Académique Documents
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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
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PAPER 2
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Part I
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SAT (English)
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Directions (1 to 5): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:
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This story is about a lifeless river Yamuna.The water of the river Yamuna
in Delhi has become lifeless. The rivers water quality is most polluted and
has received the worst grade E. This is the lowest grade which indicate the
sternness of pollution in the water. Some fifty years ago the water of Yamuna
was clear and clean. Many water plants such as weeds, algae and shrubs grew
in the water or along the bank of the river. These plants were the main source of
food for aquatic beings. A number of water birds could be seen along the river.
With the onset of winter thousands of migratory birds would come here to feed
in the Yamuna water. Sadly these water species and birds have vanished or died.
What one finds now are red worms, called Chironomids which live in the most
unhygienic and polluted water.
1. What is the rating given to water in Yamuna River?
(a) A or B grade
(b) B grade
(c) C grade
(d) E grade
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Directions (6 to 10): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:
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gangrene set in. Her leg had to be cut to save her life. But she vowed to walk again,
without crutches.
A visit to Roos and Company was instrumental in enabling her to fulfil her
ambition. She saw the famous Jaipur Foot and learnt of the MagasasayAward
winner Dr. Pramod Sethi, who gave her a new leg and a new hope. The initial
failure did not deter her. After careful observation of her movements, Dr. Sethi
designed a special leg for her and her first public performance in 1984, with her
artificial leg, lauded her as an unparalleled sensation. Rest is history. This dance
recital was a fine example of fortitude and tenacity prevailing at the end. Sudha
gives all credit for her confidence to her father.
With her grit, her fathers encouragement and her gurus indefatigable enthusiasm
enabled her to earn recognition and universal admiration at a very young age. Her
victory over fate justifies her pride in her own self and she has inspired thousands to
strive and work till they succeed. Her outstanding courage has been recognised by
several awards. She has given several dance performances for charity. The Telugu
film Mayuri by Romoji Rao, was made on her life. Nache Mayuri in Hindi, was a
remake of this movie. This paved the way for her success as an actress and today she
is much in demand as a star of the small screen. Her life teaches us to take adversity
as a challenge and hot to be overwhelmed by your troubles.
6. How old was Sudha when accident took place?
(a) ten years
(b) twelve years
(c) fourteen years
(d) eighteen years
7. Sudha had to undergo lot of difficulties during the incident. Which of the stated
fact is not true to the text?
(a) Her right leg was fully trapped
(b) Her wounds were covered with plaster of Paris
(c) Her leg was attacked with gangrene
(d) She never dared to walk again
8. Many things helped Sudha to earn recognition and universal admiration. What
detected Sudha from the path?
(a) Fathers encouragement
(b) Gurus de fatigable enthusiasm
(c) Universal admiration
(d) Charity by others
9. Sudha gives credit of all confidence to
(a) Mother
(b) Father
(c) Teacher
(d) Guru
10. Find word/phrases which mean the same as the following journey to holy
places.
(a) Charity (b) Success (c) Pilgrimage (d) Paved
Directions (11 to 15): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:
There are many reasons why men want to descend into the sea, and it is where
seas are very deep that the challenge is greatest. It is often necessary to work under
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water to repair the ship and harbour equipment to examine wrecks and to look for
sunken treasure. There are also many deposit of oil and minerals in the sea bed and
getting them out means a great deal of hard work under sea.
The first problem to he solved is how to breathe. By holding his breath, a man
can remain under water for a minute or two, but in that time he could not do much
work or go very deep. Even if he could hold his breath longer, he would not really
be able to go very deep because the pressure of the deep water would crush him.
Equipment for working under water can solve the problems of air and pressure.
The deep-sea diver wears a heavy diving suit and a helmet made of copper. He is
supplied with air through an air pipe to the surface. A deep sea diver can work at
depths of a hundred metres or more.
A frogman is more lightly equipped and can descend to about 30 metres. He
wears a tight-fitting rubber suit with large slippers on his feet. He is not connected
to the surface by air pipes of a telephone cable, so he can move about quite freely
breathes from containers of air on his back.
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(b) 30 m or more
(d) 80 m or more
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15. Choose word from para I which means deep buried under the earth.
(a) Descend
(b) Sunken
(c) Wrecks
(d) Pressure
Directions (16 to 32): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words
to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
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25. In local high school many of us never understand the importance that grammar
would
in later life.
(a) figure
(b) portray
(c) play
(d) exercise
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(b) jubilant
(d) emaciated
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Directions (33 to 37): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some
parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R
and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
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3 3. He sat
P: through the Saket Mall
Q: which flanked a path running
R: under the boughs
S: of a dispersal tamarind tree
The proper sequence should be:
(a) QPSR
(b) RSQP
(c) SRPQ
(d) PRSQ
34. I dont remember
P: I saw a man dying in front of a hospital
Q: but when I left Delhi in 2000
R: hit apparently by a fast moving car
S: the exact date
The proper sequence should be:
(a) QSRP
(b) SQPR
(c) PQRS
(d) SPRQ
35. It was
P: in keeping with my mood
Q: a soft summer morning
R: as I walked sedately
S: in the direction of new house
(b) PRQS
(d) SPRQ
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(b) SRQP
(d) QRPS
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3 7. The master
P: who was very loyal to him
Q: punished the servant
R: without giving any valid reason
S: when he left the work unfinished
The proper sequence should be:
(a) PRQS
(c) QPSR
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(b) SQRP
(d) SQPR
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Directions (38 to 40): In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences.
The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four
sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P,
Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
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3 8. S1: The revolution path of Mercury lies inside the path of the Venus.
P: When at its farthest from the Venus, Mercury is 172 million away.+
Q: With such a wide range between its greatest and least distances it is natural
that at sometimes Mercury appears much brighter than at others.
R: No other body ever comes so near the Venus, with the exception of the
satelite and occasional comet or asteroid.
S: When Mercury is at its nearest to the earth it is only 27 million miles away.
S6: When at its brightest, it is easily seen with the naked eye in broad daylight.
The proper sequence should be:
(a) SRPQ
(b) SQRP
(c) PSQR
(d) QPRS
3 9. S1: In Sub-continent marriages are usually arranged by parents
P: Sometimes some boys and girls do not like this idea of arranged marriages.
Q: Most young people accepts the state of relationships.
R: Hina was like that.
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(b) PSRQ
(d) RQPS
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1. a _ c b a_ b c b a a b c _ a a b c _ a
(a) c a c c (b) a c b c (c) b a b b
2. b c a _ a c _ b b _ a a a c b _
(a) a a c b (b) b a c b (c) a b b c
(d) b c b c
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(d) a b c b
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Directions (1 to 3): A series of small letters are given, which follow a certain
pattern. However some letters are missing from the series you have to find out
the right set of letters from alternatives that can be inserted into the blanks of
the series:
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(c) Flood
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5. Food:Hungry::Water:?
(a) Bath
(b) Wash
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4. Chair:Carpenter::Bridge:?
(a) Blacksmith
(c) Engineer
(d) Beach
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(c) Waves
3. Coast:Sea :: Bank:?
(a) River
(b)Flood
(b) Goldsmith
(d) Driver
(d) Thirsty
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Directions (6 to 11): In the given diagram the circle stands for cricketer, square
for swimmer, triangle for school students and rectangle for intelligent. The
different regions of the diagram are numbered from 1 to 12. Study the diagram
and answer the question.
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Directions (12 to 15): A piece of paper had been folded as shown below by
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figure x, y, and z. The folded paper has been cut as shown in figure z. Choose
the figure from the given options which would most closely resemble the
unfolded form of figures.
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Directions (16 to 19): Study the maze given below and answer the question
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that follows.
16. How many turns will A take to come out of the maze?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
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Direction (20):
A + B means A is Brother of B
A B means A is Sister of B
A B means A is Father of B
A B means A is Mother of B
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Direction (21 to 25): Information about five state level players A, B, C, D and
E are given as follows
1. One is badminton player, one is chess player and one is tennis player.
2. A and D are unmarried ladies and do not take part in any game.
3. None of the ladies play chess or badminton.
4. There is a married couple in which E is the husband.
5. B is the brother of C and is neither a chess nor a tennis player.
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given. One segment is missing from the design. Select the alternative which
will complete the design when placed on the missing area.
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27.
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Directions (29 to 30): In each of the following question, some groups of letters are
given according to some rule. Following the rule choose the right answer amongst
four alternatives to replace the question mark.
(d) 5NIR
(d) GLJ4
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33. Sonu went 15 m to the north, then he turned west and covered 10 m then he
turned south covered 10 m. In which direction is he from the starting point?
(a) North (b) West
(c) North-west (d) South
3 4. Sandeep is confuse about direction and assume
1. North is called North-West
2. North-West is called West
3. West is called South-West and so on
(d) North-East
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35. If ACTION is coded as ZXGRLM then HEALTH will be coded in the same
way as
(a) SVZOGS
(b) TVZOGT
(c) RUZPGR
(d) OVGOZQ
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37. Buy good vegetable is coded as BDG, Distribute good vegetable is coded
as BCD and Vegetable are red is coded as BEF, then what is the code
for Red?
(a) B
(b) B or E (c) B or F (d) E or F
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38. In a certain code SHORT is written as ITOUS and DWARF as XEAGS, then
how will MANGO be written in the same code?
(a) NBNHP
(b) BNNPH
(c) BNNHP
(d) LABNPF
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Directions (39 to 40): Find out which one of the answer figure would occupy
the next position in the problem figures if they continue change in same order
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Direction (41 to 42): The first unit contains two figures and the second unit
contains one figure and a question mark. Find out which one the answer figure
should go in place of the question mark.
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Answer figure:
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Answer figure:
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Directions (43 to 46): In each of the following questions, four figure have been
given different. Choose the odd one out.
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47. How many 4s are followed by 1 and preceded by 7 in the following number
series:
8 4 7 2 1 7 4 1 4 7 1 4 7 6 7 1 4 1 4 7 4 7 1 4 7 2 9 4 1 7
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0
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Directions (48 to 50): In each of the question below are given two statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the two given statements disregarding
commonly known facts. Give answer:
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Part II
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SAT
1. If 18225 = 135, then the value of
+ 0.00018225 is
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a3 + b
(d) None of these
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6. The average age of 3 children Harshit, Sharya and Ayush in the family is 20%
of the average age of the father Rohit and the eldest child Harshit. The total
age of the mother and the youngest child 39 years. If the age of the father is 26
years, the age of the second child is
(a) 15 years (b) 18 years (c) 20 years (d) Cant be found
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7. The sum of the ages of 5 children born at intervals of 3 years each 50 years.
What is the age of the youngest child?
(a) 4 years (b) 8 years (c) 10 years (d) None of these
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11. A sum of money amounts to `6690 after 3 years and to `10,035 after 6 years
in compound interest. Find the sum.
(a) `4460
(b) `4455
(c) `4445
(d) `5460
12. Rohit uses a paper sheet measuring length 20 cm and width 30 cm. If a margin
of 2 cm is left on each side and a 3 cm margin on top and bottom, then what
percent of the page is used?
(a) 4:3
(b) 4:9
(c) 12:25
(d) None of these
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13. Aviget a sum of money at simple interest amounts to `1012 in 2 years and
2
to `1067.20 in 4 years. Then Avi get rate of interest per annum is
(a) 2.5%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
14. The average weight of 150 students in a certain class is 60 kg. The mean
weight of the boys from the class is 70 kg, while that of girls is 55 kg. What is
the number of girls the class?
(a) 105
(b) 100
(c) 95
(d) 60
15. In the figure ABCD is a parallelogram. P is a point on BC such that PB:PC =
1: 2 DP produced meets AB produced at W. If the area of the triangle BPQ is
20 square units, what is the area of the triangle DCP?
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(a) 40o
(b) 45o
(c) 50o
(d) 60o
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(a) -3
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 3
19. The product of a rational number and an irrational number is
(a) a natural number
(b) an irrational number
(c) a composite number
(d) a rational number
x
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+ =0
x +3
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a 2 b2 c2
is
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bc ca ab
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(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 13
21. If distance covered by a particle is zero, what can you say about its
displacement?
(a) It may or may not be zero
(b) It cannot be zero
(c) It is negative
(d) It must be zero
22. Which of the following velocity-time curves does not represent motion in one
dimension?
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23. A ball falls from a height of 10 m. On rebounding, it loses 30% of its energy.
The ball goes upto a height of
(a) 5 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 7 m
(d) 8 m
24. A 4 kg mass and 1 kg mass are moving with equal kinetic energies. The a ratio
of their linear momentum is
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1
25. A body is acted upon by a constant force. Then it will have a uniform
(a) Speed (b) Velocity (c) Momentum (d) Acceleration
26. When a large force acts on a body for a short time, then the measure of the
total effect of force is called
(a) Weight (b) Thrust (c) Momentum (d) Impulse of force
27. Physical independence of force is a consequence of
(a) First law of motion
(b) Second law of motion
(c) Third law of motion
(d) All the above laws
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28. Rocket engines lift a rocket from earths surface because hot gases with high
velocity
(a) Push against earth
(b) Push against air
(c) React against rocket and push it up
(d) Heat up air which lifts the rocket
29. The most characteristic property of liquids is
(a) Elasticity
(b) Fluidity
(c) Formlessness
(d) Volume conservation
30. If P is pressure and V is volume of a gas for a given mass of a gas at constant
temperature, then which of the following graphs is correct.
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(a) Cu 2+ and SO 2
4 ions are formed
(b) Cu 2 and SO 2+
4 ions are formed
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(c) Cu 2
2 and SO 4 ions are formed
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48. Though matchstick is made up of highly explosive material, it does not burn
itself because
(a) it may be wet
(b) it ignition temperature is not reached
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
49. The material used to see the cells for the first time was
(a) Bacteria
(b) Bark of the tree
(c) Onion leaf
(d) Human Muscle cells
50. Which of the following is the function of both monocytes and neutrophils?
(a) They engulf pathogens invading the body
(b) They eliminate dead, damaged and ageing cells
(c) Produce inflammatory response
(d) Both (a) and (b)
51. He/She was awarded the Magsaysay award for his efforts to conserve water
and rejuvenate the dead water sources in Rajasthan. Who is he/she?
(a) Rehendra Singh
(b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Sundarlal Bahuguna
(d) Medha Patkar
52. Where is the Pacific Rim National Park situated?
(a) Northeern Colorado
(b) British Columbia
(c) South Dakota
(d) Nova Scotia
53. An opinion peel is first placed in salt solution for five minutes and then in distilled water. Which phenomenon do we observe in the cell when it was placed
in distilled water?
(a) Plasmolysis and endosmosis
(b) Plasmolysis and exosmosis
(c) Deplasmolysis and endosmosis
(d) Deplasmolysis and exosmosis
54. The irrigation system that uses a rotating nozzle that showers water in the field
as if it is raining is called
(a) Flood irrigation system
(b) Drip irrigation system
(c) Sprinkler irrigation system
(d) Tubewell irrigation system
55. The micro-organism used for making bread is
(a) Saccharomyces Cerevisiae
(b) Steptococcus
(c) Staphylococcus
(d) Mould
56. Anthrax is dangerous human and cattle disease caused by
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacterium
(c) Mosquito
(d) Some unknown species of micro-organism
57. The hormone that controls the normal physical and mental growth and proper
utilization of food nutrients in the body is
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(c) Canvas
66. The first Mysore War was won by
(a) East India Company
(c) The Marathas
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67. Who was the first Indian to qualify the Indian Civil Service?
(a) Satyendra Nath Tagore
(b) R. C. Dutt
(c) Behari Lal Gupta
(d) Surendra Nath Banerjee
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69. The Revolt of 1857 was first popularized as The first war of Indian
Independence by.
(a) V. D. Savarkar
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) R.C. Majumdar
(d) Tara Chand
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70. Who among the leaders of the Revolt of 1857 managed to escape to Nepal?
(a) Kuwar Singh
(b) Nana Sahib
(c) Begam of Awadh
(d) Bakht Khan
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73. Who lived in the Black Town established by the European Company in
India?
(a) Indians
(b) Natives
(c) African Americans
(d) Both (a) and (b)
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(b) Government
(d) Indian Constitution
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77. No child below the age of ______ shall be employed to work in any factory.
(a) 14
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 3
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80. Only three states published the plan of Child Labour Prevention Act.
These are
(a) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu
(b) Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
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82. UC means
(a) Unit Calorie
(c) Union Carbide
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84. The poisonous gas released from the industry at Bhopal was
(a) Methyl-isocyanate
(b) Methyl-alcohol
(c) Methyl-chloride
(d) Methyanol
(b) Arbitration
(d) None of these
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Answer Key
4. (a)
5. (d)
6. (d)
7. (d)
8. (a)
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1. (b) 2. (d)
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Part I
SAT (English)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (d)
6. (b)
7. (b)
8. (b)
er
1. (c)
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Mat
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11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
Ki
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
Do
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31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
2. (b)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)
6. (d)
7. (a)
8. (d)
ed
1. (b)
by
Part II (SAT)
sh
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
bli
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)
Pu
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
14
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b)
20
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (a)
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igh
81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (b)