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BABU MEDICAL ACADEMY

Umashanker Nagar, Kanuru, Vijayawada.

WEEKEND 3
Sub : BOTANY
Dt : 12 -07 - 2015
1.
Find the incorrect on Bryophytes
(1) Sex organs are multicellular, jacketed
(2) Zooidogamy is present
(3) First embryophytes
(4) Evolved tracheophytes.
[
]
2.
Find the incorrect on Pteridophytes
(1) First true land plants
(2) They need water for gametic transfer
(3) xylem first appeared in these plants
(4) Companion cells are present.
[
]
3.
Embryophytic atracheophytes are
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Algae
(4) Gymnosperms.
[
]
4.
External fertilisation is not found in
1) Algae
2) Bryophytes
3) Pteridophytes
4) Angiosperms
(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 2, 3, 4
(3) 3, 4, 1
(4) 1, 2, 4
[
]
5.
In Angiosperms female gamete is found in
(1) Archegonium
(2) Embryosac
(3) Nucellus
(4) Carpogonium
[
]
6.
Vegetative propagation is least found in
(1) Algae & Bryophytes
(2) Bryophytes & Pteridophytes
(3) Pteidophytes & Gymnosperms
(4) Gymnosperms & Angiosperms
[
]
7.
Zoospores is a form of --------- reproduction
(1) Vegetative
(2) Asexual
(3) Sexual
(4) Both Sexual &Asexual [
]
8.
Majority of the plants of which group exhibits xerophytic characters
(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Angiosperms
(4)None
[
]
9.
Which of the following group of plants bear the structures analogues to roots
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms
[
]
10.
Which group of plants live in wide variety of habitats
(1) Gymnosperms
(2) Angiosperms
(3) Bryophytes
(4) Pteridophytes
[
]
11.
Find the true statement
I Fungi shows retrogressive sexual reproduction
II Algae shows progressive sexual reproduction
(1) I & II
(2) I only
(3) II only
(4) None
[
]
12.
A group having plants with similarity in body organisation and dissimilarity in nutrition is
(1) Tracheophytes
(2) Thallophyta
(3) Embryophyte
(4) Archeogoniatae
[
]
13.
Archegonium appears in------- and disappears in ------- group of plants respectively
(1) Bryophyte, Pteridophyte
(2) Pteridophyte, Angiosperms
(3) Bryophytes, Angiosperms
(4) Bryophyte, Gymnosperms
[
]
14.
Endosperm in Gymnosperms is
(1) Haploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Triploid
(4) Tetraploid
[
]
15.
In Angiosperms the pollination is indirect because
(1) Ovary is absent
(2) Ovary is present (3) Ovule is present (4) Ovule is absent [
]
16.
A : Archegoniate, Embryophytic and atracheophytic cryptogams are called amphibians of plant kingdom.
R : Bryophytes live in moist soil and are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
[
]
17.
In evolutionary order predecessors of pteridophytes
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Algae
(4) None
[
]

18.
19.
20.
21.
22.

23.

24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.

Phylloids and cauloids are seen in


(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms
[
Cryptogamic embryophytes are
1) Bryophytes
2) Pteridophytes
3) Gymnosperms
4) Angiosperms
(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 3
(3) 3, 4
(4) 1, 4
[
Primitive form of gametic fusion is
(1) Oogamy
(2) Isogamy
(3) Anisogamy
(4) None
[
]
Find the incorrect on Algin
(1) Extracted from Brown Algae
(2) It is an inner layer of the cell wall
(3) Hydrocolloid in nature
(4) Used as antibiotic
[
In oogamy,(with reference to Algae)
(1) Female gamate is large and motile
(2) Male gamate is larger and motile
(3) Male gamate is smaller and motile
(4) Female gamete is large and non - motile
Correct are
(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 3
(3) 3, 4
(4) 1, 4
[
Which of the following Algae are used as food
1) Laminaria
2) Geledium
3) Porphyra
4) Gracilaria
5) Fucus
6) Sargassum
(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 1, 2, 6
(3) 1, 3, 6
(4) 2, 4, 5
[
Iodine is extracted from
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Pheophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae (4) Any class of Algae
[
Conduction of water in byrophytes is by
(1) Tracheids
(2) Tracheids & vessel
(3) Tracheids & Xylem fibres
(4) None[
Both sex organs and sexual reproduction are not found in
(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Phycomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes[
Eukarya domain includes
1) Monera
2) Protista
3) Fungi
4) Plantae
5) Animalia
(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 2, 3, 4
(3) 3, 4, 5
(4) 1, 3, 5
[
Find the incorrect on Animalia kingdom
(1) Holophytic nutrition
(2) Definite growth pattern
(3) Elaborate sensory and neuromotor mechanism (4) Sexual reproduction is by Copulation
[
Non Living feature of virus is
(1) Infectious Nature
(2) Obligate Parasite (3) Crystalline structure
(4) Replication[
A free RNA is found in
(1) Virus
(2) Viroid
(3) Prion
(4) Nucleon
[
Which of the following is pollution indicator
(1)Virus
(2) Algae
(3)Lichen
(4)Fungi
[
Usually phytophages contain
(1)RNA
(2)DNA
(3)Either RNA or DNA
(4)None
[
Reserved food material in animals is
(1) Starch
(2) Glycogen or fat (3) Mostly starch
(4) Rarely starch
[
The word pollen grain begins from
(1)Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4)Angiosperms
[
Non Spermatophytic tracheophyte is
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms
[
Unicellular sex organs are found in
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Algae
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Angiosperms
[
Extensive and highly variable metabolic diversity is shown by
(1) Protista
(2) Monera
(3) Fungi
(4) Virus
[
Bioluminiscence is found in
(1) Chrysophytes
(2) Dinoflagellates (3) Protista
(4) Monera
[

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39.
40.
41.
42.

43.
44.
45.

46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

51.
52.

Find the organisms with cell wall.


(1)Mycoplasma
(2)Slime mould
(3) Euglena
(4) Sacharomyces
[
]
Most notorious protozoan is in
(1)Amoeboid protozoans
(2)Ciliated protozoans(3)Flgaellated Protozoans(4) Sporozaons
[
]
ZOOLOGY
Which exerts greatest control over the bodys responsiveness to changing external and internal
environment
(1) Connective Tissue
(2) Nervous Tissue (3) supporting tissue
(4) All.
[
]
Match the following :
List A
List B
(A)
Neuron
(i)
Cardiac muscle
A
B
C
D
(B)
Neuroglia
(ii)
Supporting cells
1)
v
ii
i
iii
(C)
Intercolated discs(Ids)
(iii)
Actin & Myosin
2)
v
ii
i
iv
(D)
Myofilament
(iv)
Pacemaker
3)
i
ii
iv
iii
(v)
Impulse conducting 4)
iv
v
ii
iii
When a neuron is excited an electric disturbance is generated which swiftly travels along its
(1) sarcoplasmic reticulum (2) Ribosomes
(3) Nissl bodies
(4) Plasma Membrane.[ ]
Which represent RER sites of protein synthesis in cyton
(1) Lipofusicn bodies
(2) Nissl bodies
(3) Neurofibrils
(4) None
[
]
Match the following :
List A
List B
(A)
Groups of cellbodies in CNS (i)
Ganglion
A
B
C
D
(B)
Groups of cellbodies in PNS (ii)
Errector pili
1)
v
i
iii
iv
(C)
Groups of Axons in CNS
(iii)
Tracts
2)
v
i
iii
ii
(D)
Groups of Axons in PNS
(iv)
Nerves
3)
ii
v
iv
iii
(v)
Neucleus
4)
i
ii
iii
iv[
]
The products of cellular wear and tear accumulating in lysosomes with age are
(1) Nissl Bodies
(2) Lipofuscin granules
(3) Neurofibrils
(4) All
[
]
Afferent processes conduct nerve impulses towards cellbodies they donot contain
(1) Neurofibrils
(2) Nissl Bodies
(3) Branches
(4) Lipofuscin granules[
]
Which neurons are present in retina, internal ear and olfactory sensory epithelium
(1) Multipolar Neurons
(2) Unipolar Neurons (3) Bipolar Neurons (4) All
[
]
Which of the following are mesodermal in origin in the nervous system
(1) Neurons
(2) Epydermal cells (3) Astrocytes
(4) Microglial cells [
]
Match the following :
List A
List B
(A)
Oligodendriocytes
(i)
Neurilemma around axons A
B
C
D
(B)
Astrocytes
(ii)
Microglial cells
1)
v
iv
ii
iii
(C)
Mesodermal
(iii)
Ciliated
2)
v
iv
ii
i
(D)
Schwann cells
(iv)
Blood brain barrier 3)
iv
v
ii
i
(v)
Form myelin sheath 4)
i
ii
iii
v [ ]
Supporting, non conducting cells that provide a microenvironment suitable for neuronal activity which
continue to divide
(1) Unipolar neurons
(2) Multipolar neurons
(3) Bipolar neurons (4) Neuroglial cells[ ]
A : Cardiac muscle works as a functional syncytium
R : The excitation of one myocardial cell results in the excitation of all other myocardial cells quickly
to produce a whole hearted contraction of entire cardiac muscle as a single unit
(1) A & R are correct. R is correct explanation of A
(2) A & R are correct. R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct, R is wrong
(4) A & R are both wrong
[
]

53.
54.
55.

56.
57.
58.
59.

60.
61.
62.
63.
64.

65.

The muscle which is highly resistant to fatigue


(1) Smooth muscle
(2) Skeletal muscle
(3) Cardiac muscle (4) Visceral muscle[
Quiescent cells which help in regenration of striated muscle are
(1) Schwann cells
(2) Intercolated discs
(3) Astrocytes
(4) Satellite cells[
A : The cardiac muscle of vertebrates does not require any nerve stimulus to contract
R : In the vertebrates cardiac muscle can produce impulses spontaneously from a specialized auto
rhythmic structure called pace maker
(1) A & R are correct, R explains A
(2) A & R are correct, R cannot explain A
(3) A is correct. R is wrong
(4) Both A & R wrong
[
Cardiac muscle shows a whole hearted contractions of the entire muscle as a single unit hence it is
described as
(1) Structural synctium
(2) Funtional synctium
(3) Myoglia (4) None
[
Striated muscle which is highly resistant to fatigue
(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Smooth muscle (3) Cardiac muscle (4) Muscles of gris
[
In the skin of a mammal which muscles are attached to hair follicles
(1) Iris muscles
(2) Biceps muscle
(3) Arrector pili
(4) Pacemaker
[
Match the following :
List A
List B
(A)
Slow, prolonged contractions (i)
Cardiac muscle
A
B
C
D
(B)
Contract quickly,
(ii)
Spasms
1)
v
iii
i
ii
fatigue quickly
(C)
Gap junctions
(iii)
Skeletal muscle
2)
v
iii
i
iv
(D)
Sustained involuntary
(iv)
Neuroglia
3)
iv
iii
ii
i
Contractions is called
(v)
Visceral muscle
4)
i
ii
iii
iv[
The pancreatic ducts are lined by
(1) Stratified columnar epithelium
(2) Transitional Epithelium
(3) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium
[
Goblet cells are
(1) Endocrine glands
(2) Holocrine glands
(3) Unicellular glands
(4) Multicellular glands
[
Visceral bone in the heart of ruminates is
(1) Sesmoid bone
(2) Ospenis
(3) Osheartalis
(4) Oscordis [
Non phagocytic granulocytes are
(1) Basophils
(2) Monocytes
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) Neutrophils[
Match the following :
List A(WB(3)
List B (Nucleus)
(A)
Acidophils
(i)
2 to 5 lobed
A
B
C
D
(B)
Basophils
(ii)
Kidney shaped
1)
v
iv
i
iii
(C)
Neutrophils
(iii)
Spherical
2)
v
iv
i
ii
(D)
Monocytes
(iv)
Irregular
3)
iv
v
i
ii
(v)
Bilobed
4)
iii
ii
i
iv[
Match the following :
List A
List B
(A)
Heparin
(i)
Vasodilator
A
B
C
D
(B)
Histamine
(ii)
Antibody
1)
v
i
iv
ii
(C)
Serotonin
(iii)
Clotting protein
2)
v
i
iv
iii
(D)
Immuno globulin
(iv)
Vasoconstrictor
3)
v
ii
iii
i
(v)
Anticoagulant
4)
i
ii
iii
iv[

]
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66.

67.

68.
69.
70.

71.

72.

73.
74.
75.
76.
77.

Match the following :


List A
(A)
Reserpine
(B)
Vinblastin
(C)
Digitalin
(D)
Quinine

List B
(i)
Digitalis
A
B
C
D
(ii)
Rauwolfia
1)
ii
iii
i
v
(iii)
Vinca rosea
2)
v
iv
iii
ii
(iv)
Cinchona
3)
ii
iii
iv
i
(v)
Tectona
4)
ii
iii
i
iv[
]
Study the following statements. Identify the correct statements
(A) Animal cells do not have cellulose cell walls, but they are held together by structural proteins of which
collagen is the most abundant protein and unique to the animal kingdom
(B) The diploblastic organisms show co ordination between body parts due to the presence of sensory
cells and nerve cells
(C) Evolution of tissues, development of bilateral symmetry and origin of body cavity are successively
considered the first, second and third key transitions in the animal organisation
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) ALL
[
]
Which will transmit nerve impulse away from the cyton to an interneuronal or neuro muscular junction
(1) Dendrite
(2) Lipofuscin
(3) Soma
(4) Axon
[
]
Which will connect sensory neurons and motor neurons in CNS
(1) Myelinated neurons
(2) Interneurons
(3) Multipolar neurons(4) None
[
]
Which epithelium is seen in the endothelium of blood vessels, mesothelium of body cavities,lining of
alveoli of lungs
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(2) Simple ciliated columnar epithelium
(3) Transitional epithelium
(4) Stratified non keratinized squamous epithelium[
]
Match the following :
List A
List B
(A)
Cellular extensions
(i)
Cilia
A
B
C
D
(B)
Short hair like organelles
(ii)
Tentacles
1)
v
i
iv
iii
(C)
Whip like organelles
(iii)
Myonemes
2)
v
i
iv
ii
(D)
Contractile fibrils
(iv)
Flagella
3)
i
ii
iii
iv
(v)
Pseudopodia
4)
iv
iii
ii
v[
]
List A
List B
List C (Example)
(A)
Blunt finger like

Lobopodia

Amoeba
(B)
Finger like

Filopodia

Englypha
(C)
Net like

Reticulopodia

Entamoeba
(D)
Sun ray like

Axopodia (or) heliopodia

Actinophrys
Which form correct match
(1) A & B Only
(2) B & C Only
(3) B, C & D only (4) A, B & D only[ ]
Modern research bring the role of which molecules in the pseudopodial movement
(1) Actin & Collagen
(2) Tubulin & chitin
(3) Actin & Myosin (4) None
[
]
The most primitive and slowest type of locomotion
(1) Amoeboid
(2) Falgellar
(3) Pseudopodial
(4) 1 & 3
[
]
More appropriate theory that explains amoeboid movement
(1) Allens theory of back contraction theory
(2) Whithakers theory of sol gel conversion theory
(3) Allens theory of front contraction or fountain zone theory
(4) ALL
[
]
Macrophages, neutrophils of higher metazoans perform
(1) Flagellar movement
(2) Coliary movement
(3) Gliding movement
(4) Amoeboid movement
[
]
Study the following statements and choose the correct ones
I) The doublets of the basal granules are converted into flagellar triplets
II) Basal granule is connected to plasma membrane and nucleus by communication tubules called rootlets
III) The rootlets can pull the flagellum and alter its orientation

(1) I & II Only


78.

79.
80.
81.

82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.

89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.

(2) II & III only

(3) I, II, III

(4) None

As per the number of flagella arrange these mastigophorans in Ascending order


(1) Giardia
(2) Euglena (3) Trichomones
(4) Trichonympha
E)Trypanosoma
(1) A B C D E
(2) E D C B A
(3) E B C A D
(4) C A E B D
[
]
Mastigonemes and flimmens are
(1) Structures of kinetosome
(2) Structures of cilia
(3) Lateral appendages of flagellum
(4) Lateral appendages of pseudopodium [
]
In each doublet of axoneme which microtubule is larger and incomplete
(1) Microtubule A
(2) Microtubule B
(3) Microtubule C
(4) None[
]
PHYSICS
An arrow while being shot from a bow was accelerated over a distance of 0.6m. If its speed at the moment
it left the bow was 160 m/s, the acceleration imparted by the bow to the arrow in m/s, assuming that it
accelerates uniformly is ____.
(1) 16000
(2) 20480
(3) 18240
(4) 14820
[
]
A body moving from rest with uniform acceleration travels a distance S1 in the first t seconds and travels a
distance S2 with uniform velocity in the next 2t seconds, then
(1) S1 = 4S2
(2) S1 = 2S2
(3) S2 = 4S1
(4) S2 = 2S1 [
]
Starting from rest a body travels 36m in the first 2 seconds of its journey. Find the distance it can travel in
the 11th second ?
(1) 72m
(2) 108m
(3) 144m
(4) 189m
[
]
A body moving with uniform acceleration has a velocity of 40 m/s at an instant and 60 m/s after 10
seconds. What is the velocity of the body 4 sec before that instant ?
(1) 16 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 24 m/s
(4) 32 m/s
[
]
Moving with uniform acceleration, a body covers 150 m during 10 sec so that it covers 24 m during the
tenth second. Find the acceleration of the body ?
(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 1 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2
[
]
The velocity of a body at an instant is 20 m/s. After 5s velocity is 30 m/s. How many seconds earlier from
an instant, it might have started, assuming uniform acceleration.
(1) 15 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 20 s
[
]
A train moving with uniform retardation has its speed reduced from 80 m/s to 40 m/s while passing over 0.5
km. It comes to rest in another distance of ____ km.
(1) 1
(2) 1/6
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/3
[
]
Two cars traveling towards each other on a straight road at velocities 10 m/s and 16 m/s respectively. When
they are 40m apart, both the drivers apply the brakes and the cars decelerate at 6 m/s2 and 8 m/s2 until they
stop. How far apart will they be when they have come to a stop ?
(1) 16 m
(2) 12 m
(3) 24 m
(4) 28 m
[
]
A car A moving with a uniform velocity of 44 m/s overtakes another car B which is just moving from rest
with an acceleration of 4 m/s2. After how much time do they meet again ?
(1) 44 s
(2) 11 s
(3) 22 s
(4) 88 s
[
]
A car is moving along a circular path with a uniform speed of 20 m/s. Find the difference in the velocities
of the car when it is diametrically opposite points.
(1) 0 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 40 m/s
[
]
The distances through which a stone falls in 5, 6, 7 seconds are in the ratio
(1) 25 : 36 : 49
(2) 7 : 6 : 5
(3) 5 : 6 : 7
(4) 49 : 36 : 25 [
]
The distances through which a stone falls in 6th, 7th and 8th seconds are in the ratio
(1) 15 : 13 : 11
(2) 11 : 13 : 15
(3) 6 : 7 : 8
(4) 36 : 49 : 64 [
]
A body falls through x m in a particular second. In the previous second it fell through ___ m.
(1) g
(2) ( x + g )
(3) ( x g )
(4) x / g
[
]
A brick falls from a building and travels 49 m in the last second before reaching the ground.
The height of the building is
(1) 122.5 m
(2) 152 m
(3) 79 m
(4) 149 m
[
]

95.
96.
97.

98.
99.

100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.

107.
108.

109.

110

111.

A brick falls from a building and travels 49 m in the last second before reaching the ground.
The average velocity of the stone during its journey in m/s is
(1) 27
(2) 30
(3) 20.6
(4) 29.72
[
]
A ball takes t seconds to fall from a height h1 and 2t seconds to fall from height h2 then h2 / h1 is
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.25
(3) 2
(4) 4
[
]
Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 fall from height h1 and h2 respectively. The ratio of their velocities,
when they hit the ground is
(1) m1h1 / m2h2
(2) ( h1 / h2 )2
(3) (h1 / h2 )
(4) m1h2 / m2h1 [
]
A stone is dropped from a height of 122.5 m. Two seconds later another is dropped from the same height. If
both of them reach the ground at the same time, the velocity initially of the second stone is ____ m/s
(1) 70
(2) 44.1
(3) 29.4
(4) 26.1
[
]
Starting from rest a body travels with uniform acceleration a for some time and then with uniform
retardation b for some more time and comes to rest. If the total time of journey is t seconds, the
maximum velocity attained by the body is
[
]
(1) t( a + b )/ab
(2) (a(2) t / ( a + b )
(3) ( a + b ) t / 2ab (4) ( ab ) t2 / 2( a + b )
A car traveling at 60 kmph overtakes another car traveling at 42 kmph. Assuming each car to be 5.0 m
long, find the time taken during the overtake
(1) 6 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 3 s
(4) 2 s
[
]
-5
If linear coefficient of expansion is 18 x 10 / K, its value on F is
(1) 10-4 / F
(2) 22.4 / 104 / F
(3) 36 / 104 / F
(4) none
[
]
-5
If = 18 x 10 / K then =
(1) 54 x 10-5 / K
(2) 9 x 10-5 /K
(3) 27 x 10-5 /K
(4) 45 x 10-5 / K [
]
A crystal has a coefficient of expansion 13 x 10-5 / K in one direction and 231 x 10-5 / K in other directions at
right angles to it. Then the coefficient of cubical expansion is ___ x 10-5 / K.
(1) 462
(2) 244
(3) 475
(4) 257
[
]
A metallic bar is heated up from 0C to 100C, the percentage change in length is
(1) 0.01%
(2) 0.1%
(3) 1%
(4) 10%
[
]
The coefficient of areal expansion of a body is
(1) 3 times
(2) 1/3 times
(3) 3/2 times
(4) 2/3 times [
]
Two rods of length l1 and l2 with coefficients of linear expansion 1 and 2 are arranged so that the
difference in length remains the same at all temperatures. The condition is
(1) l11 =- l22
(2) l12 = l21
(3) 1 + l11 =- 1 l22 (4) 1 + l12 = 1 + l21
[
]
The gap that must be left during the construction of a railway track, if l1 is its initial length of the rail is
(1) l1 / ( t2 t1 )
(2) l1 ( t2 t1 )
(3) l1 / ( t2 t1 )
(4) / ( t2 t1 ) [
]
An iron rod is one metre long at 20C. At what temperature the length of the rod decreases by 1.2 mm ?
( = 12 x 10-6 / C )
(1) 100C
(2) 1000C
(3) 200C
(4) 2000C [
]
Find the length of the brass rod at 0C so that the difference in lengths of brass and iron rods is 10 cm at
all temperatures. ( Fe = 12 x 10-6 / C ; Br = 20 x 10-6 / C )
(1) 15 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 10 cm
[
]
Two metal rods A and B have their initial lengths in the ratio 2 : 3 and coefficients of linear expansions in
the ratio 3 : 4 When they are heated through the same temperature difference the ratio of their linear
expansion is
(1) 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1
[
]
Two copper rods of same length but of different diameters of cross-section are given same amount of heat.
Assuming no heat losses
(1) Thick rod expands more
(2) Thin rod expands more
(3) Both rods expand quickly
(4) Thick rod expands more for large quantities of heat and thin rods expand more for smaller heat.

112.

113.

114.

115.
116.
117.
118.

119.

120.

121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.

When a copper sphere is heated the percentage increase is maximum for


(1) length
(2) area
(3) volume

(4) diameter [

A metal disc having circular hole at its centre is heated. If the metal expands on heating, the diameter of the
hole will
(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain unchanged
(4) increase and decrease depending upon the metal
[
]
Two copper rods of equal lengths but unequal diameters are heated through the same range of temperature.
Then increase in length will be
(1) less for thicker rod
(2) less for thinner rod
(3) same for both the rods
(4) diameters become equal
[
]
When a brass disc tightly fits in a steel plate, to remove the disc the system is
(1) cooled
(2) heated
(3) neither heated nor cooled
(4) hammered
[
]
Average velocity when a body falls freely for t seconds
(1) ( 2h / g )
(2) ( gh / 2 )
(3) gt
(4) gt /2
[
]
When a stone is dropped freely from a height h. at a height h/2 from the ground, its velocity is
(1) ( 2gh )
(2) ( gh / 2 )
(3) ( gh )
(4) ( 2h / g ) [
]
Identify the correct statement.
(1) A particle may have constant instantaneous speed but variable instantaneous velocity.
(2) A particle may have variable instantaneous speed but constant instantaneous velocity.
(3) A particle may have constant instantaneous speed and also an average velocity.
(4) A particle may have average speed but constant acceleration or deceleration.
[
]
Identify the wrong statements.
(1) When only direction of velocity changes, acceleration is perpendicular to the velocity.
(2) When only magnitude of velocity changes, acceleration is parallel to the velocity.
(3) When both magnitude and direction of velocity changes, acceleration has two components, one is
perpendicular to velocity and another parallel or anti-parallel to velocity.
(4) For a moving body average speed can never be always negative or zero.
[
]
A particle is said to have uniform velocity if
[
]
(1) magnitude of the velocity only remains same
(2) direction of the velocity remains same
(3) magnitude and direction remains same only in all directions
(4) magnitude and direction remains same only in same straight line without reversing its direction
CHEMISTRY
An electron has magnetic quantum number as 2 . Its principal quantum number is
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4.
[
8
The velocity of electron in hydrogen atom is 1.09 x 10 cm/sec. The potenial energy of electron is
(1) - 27.2 ev
(2) -13.6 ev
(3) -6.8 ev
(4) -3.4 ev.
[
3+
The number of d electrons in Fe is
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5.
[
Hydride ion is iso electronic with
(1) He+
(2) H+
(3) He
(4) Be+
[
Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electrons ?
(1) Fe3+
(2) Fe2+
(3) Co2+
(4) Co3+
[
Which one has the lowest number of electrons in the valence shell
(1) O2(2) O
(3) N3(4) Cl[
The number of electrons in n = 3 shell of an element with atomic number 24 is
(1) 24
(2) 13
(3) 12
(4) 8
[
The number of unpaired electrons present in the 2nd excited state of chlorine atom is
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7
[

]
]
]
]
]
]
]
]

129.

130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.

2S has nodes
(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

Maximum number of electrons with + spin in n = 2 is


(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 6
[
]
For which one of the following sets of quantum numbers an electron will have the highest energy ?
(1) 3, 2, 1,
(2) 5, 1, +1, +
(3) 4, 1, 0,
(4) 4, 2, +2, + [
]
If velocity of an electron in the electron in the 3rd orbit of hydrogen atom is X, The velocity in 4th orbit of
Hydrogen
(1) 3x/4
(2) 1/3x
(3) 9x/16
(4) 16x/9
[
]
The number of waves made by an electron moving in an orbit having a maximum quantum number of +2
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4
[
]
As the value of n increases, the energy difference between two successive shells
(1) decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Remains the same
(4) Cannot be predicted[
]
Which atom has as many s electrons as p electrons
(1) H
(2) N
(3) Na
(4) Mg
[
]
How many d electrons present in Ni2+ ion ?
(1) 2
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 4
[
]
If n = 4; the total possible values for magnetic quantum number will be
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 16
[
]
O
Wavelength of an electron is 5A . Velocity of the electron is
(1) 1.45 x 108 cm/sec
(2) 1.6 x 10-8 cm/sec
(3) 3.2 x 10-27 cm/sec (4) None
[
]
The probability of finding electron in YZ plane for Px orbital is
(1) 100%
(2) 99%
(3) 95%
(4) 0%
[
]
There is no difference between a 2p and a 3p orbital regarding
(1) value of n
(2) size
(3) shape
(4) energy
[
]
8
2
The number of unpaired electron in [Ar]3d 4s is
(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5
[
]
Number of valence electrons in sulphur is
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 3
[
]
Which of the following pair of ions have same number of d electrons
(1) Cr3+, Fe2+
(2) Fe2+, Fe3+
(3) Cu2+, Ni2+
(4) Fe3+, Mn2+ [
]
The (n+l) value for 4s subshell
(1) 4
(2) 0
(3) 5
(4) 6
[
]
n, l and m values of 3s orbital are
(1) 3, 0, 0
(2) 3, 1, 0
(3) 3, 0, 1
(4) 3, 1, 1
[
]
Value of m for valence electron in Lithium atom is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0
[
]
The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 0.53Ao, the radius of Li2+ in the similar state is
(1) 1.06.06Ao
(2) 0.265Ao
(3) 0.175
(4) 0.53Ao
[
]
In hydrogen atom the kinetic energy of electron is 3.4 ev.The distance of that electron from the nucleus
(1) 2.116Ao
(2) 0.529Ao
(3) 1.587Ao
(4) 21.16Ao [
]
Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atom will require the highest amount energy
(1) n = 1 to n = 2
(2) n = 1 to n = 3
(3) n = 2 to n = 1
(4) n = 3 to n = 4 [ ]
The energy of an electron in the first Bohrs orbit of a hydrogen atom is 2.18 x 10-18J. Its energy in the
second orbit would be
(1) 1.09 x 10-18J
(2) .436 x 10-18J
(3) 5.45 x 10-19J
(4) 8.72 x 10-18J[ ]
-29
What is the wavelength (in m) of a particle of mass 6.62 x 10 g moving with a velocity of 103 m.s-1 ?
(1) 6.62 x 10-4
(2) 6.62 x 10-3
(3) 10-5
(4) 105
[
]

152.
153.

154.
155.
156.
157.

For an electron to have the same de Broglie wavelength as that of a Deuteron, its velocity should be -----times that of Deuteron
(1)1836
(2)1/1836
(3)3772
(4)1/3672
[
]
Which of the pair of orbits have electronic density along the axis
(1) dxz, dyz
(2) dx2 y2, dz2
(3) dxy, dyz
(4) dxz, dz2
[
]
Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom ?
(1)n = 3, l = 2, m = 1,s = +
(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0,s = +
(3) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0,s = +
(4) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1,s = +
[
Which of the following pairs of atoms / ions have identical ground state configurations ?
(1) Li+ and He+
(2) Cl- and Ar
(3) Na and K
(4) F+ and Ne [
Which one of the following ions has same number of unpaired electrons as that of V3+ ion ?
(1) Cr+
(2) Mn2+
(3) Ni2+
(4) Fe3+
[
]
In which of the following Aufbau principle is violated ?
(1)

2S

(2)
2P

]
]

2s

2p
(3)
158.
159.
160.

(4)


2s
2p
2s
2p
The number of electrons in the ground state of atom (z=24) with the quantum numbers l = 1 and l = 2 are,
respectively
(1)12, 4
(2) 12, 5
(3) 16, 4
(4) 16, 5
[
]
The total number of electrons present in all the s orbitals,all the p orbitals and all the d orbtals of
cesium ion are respectively
(1)8,26,10
(2)10,24,20
(3)8,22,24
(4)12,20,22
[
]
Which atom has a many s electrons as p-electrons
(1)H
(2)N
(3)Na
(4)Mg
[
]