9 The relationship between information and bandwidth is called

Chapter 1. Introductory Topics

1. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in

accordance with the
low-frequency intelligence to create a
modulated signal?

a. Information theory
b. Fourier analysis
c. FFT
d. Hartley's law
10 Aliasing can be defined as errors occurring when

a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Time
d. Amplitude
2. Communication systems are most often categorized by what
characteristic?
a. Modulation frequency
b. Carrier frequency
c. Transmission distance
d. Information transmitted
3 Voltage gain in decibels is

a. 10 ln

a. The input frequency exceeds the sample rate.

b. The bandwidth is less than the input frequency.
c. The type of modulation has been incorrectly identified.
d. The sampling signal has been incorrectly identified.
11 Which of the following does not hold true for a parallel resonant circuit?

a. At the resonant frequency the impedance of the circuit is a minimum.

b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the same as it would be if it were a
series.
c. It is commonly referred to as a tank circuit.
d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit draws minimum current from the
constant-voltage source.
12 The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank circuit for
swamping out the effect of the
transistor's internal capacitances is the

b. 10 log

c. 20 ln

d. 20 log
4 Which expression indicates a measurement using a 1-W reference
a. dBm(1)
b. dB1
c. dBW
d. dB(W)
5 An amplifier operating over a 2-Mhz bandwidth has a 75 input
resistance. If it is operating at 22 C and
has a voltage gain of 300, the noise produced at the output of this
amplifier would be approximately
a.
b.
c.
d.
6 Which of the following is not an example of external noise
a. Fluorescent light
b. Solar emission
c. Resistor noise
d. Lightning
7 An amplifier's output signal has 25 mV p-p of desired signal mixed in
with 45 V rms of undesired noise. The load impedance is 50 . What
is the amplifier's output S/N level in dB?
a. 22.9 dB
b. 54.9 dB
c. 45.9 dB
d. 51.9 dB
8 Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater bandwidth than a 2kHz sinewave?
a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the sinewave.
b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics, whereas
the sinewave has
only one.
c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise.
d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage, whereas
the sinewave
does not.

a. Hartley design
b. Clapp design
c. Colpitts design
d. Crystal design
13 The ability of a crystal to oscillate at its resonant frequency is due to

a. The flywheel effect

b. Barkhausen criteria
c. The piezoelectric effect
d. Frequency synthesis

14 The Barkhausen criteria has to do with

a. Receiver noise
b. Fourier analysis
c. Oscillation
d. Troubleshooting
15 Which of the following can be called a troubleshooting plan?
a. Symptoms as clues to faulty stages
b. Signal tracing and signal injection
c. Voltage and resistance measure
d. Substitution
e. All the above

Chapter 2. Amplitude Modulation: Transmission

1. In a modulated system, the low-frequency intelligence signal is not called

the
a. Modulating signal
b. Information signal
c. Modulating wave
d. Carrier
2. A 7.0-Mhz carrier is modulated by a voice signal that has three frequency
components of 100 Hz,
200 Hz, and 300 Hz. What three frequencies comprise the lower
sideband?
a. 6.9997 Mhz, 6.9998 Mhz, and 6.9999 Mhz
b. 100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz
c. 6.9999 Mhz, 7.0000 Mhz, and 7.0001 Mhz
d. 7.0001 Mhz, 7.0002 Mhz, and 7.0003 Mhz

3. The total output power of an AM transmitter is measured to be 850

W. What is the total output sideband
power if it has a percent modulation of 100%?
a. 425 W
b. 850 W
c. 283.3 W
d. 141.65 W
4. A 100-kHz carrier is modulated by a 20-Hz 2kHz signal. The upper
sideband is
a. 102 kHz
b. 100.02 kHz to 102 kHz
c. 101 kHz
d. 100.002 kHz to 102 kHz

12. The main reason for using a dummy antenna is to

a. Prevent damage to output circuits.
b. Minimize damage to the regular antenna.
c. Prevent overmodulation.
d. Prevent undesired transmissions.
13. A spectrum analyzer is
a. An instrument that displays amplitude versus frequency on a CRT.
b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's output signal is free from
any
spurious signals.
c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver with broad frequency range.
d. All the above.

14.The strategy for repair of electronic equipment includes the following.

5. One full revolution of a phasor generates which percentage of a full
sinewave?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 200%
6. An AM waveform at maximum is 100 V p-p and at minimum is 40 V
p-p. The modulation percentage is
a. 250%
b. 40%
c. 25%
d. 37.5%

7. A transmitter having a 900-W carrier transmits 1188 W when

modulated with a single sinewave. If the carrier is simultaneously
modulated with another sinewave at 60% modulation, calculate the total
transmitted power.

a. Verify that a problem exists.

b. Isolate the defective stage.
c. Isolate the defective component.
d. Replace the defective component and hot check.
e. All the above.
15. A technique that helps you understand how a carrier and sideband
combine to form the AM waveform
is
a. The tangential method.
b. Phasor representation.
c. Keying.
d. None of the above.

Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation: Reception

1. The main problem with the TRF design is

a. 1084 W
b. 1170 W
c. 1350 W
d. 1224 W

a. Lack of selectivity in receiving all AM stations

b. Poor demodulation of an AM station
c. Frustration in tuning to receive more than one station
d. Lack of sensitivity in receiving all AM stations

8. Low-level modulation is
2. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its ability to
a. The most economic approach for low-power transmitters.
b. Characterized by the use of "linear" power amplifiers to amplify
the AM
signal.
c. Characterized by having the carrier and the intelligence signals mix
at low
power levels
d. All the above.
9. The main advantage of a high-level modulation system compared to a
low-level system is that it
a. Allows more efficient amplification.
b. Allows use of low-powered intelligence signal.
c. Provides higher modulation percentage.
d. Is more economical.
10. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier stage in a transmitter?
a. It prevents transmitters from producing spurious frequencies in
the output
signals.
b. It provides power amplification with high efficiency.
c. Its high input impedance prevents oscillators from drifting off
frequency.
d. It amplifies audio frequencies before modulation occurs.
11. The purpose of an antenna coupler is to
a. Match the output impedance of the transmitter with the antenna's
impedance to provide maximum
power transfer.
b. Allow the transmitter to be connected to several antennas at the
same time.
c. Filter out the carrier frequency from the transmitter's AM output
signal.
d. Cause the transmitter to operate at more than one carrier
frequency at the
same time.

a. Withstand shock
b. Receive one station versus another
c. Receive weak stations
d. All the above
3. When the input to an ideal nonlinear device is an AM waveform consisting
of a carrier and its
sidebands, the output of nonlinear mixing produces the original
intelligence because
a. The intelligence signal is one of its inputs.
b. A dc component is also produced.
c. The difference between the carrier and its sidebands is the original
intelligence frequency.
d. The intelligence frequencies are the upper and the lower sideband
frequencies.
4. An AM signal having a carrier frequency of 940 kHz is to be mixed with a
local oscillator output signal in
order to produce an intermediate frequency of 455 kHz. At what should
the L.O. frequency be set?
a. 455 kHz
b. 1395 kHz
c. 910 kHz
d. 1850 kHz
5. Diodes that have been specially fabricated to produce a capacitance that
varies inversely proportional to
the amount of reverse bias are called
a. Varactor diodes
b. Varicap diodes
c. VVC diodes
d. All the above

6. The image frequency for a standard broadcast receiver using a 455kHz IF and tuned to a station at 680
kHz would be
a. 1135 kHz
b. 225 kHz
c. 1590 kHz
d. 1815 kHz

7. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of

a. Image frequency
b. Tracking
c. Diagonal clipping
d. Poor sensitivity
8. An auxiliary AGC diode
a. Reduces selectivity
b. Increases sensitivity
c. Decreases sensitivity
d. All the above
9. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having AGC?
a. The speaker output level would drastically change while tuning
from a weak signal to a strong signal.
b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in the
speaker.
c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume control as
the weather and ionosphere change.
d. All the above
10. The only roadblock to having a complete receiver manufactured on
an integrated circuit is
a. Tuned circuits and volume controls
b. Cost
c. Phase-locked loops
d. Ceramic filters
11. The decibel difference between the largest tolerable receiver input
signal and
its sensitivity is called
a. The decibel power gain of the receiver
b. Automatic gain control (AGC)
c. The dynamic range of the receiver
d. The IF amplifier gain
12. The simplest AM detector is the
a. Synchronous detector
b. Product detector
c. Heterodyne detector
d. Diode detector
13. Tracking in a superhet receiver is accomplished using a
a. Trimmer capacitor
b. Padder capacitor
c. Varicap diode
d. a and b
e. All the above
14. If no stations are picked up on the lower half of the AM band, the
likely problem is
a. Low RF gain
b. Poor AGC operation
c. IF selectivity
d. LO tracking
15. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem area is
the
a. Power supply
b. RF section
c. Audio amplifier
d. AGC diode

Chapter 4: Single-Sideband Communications

1. An SSB signal with a maximum level of 200 V p-p into a 50 load results in a
PEP rating of
a. 200 W
b. 50 W
c. 100 W
d. 800 W
2. State the chief advantage(s) of a standard SSB system.
a. Maximum signal range with minimum transmitted power
b. Easy carrier reinsertion
c. Elimination of carrier interference
d. a and c
3. The noise advantage of SSB over AM is
a. 35 dB
b. 57 dB
c. 810 dB
d. 1012 dB
4. What is the difference between a balanced modulator and a regular
modulator?
a. There is no carrier produced in the output of a balanced modulator.
b. In a balanced modulator, there is 180 phase shift between the upper
and lower sidebands.
c. In a balanced modulator, only one sideband is produced.
d. In a balanced modulator, harmonics of the sidebands are suppressed.
5. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier suppression is accomplished by
a. A dual-gate FET having symmetry
b. Center-tapped transformers causing canceling magnetic fields
c. The nonlinearity of the diodes that are used
d. Symmetrical differential amplifier stages
6.Which cannot be used successfully to convert DSB-SC to SSB?
a. Crystal filter
b. Ceramic filter
c. Mechanical filter
d. Tank circuit

7. Another term for ripple amplitude for a ceramic filter is

a. The shape factor
b. The peak-to-valley ratio
c. The insertion loss
d. The quality factor
8. Which of the following is not an advantage of the phase method over the
filter method in producing SSB?
a. The design of the 90 phase-shift network for the intelligence
frequencies is simple.
b. Lower intelligence frequencies can be economically used, because a
high-Q filter is not necessary.
c. Intermediate balanced modulators are not necessary, because high-Q
filters are not needed.
d. It is easier to switch from one sideband to the other.
9. Once an SSB signal has been generated, it must be amplified by
a. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
b. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve energy
c. A linear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
d. A linear amplifier to avoid distortion
10. The advantages provided by carrier elimination in SSB do not apply to
transmission of
a. Code
b. Music
c. Noise

d. All the above

b. 5
c. 2

11. Provide the approximate "outside-of-passband" attenuation of a

Butterworth filter.
a. 3-dB slope per octave
b. 3-dB slope per decade
c. 6-dB slope per octave
d. 6-dB slope per decade

d. 20
5

a. Frequency deviation

12. An SSB receiver recreates the original intelligence signal by

a. Mixing the USB with LSB signals and filtering out the resulting
different frequencies
b. Filtering out the difference between either sideband and the
internally generated carrier signal
c. Filtering out the harmonics of the received sideband signal
frequencies
d. Amplifying the dc term produced by mixing action

The amount an FM carrier frequency deviates for a given

modulating input voltage level is called the

b. Index of modulation
c. Deviation constant
d. Deviation ratio
6

Standard FM broadcast stations use a maximum bandwidth of

a. 150 kHz
b. 200 kHz

13. Common types of balanced modulators include

a. Ring modulator
b. Phase modulator
c. Lattice modulator
d. All the above

c. 75 kHz
d. 15 kHz
7

Carson's rule is used to approximate the necessary

a. Frequency deviation
b. Bandwidth

14. Describe the oscilloscope waveform of an SSB transmitter's

balanced modulator if it exhibits carrier
leakthrough.
a. Trapezoidal wave
b. Sinewave
c. FM wave
d. AM wave

c. Capture ratio
d. Modulation index
8

15. The two-tone test is used to

a. 250 W
b. 500 W

a. Test carrier suppression

b. Test filter ripple
c. Test amplifier linearity
d. None of the above

Chapter 5: Frequency Modulation Transmission

1

Angle modulation includes the following types of modulation:

An FM transmitter has an output power of 500 W when it is not

modulated. When intelligence is added, its modulation index is 2.0.
What is its output power with a modulation index of 2.0?

c. 1000 W
d. 2000 W
9

Another way to describe the modulation index is using the

a. Deviation ratio
b. Deviation constant

a. FM

c. Capture ratio

b. PM

d. Maximum deviation

c. AM
d. All the above
e. a and b
2

The amount of frequency increase and decrease around the center

frequency in an FM signal is called the
a. Index of modulation
b. Frequency deviation
c. Phase deviation
d. Bandwidth of the FM signal

The amount of frequency deviation is dependent on the intelligence

frequency in

10 The inherent ability of FM to minimize the effect of undesired

signals operating at the same or nearly the same frequency as the
desired station is known as the
a. Capture effect
b. Signal-to-noise ratio
c. Noise figure
d. Bessel function
11 In a Crosby FM transmitter, an FM signal having a center frequency
of 2.04 Mhz and a deviation of 69 Hz is passed through four
cascaded frequency multiplier stages: two triplers, one doubler, and
one quadrupler. What type of signal appears at the output of the
last multiplier stage?

a. An FM signal

a. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 kHz

b. A PM signal

b. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 kHz

c. Both FM and PM signals

c. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz

d. Neither FM nor PM signals

d. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz

An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 2 kHz and a maximum

deviation of 10 kHz. If its carrier frequency is set at 162.4 Mhz,
what is its index of modulation?

12 The circuitry used to increase the operating frequency of a

transmitter up to a specified value is called the
a. Multiplier

a. 10

b. Expander

c. Pump chain
d. All the above

a. Receiver's wiring
b. IF transformer
c. Antenna
d. All the above

13 The purpose of the matrix network in a stereo FM broadcast

transmitter is to
a. Mix the 38-kHz pilot carrier with the L R audio
b. Convert the L and R channels to L + R and L R channels

Local oscillator reradiation refers to radiation through the

Which is not one of the three stages in which a PLL can be

operated?

c. Separate the left channel from the right channel

a. Free-running
b. Capture
c. Locked/tracking
d. Searching

d. Modulate the L + R and L R signals with the carrier signal

14 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 5 kHz and a maximum
deviation of 25 kHz. Its index of modulation is
8
a. 125
b. 0.2
c. 5
d. 6

a. 75 kHz
b. 120 kHz
c. 150 kHz
d. 240 kHz

15 Frequency multipliers
a. Are used to multiply the frequency of the carrier signal of an FM
signal
b. Consist of a class C amplifier followed by a tank circuit that
filters out a single harmonic

A PLL is set up so that its VCO free-runs at 8.9 Mhz. The

VCO does not change frequency unless its input is within
75 kHz of 8.9 Mhz. After it does lock, the input frequency
can be adjusted within 120 kHz of 8.9 Mhz without having
the PLL start to free-run again. The capture range of the
PLL is

Slope detection is seldom used due to

a. Nonlinearity
b. Attenuation
c. Complexity
d. All the above

c. Are used to multiply the frequency deviation of an FM signal

d. All the above
Chapter 6: Frequency Modulation Reception
10
1

A difference between AM and FM receiver block diagrams is

that the FM version includes a

a. To filter out the SCA signal at the output of the

discriminator
b. To filter out the L R signal at the output of the
discriminator
c. To filter out the L + R signal at the output of the
discriminator
d. To produce separate L and R signals from the L + R and
L signals

a. Limiter
b. Discriminator
c. Deemphasis network
d. All the above
2

An FM receiver rarely works satisfactorily without an RF

amplifier because
a. FM receivers typically work with smaller input signal
levels due to thei noise
characteristics
b. FM receivers have a narrower bandwidth.
c. FM receivers do not have very much gain in their IF
amplifier stages.
d. FM receivers need RF amplifier stages to be able to
decode stereo signals.

A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain of 113 dB

prior to its limiter. The limiter's quieting voltage is 400 mV.
Its sensitivity is approximately

In an FM stereo receiver, what is the purpose of the 2353kHz filter?

11

A dual audio amplifier is rated to provide 65 dB of channel

separation. If the right channel has 4 W of output power,
how much of this power could be due to the left channel
intelligence?
a. 4 W
b. 79 nW
c. 1.26 W
d. 2.25 mW

12

The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the

a. Range of frequencies in which it will remain locked
b. Allowable range of dc voltage
c. Allowable range of ac input voltage
d. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures

a.
b.
c.
d.
4

a. Offers increased dynamic range over those of JFETs

b. Produces higher-frequency responses than do JFETs
c. Produces higher values of voltage gain than do JFETs
d. Is not compatible with AGC
5

13

The use of dual-gate MOSFETs in RF amplifier stages

a. VCO
b. Low-pass filter
c. Comparator
d. Phase detector
14

The Foster-Seely detector design is superior to the ratio

detector in that it
a. Does not respond to any undesired amplitude variations
b. Also provides an output AGC signal
c. Offers superior linear response to wideband FM
deviations
d. Does not need a limiter stage

The input signal into a PLL is at the

The square-law relationship of the FETs input versus output

a. Allows for greater sensitivity in an FM receiver
b. Provides improved noise performance
c. Reduces shot noise
d. Minimizes cross-modulation

15

When troubleshooting a stereo demodulator, the input

signal should be abouto

a.
b.
c. 1 mV rms
d. 100 mV rms

8 A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5 Mhz bandwidth, a 6-dBm

third intercept point, and a 3-dB signal-to-noise ratio. Its sensitivity
is
a. 94 dB
b. 82.2 dB

Chapter 7 Communication Technique

c. 79.2 dB
d. 81 dB

1 Why are image frequencies somewhat less of a problem in FM

receivers than they are in SSB or AM receivers?
a. SSB uses less bandwidth than does FM.
b. FM signals have a capture effect characteristic.
c. FM mixer stages are square-law devices.
d. FM receivers do not use the superheterodyne design.

9 Two-modulus dividers are used in the synthesis of frequencies into

the VHF band due to
a. Its ability to work at practical power consumptions
b. Its ability to work at practical speeds
c. The insufficient speed and power of the basic programmable
divider designs
d. All the above

2 The tuned circuits prior to the mixer in a superheterodyne receiver

are called the
a. Front end
b. Tuner
c. Preselector
d. All the above

10 The disadvantage of direct digital synthesizers (DDS) over analog

frequency synthesizers is
a. Its complexity and cost
b. Its limited maximum output frequency
c. Its higher phase noise
d. All the above

3 The signal-strength meter that shows the relative signal-strength

level is called the ________ .
a. S meter
b. Signal meter
c. Strength meter
d. All the above

11 The G.E. Phoenix radio is an example of

a. An HF amateur transceiver using AM and SSB modulation modes
b. A VHF commercial transceiver using the FM modulation mode
and a channel guard function
c. A military transceiver using all modes on HF frequencies
d. A cellular telephone transceiver

4 An AM broadcast receiver has two identical tuned circuits with a Q

of 50 prior to the IF stage. The IF frequency is 460 kHz and the
receiver is tuned to a station on 550 kHz. The image-frequency
rejection is

12 The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly switched

frequency or time transmissions is known as

a. 41 dB

a. Synthesizing

b. 36.2 dB

b. Facsimile

c. 72.4 dB

c. Spread spectrum

d. 82 dB

d. Compression

5 An AGC that causes a step reduction in receiver gain at some

arbitrarily high value of received signal in order to prevent
overloading the receiver is known as

13 The acronym CDMA refers to ________.

a. Carrier-division multiple-access systems
b. Capture-division multiple-access systems

a. Arbitrary AGC

c. Code-division multiple-access systems

b. Auxiliary AGC

d. Channel-division multiple-access systems

c. Delayed AGC
14 A typical problem encountered when troubleshooting a frequency
synthesizer is
6 Up-conversion offers the following advantage(s):
a. A small frequency error
a. Less expensive filters

b. A large frequency error

b. Good image-frequency rejection

c. No output

c. Minimized tuning range for the LO

d. All the above

d. .b and c
15 A transceiver is
7 The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier provides a
usable output is called the

a. A transmitter that can be tuned to several bands of frequencies

b. A transmitter that transmits digital data

a. Level of acceptability

c. A receiver that receives digital data

b. Dynamic range

d. A transmitter and receiver in a single package

c. Degree of usefulness
d.Specified input

Chapter 8 Digital Communication : Coding Technique

1 The advantage(s) of digital and/or data communications over analog

include
a. Noise performance
b. Regeneration

a. ASCII
b. EBCDIC
c. Baudot code
d. Gray code

c. Digital signal processing

d. All the above
2 In a S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled voltage is
a. Aperture time
b. Acquisition time
c. Flat-top time

10 The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals can be made
less significant by
a. Companding
b. Using time-division multiplexing
c. Using frequency-division multiplexing
d. Filtering out the alias frequency

d. Dmin
3 Error signals associated with the sampling process are called

11 When the message and the BCC are transmitted as separate parts
within the same transmitted code, it is called a(n)

a. Foldover distortion

a. Systematic code

b. Aliasing

b. CRC

c. Nyquist rate

c. (n,k) cyclic code

d. a and b

d. Interleaved code

4 Which of the following is not a common RZ code?

12 The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data have been
shifted in is the

a. RZ-unipolar
b. RZ-bipolar

a. Quantile interval

c. RZ-M

b. Codec

d. RZ-AMI

c. BCC
d. Syndrome

5 In an asynchronous data system

a. Both sender and receiver are exactly synchronized to the same
clock frequency.

13 W hich of the following is not an example of code error detection

and correction in a data communication channel?

b. Each computer word is preceded by a start bit and followed by a

stop bit to frame the word.

a. Parity

c. The receiver derives its clock signal from the received data
stream.

c. Block-check character

d. All the above.

6 A CD audio laser-disk system has a frequency bandwidth of 20 Hz
to 20 kHz. The minimum sample rate to satisfy the Nyquist criteria
is
a. 20 Hz
b. 20 kHz
c. 40 Hz

b. Frequency-shift keying
d. Hamming code
14 Error-correcting techniques that allow for correction at the receiver
are called
a. Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC)
b. Block-check characters (BCC)
c. Forward error correcting (FEC)
d. Parity

d. 40 kHz
15 Codes producing random data that closely resemble digital noise are
7 With respect to converter circuits
a. DACs include an ADC
b. ADCs include a DAC
c. DACs and ADCs are virtually identical

a. Systematic codes
b. PN codes
c. Pseudonoise codes
d. b and c

d. All the above.

Chapter 9 Digital Communications Transmission
8 The type of modulation that uses sampling on one of the parameters
of the transmitted and received signal is known as
a. Phase modulation
b. Pulse modulation
c. Amplitude modulation
d. Frequency modulation

1 Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data bits that

provide information on noise, jitter, and linearity is called a(n)
a. Constellation pattern
b. Loopback
c. Statistical Concentration
d. Eye pattern

9 An alphanumeric code for representing the decimal values from 0 to

9 that is based on the relationship that only one bit in a binary word
changes for each binary step is known as

2 Why isn't Morse code well suited to today's telegraphic equipment?

c. Radio facsimile
a. It uses an automatic request for repetition.

d. Radio telemetry

b. It has excessive redundancy built into the code.

c. The parity bit is difficult to detect.

11 The bit error rate is

d. Differing between various widths of the pulses is an extremely

complicated process.

a. The number of bit errors that occur for a given number of bits
transmitted
b. The most common method of referring to the quality of a digital
communication system

3 A special digital modulation technique that achieves high data rates

in limited-bandwidth channels is called

c. Virtually the same as the error probability

a. Delta modulation

d. All the above

b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM)

c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)

12 The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is

d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM)

a. Excessive noise producing errors
b. Slope overload

4 FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitude-modulation

systems with respect to

c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal

d. Complexity of design

a. Noise performance
b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel
c. Ionospheric fading characteristics

13 The capacity of a telephone channel that has an S/N of 2047 if its

bandwidth is 3.5 kHz is

d. Power consumption
a. 30,000 bits per second
b. 33,000 bits per second

5 Which is not a type of pulse modulation?

c. 38,500 bits per second

a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)

d. 35,000 bits per second

b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)

c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM)

14 The AT&T T1 lines

d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM)

a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels

6 PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in

c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels

a. Noise characteristics

d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels

b. Bandwidth characteristics
c. Simplicity in design
d. Frequency response of the intelligence signal

15

A digital transmission has an error probability of

and is

long. Its expected number of error bits is

7 Half-duplex operation involves communication
a.
a. In one direction only
b. In both directions, but only one can talk at a time

b.

c. Where both parties can talk at the same time

c.

d. All the above

d.
8 A procedure that decides which device has permission to transmit
at a given time is called
a. Line control

Chapter 10 Network Communications

b. Protocol
c. Flow control
d. Sequence control
9 The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an
output with logical 0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase of
two successive data bits is

1 An interconnection of users that allows communication with one

another is known as a
a. Modem
b. UART
c. Network
d. Protocol

a. CSU/DSU
b. TDM
c. CVSD

2 A complex LC filter that removes delay distortion from signals that

are traveling down long transmission lines is called a(n)

d. DPSK
a.. Delay equalizer
10 Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular
phenomenon without the presence of human monitors is known as
a. Radio teletype
b. Radio multiplexing

b. UART
c. Attenuation distortion filter
d. Trunk switcher
3 Which of the following is not a way that designers of telephone

equipment are adapting to the increasing use of computers and

digital coding in telephone communication links?
a. The use of shorter transmission lines
b. The use of computers in finding unused portions of multiplex
systems to maximize use
c. The application of digital switching theory to increase channel
capacity
d. Sharing of communication links by voice and data signals

b. The ratio of traffic lost to traffic offered

c. The ratio of calls offered to calls lost
d. The ratio of traffic offered to traffic lost
e. a and b
12 The following term is not a major concept in cellular phone systems.
a. Frequency reuse
b. Cell reuse

4 The advanced mobile phone services (AMPS) is an example of

c. Cell splitting
d. Handoff

a. A cellular telephone system

b. A telephone system that uses frequency reuse
c. A cell-splitting telephone system
d. All the above
5 Which is not a major function of a protocol?
a. Framing

13 In local area networks, the following topology or topologies are

seldom used.
a. Star
b. Ring
c. Bus
d.a and b

b. Line control
c. Flow control
d. Topology
e. Sequence control

14 The following numeric describing data rates for copper coax and
twisted pair is rarely used
a. 10 Base 2
b. 10 Base 5

6 The LAN that was developed by Xerox, Digital Equipment

Corporation, and Intel in 1980 is called
a. IEEE-488

c. 10 Base T
d. 100 Base FX
e. a and b

b. Ethernet
c. OSI
d. CSMA/CD
7 A device interconnecting two networks that use different protocols
and formats is called a

15 The xDSL service with the highest projected data rate is

a. VDSL
b. SDSL
c. HDSL
d. IDSL

a. Bridge

e. ADSL

b. Gateway
c. Router

Chapter 11 Transmission Lines

d. Node
1 The chief advantage of coaxial cable over open-wire line is
8 A device interconnecting LANs together that usually have identical
protocols at the physical and data link layers is called a

a. Minimized radiation losses

b. Low cost

a. Bridge
b. Gateway

c. Low noise pick up

d. Low resistive losses

c. Router
d. Node
9 In telephony, traffic is defined in

2 Unshielded twisted-pair cable is

a. Seldom used due to noise problems
b. Increasingly used in computer networking

a. Hundred-call seconds
b. Average number of calls in a specific period of time

c. More costly than coaxial cable

d. All the above

c. Erlang
d. All the above
10 The Internet and the WWW are

3 The ratio of actual velocity to free-space velocity is called

a. Velocity factor
b. Relative dielectric constant

a. The same thing

b. Completely different

c. Velocity of propagation
d. Delay time

c. Related
d. Local area networks
11 In a telephone system, the grade of service is

4 In a balanced line, the same current flows in each line but is

a. 45 out of phase
b. 90 out of phase

a. The ratio of calls lost to calls offered

c. 180 out of phase

b. Balun

d. 270 out of phase

c. Shorted-stub section
d. Slotted line

5 What is the length of a quarter-wavelength section of RG-8A/U

coaxial cable at a frequency of 144.2 Mhz if its velocity factor is 0.69.
a. 52.1 cm

13 A 50transmission line with a 300reflection coefficient of

b. 35.9 cm

a. 6

c. 143.6 cm

b. 0.166

d. 2.08 m

c. 0.714

load impedance has a

d. 1.4
6 A nonlossy transmission line that is terminated with a resistive load
that is equal to the characteristic impedance of the line
a. Has the same impedance at all points along the line
b. Has a VSWR of 1:1

14 A cable has an inductance of 1 nH/ft and capacitance of 1 nF/ft. The

delay introduced by a 1-ft section is
a. Not able to be calculated with the given information

c. Has the same voltage at points along the line

d. Has a reflection coefficient at the load equal to zero

b.

e. All the above

c.

7 A flat line indicates

d.
15 A transmission line can be used as a(n)

a. No reflection
b. VSWR = 1
c. No physical imperfections

a. Inductor

d. a and b

b. Capacitor
c. Filter

8 A nonlossy transmission line terminated with a short circuit has an

d. Matching section
e. All the above

a. In-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the

incident voltage
b. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the
incident voltage
c. In-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than the
incident voltage
d. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than
the incident voltage
9 A manufacturer's specification dealing with crosstalk and attenuation
is
a. ACR

Chapter 12 Wave Propagation

1 An antenna can be thought of as a(n)

a. Oscillator
b. Capacitor
c. Transducer
d. Frequency multiplexer
2 A wave that is characterized by having its direction of propagation
perpendicular to its oscillation is known as

b. CAS
c. CAA

a. Isotropic

d. AAC

b. Transverse

10 A 50transmission line that has a load impedance of 300

VSWR of

c. Polarized
has a

d. Refractive
3 Which is not an effect of our environment on wave propagation?

a. 6:1
b. 1:6
c. 0.666:1

a. Radiation
b. Reflection

d. 1.5:1

c. Refraction
11 The input impedance of a quarter-wavelength section of a 50transmission line that is terminated with a short is

4 A point in space that radiates electromagnetic energy equally in all

directions is called

a. 50
b. 0

d. Diffraction

(a short)

a. Transverse

c. Infinite (open)

b. Isotropic point source

d. 100

c. Omnisphere
d. Shadow zone

12 A device that is used to match an unbalanced transmission line to a

balanced transmission line is called a
a. Quarter-wavelength matching transformer

5 The process of waves, which traveling in straight paths, bending

around an obstacle is

a. Radiation

a. EMI

b. Reflection

b. Fading

c. Refraction

c. Reflections

d. Diffraction

d. All the above

6 Which is not one of the basic modes of getting a radio wave from
the transmitting to receiving antenna?

14 Diversity reception does not include:

a. Space diversity

a. Ground wave

b. Time diversity

b. Shadow wave

c. Frequency diversity

c. Space wave

d. Angle diversity

d. Satellite link
e. Sky wave
7 The type of wave that is most affected by the D, E, and F layers of
the ionosphere is:

15 When installing a receiving antenna, you can often overcome

diffraction problems by finding a
a. Null zone
b. Downlink

a. Ground wave

c. Hot spot

b. Space wave

d. Skip zone

c. Sky wave
d. Satellite
Chapter 13 Antennas
8 The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when
transmitted vertically under given ionospheric conditions is called
the
a. Critical frequency
b. Maximum usable frequency (MUF)
c. Optimum working frequency (OWF)
d. Skip zone
9 The characteristic impedance of free space is
a. Not known
b. Infinite

1 The process of interchangeability of receiving and transmitting

operations of antennas is known as
a. Polarization
b. Reciprocity
c. Efficiency
d. Counterpoise
2 A half-wave dipole antenna is also known as
a. Marconi antenna
b. Hertz antenna

c. 50

c. Vertical antenna

d. 377

d. Phased array

10 The area between the point where the ground wave ends and first
sky wave returns is called the

3 An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected such that

the ground acts as a reflecting quarter-wavelength section is called a

a. Quiet zone

a. Hertz antenna

b. Skip zone

b. Dipole antenna

c. Null Zone

c. Marconi antenna

d. All the above

d. All the above

e. a and b
11 The refraction and reflection action of a skywave between the
ionosphere and ground is known as

4 The angular separation between the half-power points on an

antenna's radiation pattern is the
a. Bandwidth

a. Space diversity

b. Front-to-back ratio

b. Skip

c. Lobe distribution

c. Tropospheric scattering

d. Beamwidth

d. Fading
12 A satellite communication system used by companies such as K-Mart
to quickly verify credit cards and check inventory data is called

5 The input impedance at the center of a dipole antenna is

approximately
a. 36.6

a. VSAT
b. MSAT
c. SATCOM
d. WESTAR
13 A common type of radio wave interference is

b. 50
c. 73
d. 300
6 As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is reduced below a
quarter-wavelength, the radiation resistance

a. Increases

b. By connection in parallel with the inductance

b. Decreases

c. Without power being applied to the tuned circuit

c. Remains the same

d. By connection in series with the capacitance

d. All the above

7 A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300
transmission line. If a
quarter-wave matching transformer is to be used as the nonresonant matching section, what must be the characteristic
impedance of the cable used in the matching transformer?

15 When troubleshooting antennas, the level of VSWR that indicates a

problem is
a. Greater than 1
b. Less than 1
c. Greater than 1.5

a. 186.5

d. Less than 0.5

b. 103.9
c. 122.5
Chapter 14 Waveguides & RADAR

d. 147.9
8 An impedance-matching device that spreads the transmission line as
it approaches the antenna is called a

1 At a frequency of 1 Ghz and transmitter-receiver distance of 30 mi,

which is the most efficient device for energy transfer?

a. Delta match

a. Transmission lines

b. Quarter-wave matching device

b. Waveguides

c. Director

c. Antennas

d. Counterpoise

d. None of the above

9 A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in order to

a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input impedance
of the antenna
b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input impedance
of the antenna
c. Raise the input impedance of the antenna
d. Decrease the losses of the antenna
10 Standard AM broadcast stations usually use what type of
transmitting antennas?

2 The most efficient means of transmitting a 1-Ghz signal 1500 ft

would typically be
a. Transmission lines
b. Waveguides
c. Antennas
d. None of the above
3 The dominant mode for waveguide operation is
a. TE10

a. Driven collinear array

b. TE01

b. Marconi array

c. TM10

c. Yagi-Uda

d. TM01

d. Log-periodic
11 The type of antenna often found in small AM broadcast receivers is a
a. Ferrite loop antenna
b. Folded dipole antenna
c. Slot antenna
d. Log-periodic antenna
12 The folded dipole antenna has

4 The propagation velocity of the signal in a waveguide, when

compared to the speed of light is
a. larger
b. smaller
c. the same velocity
d. either b or c
5 Ridged waveguides are advantageous over rectangular waveguides in
their

a. Greater bandwidth than a half-wave dipole

a. cost

b. A 288-

b. attenuation

input impedance

c. Less bandwidth than a half-wave dipole

c. ability to work at lower frequency

d.. a and b

d. ease of construction

e. b and c
6 A circular waveguide is used for
13 The Yagi-Uda antenna consists of
a. Efficiency reasons
a. A driven director and parasitic reflector

b. Ease of manufacture

b. A driven reflector and parasitic director

c. Rotating section applications

c. A parasitic director and reflector

d. Greater bandwidth

d. All the above

7 Variable attenuators are used in waveguides to
14 A grid-dip meter measures the resonant frequency of tuned circuits
a. By connection in series with the inductance

a. Isolate a source from reflections at its load so as to preclude

frequency pulling.

b. Adjust the signal levels.

guide waves

c. Measure signal levels.

d. b and c

d. All the above.

8 The coupling in dB of a directional coupler that has 85 mW into the
main guide and 0.45 mW out the secondary guide is
a. 22.8

Chapter 15 Microwaves & Lasers

1 Which is not a type of horn antenna design for microwave

frequencies?

b. 18.9
c. 188.9

a. Parabolic horn

d. 45.6

b. Circular horn
c. Pyramidal horn

9 The resonant frequency of a cavity may be varied by changing the

cavity's

d. Sectoral horn
2 Cassegrain feed to a paraboloid antenna involves a

a. Volume
b. Inductance

a. Dipole antenna

c. Capacitance

b. Point-source antenna

d. All the above

c. Secondary reflector
d. Any of the above

10 The guide wavelength is

a. Greater than free-space wavelength

3 Calculate the beamwidth of a microwave dish antenna with a 6-m

mouth diameter when used at 5 Ghz.

b. Equal to free-space wavelength

c. Less than free-space wavelength

a. 0.49

d. All the above

b. 4.9
c. 7

11 The process of employing radio waves to detect and locate physical

objects is known as

d. 0.7
4 Zoning refers to

a. The Doppler effect

b. Radar

a. A method of producing a radome

c. Directional coupling

b. Changing a spherical wavefront into a plane wave

d. Cavity tuning

c. Creating a polar radiation pattern

d. Fading into nonreality

12 The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a smaller

conductive strip with constant separation by a dielectric material on
a printed circuit board for use at frequencies above 500 Mhz is
known as
a. Artwork traces
b. Dielectric waveguide
c. Microstrip/stripline
d. MICs or MMICs
13 Second return echoes are
a. Echoes produced when the reflected beam makes a second trip
b. Echoes that arrive after the transmission of the next pulse
c. Echoes caused by the PRT being too long
d. All the above

5 Which microwave oscillator has high gain, low-noise characteristics,

and wide bandwidth?
a. Traveling wave tube oscillator
b. Gunn Oscillator
c.Klystron oscillator
d. Magnetron oscillator
6 Which is not an advantage of the Gunn gallium arsenide oscillator?
a. Ease of removing heat from the chip
b. Small size
c. Ruggedness
d. Lack of filaments
e. Low cost of manufacture

14 The characteristic wave impedance for waveguides is

7 The i in P-I-N diode refers to
a. 75

a. Indium

b. 377

b. Impact

c. Dependent on frequency

c. Integrated

d. Dependent on waveguide shape

d. Intrinsic

e. c and d
8 Which is not a typical application of a ferrite in a microwave system?
15 A dielectric waveguide is
a. attenuator
a. Enclosed by a conducting material

b. amplifier

b. A waveguide with just a dielectric

c. isolator

c. Dependent on the principle that two dissimilar dielectrics can

d. circulator

9 A low noise microwave amplifier that provides amplification via the

variation of a reactance is known as a

2 The most widely used type of TV camera is the

a. Charge couple device

a. Maser
b. Laser
c. Yig

b. Vidicon
c. Image orthicon
d. Iconoscope

d. Parametric amplifier
10 The major difference between a laser and a maser is the

3 Synchronizing pulses that consist of equalizing pulses, followed

by serrations, followed by more equalizing pulses at a rate of 60
times per second are called

a. Frequency of the signal being amplified

b. Amplitude of the signal being amplified

a. Color synchronizing pulses

c. Bandwidth of the signal being amplified

b. Horizontal retrace pulses

d. Phase of the signal being amplified

c. Vertical retrace pulses

d. Eight-cycle back-porch pulses

11 Lasers are useful in

a. Industrial welding

4 The frame frequency for U.S. television broadcasts is

approximately

b. Surgical procedures
c. Distance measuring
d. Compact disc players
e. All the above

a. 30 frames per second

b. 40 frames per second
c. 60 frames per second
d. 100 frames per second

12 The following semiconductor is not used as a microwave device:

a. PIN diode

5 Channel 12 on U.S. television extends from 204 to 210 Mhz.

The channel 12 carrier frequency is
Approximately

b. Baritt diode
c. Zener diode

a. 204.5 Mhz

d. Tunnel diode

b. 205.25 Mhz
c. 211.25 Mhz

13 Which of the following represent typical failure mode(s) for a TWT

amplifier?
a. Low gain

d. 211.75 Mhz
6 The length of time an image stays on the screen after the signal
is removed is termed

b. Spurious modulation
c. Poor frequency response

a. Retention

d. Low RF output

b. Flicker

e. All the above

c. Persistence
d. Back porch

14 W hich of the following is not used as a microwave antenna?

7 Which is not part of the tuner section of a TV receiver?
a. Patch antenna
b. Marconi antenna

a. The rf amplifier stage

c. Lens antenna

b. The mixer stage

d. Horn antenna

c. The local oscillator stage

d. The video-detector stage

15 Compared to linear power supplies, switching power supplies are

a. Less efficient

8 The stage in a TV receiver that filters out the vertical and

horizontal retrace pulses from the video signal is the

b. More efficient
c. Simpler

a. Video detector

d. Heavier

b. Video IF amplifier
c. Sync separator

Chapter 16 Television

1 A television transmitter actually transmits two signals at once.

They are

d. Sound detector
9 The winding around the CRT yoke that deflects the electron
beam with its magnetic field is called the

a. An amplitude-modulated video signal and frequencymodulated audio signal

a. Coil

b. Two amplitude-modulated signals: video and audio

c. Deflector

c. An amplitude-modulated audio signal and frequencymodulated video signal

d. Magneto

d. Two frequency-modulated signals: video and audio

b. Yoke

10 A cumbersome series of adjustments to a color TV receiver in

a. Alignment

a. Alignment

b. Convergence

b. Convergence

c. Interleaving

c. Interleaving

d. Interlacing

d. Interlacing

11 A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal sound and

raster but no picture must have a problem in the

11 A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal sound and

raster but no picture must have a problem in the

a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage power supply

a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage power supply

b. Main power supply

b. Main power supply

c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff

c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff

d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff

d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff

12 Raster refers to

12 Raster refers to

a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is being

received

a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is being

received

b. CRT resolution

b. CRT resolution

c. CRT aspect ratio

c. CRT aspect ratio

d. All the above

d. All the above

13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained from the
low-voltage power supply using

13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained from the
low-voltage power supply using

a. Its power-line transformer

a. Its power-line transformer

b. The yoke coil

b. The yoke coil

c. The vertical oscillator

c. The vertical oscillator

d. The flyback transformer

d. The flyback transformer

14 The introduction of digital television in the United States has

been hampered by

14 The introduction of digital television in the United States has

been hampered by

a. Delays in chip designs

a. Delays in chip designs

b. Shortages of appropriate chips

b. Shortages of appropriate chips

c. Customer rejection

c. Customer rejection

d. Less than ideal regulatory climate

d. Less than ideal regulatory climate

15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is motion in the

video, it is

15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is motion in the

video, it is

a. due to bandwidth problems

a. due to bandwidth problems

b. Called a pixelate

b. Called a pixelate

c. Due to noise

c. Due to noise

d. b and c

d. b and c

Chapter 17 Fiber Optics

Chapter 17 Fiber Optics

1 Which is an advantage of optical communication links over

using transmission lines or waveguides?

1 Which is an advantage of optical communication links over

using transmission lines or waveguides?

a. Small size

a. Small size

b. Extremely wide bandwidths

b. Extremely wide bandwidths

c. Immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI)

c. Immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI)

d. Lower cost

d. Lower cost

e. All the above

e. All the above

2 The most common light used in fiber-optic links is

2 The most common light used in fiber-optic links is

a. Infra-red

a. Infra-red

b. Red

b. Red

c. Violet

c. Violet
d. Ultraviolet

e. a and b above

11 Fiber optic connections suffer high loss due to

a. Air gaps
b. Rough surfaces
c. Axial misalignment
d. Angular misalignment
e. All the above
12 Fiber optic technology is used in applications of
a. Local area networks (LANs)
b. Cable TV (CATV) systems
c. Telephone networks
d. All the above
13 The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by a portion
of the light energy traveling in the cladding is called
a. Modal dispersion
b. Material dispersion
c. Waveguide dispersion
d. Cable dispersion
14 Recent laser developments for fiber optic communication
include
a. Distributed feedback (DFB)
b. Heterojunction
c. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
d. a and b above
e. a and c above
15 The following consideration is important when deciding
between using a diode laser or an LED
a. Response time
b. Power levels
c. Temperature sensitivity
d. Failure characteristics
e. All the above

ANSWER KEY

CHAPTER

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

10

11

12

13

14

15

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