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TEST BOOKLET

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Last Name

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Model

September 2015

PRACTICE TEST

Questions:

25 Multiple-Choice Questions & 3 Short-Answer Questions (5 marks each)

Test Duration:

60 minutes

Total Mark:

40 marks

INSTRUCTION:

Only Bilingual Dictionaries allowed, NO NOTES. This test consists of two part: a) 25 multiple choice questions (numbers 1 to 25) to be answered on the computer answer sheet (25 marks), and b) 5 short-answer (15 marks) questions. A total of 40 marks is available. Write your name and student number in the spaces provided on the computer answer sheet. Carefully fill in the shapes on the computer-marked answer sheet under your name and ID number with a 2B pencil. You must only use a 2B pencil on the computer answer sheet. Please read the instructions on the answer sheet carefully and follow them precisely. Select the best answer to questions. If you are unsure of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and select answer from the remaining alternatives. To indicate your selection, use a 2B pencil to blacken the corresponding oval on the computer answer sheet. No marks are deducted for wrong answers. So students are advised to move on quickly without wasting too much time on one question.

DISCLAIMER:

This mock test is for practice purposes only. It may not represent your instructor’s exam. Doing well on this mock test does not guarantee success on your real test. It also doesn’t guarantee failure. Use this test to find your strength and weaknesses and to see how long it takes to do certain problems.

I,

Student’s Signature

, understand the condition of this practice test as described above.

Date

Multiple-Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is not a triggering factor of RAAS?

A. increased sympathetic nervous system impulses

B. decreased stretch of receptors in afferent arterioles of the glomerulus

C. dehydration or severe haemorrhage

D. increased NaCl filtrate concentration in ascending loop of Henle

2. Which of the following is not a role of a phagocyte?

A. engulf bacteria

B. eat old or damaged cells

C. recognise a specific pathogen and remember it

D. some of them are able to process stuff they ate and present antigen on MHC II

3. If both parents are heterozygous for a recessive trait responsible for a genetic condition, what is the chance the offspring will have the condition?

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 0%

D. 100%

4. Immediately after ovulation,

causes the conversion of ruptured follicle to corpus luteum:

A. FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone)

B. LH (Luteinising hormone)

C. GnRH (Gonadotropin-releasing hormone)

D. Oestrogen

5. All of the following functions are carried out in the renal tubules, except:

A. reabsorption

B. filtration

C. secretion

D. none of the above (All carried out in the renal tubules)

6. The sudden release of LH that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers:

A. repair and regeneration of endometrium

B. oogenesis

C. ovulation

D. spermatogenesis

7. Metastasis is:

A. an alternation in normal cell growth

B. growth of benign or malignant neoplastic cells

C. the ability to establish a secondary neoplasm at a new site

D. all of the above

8.

A child whose mother has type A blood and father has type B blood could have

A. type A or type B blood

B. type AB

C. type O

D. All of the above are possible

9. You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?

A. trypsin

B. amylase

C. cholecystokinin

D. gastrin

10. Which of the followings requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

A. fats/lipids

B. vitamin K

C. carbohydrates

D. vitamin B12

11. The presence of

in the urine may be indicative of

A. protein, healthy kidneys

B. glycogen, urinary tract infection

C. ketones, diabetes

D. insulin, diabetes

12. The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is:

A. chemotaxis

B. antigen presentation

C. phagocytosis

D. diapedesis

13. A couple, both of whom are healthy, have a child with cystic fibrosis. How is this best explained:

A. cystic fibrosis is a dominant disorder and both parents are normal

B. cystic fibrosis is a recessive disorder and both parents are carriers

C. cystic fibrosis is a dominant disorder and both parents are carriers

D. cystic fibrosis is not a genetic disorder and the parents were unlucky

14. Pancreatic islets of Langerhans are

cells that produce and secrete a hypoglycaemic hormone

called

A. exocrine, insulin, fasting, glycogen, fed

B. endocrine, glucagon, fed, insulin, fasting

during

state, and a hyperglycaemic hormone called

C. exocrine, glucagon, fasting, insulin, fed

D. endocrine, insulin, fed, glucagon, fasting

during

state.

15. A macrophage was isolated and analysed for the presence of major histocompatibility complex (MHC). Which of the following would be expected to be present on its cell surface?

A. MHC I only

B. MHC II only

C. MHC I and MHC II

D. neither MHC I nor MHC II

16. Which one of the following structures contains blood?

A. glomerulus

B. proximal convoluted tubule

C. loop of Henle

D. Bowman’s capsule

17. The reason glucose is detected in the urine of individuals with uncontrolled diabetes is because:

A. glucose is secreted in the collecting ducts of diabetics

B. glucose cannot be reabsorbed by the kidney

C. glucose is too large to be filtered by the nephron

D. the transport maximum (renal threshold) for glucose has been exceeded

18. The function of the goblet cells is to:

A. provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the

digestive tract in food

B. absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use

C. secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral

D. produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

19. Which of the following is not true of Huntington’s disease (HD), an autosomal dominant trait?

A. is progressive neurodegenerative disease

B. offspring could become carriers of this trait and will not become affected in their life

C. the symptoms of Huntington’s disease mostly appear in early 40s or later

D. both males and females are equally susceptible to HD

20. The cells that produce testosterone are called:

A. sustentacular cells

B. corpora lutea (singular: corpus luterum)

C. interstitial cells

D. thecal and granulosa cells

21. Without

A. plasma cells

B. macrophages

C. helper T cell

D. mast cells

, there is no adaptive immune system.

22. Which feature is characteristic of a malignant tumour?

A. grow slowly

B. invades local tissues and structures

C. has a well-defined capsule

D. is well-differentiated

23. The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?

A. severe indigestion would occur, caused by the lack of sufficient digestive enzymes

B. bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum

C. the acid secretions from the stomach would be sufficient to digest this food

D. this type of food would cause secretion of gastrin to cease, causing digestive upset

24. Lipogenesis occurs when

A. there is a shortage of fatty acids

B. glucose levels drop significantly and glycogen storage is depleted

C. excess proteins are transported through the cell membrane

D. cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

25. What cell type and antibody type are primarily responsible for initiating asthma attacks?

A. mast cells, IgE

B. macrophages, IgE

C. mast cells, IgD

D. macrophages, IgD

Short Answer Questions

IMMUNE SYSTEM (5 marks)

Hazel Grace Lancaster, a 29-year-old female, has been HIV-positive for at least 10 years. HIV infects vital cells in the immune system such as helper T cells, macrophages and dendritic cells. Answer the following question regarding this scenario.

1. Explain why Hazel is at higher risk of developing opportunistic infections (such as bacterial, fungal and other infections that occur in people with a weakened immune system) and some cancers (such as lymphomas and herpes virus-caused cervical cancer) compared to a HIV-free person. Name a cell that plays the most important, central role in immunity against them (3 Marks)

Werner Pfennig, a 20-year-old sceptical male, is a student nurse at University of South Australia. He is advised that he should be immunised against Hepatitis B so he has done background research on the mechanism of vaccination. Werner is very worried about the possibility of suffering from fatal infections because vaccines contain attenuated pathogens! He is now looking for exogenous antibodies harvested from the plasma of a donor on eBay. Answer the following question regarding this scenario.

2. Do vaccines produce active or passive humoral immunity? Explain your answer. Why is passive immunity less satisfactory? (2 Marks)

DIGESTION, NUTRITION AND METABOLISM (5 marks)

3. The small intestine is known as the major absorption site of the GIT. Explain why the small intestine cannot function properly by itself (i.e., it cannot absorb nutrients without the help of other organs). Name the TWO internal organs that are vital to the functioning of the small intestine. (3 Marks)

4. Gus Waters is a 26 year old patient who recently had a partial gastrectomy a surgical procedure where the lowest part of the stomach is removed. He asked you, a student nurse, why he needs to take vitamin B12, when his small intestine is working perfectly normal. (2 Marks)

REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM (5 marks)

Gus Waters is a 44-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer for which he takes buserelin injection. His wife, Hazel Grace Lancaster, is a 44-year-old with type 1 diabetes, who has been recently suffering from erratic and increasingly shorter menstrual periods. This couple with three lovely daughters has been attempting to have one more child (luckily a boy this time). However, unlike 20 years ago, it has been bitterly unsuccessful. Answer the following question regarding this scenario.

5. After a series of tests, a doctor explains what could possibly be reasons for their fertility issues. Hazel heard something about “oestrogen production declines over time in women”, but she is unsure what this hormone is for. What does the oestrogen cause to happen in the uterine/menstrual cycle? (1 mark)

6. Buserelin is used to control the growth of prostate cancer in men with advanced prostate cancer. It reduces the production of leuinising hormone (LH). What changes would you expect to observe in his testes? (2 marks)

7. A further investigation has revealed that Hazel was accidently injecting buserelin, a drug which reduces the production of LH, instead of insulin for last several months. What changes would you expect to observe in her ovarian cycle due to this drug? (2 marks)