1. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

a. Counsel de officio
b. Attorney on record
c. Attorney at law
d. Special counsel
2. George, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the crime
committed?
a. Murder
b. Parricide
c. Homicide
d. Qualified Homicide
3. What should be conducted in order to determine whether a case falls under the jurisdiction of the
regional Trial Court?
a. Inquest proceeding
b. Preliminary conference
c. Preliminary investigation
d. Search and Seizure
4. PO3 Lespu entered the dwelling of George against the latters will on suspicion that George keep
unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Lespu?
a. Trespass to Dwelling
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Usurpation Of Authority
d. Forcible Trespassing
5. Bert and Berta had been married for more than six months. They live together with the children of
Berta from her first husband. Bert had sexual relationship with Bea, the 14 year old daughter of
Berta. Bea love Bert very much. What was the crime committed by Bert, if any?
a. Simple Seduction
b. Qualified Seduction
c. Consented Abduction
d. Rape
6. Prof. Dimagiba gave a failing grade to one of his students, Tito. When the two met the following
day, Tito slapped Prof. Dimagiba on the face. What was the crime committed by Tito?
a. Corruption of Public Officials
b. Direct Assault
c. Slight Physical Injuries
d. Grave Coercion
7. One of the following persons is not immune from Philippine criminal law.
a. Sovereigns and other chief of state
b. Ambassador
c. Consuls
d. Charges d' Affaires
8. A warrant of arrest was issued against Peter for the killing of his parents. When PO2 Talaw tried to
arrest him, Peter gave him 1 million Pesos to set him free. PO2 Talaw refrained in arresting Peter.
What was the crime committed by PO2 Talaw?
a. Indirect Bribery
b. Direct Bribery
c. Corruption of Public Officials
d. Qualified Bribery

9. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death.
a. parol evidence
b. ante mortem statement
c. suicide note

d. dead man statute

10. The meaning of factum probans.
a. preponderance of evidence
b. ultimate fact
c. evidentiary fact
d. sufficiency of evidence
11. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another.
a. inheritance
b. heritage
c. pedigree
d. culture
12. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance.
a. Appellate Jurisdiction
b. General Jurisdiction
c. Original Jurisdiction
d. Exclusive Jurisdiction
13. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure?
a. Violation of rental laws
b. Violation of traffic laws
c. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
d. The penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment
14. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.
a. jurisdiction
b. jurisprudence
c. venue
d. bench
15. The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.
a. RA 6425
b. RA 8353
c. BP 22
d. RA 6975
16. The taking of another persons personal property, with intent to gain, by means of force and
intimidation.
a. qualified theft
b. robbery
c. theft
d. malicious mischief
17. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do
something against his will, whether right or wrong.
a. grave threat
b. grave coercion
c. direct assault
d. slander by deed

18. Persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to work and neglects
to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
a. pimps
b. prostitutes
c. gang members
d. vagrants
19. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult.
a. tumultuous

b. charivari
c. sedition
d. scandal
20. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to change his residence.
a. violation of domicile
b. arbitrary detention
c. expulsion
d. direct assault
21. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal grounds.
a. illegal detention
b. arbitrary detention
c. forcible abduction
d. forcible detention
22. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband
who knows her to be married, although the marriage be later declared void.
a. concubinage
b. bigamy
c. adultery
d. immorality
23. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.
a. 15-18 years old
b. 18-70 years old
c. 9 years old and below
d. between 9 & 15 years old
24. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or
simultaneous acts.
a. accomplices
b. suspects
c. principal actors
d. accessories
25. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of
a certain time fixed by law.
a. prescription of crime
b. prescription of prosecution
c. prescription of judgement
d. prescription of penalty
26. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.
a. pardon
b. commutation
c. amnesty
d. reprieve
27. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs
of the society.
a. mala prohibita
b. mala in se
c. private crimes
d. public crimes
28. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this
act is connected with the discharge of his public duties.
a. qualified bribery
b. direct bribery
c. estafa
d. indirect bribery

29. The wilful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation, administered by authority of
law on a material matter.
a. libel
b. falsification
c. perjury
d. slander
30. Deliberate planning of act before execution.
a. treachery
b. evident premeditation
c. ignominy
d. cruelty
31. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime.
a. gang
b. conspiracy
c. band
d. piracy
32. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
a. negligence
b. imprudence
c. omission
d. act
33. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the
execution of his criminal plan.
a. misfeasance
b. entrapment
c. inducement
d. instigation
34. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment there is
no penalty imposed.
a. impossible crimes
b. aggravating circumstances
c. absolutory causes
d. complex crimes
35. An alternative circumstance.
a. insanity
b. intoxication
c. passion or obfuscation
d. evident premeditation
36. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty, what shall be entered for him?
a. a plea of not guilty
b. a plea of guilty
c. a plea of mercy
d.plea of surrender
37. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information?
a. at any time before his arrest
b. only after entering his plea
c. any time before entering his plea
d. Monday morning
38. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually
satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval.
a. arraignment

b. plea bargaining
c. preliminary investigation
d. trial
39. The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by him or a bondsman,
conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by
law.
a. subpoena
b. recognizance
c. bail
d. warrant
40. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the acts in issue
in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue.
a. trial
b. arraignment
c. pre-trial
d. judgment
41. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and
the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
a. trial
b. pre-trial
c. arraignment
d. judgment
42. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to
engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably
guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
a. pre-trial
b. arraignment
c. preliminary investigation
d. plea bargaining
43. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence
c. corroborative evidence
d. best evidence

44. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the
proposition affirmed.
a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence
c. corroborative evidence
d. best evidence
45. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as
letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
a. documentary evidence
b.testimonial evidence
c. material evidence
d. real evidence
46. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a. positive evidence
b.corroborative evidence
c. secondary evidence

d. negative evidence
47. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
a. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense
b. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
c. subject of the offense
d. all of the above
48. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception to others.
a. suspects
b. witnesses
c. victims
d. informers
49. The unlawful destruction, or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before the natural time
of birth which results in death.
a. abortion
b. infanticide
c. murder
d. parricide
50. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel
among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be
ascertained.
a. alarm and scandal
b. mysterious homicide
c. death under exceptional circumstances
d. tumultuous affray
51. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical antecedent of the issue
involved in said case and the cognisance of which pertains to another tribunal.
a. legal question
b. juridical question
c. prejudicial question
d. judicial question

52. The offender has been previously punished for an offense to which the law attaches an equal or
greater penalty or two or more crimes to which it attaches a lighter penalty.
a. reiteracion
b. recidivism
c. quasi-recidivism
d. habitual delinquency
53. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
intentional.
a. impossible crime
b. mistake of facts
c. accidental crime
d. complex crime
54. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than.
a. 36 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

55. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.

a. ignorantia legis non excusat
b. parens patriae
c. res ipsa loquitur
d. dura lex sed lex
56. An act which would be an offense against persons or property were if not for the inherent
impossibility of its accomplishment.
a. compound crime
b. impossible crime
c. complex crime
d. accidental crime
57. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
a. RA 5425
b. RA 8553
c. RA 7659
d. RA 8551
58. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will at the time of
the commission of the crime.
a. discernment
b. insanity
c. epilepsy
d. imbecility
59. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author.
a. responsibility
b. duty
c. guilt
d. imputability
60. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about through some
acts of our will, lies beyond the bounds of humanly foreseeable consequences.
a. fortuitous event
b. fate
c. accident
d. destiny
61. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party ,
any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
a. subpoena
b. information
c. complaint
d. writ
62. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended not to protect the
guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can, the conviction of an innocent person.
a. right to due process of law
b. presumption of innocence
c. right to remain silent
d. right against self-incrimination
63. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices, usages and rules of action which are
not recognized in our country.
a. penal laws
b. special laws
c. common laws
d. statutory laws

64. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that
would make an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability.
a. exempting
b. alternative
c. justifying
d. aggravating
65. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs
no criminal and civil liability.
a. exempting
b. alternative
c. justifying
d. aggravating
66. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffer slowly and gradually, causing
him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
a. ignominy
b. cruelty
c. treachery
d. masochism
67. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final
judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
a. recidivism
b. habitual delinquency
c. reiteracion
d. quasi-recidivism
68. Alevosia means
a. craft
b. treachery
c. evident premeditation
d. cruelty

69. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial.
a. ex post facto law
b. equal protection of the law
c. rule of law
d. due process of law
70. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of
serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of
any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
a. recidivist
b. quasi-recidivist
c. habitual delinquent
d. hardened criminal
71. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
a. Primary
b. Best
c. Secondary
d. Conclusive
72. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
a. Primary
b. Best
c. Secondary
d. Conclusive

73. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires.
a. leading
b. misleading
c. stupid
d. hearsay
74. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed
a crime, and for their punishment in case of conviction.
a. Criminal Law
b. Criminal Evidence
c. Criminal Procedure
d. Criminal Jurisprudence
75. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.
a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 40 years
76. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.
a. accomplices
b. accessories
c. instigators
d. principals
77. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which casts dishonor, discredit, or
contempt upon another person.
a. libel
b. slander by deed
c. incriminating innocent person
d. intriguing against honor
78. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.
a. misfeasance
b. malfeasance
c. nonfeasance
d. dereliction
79. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or officer.
a. subpoena
b. writ
c. warrant
d. affidavit
80. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of law.
a. alias
b. common name
c. fictitious name
d. screen name
81. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having been convicted by final
judgment, shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving the
same.
a. quasi-recidivism
b. recidivism
c. reiteracion
d. charivari
82. Which of the following is not a person in authority.
a. Municipal mayor
b. Private School Teacher

c. Police Officer
d. Municipal Councilor
83. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or disturbances in the State.
a. Sedition
b. Rebellion
c. Treason
d. Coup detat
84. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. 10 days
d. 60 days
85. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or employee.
a. illegal detention
b. arbitrary detention
c. compulsory detention
d. unauthorized detention
86. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
a. treason
b. espionage
c. rebellion
d. coup detat
87. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.
a. sanctuary
b. prison
c. jail
d. dwelling
88. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong.
a. treachery
b. premeditation
c. recidivism
d. discernment
89. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.
a. Estafa
b. Murder
c. Rebellion
d. Rape
90. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended.
a. Aberratio ictus
b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
91. It means mistake in the blow.
a. Aberratio Ictus
b. Error in Personae
c. Dura lex sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
92. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are
present.
a. Attempted
b. Frustrated

c. Consummated
d. Accomplished
93. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
intentional.
a. Absolutory Cause
b. Mistake of facts
c. Conspiracy
d. Felony
94. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
a. Material
b. Formal
c. Seasonal
d. Continuing
95. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious.
a. Culpable
b. Intentional
c. Deliberate
d. Inculpable

96. It indicates deficiency of perception.

a. Negligence
b. Diligence
c. Imprudence
d. Inference
97. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.
a. Offenses
b. Misdemeanours
c. Felonies
d. Ordinances
98. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons who live or sojourn in the
Philippines.
a. General
b. Territorial
c. Prospective
d. Retroactive
99. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.
a. Bill of Attainder
b. Bill of Rights
c. Ex Post Facto Law
d. Penal Law
100.
The taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
a. Search
b. Seizure
c. Arrest
d. Detention
101.

Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?

a. Robbery
b. Farm Theft
c. Qualified Theft
d.Simple Theft

102.
Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year old girlfriend without
threat, force or intimidation. What was the crime committed?
a. Child rape
b. Qualified Rape
c. Statutory Rape
d. None
103.

The Revised Penal Code may be enforced outside the jurisdiction of the Philippines when

a. one commits an offense on any ship or airship.

b. one introduces into the Philippines any counterfeit coin.
c. a public officer enters into a bigamous marriage.
d. one commits a crime against national security.
104.

A warrantless search is valid when the search is made by

a. a customs officers at the home of a known smuggler.

b. anti-drug enforcers.
c. policemen at a COMELEC checkpoint.
d. NBI agents looking for a bomb at a mall.
105.

A justifying circumstance is exemplified by

a. a retreat from aggression.

b. a pre-emptive blow.
c. a counter blow.
d. a good intention
106.
A person walks into a police station and declares that he has committed a crime before the
police could take him into custody. May his declaration be admitted against him?
a. No since he has not been forewarned of his rights to silence and to counsel.
b. Yes since he made his declaration before he could be taken into custody and investigated.
c. No since he has entered the police station and came within its jurisdiction.
d. Yes since he freely gave his declaration to the police.
107.

Rape is sexual intercourse with the use of

a. deceit
b. moral ascendance
c. intrigue
d. force or intimidation.
108.

The act of the police in placing the accused in a police line-up without his prior consent

a. violates his right against self-incrimination.

b. violates his right to counsel.
c. constitutes a valid police investigation procedure.
d. is valid conditioned on his being identified at the trial.
109.

A qualifying circumstance cannot be presumed, but must be established by

a. proof beyond reasonable doubt

b. clear and convincing evidence
c. substantial evidence
d. preponderance of evidence
110.

Fines when imposed alone as penalty, in the amount of 200 pesos and less is considered

a. Afflictive Penalty
b. Correctional Penalty
c. Light penalty
d. None of the Above
111.
What is the sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the
offended party, any peace officer or other employee of the government or government institution
in change of the enforcement or execution of the law violated?
a. Deposition
b. Complaint

c. Police blotter
d. Information
112.

The authority of the court to take cognizance of a case in the first instance is known as:

a. original jurisdiction
b. appellate jurisdiction
c. general jurisdiction
d. delegated jurisdiction
113.
A Theory justifying penalty where the criminal is punished to serve as an example to deter
others from committing crimes.
a. Theory of Prevention
b. Theory of Self-Defense
c. Theory of Reformation
d. Theory of Exemplarity
114.

Intoxication when considered under the law is considered

a. Alternative Circumstance
b. Maladaptive Behavior
c. Delinquent act
d. Anti social Behavior
115.
a.
b.
c.
d.
116.

One of the following accessory is not exempt from criminal liability.

When the Principal is his Spouse
When the Principal is his Ascendant
When the Principal is his Descendant
None of the Above
Under the RPC, aresto menor is imposed for a

a. Grave Felonies
b. Less Grave Felonies
c. Light Felonies
d. None of the Above
117.

In Criminal Law, Abberatio Ictus means

a. Mistake in Identity
b. Mistake in Blow
c. Lack of Intent to commit so grave a wrong
d. None of the Above
118.
This classification of felony has the following requisites: freedom, intelligence, negligence,
and imprudence.
a. Culpable Felonies
b. Intentional Felonies
c. Unintentional Felonies
d. None of the Above
119.
A stabbed B. A brought B to a hospital for medical treatment. Had it not been the timely
medical attendance. B
would have died. This is a case of
a. a physical injury
b. an attempted felony
c. a consummated felony
d. a frustrated felony
120.

Which of the following is not a limitation on power of congress to enact penal laws?

a. Ex post facto law

b. Bill of Attainder
c. Law that violates the equal protection clause of the constitution.
d. None of the Above
121.
Trial is allowed only after arraignment and the accused may waive his right to appear at the
trial except when his presence is required for purposes of identification. This is the principle of

trial in __.
a. Substitution
b. Absentia
c. Re-assignment
d. Ordeal
122.
When the law is favorable to the accused, is an exception to which characteristic
of criminal law.
a. General
b. Territorial
c. Prospective
d. Retroactive
123.
Penal laws of the Philippines are enforceable only within its territory. This characteristic
of criminal law is known as
a. General
b. Territorial
c. Prospective
d. None of the above
124.
Basis is the sum of social and economic phenomena which conditions man to do wrong in
spite of or contrary to his
volition. This theory of criminal law is known as
a. Classical Theory
b. Positivist Theory
c. Mixed Theory
d. None of the above
125.

What is the Latin term for criminal intent?

a. Mens Rea
b. Magna Culpa
c. Inflagrante Delicto
d. Mala Vise
126.
Some motive which has lawfully, morally, or physically prevented a person to do what the
law commands.
a. Absolutory cause
b. Insuperable cause
c. Mitigating circumstance
d. None of the Above
127.

En Cuadrillia means

a. Uninhabited place
b. Band
c. Nighttime
d. None of the Above
128.

Which of the following is not one of the three types of principals?

a. Principal by Direct Participation

b. Principal by Induction
c. Principal by Indispensable Cooperation
d. None of the Above
129.
Is committed whenever the offender commences the commission of a crime directly by overt
acts but does not perform all the acts of execution which should produce the felony as a
consequence by reason of some cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance.
a. Frustrated felony
b. Attempted felony
c. Consummated felony
d. Felony
130.

Suffering inflicted by the state for the transgression of a law.

a. Reward
b. Advantage

c. Penalty
d. None of the Above
131.
Placing a weapon in the hand of the dead who was unlawfully killed to plant evidence or
burying the deceased who was killed by the mastermind. This is an example of
a. A Principal
b. An Accomplice
c. An Accessory
d. None of the Above
132.

The primary purpose of bail is

a. to protect the accused rights

b. to keep the accused in jail until trial
c. to punish the accused for the crime
d. to release the accused
133.

One of the following is not a crime against the Fundamental Laws of the State.

a. Qualified Piracy
b. Arbitrary Detention
c. Delaying Release
d. Expulsion
134.
It is the offense committed by expelling a person from the Philippines or by compelling a
person to change his residence.
a. Light Threats
b. light Coercion
c. Expulsion
d. Grave Threats
135.
The filing of the complaint even with the fiscals office should suspend the running of the
Statute of Limitations.
This is:
a. True
b. False
c. Partially false
d. None of the above
136.
If facts do not completely allege all the elements of the crime charged, the info may be
quashed; however, the prosecution is allowed to amend the info to include the necessary facts.
a. True
b. Partially true
c. False
d. Partially false
137.
Defined as the joinder of separate and distinct offenses in one and the same
information/complaint
a. Motion to Quash
b. Duplicity of offense
c. Double Jeopardy
d. None of the above
138.
The civil action involves an issue similar or intimately related to the issue raised in
the criminal action.
a. Duplicity of offense
b. Double Jeopardy
c. Prejudicial question
d. None of the above
139.
A Theory of justifying penalty to prevent or suppress the danger to the state arising from
the criminal act of the offender.
a. Prevention
b. Self-Defense
c. Reformation
d. Exemplarity

140.
Crimes committed aboard foreign vessel within the territorial waters of a country are not
triable in the courts of such country. In Criminal law, this principle is known as
a. The Philippine Rule
b. The English Rule
c. The French Rule
d. None of the Above
141.
Crimes committed aboard a foreign vessel within the territorial waters of a country are
triable in the courts of such country. In Criminal law, this principle is known as
a. The Philippine Rule
b. The English Rule
c. The French Rule
d. None of the Above
142.
For Offenses committed aboard foreign vessel committed in Philippine waters. What
principle is applicable to the Philippines.
a. The Philippine Rule
b. The English Rule
c. The French Rule
d. None of the Above
143.

These Felonies are committed by means of fault.

a. Culpable Felonies
b. Intentional Felonies
c. Unintentional Felonies
d. None of the Above
144.

This classification of felony has the following requisites, freedom, intelligence, and intent.

a. Culpable Felonies
b. Intentional Felonies
c. Unintentional Felonies
d. None of the Above
145.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an offense mala prohibita?

a. Mitigating and aggravating circumstance is not generally taken into account

b. Degree of accomplishment of the crime is taken into account only when consummated
c. Good Faith is not a defense
d. Moral trait of offender is considered
146.
A Stage in the execution of felonies when all the elements necessary for its execution and
accomplishment are present.
a. Consummated
b. Frustrated
c. Attempted
d. None of the Above
147.
The General Rule is that light felonies are punishable only when they have been
consummated. One of the following is an exception.
a. If committed against the law of the nation
b. If committed against public order
c. If committed against persons or property
d. None of the Above
148.

Accusation in writing charging a person with an offense,

subscribed by the fiscal and filed with the court.
A. Information
B. Complaint
C. Affidavit
D. Memorandum

149.
This Aggravating Circumstance is present when the culprit enjoys and delights in making his
victim suffer slowly and gradually, causing unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of
the criminal act.
a. Ignominy
b. Cruelty
c. Obscuridad
d. Disfraz
150.
Persons who do not act as principals but cooperate in the execution of the offense by
previous and simultaneous acts, which are not indispensable to the commission of the crime.
a. Principal
b. Accomplice
c. Accessory
d. None of the Above