GEAS COMPILATION

1. Date of approval of RA 9292

a. April 14, 2004
b. April 14, 2007

c. April 17, 2004

d. None of these

2. There are ______ Articles and _____ sections in the RA

9292.
a. 8,42
c. 7, 43
b. 8, 43
d. 7,42
3. Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or
any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code
of Technical Standards of Practice is stated in section
_________.
a. 35
c. 37
b. 36
d. 38
4. This act is was consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and
Senate Bill No. 2683.
a. RA 9292
c. RA 6541
b. RA 5734
d. None of these
5. The chairperson of the
Commissions program the
the funding of w/c shall
General Appropriation Act.
a. Sec 39
b. Sec 40

PRC shall include in the

implementation of RA 9292,
be included in the Annual
c. Sec 41
d. Sec 42

6. According to section 43, RA 9292 shall take effect

__________ following its full publication in the __________ or
any newspaper of general circulation.
a. 15 days, Law Gazette
c. 15 days, internet
b. 15 days, Official Gazette d. 30 days, internet
7. Who among the following persons was not a signatory of
the 9292?
a. FRANKLIN DRILON
c. OSCAR G. YABES
b. JOSE DE VENECIA JR d. JESUS P. NAZARENO
8. Section 40 of RA 9292.
a. Appropriations
b. Repealing clause

c. Effectivity
d. Separability clause

9. Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of

Board Members of Electronics Engineering?
a. Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5
consecutive yrs prior to his appointment
b. Member of good standing of the APO
c. Must not have been convicted of an offense
involving moral turpitude
d. Be of good moral character and integrity

10. All records of the Board, including applications for the

examination, administrative cases involving PECE, ECE
and ECTs shall be kept by
a. BECE
c. PRC
b. IECEP
d. APO
11. The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of
__________ from date of appointment or until their
successors shall have been appointed and qualified and
may be re-appointed once for another term.
a. two years
c. 3 years
b. at least 3 years
d. 5 years
12. Section 7 states that the Board is vested with the
authority to: Adopt an official __________ of the Board.
a. logo
c. Avatar
b. icon
d. Seal
13. The compensation and allowances of the Board is
comparable to that being received by the Chairman and
members of existing regulatory boards under the
Commission as provided for in the __________.
a. Civil Service
c. RA 1992
b. DBM
d. Gen Appropriations Act
14. Each member of the Board shall take the/a __________
prior to the assumption of office.
a. panel interview from the
Appointment
committee
b. board exam
c. proper oath
d. none of these
15. How much or what fine is required for any person who
shall violate any provision or any rules, regulations, the
Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of
Practice promulgated under RA 9292?
a. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php
1M
or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months
nor
more than 6 year
b. Php100,000.00 to Php 1M or 6 yrs imprisonment
or
both, in the discretion of the court
c. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php
1M
or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months
nor
more than 6 years, or both, in the discretion of
the
court
d. none of these

16. The Board and the __________ shall correct and rate the
licensure examination papers
a. Commission
c. IECEP
b. APO
d. none of these
17. According to section 2-Statement of Policy, the state
shall therefore develop and nurture competent, virtuous,
productive, and __________ PECE, ECE, and ECTs
a. God-fearing
c. versatile
b. religious
d. well-rounded
18. Within __________ years after the effectivity of RA 9292,
the Board shall issue Certificate of Registration and
Professional Identification Cards without examination to
all applicants for registration as Electronics Technicians
who comply to all the requirements stated in section 20.
a. 3 (three)
c. 7 (seven)
b. 5 (five)
d. none of these
19. With reference to prob 22, all submittals/documents
shall be accompanied by a certification from __________
registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical
capability and good moral character of the applicant.
a. at least 3
c. 5
b. 3
d. none of these
GEAS (DLSU ECE LAWS AND ETHICS/physics)
20. The position x of an experimental rocket moving along a
long rail is measured to be x(t) = (4m/s)t + (7m/s 2)t2 +
(5m/s3)t3 (0.35m/s4)t4 over the first 10s of its motion,
where t is in seconds and x is in meters. Find the velocity
of the rocket for the first 10 seconds.
a. 43 m/s
c. 244m/s
b. 224 m/s
d. 2240 m/s
21. Early in the nineteenth century, James Watt invented
the steam engine. In order to convince people, who relied
heavily on horses for mechanical work, he demonstrated
how useful his steam engine was by utilizing a horse that
lifted water from a well over a certain period of time and
called
the
corresponding
power
expended
one
horsepower. Assume that water has a mass density of 1.0
x 103 kg/m3, that the well was 20m deep, and that the horse
worked for 8 hours. How many liters of water did the horse
raise from the well? Use the following constants: 1 hp = 746
Watts, g = 9.8 m/s2.
a. 1.1 x 10 2 L
c. 1.1 x 103 L
b. 110 L
d. 1.1 x 105 L
22. As provided in ACT 3846, the construction of a radio
station
shall begin only when

a. A personnel of NTC has conveyed through

telephone that the application has already been
approved.
b. the firm applying for the construction permit has
submitted to the NTC its application for the
same.
c. the technical documents has already been
signed
and sealed by the PECE.
d. The NTC has already issued a Permit to construct.
23. As provided in RA7925, a VAS provider needs to secure
a
franchise if
a. it is offered by a telecommunications entity
whose
proceeds of utility operations are not crosssubsidized.
b. it does not discriminate other service providers
against rates.
c. it is offered by a telecommunications entity that
uses a separate book of accounts for VAS.
d. it puts up its own network.
24. According to the code of ethics, if you are employed in a
company and you wish to engage in a business which
may compete with your company, the most ethical thing
to do is to
a. inform your employer about it
b. have somebody run the business instead of you
c. try to find new clients
d. keep your prices lower than your companys
FEU(ENGG ECONOMY)
25. An investor has an option to purchase a tract of land
that
will be worth P20,000 in seven years. If the value of the
land
increases at 9% each year, how much should the
investor
be willing to pay now for this property?
a. P9,341
c. P11,521
b. P10,941
d. P12,015
26. Suppose that you make 12 equal annual deposits of
P2,000
each into a bank account paying 8% interest per year.
The
first deposit will be made one year from today. How
much
money can be withdrawn from this bank account

immediately after the 12th deposit?

a. P35,492
c. 37,954
b. P36,21
d. P38,755
27. What is the effective rate of interest if P1000 is invested
at a
nominal rate of 15% compounded quarterly?
a. 15.86%
c. 17.86%
b. 16.86%
d. 18.86%
28. A man purchased a house for P425,000. In the first
month
that he owned the house, he spent P75,000 on repairs
and
remodeling. Immediately after the house was
remodeled,
he was offered P545,000 to sell the house. After some
consideration, he decided to keep the house and have it
rented for P4,500 per month starting two months after
the
purchase. He collected rent for 15 months and then sold
the house for P600,000. if the interest rate was 1.5% per
month, how much extra money did he make or lose by
not
selling the house immediately after it was remodeled?
a. P3,000
c. P5,000
b.P4,000
d. P6,000
29. On the day his grandson was born, a man deposited to a
trust company a sufficient amount of money so that the
boy could receive five annual payments of P20,000 each
for his college tuition fees, starting with his 18th
birthday.
Interest at the rate of 12$ per annum was to be paid on
all
amounts on deposit. There was also a provision that the
grandson could elect to withdraw no annual payments
and receive a single lump amount on his 25th birthday.
The
grandson chose this option. How much did the
grandfather
deposit?
a. P9,500
c. P11,500
b. P10,500
d. P12,500
30. A man bought an equipment costing P30,000 payable in
12 quarterly payments, each installment payable at the
beginning of each period. The rate of interest is 24%
compounded quarterly. What is the amount of each
payment
a. P1,700
c. P3,700
b. P2,700
d. P4,700

31. A telecommunication company purchased an

equipment
for P53,000 and paid P1,500 for freight and delivery
charges to the job site. The equipment has a normal life
of
10 years with a trade-in value of P5,000 against the
purchase of a new equipment at the end of the life.
Determine the annual depreciation cost by the sinking
fund
method. Assume interest at 6.5% compounded annually.
a. P2,543
c. P4,215
b. P3,668
d. P5,956
32. A plant bought a machine for P200,000 and used it for
10
years, the life span of the equipment. What is the book
value of the machine after 5 years of use? Assume a
scrap
value of P20,000. Use double declining balance
method.
a. P43,648
c. P65,536
b. P59,425
d. P70,923
GEAS(ADU ENGG MANAGEMENT)
33. It is a method of managing all the activities that affect
the
quality of goods or services in order to prevent faults
a. Quality Assurance
b. Quality Circle
c. Quality Control
d. Quality Standard
34. This type of business organization can be set up without
any formality. It exist when there are a number of people
involved who are part owners of the business.
a. Association
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
d. Sole Proprietorship
35. Items purchased from a vendor cost Php 20 each, and
the forecast for next years demand is 1,000 units. If it costs
Php 5 every time an order is placed for more units and the
storage cost is Php 4 per unit per year, what quantity
should be order each time?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
36. Two products, X and Y, both require processing time on
machines I and II. Machine I has 200 hours available, and
machine II has 400 hours available. Product X requires one
hour on machine I and four hours on machine II. Product Y
requires one hour on machine I and one hour on machine II.
Each unit of product X yields PhP 10 profit and each units of

Y yields PhP 5 profit. What is the Linear Programming Model

for this problem.
a. Max Profit = PhP 5X + PhP 5Y
Subject to:
X + Y 200
X + Y 400
X,Y0
b. Max Profit = PhP 10X +PhP 5Y
Subject to:
X + Y 200
4X + Y 400
X,Y0
37. This process can be used to measure achievement in
Total Quality Management (TQM) system. Also it provides
the essential control and measure feedback loop necessary
for quality improvement
a. Benchmarking
c.
Quality
chain
b. Continuous Improvement
d. Quality circle
GEAS (UST ENGG MATERIALS)
43. These materials are hard and brittle, insulative to
electricity and heat, and very resistant to high temperatures
and harsh environments.
a polyme b meta c. ceramics d semiconduct
.
rs
.
ls
.
ors
44. These materials have a large number of non-localized
electrons, as an effect are very good conductors of
electricity and heat. They are strong yet deformable, and
extensively used in structural applications
a ceram b composi
c semiconduc d metal
. ics
.
ties
. tors
.
s
45. Materials composed of more than one material type and
are designed to display a combination of the best
characteristics of each component material.
a polyme b cerami c meta d. composites
.
rs
.
cs
.
ls
46. A material whose atomic arrangement occurs as
periodic, repeating structures over large distances.
a crystallin
b polycrystal c soli d amorph
.
e
.
line
. d
.
ous
47. An elemental solid having a different crystal structure,
usually due to the prevailing temperature and pressure.
a amorph
b polymor c crysall d allotrope
.
ous
.
ph
.
ite
.
48. This metal is alloyed with steel to give it corrosion
resistance properties, resulting in stainless steel.
a vanadi b molybde
c chromiu
d magnes

38. It is the process of attracting potential employees to the

company so that the selection process can be carried out.
a. Advertising
b. Benchmarking
c. Selection
d. Recruitement

of this organization is not to make profit but to give support

to their members.
a. Association
b. Cooperatives
c. Private Companies
d. Public Companies

39. It is the name given to any activity undertaken by the

organization with the express purpose of gaining
information about potential customer
a. Market Analysis
b.
Market
Intelligence
c. Market Research
d. Market System

42. It is the rational way to ensure that our limited time is

always used effectively.
a. Management Commitment
b. Management Responsibility
c. Time Management
d. Time Conflict

40. It is used when product are made singly or in small

batches. It happens when a small number of products are
processed at each storage before going on to the next
stage.
a. Batch Production
b. Flow Production
c. Job Production
d. Production Design
41. It involves a voluntary association of people, called
members, who operate an enterprise collectively. The aim
. um
.
num
.
m
.
ium
49. This element is used in modern, super strong
permanent magnets because of their high coercivities.
a berylliu b Neodymium c yttriu
d alnico
.
m
.
.
m
.
50. The deterioration of an engineered material due to
interaction with diverse environments which lead to the
degradation of its material properties

a.

corrosion

b.

disintegration

c.

oxidation

GEAS (UDM THERMODYNAMICS)

51. The property of a substance which remains constant if
no heat enters or leaves the system, while it does work or
alters its volume, but which increases or diminishes should
a small amount of heat enter or leave.
a.Internal energy
b. system
c. entropy
d. Enthalpy
52. The quantity of heat required to change the
temperature of unit mass through one degree.
a. Temperature
b. Specific Heat
c. Thermal Equilibrium
d. Calorie
53. If the temperature of a given quantity of gas is held
constant, the volume of the gas varies inversely with the
absolute pressure during a change of state
a.General Gas Laws
b. Joules Law
c. Charles Law
d. Boyles
Law
54. An internally reversible process of a substance during
which the pressure remains constant.
a.isometric
b.isothermal
c.adiabatic
d.isobaric
55. The energy stored in a substance by virtue of the
activity and configuration of its molecules and of the
vibration of the atoms within the molecules.
a.Internal Energy
b .Heat
c. Enthalpy
d.Entropy
56. When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are
in thermal equilibrium with a third body, the two are in
thermal equilibrium with each other is a statement of..
a.1st Law of Thermodynamics
c.2nd Law of Thermodynamic
b. Zeroth Law
d. Maxwells Theory of Thermal Equilbrium
57. Not all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cycle
can be converted into mechanical work, some are also
rejected is a statement of.
a.1st Law of Thermodynamic s
b.Zeroth Law
c. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
d.Law of Conservation of Energy

d.
dissolution
58. The combined mass of car and passengers travelling at
72 km/hr is 1500kg. Find the kinetic energy of this
combined mass.
a.300kJ
b.330kJ
c.305kJ
d. 310kJ

b. Newtons 2nd Law of Motion

c. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
d. Law of Conservation of Mass
FEU( GEAS STRENGTH)

59. A mass of 5kg is 100m above a given datum where local

g=9.75 m/sec2. Find the gravitational force in newtons and
the potential energy of the mass w/ respect to the datum.
a.49.25 N,4925 J
b.52.05 N,5205 J
c.48.75 N,4875 J
d.47.85 N,4785 J
60. A pressure gage register 50 psig in a region where the
barometer is 14.25 psia. Find the absolute pressure in Pa.
a.453 kPa
b.434 kPa
c.435 kPa
d.443 kPa

61. During an isentropic process of 1.36 kg/sec of air, the

temperature increases from 4.44 C to 115.6C. if
Cp=1.0062kNm for a non-flow process, what is H?
kgK
a.152.2 kg/s
b.152.2 J/s
c.152.2 kJ/s
d.152.2 Btu/s
62. This Law States that The quantity of the substance
entering the system is equal to the substance leaving the
system
a.1st Law of Thermodynamics
b.Law of Conservation of Mass
c.Newtons 2nd Law of Motion
d.Law of Conservation of Energy
63. if the pressure of a given quantity of gas is held
constant, the volume of the gas varies directly with the
absolute temperature
a. General Gas Law
b. Boyles Law
c. Charles Law
d. Joules Law

66. It occurs when a cutting action is applied as you would

see with scissors, tin snips, or punches.
a. Direct shear
c. Torsional shear
b. Bending stress
d. Torsional stress
67. It occurs when a member carries a load perpendicular to
its long axis while being supported in a stable manner.
a. Direct shear
c. Torsional shear
b. Bending stress
d. Torsional stress.
68. It is the internal resistance offered by a unit area of the
material from which a member from which a member is
made to an externally applied load.
a. stress
b.
strain
c. moment
d. Torque
69. A certain support stand design to carry downward loads.
Compute the stress in the square shaft at the upper part of
the stand for a load of 27,000 lb. The line of action of the
applied of the applied load is centered on the axis on the
shaft, and the load is applied through a thick plate that
distributes the force to the entire cross section of the stand.
a.
10,000psI
b. 11,000psi
c. 12,000psi
d. 13,000psi
70. The proportional limit is the value of stress on the
stress-strain diagram curve at which the curve first deviates
from a straight line.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point

64. The Acceleration of a particular body is directly

proportional to the resultant force acting on it and inversely
proportional to its mass is a statement of
a. Joules Law
b. 1st Law of
Thermodynamics
c. Newtons 2nd Law of Motion
d. Boyles Law

71. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at

which the material has deformed plastically; that is, it will
no longer return to its original size and shape after
removing the load.
a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point

65. Energy is neither created nor destroyed, but is

converted from one form to another
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics

72. It is the value of stress on the stress-strain curve at

which there is a significant increase in strain with little or no
increase in stress.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Proportional limit
Elastic limit
Yield point
Tensile point

73. It is the highest value of apparent stress on the stressstrain curve.

a. Proportional limit
b. Elastic limit
c. Yield point
d. Tensile point
74. It is a measure of the stiffness of a material determined
by the slope of the straight-line portion of the stress-strain
curve
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Modulus of rigidity
c. Strain
d. Stress
75. A ductile material is one that can be stretched, formed,
or drawn to a significant degree before fracture. A metal
that exhibits a percent elongation greater than ____ % is
considered to be ductile.
a. 2
b.
3
c.
4
d. 5
76. A brittle material is one that fails suddenly under load
with little or no plastic deformation. A metal that exhibits a
percent elongation ____ 5.0% is considered to be brittle.
a. equal
b. Greater than
c. Less than
d. It depends on the room temperature
77. The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain is called:
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Modulus of rigidity
c. Modulus of elongation
d. Modulus of stressibility
78. It is the ability of a material to absorbed applied energy
without failure
a. Ductility
b. Brittleness
c. Hardness
d.
Toughness
79. It is the indication of the resistance of a material to
indentation by a penetrator.
a. Ductility
b. Brittleness
c. Hardness
d.
Toughness
80. It is a measure of pulling and pushing force
a. Axial force

b.
c.
d.

Shear force
Torque
Bending moments

81. It is the measure of the total resistance to sliding.

a. Axial force
b. Shear force
c. Torque
d. Bending moments
82. It is the measure of the resistance to twisting.
a. Axial force
b. Shear force
c. Torque
d. Bending moments
83. A common bar suspended from certain support has axial
load of 10kN. If the bar has a cross section of 20mm2, find
the stress experience by the bar.
a. 350MPa
b. 420MPa
c. 485MPa
d.
500MPa
84. Assume that a 25-mm diameter rivet joins the plates
that are each 125 mm wide. The allowable stresses are 130
MPa for bearing in the plate material and 65 MPa for
shearing of the rivet. Determine the minimum thickness of
each plate.
a. 10MPa
b. 20MPa
c. 30MPa
d.
40Mpa
85. A cylinder pressure vessel is fabricated from plates
which have a thickness of 20mm. The diameter of the
pressure vessel is 450 mm and its length is 3.5m.
Determine the maximum internal pressure which can be
applied if the stress in the steel is limited to 150MPa.
a. 15.33MPa
b. 16.67MPa
c. 17.53MPa
d. 18.83MPa
86. The wall thickness of a 3ft-diameter spherical tank is
4/17 in. Calculate the allowable internal pressure if the
stress is limited to 9000 psi.
a. 155.47psi
b. 169.25psi
c. 176.47psi
d.
188.73psi
87. A steel bar 40mm in diameter and 3m long is
surrounded by a shell of cast iron 6mm thick. Compute the
load that will compress the combined bar a total of 0.95
mm in the length of 2m. For steel E=300GPa, and for cast
iron, E=150GPa.
a. 151kN
b. 161kN
c. 171kN
d. 181kN

88. A steel rod 3.5m long is secured between two walls. If

the load on the rod is zero at 30C, compute the stress
when the temperature drops to -30C. The cross sectional
area of the rod is 1200mm2, =11.7um/(mC), and
E=200Gpa
a. 110MPa
b. 120MPa
c. 130MPa
d. 140Mpa
89. A steel shaft 3ft long that has a diameter of 5in is
subjected to a torque of 14kip-ft. Determine the maximum
shearing stress. G=12x106 psi.
a. 0.47
b. 0.53
c.
0.68
d.
0.71
90. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that
will not twist through more than 4 in a 6m length when
subjected to a torque of 13kN-m? What max shearing stress
is developed? G=85 Gpa
a. 107.6mm
b.
113.3mm
c. 121.9mm
d. 126.4mm
91. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring
composed of 20 turns of 20-mm diameter wire on a mean
radius of 90 mm when the spring is supporting a load of
2.5kN. Use G=83 Gpa
a. 160mm
b. 165mm
c. 170mm
d.
175mm

FEU(GEAS THERMODYNAMICS)
92. It is the transfer of energy from the more energetic
particles of substance to the adjacent less energetic ones as
a result of interactions between the particles.
a. Conduction
c. Convection
b. Radiation
d. Absorption
93. It indicates that the rate of heat conduction in a
direction is proportional to the temperature gradient in that
direction.
a. Fouriers Law of Heat Conduction
b. Fouriers Law of Heat Convection
c. Fouriers Law of Heat Radiation
d. Fouriers Law of Heat Absorption
94. Which of the following is considered the best conductor
of heat?
a. Gold
b. Copper
c. Silver
d. Diamond
95. It is the mode of energy transfer between a solid surface
and the adjacent liquid or gas that is in motion, and it
involves the combined effect conduction and fluid motion.
a. Conduction
c. Convection
b. Radiation
d. Absorption

96. It is the energy emitted by the matter in the form of

electromagnetic waves as a result of the changes in the
electronic configurations of the atom or molecules.
a. Conduction
c. Convection
b.Radiation
d. Absorption
97. It states that energy can neither be destroyed nor
created; it can only change forms.
a. First law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Third law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
98. In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following
state that no heat engine can have a thermal efficiency of
100% or as far as power plant to operate, the working fluid
must exchange heat with the environment as well as the
furnace.
a. Kelvin Plank Statement
b. Clausius-Plank Statement
c. Clausius Statement
d. Kelvin Statement
99. In second law of thermodynamic, which of the following
state that no device can transfer heat from cooler body to a
warmer one without leaving an effect on the surroundings.
a. Kelvin Plank Statement
b. Clausius-Plank Statement
c. Clausius Statement
d. Kelvin Statement
100. It is defined as the amount of light output in lumens
per W of electricity consumed.
a. Light intensity
c. Light efficacy
b. Light efficiency d. Light luminosity
101. Carnot cycle is composed of how many reversible
processes?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d. 4
102. Which of the following processes are involved in carnot
cycle?
a. Two isothermal ; two isobaric
b. One isothermal; three adiabatic
c. Three isobaric; one adiabatic
d. Two adiabatic ; two isothermal
103. State that the thermal efficiencies of all reversible heat
engines operating between the same two reservoirs are the
same, and that no heat engine is more efficient than a
reversible one operating between the same two reservoirs.
a. Throttle principle

b.
c.
d.

Otto principle
Carnot principle
Kelvin principle

104. A carnot heat engine receives 500KJ of heat per cycle

from a high-temperature source at 600 C and rejects heat
a low temperature sink at 40C. Determine the thermal
efficiency of this Carnot engine.
a. 93.33%
b. 6.67%
c. 35.85%
d.
64.15%

105. A piston cylinder device contains a liquid-vapor

mixture of water at 400K. During a constant pressure
process, 700 KJ of heat is transferred to the water. As a
result, part of the liquid in the cylinder vaporizes. Determine
the entropy change of the water during this process.
a. 1.75kJ/K
b.
280kJ-K
c. 7000kJ
d. 0.57K/kJ
106. Which of the following equation of state has two
constants?
a. Vander Waals Equation
b. Beattie-Bridgeman Equation
c. Benedict-Webb-Rubin Equation
d. Strobridge Equation

111. It is the energy possesses by the system as a result of

its elevation with respect to the gravitational acceleration of
the earth.
a. Potential
b.Kinetic
c. Momentum
d.Impulse
112. It states that if two bodies are in thermal equilibrium
with a third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium with
each other
a. First law of thermodynamics
b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Third law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
113. Determine the mass of the air in a room whose
dimensions are (5x6x7) cm at 105 kPa and 27C.
114. Heat is transferred to a heat engine from a furnace at
a rate of 92MW. If the rate of waste heat rejection to a
nearby river is 45MW, determine the net power output and
the thermal efficiency for this heat engine.
a.48.91%
b. 51.09%
c. 32.84%
d.
67.15%

107. How many constant are there in Strobridge Equation of

State?
a.13
b. 14
c. 15
d. 16

115. The food compartment of a refrigerator is maintained

at 4C by removing heat from it at a rate of 300 KJ/min. If
the required power input to the refrigerator is 3KW,
determine the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator.
a.1.67
b. 2.33
c. 3.67
d. 4. 12

108. Which of the following equation of state has eight

constant?
a. Vander Waals Equation
b. Beattie-Bridgeman Equation
c. Benedict-Webb-Rubin Equation
d. Strobridge Equation

116. A 50 kg iron block at 80C is dropped into an insulated

tank that contains 0.5 m3 of liquid water at 25C. Determine
the temperature when thermal equilibrium reached. The
specific heat of iron is 0.45kJ/kg-C and for water is
4.18kJ/kg-C.
a.20. 7C
b. 25.6C
c. 30.1C
d. 35.6C

109. Consider a person standing in a breezy room at 22C.

Determine the total rate of heat transfer from this person if
the exposed surface area and the average outer surface
temperature of the person are 1.2 m2 and 33C,
respectively, and the convection heat transfer coefficient is
6 W/m2.=0.95 and =5.67x10-8 W/m4-K4
a.120.5J/s
b. 135.7J/s
c. 143.2J/s
d. 151.9J/s

117. A rigid tank contains a hot fluid that is cooled while

being stirred by a paddle wheel. Initially, the internal energy
of the fluid is 850kJ. During the cooling process, the fluid
loses 550kJ of heat, and the paddle wheel does 200kJ of
work on the fluid. Determine the final energy of the fluid.
Neglect the energy stored in the paddle wheel.
a.500kJ
b. 550 kJ
c. 600kJ
d. 650 kJ

110. A piston cylinder device initially contains 0.8 m 3 of air

at 110kPa and 80C. The air is now compressed to 0.2 m 3
in such a way that the temperature inside the cylinder
remains constant. Determine the work done during this
process.
a.-122kJ
b. -123kJ
c. -124kJ
d. -125kJ

118. Three moles of an ideal gas are compressed slowly and

isothermally from a volume of 5 to 1.5 ft3, at a temperature
of 320K. How much work is done?
a.-8.12kJ
b. -9.61kJ
c. -10.44kJ
d. -11.59kJ

119. A 4-in wall of fire brick, k=9 Btu/(ft2-hr-F/in), has one

surface at 300F, the other at 90F. Find the heat conducted
through the area of 2ft2 in 1 day.
a.22, 680Btu
b. 19, 650Btu
c. 15,510Btu
d. 10,730Btu
120. If 80 g of iron shot at 100C is dropped into 200 g of
water at 20C contained in an iron vessel of mass 50 g, find
the resulting temperature.
a.20.1C
b. 21.8C
c. 22. 3C
d. 24.6C
121. When a 2lb of brass at 212F is dropped into 5lb of
water at 35F, the resulting temperature is 41.2F. Find the
specific heat of brass in Btu/lb-F.
a.1.120
b. 0.091
c. 0.321
d. 1.233
122. How much heat is necessary to raise the temperature
of 0.80 kg of ethyl alcohol from 15C of its boiling point
78.3C?
a.10kcal
b. 20kcal
c. 30kcal
d. 40kcal
123. The weight-density of air at 32F and 29.92 in Hg
pressure is 0.081 lb/ft3. What is its weight-density, in lb/ft3,
at an altitude where the pressure is 13.73 in Hg and the
temperature is -40F?
a.0.044
b. 0.055
c. 0.066
d. 0.77
TUP(GEAS PHYSICS)
124. Suppose that energy Q is required to accelerate a car
from rest to v, neglecting friction. How much added energy
would be required to increase the speed from v to 2v?
a.Q
b.2Q
c. 3Q
d.4Q
125. Suppose you want to store 1.00 J of electric potential
energy in a volume of 1.00 m3 in vacuum. What is the
magnitude of the required electric field?
a. 0.475 MV/m
b. 0.336MV/m
c. 0.225TV/m
d. 0.113TV/m
126. Material a is a water and material b is a glass with
index of refraction 1.52. If the incident ray makes an angle
of 60o with the normal, find the direction of the reflected
ray.
a.49.3o
b. 91.3o
c. 60o
d.
34.7o
According to law of reflection,

a=60o

then

r =60o

r =a
(c)

, hence if

127. The wavelength of the red light from a helium-neon

sensor is 633 nm in air but 474 nm in the aqueous humor
inside our eyeballs. Calculate the speed of light in this
substance.
a. 2.25 x 108 m/s
b. 3.25 x 108 m/s
c. 3.00 x 108 m/s
d. 1.25 x 108 m/s
128. A spaceship moving away from Earth with speed of
0.900c fires a robot space probe in the same direction as its
motion, with speed of 0.700c relative to the spaceship.
What is the probes velocity relative to the Earth?
a.0.900c
b. 0.345c
c. 0.700c
d. 0.982c
129. In optics, this effect refers to the blurring of the image
produced on a concave mirror due to the convergence of
rays far from the mirror to other points on the principal axis.
What do you call this effect?
a.spherical aberration
b. focal divergence
c. parallax error
d. Snells effect
130. In fluid mechanics, this shows that the pressure of a
fluid decreases as the speed of the fluid increases. In
addition, the pressure of a fluid decreases as the elevation
increases.
a.Clairuts equation
b. Bernoullis equation
c. Maxwells equation
d. Hyrdofluid equation
131. In electrodynamics, what term refers to the average
speed of the charge carriers?
a. drag velocity
b. molecular-kinetic speed
c. drift speed
d. charge velocity
132. In electromagnetics and wave theory, what refers to
waves, commonly generated by electronic devices, whose
wavelengths ranges from approximately 0.3m to 10-4 m.
Due to their short wavelengths these are often used in
radar systems and for studying the atomic and molecular
properties of matter.
a.Radio waves
b. Microwaves
c. AM waves
d. Radar waves
ADU(GEAS STRENGTH OF MATERIALS)
133. A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing
strength of 40 ksi. The compressive stress in the punch is
limited to 50 ksi. Compute the maximum thickness of plate
from which a hole 2.5 inches in diameter can be punched.
a. 0.500 in
b. 0.781 in
c. 0.102 in
d. 0.204 in
134. A hole is to be punched out of plate having a shearing
strength of 40 ksi. The compressive stress in the punch is

limited to 50 ksi. If the plate is 0.25 inches thick, determine

the diameter of the smallest hole that can be punched
a. 0.800 in
b. 0.871 in
c. 0.435 in
d.
0.600 in
135. A large pipe, called a penstock in hydraulic work, is 1.5
m in diameter. It is composed of wooden staves bound
together by steel hoops, each 300 sq. Millimetre in crosssectional area, and is used to conduct water from a
reservoir to power a house. If the maximum tensile stress
permitted in the hoops is 130 MPa, what is the maximum
spacing between hoops under a head of water of 30 m?
a. 17.7mm
b. 77.1 mm
c. 177 mm
d. 71.7
mm
136. At what angular velocity will the stress in a rotating
steel ring equal to 150 MPa if its mean radius is 220 mm?
The density of the steel is 7.85 Mg/m^3.
a. 19.87 rad/s
b. 159 rad/s
c. 138.2 rad/s
d. 628 rad/s
137. A pipe carry steam at 3.5 MPa has an outside diameter
of 450 mm and a wall thickness of 10 mm. A gasket is
inserted between the flange at one end of the pipe and a
flat plate use to cap the end. How many 40-mm-diameter
bolts must be used to hold the cap on if the allowable stress
in the bolts is 80 MPa, of which 55 MPa is the initial stress?
a. 14
b. 15
c. 16
d. 17
138. A pipe carry steam at 3.5 MPa has an outside diameter
of 450 mm and a wall thickness of 10 mm. A gasket is
inserted between the flange at one end of the pipe and a
flat plate use to cap the end. What circumferential stress is
developed in the pipe?
a. 75.3 MPa
b. 37.65 MPa
c. 78.75 MPa
d. 39.38
MPa
139. It is the maximum safe stress that a material can carry
a. working stress
b. Ultimate stress
c. rupture strength
d. Yield strength
140. It is the point at which there is an appreciable
elongation of the material without any corresponding
increase of load
a. Elastic limit
b. Yield point
c. Ultimate stress
d. Point of rupture
141. This component measures the pulling (or pushing)
action perpendicular to the section
a. Torque
b. Bending moment
c. Axial forces
d. Shearing force

142. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300 sq.

Meters and a length of 150 m is suspended vertically from
one end. It supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower
end. If the unit mass of steel is 7850 kg/m^3 and E =
200x10^3 MN/m^2, find the total elongation of the rod.
a. 54.3 mm
b. 40 mm
c. 43.3 mm
d. 35 mm
143. What is the theoretical maximum value of Poissons
ratio of any given material subjected to a uniform triaxial
stress
a. 0
b. 1
c. 1/3
d.
144. A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2 m long is
surrounded by a shell of cast iron 5 mm thick. Compute the
load that will compress the combined bar a total of 0.8 mm
in the length of 2m. For steel E = 200 GPa, and for cast iron
E = 100 Gpa
a. 291 kN
b. 240 kN
c. 192 kN
d. 420
kN

a. 110.6 MPa
c. 120.6 MPa

152. Who first postulated that stress is proportional to strain

in 1678?
a. Thomas Young
b. Robert Hooke
c. Andrew Pytel
d. Charles Augustus

146. A solid steel shaft is not to twist through more than 3

degrees in a 6 m length when subjected to a torque of 12
kN.m. What maximum shearing stress is developed? Use
G=83GPa.
a. 41.3 MPa
b. 43.4 MPa
c. 34.3 MPa
d. 17.6
MPa

154. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

149. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical

steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm-diamter wire
on a mean radius of 80 mm when tha spring is supporting a
load of 2 kN. Use G = 83 GPa.

158. Which of the following phase changes represent

sublimation?

151. These are components of the total resistance to sliding

the portion to one side of the exploratory section past the
other.
a. Torque
b. Bending moment
c. Axial forces
d. Shear forces

MIT(GEAS CHEMISTRY)

148. A steel rod 2.5 m long is secured between two walls. If

the load on the rod is zero at 20 degree Celsius, compute
the stress when the temperature drops to -20 degrees
Celsius. The cross-sectional are if the rod is 1200 sq. mm,
coefficient of linear expansion = 11.7 um/(m-deg.C), and E
= 200 GPa. Assume that the walls are rigid.
a. 69.3 MPa
b. 96.3 MPa
c. 93.6 MPa
d. 69.3 MPa

d. 41.0% water
36% * 1.05 =37.8%

150. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring

composed of 20 turns of 20 mm-diamter wire on a mean
radius of 80 mm when tha spring is supporting a load of 2
kN. Use G = 83 GPa.
a. 87.9 mm
b. 78.9 mm
c. 98.7 mm
d. 89.7
mm

145. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 80 MPa when

twisted through 4 degrees. Using G = 83 GPa, compute the
shaft diameter.
a. 104 mm
b. 138 mm
c. 148 mm
d. 160
mm

147. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft

that will not twist through more than 3 degrees in a 6 m
length when subjected to a torque of 12 kN.m? Use
G=83GPa.
a. 114 mm
b. 116 mm
c. 118 mm
d. 120
mm

b. 112.3 MPa
d. 134.6 MPa

153. How many zeroes in the measurement 0.00020040 are

significant?
a. three
b. four
c.
six
d. seven
of the following describes a chemical change?
Water boiling to form steam
Sugar dissolving in a cup of coffee
Hamburger grease solidifying on a plate
Tarnishing silver

155. A homogenous mixture can be separated by all of the

following methods except
a. Filtration
b. Chromatography
c. Crystallization
d. Distillation
156. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is not a pure substance?

Hydrogen
Oxygen
Water
Milk

157. A laboratory experiment was performed to determine

the percent by mass of water in a hydrate. The accepted
value is 36.0% water whose observed value has an error of
5.00%. Find the percent by mass of water.
a. 31.0% water
b. 36.0% water
c. 37.8% water

a.

Solid

b.

Gas

c.

Solid

d.

Gas

gas
solid
liquid
liquid

159. The amount of energy needed to change a given mass

of ice to water at constant temperature is called the heat of
a. Fusion
b. Formation
c. Condensation
d. Crystallization
160. Which
a.
b.
c.
d.

of the following is a binary compound?

Hydrochloric acid
Oxygen
Citric acid
Sodium chlorate

161. An example of a ternary compound is

a. Potassium chlorate
b. Ammonia
c. Silver chloride
d. Sodium bromide
162. What is the charge of a hydrogen atom?
a.

+
1

b.

c.

+
2

d. 0
163. The impossibility of knowing both the precise location
and velocity of subatomic particle at the same time is
known as the
a. Diffraction principle
b. Probability
principle
c. Limiting principle
d. Uncertainty
principle
164. An atom which has the greatest ability to attract
electron
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen

c.
d.

Sulfur
Bromine

c. 22500atm
d. 1710atm

c. It is clear and transparent with particles too small to be

seen
d. Dissolved particles will pass through a piece of filter
paper

165. If the volume of the mole of gas molecules remains

constant, lowering the temperature will make the pressure
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Increase then decrease
d. Decrease then increase

P1V1=P2V2

166. Whenever you have equal volumes of gases at the

same temperature and pressure, the volume must
a. Contain equal number of particles
b. Contain 2.4 milliliters of STP
c. Contain one mole of any gas at STP
d. Contain the Avogadros number

a. 1.2moles
b. 1.4moles
c. 2.0moles
d. 2.8moles

167. What pressure must be applied to 225mL of gas at

1atm to reduce its volume to 100mL?
a. 0.44atm
b. 2.25atm

170. The properties of solution include all of the following

except that
a. It is homogeneous mixture if it has been well stirred
b. Dissolved particles will settle out upon stirring

168. How many moles of

O2

O2

are present in 44.8L of

at STP?

169. At STP, 1 mole will occupy 22.4L