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UNIVERSITY OF
ILLORIN
(UNIILLORIN)
POSTUTME SCREENING
Past Questions & Solutions
2012 2005

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN
2007 POST UME TEST
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
PLEASE ENSURE THAT YOU HAVE SUBMITTED ONE DOWNLOADED ON-LINE REGISTRATIONFORM
BEFORE AND AFTER THE EXAMINATION.
Calculators, Cell Phones and other electronic devices are not allowed. Any form of examination
malpractice automatically disqualifies the candidate. Cand*69*6idates may use logarithm tables.
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS TIME ALLOWED:
Shade the answer sheet as appropriate with HB pencil only
USE OF ENGLISH
6. It was calculated mutiny to dethrone the newly
Each of questions 1-5 below, choose the following that
installed sultan of lyanfoworogi
is nearest in meaning to each of the underlined word
(a) act of revival (b) act of loyalty (c) act of facility (d)
or phrase in each sentence.
act of rebellion.
1. The idea expressed by the chairman of the party is
7. The objectives of the work are well delineated
make believe
(a) well - done (b) well described and explained (c)
(a) the idea of good (b) the idea is impressive
well - focused (d) well - drawn.
(c) the idea is well conceived (d) the idea is a form f
8. The university review committee comment that Mr.
pretence.
Ojongbolos vitae leaves must to be desired
2. It rained cat and dog
(a)highly commendable (b) highly recommended
(a) it rained mercilessly (b) it rained drastically (c) it
(c)highly approved (d) highly unacceptable.
rained heavily (d) it rained pieces.
ANSWER KEY
3. Bolanle was taken on as graduate assistant in the
1. C 2.C 3.C 4. C 5D 6,D 7. B 8.D
university
BIOLOGY
(a) Bolanle was laid off (b) Bolanle was denoted
I. Which of the following does not contribute to the
(c) Bolanle was employed (d) Bolanle was promoted.
biomass in an ecosystem.
4. Toes emphalate disposition to life has really
a. Producers b. Food chain c. Consumers d.
recorded her the chance to become the Minister of
Saprophytes
Internal Affairs
2. Terrestrial animals which are capable of mintai fling
(a) expressive mannerism (b) coolative outlook of life
constant body temperatures within fairly close limits
(c) internal And friendly way of life (d) spent able.
are.
5. Biola managed to hold her head high and ignore
a. Thermocines b. Homotherms c. Poikilotherms d
what people were saying about her at the conference
Sternotherms
(a) Biola was rude to people (b) Biola was able to
3. The amount of moisture in the air (relative
display her affluence
humidity) can be measured by
(c) Biola was discouraged (d) Biola was proud and
a. hydrometer b. anemometer c. rain guage d.
obstinate.
hygrometer

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4. Which of the following groups of plants would be


the first colonies in an ecological succession on
changing rocks to soil? a . Mosses b. Ferns c. Lichens d.
Grasses
5. Plants adapted to life is salty water are called a.
hydrophytes b. epiphytes c. halophytes d. xerophytes
6. The state in the life of bilharzias which infects man is
the
a. cercaria b. bladder worm c. miracidium d. Egg
7. The malphigian tubule plays a major role in a.
inspiration b. excretion c. secretion d. digestion
8. The filtered blood from the kidney is carried back to
the circulatory system, through the
a. hepatie portal vein b. pulmonary vein c. renal vein d.
renal artery
9. Flatworms are classified as a. Concentrate b. Annelid
c. Playhelmintie d. Arachinida
10. A severe deficiency of thyroxin result in
a. sexual underdevelopment b. cretinism c. gigantism
d. diabetes mellitus
11. Haemolysis is an example of a. Hydrolysis b.
Osmosis c. Plasmolysis d. Inhibition
12. Which of the following structures are visible in the
cell of a mitosis
a. Centrioles, chromatides and nucleolus
b. Homologous chromosome, nuclear membrane
c. Cell wall, centrioles and chromatids
d. Chromosomes, nuclear membrane and centromere
13. At which of the following stage of cell division can
the cell resting?
a. Anaphase b. Telophase c. Prophase d. Interphase
14. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are characteristic of
cells that
a. Reproducing and photosynthesizing
b. Excreting and deaminating

c. Respiring and photosynthesizing


d. Replicating and photosynthesizing
15. Which of the following organelles help to remove
excess water from cell?
a. Mitochondria b. Ribosome c. Contractile vacuole d.
Golgi body
16. Which of the following tissues is made up of dead
cells
A. Meristem B. Cambium C. Xylem D. Phloem
17. Marriana handle in a monocotyledonous stem are
found
a. Watered in the epidermis
b. The ring near the epidermis
c. Between the condoderms and pericycle
d. Scattered between the epidermis and the pith
18. Plants that can survive in an environment where
water is scarce are referred to as
a. Epiphytes b. Mesophytes c. Hydrophytes d.
xerophytes
19. Green plant are primary producers because they
are
a. Heterotrophic b. Saprophytic c. Chlorophytic d.
Autotrophic
20. The hypha of Rhizopus is said to be conencytic
because it
a. does not contain chlorophyll b. has no cross walls
c. is vacuolated d. stores oil globules
21. The skeleton of an anthropod is principally
composed of
a. pectin b. chitin c. lignin d. tannin
22. The aerobic stage of tissue respiration occurs
through

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a. Energy cycle b. Krebs cycle c. Water cycle d. Carbon


cycle
23. Extracellular digestion take place in a. Green
plants c. Algae d. Bryophytes
24. Which of the following reagents is used to test for
starch
a. Millions test b. Fehlings solution c. Sudan III
solution d. Iodine solution
25. The condition known as cretinism is caused by the
deficiencies
a. Adrenalin b. Vitamin A c. Insulin d. Thyroxin
26. The key event in the transition of the amphibians
from water to land is
a. possession of we skin b. possession of webbed
limbs
c. replacement of gills with lungs d. development of
lung hint limber
27. A group of organisms that are capable of free
interbreeding is called
a. species b. genus c. family d. order
28. Which of the following organisms has only two
body layers and a cavity?
a. Hydra b. Taenia Spp c. Ascaris d. Earthworm
29. Which of the following scientists was involved
with organic evolution?
a. Mendel b. Lamark c. Morgan d. Luther
30. Poliomyelities is a microbial disease cause by
a. Amoeba b. Protozoa c. Virus d. Protists
Answer Key
1. D 7.A 13.D 19.D 25.D
2.B 8. C 14.C 20 26. C
3.D 9.C 15.C 21.B 27.A
4.C 10. B 16.C 22. B 28. A
5.C 11.B 17- 23.A 29.B
6.B 12.B 18.D 24.D 30C
Explanation to the question
1. Biomass takes into accounts both the size of the
individual organisms and their numbers. The pyramid

of biomass thus gives the accurate picture of the


relationship between the organisms at the various
tropic level in a food chain is just a mode of nutrition
and its not relevant in this context (D).
2. Homiotherms (Greek: homois: similar) animals keep
their body temperature more or less constant,
regardless of their surrounding (B)
3. Relative humidity is the measurement of the amount
of moisture in the air and is determined by using a wet
and dry bulb hygrometer (D).
4. Lichen is as a result of symbiosis relationship
association between fungi and algae plant. It is the first
stage of ecological succession. Lichen is the simplest of
the options. (C).
5. Hydrophytes or aquatics live in fresh water and show
a number of adaptation to their environment.
Xerophytes are plants which can survive in place where
water supply is limited. Epiphytes are involved in
commensalism. Halophytes means plant in halides
environment that is contain salts of chloride (C).
6. Miracidium larvae emerges and bores into foot of
small Redia forms further larvae by internal
propagation. Cercavia escapes from snail through
pulmonary aperture. Encysted cercaria adheres to
blade of grass in wet pasture land and get into man. (A)
7. Malphigian tubule is the excretory organ in insect
(A).
8. The blood is transported to the Kidney through the
artery and leaves the Kidney through Renal vein (C).
9. Flatworms are platyhelmintlies (C).
10. Thyroxine is complex compounds which include
iodine. An animal not producing enough becomes slow,
may not grow to its proper size (cretinism) (B).
11. If a cell is placed in a weaker (i.e. hypotonic)
solution, they swell and may even burst. The

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phenomenon is known as haemolysis. Just like osmosis


which in the movement of solvent molecule of high
concentration to lower concentration through semi
permeable membrane.(B).
12. At the interphase, the chromosome are not visible
as distinct bodies, either under light microscope or
electron microscope at this stage, they form a long
chromatin strands or threads. Not until prophase
where the chromatin threads condense to form visible
chromosome. The nucleolus disappear at the late
prophase stage. Note: check textbooks. (B).
13. The interphase is described as Resting stage but it is
a complete misnormer because the genetic material
replicate and cell builds up at this stage (D).
14. Mitochoiidria is the power house, food material is
oxidized to give energy while chioroplast is involved in
photosynthesis(C).
15. Contractile vacuole helps in osmo regulation that is,
regulation of amount of water in the cell. Ribosome is
for protein synthesis.(C).
16. Meristem is the tissue capable of cell division. The
xylem contains several large thick walled tubes called
vessels in which the soil solution is carried from the
root to the leaves, they do not contain cytoplasm i.e.
they are dead. (C)
17. 18. Xerophytes are plants that adapts to desert habitat
(D).
19. Green plant are anthrotrophic, they synthesize their
food themselves (D).
20. 21. Chitin is a proteinous material that made up
exoskeleton in insects( Arthropod) (B).
22. In terms of ATP synthesis Krebs cycle is the most
important source of energy in metabolism and it
achieves this by donating hydrogen atom(s) to the
carrier system. This takes place during respiration (B).

23. Moulds are saprophytes, they feed on the dead


bodies of plant or organic materials like bread. They
therefore pass out enzymes from their cells on to the
substrate (the material in which they feed) to make it
soluble, this kind of digestion occurring outside the
organisms called Extracellular digestion (A).
24. Starch turns iodine solution blue black (D).
25. (D) See Qun 10
26. Amphibians use gill for gaseous exchange in
aquatic environment while the gill is changed to lungs
in Terrestial habitat (C).
27. A.
28. Diploblastic animals have two cell layer in their
body wall, an outer layer (ectoderm) and an inner
endoderm e.g Coelentrates (Hydra) (A).
29. Larmacks theory states that when an organism
develops a need for a particular structure, this induce
its appearance (B).
30. C.
CHEMISTRY
1. The number of electrons in the K. L. M and N
shells of calcium are respectively
a) 2,8,8,2 b)2,2,8,8 c) 2,8, 2, 8, d) 8,8,2,2
2. The basic unit of synthetic rubber is
a) Isoprene b) pentane c) butadiene d) butene
3. What are the oxidation numbers of manganese in
the anions Mn02 and Mn04?
a) +7&+6 b)+2&+2 c) +4&+4
4. The empirical formula of a hydrocarbon that
contains 93.3% carbon is C 12, H = 13
a) CH b) CH2 c) C2H d) C2H2
5. The type of hybridization in all the carbon in
saturated hydrocarbon is
a) SP3 b) SP2
c) SP d) PS2
6. Electrophiles are

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a) Electron deficient species b) Electron rich species


c) Free radical species d) Negatively charged species
Explanation to Questions
1. K-shells contain maximum of 2-electron, L shells can
only contain maximum of 8 electrons, M-shells contain
maximum of 18 electrons, N- contains 32 electrons.
Calcium with atomic number 20, shows that electrons
are added to a shell until a stable duplet (for the Kshell) and an octet for L-shells. The increase in the
number of electron result in the electrons occupying
the shell with next highest energy level so calcium has
2, 8, 8, 2 (A).
2. Synthetic rubber is a polymer and the simple unit
(monomer) is 2-methylbuta- 1, 3-diene known as
isoprene unit (A).
3. MnO2- = -2
X+(-2x2) =-2
X4 = -2
X = +2
Mn04 = -1
X+(-2x4)=-1 X = -1+8
X=+7 (B)
4. C H % composition Mole ratio 92.3% 77 92.3/12
7.7/1 7.67 7.7
Mole ratio of element 7.67 7.7
Smallest mole ratio 7.67 7.67 = 1 1
Empirical formula CH (A)
5. Saturated hydrocarbons have single bond around its
carbon, so they exhibit SP3 hybridization (A)
6. Electrophiles are electron deficient species like
NH4+,H+ (A)
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2007 POST UME TEST BIOLOGY
1. The number of individual in a habitat is release to
the unit space available to each organism is referred to
as the

a. Birthrate b. Frequency c. Mortality d. Density


2. The group of bacteria that are involved in the
conversion of ammonia to nitrate is
a. Antibacterial b. Neurosepoys c. Thizobium d.
Clostridium
3. The sequence of ear ossicles from the sense ovalis
a. Malleus, incus and stepes b. Malleu, stepes and incus
c. Stepes, incus and malleus d. Stepes, malleus and
incuse
4. The major function of the cell membrane is that
a. Delimits the cytoplasm b. Synthesis protein
c. Breakdown spindles d. Is the sites of photosynthesis
5. The network of double membrane that conveys
material through the cytoplasm
a. Plasma membrane b. Vaccine membrane
c. Nuclear membrane d. Golgi body membrane
6. In the plants exhibiting alternation of generation the
diploid multicellular stage known as
a. Sporoophytes b. Gametophyte c. Hetaphyte d.
Cimatiophyte
7. Secondary thickening is initiated in the dicotyledous
stem by the
a) Xylem parenchyma b) Secondary phloem c)
Endodermis d) Cambium
8. The increase in the width of blood vessels the
mammalian skin at high temperature known as
a. Constriction b. Vasodilation c. sweating d. excretion
9. The genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 in the offspring of a
hybrid cross illustrates the law of
a. use and disuse b. dominance c. segregation d.
variating
Answer Key
1. D 2. - 3.A 4.A 5.D
6.A 7.D 8.B 9. D. 9.D

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Explanation to the Answers


1. Population density is the average number of
individuals of a species per unit area of the habitat (D).
2. No correct Option. Nitrosomonas first convert
ammonia to Nitrites (N0,) while Nitrobacter completes
the conversion to Nitrates (N03)
3. The middle ear consists of the eardrum (tympanium)
and three small bones called ossicles which are malleus
(Hammer), incus (anvil)and stapes (stirrup)in that
order, that function in transmitting vibration. Stapes
then link up with fenestral ovalis (A).
4. Cell membrane envelop the cytoplasm (A).
5. Golgi body is a stack of flat, membrane bounded
sacs. These protein filled sacs migrate to the surface of
the cell and discharge their contents to the outside (D).
6. In moss plant, which exhibits alternation of
generation. The sexual organ is called haploid
gametophyte and asexual organ called diploid
sporotophte. (A).
7. In the dicotyledon roots and stems, cambium exist
between the xylem and the phloem. They are capable
of living and multiplying thereby xylem and phloem.
This then results in the growth in width or growth of
the stem called secondary thickening (D).
8. The mechanism is to increase the rate of heat loss to
the environment during dry season (B).
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2008 POST UME TEST BIOLOGY
1. During the process of starch formation in the leaves,
the oxygen given of is desired from
a. Sunlight b. Chlorophyll c. carbon dioxide d. Water.
2. Which of the following organs regulates the amount
of amino acids and glucose in the body?
a. Liver b. Kidney c. Pancreas d. Spleen
3. When two organisms heterozygous for a tract are
made to cross, the phenotypic ratio of the offspring
produced will be

a. 2:1 b. 1:2:1 c. 3:1 d. 1:2


4. Glycolysis is best described as
a. Splitting of glucose in the presence of oxygen
b. Fermentation of starch
c. Splitting of glucose in the absence of oxygen
d. Formation of carbon dioxide and water from
glucose
5. Which of the following is not true?
a. Inhaled air contains more carbon dioxide that
exhaled air
b. Exhaled air contains more carbon dioxide than
inhaled air
c. Exhaled air is warm and contains water vapour
d. Movement of diaphragm aids respiration.
6. Partially digested food ready to leave the stomach is
referred to as
a. Curd b. Chyme c. Glycogen d. Roughage
7. Mosses, Liverworts and ferns can be grouped
together because they
a. are all aquatic plants b. are grow in deserts
c. are seedless plants d. all produce colorless flowers
8. In spirogyra, the pyrenoid
a. Excretes waste products b. Is mainly used for
respiration
c. Is used to store starch d. Is suspended by
cytoplasmic strands
9. Viruses are regarded as non living because they
a. Can neither reproduce asexually nor sexually
b. Can not survive in their respective environments
c. Do not posses characteristics transmutable from
one generation to the next
d. Can neither respire nor excretes.

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ANSWER KEY
1.D 4. A 7. C
2.A 5.A 8. C
3.C 6.C 9. B
EXPLANATION TO ANSWER
1. 2H20 > 4H+ + 4OH
4OH- + Chlorophyll > 2H2O + O2 + Energy (D)
2. Kidney is an excreting organ and acts as osmoregulators. Liver is a large organ lying under the
diaphragm. One of the important functions of the liver
is to regulate the amounts of substances passed into
the general circulation.
Excess sugars are temporarily stored in the liver as
animal starch or glycogen (A).
3. T t
T Tt Tt
t Tt tt
3 tallness: 1 shortness (C)
4. In the first stage of respiration, sugar is broken
down, step by step, to pyruvic acid, a compound
containing three carbon atoms. This sequence of
reaction is known as glycolysis (A).
5 . Human being inhaled air from the environment,
the larger part of the air is oxygen and after different
process (respiration), human being exhale gas which is
majorly carbon dioxide (A).
6. The wall of the stomach are muscular and regular
peristaltic movement chum up the food, mixing it
thoroughly with the gastric juice. By the time it is
ready to leave the stomach the food looks like a
watery paste called CHYME (C).
7. They are seedless plants (C).
8. Pyrenoid is for starch storage (C)
9. Although they have no means of propelling
themselves they can reproduce and have
characteristics which are transmitted form one
generation to the next. They can only replicate inside
the living host (B).
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2009 POST UME TEST BIOLOGY

1. In bird, the following feathers possess after shaft


a. Quill and filoplumes b. Down and filoplumes
c. Covert and down d. Quill and covert
2. The nutritive layer of the eye in mammals is
a. Refracting media b. Conjunctiva c. Cornea d. Sciara
3. Ultra filtration in the Kidney takes place in the
a. Bowmans Capsule b. Pelvis c. Loop of Henle d.
Proximal Convulated Tubule
4. Which of the following bones is not a component of
the fore limb?
a. Olearanon b. Ulna c. Tibia d. Humerus
5. The condition in which the anthers mature before
the stigma is called.
a. Protandry b. Epigyny c. Hypogyny d. Protogyny
6. In most true ferns, sporangia are grouped into
a. Indusium b. Fronds c. Son d. Prothalls
7. The ratio of carriers to sucklers in the F2 generation
derived from a parental cross at two carriers of
haemoglobin S gene is
a. 3:1 b. 1:3 c. 2:1 d. 1:2
8. In which part of a legurninous plant can bacteria like
Azotobacteria be found ?
a. Spongy mesophyll b. Root nodes c. Stern internodes
d. Stem nodes
9. In a dicotyledonous stem, companion cells are
found close to the
a. Endodermal cells b. Silver tubes c. Xylem vessels d.
Pericyclic fibres
10. The position occupied by an organism In a food
chain is referred to as
a. Trophic level b. Niche level c. Energy level d. Feed
level
ANSWER KEY
1. C 5.A 8. B
2. - 6. B 9. B
3.A 7. C 10.A
4. C

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EXPLANATION TO THE ANSWERS


1. The possession of feather is the most obvious difference between birds and other vertebrates. At the base of the
vane, the barbules do not interlock and the barbs form a small tuft called the after shaft. Convert and down possession
shaft (C).
2. The middle layer (choroid coat). Choroid Is pigmented and contain many capillaries and its the nutritive layer of the
eye (no correct options).
3. It was found that the fluid in the capsular space has almost exactly the same composition as blood plasma means
the plasma proteins. It seems that the capsular fluid is formed by a process of ultra filtration from the glomerular
capillarus (i.e Ultra filtration takes place in the Bowmans capsule) (A)
4. Ulna and Radius articulates at the elbow with the humerous at the fore limbs. Tibia belongs to the hind limbs (C).
5. In protandry, the stamens (Anthers ) ripen first and shed their pollen before the stigma
Is matured (A).
1. At certain seasons, large number of spore bearing bodies (sporandia) appear on the under surface of mature
fronds. At first, theses are green, but they become brown as they mature. The sporangia are gathered into groups over
the veins. Each group is called a sorus and each has a cover called an Indusium (B).
2. A S
A AA As
S As SS
The ratio of carrier (AS) to Sucker is 2:1 (C).
8. Azobacter is found at the root nodules of Leguminous plant (B).
9. Companion cells are narrow cells density filled with cytoplasm. There is one beside each sieve tube (B).
10. A food chain shows thee transfer of energy and nutrients from organism to organisms in a feeding pathway. A food
chain involves at least two links and more organisms at the lower tropic level to the higher tropic level (A).

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN
2009 POST UME TEST
USE OF ENGLISH
Instruction: Read the passage below and answer
the question that follows
Epilepsy is a condition in which the patient is
subject to recurrent attacks of loss of
consciousness. Known as fits on-losing
consciousness, the patient falls and may hurt
himself, and though in some cases the fit may end
at this point, most attack go on to a stage in which
the muscle on the body became rigid and the
breathing is interrupted. This in turn is usually
followed by the convulsive stage, in which there are
jerking movements of the head, limbs and hand.
The tongue may be bitten and the patients
writhing, irregular breathing, starring eyes and blue
lips may be very alarming to the spectator. Then
the patient slowly recovers, though when
consciousness is fully restored the patient is still in a
weakened condition and suffers unpleasant aftereffects. Onlookers often insist on calling an
ambulance but this is unnecessary. The patient
should be made as comfortable as possible and
allowed to rest.
Questions:
1. As used in the passage, the word convulsive is
a\an
a. nominal phrase b. adjective c. gerund d.
Preposition
2. The word, after-effects in the fifth sentence of
the passage is an example of
a. compound noun b. adjective c. gerundial marker
d. prepositional phrase
3. The word, spectator can also be used in the
context of
a. sport b. academics hospital interaction d. dancing
Section B

Instruction: Choose the correct option to fill


the gap from the list under each of the
sentences
4. Sales ________during the festival period
a. peeked b. peacked c. picked d.peekid
5. It is only a fool that suffers in the
_______of the plenty
a. mist b. midst c. midct
6. We promised _____to make
a. amend b. amend c. amends d. a mends
7. The man divided the job between you
and
a. 1 b. myself c. me d. myself
Instruction From the words or groups of
words letter A-D, choose one which is
mostly nearly opposite in meaning to the
under listed expression as it is used in each
of the following sentences:
8. Alhaji Taju Ologbenla is a prosperous
businessman
a. unsuccessful b. unskillful unscrupulous d.
unskilled
9 All the must pass the compulsory subject
a. Unimportant b. optional c. unreliable d.
inferior
10. The security man acted courageously
when thieves attacked the bank,
a. indiscreetly b. fearlessly c. shyly d.
timidly instruction:
ANSWER KEY
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.B
7.A 8.A 9.B 10.D

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN
2010 POST UME TEST - USE OF ENGLISH
1. The man who killed the dog is here. The underlined
in the above sentences is an example of
(a) A phrase (B) A clause (c) an adjective (D) adverbial
phrase
From the words letter A-D, choose the options that
best complete the sentences.
2 The man acceded _________the Childs demands
(a) for (b) in (c) of (d) to
3. The weather was accurately
(a) guessed (b) forecasted (c) fore cast (d) predicted
From the list of words or group of words lettered A to
D below, choose the word or group of words that the
sentences.
4. The polices man stopped all the _________to check
and arrest all tax defaulters.
(a) passer by (b)passers by (c) passer byes (d)
passer byes
Pick the words that are opposite in meaning to the
underlined expressions as used in these sentences.
5. The team played a lack luster game
(a) dull (b) brilliant (c) enthusiastic (d) timid
6. Grandma is known to be ponderous
(a) snobbish (b) instinctive ( c) impulsive (d) gentle
(Use the short passage below to answer Question 7.
The word paragraph means writing ordinary or
drawing with light. Therefore, a picture is one drawn
with rays of light.
Essentially, the camera box is a box with an aperture at
one end of it .The aperture allows high into the camera
box as a window does for a room
7. The percentage representation of nouns in the
above passage
(a) 19% (b)32% (c)44% (d) 14%
8. An adjective is always positioned
(a) after prepositions (b) before the noun
(c) after the noun (d) at the beginning of a sentences

9. The logical arrangement of sentences in a paragraph


is known as
(a) clarity (b)completeness (c) coherence (d) unity
10. The word class comprises of the following except
(a) prepositions (b) phrases (c) pronouns (d)
demonstrative
ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. D 3 C 4 B 5 C 6C
7. C 8 B 9 C 10 D
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2010 POST UME TEST BIOLOGY
1. All these are components of blood except
a. Plasma b. Erythrocytes c. Leucocytes d. Fibrin
2. When the F1 of a cross between two parents with
pair of contrasting characters is selfed, the F2
population segregates approximately in a ration of
a. 2:1 b. 1:1 c. 1:2 d. 3:1
3. The specific role played by an organism in its
environment is known as.
a. its function b. its responsibility c. Ecologicalniche d.
its expected role
4. Which of these is a common property of cell
ecosystems?
a. flow of energy b. decomposition of organic matter
c. Energy flow and nutrient cycling d. presence of
plants and animals
5. Darwin theory of evolution explains the origin of
species based on the existence of -a. Variations b. Dominant characters c. Genes d.
Acquired characters
6. All these are true about chloroplast and
mitochondria except
a. they both have inner membrane reticulations
b. they both have their own DNAs
c. They are double membrane organelles
d. they are found in plant and animal cells

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7. The following structures are used for breathing in


toad except
a. Buccal cavity b. Lung c. Skin d. alimentary system
ANSWER KEY
1.D 2.D 3.C 4.D 5.B 6.D 7.D
EXPLANATIONS TO THE QUESTIONS
1. Erythrocytes, Leucocytes and plasma are all
components of blood but there is a fascinating process
in which more than 12 different chemical factors
present in the blood bring about the conversion of the
soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into a mesh work of
fine fibres called Fibrin (D).
2. (3:1) (D)
Tt
T Tt Tt
t Tt tt
3. Niche is a place which is suited to the way of life of
an organism within a community herbivore and a
carnivore may share habitat but their different feeding
methods means that they occupy different niches (C)
4. Ecosystem is an ecological unit made up of a
community of all plant and animals living in a habitat
and thenon living part of the environment (D).
5. Charles Darwin is most closely associated with the
theory of evolution Darwin has an unparalleled
opportunity to explore the flora and fauna in many
different part of the world. During his long voyage,
Darwin was forced further towards the conclusion that
animals and plants have evolved by a process of slow
and gradual change over successive generation. (B).
6. Chloroplast is absent in animal cell (D).
7. Toad exchange gas through lung, skin and buccal
cavity. Alimentary system is involved in digestive
system (D).
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Democracy day is celebrated in Nigeria on


(a) Oct., 1 (b) Jan. 12 (c) May 29 (d) June 12.
2. The first Africa country to host FIFA world cup is
(a) Nigeria ( b) Egypt (c) Morocco (d) South Africa
3. How many members make up house of
Representative in Nigeria?
(a)270 (b) 109 (c) 360 (d) 35.9
4. How many members make up senate in the upper
arm of the house of assembly?
(a) 100 (b) 108 (c) 109 (d) 110
5. Into how many geopolitical zone is Nigeria divided?
(a) 4 (b)5 (c) 6 (d) 7
6. After recapitalization of banks in Nigeria, the
number of banks become
(a)21 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 24
7. Abuja became Nigeria Federal capital territory
(a) 1991 (b) 1990 (c) 1989 (d) 1988
8. The motion for self governance was moved in
Nigeria by
(a) Chief Anthony Enahoro (b) Dr. Nnamdi Azikwe
(c) Chief Obafemi Awolowo (d) Alhaji Tafawa Balewa.
9. The newest state! country in Africa is
(a) Malawi (b) South Africa (c) Southern Sudan (d)
Sharawa Republic
10. When was Rosen Mubarak of EGYPT removed from
office as president?
(a) Jan 2011 (b) Feb. 2011 (c) March, 2011 (d) April,
2011
II. The first civilian president that died in office in
Nigeria is
(a) Sir Tafawa Balewa (b) Gen. Agunyi Ironsi
(c) Gen Murtala Mohammed (d) Alhaji Umar Yaradua

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12. Millennium development goals was grouped into


how many points?
(a) 6 (b)7 (c) 8 (d) 9
13. Who was the first Military head of state in Nigeria?
(a)Gen. Olusegun Obasanjo (b) Gen Murtala
Mohammed
(c) Gen. Agunyi Ironsi (d) Gen Ibrahim Babangida
14. Umar Musa Yaradua governance was anchored on
(a) 8 point agenda (b) 7 points agenda (c) 6 point
agenda (d) 10 point agenda
15. How many local government is in Nigeria?
(a) 774 (b) 744 (c) 784 (d) 794
16 Who is the First female president in Africa?
(a) Hon. Olubunmi Ette (b) Chief (Mrs.) Funmilayo Kuti
(c) Dr.(Mrs.) Ngozi Ewenla (d) Mrs. Ellen Johnson
Sirleaf
17. Nigeria flag was designed by
(a) Mr. Ama Onabolu (b) Prof Wole Soyinka
(c) Prof Chinua Achebe (d) Mr. Taiwo Akinkunmi.
18. 2010 CAF African footballer of the is awarded to
(a) Samuel Eto of Cameroun (b) Dj Drogba of Cote
DIvoire
(c) Mikel Obi of Nigeria (d) Gyan of Ghana.
19. What is the currency of India?
(a) Rupees (b) Dollar (c) Pounds sterling (c) Cfan (d)
Naira.
20. Coal is mined in LLLLLin Nigeria.
(a) Jos (b) Enugu (c) Oloibiri (d) Igbeti.
ANSWER KEY
1.C 6 C 11 D 16 D
2.D 7 A 12 C 17 D
3.C 8 A 13 C 18 A
4.C 9 C 14 B 19 A
5.C 10.D 15 A 20 B
SECTION B
1. What natural product has been used as means of
exchange long time?

(a) money (b) Dollar (c) Salt (d) Cowry


2. How many of the earth surface in percentage is
covered with water?
(a) 10% (b) 29% (c) 50% (d) 71%
3. How much of the earth surface (including the rocks,
mountain, valley and other physical features) in
percentage is covered with land?
(a) 10% (b) 29% (c)50% (d) 71%
4. What is the smallest planet in our solar system
called?
(a) mercury (b) mars (c) Venus (d) earth
5. Which language is spoken in Sicily?
(a) Spanish (b) English (c) Italian (d) Latin
6. What is the name of the famous mountain in Rio de
Janeiro! Brazil
(a) Salt loaf mountain (b) Sugar loaf mountain (c) Sand
mountain (d) marble mountain
7. What is the speed of light?
(a) 3 xl09m/s (b) 3 x108 m/s (c) 3 x105 m/s (d) 3 x106
rn/s
8. Which continent is largest on earth?
(a) Africa (b) Europe (c)Asia (d) Australia
9. How many months of the year have 31 days?
(a) 6 (b)7 (c) 8 (d) 9
10. What are people who do not eat protein from
animal called?
(a) Omnivorous (b) Carnivorous (c) vegetarian (d)
vegatis
11. From where is the Olympic fire sent out to the
Olympic games every 4 years?
(a) Abuja (b) Greece (c) Washington D.C (d) United
Kingdom
12. How many edge has a cube?
(a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 16

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13. Which Continent has the coldest climate?


(a) Antarctica (b) Africa (c) Europe (d) Asia
14. Which mountain range separate Europe from Asia?
(a) The Kiliimanjaro (b) Everest (c) The Urais
(d)Uranium
15. What does the word EMIR means?
(a) king (b) royalty (c) Prince in Arabic (d) Throne
16. Which channel connect the Atlantic ocean with the
pacific ocean?
(a) Banana channel (b) panama channel (c) Palima
channel (d) oceanic channel
17. When was telephone first invented?
(a) 1860 (b) 1861 (c) 1862 (d) 1862
18. Who invented the first telephone?
(a) Charles Darwin (b) Phillip Reis (c) Einstein (d)
Michael Faraday
19. Cairo is the capital of which country.
(a) Morocco (b)Egypt (c) Tunisia (d) Libya
20. Lima is the capital of which country
(a) Peru (b) China (c) Chile (d) Mexico
21. Barometer is used to measure
(a) the atmospheric air (b) the atmospheric pressure
(c) temperature (d) volume
22. At which temperature will pure water be
transformed to steam
(a) 90 C (b) 100 C (c) 110 C (d) 115C
23. What is a skyscraper?
(a) a mountain (b) a bird (c) a very high building (d) a
tall tree
24. Which is the smallest continent?
(a) Australia (b)Africa (c) Artic & Arctatical (d) Africa
25. Which of the following gases is used to fill balloon?
(a) Oxygen (b) carbon IV oxide (c) Helium (d) Nitrogen

26. The election into the National assembly, already


schedule to hold on the 2 April,2011 was shifted to
(a) 4th April (b) 5th April (c) 7th April (d) 9th April
27. Dr. Goodluck Jonathan was sworn in as the acting
president in Nigeria on the . . ..
(a) 10th Feh.,20l0 (b) 11th feb.,2010 (c) 12th feb.,2010
(d) l3 Feb., 2010
28. Which country is hosting 2014 world cup?
(a) USA b)Argentina c) Brazil (d)Germany
29. Who is the INEC chairman for the 2011 general
election?
a) Prof. Maurice Iwu b) Prof Wole Soyinka
c) Prof. Attairu Jega d)Prof Chinua Achibe
30. Who was the senate president from June 2007 to
June 2011 in Nigeria upper legislative chamber?
(a) David Mark (b) Dimeji Bankole (c) Ike Ekeremadu
(d) Alhaji Nafada
ANSWER KEY
1 C 6 B 11 B 16 B 21 B
2 D 7 B 12 C 17 B 22 B
3. B 8 C 13 A 18 B 23 C
4 A 9 B 14 C 19 B 24 A
5 C 10 D 15 C 20 A 25 C
26 D 27C 28 C 29 C 30.A
SECTION C
1. The vice-president in Nigeria between 1979-1983 is
(a) Dr. Joseph Wayas (b) Dr. Alex Ekwueme
(c) Alhaji bashiru Tofa (d) Chief M.K.O Abiola
2. A principle that advocate total equality of members
of a society is called...
(a)Communalism (b) egalitarianism (c)
Totalitarianism(d) Oligarcy

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3. The governor of old western region who died in a


military coup with the visiting head of state in 1966
was
(a) Lt. Col. B. S. Dimka (b) Col. Shittu Alao
(c) Lt. Col. Adekunle Fajuyi (d) Col. Ibrahim Taiwo
4. The popular means of transportation during the
trans-Sahara trade was the
(a) donkey (b) horse (c) camel (d) mule
5. Which was the general purpose currency in precolonial Nigeria?
(a) cloth (b) salt (c) copper (d) cowry
6. General Murtala Muhammad was assassinated in a
coup led by
(a) Lt. Col. Kaduna Nzeogwu (b) Col. Joe Garba
(c)Lt.Col. B.S.Dimka (d) Major Gideon Orkar
7. The twenty one state structure came into being in
Nigeria during the rule of
(a) Gen. Murtala Muhammad (b) Major Gen. Agunyi
Ironsi
(c) Gen. Olusegun Obasanjo (d) Gen. Ibrahim
Babangida
8. The colony of Lagos and protectorate of southern
Nigeria were amalgamated to become the colony and
protectorate of southern Nigeria in.. .
(a) May 1900 (b) May 1902 (c) May 1905 (d) May 1906
9. The first African and only Nigerian to win nobel prize
in Literature is
(a) Prof.Chinua Achebe (b) Chris Okigbo
(c) Prof. Wole Soyinka (d) Prof. Akinwumi Ishola
10. How many Rivers is in Africa?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c)8 (d) 9
11. Civil war broke out in Nigeria on
(a) Jan.,l967 (b) Feb., 1967 (c) May, 1967 (d) July, 1967
12. What is the third planet of the solar system?
(a) mercury (b) Mars (c) earth (d) venus
13. The solar system is made up of how many planets.

(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 7


14. What is the capital of Gombe state in Nigeria?
(a) Goje (b) Gombe (c)Dutse (d) Damaturu
15. When was Ekiti state established?
(a) 1990 (b)1991 (c) 1995 (d) 1996
16. According to 2006 Censure, which state is the most
populous in Nigeria?
(a) Oyo (b) Kano (c) Lagos (d) Kaduna
17. Where is marble mined in Oyo state?
(a) lgbeti (b) lgboho (c) Iseyin (d) Ogbomoso
18. Which of these is a tourist centre in Ogun state?
(a) Obudu cattle Ranch (b) Ikogusi water fall (c) Olumo
Rock (d) Gurara water fall
19. Nigeria is boundaries in the North by which of the
following countries.
(a) Cotonu (b)Ghana (c) Cameroun (d) Niger
20. The first election in Nigeria was held in the year
(a) 1914 (b) 1922 (c) 1948 (d) 1960
ANSWER KEY
1.B 6 C 11 D 16 B
2.B 7 A 12 C 17 A
3.C 8 D 13 B 18 C
4.C 9 C 14 B 19 D
5.D 10.B 15. D 20 B
SECTION D
1. River Niger takes its source from
(a) mountain Everest (b) Futa Jalon (c) Kilimanjaro (d)
Olumo rock
2. From Which country does River Niger takes its
source?
(a) Ghana (b) Niger (c) Cote DIvoire (d) Guinea
3. How many days make a leap year? (a) 362 (b)364 (c)
365 (d) 366

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4. How many hours does it take for the earth to rotate


on its own axis?
(a) 7 hr (b) 12 Hr (c) 24 hr (d) 36 hr
5. The last eclipse of the sun in Nigeria was observed
on
(a) 29th march.2006 (b) 28th march, 2006 (c) 30th
march, 2006 (d) 271h march, 2006
6. Dr. Goodluck Jonathan was sworn in as executive
president on . . . .
(a) 1 May, 2010 (b) 2 May, 2010 (c) 5th May, 2010 (d)
6th May, 2010
7. Alhaji Umar Yaradua died in office on....
(a) 1st May, 2010 (b) 2nd May, 2010 (c) 5th May, 2010
(d) 6th May, 2010
8. The first country to witness Oyster in North- Africa
in 2011 is
(a) Egypt (b) Tunisia (c) Libya (d) Morocco
9. The first multi-storey building in Nigeria was built in
(a) Lagos (b) Abuja (c) Kano (d) Ibadan
10. The Premier University college was established in
Nigeria in the year.
(a) 1960 (b)1947 (c) 1948 (d) 1949
11. The first television station in Africa, WNTV, was
established in the year
(a) 1959 (b) 1960 (c) 1963 (d) 1966
12. Who stopped the killing of twins in Calabar?
(a) Henry Townsend (b) Mary Slessor (c) Mongo Park
(d) Herbert Macaulay
13. English language Bible was translated to Yoruba
Language by...
(a) Bishop Adelakun (b)Bishop Finn
(c) Bishop Ajayi Crowther (d)Cannon Sunday Makinde
14 LLL. is referred to as confluence town in Nigeria.
(a) Lokoja(b) Lagos(c)Port Harcourt (d) Abuja
15. Nigeria is boundaries in the south with
(a) Pacific ocean (b) Atlantic ocean (c) Red sea (d) Artic
&Antarctic

16. How many political parties participated in the


2011 general election ?
(a) 62 (b) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65
17 LL.. is the leader of the first military coup in Nigeria.
(a) Col. Emeka Ojukwu (b) Major Chukwuma Nzeogwu
(c) Gen. Olusegun Obasanjo (d) Gen Yakubu Gowon
18. The basis for Nigerias membership of the
commonwealth isLLL.
(a) She was a former colony of Britain
(b) She was a leading opponent of Apartheid in South
Africa
(c)She is the most populous black nation
(d) She provides athletes for the common wealth.
19. Which of the following is not an interest group?
(a) Christian Association of Nigeria (b) Nigerian
Medical Association
(c) Catholic church (d) Pentecostal fellowship of
Nigeria
20. A legislative debate or proceeding which is
attended by all members of the house is calledLL..
(a) Plenary session (b ) Recess session
(c) committee stage/ session (d) Third Reading session
ANSWER KEY
1.B 6 D 11 A 16 B
2.D 7 C 12 B 17 B
3.D 8 B 13 C 18 A
4.C 9 D 14 A 19 C
5.A 10.C 15 D 20 A
SECTION E
1. During the period of 1960-1966, Nigeria was
governed under the:
(a) Presidential system of government (b)
Westminster system of Government

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(c) Con federal system of government (d) Unitary


system of government
2. Which of the following in the Sokoto caliphate
performed functions similar to that of the Bashorun in
Oyo kingdom?
(a) Waziri (b) Galadima (c) Maaji (d) Alkali
3. In the Igbo political system, the most senior member
of the council of elder is the
(a) Okpara (b) Obi (c) Eze (d) Ofo
4. Herbert Macaulay was the first president of
(a) NCNC (a) AG (c) UMPC (d) NEPU
5. Equality before the law is a component of
(a Separation of power (b) checks and balances
(c) The rule of law (d) constitutional law
6. Adolf Hitler is to Nazism as Benito Mussolini is to
(a) Feudalism (b)communism (c) Fascism (d) Socialism
7. Nigeria became a republic on
(a) May 29, 1999 (b) Oct. 1,1960 (c) Jan. 15,1966 (d)
Oct. 1, 1963
8. The Economic Community of West Africa states was
established in
(a) May 1975 (b) May 1963 (c) May 1966 (d) May 1996
9. The first Indigenous Governor General of Nigeria
is
(a) Donald Cameron (b) Sir Ames Robertson
(c) Sir Adesoji Aderemi (d) Rt. Hon. Nnamdi Azikwe
10. Free-Education was introduced in western Region
by which of these Premier?
(a) Chief Obafemi Awolowo (b) Chief S. L Akintola
(c) Chief Michael Adekunle Ajasin (d) Chief Bola Ige
II. The EFCC was established to
(a) arrest & try corrupt politician
(b) combat economic and financial crimes in Nigeria
(c) arrest, detain & prosecute corrupt state governors
and legislators
(d) assist the world in monitoring economic project in
Nigeria

12. In many countries, citizenship can be acquired


through the following process except
(a) Nationalization (b) Naturalization (c) Registration
(d) Birth
13. The following are Anglophone West Africa
countries except
(a) Ghana (b) Nigeria (c)Kenya (d) The Gambia
14. Every political system performs the following basic
function except
(a) Rule making (b) Rule transformation (c) Rule
enforcement (d) Rule adjudication
15. The amalgamation of the Northern and Southern
protectorates and the colony of
Lagos was in
(a) 1960 (b) 1966 (c) 1963 (d) 1914
16. Globalization is all but except one of these . .
(a) a renewed concept in international studies (b)
limited to the west
(c) a process of making the world smaller (d) an
increasing integration of the world
17. The centenary anniversary of the amalgamation of
Northern and Southern Nigeria will be established in
(a) 2060 (b) 2066 (c) 2064 (d)2014
18. The second military coup detat in Nigeria took
place on
(a) Jan. 15, 1966 (b ) Oct. 1, 1966 (c) July 29, 1966 (d)
July 29, 1975
19. The idea of democracy stated with the
(a) Romans (b) British (c) Greeks (d) Egyptian
20. The first political party in Nigeria was established
in
(a) 1923 (b) 1922 (c)l951 (d) 1979
22. Under the military regime in Nigeria, state
enactment are known as

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(a) laws(b) decrees (c) edicts (d) promulgation (e)


proportion
23. The motto of Boys Scout is
(a) be faithful (b) be prepared (c) be inspired (d) be
serious (e) be helpful
24. Which state is referred to as power state (a)
Bayelsa (b) Delta (c) Niger (d) Federal capital territory
(e) Kaduna.
ANSWER KEY
1 B 6 C 11 B 16 B 21 B
2 A 7 D 12 C 17 D 22 B
3. D 8 A 13 C 18 C 23 B
4 A 9 C 14 C 19 C 24 C
5 C 10A 15 D 20 B
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2006 POST UME TEST
1. A solid weighs 0.040N in air and 0.024N when fully
immersed in a liquid of density 800kgm. Calculate the
volume of the solid (g = 10ms2)
(a) 2.0 x 10-6m3 (b) 2.5 x 10-6m3 (c) 3.0 x10-6m3 (d)
2.0 x 10-6m3
2. A body of mass 5kg starts from rest and is acted
upon by a force 100N, the acceleration in ms2 and final
velocity after 10secs will be
(a) 20ms2, 20ms1 (b) 25ms2, 250ms (c) 20ms2 200ms4
(d) 10ms2 300ms-4
3. All these are true about impulse except
(a) change in momentum of a body (b) its unit is Ns
(c) product of force and time (d)change in acceleration
of a body
4. A car of mass 100kg moves at a constant speed of
20m/s along a horizontal road where the friction force
is 200N. Calculate the power developed by the engine.
(a) 2000 watt (b) 3000 watt (c) 4000 watt (d) 5000 watt
5. According to Newtons second law of motion:
(a) momentum is proportional to force action
(b) action is equal to reaction but in the opposite
direction
(c) impulse force is inversely proportional to time

(d) force is proportional to rate of change of


momentum
6. The weight of heat energy needed to freeze one
kilogramme of milk at the inversely point is known as
(a) heat energy (b) intent heat of fusion
(c) specific latent heat of fusion (d) specific heat
capacity
7. In a certain process 12,000 calories of Hexane is
supplied to the system while the system does work
7500J. Find the change in internal energy: Note I
cal=4.1 84J
(a) 57,708J (b) 42,708J (c) 35,208J (d) 50,208J
8. Some water is heated in a pot. The major mode(s) of
the heat transfer through the water is/are by:
(a) convection (b) conduction (c) radiation (d)
conduction and radiation
9. Calculate the quantity of heat required to
completely convert 20kg ice at 00C of water at the
same temperature (specific latent heat of fusion of ice
= 336Jkg
(a) 8.06KJ (b) 706KJ (c) 538KJ (d) 6.72KJ
10. An object of mass 10g requires 20J of heat energy
to change its temperature by 200C. Calculate the
specific heat capacity of the object. (a) 0.1Jg-1K-1 (b)
0.2g-1K-1 (c) 0.4Jg-1K-1 (d) 0
11. Which of these radiation does not originate with
the nucleus?
(a) Alpha (b) x-rays (c) beta (d) neutron
12. A tyre is pumped to a pressure of 30Nm2 at 27C,
when the tyre rates up to 54C. Find the new pressure
assuming no change in volume.
(a) 40.7Nm 2 (b) 60.0Nm2 (c) 32.7Nm 2 (d) 52.6Nm 2
13. An eclipse of the sun may occur when
(a) the sun passes between the moon and the Earth

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(b) the sun passes between the Earth and the sun
(c) the Earth passes between the moon and the sun
(d) the moon and the Earth rotate together
14. The shortest mirror in which a person. interest can
see its entire image is
(a) 2m (b) 0.5m (c) 4m (d) 1m
15. The nature of the image formed by an object
placed 12cm from a con verging lens of focal length
18cm is
(a) virtual and magnified (b) virtual and real (c) a
infinity (d) virtual
16. A erect image three line the size of the object is
obtained from a concave mirror of radius of curvature
36cm, what is the position of the object from the
mirror?
(a) 24cm (b) 12cm (c) 10cm (d) 8cm
17. The angle of deviator of light of various colours
passing through a glass prism decrease in the order
(a) red, blue and orange (b) blue, red, orange (c) red,
orange, blue (d) orange, blue, red
18. Two positive point charge of 12\C and8\C
respectively are 10cm apart. The work done is bringing
them 4cm closer is (K= 9 x 102 N2mc2) (a) 600J (b)
300J (c) 6.8J (d) 518J
19. The effective capacitance of a system of capacitors
arranged such that a 4\F capacitor is in series with 3\F.
(a) 1.7\F (b) 3.0\F (c) 4F (d) 5.0\F
20. How long will it take to heat 3kg of water from
280C to 880C using an electric kettle, which taps 6A
from a 210V supply? (a) 5.6 minutes (b) 9.6 minutes (c)
10.0 minutes (d) 19.3 minutes
21. A moving cell galvanometer has a resistance of
10and a full scale deflection of 0.0 IA, it can be
converted into a voltmeter of 10V full-scale deflection
by connecting a resistor of
(a) 969] parallel (b) 990] parallel (c) 10] parallel (d) 10]
parallel

22. A musical note is different from a noise in that the


(a) amplitude of a noise is greater than that of a
musical note
(b) frequency of a musical note is regular while that of
a noise is irregular
(c) wavelength of a musical note is longer than that of
a noise
(d) frequency of a note is higher than that of a musical
note
23. Any line or section through an advancing wave in
which all the particles are in the same phase is called
(a) wave crest (b) wave tough (c) wave amplitude (d)
wave front
24. Which of the following diameters is the best
absorber of x-rays/gamma?
(a) hydrogen (b) calcium (c) copper (d) lead
25. Thunder is usually heard some seconds after
lighting is seen because
(a) sound and light travel in different media
(b) thunder occurs after lighting
(c) sound travel more slowly than light
(d) sound travels in the form of waves but light does
not
26. If a source of sound is moving, a stationary listener
will hear a sound of different frequency. This is called
(a) Doppler effect (b) resonance (c) refraction (d)
diffraction of sound
27. The period of vibration of a wave of wavelength
30m moving at a speed of300m/s
(a) 10s (b) 270s (c) 330s (d) 900s
28. The quality (timber) of sound depends
(a) amplitude (b) frequency (c) harmonies (d)
wavelength

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29. Which of the following consist entirely of scalar


quantities:
(a) pressure, work and electric potential
(b) force, momentum and distance
(c) velocity, energy and impulse
(d) mass, time and temperature
ANSWER KEY
1 A 7 A 13 C 19 A 25 C
2 C 8 A 14 A 20C 26 A
3 D 9 D 15 A 21 B 27 A
4 C 10 A 16 A 22 B 28 C
5 C 11 A 17 D 23 D 29 D
6 C 12 C 18 D 24 D
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN (2007) POST UME TEST PHYSICS
1. A car accelerates from 3rns-1 to 100ms in 35s.
Calculate the acceleration of the car.
(a) 2ms-2 (b) 3ms2 (c) 4ms2(d) 5ms-2
2. A body bf mass 2kg moves round a circle of radius
2m with a constant speed of 165m/s. Calculate the
force toward the centre. (a) 40N (b) 50N (c) 80N (d)
100N
3. A girl of mass 65kg falls horn a bridge that 50m
above the water. Calculate her kinetic energy after
falling for 5 sees. (a) 1 125J (b) 28125J (c) 9375J (d)
812501
4. Which of the following is a mechanical wave?
(a) micro wave (b) water wave (c) X-ray (d) infra-red
ray
5. The half-life of the radioactive substance of mass
100g is 30 minutes. What fractions of the original
mass are left over after 3hrs? (a) 3.125 (b) 6.25 (e)
1.5625 (d) 0.02563
6. Two resistors 12] and 8] are connected in parallel, if
the power developed in 12], resistor is 6w, determine

the power developed in 3.32 resistor. (a) 9w (b) 12w


(c) 16w (d) 24w
7. How long will a 60 wart element take to heat water
of mass 0.5kg at 300C to 900C. Neglect heat loss (S.H.
C. of water = 4200jkg-1K-1) (a) 350secs (b) 1260secs
(c) 2100secs (d) 1500secs
8. The critical angle of glass is 42, the approximate
refractive index of this glass is
(a) 1.50 (b) 1.38 (c) 1.80 (d) 2.30
9. Second harmonic motion of a string 1.5m long fixed
at both ends 80Hz.
The speed of transverse wave in the string is
(a) 120ms (b) 120m/s (c) 2.12m/s (d) 102m/s
10. The echo produced when a motion is fire from a
ship some distance from cliff is heard 1.2 second.
Calculate the distance of the ship (if the velocity of
Sound in air = 330m/s)
(a) 138m (b) 198m (c) 275m (d) 296m
ANSWERS KEY
1.B 2.A 3.D 4.B 5.C
6.A 7.C 8.A 9.B 10.D
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2008 POST UME TEST PHYSICS
1. To what height will a missile find vertically upwards
with a speed of 28m/s attain if air resistance is
neglected? g = 9.8m/s
2. Which of the following is not an example of a
machine?
(a) screw (b) lever (c) horizontal plane (d) pulley
3. How long will it take to heat 3kg of L1t from 28C in
an electric kettle taking 6A from 220V supply?
(specific heat capacity of water is 4180J/k)
(a) 2mins (b) 9mins (c) 1Omins (d) 20mins

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4. A cell with an emf of 1.5V and an internal resistance


of 10.Oohms is connected to two resistances of 2.0 and
3.0 ohms in series. The current produced by this cell is
(a) 0.25A (b) 2.5A (c) 0.5A (d) 0.75A
5. Which of the following is not essential for the
production of electron by thermionic emission?
(a) Tungsten target (b) Reflection plate (c) Fluorescent
(d) Hot cathode
6. If an object moves with a constant speed round a
circle, it has an acceleration which is
(a) constant in magnitude and varying in direction
(b) varying in magnitude and constant in direction
(c) constant in magnitude and direction
8. The density of a solid is 130gcm3 at the temperature
of 25C. Find the density at 150C if the linear
expansion of the solid is 2.0 x 105K1.
(a) 21.90gcm3 (b) 9.021.90gcm3 (c)12.9gcm3 (d)
20.521.90gcm3
9. A bullet leaves the barrel of a gun with a speed of
80ms. If the barrel is 20m long. Find the acceleration
of the bullet.
(a) l6Oms (b) 40ms (c) 800ms (d) 1600ms1
10. Sound and water waves are classified as
mechanical waves and they cannot be propagated in
one of the following media
(a) air (b) water (c) steel (d) vaccuum
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2009 POST UME TEST PHYSICS
1. A 5kg at rest is acted upon by a force of 20N for 20
milliseconds. The increases in momentum final speed
of the body respectively are
a) 4Ns and 8Ns b) 0.4Ns and 0.08Ns c) 0.4Ns and 0.8Ns
d) 4Ns and 0.8Ns
2. A body throws a stone up to a height of 10m and
catches it back. What is the displacement of the stone
(assume the hand remains at the same level at throw
and at catch)
a) 10m (b) 20m (c) 30m d) 0m

3. A body moves along a circular path with uniform


angular speed of 0.6rads and at a constant speed of
3.0m/s.
Calculate the acceleration of the body towards the
centre of the circle.
a) 2.5m/s b) 5.4m/s c) 5.0m/s d)1.8m/s
4. Which of the following is a derived unit? a) Newton
(b) Kelvin (c) Kilogram (d) second
5. The change of the direction of a wave as a result of
a change in the velocity of the wave in another
medium is called. a) Refraction b) Diffraction c)
Interference d) Polarization
6. Light of frequency 6.0 x 1014Hz travelling in air is
transmitted through glass of refractive index 1.5.
Calculate the frequency of the light in the glass.
a) 6.0 x 1014Hz b) 4.0 x 1014Hz
b) 7.5 x 1014Hz d) 9.0 x 1014Hz
7. A 700 glass prism has a refractive index of 1.5.
Calculate the angle of incidence for minimum
deviation
a) 350 b) 490 c) 590 d) 450
8. An object placed 12cm in front of a convex lens
produces a virtual image of magnification 3.0. the
focal length of the lens is a) 9cm b) 12cm c) 18cm d)
36cm
9. What is the average velocity of the molecules in a
sample of oxygen at 1000C? the mass of oxygen is 5.3
x 10-26kg? a) 540m/s b) 450m/s c) 540m/s d) 504m/s
10. A conductor has a diameter of 1.0mm and length
2.0mm, if the resistance of the material is
a) 2.55 x 105]m
b) 2.55 x 102]m
c) 3.93 x 10-5]m
d) 3.93 x 10-8]m37

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2010 POST UME TEST


MATHEMATICS
1. Solve for X if 43x 2 = 26x = 1
(a) 6,694 (b) 6,649 (c) 6,469 (d) 6,496
2. A cylinder of base radius 4cm has a volume of
100cm3. Calculate its height.
(a) 1.99cm (b) 9.19cm (c) 9.91cm (d) 10cm
3. Find the real value of x for which sin hx = 1.475
(a) 1.8108 (b) 1.0881 (c) 1.1808 (d) 1.1081
4. If 4r3 / 3 = 128.1, then what is 4r2?
(a) 132 (b) 123 (c) 213 (d) 321
5. Solve the polynomial x3 + 4x2 + x 6 = 0
(a) 0, -1, 2 (b) -2, 4, 5 (c) 1, -3, -4 (d) 0, 1, 2
6. The sides of a Rhombus are 4.2cm each. One of its
angle is 580. Calculate the lengths of the diagonals.
(a) 4.07, 7.34 (b) 4.70, 7.34 (c) 4.34, 7.07 (d) 4.70, 7.43
7. Calculate the mean, median and mode of 2, 3, 3, 3,
5.
(a) 3,2,3,2 (b) 3,2,3,3 (c) 2,3,3,3 (d) 3,2,2,3
8. Solve for x in the equations 6x + 4y = 5 and 3x + 2y =
5
(a) x = 0 (b) x = 2 (c) x = 5 (d) No solution
9. Let y = logax, calculate dy / dx
(a) 1 / asinx (b) 1 / x2Ina (c) 1/2x In a (d) 1 / xIna
10. Evaluate (2) if (x) = sin 45x X2 2
(a) 2 (b) . (c) undefined (d) 0
SOLUTION
1. 43x 2 = 26x = 1
Taking the logarithm of both sides
(3x 2) log4 = (x + 1) log26
3xlog4 - 2log4 = x log 26 + log 26.
3x log 4 x log 26 = log 26 + 2log 4
x (3 log4 log 26) = log26 + 2log 4
dividing both sides by 3 log4 log26

x = log26 + 2log4
3log4 log26
= 1.4150 + 2(0.6021)
3(0.6021) 1.4150
= 2.6192
0.3913 = 6.6914 (A)
2. The volume (V) of a cylinder with base radius (r) 2h
V = 100cm3, r = 4cm, h = 7
100 = 22/7 x 16 x h
=> h = 10 x 7
22 x 16
= 1.99cm (A)
3. Recall that, sin hx = ex e-x
.: ex e-x = 1.475
Multiply both sides by 2, we have
ex e-x = 2.95
Multiplying through by ex
e2x 1 = 2.95ex
=> e2x 2.95x 1 = 0
Put ex = p LLL. (*)
=> p2 2.95p 1 = 0
Using general formula for solving quadratic equation
-22.95)2 4 x 1 x (-1)
=> p = 3.2571 or -0.3071
when p = -0.3071 we have from (*) that
ex = - 0.3071. This is not possible since exponential
function is non negative.
When p = 3.2571, we have from (*) that
ex = 3.2571
=> x = loge (3.2571) = In 3.2571
= 1.1808 (C)

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r3 = 3 x 128.1
4 x 22
= 3.13
(B)
5. x3 + 4x2 + x 6 = 0
Let P(x) = x3 + 4x2 + x -6
Now, P(1) = 1 + 4 + 1 6 = 0.
Hence, x-1 is a factor of P(x)
by factor theorem.
x2 + 5x + 6
x 1 x3 + 4x2 + x 6
x3 x2
5x2 + x
5x2 + x
6x 6
6x 6
X2 + 5x + 6 = x2 + 2x + 3x + 6
= (x+2+(x+3)
.: x3 + 4x2 + x 6 = 0
=> (x-1)(x+2)(x+3) =0
=> either x -1 =0 or x +2 = 0
or x + = 0
.: x = -3, -2,1
1st diagram
If ABC=580, then BCD=1800
580= 1220
c2 = b2 + d2 2bd cos C
(consine rule)

= 422 + 4.22 2x 4.2x 4.2cos 1220


= 7.34cm
b2 = a2 + c2 2ac cos B (cosine rule)
b2 = 422 + 4.22 2x 4.2x 4.2xcos580
18.7
= 4.07cm
.: The lengths of the diagonals are 4.07cm and
7.34cm (A)
7. Mean = 2+3+3+3+5
5 = 3.2
Median = 3;
Mode = 3 (B)
8. 6x + 4y = 5 LLLLL.. (i)
3x + 2y = 5 LLLLL... (ii)
Equations (i) and (ii) are parallel lines since
6x + 4y = 2(3 + 2y).
Therefore, there is no solution (D)
9. y = logax
=> y = logax
logea
=> y logea = logax
Differentiating through with respect to x
Logea dy / dx = 1/x
=> dy/dx = 1/xlogea = 1/xIna (D)
X2 2
= sin 900 = 1 4 2 2 (B)

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN
2006 POST UME TEST
MATHEMATICS
1. If two graphs y = px2 + q and y = 2x2 1 intersect at
x = 2, find the value of p in terms of q.
(a) 7-q (b) q 8 (c) 8 - q (d) 7+ q
2. Interval years 10 12 13 15 16 18 19- 20 21 23
No. of pupils 6 14 15 10 5
The table above shows the frequency distribution of
the ages (years) of pupils in a certain Sunday School.
What percentage of the total number of pupils is over
15 years but less than 21 years?
(a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 45% (d) 35%
3. -1 -1 -1
Evaluate 3 1 -1
121
(a) -12 (b) 4 (c) -4 (d) -2
4. Given the matrix K = 2, the matrix K2 + K + 1 when 1
is 2 x 2, identify matrix is
(a) 6 3 (b) 7 2 (c) 9 8 (d) 10 7
5. If y/2 = x, evaluate x3/y2 + . + (. - x2/y2)
(a) -5/2 (b) 5/8 (c) 5/16 (d) 5/2
6. Let p = (1,2,u,v,w,x),
Q = (2,3,u,v,w,5,6,y) and
R = 2,3,4,v,x,y),
Determine (P/Q) R
(a) (b) (x) (c) (x,y) (d) (1,x)
7. If y = 2xcos 2x sin 2x, find dy/dx when x =
(a) (b) 0 (c) 2(d)
8. A binary operation * is defined by a*b = ab if a*2=2
a, find possible value of a.
(a) -1,2 (b) -2,7 (c) 1,2 (d) 1,2
9. If a and are the toots of the equation 3x2 5x2 2 =
0, find the value of 1/a + 1/b
(a) 5/2 (b) -5/2 (c) (d) -1/2

10. The 3rd term of an AP is 4x 2y and the 9th term is


10x 8y, find the common difference.
(a) x,y (b) 19x-17y (c) 2x (d) 8x-4y
11. Convert 38 in base 10 to a number of base 2.
(a) 1001 (b) 11011 (c) 100101 (d) 111001
12. Find the curved surface area of a cone whose base
radius is 6cm and whose height is 8cm
(a)18cm2 (b) 60cm2 (c) 24cm2 (d) 56cm2
13. If log 32(x2 + 2x + 3) = 1/5, find the value of x
(a) 2 or 3 (b) -1twice (c) 1 or -2 (d) 1 twice
14. Rationalize the denominator 6 + 2 5/4 - 36
(a) 12+4-5 +7x 6+3 x 30
19
(b) -(15+3x5 + 156 + 730)
3
(c) -(24 + 8 - 186 + 630)
39
(d-) -(12+45 + 96 + 330
19
15. A ladder resting on a vertical wall makes an angle
whose tangent is 2.4 and the distance between the
foot of the ladder and the wall is 50cm. what is the
length of the ladder?
(a) 1m (b) 1.1m (c) 1.3m (d) 1.2m
16. Find the value of x and y in the equations 2x + 5y =
11, 7x + 4y = 2
(a) x=8, y=0 (b) x=2, y=-3
(c) x=34/27, y=73/27
(d) x = -27/34, y=73/27
17. If y = 2x2 + 9x 35, find the ranges of values of
which y < =
(a) -5 <x <7 (b) -7 <x < 5/2
(c) -7/2 <x < 5 (d) -5<x<7

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18. If the first term and the sixth term of the


geometric progression is 9 and 32/27, calculate the
sum of the first four terms?
(a) 212/3 (b) 23 (c) 23. (d) 362/3
19. Sin = 3/2 are less than 900. tan (90 - ) Cos2
(a) x3/2 (b) . (c) 4/3 (d) 23
SOLUTION
1. Hint: At the point(s) of intersection of the graph y =
1(x) = 2(x). Therefore, at the 6 point of intersection of
y = px2 + q and y = 2x2 - 1
px2 + q = 2x2
q + 1 = 2x2 px2
q + 1 = x2 (2 p) by factorizing x2
Dividing both sides by 2 p
X2 = q + 1
2p
Substituting x = 2 (the given point of intersection)
22 = q + 1
2p
4=q+1
2p
Multiplying both sides by 2 p
8 4p = q + 1
=> = 7-q
4 (A)
2. Total number of pupils in the Sunday school = 50
Total number of pupils above 15 years but less than 21
years = 15+10 = 25
Percentage of the total number of pupils above 15
years but less than 21 year = 25/50 x 100% = 50% (B)
3. -1 -1 -1
3 1 -1
121
= -1 1 -1 -(-1) 3 -1 +(-1) 3 1
211112
= -1(1+2) + 1(3+1) - 1(6-1)
= -34 5 = -4 (C)
4.
5. To evaluate (x2/y2 + . )+( . - x2/y2)

Given that y/2 = x


y/2 = x => x/y = .
Hence, (x2/y2 + . )+( . - x2/y2)
= ([x/y]3 + . ) + . - [x/y]2)
Putting x/y = .
= ([ .]3 + . ) + ( . - [. ]2)
= (1/8 + . ) + ( . - .)
= 5/8 + .
5/8 x 4/1 = 5/2 (D)
6. P/Q = (1,x)
.: (P/Q) R = (x) (B)
7. y = 2x cos 2x sin 2x
dy/dx = d/dx (2x cos 2x)d/dx sin2x
= 2 cos 2x 4xsin2x 2cos 2x
= -4x sin 2x
.: when x = , dy/dx = -4 x x sin2
= -4x 0 (sin 2= 0)
= 0 (B)
8. a * 2 = 2 - a
=> a2 = 2 a
=> a2 + a 2 = 0
=> a2 + 2a a 2 = 0
=> a(a+2) 1(a+2) = 0
=> (a+2) (a-1) = 0
=> a+2=0 or a-1 = 0
=> a = -2 or 1 (B)
9. Given and as the roots of the equation
3x2 5x 2 = 0
The + = 5/3; = -2/3
.: 1/+ 1/= +/
= 5/3 + -2/3 = 5/3 x -3/2
= 5/2 (B)
10. nth term of an AP. With first term a
and common different d = a+(n-1)d
3rd term = 4x 2y and 9th term = 10x -8y

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=> a + 2d = 4x = 2y LL (i)
a + 8d = 10x 8y LLLL(ii)
subtract (i) from (ii)
6d = 6x 6y
Dividing through by 6, we get
d = x-y (A)
11. 2 38
2 19 r 0
29r1
24r1
22r0
20r1
.: 3810 = 1001102 (A)
12. Curved surface area of a cone = rl
2nd Diagram
L = h2 + r2
.: C.S.A. = x 6 82 + 62
= 6 x 10 = 60cm2 (B)
13. log32 (x2 2x + 3) = 1/5
=> x2 2x + 3 = 321/5
X2 2x + 3 = 2
=> x2 2x + 1 = 0
=> (x 1)2 = 0
=> x = 1 twice
14. 6 + 25
4 - 36
Rationalize
6 + 25 x 4 + 36
4 - 36 4 - 36
24 + 18 6 + 85 + 630
= 16 + 126 126 9 (6)
= 24 + 18 6 + 85 + 630
16 54
= 2(12 + 96 + 45 + 330
38
= -(12 + 96 + 45 + 330
9 (D)
15. Diagram 3
The length of the ladder is /AB/
Using trig. ratio
tan = /AC/ 50
=> /AC/ = 50 x tan
= 50 x 2.4 = 12cm
Using Pythagoras theorem
/AB/ = /AC/2 + /B/C/2
= 122 + 502
= 16900 = 130cm = 1.3m (C)
16. 2x + 5y = 11 LLL(i)
7x + 4y = 2 LLL..(ii)
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Using elimination method


Multiply (i) by 7 and (ii) by 2
14x + 35y = 77 LLLL.(iii)
14x + 8y = 4 LLLLL..(iv)
Subtract (iv) from (iii)
27y = 73
Y = 73/27
Substitute the value to y in (i)
2x + 5(73/27) = 1
2x = 11 365/27
2x = 297 365 = -16
27 27
=> x = -34/27
.: x = -34/27, y = 73/27 (C)
17. y = 2x2 + 9x - 35
By factorizing the L.H.S.
=> y = 2x2 + 14x2 5x - 35
y = (2x 5) (x + 7)
hence, y < 0 => (2x 5)(x 7) < 0.
There are 2 possibilities

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(1) 2x 5 < 0 and x + 7 < 0 or


(2) 2x 5 > 0 and x + 7 < 0
=> (i) x < 5/2 and x > -7
=> (ii) x > 5/2 and x < -7
But x > 5/2 and x < -7 is not possible. Therefore, x <
5/2 and x > -7
i.e. -7 < x <5/2 (B)
18. nth term of a G.P. = arn-1
a = 9 LLL. L. (i)
ar5 = -32/27 LL (ii)
put (i) in (ii)
9r5 = 32/27
R5 = 32 = 25
9x27 35
.: r = 525/35 = 2/3
Sum of the first n terms of a G.P =
a(1 rn)
1-r
.: sum of the first four terms
= 9(1 [2/3]4)

1 2/3
= 9(1 16/81)
1/3
= 3 x 9 x 9 65/61 = 21 2/3 (A)
19. sin = 3/2 = = 600
.: tan (900 - ) = tan 300 = 1/3
Cos2= cos2600 = (1/2)2 = .
Hence, tan (900 - )
Cos2
= 1/3 + .
= 4/3
Rationalize to get
= 43
3 (C)

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN
2007 POST UME TEST
MATHEMATICS
1. A regular hexagon is constructed inside a circle of
radius 6cm, the area of the hexagon is
(a) 54cm2 (b) 543cm2 (c) 542cm2 (d) 545cm2
2. A solid cylinder of radius 3cm has a total surface
area of 36cm2
Find its height.
(a) 2cm (b) 3cm (c) 4cm (d) 5cm
3. Simplify log10 103 + log10 10
(a) 61 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 4
4. Find the inverse of P under the binary operation * if
p*q = p+q-pq where p and q are real number and zero
is the identity
(a) p (b) p-1 (c) p/p+1 (d) p/p-1
5. Find the value of 0
1cos2-1
sin2
(a) (b) /2 (c) -(d) -/2

6. If dy/dx = 2x 3 and y = 3 when x = 0, find y in


term of x.
(a) x2 -3x-3 (b) 2x2 -3x
(c) x2 3x + 3 (d) x2= -3x
7. The sum of infinity of the series 1 + 1/3 + 1/9 +
1/27 + 2 is
(a) 10/3 (b) 11/3 (c) 3/2 (d) 5/2
8. Find the equation of the locus of a point P(x,y)
which is equidistant from Q(0,0) and R(2,1)
(a) 2x + y = 5 (b) 4x + 2y = 5
(c) 4x 2y = 5 (d) 2x + 2y = 5
9. Simplify the express 1 - cosx 1+cos x
(a) cos x (b) sin x (c) 1 cos x
(d) 1 - cosx sin x
SOLUTION
1. Diagram 4
Area of the regular hexagon

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ABCDEF = 6 x area of OAB


48
Since the triangles are similar
AOB = 3600/6 = 600
Area of OAB
= . x 6 x 6 x sin 600
= . x 6 x 6 x 3/2
= 93cm2
Area of the regular hexagon =
6 x 93cm2 = 543cm2 (B)
2. Total surface area of a cylinder =
2rh = 2rh = 2r (r + h)
=> 36= 2x 3(3+h)
Divide both sides by 6
6=3+h
=> h = 6 3 = 3cm
The height is 3cm (B)
3. log10103 + log1010
= 3log1010 + log1010 = 3(1) + 1
= 4 (D)
4. Let the inverse of p be p-1.
Then p*p-1 = e where e is the identify element
Now p*p-1 = e
=> p + p-1 pp-1 = 0
(definition of * and identity element being 0)
P + p-1 (1-p) = 0
p-1 (1-p) = -p
p-1 = p/p-1 by dividing both sides
by 1-p (D)
hence the inverse of p = p/p-1
5. 0
1cos2-1
sin2d
from the identify sin2+ cos2= 1
we have that
0
1cos2-1
sin2d
=0
1 -sin2-1
sin2d
=0
1 - d= -1/n
0
= - (C)

49
6. dy/dx = 2x 3
Integrate both sides with respect to x
y = 2x2/2- 3x + c
y = x2 3x + c
At x = 0, y = 3 in *
3=00+c
=> c = 3
Hence, y = x2 3x + 3 (C)
7. 1 + 1/3 + 1/9 + 1/27 + L.
S= 1
1r
From the series, a =1, r = .
=> S= 1
1 1/3
= S= 1
2.3 = 3/2 (C)
8. Equation of the locus of a point p(x,y) which is
equidistant from Q (0,0) and R(2,1) is the
perpendicular bisector of the line joining Q and R.
Midpoint of QR = 2 + 0 x 1 + 0 2 2
= (1, .)
Slope of QR = y2 y1 = 1 0
x2 x1 2 0
Therefore, slope of the perpendicular bisector of QR =
-2 and a point on it is (1, . )
Using the formula y2 y1 = m x2 x1
The equation of the perpendicular bisector is y . = -1
x1
=> y . = 2x + 2
Multiply through by 2
2y 1 = -4x 4
4x + 2y = 5 (B)
9. 1 - cosx
1+cos x
= 1 cosx x 1 cos x
1+cos x 1 cos x
= (1 cosx)2
1+cos x
= (1 cosx)2
sin2 x
= 1 cos x sin x (D)

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN
2008 POST UME TEST
MATHEMATICS
1. If x + 1 is a factor of 2x3 + 3x2 + kx+4, find the value
of k..
(a) - 5 (b) 5 (c) -4 (d) 4 (c) 3
2. Obtain the maximum value of the function (x) = x3
12x + 4
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) -2 (d) 2 (e) 27
Use the table below to answer question 13
No of children 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
No of families 7 1 6 7 7 5 3
3. Find the mean of the distribution (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2.5
(d) 3.5 (e) 4
4. Let A = (1,3,7,8) and B = (2,4,7,9). The element
which shows that the set A and B are not disjoint is LL
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 2 and 1 (e) 8
5. Let (n ) = n!
( r ) r!(n-r)
Evaluate ( 7 ) + ( 5 ) ( 3 ) ( 2 )
(a) 35 (b) 75 (c) 45 (d) 55 (e) 30
6. Find the equation of he straight line through (1,2)
and 3,8)

(a) y=x-3 (b) 2y=3x+1


(c) y=3x-1 (d) 2y = 3x 1
7. Let (x) = 3x + 1. Find (x)dx X + 2
(a) 5x - 3In/x + 2/+K
(b) 3x 5In/x+2+K
(c) 5x/3In/x + 2/+K
(d) 3x/5In/x + 2/+K
(e) E.K
8. If log2(3y2 + 8y 1) = 1, evaluate Y.
(a) y = 1/3 or -3 (b) y=-1/3 or 3
(c)y=-1/3 or -3 (d) y = 1/3 or 3
(e) y = 3 (twice)
52
SOLUTION
1. Let p(x) = of 2x3 + 3x2 + kx+4. Since x + 1 is a factor,
by factor theorem, p (-1) = 0
.: p(-1) = 2(-1)3 + 3(-1)3 + k(-1) + 4 =0
=> -2 + 3 k + 4 = 0
=> 5 k = 0
=> k = 5

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2. (x) = x3 12x + 4. At turning point, d/dx (x) = 0


=> 3x2 12 = 0
X2 = 4
=> x = 4 = 2
At x = 2, (2) = 23 12(2) + 4
= 8 24 + 4 = -12
At x = -2, (-2) = (-2)3 12(-2) + 4
= -8 + 24 + 4 = 20
Hence, the maximum value of the function is 20
3. Mean = x
= 11 + 12 + 21 + 28 + 25 + 18
46
= 2.5 (C)
4. Reason: AB = (7) (B)
5. ( 7 ) + ( 5 )
(3)(2)
= 71/3:4 + 51/2:3
= 7 x 6x 5 + 5 x 4
3:4 2
= 35 + 10 = 45 (C)
6. Using y = y1 = y2 y1
X = x1 x2 x1
=> y 2 = 8 2
X131
y2=6
X12
=> y 2 = 3(x 1)
y 2 = 3x 3
=> y = 3x 1 (C)
7. 3x + 1 dx
x+2
= (3 5/x+2)dx
= 3dx - 5/x+2 dx
= 3x 5In (x + 2) + k (B)
8. log2(3y2 + 8y 1) = 1
=> 3y2 + 8y 1 = 21
=> 3y2 + 8y 3 = 0
3y2 + 9y y 3 = 0
3y(y+3) 1(y+3) = 0
(3y 1) (y + 3) = 0
3y 1 = 0 or y + 3 = 0
=> y = 1/3 or -3 (A)

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN
2009 POST UME TEST
MATHEMATICS
1. Express p in terms of q if log4p + 2log4q = 4(16/q)2
(a) (16/q)2 (b) (4/q)2 (c) (q/16)2 (d) (q/4)2
2. Find the possible values of p if the expression 4x2 3px + 3p leaves a reminder 10 when divided by x -p
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
3. If p and q are the roots of the equation 2x2 5x 7
= 0, find the value of /a + a/
(a) 3/11 (b) -3/14 (c) 2/14 (d) -2/14
4. Find the locus of a point that is equidistance from
the points (1,2) and (3,8)
(a) y =1 (b) y = 1
3(17-x) 3(x+13)
(c) y = 1 (d) y = 1
3(x+8) 3(11-x)
5. A bag contains 5 black balls and 3 red balls. Two ball
are picked at random without replacement. What is
the probability that a black ball and a red ball are
picked?
(a) 15/28 (b) 13/28 (c) 5/14 (d) 11/12
6. A rectangular hexagon is constructed inside a circle
of diameter 12cm. calculate the area of the hexagon.
(a) 36cm2 (b) 363cm2 (c) 543cm2 (d) 54cm2
7. If the three consecutive terms of a GP are n 2, n
and n + 3, find the common ratio.
(a) . (b) . (c) . (d)1 .
8. In a triangle ABC, if the AB = 15cm and angle ABC =
450 while angle ACB = 600, find the length of line AC
(a) 156cm (b) 106cm (c) 206cm (d) 56cm
9. Find the derivative of the function y = x2 (4x + 3) at
the point x = 2
(a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 40 (d) 30

SOLUTION
1. Log4 p + 2 log4 q = 4
Log4 p + log4 q2 = 4
Log4pq2 = 4
=> pq2 = 44
= = 44/q2 = (42/q) = (16/q)2 (A)
2. Let (x) = 4x2 3px + 3p
Then, when (x) is divided by x p, the remainder is (p)
.: (p) = 4p2 3p x p + 3p = 10
4p3 3p2 + 3p = 10
P2 + 3p 10 = 0
P2 + 5p 2p 10 = 0
P(p+5) 2(p+5) = 0
(p+5) (p-2) = 0
=> p + 5 = 0 or p -2 = 0
=> p = 15 or 2 (A)
3. 2x2 5x + 7 = 0
The general quadratic equation is of the form ax2 + bx
+c=0
From this, we have
X2 + b/a X + c/a = 0
If ,are roots of the quadratic, then + = -b/a
= c/a
.: For 2x2 5x + 7 = 0
a = 2; b = -5; c = +7
.: + = 5/2, = + 7/2
Hence, /+ /= 2 + 2
= (+ )2 - 2
(5/2)2 2(+7/2) = 25/4 7
-7/2 -7/2
= 25 28 x -2 = 3 x -2

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4747
= 3/14 (A)
4. Let the point be p(x,y)
Distance between p(x,y) and (1,2)
= (x-1)2 + (y- 2)2
Distance between p(x,y) and (3,8)
= (x-3)2 + (y- 8)2
.: (x-1)2 + (y- 2)2 = (x-3)2 + (y- 8)2
=> (x-1)2 + (y-2)2 = (x-3)2 + (y 8)2
X2 2x + 1 + y2 4y + 4 = x2 -6x + 9 + y2 16y + 6x
2x + 16y 4y + 1+4 = 9 + 64
4x + 12y = 73 5
4x + 12y = 68
Divide through by 4
X + 3y = 17
3y = 17 x
Y = 1/3 (17-x) (A)
5. Let pr (B) be the probability of picking a black ball
and pr (R) be the probability of picking a red ball
Pr (B & R) = Pr (B/R) or pr (R/B)
= (5/8 x 3/7) + (3/8 x 5/7)
= 15/56 + 15/56
= 30/56 = 15/28 (A)
6. diagram 5
Area of the hexagon = 6 x area of OAB. Using the
diagram above
= 3600/6 = 600
Area of OAB = . x 6 x 6 sin 600 = 18 x 3/2
= 93cm2
.: Area of the hexagon = 6 x 93cm2

= 543cm2 (C)
7. Since n -2, n and n + 3 are consecutive, the
common ratio r;
r = n = n + 3 n-2 n
solving n = n + 3 n-2 n
n2 = (n + 3) (n 2)
n2 = n2 2n + 3n 6
n2 = n2 + n 6
0=n6
=> n = 6
Hence, the common ratio is 6/4 = 3/2 (D)
8. Diagram 6
Using sine rule b/sinB = c/sinC
b/sin450 = 15/sin600
b = 15 x sin 450 = (15 x 1 ) + 3
sin 600 2 2
= 15 x 1 x 2
23
= 30/6 x 6 / 6
= 306 = 56
9. y = x2 (4x + 3)
= 4x3 + 3x2
dy/dx = 12x2 + 6x
Then, at x = 2
dy/dx = 12(2)2 + 6(2)
= 12(4) + 6 (2)
= 48 + 12
= 60 (A)

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN
2006 POST UME PAST
1. A mixture of solutions of barium chloride and
sodium trioxocarbonate IV yield a white precipitate
a. Soluble in ammonia
b. soluble in dilute hydrochloric acid
c. soluble in alkali
d. soluble in dilute tetraoxosulphate VI acid
2. Four solutions P. Q, R, and S contain chloride,
sulphide, tetraoxosulphate VI and trioxocarbonate IV
respectively. One reagent that will identify only one of
them completely by a precipitation reaction is
a. Potassium hydroxide solution
b. Dilute tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid
c. Dilute trioxonitrate (V) acid
d. Lead trioxonitrate (V) solution
3. Which of the following is true of alkalis
a. They have a sour taste
b. They liberate ammonia when added to ammonium
chloride
c. TheirpHis7
d. They turn phenlphthalein colourless
4. Real gases do not obey the ideal gas laws at
a. High temperature
b. Low temperature and high pressures
c. Low pressures
d. High temperatures and pressures
5. A 3.0 g mixture of sodium trioxocarbonate (IV) and
calcium trioxocarbonate (IV) liberated 0.44g of carbon
IV oxide on strong heating until no more gas was
evolved.
What is the percentage of sodium trioxocarbonate IV
in the mixture? [Ca = 40, C= 12,0= 16,Na=231
a. 67 b. 23 c. 76 d. 32
6. Which of the following planets contains a large
amount of solid methane?
a. Jupiter
b. Neptune
c. Pluto
d. Saturn

7. What change will occur during the electrolysis of


brine using carbon electrodes?
a. Chlorine will be given off at the cathode
b. Oxygen gas will be given off at the anode
c. Sodium will be deposited at the cathode
d. The volumes of hydrogen and chlorine given off
during the same time are equal
8. Nuclear reactions can be used in the following
except
a. gauging the thickness of objects
b. making atomic bombs
c. curing cancer
d. purifying water
9. Which of the following is a good conductor of
electric current?
a. Mixture of petrol and kerosene
b. Aqueous solution of sugar
c. Mixture of ethanol and water
d. Aqueous solution of table salt
10 The pH value of an aqueous solution of to
compounds remains at 5 even when contaminated
with small quantities of acid or alkali. Which one of the
following pairs of compounds would produce such a
solution?
a. Ammonia and ammonium chloride
b. Ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate.
c. Hydrochloric acid and sodium chloride
d. Potassium hydroxide and potassium, bromide.
11 A mixture of gases contains 64g of methane, 64g of
oxygen and 64g of sulphur dioxide. The pressure of the
mixture is 2l0kPa. What is the partial pressure (in kPa)
of the methane expected to be?
a. 30 Mr (CH4) = 16
b. 6OMr (02)=32
c. 70 Mr (S02) = 64
d. 120
12. One of these properties is unique to carbon alone

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a. Polymerization
h. Condensation
c. Catenation
d. hydrogenation
13. Consider the equation CHCOOH + CH3OHCH3COOCH3 + 1120 14g of ethanoic acid reacted with
25g of methanol to give 8.5g of ester What is the
percentage yield of ester? (C = 12, H = 1,0 = 16)
a. 49.24% b. 46.7% c. 35.8% d. 40.67%
14. A student prepares a sample of H2 gas by
electrolyzing water at 25C. She collected 152 ml at a
total pressure of 758mmHg. Vapour pressure of H2) at
250 C is 23.76mm Hg. Calculate the partial pressure
of H2, gas.
a. 756.24mmHg b. 758.24mmHg c. 734.24mmHg d.
76OmmHg.
15. The slippery nature of graphite is attributed to
a. Covalent bonding
b. Preserve of sp2 hybridized carbon
c. Layer covalent bonding
d. Network covalent bonding
ANSWER KEY
1. B 6.C 11.
2.D 7.D 12.
3.A 8.D 13
4. B 9.D 14
5.A 10.B 15
EXPLANATIONS TO THE QUESTIONS
1. BaCl2 + Na2CO3 , 2NaCI + BaCO3 White
precipitate of BaCO3. This
is soluble in excess HC1 (B).
2. Lead trioxonitrate (V) solution is used identifying
sulphide. The paper turns black due to formation of
black lead (II) sulphide (D)
3. Alkalis have sour taste. This is one of the properties
of alkaline compounds (A)
4. Most real gases deviate from ideal gas law at low
temperature and high pressure because these

conditions would cause the gas to condense and turn


to the liquid state (B)
5. NaC03 and CaCO3, Na2CO3 cannot be decomposed
by leading. CaCO3 liberate CO2 on heating.
CaCO3 CaO + CO2
No of mole of CO2 0.44 = 0.01 44 mole
Mass of CaCO3 = 0.01 X 100 = 1.0g %CaC03= x100% =
33.3%
% NaCO3 = 100 33% = 66.6 = 67% (A)
6. Pluto is the smallest planet as well as the farthest
from the sun. Pluto probably has a surface
temperature of about 2200 C on the Sun light region.
Its body probably containing a large amount of solid
methane (C)
7 NaCl =
At the cathode, H+ being lower in the activity series,
discharge in preference to Na+
At the anode, even though both CF and OH migrate to
this electrode, Clbeing present in greater
concentration than 011 is discharged in presence to
OH
2Cl- Cl2(g) + 2eOAU
It should be noted that some discharge of OH- occurs
in electrolysis
This equation explains the reason for the volume of
chlorine to be less than that of hydrogen. Ideally, the
volume of the Cl2 should be produced in equal volume
here (D)
8. D
9. Table salt (NaCl) is ionic in nature, it will conduct
electricity in its ionized form i.e. it is an electrolyte (D)
10. The compound/solution that exhibit this property
is called buffer solution and it is formed by weak acid
and base that undergo partial dissociation e.g.
CH3COOH + Na2CO3 CH3 COONa + H20 + CO2

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2008 POST UME CHEMISTRY


1. Water is temporarily hard because it contains
a) CaSO4 b) MgSO4 c) Chlorine d) Ca(HCO3)2
2. The oxidation number of nitrogen in Mg3N2 is a) +2
b) -3 c) +3 d) -6
3. The possible number of isomers in C4H10 is a) 4 b)3
c)4 d)10
4. If an element Z has an orbital configuration of
1S22S22P63S23P64S23&. What is the relative atomic
number of Z? a) 18 b) 19 c)20. d)21
5. The percentage of oxygen in sulphur IV oxide is (S =
32, 0 = 16).
a) 5% b) 50% c) 500% d) 25%
6. 400cm3 of a gas x diffused through a porous pot in
2 minutes. Calculate the rate at which x diffuses.
a) 6.3cm3s-1 b) 2Ocm3s-1 c) 200cm3s-1 d) 3.33cm3s-1
7. Calculate the number of moles of magnesium
chloride produced by reacting 168g of magnesium
trioxocarbonate(IV) with excess hydrochloric acid. (Mg
= 24, C = 12, 0 = 16, H = 1, Cl = 35.5)
a) 4mole b) 3mole c) 2mole d) 1mole
8. The reducing agent in the reaction below
9. The following statements are correct except
a) Methane is tetragonal
b) Ammonium is tetragonal
c) Water is a linear molecule
d) Ammonia is trigonal
ANSWER KEY
1. D 4.D 7.C
2.B 5.B 8.A
3.B 6.D 9.C
EXPLANATION TO THE ANSWERS

I. Temporary hardness is caused by the presence of


dissolved calcium hydrogen trioxocarbonate(IV) which
decomposed by heating.
Since Imole of MgCO3 produces mole MgCl2 at stp
2mole of MgCO3 will produce 2mole MgCI2 (C)
8. Fe3+ gain (accept) one electron to give Fe2+ while 1
loses (donate) one electron to produce12. Reducing
agents are electron donor (A).
9. Water is angular or V-shaped not linear (C)
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2010 POST UME TEST
CHEMISTRY
1. A metallic element X forms an on X2 what will be the
formula of tetraoxosulphate of x
a) X(S04)3 b)X SO4 c) X2(SO4) d) X3S04
2. When air is passed through alkaline pyragallol. the
component of air absorbed by the pyragallol is
a) Oxygen b) neon c) nitrogen d) argon
3. When water drops are added to calcium carbide in a
container and the gas produced is passed through jet
and lighted, the resultant flame is called an
a) Oxyethane flame b) Oxyethyleno flame c) Hydroxide
flame d) Oxyacetylene flame
4. If the relative formula mass of a hydroxide M(OH)3
is 78gmo1-1 what is the relative atomic mass, M?
a) 61 b) 59 c) 30 d) 27
5. An ion with a single negative charge becomes an
atom by
a) Losing an electron b) losing a neutron c) gaining a
neutron d) gaining an electron
6. CH3COOH + CH3OH CH3COOCH3 + H20.
The reaction represented by the equation above is

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a) neutralization reaction b) esterification reaction c)


de esterification reaction d) hydrolysis reaction
7. The metal extracted from Bauxite is
a) Calcium b) Magnesium c) Aluminium d) Copper
8. At atom of an element represent by X with A 17 and
Z = 8. How many neutron does X contains?
a) 3 neutrons b) 5 neutrons c) 4 neutrons d) 9 neutrons
9. What type of oxide is aluminium oxide?
a) Basic oxide b) acidic oxide c) neutral oxide d)
amphoteric oxide
10. Excess ethanol react with acidified KMnO4 to form
a) Ethene b) Ethanoic acid c) Ethylethanoate d) Ethane
11. What is the value of X in the reaction below?
a) 234 b) 238 c) 230 d) 239
12. Two gas cylinder contain ethylene and acetylene
respectively one test, which can be used to distinguish
between them is by
a) Passing each gas through dilute potassium
permanganate sodium b) Pass each gas through
ammonical copper 1 chloride solution c) Passing each
through bromide water d) Treating each gas
catalytically with excess hydrogen gas
13. Brass and bronze are both metallic alloys, which of
the following constituents is common to be alloys
a) Tin b) Zinc c) Copper d) Lead
14. An organic compound has the empirical formula
CH,O. What is its molecular formula if its vapour
density is
90? (H = 1, C =12.0 = 16) a) C4H304 b) C12H30 c)
C4H1005 d) C6H1O6
15. A technique that can be used to show that
chlorophyll pigment in a mixture of chemical
compound and not a single coloured

a) Hydrolysis b) crystallization c) chromatography d)


sublimation
16. Which of the following statements is not true as we
move from left to right along the periodic table?
a) Atomic mass of elements increase
b) Electro positive character of elements increase
c) Atomic number of element increases
d) Number of electrons in the outermost orbits of
elements increases
17. What mass of a divalent metal. M (atomic mass 40)
would react with excess hydrochloric acid to liberate
224cm3 of dry hydrogen gas measured as s.t.p.?
a) 8.0g b) 0.04g c) O.4g d) 1.0g (GMV = 22.4dm3)
18. Which of the following is an acid salt?
a) NaHSO2 b) Na2SO4 c) CH3COONa d) Na2S
19. An element with atomic number twelve is likely to
be
a) Electrovalent with a valency of the
b) Electrovalent with a valency of 2
c) Covalent with a valency of 2
d) Covalent with a valency of 4
20. The approximate volume of air containing 10cm3
of oxygen is
a) 10cm b) 20cm c) 50cm d) 100cm
21. Duralumin consist of aluminium, copper and a) Zinc
and gold b) lead and manganese c) nickel and silver d)
manganese and magnesium
22. Sodium hydroxide solution can be conveniently
stored in a container made of
a) lead b) zinc c) aluminium d) copper

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23. The energy change accompanying the addition of


an electron to a gaseous atom is called
a) First ionization energy
b) Second ionization energy
c) Electron affinity
d) Electron activity.
24. 50cm3 of hydrogen is sparked with 20cm3 of
oxygen at 1000C and atmosphere. The total volume of
the residual gases is a) 50cm3 b) 10cm3 c) 40cm3 d)
30cm3
25. The molarity of 2% by weight of aqueous solution
of H2S04 (molecular weight of 98)
a) 3.55 b) 2.55 c) 0.02 d) 0.55
26. Alkanoic acids have volatility compared with
alkanols because
a) They are more polar than alkanol b) They have two
oxygen atoms while alkatiols have one
c) They form two hydrogen bonds while alkanols form
one
d) They form hydrogen bonds while alkanols do not.
27. How many faradays of electricity are required to
deposit 0.20 mole of nickel if 0.10 faraday electricity
deposited 2.9.8g of nickel during electrolysis its
aqueous solution? (N= 58 if 96500 mol-1)
a) 0.20 b) 0.39 c) 0.40 d) 0.50
28. In the process of silver plating a metal M the metal
M is the
a) Anode and a direct current is used b) Cathode and
an alternating current is used
c) Anode and an alternating current is used d) Cathode
and direct current is used.
29. When a gas is compressed at very low temperature
a) Its density decreases b) It liquefies c) Its temperature
decreases d) Temperature increases
30. Oxidation of concentration hydrochloric acid with
manganese (IV) oxide liberates a gas used in the
a) Manufacture of toothpaste

b) Treatment of goiter
c) Vulcanization of rubber
d) Sterilization water
Answer key
1: B 7. C 13.C 19.B 25C
2. A 8. D 14.D 20.C 26.C
3. D 9. D 15.C 21.D 27.C
4. A 10.B 16.B 22.D 28.D
5. A 11. A.B 17.C 23.C. 29.B
6. B 12.B 18.A 24.A 30.D
EXPLANATION TO ANSWERS
I The metal must be divalent, i.e. having 2- electrons in
its outermost shell to donate to the sulphate, SO2
4 to give XSO4 (B)
2 Alkaline pyragallol is used to absorb oxygen (A)
3 CaC2 + 2H,O C2H, + Ca(OH)2
Ethyne (ethylene) produced when passed through
oxygen give oxyacetylene flame, used for welding (D)
4. M(OH)3 = 78gmo1-1
M+(16+1)3 = 78
M+(17x3) = 78
M=7851 = 27 (D)
5. E.g. X X + e (loss of electron) (A)
6. The reaction is acid catalysed and reversible produce
methylethanoate (ester) in the process called
esterification (B)
7. Bauxite (A12O32H2O) is an ore of aluminium (C)
8. A ZX when A = 17 mass number
X = 8 atomic number
Atomic No. = no. of proton + no. of neutron = 17--8 = 9
(D)
9. Aluminium form oxide called amphoteric. They
exhibit both acidic oxide and basic oxide characteristics
(D).

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10. This is oxidation reaction, ethanol (a primary


alcohol) gives ethanoic acid.
C2H5OH
__mno___
]^^_ CH3COOH (ethanoic acid) (B)
11. P_5
_BK pq P=
*+r_
F __(s_ __234)_(?)
12. Ethylene (C2H4) and acetylene (C2H2). All alkynes
with a terminal triple bond undergo substitution
reaction with CuCl to give reddish brown colouration
of Cu2C2 (B).
13. Brass & Bronze are alloys they both contain copper
(C).
14. Vapour density = . x relative molar mass Relative
molar mass 2 x 90 = 180
(CH2O)n = 180
[(12 x 1)+ (2) + 16)]n. 180
30n = 180
n =6
(CH2O)6 = C6H12O6 (D)
15. Chromatography is a separation technique used to
separate component, mostly coloured, depending on
their rate of migration (C)
16. Although electropositivity decreases across the
period, while electronegativity increase (B)
17. M + 2HCI MCI2 + H2
1 mole: 2 mole 1mole : 1mole
No. of mole = 0,224.m4
22.4dm = 0.0lmole of hydrogen gas
Since 1 mole of H2 is liberated by 1mole of M 0.0lmole
of H2 will liberate 1mole of M Mass of M = 40x0.01 =
0.4g (C)
18. Acid salt are produced as a result of incomplete
displacement of hydrogen, e. g. NaHSO4, NaHCO3 (A)
19. An element with atomic number 12 is metallic
divalent and a reducing agent, ionize by losing 2

electrons to combine with non-metals to form


electrovalent bond (B)
20. Oxygen is 21% of oxygen
% oxygen = Vol of oxygen x 100
Total Vol of air
21%= 10cm3 x 100
Total volume of air
Total vol. of air = 10cm 3 x 100% = 21%
21. Duralumin is an alloy of aluminium. copper,
magnesium and manganese (D).
22. Zinc and aluminium readily dissolve in sodium
hydroxide to form sodium zincate(1I) and sodium
aluminate(III), respectively. Sodium hydroxide do not
react with lead. Copper, being fairly far down the
activity series, has no action with alkalis (D)
23. The first ionization energy is the energy required to
remove one electron from each atom is a mole of
gaseous atoms, producing one mole of gaseous ion
with a position charge while electron affinity is the
ability of an atom in gaseous form to attract electron
toward itself (C)
24. 2H2 + O2 . 2H2O
Reaction mole 2moles 1mole 2 moles
Reacting atom 50cm2 20cm3 Reaction ratio 40cm 20cm 40cm
Residual gas 10cm3 - 40cm3
Residual gas = unreacted hydrogen + formed water
= 10 + 40 = 50cm (A)
25. 2g of H2S04 is in 1000cm3 of water Mass conc.
=2g/dm3 molar conc. = mass conc./ molar mass 2/98
0.O2gIdm-3
26. Alkanoic acid is less volatile because it is more
stable compact to alkanol, it form dimmers that is two
molecule are bonded at 2-site by hydrogen bond
27 Ni Ni2+ + 2e-

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At step 1 mole 2F
No. of mole = _P.K
EK = 0.513mole
0.Ol53mole of Nickel will be deposited by 0. IF
0.2mole of Nickel will be deposited by
=.__=._
=.E_B
= 0.389F 0.4F (C)
28. As the current is passed through the cell, the
plating metal dissolve at the anode, and the ion
produced migrate to the cathode, where they are
discharge and deposited as a layer on the object by
direct current (D).
29. When air is compressed, it becomes liquefied (B)
30 MnO2 + 4HCl
__t1.$__
]^^^_ MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
Chlorine is used in the treatment of water or for
sterilization. (D)
UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2007 POST LIME TEST CHEMISTRY
I. The relative strengths of weak acids can be seen by
a comparison of their
a) pH value b) dissociation constants
c) hydrogen ion concentrations
d) molarities
2. Which of the following gases has the same volume
under the same condition as 16g of sulphur (IV)
oxide? (H=4, C = 12, N= 14, O = 16, S = 32, Cl = 35)
a) 8g of hydrogen
b) 5.5g of carbon(VI) oxide c) 11.0g of carbon (IV)
oxide d) 5g of nitrogen
OH
3. CH3CHCH2CH2NH2. The two functional
groups in the above compound are
a) Amino and carbonyl b) Carbonyl and hydroxyl c)
Hydroxyl and carboxyl
d) Hydroxyl and amine
4. F-1 would have a larger radius than fluorine atom,
because of

a) Addition of an extra electron in F-1


b) The ion was obtained after fluorine lost valence
electron
c) The effective nuclear charge of F-1 is greater than
that of F-1
d) F is an ion while F is not.
5. 0.1 Faraday of electricity was passed through a
solution copper(II) sulphate. The maximum weight of
copper deposited on the cathode would be
a) 63.Og b) 32.Og c) 6.lg d) 3.2g
6. What is the concentration of H+ ion in moles per
dm3 of the solution of pH 4.398?
a) 4.0 x 10-2 b). 4.0 x 10-3 c) 4.0 x 10-4 d) 4.0 x 10-6
7. When 50cm3 of a saturated solution of a sugar
(molar mass 342.0g) at 40C was evaporated to
dryness 31.2g of dry solid was obtained. The solubility
of sugar at 40C is
a) 10.0 moles cm3 b) 7.Omoles dm-3 c) 3.5moles dm3
d) 2.Omoles dm-4
8. When H2S is passed into a solution of iron (III)
chloride, the colour changes form yellow to green. This
is because
a) H2S is reduced to S
b) H2S ion. are oxidized by Fe2+
c) Fe2
+ ions are oxidized by Fe2+ ions
d) Fe2+ ions are reduced to Fe2 ions
9. The oxide that remains unchanged when heated in
hydrogen is
a) CuO b) Fe2O3 c) PbO2 d) ZnO
ANSWER KEY
1 C 2 C 3D 4 A 5 D 6- 7D
8D 9A
EXPLANATION TO ANSWER
1. The characteristic properties of an acid in solution
are due to the presence of hydrogen ion. Weak

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acids are only partially ionized in water. Such acid solution have a low concentration of hydrogen. Dissociation,
constant K, is used to determine the strength of the end (B)
2. 16g of SO2 no. of mole = _M
MF = 0.25
8g of H2 no. of mole =
K=4
5.5g of CO2 no. of mole = E.E
FF = 0.125
11.0g of CO2 no. of mole = __.=
FF = 0.25
5g of N2 no. of mole = 0.14 (C)
3 CH3 CH(OH) CH2 CH2NH2 (Hydroxyl & amine) (D)
4. The ionic radii of negative ions are greater than the corresponding atomic radii, this is because a negative ion is
formed by adding electron to the outermost shell, thus making it bigger (A)
5. Cu2+ + 2e- Cu
1 mole 2F
2F would deposit lmole of Cu
iF would deposit . mole of Cu
0.IF would deposit (. x 01) mole of Cu
= 0.05mole of copper
mass = 0.05 x 63.5
= 3.2g (D)
6. pH -log [H+]
4.398 = -log [H+]
[H+] = antilog (-4.398) [do it yourself]
7. Sugar + solution = sugar solution
50cm3
At 40C solubility = 34.2g in 50g water Solution contain 34.2g
342g
No. of mole = 34.2g/mol
= 0.lmole
Solubility in mol/dm = 10.1
50/1000
= 0.1 x 20
= 2mol/dm3 (D)
8. H2S + 2FeCl3 FeCl2 + 2HCI + S
-2 +3 +2 0
Hydrogen sulphide reduces a brownish yellow solution of iron(III) chloride to a green solution of iron(II) chloride. The
hydrogen sulphide itself is oxidized to sulphur and hydrogen chloride. Iron(III) to iron(II) is gain of electron, the process
is reduction i.e. Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+ (D)
9. Copper is below hydrogen in activity series. Therefore, copper can not displace hydrogen (A)

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UNIVERSITY OF ILLORIN 2009 POST UME TEST - CHEMISTRY


1. The formula of the compound formed in a reaction between a trivalent metal, M and a
tetravalent non-metal X is a) MX b) M3X4 c) M4X3 d) M3X2
2. One mole of propane is mixed with five moles of oxygen. The mixture is ignited and the
propane burns completely.
What is the volume of the products at s.t.p.?
a) 112.0dm3 b) 67.2dm3 c) 56.0dm3 d) 4.8dm3
[G. M. V. = 22.4 dm3mol]
3. How many unpaired electrons are there in the electronic configuration of an element with
atomic number 8?
a) 2 b)3 c)4 d)5.
4. The secondary valence is called
a) Oxidation state b) Lewis base c) coordination number d) chelates
5. Which of these is not a hydroscopic salt?
a) Calcium oxide b) magnesium chloride
c) copper (II) oxide d) sodium trioxonitrate(V)
6. The order of decreasing s-character of Sp,Sp3& Sp2 is
a) Sp, Sp2, Sp3 b) Sp3, Sp2, Sp c) Sp2,Sp, Sp3 d) Sp, Sp3, Sp2
7. Brass and Bronze are both metallic alloys. Which of the following constituents is common to
both alloys?
a) Lead b) Copper c) Tin d) Zinc
8. The major process of manufacturing caustic soda on industrial scale is
a) Reduction of brine
b) Fusion of sodium and hydroxide
c) Electrolysis of brine
d) Concentration of brine
9. Which of these compounds is not used as a fertilizer?
a) Sodium hydroxide
b) carbamide c) ammonium trioxonitrate
d) potassium tetraoxosulphate VI
10. How many molecules are there in 5.6dm3 of ammonia at s.t.p.? G.V.M. = 22.4dm3 at s.t.p.
NA=6.02x1023moV a) 1.50 x 1020 b) 1.50 x 1021 c) 1.50 x 1022 d) 1.50 x 1023
Answer key
1.C 4.C 7.B 10.D
2B 5.B 8.C
3.A 6.A 9.A
EXPLANATION TO THE QUESTION
1. Metal M3+ (Trivalent)
X-4 (Tetravalent)
M is having 3-electrons in its outermost shell. It will donate 3-electrons in 4 folds to form an
octet with X in 3-folds, to form M4X3 (C)
2. C3H5 + 5O2 3C02 + 4H2O 1 mole 5mole 3mole 4mole
Vol of CO2 = No. of mole x 22.4 at stp
3 x 22.4 = 67.2dm3 (B)
3 Atomic No. = 8 = 1s22s22p4
The electronic configuration gives 2-unpaired electron (A)
4. The secondary valency is called co-ordination number (C)
5. MgCI2 is not hydroscopic but deliquescence (B)
6. Sp 50% S character & 50% p-character

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Sp2- 33% S character & 66.6% p-character


Sp3 25% S character & 75% p-character
Order of decreasing sp > sp2> sp3 (A)
7. Brass & Bronze are both metallic alloy having copper as their common constituents (B)
9. Sodium hydroxide is an alkali, it is not used in fertilizer manufacturing. Carbamide give the soil
nitrogen. ammonium trioxonitrate(V) give the soil ammonium and K2SO4 give sulphur (A)
10. At stp 22.4dm3 of ammonia have 6.02 x 1023 molecule
5.6dm3 of ammonia will have
M.=__=Ou__'v10"v1_E.M __.F
= 1.505 x 1023 molecule (D)

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