Answer Key of

OPSC 2015
ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

Astt. Executive Engineer

Civil Engineering
Paper-I

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Odisha Public Service Commission Exam, 2015

Civil Engineering : Paper-I
(Assistant Executive Engineer)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

In ordinary residential buildings, D. P. C. may be

provided:
(A) At ground level
(B) Between ground level and water table level
(C) At water table level
(D) At plinth level
The tolerance in the width of mould of a class I
brick is about:
(A) 3 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 12 mm
The slump recommended for mass concrete is
about:
(A) 50 mm to 100 mm
(B) 25 mm to 75 mm
(C) 100 mm to 125 mm
(D) None of these
The most important purpose of frog in a brick is
to:
(A) Reduce the weight of brick
(B) Emboss manufactures name
(C) Form keyed joint between brick and mortar
(D) Improve insulation by providing hollows
A type of bond in a brick masonry consisting of
alternate course of headers and stretchers, is
called:
(A) English bond
(B) Flemish bond
(C) Stretching bond
(D) Heading bond
Preventative maintenance for a building work
means
(A) Taking action before breakdown
(B) Breakdown maintenance
(C) Taking action after breakdown
(D) None of these

SET

7.

The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should

not be more than:
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40

8.

Expansion joint in masonry wall is provided when

length of wall is greater than:
(A) 20 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 40 m
(D) 30 m

9.

The height between two floors is 3.00 m and risers

are of 150 mm. Assuming two flights between
the floors, the number of treads will be
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 21

10.

The type of flooring suitable for the use in theatres

and public libraries and other places where
noiseless floor covering is desired:
(A) Wooden flooring
(B) Linoleum flooring
(C) Cork flooring
(D) None of these

11.

One of the main disadvantages of the bar chart

for construction management is:
(A) The time schedule is not shown properly
(B) Progress of the work cannot be monitored
(C) The financial aspect is not shown
(D) Does not show the interdependencies of the
activity

12.

Which of the following does not represent an

activity?
(A) Foundation is being dug
(B) Site located
(C) The office area is being cleaned
(D) None of these

13.

Critical Path Method (CPM) network is:

(A) Activity oriented
(B) Event oriented

OPSC 2015

Civil Engineering : Paper-I (SET-C)

(C) Both activity as well as event oriented

(D) None of these
14.

15.

16.

17

18.

19.

20.

The security deposit deducted from contractors

bill is:
(A) Refunded as soon as the construction is over
(B) Not refunded
(C) Refunded in the middle of the contract
(D) Refunded after maintenance period
Earliest finish of an activity is always:
(A) Less than earliest event of the following node
(B) Greater than earliest event of the following
node
(C) Less than or equal to earliest event of the
following node
(D) Greater than or equal to earliest event of the
following node
A contract is an agreement between:
(A) Two parties valid in law
(B) Several agencies
(C) Three agencies
(D) Two parties without legal binding
Measurement of 50 mm thick concrete flooring
will be done in:
(A) Cubic m
(B) % sq m
(C) Meter
(D) Sq. m
The reduction in project time normally results in:
(A) Increasing the direct cost and decreasing
the indirect cost
(B) Decreasing the direct cost and increasing
the indirect cost
(C) Increasing the direct cost and the indirect
cost both
(D) Decreasing the direct cost and the indirect
cost both
A document containing detailed description of
all the items of work together with their current
rates is called:
(A) Analysis of rates
(B) Abstract of estimate
(C) Schedule of rates
(D) None of these
Work Breakdown Structure for a construction
project will help in:

MADE EASY
(A) Breaking the project into several elements
(B) Identifying the activities
(C) Identifying the functional elements of a
project and their interrelationship
(D) None of these

21.

If a material has identical elastic properties in all

directions, it is said to be:
(A) Homogenous
(B) Isotropic
(C) Elastic
(D) Orthotropic

22.

If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated,

the copper bar will be under:
(A) Tension
(B) Compression
(C) Shear
(D) Torsion

23.

Maximum bending moment in a beam occurs

where:
(A) Deflection is zero
(B) Shear force is maximum
(C) Shear force is minimum
(D) Shear force changes sign

24.

Every material obeys the Hookes law within its:

(A) Elastic limit
(B) Plastic limit
(C) Limit of proportionality
(D) None of these

25.

In a rectangular element subjected to like

principal tensile stresses p 1 and p 2 in two
mutually perpendicular directions x and y, the
maximum shear stress would occur along the:
(A) Plane normal to y-axis
(B) Plane normal to x-axis
(C) Planes at 45 and 135 to the y-direction
(D) Plane at 45 to the y-direction

26.

Principle of superposition is applicable when:

(A) Deflections are linear functions of applied
forces
(B) The action of applied forces will be affected
by small deformations of the structure
(C) Material obeys Hookes law
(D) None of these

27.

Principal plane is defined as a plane on which

the shear stress is:
(A) Maximum
(B) Half of the normal
(C) Zero
(D) None of these

MADE EASY

OPSC 2015

28.

Poissons ratio is an involving:

(A) Elastic Moduli
(B) Stresses
(C) Strains
(D) None of these

29.

The shear force and bending moment is zero at

the free end of a cantilever beam, if it carries:
(A) Point load at the free end
(B) Point load at the middle of its length
(C) Uniformly distributed load over the whole
length
(D) None of these

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

The shear stress on a beam section is maximum:

(A) On the extreme bottom surface fibres
(B) On the extreme top surface fibres
(C) At the free edges
(D) At the neutral axis of the section
The variation of the bending moment in the
segment of a beam where the load is uniformly
distributed is:
(A) Zero
(B) Linear
(C) Parabolic
(D) Cubic
The maximum bending moment (M) caused by
a concentrated load (W) at the mid span of a
simply supported beam is:
(A) M=(WL/2)
(B) M = (WL/8)
(C) M = (WL/4)
(D) M = (WL/12)
A simply supported beam with rectangular crosssection is subjected to a central concentrated
load. If the width and depth of beam is doubled,
the deflection at centre of the beam will be
reduced to:
(A) 50%
(B) 25%
(C) 12.5%
(D) 6.25%
The maximum tensile stress in a cantilever beam
with concentrated load acting downwards on the
span is caused at:
(A) Top fibre at mid span
(B) Bottom fibre at mid span
(C) Bottom fibre at support
(D) Top fibre at support
A fixed beam of uniform section is carrying a
point load at its mid span. If the moment of inertia
of the middle half length is reduced to half its
previous value, then the fixed end moments will:

Civil Engineering : Paper-I (SET-C)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Decrease
Increase
Change their direction
Remain constant

36.

At a point P', the state of stress is px = 6 MPa,

py = -2 MPa and qxy = 3 MPa, the magnitude of
principal stresses for this state of stress will be:
(A) 9 MPa and 1 MPa
(B) 7 MPa and 3 MPa
(C) 7 MPa and 1 MPa
(D) 8 MPa and 3 MPa

37.

The most appropriate failure theory for ductile

materials is:
(A) Maximum principal stress theory
(B) Maximum shear stress theory
(C) Maximum shear strain energy theory
(D) Maximum principal strain theory

38.

A cantilever beam having length 'L' is subjected

to a moment M at its free end. If flexural rigidity
of beam is El, the deflection at free end will be:
(A) ML/EI
(B) ML/2EI
2
(D) ML2/2EI
(C) ML /EI

39.

The relationship between Youngs Modulus of

Elasticity E, Bulk Modulus K and Poissons ratio
is given by:
(A) E = 2K(1 2) (B) E = 3K(1 + )
(C) E = 3K(1 2) (D) E = 2K(1 + )

40.

A beam simply supported at both the ends of

length 'L' carries two unequal unlike couples M
at the both ends. If the Flexural Rigidity El is
constant, the central deflection of beam will be:
(B) ML2/16EI
(A) ML2/4EI
(C) ML2/64EI
(D) ML2/8EI

41.

Free body diagram is an:

(A) Isolated joint with only body forces acting
on it
(B) Isolated joint with all the forces internal as
well as external, acting on it
(C) Isolated joint with internal acting on it
(D) None of these

42.

Independent displacement components at each

joint of a rigid jointed plane frame are:

OPSC 2015
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Civil Engineering : Paper-I (SET-C)

Three linear movements

One linear movement and two rotations
Two linear movements and one rotation
Three rotations

43.

Which of the following methods of structural

analysis is a force method?
(A) Column analogy method
(B) Slope deflection method
(C) Moment distribution method
(D) None of these

44.

For approximate analysis of building frames

under vertical loads, the point of inflection is
assumed at:
(A) Centre of each beam
(B) One-tenth of the span length from each end
of the beam
(C) Centre of each column
(D) Both (A) and (C)

45.

A fixed beam of uniform section is carrying a

point load at its mid span. If the moment of inertia
of the middle half length is reduced to half of its
previous value, then the fixed end moments will:
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Change their direction
(D) Remain constant

46.

The deformation of a spring produced by a unit

load method is called:
(A) Flexibility
(B) Stiffness
(C) Unit strain
(D) None of these

47.

In the displacement method of structural

analysis, the basic unknowns are:
(A) Forces
(B) Displacements
(C) Displacements and forces
(D) None of these

48.

If the displacement at coordinate i due to unit

force at coordinate j is ij and displacement at
coordinate j due to unit force at coordinate i is ji,
then according to Maxwells Reciprocal Theorem:
(A) ij = ji
(B) ij > ji
(C) ij < ji
(D) ij ji

MADE EASY

49.

To generate the jth column of flexibility matrix:

(A) A unit force is applied at coordinate j and
the displacement are calculated at all
coordinates
(B) A unit force is applied at coordinate j and
the forces are calculated at all coordinates
(C) A unit displacement is applied at coordinate
j and the forces are calculated at all
coordinates
(D) A unit displacement is applied at coordinate
j and the displacement are calculated at all
coordinates

50.

For a statically indeterminate pin jointed plane

frame, the relation between number of members
m and number of joints j is expressed as:
(A) m = 3j 6
(B) m = 2j 3
(C) m > 2j 3
(D) m > 3j 6

51.

Ratio of strain energy stored by solid shaft of

diameter 'D and strain energy stored by hollow
shaft (external diameter D and internal diameter
d) is given by:
(A) D2/(D2 d2)
(B) D2/(D2 + d2)
(C) D4/(D4 + d4)
(D) D4/(D4 d4) .

52.

Muller Breslau principle in structural analysis is

used:
(A) To obtain virtual work equation
(B) To draw influence line diagram for any force
function
(C) For superposition of load effects
(D) None of these

53.

Influence line for forcing function gives its

variation at:
(A) Mid span
(B) A given section
(C) A support
(D) Everywhere in the beam

54.

The moment required to rotate the near end of

prismatic beam of length L and flexural rigidity
El through unit angle, without translation (the far
end being fixed), is given by:
(A) 2EI/L
(B) EI/L
(C) 3EI/L
(D) 4EI/L

MADE EASY
55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

OPSC 2015

Castiglianos first theorem is applicable:

(A) For statically determinate structure only
(B) When the system behaves elastically
(C) Only when principle of superposition is valid
(D) None of these
The deflection at any point of a perfect frame
can be obtained by applying a unit load at the
joint in:
(A) Vertical direction
(B) Horizontal direction
(C) Inclined direction
(D) The direction in which the deflection is
required
The strain energy stored in a simply supported
beam of span L and flexural rigidity El due to
central concentrated load W is given by:
(A) W2L2/48EI
(B) W2L3/48EI
(C) W2L2/96EI
(D) W2L3/96EI
A beam AB is fixed at both ends and carries a
uniformly distributed load of intensity w per unit
length run over its entire length. Due to some
construction defects, the end B is now reduced
to a simple support. The percentage increase in
bending moment at A is:
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 75
(D) 100
A fixed beam AB is subjected to a triangular
load varying from zero at end A to W per unit
length at end B. The ratio of fixed end moment
at B to A will be
(A)

1
2

(B)

1
3

(C)

2
3

(D)

3
2

In moment distribution method, the sum of

distribution factors of all members meeting at
any joint is always:
(A) Less than one
(B) Zero
(C) One
(D) Greater than one
In a slab, the minimum reinforcement for Fe 250
provided, is:

Civil Engineering : Paper-I (SET-C)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

0.10% of its gross sectional area

0.12% of its gross sectional area
0.15% of its gross sectional area
None of these

62.

Whenever the earthquake or wind loading is

considered in design of a member, the
permissible stresses may be increased by:
(A) 25%
(B) 30%
(C) 33.33%
(D) 35%

63.

The purpose of lateral ties in short RC columns

is to:
(A) Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
(B) Facilitate construction
(C) Facilitate compaction of concrete
(D) Increase the load carrying capacity of the
columns

64.

For vertical stirrups, the maximum spacing of

shear reinforcement measured along the axis of
the members shall not exceed:
(A) 0.70 d
(B) 0.75 d
(C) 0.80 d
(D) 0.90 d

65.

In the limit state design of concrete section of

limiting value of the depth of the neutral axis
Xu(max)/d for steel grade Fe 415 is:
(A) 0.53
(B) 0.48
(C) 0.46
(D) 0.42

66.

Most common method of pre-stressing used for

factory production is:
(A) Freyssinet system
(B) Long line method
(C) Lee-Macall system
(D) Magnel-Blaton system

67.

Which of the following losses occurs only in posttensioning?

(A) Shrinkage of concrete
(B) Elastic shortening of concrete
(C) Loss due to friction
(D) Creep of concrete

68.

Minimum reinforcement in a circular column as

per IS 456 is:
(A) 4 bars of 12 mm
(B) Greater of 0.8% of cross sectional area and
4 bars of 12 mm

OPSC 2015

Civil Engineering : Paper-I (SET-C)

(C) 6 bars of 12 mm
(D) Greater of 0.8% of cross sectional area and
6 bars of 12 mm
69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

The vertical retaining wall of the RCC Counterfort

is designed as a ___________
(A) Cantilever
(B) Simply supported slab
(C) Continuous slab
(D) None of these
When width b, effective depth d, overall depth
D, the maximum area of reinforcement in RCC
beam shall not exceed:
(A) 0.04 bd
(B) 0.04 bD
(C) 0.05 bd
(D) 0.05 bD
In T-shaped RC retaining walls, the main
reinforcement in the stem is provided on:
(A) The front face in one direction
(B) The front face in both direction
(C) The inner face in one direction
(D) The inner face in both direction
If nominal shear stress v exceeds the design
shear strength of concrete c, the nominal shear
reinforcement as per IS: 456-2000 shall be
provided for a shear stress equal to:
(A) v
(B) c
(C) v c
(D) v + c
As per IS 456, the minimum grade of concrete
for the design of reinforced concrete structure in
moderate exposure condition is:
(A) M20
(B) M25
(C) M15
(D) M30
In reinforced concrete footing on soils, the
minimum thickness at the edge should not be
less than:
(A) 150 mm
(B) 250 mm
(C) 100 mm
(D) 200 mm
Span to effective depth ratio for a two way
continuous slab (upto span 3.5 m) with steel of
grade Fe 415 should not be more than:
(A) 7
(B) 40
(C) 26
(D) 32

MADE EASY

76.

The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of:

(A) Cold rivet measured before driving
(B) Rivet measured after driving
(C) Rivet hole
(D) None of these

77.

The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of

tension members liable to reversal of stress due
to action of wind and earthquake is:
(A) 300
(B) 350
(C) 400
(D) 425

78.

The maximum deflection for a steel beam as per

IS code should not exceed:
(A) 1/150 of span
(B) 1/250 of span
(C) 1/325 of span
(D) 1/350 of span

79.

The average shear stress in a member calculated

on the cross section of unstiffened web shall not
exceed:
(A) 0.45 fy
(B) 0.40 fy
(C) 0.65 fy
(D) 0.66 fy

80.

Generally the purlins are placed at the panel

points so as to avoid:
(A) Axial force in rafter
(B) Shear force in rafter
(C) Deflection of rafter
(D) Bending moment in rafter

81.

The yield stress of mild steel of normally rolled

structural steel is about (in N/mm2):
(A) 240 to 260
(B) 330 to 360
(C) 420
(D) 550

82.

The effective length of fillet weld should not be

less than:
(A) Two times weld size
(B) Four times weld size
(C) Six times weld size
(D) Weld size

83.

The rolled T section for a given depth having

largest moment of inertia, Ixx is designated as:
(A) ISMB
(B) MSHB
(C) ISLB
(D) ISWB

84.

In a plate girder, bending is primarily resisted

by:

MADE EASY
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
85.

86.

87.

OPSC 2015

Web plate
Flange plate only
Flange angle only
Flange plate and flange angle

The effective length of a steel compression

member which is effectively held in position at
both ends but restrained in direction at one end
only:
(A) L
(B) 0.8 L
(C) 1.2 L
(D) 1.5 L
The addition of pozzolana to Portland cement
may cause:
(A) Decrease in early strength
(B) Increase in early strength
(C) Decrease in curing time
(D) Increase in permeability
The two main compounds imparting strength for
Ordinary Portland Cement are:
(A) Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate
(B) Dicalcium silicate and aluminates
(C) Tricalcium aluminates and silicate
(D) Tricalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminates

Civil Engineering : Paper-I (SET-C)

88.

For a satisfactory workable concrete with a

constant water cement ratio, increase in
aggregate cement ratio:
(A) Decrease the strength of concrete
(B) Does not change the strength of concrete
(C) Increase the strength of concrete
(D) None of these

89.

The strength of concrete is directly proportional:

(A) Water cement ratio
(B) Cement water ratio
(C) Sand cement ratio
(D) Water aggregate ratio

90.

The most commonly used admixture which

prolongs the setting time is:
(A) Calcium chloride
(B) Gypsum
(C) Sodium silicate
(D) All of these

OPSC 2015

Civil Engineering : Paper-I (SET-C)

MADE EASY

Odisha Public Service Commission Exam, 2015

SET

Civil Engineering : Paper-I

(Assistant Executive Engineer)
Answer Key
1.

(D)

16.

(A)

31.

(C)

46.

(A)

61.

(C)

76.

(B)

2.

(B)

17.

(D)

32.

(C)

47.

(B)

62.

(C)

77.

(B)

3.

(B)

18.

(A)

33.

(D)

48.

(A)

63.

(A)

78.

(C)

4.

(C)

19.

(B)

34.

(D)

49.

(A)

64.

(B)

79.

(B)

5.

(A)

20.

(C)

35.

(D)

50.

(C)

65.

(B)

80.

(D)

6.

(A)

21.

(B)

36.

(B)

51.

(B)

66.

(B)

81.

(A)

7.

(B)

22.

(B)

37.

(C)

52.

(B)

67.

(C)

82.

(B)

8.

(D)

23.

(D)

38.

(D)

53.

(B)

68.

(D)

83.

(B)

9.

(A)

24.

(C)

39.

(C)

54.

(D)

69.

(A)

84.

(B)

10.

(C)

25.

(C)

40.

(D)

55.

(C)

70.

(B)

85.

(C)

11.

(D)

26.

(A)

41.

(B)

56.

(D)

71.

(C)

86.

(B)

12.

(B)

27.

(C)

42.

(C)

57.

(B)

72.

(C)

87.

(A)

13.

(A)

28.

(C)

43.

(A)

58.

(B)

73.

(A)

88.

(A)

14.

(D)

29.

(B, C)

44.

(D)

59.

(D)

74.

(A)

89.

(B)

15.

(B)

30.

(D)

45.

(D)

60.

(C)

75.

(D)

90.

(B)

Answer Key of

OPSC 2015
ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

Astt. Executive Engineer

Civil Engineering
Paper-II

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www.madeeasy.in

Odisha Public Service Commission Exam, 2015

Civil Engineering : Paper-II
(Assistant Executive Engineer)

1.

2.

3.

According to Terzaghi's theory, the ultimate

bearing capacity at the ground surface for a
purely cohesive soil with cohesion c and for a
smooth base of a strip footing is
(A) 2.57 c
(B) 5.14 c
(C) 6.2 c
(D) 5.7 c
Select the correct statements:
(A) Both negative skin friction and skin frictional
resistance are caused by relative settlement
of soil
(B) Both negative skin friction and skin frictional
resistance are caused by relative settlement
of pile
(C) Negative skin friction is caused by relative
settlement of soil and skin frictional
resistance is caused by relative settlement
of pile
(D) Negative skin friction is caused by relative
settlement of pile and skin frictional
resistance is caused by relative settlement
of soil
Taylor's stability number is given by
(A)

Fc
cH

c
(C) F H
c

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

4.

Sand stone is:

(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Metamorphic rock
(C) Igneous rock
(D) Volcanic rock

5.

The stress which is responsible for retaining water

in capillary tube above the free water surface of
the water body in which the capillary tube is
inserted, is:

Capillary compression
Capillary tension
Capillary pore pressure
None of the above

6.

The effective size of particles of soil is denoted

by:
(A) D10
(B) D20
(C) D30
(D) D60

7.

The ultimate settlement of a soil is directly

proportional to:
(A) Depth of the compressible soil strata
(B) Compressive index
(C) Void ratio
(D) Both (A) and (B)

8.

A coarse-grained soil has a voids ratio 0.75 and

specific gravity as 2.75. The critical gradient at
which quick sand condition occurs, is:
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.00

9.

Buoyant unit weight equals the saturated density:

(A) Multiplied by unit weight of water
(B) Divided by unit weight of water
(C) Plus unit weight of water
(D) Minus unit weight of water

10.

A phreatic line is defined as the line within a

dam section below which there are:
(A) Positive equipotential lines
(B) Positive hydrostatic pressure
(C) Negative hydrostatic pressure
(D) Negative equipotential lines

11.

The minimum centre to centre distance of friction

piles of 1 m diameter, is:
(A) 1.0 mm
(B) 2.0 mm
(C) 3.0 m
(D) 4.0 m

H
(B) cF
c
H
(D) cF
c

SET

OPSC 2015

Civil Engineering : Paper-II (SET-C)

12.

Stokes law does not hold good if the size of

particle is smaller than:
(A) 0.0002 mm
(B) 0.002 mm
(C) 0.02 m
(D) 0.2 m

13.

The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil, is:

(A) Load at which soil consolidates
(B) Load at which soil fails
(C) Total load on the bearing area
(D) Safe load on the bearing area

14.

Raft foundation are generally preferred to when

the area required for individual footing, is more
than;
(A) 25% of total area
(B) 30% of total area
(C) 40% of total area
(D) 50% of total area

15.

The arrangement of supporting an existing

structure by providing supports underneath, is
known as:
(A) Shoring
(B) Underpinning
(C) Jacking
(D) Piling

16.

The most efficient traffic signal is:

(A) Simultaneous system
(B) Flexible progressive system
(C) Simple progressive system
(D) Alternate system

17.

The rate of rise or fall of the road surface along

its length is called:
(A) Cant
(B) Super-elevation
(C) Gradient
(D) Banking

18.

19.

In hill roads, the minimum sight distance required

is:
(A) Stopping sight distance
(B) Passing sight distance
(C) Braking distance
(D) None of the above
Which of the following methods is recommended
by IRC for the design of flexible pavement?
(A) Group index method
(B) CBR method
(C) Westergaard method
(D) None of the above

MADE EASY

20.

The Indian Railway has been divided into:

(A) Six zones
(B) Eight zones
(C) Twelve zones
(D) Sixteen zones

21.

Which of the following sleepers provide the best

elasticity of track?
(A) Wooden sleeper (B) Cast iron sleeper
(C) Steel sleeper
(D) RCC sleeper

22.

Maximum super-elevation on hill roads should

not exceed:
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 8%
(D) 10%

23.

The type of transition curves generally provided

on hill roads, is:
(A) Circular
(B) Cubic parabola
(C) Spiral
(D) Lemniscate

24.

The road foundation for modern highways

construction, was developed by
(A) Tresgue
(B) Telford
(C) Telford and Macadam simultaneously
(D) Macadam

25.

Coning of wheels is provided:

(A) To check lateral movement of wheels
(B) To avoid damage to inner faces of rails
(C) To avoid discomfort to passengers
(D) All of the above

26.

For a vehicle moving with a speed of 80 km per

hour, the brake reaction time, in ordinary cases,
is:
(A) 1 sec
(B) 1.5 sec
(C) 2.0 sec
(D) 2.5 sec

27.

Bull headed rails are generally provided on:

(A) Points and crossing
(B) Straight tangents
(C) Curved tracks
(D) Meter gauge tracks

28.

Width of vehicles affects the width of:

(A) Lanes
(B) Shoulders
(C) Parking spaces
(D) All of the above

MADE EASY

OPSC 2015

29.

The maximum safe speed on roads, depends

on the:
(A) Type of the highway
(B) Type of the road surface
(C) Type of curves
(D) All of the above

30.

The head of Public Works Department of any

Indian state is:
(A) Transport Minister
(B) Chief Engineer
(C) Superintending Engineer
(D) Executive Engineer

31.

The optical square is used to measure angles

by
(A) Refraction
(B) Reflection
(D) Double refraction
(D) Double reflection

32

When the magnetic declination is 5 20 east,

the magnetic bearing of the sun is at noon will
be:
(A) 95 20
(B) 174 40
(C) 185 20
(D) 354 40

33.

A line joining the point of intersection of the crosshairs of the diaphragm and the optical center-of
the object glass, is known as:
(A) Fundamental line
(B) Axis of telescope
(C) Axis of level tube
(D) Line of collimation

34.

35.

The error which is not completely eliminated in

reciprocal leveling, is:
(A) Error due to curvature
(B) Error due to refraction
(C) Error due to non-adjustment of line of
collimation
(D) Error due to non-adjustment of bubble tube
The contour lines can cross one another on map
only in the case of:
(A) An overhanging cliff
(B) A valley
(C) A ridge
(D) A vertical cliff

Civil Engineering : Paper-II (SET-C)

36.

A curve of varying radius is known as:

(A) Varying curve
(B) Compound curve
(C) Transition curve
(D) Reverse curve

37.

The method of finding out the difference in

elevation between two points for eliminating the
effect of curvature and refraction, is:
(A) Precise leveling
(B) Differential leveling
(C) Reciprocal leveling
(D) Fly leveling

38.

The horizontal angle between true meridian and

magnetic meridian, is known as:
(A) Convergence
(B) Magnetic declination
(C) Bearing
(D) Dip

39.

A relatively fixed point of known elevation above

datum, is called:
(A) Bench mark
(B) Datum point
(C) Reduced level (D) Reference point

40.

The curvature of the Earths surface, is taken into

account only if the extent of survey is more than:
(A) 100 sq km
(B) 160 sq km
(C) 200 sq km
(D) 260 sq km

41.

The pressure of a liquid measured with the help

of a piezometer tube is:
(A) Vacuum pressure
(B) Gauge pressure
(C) Absolute pressure
(D) Atmospheric pressure

42.

When a fluid is flowing through a pipe, the velocity

of the liquid is:
(A) Maximum at the center and minimum near
the walls
(B) Minimum at the center and maximum near
the walls
(C) Zero at the center and maximum near the
walls
(D) Maximum at the center and zero near the
walls

OPSC 2015

Civil Engineering : Paper-II (SET-C)

43.

The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of

diameter d is:
(A) d/6
(B) d/4
(C) d/2
(D) d

44.

In case of flow through parallel pipes:

(A) The head loss for all the pipes is same
(B) The head loss is different in different pipes
(C) The head loss is the sum of head losses in
the various pipes
(D) None of the above

45.

48.

49.

50.

51.

Hydrograph
Unit hydrograph
Hyetograph
None of the above

According to Laceys equation, the scour depth

is equal to;

Q
(A) 0.47
f

1/ 2

Q
(B) 0.47
f

1/ 3

Q
(C) 0.47
f

1/ 4

Q
(D) 0.47
f

1/ 5

52.

The phenomenon occurring in an open channel

when a rapidly flowing stream abruptly changes
to a slowly flowing stream causing a distinct rise
of liquid surface, is:
(A) Water hammer
(B) Hydraulic jump
(C) Critical discharge
(D) None of the above

53.

Dimensions of the dynamic viscosity () are:

(A) MLT2
(B) M1L1T1
(C) ML1T1
(D) None of the above

54.

Which of the following pumps is suitable for small

discharge and high head?
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Axial flow pump
(C) Mixed flow pump
(D) Reciprocating pump

When a canal is carried over a natural drainage,

the structure provided, is known as:
(A) Syphon
(B) Aqueduct
(C) Super passage
(D) Syphon-aqueduct

55.

The ratio between the area of crop irrigated and

quantity of water required during its entire period
of the growth, is known as:
(A) Delta
(B) Duty
(C) Base period
(D) Crop period

The maximum vacuum created at the summit of

a syphon is:
(A) 2.7 m of water
(B) 7.4 m of water
(C) 74 mm of water
(D) 74 m of water

56.

An ideal flow of a liquid obeys:

(A) Continuity equation
(B) Newtons law of viscosity
(C) Newtons second law of motion
(D) Dynamic viscosity law

57
57.

Reynolds number is the ratio of inertia force and:

(A) Viscosity

1/ 2

q2
(C)
g

47.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

The critical depth for a channel is given by:

q
(A)
g

46.

MADE EASY

1/ 4

q2
(B)
g

1/ 3

q4
(D)
g

1/ 5

When the Mach number is less than unity, the

flow is called:
(A) Sub-sonic flow
(B) Sonic flow
(C) Super-sonic flow
(D) Hyper-sonic flow
The power developed by a turbine is:
(A) Directly proportional to H1/2
(B) Inversely proportional to H1/2
(C) Directly proportional to H3/2
(D) Inversely proportional to H3/2

The graphical representation of average rainfall

and rainfall excess (i.e., rainfall minus infiltration)
rates over specified areas during successive unit
time intervals during a storm is known as:

MADE EASY

OPSC 2015

(B) Elasticity
(C) Gravitational force
(D) Surface tension
58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

Differential manometers are used to measure:

(A) Pressure in water channels, pipes, etc.
(B) Difference in pressure at two points
(C) Atmospheric pressure
(D) Very low pressure
Highest dam in India, is
(A) Hirakud dam
(B) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
(C) Idukki dam
(D) Bhakra dam
If Cv, Cc, Cd and Cr are the hydraulic coefficients
of an orifice, then:
(A) Cd = Cc . Cv
(B) Cr = 1 + Cv2/Cd
(C) Cv = Cc + Cd
(D) Cc = Cv/Cd
For the stability of a structure against seepage
pressure according to Khoslas Creep Theory,
the critical gradient is:
(A) 0.0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.75
The main function of a diversion head works of a
canal from a river is:
(A) To remove silt
(B) To control floods
(C) To raise water level
(D) To store water
The standard height of a standard rain gauge is:
(A) 10 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 40 cm
For determination of average annual precipitation
in a catchment basin, the best method is:
(A) Arithmetical Method
(B) Thiessens mean Method
(C) Isohyetal Method
(D) None of the above
Isohytes are the imaginary lines joining the points
of equal:
(A) Pressure
(B) Height
(C) Humidity
(D) Rainfall

Civil Engineering : Paper-II (SET-C)

66.

For large cities, the suitable method for

forecasting population is:
(A) Arithmetical increase method
(B) Graphical method
(C) Geometrical increase method
(D) Comparative method

67.

The maximum permissible total solid content in

water for domestic purposes should not exceed;
(A) 300 ppm
(B) 400 ppm
(C) 500 ppm
(D) 1000 ppm

68.

The maximum permissible chlorine content for

public supplies should be between:
(A) 0.1 to 0.2 ppm (B) 0.3 to 0.4 ppm
(C) 1.2 to 4.0 ppm (D) 6.5 to 8.0 ppm

69.

The bacterias which require oxygen for their

survival is known as:
(A) Anaerobic bacteria
(B) Pathogenic bacteria
(C) Non-pathogenic bacteria
(D) Aerobic bacteria

70.

The self cleaning velocity, recommended for

Indian conditions, in order to prevent settling
down sewage at the bottom or on the sides of a
large sewer is:
(A) 0.25 m/s
(B) 0.50 m/s
(C) 0.75 m/s
(D) 1.5 m/s

71.

Sludge treatment is mainly done in order to:

(A) Stabilize the organic matter
(B) Destroy the pathogenic bacteria
(C) Reduce the water content
(D) All of the above

72.

Aerobic bacterias:
(A) Flourish in the presence of free oxygen
(B) Consume organic matter as their food
(C) Oxidise organic matter in sewage
(D) All of the above

73.

Most commonly used pump for lifting water in

water supply mains, is:
(A) Reciprocating pump
(B) Axial flow pump
(C) Rotary type pump
(D) Centrifugal pumps

OPSC 2015

Civil Engineering : Paper-II (SET-C)

74.

By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it

is due to:
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Calcium bicarbonate
(C) Magnesium sulphate
(D) Calcium nitrate

75.

Aeration of water is done to remove:

(A) Odour
(B) Colour
(C) Bacterias
(D) Turbidity

76.

Increase in population of a rapidly growing city,

may be estimated by:
(A) Arithmetical mean method
(B) Geometric growth method
(C) Incremental increase method
(D) Graphical comparison method

77.

78.

79.

During treatment of water, sedimentation is done:

(A) Before filtration
(B) After filtration
(C) Simultaneously with filtration
(D) Along with chlorination
An area is declared drought affected if its mean
rainfall is less than:
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 85%
The permissible pH value for public water
supplies may range between:
(A) 4.5 5.5
(B) 5.5 6.5
(C) 6.5 8.5
(D) 7.0 8.5

MADE EASY
compressive strength of soil in a remoulded state,
is called:
(A) Sensitivity
(B) Thixotropy
(C) Relative strength
(D) None of the above

84.

The ratio of settlement at any time, t to the final

settlement is known as:
(A) Compression ratio
(B) Coefficient of consolidation
(C) Compression index
(D) Degree of consolidation

85.

The suitable method of finding the shear strength

of very plastic cohesive soils is by means of:
(A) Cone test
(B) Penetration test
(C) Vane shear test
(D) Torsional shear test

86.

The coefficient of earth pressure at rest is given

by:
(A) /(1 )
(B) (1 + )/
(C) /(1 + )
(D) (1 )/

87.

A vertical cut in a clayey soil with unit weight of

19 kN/m3 failed when the depth of cut was 4.0 m.
The cohesive strength of clay is:
(A) 76.0 kN/m2
(B) 8.5 kN/m2
2
(C) 38 kN/m
(D) 19.0 kN/m2

88.

According to IS classification, the range of silt

size particles is:
(A) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
(B) 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
(C) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
(D) 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm

80.

Water losses in water supply is assumed as:

(A) 5%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%

81.

The soil transported by wind is called

(A) Aeolian soil
(B) Marine soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) Lacustrine soil

89.

A soil sample is having a specific gravity of 2.6

and a void ratio of 0.78. The water content in
percentage required to fully saturate the soil at
that void ratio is:
(A) 10%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 70%

Void ratio of soil mass can:

(A) Take any value greater than zero
(B) Be zero
(C) Never be greater than unity
(D) Take values between 0 and 1 only

90.

Relative density of a compacted dense sand is

approximately equal to:
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.95
(D) 1.2

82.

83.

The ratio of the unconfined compressive strength

of undisturbed soil to the unconfined

MADE EASY

OPSC 2015

Civil Engineering : Paper-II (SET-C)

Odisha Public Service Commission Exam, 2015

SET

Civil Engineering : Paper-II

(Assistant Executive Engineer)
Answer Key
1.

(D)

16.

(D)

31.

(D)

46.

(A)

61.

(C)

76.

(B)

2.

(C)

17.

(C)

32.

(B)

47.

(*)

62.

(A)

77.

(A)

3.

(C)

18.

(B)

33.

(D)

48.

(D)

63.

(B)

78.

(C)

4.

(A)

19.

(B)

34.

(D)

49.

(B)

64.

(C)

79.

(D)

5.

(B)

20.

(D)

35.

(A)

50.

(C)

65.

(D)

80.

(C)

6.

(A)

21.

(A)

36.

(C)

51.

(B*)

66.

(C)

81.

(A)

7.

(D)

22.

(D)

37.

(C)

52.

(B)

67.

(C)

82.

(B)

8.

(D)

23.

(C)

38.

(B)

53.

(C)

68.

(A)

83.

(A)

9.

(D)

24.

(D)

39.

(A)

54.

(B)

69.

(D)

84.

(D)

10.

(B)

25.

(A)

40.

(D)

55.

(B)

70.

(C)

85.

(C)

11.

(C)

26.

(D)

41.

(B)

56.

(A)

71.

(D)

86.

(A)

12.

(A)

27.

(A)

42.

(A)

57.

(A)

72.

(D)

87.

(D)

13.

(B)

28.

(D)

43.

(B)

58.

(B)

73.

(D)

88.

(D)

14.

(D)

29.

(C)

44.

(A)

59.

(D)

74.

(B)

89.

(A)

15.

(B)

30.

(B)

45.

(B)

60.

(A)

75.

(A)

90.

(C)

Note:
47. (*)

P H5/2, No options is matching.

51. (B*) Lacey's scour depths is given by

q2
R = 1.35
f

1/ 3