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4
The generally accepted auditing standard that requires Adequate technical
training and proficiency is normally interpreted as requiring the auditor to have
a. formal education in auditing and accounting.
b. adequate practical experience for the work being performed.
c. continuing professional education.
d. all of the above.
5
In any case in which the CPA or the CPAs assistants are not qualified to perform
the work, a professional obligation exists to
a. acquire the requisite knowledge and skills.
b. suggest someone else who is qualified to perform the work.
c. decline the engagement.
d. any of the above.
6
A member CPA firm is required by the AICPA to belong to the SEC Practice
Section if it
a. wishes to audit companies whose assets exceed $250 million.
b. does any audits.
c. does any reviews or audits.
d. audits one or more publicly-held companies.
7
If it is probable that the judgment of a reasonable person would have been
changed or influenced by the omission or misstatement of information, then that
information is, by definition of FASB Statement No. 2,
a. material.
b. insignificant.
c. significant.
d. relevant.
8
The preliminary judgment about materiality is the
amount by which
the auditor believes the statements could be misstated and still not affect the decisions of
reasonable users.
a. minimum
b. maximum
c. mean average
d. median average
9
When auditors allocate the preliminary judgment about materiality to account
balances, the materiality allocated to any given account balance is referred to in SAS No.
39 as
a. the materiality range.
b. the error range.
c. tolerable materiality.
d. tolerable misstatement.
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audit.
d. None of the above.
11
If an auditor establishes a relatively low level for materiality, then the auditor will
a. accumulate more evidence than if a higher level had been set.
b. accumulate less evidence than if a higher level had been set.
c. accumulate approximately the same evidence as would be the case were a
higher level set.
d. accumulate an undetermined amount of evidence.
12
may
After the preliminary judgment about materiality has been established, auditors
a. not adjust it.
b. adjust it downward only.
c. adjust it upward only.
d. adjust it either downward or upward.
13
Which of the following decisions are relevant to the auditors evidence
accumulation?
a. Type of audit procedure to use.
b. Number of items to examine.
c. Timing of audit procedures.
d. All of the above are relevant.
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17
Evidence obtained directly by the auditor is more competent than information
obtained indirectly. Which of the following is not an example of the auditors direct
knowledge?
a. Physical examination.
b. Observation.
c. Computation.
d. Inquiry.
18
When an auditor calculates the gross margin as a percent of sales and compares it
with previous periods, this type of evidence is called
a. physical examination.
b. computation.
c. observation.
d. inquiry
19
Which of the following is not one of the three main reasons why the auditor
should properly plan engagements?
a. To enable proper on-the-job training of employees.
b. To enable the auditor to obtain sufficient competent evidence.
c. To avoid misunderstandings with the client.
d. To help keep audit costs reasonable.
20
A measure of how willing the auditor is to accept that the financial statements
may be materially misstated after the audit is completed and an unqualified opinion has
been issued is the
a. inherent risk.
b. acceptable audit risk.
c. statistical risk.
d. financial risk.
21
A measure of the auditors assessment of the likelihood that there are material
misstatements in an account before considering the effectiveness of the clients internal
control is
a. control risk.
b. acceptable audit risk.
c. statistical risk.
d. inherent risk.
22
The auditor is likely to accumulate more evidence when the audit is for a
company
a. whose stock is publicly held.
b. which has extensive indebtedness.
c. which is to be sold in the near future.
d. All three of the above.
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24
Most auditors assess inherent risk as high for related parties and related-party
transactions because
a. of the accounting disclosure requirement.
b. of the lack of independence between the parties.
c. both a and b.
d. it is required by generally accepted accounting principles.
25
Which of the following parties is responsible for establishing an entitys internal
controls?
a. Management.
b. Auditors.
c. Management and auditors.
d. Committee of Sponsoring Organizations.
26
staff
For an internal audit function to be effective, it is essential that the internal audit
a. be independent of the operating departments.
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35
Which of the following is not an enhancement to internal control that will occur
as a consequence of increased reliance on IT?
a. Computer controls replace manual controls.
b. Higher quality information is available.
c. Computer-based controls provide opportunities to enhance segregation of
duties.
d. All of the above are enhancements.
36
37
A sample in which the characteristics of the sample are the same as those of the
population is a(n)
a. variables sample.
b. representative sample.
c. attributes sample.
d. random sample.
38
When the auditor decides to select less than 100 percent of the population for
testing, the auditor is said to be using
a. audit sampling.
b. representative sampling.
c. poor judgment.
d. none of the above.
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41
When the auditor goes through a population and selects items for the sample
without regard to their size, source, or other distinguishing characteristics, it is called
a. block sample selection.
b. haphazard selection.
c. systematic sample selection.
d. statistical selection.
42
When the auditor intends to evaluate a sample statistically, the only acceptable
selection method is
a. probabilistic selection.
b. judgmental selection.
c. haphazard selection.
d. block sample selection.
43
When monetary-unit sampling has been concluded and the population is not
considered acceptable, which one of the following courses of action would not be
appropriate for the auditor?
a. Increase the sample size to see if this may satisfy the auditors tolerable
misstatement requirements.
b. Increase the tolerable misstatement amounts so that the error bounds are
acceptable.
c. Request the client to correct the population.
d. Refuse to give an unqualified opinion.
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50
Fraud can be difficult to detect because it often involves concealment through
falsification of documents or collusion.
a. true
b. false