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Contents
MST155-31 Aerospace Manufacturing Orientation..................................................................................... 5
MST155-32 Manufacturing Teams............................................................................................................. 12
MST155-33 Precision Instruments ............................................................................................................. 16
MST155-34 Hand Tools .............................................................................................................................. 37
MST155-36 Basic Drilling and Riveting....................................................................................................... 49
MST155-37 Countersinking ........................................................................................................................ 58
MST155-38 Tap & Die ................................................................................................................................ 64
MST155-39 Power Island ........................................................................................................................... 77
MST155-40 GD&T....................................................................................................................................... 89
MST155-41 Tooling Capstone Project ........................................................................................................ 97

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Welcome to the Aerospace Tooling training program offered by the Washington Aerospace
Training & Research Center (WATRC).
Were excited to have you as a part of this world-class program and we are committed to your
success. If at any time during the program you have questions or concerns regarding your
education please give us a call. We are here to ensure the highest level of education and to
make certain you have every opportunity to be successful in the program.
The Aerospace Tooling training program is designed to introduce you to the aerospace
manufacturing industry. It will give you an understanding of the products they produce, as well
as the tools, materials, and procedures youll need to be successful as an employee of an
aerospace manufacturing organization.
About The Study Guide
This study guide is designed to help you achieve the highest levels of success in the program.
You should complete the questions and activities in each section of the guide as you progress
through the coursework.
Fully utilizing this guide will help you better understand the information presented in the courses.
It will also assist you in preparing for the comprehensive examination you will be required to
take at the end of your studies.
You should be very proud of yourself for your decision to pursue this unique educational
opportunity. Education is something that you will have for the rest of your life.
Good luck in your studies and welcome to the program.

The staff of the WATRC

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MST155-31 Aerospace Manufacturing Orientation

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MST155-31 Aerospace Manufacturing Orientation

1. In manufacturing, tooling is a term that has several meanings including hand tools,
templates, fixtures and measurement tools.
True
False
2. What type of tools are devices that are used to perform work on materials using only your
hands?
CNC machines
Hand tools
Molds and dies
Measurement tools
3. A ________ is a tool that is used to transfer a shape or dimension to a part.
Jig
Fixture
Template
Square
4. A ________ is a workholding device that is used to locate and sometimes hold a part in a
fixed location.
Fixture
Template
Protractor
Scribe
5. A fixture and jig hold a part in a fixed location but a ________ also helps to guide a tool
working on a part.
Fixture
Template
Vise
Jig
6. What type of tools are made to measure the physical characteristics of a product, such as
size, shape, weight or temperature?
Dies
Measurement tools
Fixtures

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7. Which of the following best describes the role of a toolmaker?

To quality check the holes drilled by assembly mechanics
Manage the hourly employees in the assembly production area
Support the manufacturing operations with the tools they create
To monitor the costs associated with raw materials
8. Often there are several ways to get a job done and it is the toolmakers' job to determine the
best process to make a tool.
True
False
9. Your ability to effectively communicate will be a determining factor in your career success.
True
False
10. Being capable of visualizing a three-dimensional shape from a two-dimensional view would
fall under which skill you will learn in the assembly mechanic program?
Teamwork skills
Engineering drawing reading skills
Safety skills
11. What is a joint action by a group of people where each person sets aside their own
individual interests and work towards the goals of the group?
Friendship
Individuality
Teamwork
Fellowship
12. Your ability to effectively communicate will be a determining factor in your career success.
True
False
13. What is not a fundamental requirement to participate in the program?
Attendance
Participation
Retirement
Motivation

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14. Your attendance in the program will be treated the same as it would be in the workplace.
True
False
15. What depends upon the use of approved practices, safety devices and common sense?
Chance occurrences
Mishap elevation
Accident promotion
Accident prevention
16. Which of the following is not part of accident prevention?
Safety devices
Documentation
Approved practices
Common sense
17. What do you do if you are uncertain about your safety, or the safety of others?
Consult with a co-worker
Call 911
Contact human resources (HR)
Speak with your instructor / supervisor
18. It is okay to clean the work area and your clothing of drill chips with compressed air.
True
False
19. Modifying air nozzles or using unauthorized air nozzles is an infraction of safety rules.
True
False
20. What specific personal protective equipment is the minimum item you always wear in the lab
area?
Steel toe footwear
Ear protection
Approved eye protection
Dust mask

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21. What has no place on the job as it usually leads to an accident?

Teamwork
Horseplay
Attentiveness
Communication
22. FOD is a serious hazard caused by tools or other items left inside the aircraft after
manufacturing or servicing. What does the acronym FOD stand for?
Final on dock
Foreign obstacle dirt
False object document
Foreign object damage
23. Which of the following does not describe someone with a good character?
Dependable
Irresponsible
Honest
Fair
24. What is more important than facts, the past, education and money?
What people think
What people say
Appearance
Attitude
25. The length of time to learn how to avoid hazards and to perform tasks safely is:
1 to 3 weeks
1 month
A lifelong process
1 year
26. The one thing that manufacturing companies have in common is an emphasis on:
Flexible work hours
Unsafe environment
Teamwork
Working alone

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27. Team work is important to the completion of the aircraft build process.
True
False
28. Manufacturing companies usually divide their skill sets up into a variety of functional
departments.
True
False
29. The Production team manages the delivery of all the finished products.
True
False
30. There are six things you can do to ensure your success as a team member as well as the
success of the team. Which one of the following is not one of those six things?
Have a closed mind
Remember the goal
Recognize your contributions
Support the leader
31. Teamwork requires a cooperative effort by all the members.
True
False
32. What is the most important measurement of success in advanced manufacturing?
Cost
Profit
Safety
Delivery
33. What are the two ways that the cost of production is measured against target cost?
Profit and margin
Delivery and safety
Production net sales
Quantity and quality

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34. What are the two basic measurements used to monitor quality and cost?
Profit and loss
Time and money
Efficiency and productivity
35. Efficiency equals the amount of error-free work performed against the total production time
available.
True
False

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MST155-32 Manufacturing Teams

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MST155-32 Manufacturing Teams

1. A ________ is a group of people who are linked by purpose..

Crew
Mob
Unit
Team
2. The quality of teamwork may be measured by examining the effectiveness of the
_____________ in terms of coordination, communication, and balance of contributions.
Collaboration
Freedom
Independence
Autonomy
3. Which of the following is not an element of a team?
Interference
Roles
Cooperation
Purpose
4. Which of the seven elements of a team is when individuals or tasks depend upon one
another?
Purpose
Accountability
Empowerment
Interdependence
5. In the Belbin model, the plant role is where individuals tend to be very creative and excel at
solving problems in unique ways.
True
False
6. Which of the following is not an advantage of a team?
Promotes shared responsibilities and accountability
Takes advantage of individual expertise
Narrow skill-base
Improved quality and performance

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7. In a dysfunctional team, lack of trust can come from team members' lack of openness about
their mistakes and weaknesses.
True
False
8. Winning teams are teams that focus on ________, quality, cost, delivery, and environment.
Selfishness
Freedom
Safety
Independence
9. Teambuilding activities that focus on team ________ are concerned with the reason the
team was created and why it is in existence.
Leadership
Purpose
Dynamics
Individuals
10. Teambuilding activities that focus on group ________ are concerned with the way the team
together.
Drive
Dynamics
Determination
Purpose
11. In building team purpose, ________ define responsibilities and lets team members know
why they are on the team.
Strategies
Goals
Roles
Resources

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12. In building team purpose, ________ ________ covers the way new team members are
trained and brought into the team.
Self regulation
Decision making
Reporting structure
Member assimilation
13. Teambuilding that focuses on improving group dynamics is centered on how the team
executes its tasks and fulfills its responsibilities.
True
False
14. In improving group dynamics, ________ ________ deals with how a team resolves
differences.
Self-evaluation
Work styles
Decision making
Conflict resolution
15. Which of the following is not a common type of teambuilding exercise?
Trust exercises
Self-evaluation exercises
Communication exercises
Problem solving / decision making exercises

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MST155-33 Precision Instruments

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MST155-33 Precision Instruments

1. Test indicators are measurement tools that are used for ____________ measurements.
Gap
Circumference
Thickness
Comparative
2. A comparative measurement is the measurement of the distance from a known
measurement value or another, unknown measurement point.
True
False
3. Test indicators are used to determine:
Weight of workpieces
Gap between parts
Form, shape and positional deviations
Peaks and valleys in workpieces
4. Test indicators are classified by the position of the dial face and the number of dial needle
revolutions.
True
False

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5. Identify the three common types of test indicators shown below:

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6. Identify the major components of the test indicator:

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7. The ________ of the test indicator contains the mechanism that transfer the pivot motion of
the contact point into the revolution of the dial needle.
Face
Body
Clamp
Needle
8. The ______ _______ of the test indicator is the part that touches the part as you are
measuring.
Mounting clamp
Contact point
Dial needle
Dial face
9. On a test indicator, the length of the shaft defines the maximum distance from the test
indicator a measurement can be taken.
True
False
10. If you have to replace the contact point on a test indicator, always make certain you replace
it with one that the exact same size.
True
False
11. On test indicators, a _________ _______ type of ball tip are used when extreme precision
is necessary.
Hardened steel
Carbide steel
Soft aluminum
Synthetic rubies
12. What part of the test indicator is where the movement of the contact point is displayed?
Measurement unit
Dial face
LCD screen
Body

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13. _________ is the distance the contact point moves from one graduation line to the next.
Resolution
Reference
Clearance
Reading
14. The total length of the dial face graduation scale on a test indicator is the total number of
graduation lines divided by the resolution value.
True
False
15. The dial needle on a ________ travel test indicator will usually rotate one full revolution in
each direction when the contact point travels from its neutral position to its maximum
position.
Standard
Long
16. The dial needle on a ________ travel test indicator will usually rotate two full revolution in
each direction when the contact point travels from its neutral position to its maximum
position.
Standard
Long
17. What part of the test indicator is the accessory that securely holds the test indicator to an
external device?
Body
Dial
Shaft
Mounting clamp
18. The angle of the contact point is not important to the accuracy of the test indicator.
True
False

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19. A height gauge is a measuring instrument used to measure the ________ distance from a
reference surface to a feature on a part.
Angled
Vertical
Horizontal
Phantom
20. Electronic height gauges are called electronic because they have a digital readout that
displays the measurement distance.
True
False
21. Identify the components of an electronic height gauge:

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22. The ________ is the part of the height gauge that sits on the reference surface.
Scriber
Carrier
Frame
Base
23. It is imperative to take care of the bottom on the base on the height gauge because any
nicks or scratches could influence the precision of your measurement readings.
True
False
24. What component of the electronic height gauge that enables the gauge to measure in a
vertical direction?
Carrier
Bar
Base
Scriber
25. All height gauges are defined by the ________ of the bar.
Color
Width
Length
Weight

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26. Identify the seven major components of the electronic measurement unit on the electronic
height gauge:

27. On a height gauge, what component performs the actual measurements?

Base
Bar
Electronic measurement unit
Scriber

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28. What pushbutton on a height gauge is used to zero the measurement unit anywhere along
the bar?
In / mm
ON / OFF
Zero
Unit
29. The _________ is designed to give more precise control when moving the electronic
measurement unit and ensures that you do not put excessive pressure on the electronic
measurement unit during the measurement process.
Thumbwheel
Locking screw
Shaft
30. On a height gauge, the ________ contacts a part during a measurement and is used to
scratch fine lines on a part at a known, precise measurement position.
Bar
Scriber
Electronic measurement unit
Thumbwheel
31. The process for zero setting the electronic height gauge is the same, regardless of the
location of the desired reference point.
True
False
32. A thickness gauge is a comparative measurement tool used to check the ________ of
narrow gaps or slots.
Diameter
Height
Width
Straightness

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33. Identify the major components of the thickness gauge:

34. The _________ are the components of the thickness gauge is actually used to make
measurements.
Leaves
Lock screws
Cases
35. On a thickness gauge, leaves are inscribed with its thickness in decimal inches or
millimeters.
True
False

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36. When using a thickness gauge, it is best to use the ________ number of leaves possible to
get an accurate measurement.
Most
Least
37. With a thickness gauge, measurement of the width of a gap or slot is made by a process of
determining the thickest leaves that will enter a gap and the thinnest leaves that will not
enter the gap.
True
False
38. ________ gauges are comparative measurement tools with convex and concave radii of
known sizes.
Gapman
Radius
Thickness
Go/NoGo
39. Radius gauges are used when a ________ measurement is not needed.
Fixed
Consistent
Variable
Constant
40. What term defines the size of the curvature of rounded inside and outside corners on
manufactured parts?
Radius
Diameter
Resolution
Repeatability

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41. Identify the series of convex and concave arcs on the radius gauge:

42. When the radius of a fillet on the part is ________ than the gauge radius, a gap will be
visible between the two radii when both edges of the gauge are flush with the part surfaces.
Larger
Smaller
43. When the radius of a round on the part is ________ than the gauge radius, a gap will be
visible between the two radii when both edges of the gauge are flush with the part surfaces.
Larger
Smaller
44. When the radius of a fillet on the part is larger than the gauge radius, a gap will be visible
between one side of the gauge and a side of the part.
True
False

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45. What precision instrument is used to mark, or inspect, perpendicular lines or surfaces?
Rule
Scribe
Square
Level
46. Two common types of squares are the ________ square and the combination square.
Twin
Solid
Hollow
Angle
47. Identify the three features of a solid square:

48. Which part of a solid square is the shorter, thicker section of the square?
Beam
Blade
Relief

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49. Solid squares are manufactured in many different sizes.

True
False
50. On a solid square, what is the reference point of the measurement?
Blade
Relief
Top
Beam
51. On the combination square, the ________ head consists of two precision ground surfaces
perpendicular to each other.
Centering
Round
Straight
Relief
52. An accessory to the combination square, a center head is used to mark lines to find the
________ of a round part.
Diameter
Center
Thickness
Width
53. A protractor head is used to measure or mark ________ lines.
Straight
Parallel
Angular
Phantom
54. The frame on a protractor contains a lock screw to prevent the frame from rotating.
True
False

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55. What precision instrument is used to establish a basis for the feel of the roughness of
surfaces of manufactured parts to a known roughness value.
Test indicator
Height gauge
Surface roughness comparator
Gapman gauge
56. Surface ________ is defined by the roughness, waviness, and the arrangement of the
peaks and valleys of the base material of a part.
Height
Texture
Denseness
Thickness
57. On the surface of a part or material, the measure of the distance between the peaks and
valleys over a short distance is called:
Surface grain
Surface quality
Surface measure
Surface roughness
58. The most common parameter used to analyze surface roughness is:
Roughness average
Roughness total
Roughness mean
Roughness percentage
59. The roughness average parameter is abbreviated as:
AA
RHR
Ra
Rh
60. A very smooth surface will have a large roughness average value.
True
False

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61. Waviness is a difficult characteristic to measure and can only be measured with special
digital instruments.
True
False
62. In regards to surface roughness, _______ is the term used to describe the direction of the
pattern formed by the peaks and valleys.
Legs
Lay
Bar
Texture
63. Regardless of the dimension and tolerance, a surface texture for a feature can be defined by
a ________ on an engineering drawing.
Symbol
Number
Letter
Roman numeral
64. The basic surface texture symbol resembles a:
Capital letter X
Small letter y
Question mark
Check mark
65. The surface texture symbol, ________ ________, means that material needs to be
removed from the surface.
Semi-circle
Dashed square
Vertical line
Horizontal line
66. The surface roughness comparator is a set of specimens with numerous surface roughness
Ra values produced by common machining operations.
True
False

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67. An adjustable parallel is an assembly of two pieces of steel.

True
False
68. On the adjustable parallel, the ________ joint is at an angle to the parallel surfaces and
allows the two sections to be adjusted wider or narrower.
Box
Dovetail
Groove
Pocket
69. What part of the adjustable parallel secures the two sections of the adjustable parallel and
prevents the sections from moving?
Wire hitch
Flexible latch
Locking screw
Permanent adjustment
70. An adjustable parallel can be damaged if the locking screw is tightened while the sections
are not overlapped at a locking screw.
True
False
71. Two common functions of the adjustable parallel are measuring slots and:
Measuring the thickness of a workpiece
Leveling unbalanced parts
Measuring the height of a workpiece
Measuring weight of a workpiece
72. An adjustable parallel can be used with a micrometer or caliper to measure the width of a
slot.
True
False

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73. What instrument is used to align a drill bushing with scribed, hole location lines on a part.
Gapman gauges
Radius gauges
Optical center finders
Go/NoGo gauges
74. Optical center finders can be used to ensure that drilled holes are located in the correct
position.
True
False
75. Optical center finders are used together with a drill:
Stop
Guide
Bit
Block
76. Drill guides use _________ drill bushings.
Inflexible
Interchangeable
Incompatible
Asymmetrical

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77. Identify the components of the optical center finder:

78. The ________ of the optical center finder is made from optical grade acrylic plastic and has
a lens at each end.
Shaft
Body
Sleeve
79. The _______ lenses of the optical center finder is flat to prevent optical distortion.
Bottom
Top
80. The bottom lenses of the optical center finder is has two target lines engraved on its surface.
True
False

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81. The sleeve on the optical center does two things, including protecting the optical center
finder from damage when they are inserted and removed from the drill guide and:
Making sure the scribed lines do not get smeared
Ensuring that the bushing does not move
Ensuring that the optical center finder is always perpendicular to the drill guide
82. Optical center finder are manufactured in a variety of standard diameters that correspond to
the diameter of standard drill bushing sizes.
True
False
83. It is important to always make sure you are using the correct diameter optical center finder.
True
False

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MST155-34 Hand Tools

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MST155-34 Hand Tools

1. A ________ is a hand tool used to cut small amounts of material from a metal, wood or
plastic workpiece.
Punch
Hammer
Lapper
File
2. Identify the 4 standard parts of a file:

3. Which part of a file is often used for installing a handle on a file?

Tang
Heel
Point
Face

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4. What is a measure of the coarseness of the file's teeth and describes the arrangement of
teeth on the file's face?
Ram
Cut
Angle
Grit
5. When filing, the material which will be filed must be softer than the file.
True
False

6. Identify the four different types of files shown below:

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7. A hand ________ is a multi-bladed tool designed to remove small amounts of material from
holes to improve their finish.
File
Reamer
Punch
Scribe
8. A hand reamer should be rotated:
Clockwise
Counter-clockwise
9. The way that lapping compounds abrasiveness is measured is by:
Color
Weight
Size
Grit
10. With lapping compounds, the lower the grit rating, the more abrasive the compound.
True
False
11. A ________ is a tool used to deliver an impact to an object.
Scribe
Punch
Hammer
Chisel
12. What type of hammer is designed for shaping and moving metal, as well as striking
punches?
Mallet
Peening
Sledgehammer
Hatchet

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13. Identify the five different types of hammers / mallets shown below:

14. A hand ________ is a hardened metal rod with a shaped tip at one end and a blunt end at
the other that is designed to be struck with a hammer or mallet.
Chisel
Scribe
Pick
Punch

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15. What type of punch is an aid to aligning bolt or rivet holes prior to inserting a fastener?
Drift
Letter
Transfer
Center
16. A __________ punch is used to create a dimple in a workpiece and can be used as a guide
when drilling small holes.
Letter
Pin
Center
Transfer

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17. Identify the five types of punches shown below:

18. ________ are used to grip objects for bending or physical compression.
Chisels
Punches
Pliers
Hammers

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19. Identify the seven types of pliers shown below:

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20. _________ ________ of pliers can be adjusted to increase the size range of their jaws and
use a mechanism that allows sliding the pivot point into one of several positions when their
jaws are fully opened.
Slip joint
Channel locks
Needle nose
Diagonal cutting
21. ________ ________ pliers are sharp pointed pliers that can used to bend different types of
wire.
Diagonal cutting
Safety wire
Needle nose
Slip joint
22. What type of pliers are used to install lockwire?
Slip joint
Safety wire
Needle nose
Diagonal cutting
23. A ________ is a wrench that contains a ratcheting mechanism which allows tightening to be
performed with a back-and-forth motion.
Chisel
Open end wrench
Punch
Ratchet
24. The most commonly used ratchet accessory is the:
Socket
Lens
Spinner
Gear
25. Layout dye is used as an aid in marking out parts before machining.
True
False

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26. There is no reason to use layout dye in a well-ventilated area and be mindful of others
working nearby.
True
False
27. A ________ is a tool that is used to cut lines or patterns onto workpieces by scratching the
surface.
Punch
Scribe
Pencil
Chisel

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28. Identify the four tools used when scribing a part that are shown below:

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29. Why is scribing performed instead of just using a pencil to mark a workpiece?
Scribing is less work
Scribing eliminates the possibility that the lines will be destroyed
Pencils will not mark on metal
30. What tool provides a quick and accurate way to locate the center point of crossing guide
lines?
Test indicator
Adjustable parallel
Center optical finder
Loupe
31. Drill ________ are guides that assist is drilling holes that are perpendicular to surfaces in flat
or curved workpieces.
Stops
Blocks
Keys
Squares
32. You should always recheck the position of a drill block with an optical centering device
before drilling.
True
False

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MST155-36 Basic Drilling and Riveting

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MST155-36 Basic Drilling and Riveting

1. What is not a characteristic of a quality hole?
Elongated
Correct diameter
Perpendicular to the surface of the material
Smooth
2. Which type of drill motors have longer, straight handles and are designed for use in limited
access conditions?
Pistol grip drill
Curve grip drill
90 degree and 45 degree drill
3. Where can you find the diameter of the drill bit and, in some cases, the material it is made
of?
Flute
Stop
Shank
Motor
4. What is the best way to ensure perpendicularity when drilling a hole?
Use a low powered drill
Use a drill stop
Use a very high speed drill
Use a drill guide
5. What is used to prevent the drill from drilling too deep and to prevent you from damaging a
part that may be behind the material you are drilling?
Drill guide
Deburr tool
Drill stop
Drill quit
6. Using a drill stop prevents:
Drilling the hole too big
Drilling into the material behind the assembly
Using too much lubricate
Drilling the hole too small

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7. List the two components of the drill stop:

8. What term is defined as removing the rough edge of holes remaining after the drill process
which can interfere with fastener installation?
Countersink
Deburr
Ream
Drill
9. Holding the drill motor properly will result in safer operation, better control, and superior hole
quality.
True
False
10. What term is defined as the distance from the center of the hole to the nearest edge of the
material.
Hole margin
Border margin
Center margin
Edge margin

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11. The RPM of the drill motor you select will be determined by the hardness of the material that
you must select.
True
False
12. Drill speed is determined by the material you are drilling and the diameter of the hole.
True
False
13. A lower drill speed is typically used in harder materials like titanium and composites.
True
False
14. What is the name of the hole defect that appears slightly grooved on the interior?
Rifled
Eyebrowed
Barreled
15. What is the name of the hole defect that is the correct size at the surface, but bows as it
becomes deeper?
Barreled
Drill run and drill start
Eyebrowed
Double hole
16. What is the name of the hole defect that is not perpendicular to the surface which is caused
by improper use of a drill guide or not using a drill guide at all?
Drill start
Extra hole
Eyebrowed
Angled hole
17. Drill speed is measured in RPM which stands for:
Rotating pressure meter
Rotations per motor
Revolutions per minute
Revolving pressure minutes

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18. Identify the different hole defects:

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19. Identify the tools found in a drill kit:

20. Before drilling, all engineering documents and work instructions must be checked.
True
False

21. What view on the engineering drawing shows how the part looks when it is facing you?
Right view
Left view
Front view
Back view

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22. Which type of writing utensil should you use to mark the fastener locations on the
assembly?
Graphic marking pencil
Soft chalk
Non-graphite marking pencil
Permanent marker
23. Once the drill motor is set up, the first step in drilling a pilot hole is to:
Line the tip of the pilot bit up with the center of one of the end fastener marks
Pull the trigger of the rivet gun
Slide the drill guide into place
Lubricate the drill bit
24. When drilling a pilot hole, the use of a drill guide is not required.
True
False
25. Before you actually drill a pilot hole, you will create a start point which is done by:
Tapping the drill bit on the marked fastener location with a punch
Rotating the drill chuck by pressing the trigger on the drill motor for 30 seconds
Knocking a tip of a screwdriver with a small hammer which creates a small dent
Rotating the drill chuck by hand on the marked fastener location and creating a small
dimple
26. To ensure the drill guide remains flush with the assembly surface you hold the guide with:
C-clamp
Your thumb and forefinger of your non-dominant hand
Layout tape
Vice grips

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27. Identify the tools used to drill holes into an assembly:

28. When deburring with an open countersink cutter, you want to apply _________ pressure.
Extreme
Moderate
Light
29. To inspect the smoothness of the holes after deburring, you use:
A Go/NoGo gauge
The back of your hand
Your forefinger and thumb
The palm of your hand
30. To deburr a hole, which way do you twist the open countersink cutter tool?
Clockwise
Counter-clockwise

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31. Identify the two types of deburring tools:

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MST155-37 Countersinking

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MST155-37 Countersinking
1. Countersinking creates a conical recess at the top of a hole intended to accommodate a
fastener.
True
False
2. Most types of bolts and other fasteners have a slight radius at the transition between shank
and head that helps distribute the stress load on the fastener which is called a:
Knob
Burr
Fillet
Curve
3. A _______________ tool is commonly used to chamfer holes for fillet relief.
Compound drill
Countersink
Flat file
Microshaver
4. What tool is used to remove material from around a hole so a flush head fastener may be
installed?
Microshaver
Step drill
Countersink
5. What is the most common type of countersink tool used in airplane assembly?
Fluted
Back
Curved
Cross hole
6. Carbide and cobalt tools are capable of cutting in harder materials like titanium and
composites.
True
False

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7. Identify the five major components of the countersink tool:

8. The countersink angle is the angle of the cutting edge of the countersink tool.
True
False
9. The most common countersink angle in the aerospace industry is:
60
82
90
100
10. The countersink __________ is designed to keep the countersink tool accurately centered in
the drilled hole.
Shank
Pilot
Cutting edge
Flute

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11. What component of the microstop tool prevents the adjustment sleeve from rotating?
Body
Locking ring
Sleeve
Pilot
12. Identify the components of the microstop tool:

13. The microstop cage has two functions: to create a safety barrier around the countersink tool
and:
To slow down the drill motor
Speed up the drill motor
To keep the countersink tool perpendicular to the surface of the material
14. The most difficult surface to countersink is a __________ surface.
Flat
Curved

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15. What specialized device enables precise control of the depth of the countersink?
Microstop
Weldon
Microshaver
Newton
16. The capital letter ___ in the southwest quadrant of the NAS symbol indicates that the holes
in this assembly require a countersink.
A
B
C
D
17. To check the countersink tool, first drill and then countersink several holes in:
The corner of the assembly
Scrap assembly
The back side of the assembly
18. The scrap material that you check the countersink tool out on should be large enough to drill
a minimum of ___ to ___ holes of the largest diameter with proper edge margins.
2 to 3
5 to 6
8 to 9
10 to 12
19. Scrap material that you check the countersink tool out on should be of similar composition
and the same thickness as the finished assembly.
True
False
20. The minimum edge margin is twice the diameter of the fastener shank.
True
False

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21. The speed of the drill motor used to countersink holes depends upon the type of _________
in the assembly.
Fastener
Color
Material
Time
22. When using a countersink tool, the shavings should be:
Short
Long
23. Once a hole is countersunk, you inspect the depth of the countersink with a:
Ruler
Strain gauge
Federal gauge
Coordinate measuring machine
24. The depth of the countersink is determined by measuring the distance from the surface of
the protective tape to:
Top of the countersink
The bottom of the countersink
Middle of the countersink
25. To determine how much to adjust the depth of the countersink tool, calculate the ________
of the tolerance range of the allowable countersink.
Start point
End point
Midpoint
Last point

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MST155-38 Tap & Die

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MST155-38 Tap & Die

1. The revolved path around a cylinder is called a:

Spiral
Helix
Worm
Groove
2. The revolved path around a cone is called a:
Loop
Vertex
Spiral
Helix
3. The most common shape of a thread path is ____________ and is found on fasteners such
as screws, bolts and nuts.
Triangular
Squared
Rounded
Angled
4. The thread form normally found on fasteners is called the _____ degree thread form.
50
60
90
120
5. Unified threads are measured in inches and are designated by the nominal size, threads per
inch, series, and class.
True
False
6. The standard series of diameter-pitch combinations are identified as:
CUN, NC, FN, and ENF
UNT, NC, UUF, and UF
ZUN, NC, UF, and UEF
UN, UNC, UNF, and UNEF

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7. Threads specified to a class ____ have the largest tolerance.

50
12
1
10
8. What tool is used to create internal threads in parts and nuts?
Punch
Die
File
Tap
9. Taps used to remove material are called ________ taps.
Form
Cutting
Flute
Fit
10. In manufacturing, what types of taps are used far more often than form taps?
Slot
Fitted
Cutting
Square
11. Taps require a hole to be drilled in the material prior to the tap creating the threads.
True
False

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12. Identify the three types of flutes shown below:

13. The more flutes a tap has, the ________ the tap is because the flutes are shallower.
Weaker
Stronger
14. The ________ fluted taps are the most commonly used type of tap.
Straight
Fluted
Helical
Angled

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15. The ________ is the portion of the tap that performs the cutting or forming of the thread.
Slot
Shank
Chamfer
Point
16. Identify the three styles of taps:

17. Which tap has the longer chamfer?

Taper
Plug
Bottoming

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18. Providing clearance and reducing friction, ________ removes metal from the tap's chamfer
between the cutting face and the heel of each land.
Crest
Pitch
Root
Relief
19. Hand tapping is a method of tapping a few holes or repairing damaged internal threads.
True
False
20. Two common methods of manually tapping holes are with the tap wrench and:
Cutter
Hand tapper
Punch
Hand grinder

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21. Identify the two types of hand tap wrenches shown below:

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22. Identify the components of the T-handle tape wrench:

23. Which type of tool is used to tap a few holes in a part, or to tap holes in areas that are
difficult to reach?
Tap wrench
Hand tapper
Slot wrench
Flat tapper
24. When manually tapping, you do need to use cutting fluid.
True
False
25. When tapping a hole, the proper cutting fluid to use is determined by the material you are
tapping.
True
False

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26. When you are hand tapping a hole, ________ the tap will break the chip and allow cutting
fluid to reach the cutting face.
Stopping
Lubricating
Reversing
Speeding
27. Identify the four markings that are found on a thread die:

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28. The simplest way to create ________ threads on a few parts or repairing damaged threads
is with a tool called a threading die.
Internal
External
29. The process of repairing internal or external threads is often called ________ threads.
Chasing
Swirling
Plating
Rounding
30. Identify the two types of dies shown below:

31. Threading dies are classified by their shaped as either round or:
Square
Triangle
Hexagonal
Flat

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32. Another name for adjustable dies is:

Slit dies
Slot dies
Closed dies
Open dies
33. A threading die used manually is held in a tool called a die ________.
Pan
Stock
Rod
Bar
34. Identify the parts of a die stock shown below:

35. A die stock is capable of holding dies for many different thread sizes.
True
False

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36. Identify the two major designs for threaded inserts:

37. Which of the following is not a feature for the coil and solid threaded insert for metal parts?
Drive mechanism
End cap
Locking mechanism
Internal thread
38. A solid thread insert, often used in airplane manufacturing, is called a:
Hi-Lok
Cherry-max
Keensert
Snap-on
39. The diameter to drill the threaded hole for a Keensert is larger than for a regular thread of
the same size.
True
False
40. You cannot use a regular drill chart for threaded holes for Keenserts.
True
False

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41. When tapping a hole, it is important to frequently apply cutting fluid.

True
False
42. When installing a Keensert, you insert the end of the Keensert, opposite the keys, into the
hole and turn the insert:
With crimping pliers one turn
By hand one or two turns
With needle nose pliers two or three turns
With vice grips three turns
43. To drive the keys of the Keensert slightly below the surface of the part, you use the
hammer and:
T-handle tap wrench
Screwdriver
Pin punch
Keensert installation tool

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MST155-39 Power Island

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MST155-39 Power Island

1. Identify the six stationary power tools that may be found in power island:

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2. Which is not a tool that would be found in the power island?

Disc sander
Drill press
Rivet gun
Band saw
3. It is important to remember that power equipment is restricted to one person per station.
True
False
4. If a tool in the power island is damaged or not working properly, you should:
Use it anyway
Turn it off and back on
Lock it, tag it out and notify your supervisor
Try to fix it
5. The disc and belt sander both move _________ at a high rate of speed to smooth and round
corners.
Cutting blades
Drill bits
Sandpaper
Reamers
6. What component of the sander allows the operator to use both hands to hold the workpiece
when sanding?
Work table
Finger guard
Motor
Miter fence

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7. List the major components of the disc sander:

8. Before using the sander, you should always visually check the disc or belt to ensure that it
has the proper abrasive surface for the job.
True
False
9. What should you use to remove chips and debris from the sander?
Oil soaked shop rag
Brush
Damp cloth
Your hand

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10. What is the main purpose of a drill press?

Drill large holes
Ream hard materials
Bore shallow depths
Drill precisely spaced holes or to bore to exact depths
11. List the eight major components of the drill press referenced below:

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12. Three personal protective equipment items that must be worn when operating a drill press
are safety goggles, arm covers, and _________.
Steel toe boots
Gloves
Face shield
Dust mask
13. When using a drill press, in general, the smaller the drill bit, the ________ the RPM
required.
Smaller
Greater
14. Never stop the rotation of the chuck, spindle, or workpiece with your hands or fingers.
True
False

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15. List the major components of the band saw:

16. What part of the band saw will adjust the strokes per minute of the blade?
Power switch
Work table
Blade guide
Variable speed control
17. When using the band saw, what height should you keep the blade guard height from the
workpiece?
Approximately 1 inch
Approximately inch
Approximately inch

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18. What part of the band saw assists in making angled cuts and helps stabilize the workpiece?
Blade
Work table
Blade guide
Miter fence
19. Which blades are the hardest, most durable, and most expensive blades?
Bi-metal
Carbide tipped
Aluminum
Carbon steel
20. When using a band saw, you should start it and wait until the motor is at full speed before
beginning any cut.
True
False
21. Arbor presses are capable of exerting forces in the range of one to _____ tons.
2
5
10
20
22. The rating of an arbor press will never be identified on the arbor press.
True
False

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23. Identify the major components of the arbor press:

24. What is the backbone of the arbor press, supports all of the other components and must be
strong enough not to bend while under pressure?
Ram
Frame
Handle
Rack and pinion gear

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25. The frame is shaped like a C and the depth of the frame, inside the C, is called the
________ depth.
Throat
Neck
Leg
Arm
26. Identify the two primary types of drill bushings shown below:

27. Renewable drill ________ are designed to be replaced when the drill bushing is worn, or
when a different size drill bushing is required.
Pins
Dowels
Bushings
Shafts

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28. Press-fit drill bushings are ___________ installed into a workpiece.

Temporarily
Permanently
29. Press-fit drill bushings are used for ________ volume hole drilling where the number of
holes required would not exceed the life of the drill bushing.
Low
High
30. Bench grinder motors are rated by their ________ and the speed at which they rotate.
Weight
Color
Horsepower
Size
31. All tools designed for bench grinder use will have a ________ RPM rating.
Maximum
Minimum
32. The shaft on the bench grinder is identified by the ________ and should be on the motor
data plate.
Color
Manufacturer
Diameter
33. On the bench grinder, the ________ mounting flange ensures that the tool is aligned
perpendicular to the arbor shaft.
Outside
Inside

34. What is used to determine how to mount the wheel on the arbor of a bench press?
RPM value
Arbor size
Direction of rotation the rotation arrow
The type of abrasive material

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35. Identify the four important things that the label of grinding wheels contain:

36. On the bench grinder, the arbor and flange should always be treated with care when
mounting and dismounting tools.
True
False
37. What is the maximum clearance that the tool rest should be on a bench grinder?
1 inch
inch
inch
1/8 inch

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MST155-40 GD&T

89 of 108

MST155-40 GD&T

1. Engineers use ____________ drawings to communicate the design intent of a product.

Abstract
Objective
Engineering
Subjective
2. A ________ defines the size of a form on the part.
Title
Dimension
Tolerance
Letter
3. Standards define the deviation to each dimension that the engineer determines is
acceptable.
True
False
4. What defines the deviation to each dimension that the engineer determines is acceptable.
Tolerances
Maximums
Minimums
Standards
5. ________ tolerances define the allowable deviations from a perfect shape or location.
Formal
Regular
Geometric
Maximum
6. Which ASME standard establishes uniform practices for stating and interpreting dimensions,
tolerances and related requirements for use on engineering drawings?
Y15.3
Z15.5
X15.5
Y14.5

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7. Where on an engineering drawing will the standard and revision that the engineering
drawings is created typically be found?
On the bill of materials
In the title block
In border
In the details block
8. Engineering drawings are drawn with dimensions and tolerances to either U.S. units of a
decimal inch or the metric unit millimeter.
True
False
9. Dimensions on engineering drawings representing ________ are displayed in degreeminutes-seconds or decimal degrees.
Circles
Angles
Solids
Lines
10. Each geometric shape on a part is called a:
Unit
Surface
Feature
Plane
11. What is the most common cylindrical feature of size?
Hole
Arc
Taper
Chord
12. A basic dimension is a theoretically perfect size, shape, orientation, or location.
True
False

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13. The first rule in the 1994 revision states that each dimension shall:
Be complete so there is a full understanding on the characteristics of a feature
Be no more dimensions than necessary
Specify the method or process used to manufacture the part
Have a tolerance
14. Applying tolerances directly to a dimension is called:
In and out tolerancing
Plus and minus tolerancing
Maximum and minimum tolerancing
Up and down tolerancing
15. List the three methods of dimensioning opposed surfaces:
___________________________________________
___________________________________________
___________________________________________

16. ________ dimensioning creates the smallest possible variation between surfaces that are
not dimensioned.
Baseline
Chain
Direct
Indirect
17. Baseline dimensioning applies dimensions and tolerance to surfaces from a common
surface.
True
False
18. A non-mandatory dimension is sometimes added to aid in obtaining the correct required
finished dimension.
True
False

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19. Unless otherwise specified, all dimensions and tolerances apply at ____ degrees
Fahrenheit.
45 degrees
55 degrees
68 degrees
88 degrees
20. Size tolerances and geometric tolerances define perfect geometric shapes which are called:
Tolerance planes
Tolerance units
Tolerance zones
Tolerance contours
21. The first rule of GD&T is called the individual feature of size rule.
True
False
22. Rule #2 of GD&T states that geometric tolerance are applied at RFS unless modified to
MMC or LMC.
True
False
23. Geometric tolerances permit a features form to be measured closely when its ________
does not have to be controlled as closely.
Weight
Color
Size
Hue
24. Geometric tolerances are represented on engineering drawings in rectangular boxes that
are called:
Fact feature blocks
Feature control frames
Stacked control zone
Runout blocks

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25. Identify the three areas of a feature control frame shown below, including the 1) tolerance
area, 2) Geometric characteristic area and 3) datum references area

26. Feature control frames joined together that share a geometric characteristics area are
called:
Carbon feature control frames
Composite feature control frames
Branded feature control frames
Datum feature control frames
27. Stacked feature control frames with separate geometric characteristic areas are called:
Twin-segment feature control frames
Bi-segment feature control frames
Lone-segment feature control frames
Single-segment feature control frames

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28. List the four characteristics that form geometric tolerances define:
________________________________
_________________________________
_________________________________
_________________________________

29. What type of geometric tolerance defines tolerances for angularity, perpendicularity, and
parallelism?
Form
Runout
Orientation
Location
30. _____________ is a control used to simultaneously control two or more other geometric
characteristics such as circularity, locations, straightness, cylindricity, and perpendicularity.
Block
Runout
Stacking
Orientation
31. The tolerance amount area of the feature control frame contains a numerical value defining
the actual allowable size of the geometric tolerance zone.
True
False
32. The acronym MMC modifier stands for:
Minimum material condition
Material minimum contrast
Modular material condition
Maximum material condition

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33. A ________ plane is a perfect form that contacts a feature at the three most extreme points.
Reflex
Acute
Tangent
Vertex
34. The LMC modifier allows the geometric tolerance amount to increase as the features size
departs from its least material condition.
True
False
35. The use of the projected tolerance zone symbol indicates the tolerance zone is ________
the actual feature.
Inside
Outside
36. The location where the feature control frame is attached is very important in determining to
which feature the geometric tolerance is applied.
True
False

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MST155-41 Tooling Capstone Project

97 of 108

MST155-41 Tooling Capstone Project

1. Tools are made to meet the needs of:

The company
The toolmaker
The customer
2. A tool may be needed to manufacture a new product, or improve the production and quality
of an existing product.
True
False
3. ________ is the first and most important factor to consider when designing a new tool.
Cost
Safety
Future use of the tool
Ease of use
4. What does the toolmaker prepare to communicate the requirements needed to create a
tool?
Quality guidelines
Process checklist
Material guide
Tooling drawings
5. It is essential for the toolmaker to know the purpose and function of the tool being made.
True
False
6. The primary source of information for manufactured parts is:
Concept drawings
Manufacturers specifications
Engineering drawings
Bill of materials

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7. A toolmaker is responsible for planning the process to make a tool which ensures the tool is
safe to use.
True
False
8. Two of the most popular sources of information a toolmaker may use included the
Machinerys Handbook and:
Machine Shop Guidebook
Machining Data Handbook
Innovative Tooling Solutions
Machine Shop Trade Secrets
9. The process a toolmaker decides upon to make a tool is based on the ________ of the tool
and critical characteristics identified on the engineering drawing.
Weight
Cost
Function
Size
10. The features on the drill jig in the project that will locate the part are ________ features.
Simple
Critical
Minimal
Common
11. A flag note only applies to the feature or dimension where the flag note symbol is shown.
True
False
12. The term ___________ means that the component should be able to be removed and
reassembled and still meet the dimensional requirements of the tool without need for
adjustment.
Transition
Variance
Alteration
Removability

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13. The purpose of identifying the critical requirements and features of a tool allow the
toolmaker to plan the ________ to make the tool.
Cost
Process
Manpower
Time
14. Toolmakers will stress producing the critical features of a tool to the exact required
dimensions and use little of the available tolerances.
True
False
15. ________ refers to marking or scribing the outline, or location, of features on the surface of
the part.
Design
Align
Cut
Layout
16. It is important to scribe precise lines and locations during layout to prevent errors when
cutting or drilling the parts.
True
False

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17. Identify the tools used during the layout process:

18. After a part is cut down to size with a ___________, it can be machined to the final
dimensions by using various power tools such as disc or belt sander.
Band saw
Miter saw
Bench grinder
Back saw
19. A process is a series of steps that should be completed step-by-step.
True
False

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20. Tools are often an assembly made of individual parts, fasteners, and smaller assemblies
called:
Groups
Sets
Subassemblies
Clusters
21. An assembly that is not intended to be taken apart is called a __________ assembly, or
part.
Permanent
Fixed
Removable
Static
22. A single dowel pin in a permanent assembly aligns the mating holes of each part and
establishes the location on one part to another.
True
False
23. In the permanent assembly on this drill jig, what do the cap screws do?
Allow the two parts to move sideways a little
Decrease the strength of the two dowel pins
Add additional strength to prevent the two parts from pulling apart
Push the two parts apart
24. The distance between holes is called hole:
Gap
Spread
Span
Lead
25. What tool should you use to initially mark the intersection of the scribed line representing the
center of the holes for this drill jig?
Chisel
Rat tail file
Dowel pin
Automatic center punch

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26. To avoid the problem of lining up the holes for fasteners by clamping the mating parts
together, you should create the fastener holes in both parts at the same time.
True
False
27. When drilling the holes for the cap screw holes for this drill jig, only the ________ diameter
of the holes should be drilled while the parts are clamped together.
Major
Minor
28. Drilling, reaming, and installing one dowel hole and pin at a time offers the best method of
guaranteeing parts will assemble properly.
True
False
29. A special tool, the ________ ________, is frequently used to make a center mark on a part
from a threaded hole.
Threaded pin
Spiral screw
Transfer screw
Center punch
30. The ________ in the drill jig allow the two subassemblies to be separated and reassembled
in the exact same position every time.
Clamp
Keensert
Dowels
Locators
31. Bullet nose pins and bushings are close fitting components that are regularly used as
locators.
True
False

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32. On the bullet nose pins and bushings locator, what prevents the bushing or the pin from
being pushed out of the part once it is installed?
Lip
Flange
Slot
Thread
33. On the drill jig, the locator holes are ________ features and should be center drilled, drilled,
and reamed on a drill press, or using a drill block and bushings.
Critical
Trivial
Minor
Insignificant
34. If the pins are tight when you try to assemble the two parts, you can ________ the bullet
nose bushing.
File
Bore
Lap
Drill
35. The installation of the locators satisfies the removability obligation of the drill jig.
True
False
36. To align the scribed lines, what tool is used to ensure the highest accuracy for the location
of the hole?
Drill stop
Reamer
Optical center finder
Test indicator
37. Normally the small details of a tool determine if the tool is user-friendly.
True
False

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38. _________ ________ is used to remove any raised edges on the bottom of the clamp and
mating surface of the drill jig.
Scotch pad
Diamond file
Bench grinder
Machinist stone
39. Identify the tools used to layout and mark the radius and chamfers for the drill jig:

40. The tool ____________ _____________ frequently specifies the location and information
that needs to be identified on the tool.
Engineering drawing
Assembly drawing
Machinist handbook

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41. What is used to permanently mark the drill jig to identify the drill number, drill jig
manufacturer, and part location points?
Non-graphic pencil
Permanent marker
Steel stamp
Chisel
42. Deburring is a key task in making a tool safe for a user to use.
True
False
43. Parts that are not deburred, or improperly deburred, can cause minor or serious injuries
when they are handled.
True
False
44. Identify the three different tools used for deburring:

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45. Cleaning allows the toolmaker to make a visual comparison of the finished product to the
tool engineering drawing.
True
False
46. The ________ process makes sure that the tool meets the requirements on the tool
engineering drawing.
Clean up
Deburring
Inspection
Drilling

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