6 miles
(4) 12 miles and 12 miles

(1) 18

77. A and B can do a piece of work in 21 and 24 days

respectively. They start the work together and
after some days A leaves the work and B
completes the remaining work in 9 days. After
how many days did A leave?
(1) 5

(2) 40 min
(4) 50 min

73. A man and a woman 81 miles apart from each

other, start travelling towards each other at the
same time. If the man covers 5 miles per hour to
the womens 4 mile per hour, how far will the
woman have travelled when they meet?
(1) 27
(3) 45

efficient as Rahim is. In how many more days will

they complete the work?

2A.12

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
82. Amit can do a work in 12 days and Sagar in 15
days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then
the fraction of the work that is left is:
(1) 3/20
(3) 2/5

(2) 3/5
(4) 2/20

83. A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has

two concrete crossroads running in the middle of
the park and rest of the park has been used as a
lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109 sq. m, then
what is the width of the road?

(1) 2.91 m
(3) 5.82 m

(2) 3 m
(4) None of these

84. A bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls; another

bag contains 4 white and 5 black balls. From any
one of these bags a single draw of two balls is
made. Find the probability that one of them
would be white and other black ball.
(1) 275/504
(3) 5/9

(2) 5/18
(4) None of these

Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following bar graph gives the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country A, for the five
years from 2006 to 2010.
250
200
150
100
50
0
2006

2007

Production(in million kg)

2008

2009

Exports (in million kg)

2010

Per capita(in kg)

Consumption = Production Exports

Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption) (Population)
85. In which year was the percentage increase in the
consumption of rice over the previous year, the
highest?
(1) 2007
(3) 2009

PP-02

86. What is the population of country A in the year

2008 (in million)?
(1) 2.64 million
(3) 2.79 million

(2) 2008
(4) 2010

2A.13

(2) 2.72 million

(4) 2.85 million

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
87. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given
period was the highest in the year
(1) 2006
(3) 2008

(2) 2007
(4) 2009

(1) 15%
(3) 20%

88. In which of the given years was the population of

country A, the highest?
(1) 2007
(3) 2009

(2) 2008
(4) 2010

(2) 12.5%
(4) None of these

92. What is the difference in time (in hours) spent in

school and in home work?
(1) 2

Directions for questions 89 to 93: The following pie

chart shows the hourly distribution (in degrees) of all
the major activities of a student.

(2) 3

Home
work 45

(3) 4

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

94. Three parallel lines are cut by two transversals as

shown in the given figure. If AB = 2 cm, BC = 4 cm
and DE = 1.5 cm, then the length of EF is:

2
Sleeping
120

(4) 8

93. If he spends 1/3rd time of homework in

Mathematics then the number of hours he spends
in rest of the subjects in home work:
(1) 1

Column1
Games
30

91. If he spends the time in games equal to the home

work and remains constant in other activities,
then the percentage decrease in time of sleeping:

School
105

1.5

C
Others
60

(1) 2 cm
(3) 3.5 cm

(2) 3 cm
(4) 4 cm

95. log10 10 + log10102 + .. + log1010n

89. The percentage of time which he spends in school
is:
(1) 38%
(3) 40%

(1) n2 + 1
(2) n2 1

(2) 30%
(4) 25%

90. How much time (in per cent) does he spend in

games in comparison to sleeping?
(1) 30%
(3) 25%

PP-02

(2) 40%
(4) None of these

96. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is thrice

the difference of the number and its reciprocal.
The number is:

2A.14

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011

103. Ramsukh bhai sells rasgulla(a favourite Indian

sweets) at Rs. 15 per kg. A rasgulla is made up of
flour and sugar in the ratio 5 : 3. The ratio of price
of sugar and flour is 7 : 3 (per kg). Thus he earns
66 2/3 profit. What is the cost price of sugar?

97. The total number of Natural numbers that lie

between 10 and 300 and are divisible by 9 is
(1) 32

(2) 30

(3) 33

(4) 34

98. If nCx = 56 and nPx = 336, find n and x.

(1) 7, 3
(3) 8, 3

(2) 8, 4
(4) 9, 6

99. One side of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm. The

midpoints of its sides are joined to form another
triangle whose midpoints are in turn joined to
form still another triangle. This process continues
indefinitely. Find the sum of the perimeters of all
the triangles.
(1) 144 cm
(3) 536 cm

(2) 72 cm
(4) 676 cm

100. The probability that a leap year selected at

random contains either 53 Sundays or 53
Mondays, is:
(1) 17/53
(3) 3/7

(2) 4 and 3
(4) None of these

102. The average of 4 distinct prime numbers a, b, c, d

is 35, where a < b < c < d. a and d are equidistant
from 36 and b and c are equidistant from 34 and
a, b are equidistant from 30 and c and d are
equidistant from 40. The difference between a
and d is:
(1) 30
(3) 21

PP-02

(2) 14
(4) Cannot be determined

(2) Rs. 9/kg

(4) Rs. 14/kg

104. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar enables a

person to purchase 6 kg more for Rs. 240. What is
the original price per kg of sugar?
(1) Rs. 10/kg
(3) Rs. 6/kg

(2) Rs. 8/kg

(4) Rs. 5/kg

105. A solid sphere is melted and recast into a right

circular cone with a base radius equal to the
radius of the sphere. What is the ratio of the
height and radius of the cone so formed?
(1) 4 : 3
(3) 3 : 4

(2) 2 : 3
(4) None of these

106. The speed of scooter, car and train are in the ratio
of 1 : 4 : 16. If all of them cover equal distance
then the ratio of time taken/velocity for each of
the vehicle is:
(1) 256 : 16 : 1
(3) 16 : 4 : 1

(2) 1/53
(4) None of these

101. Find the intercepts made by the line 3x + 4y 12

= 0 on the axes:
(1) 2 and 3
(3) 3 and 5

(1) Rs. 10/kg

(3) Rs. 18/kg

(2) 1 : 4 : 16
(4) 16 : 1 : 4

107. B is twice efficient as A and A can do a piece of

work in 15 days. A started the work and after a
few days B joined him. They completed the work
in 11 days, from the starting. For how many days
did they work together?
(1) 1 day
(3) 6 days

(2) 2 days
(4) 5 days

108. A, B, C and D purchased a restaurant for Rs. 56

lakhs. The contribution of B, C and D together is
460% that of A, alone. The contribution of A, C
and D together is 366.66% that of Bs
contribution and the contribution of C is 40%
that of A, B and D together. The amount
contributed by D is:
2A.15

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
(1) 10 lakhs
(3) 16 lakhs

(2) 12 lakhs
(4) 18 lakhs

109. The salary of Raju and Ram is 20% and 30% less
than the salary of Saroj respectively. By what
percent is the salary of Raju more than the salary
of Ram?
(1) 33.33%
(3) 15.18%

(2) 50%
(4) 14.28%

110. The radius of a wire is decreased to one third

and its volume remains the same. The new length
is how many times the original length?
(1) 2 times
(3) 5 times

PP-02

(2) 4 times
(4) 9 times

2A.16

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011

Section IV General English

For all questions in this section, correct answers carry 1 mark each.
Directions for questions 111 to 116: Read the
following passage and answer the questions that
follow.

113. By rapture the author means an emotion

involving great
(1) trepidation
(3) fear

D. H. Lawrence 1885 1930: The Supreme

Triumph
For man, the vast marvel is to be alive. For man as for
flower and beast and bird, the supreme triumph is to
be most vividly, most perfectly alive. Whatever the
unborn and the dead may know, they cannot know
the beauty, the marvel of being alive in the flesh. The
dead may look after the afterwards. But the
magnificent here and now of life in the flesh is ours,
and ours alone, and ours only for a time. We ought to
dance with rapture, that we should be alive and in the
flesh, and part of the living, incarnate cosmos. I am
part of the sun as my eye is the part of me. That I am
part of the earth my feet below know the perfectly,
and my blood is part of the sea. My soul knows that I
am a part of the human race, my soul is an inorganic
part of the great human soul, as my spirit is a part of
my nation. In my own very self, I am part of my
family. There is nothing of me that is alone and
absolute except my mind, and we shall find that the
mind has no existence by itself, it is only the glitter of
the sun on the surface of the waters. Apocalypse,
1931.

114. By the last line It waters, the

author means that the mind is only
(1) a mirage
(3) magic

(2) loss
(4) victory

(1) social
(3) reflective

PP-02

(2) moral
(4) philosophical

116. The most suitable title for this passage would be (1) The Surface of the Waters
(2) My Mind
(3) The Human Race
(4) Alive and Kicking
Directions for questions 117 to 119: Choose the
correct option.
117. The repetition of messages or the use of
superfluous expressions is called
(1) redundancy
(3) alliteration

(2) hyperbole
(4) allegory

118. Ink : pen : paper

(1) watch : dial : strap
(2) book : paper : words
(3) farmer : plough : field
(4) colour : brush : canvas

112. When the dead look after the afterwards the

living should look at life
(1) forever
(2) for some months
(3) for only a short while
(4) in the past

(2) an illusion
(4) a reflection

115. The tone of this passage is

111. By triumph the author means (1) sin

(3) sorrow

(2) thrill
(4) joy

119. realia
(1) theoretical constructs
(2) fabricated examples
(3) objects from real life
(4) based on reality
2A.17

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
Directions for questions 120 to 125: Choose the
grammatically correct option from the following.

(3) Could you give me the amount for which you

filled out in the check you sent?
(4) Could you give me the amount wherein you
filled out in the check you sent?

120.
(1) Are these gloves belonging to you? she
asked.
(2) Does this gloves belong to you? she asked.
(3) Do these gloves belongs to you? she asked.
(4) Do these gloves belong to you? she asked.
121.
(1) I live in a house in a street in the
countryside. The street is called Bear
Street and the house is old more than 100
years old!
(2) I live in the house in the street countryside.
The street is called Bear Street and the
house is old more than 100 years old!
(3) I live in a house in the street in the
countryside. The street is called Bear
Street and the house is old more than 100
years old!
(4) I live in a house in a street in the
countryside. The street is called Bear
Street and a house is old more than 100
years old!
122.
(1) The teachers will be able to visit our schools
and compare our teaching methods to their
own.
(2) The teachers will be able to pay a visit to our
schools and compare teaching methods for
their own.
(3) The teachers will be able to visit our schools
and compare our teaching methods with
their own.
(4) The teachers will be able to visit our school
and compare their teaching method with
their own.
123.
(1) Could you give me the amount that you filled
out in the check which was sent?
(2) Could you give me the amount what you
filled out in the check you sent?
PP-02

124. (1) I have completed the work yesterday.

(2) I did completed the work yesterday.
(3) I have had completed the work yesterday.
(4) I completed the work yesterday.
125.
(1) The train couldnt
with the truck.
(2) The train couldnt
into the truck.
(3) The train couldnt
against the truck.
(4) The train couldnt
before the truck.

stop in time and crashed

stop in time and crashed
stop in time and crashed
stop in time and crashed

Directions for questions 126 to 130: Choose the

correct synonymous word or description for each
italicized word.
The Jan Lokpal Bill, also referred to (126) as the
citizens ombudsman bill, is a proposed independent
(127) anti corruption law in India. Anti corruption
social activists proposed it as a more effective
improvement on the original Lokpal Bill, which is
currently being proposed by the government of India.
The Jan Lokpal Bill aims to effectively deter (128)
corruption, redress grievances (129) of citizens, and
protect whistle blowers. If made into law, the bill
would create an independent ombudsman (130) body
called the Lokpal. It would be empowered to register
and investigate complaints of corruption against
politicians and bureaucrats without prior government
approval. (Source: Wikipedia)
126. (1) described as
(3) supported for

(2) included in
(4) reformed as

127. (1) self centered

(3) self seeking

(2) impartial
(4) self - possessed

128. (1) swell

(3) propel

(2) prevent
(4) lucubrate

2A.18

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
129. (1) complaints
(3) committees

(2) dishonesty
(4) opinions

130.
(1) a government appointee who investigates
complaints by private persons against
bureaucrats and/or politicians.
(2) a government appointee who investigates
complaints by government against common
citizens.
(3) a government appointee who investigates
complaints by citizens against citizens.
(4) a government appointee who investigates
complaints
by
government
against
government officials.
Directions for questions 131 to 134: In the
following sentences, one word or a phrase is used
wrongly. Choose the word that must be changed or
modified or deleted to make the sentence correct.
There are sentences without any errors too.

(1) security guards (2) forward

(3) objectionable
(4) no error
Directions for questions 135 and 136: Rearrange
the following sentence fragment (P, Q, R and S) to
make meaningful sentences.
135. I always told them
consideration for me.
P.
Q.
R.
S.

(2) to discuss
(4) a long time

132. I know you must not see eye to eye with the
philosophy of Ramkrishna but you must admit
that he had had tremendous influence over a
great many followers.
(1) see eye to eye
(3) influence over

(2) had had

(4) no error

(2) to repeat
(4) no error

P.
Q.
R.
S.

I picked up a liking for learning

the largest urban area and primary
so after leaving Bangkok
city of Thailand and a place of unique beauty

(1) RPQS
(3) RSPQ

(2) RQSP
(4) SPQR

Directions for questions 137 to 139: Choose the

correct option.
137. This book five sections
(1) comprises of
(3) consists

(2) comprises
(4) comprises to

138. My grandfather left most of his money to an NGO;

the rest went directly to my daughter and
..
(1) I
(3) myself

(2) me
(4) myself too

139. Parts of a country behind the coast or a rivers

banks
(1) Isthumus
(3) Hinterland

134. One of the security guards rushed forward;

unlocked the gate and asked whether I had
anything objectionable.

PP-02

(2) PQSR
(4) SQPR

136. A year or .. foreign languages

133. The Principal inquired with the students if they

would like their teacher to repeat the lesson
again.
(1) inquired with
(3) again

and

How for me she

Always exuded warmth
Was like a familys
Elder and how she has

(1) PRSQ
(3) PRQS

131. The committee came to a decision to discuss in

detail about assorted problems that people have
been facing for a long time.
(1) came to
(3) about

..

2A.19

(2) Archipelago
(4) Swamps

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
Directions for questions 140 and 141: In the
questions below, the sentences have been given in
Active/Passive voice. From the given alternatives,
choose the one which best expresses the given
sentence in Passive /Active voice
140. Who is creating this mess?
(1) Who has been created this mess?
(2) By whom has this mess been created?
(3) By whom this mess is being created?
(4) By whom is this mess being created?

142. (1) QRSP

(3) RQSP

Directions for questions 143 and 144: Choose the

word which best expresses the meaning of the given
word.

(1) Foolishness
(3) Enthusiasm

hours
hours
hours

S1: Metals are today being replaced by polymers in

many applications.
P: Above all, they are cheaper and easier to process
making them a viable alternative to metals.
Q: Polymers are essentially a long chains of
hydrocarbons molecules.
R: Today polymers as strong as metals have been
developed.
S: These have replaced the traditional chromium
plated metallic bumpers in cars.

(2) Extremity
(4) Economy

144. HARBINGER
(1) Massenger
(3) Forerunner

hours

Direction for question 142: In the questions below,

the passage consist of six sentences. The first and the
sixth sentences are given. (S1, S6) The middle four
sentences in each have been removed and jumbled
up. These are labeled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the
proper order for the four sentences.

(2) Steward
(4) Pilot

Directions for questions 145 and 146: Choose the

word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given
words.
145. EXODUS
(1) Influx
(3) Return

(2) Home - coming

(4) Restoration

146. EQUANIMITY
(1) Resentment
(3) Duplicity

(2) Dubiousness
(4) Excitement

Direction for question 147: Find the Odd one out

from the group of words.
147. (1) Bludgeon
(3) Black Jack

(2) Dragon
(4) Order

Direction for question 148: Each pair of capitalized

words given is followed by four pair of words. Select
the pair that DOES NOT expresses a relationship
similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.
148.

KERNAL
(1) Caterpillar
(2) Larva
(3) Lassitude
(4) Passenger

S6: Many Indian Institutes of Science and Technology

run special programmes on polymer science.

PP-02

(2) RSQP
(4) QRPS

143. FRUGALITY

141. You should open the wine about three hours

before you use it.
(1) Wine should be opened about three
before use.
(2) Wine should be opened by you three
before use.
(3) Wine should be opened about three
before you use it.
(4) Wine should be opened about three
before it is used.

The proper sequence should be:

2A.20

SHELL

:
:
:
:

Pupa
Cacoon
Syncope
Car

www.TestFunda.com

SNAP 2011
149. Both of them . since their childhood.
(1) are working here
(2) work here
(3) have been working
(4) are liking to work
150. Although initial investigations pointed towards
him
(1) the preceding events corroborated his
involvement in the crime.
(2) the additional information confirmed his
guilt
(3) the subsequent events established that he
was guilty
(4) the subsequent events proved that he was
innocent

PP-02

2A.21

www.TestFunda.com

SOLUTIONS

2B

SNAP 2011

ANSWER KEY

PP-02

Q.

Ans.

Q.

Ans.

Q.

Ans.

Q.

Ans.

Q.

Ans.

Q.

Ans.

26

51

76

101

126

27

52

77

102

127

28

53

78

103

128

29

54

79

104

129

30

55

80

105

130

31

56

81

106

131

32

57

82

107

132

33

58

83

108

133

34

59

84

109

134

10

35

60

85

110

135

11

36

61

86

111

136

12

37

62

87

112

137

13

38

63

88

113

138

14

39

64

89

114

139

15

40

65

90

115

140

16

41

66

91

116

141

17

42

67

92

117

142

18

43

68

93

118

143

19

44

69

94

119

144

20

45

70

95

120

145

21

46

71

96

121

146

22

47

72

97

122

147

23

48

73

98

123

148

24

49

74

99

124

149

25

50

75

100

125

150

2B.1

www.TestFunda.com