DBMS

1. The first generation of DBMS is represented by systems

a. Hierarchical and CODASYL systems.
b. Relational model
c. Network model
d. None of the above
2. Which of the following SQL statements are helpful in database redesign?
a. Correlated subqueries only
b. EXISTS/NOT EXISTS expressions only
c. Both of the above are helpful
d. None of the above are helpful.
3. What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table?
a. MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
b. MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
c. ALTER TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
d. ALTER TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
4. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the:
a. database is structured
b. database is well-designed.
c. database has no data
d. database is relatively small
5. Which SQL-92 standard SQL command can be used to change a table name?
a. RENAME TABLE
b. CHANGE TABLE
c. ALTER TABLE
d. None of the above is correct
6. The process of reading a database schema and producing a data model from that
schema is known as:
a. data modeling
b. database design
c. reverse engineering
d. None of the above is correct
7. Before any changes to database structure are attempted one should first:
a. clearly understand the current structure and contents of the database only
b. test any changes on a test database only.
c. create a complete backup of the operational database only
d. All of the above should be done
8. Which of the following modifications may not succeed?
a. Changing a column data type from char to date
b. Changing a column data type from numeric to char
c. Both of the above actions should succeed
d. Neither of the above actions will succeed
9. A regular subquery can be processed:
a. from the top down
b. from the bottom up
c. by nesting
d. None of the above is correct
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10. What SQL command can be used to add columns to a table?
a. MODIFY TABLE TableName ADD COLUMN ColumnName
b. MODIFY TABLE TableName ADD ColumnName
c. ALTER TABLE TableName ADD COLUMN ColumnName
d. ALTER TABLE TableName ADD ColumnName
11. The EXISTS keyword will be true if:
a. any row in the subquery meets the condition only
b. all rows in the subquery fail the condition only.
c. both of these two conditions are met.
d. neither of these two conditions is met.
12. Changing cardinalities in a database is:
a. a common database design task
b. a rare database design task, but does occur.
c. a database design task that never occurs.
d. is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data
moved into it.
13. The NOT EXISTS keyword will be true if:
a. any row in the subquery meets the condition.
b. all rows in the subquery fail the condition.
c. both of these two conditions are met.
d. neither of these two conditions is met
14. The data model that is produced from reverse engineering is:
a. a conceptual model.
b. an internal model.
c. a logical model.
d. None of the above is correct
15. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first:
a. drop the primary key.
b. drop the table containing the foreign key
c. drop the foreign key constraint
d. All of the above must be done
16. What SQL command will allow you to change the table STUDENT to add the
constraint named GradeCheck that states that the values of the Grade column
must be greater than 0?
a. ALTER TABLE STUDENT ALTER CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade
> 0);
b. ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade >
0);
c. ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck CHECK
(Grade > 0);
d. None of the above is correct.
17. Which is not true of a correlated subquery?
a. EXISTS/NOT EXISTS is a form of a correlated subquery.
b. The processing of the SELECT statements is nested.
c. They can be used to verify functional dependencies.
d. They are very similar to a regular subquery
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18. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures
is a:
a. dependency graph.
b. data model
c. graphical display
d. None of the above is correct.
19. Data is a
a. Raw fact and figure
b. Metadata
c. Information only
d. None of the above.
20. A repository of information about a database is known as a
a. Data Dictionary
b. Distributed database
c. File
d. None of the above
21. The overall description of the database is known as
a. Instance
b. Schema
c. Snapshot
d. None of the above
22. Schema is same as an
a. Extension of the database
b. Intension of the database
c. Subschema
d. None of the above
23. The physical storage structures of devices could be changed without affecting
conceptual schema. This is known as
a. Physical data independence
b. Logical data independence
c. External data independence
d. None of the above
24. Create, Alter and Drop are the examples of
a. DDL
b. DML
c. VDL
d. SDL
25. The term relation was chosen by
a. Dr. Berry Boehm
b. Dr. E.F. Codd.
c. Dr. Jacobson
d. None of the above
26. Each row of data is known as a
a. Tuple
b. Cardinality
c. Degree
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d. None of the above
27. The number of tuples in a relation is known as
a. Cardinality
b. Degree
c. Modality
d. None of the above
28. ER-model was introduced by
a. E.F. Codd
b. P.P. Chen
c. Constantine
d. None of the above
29. The primary key of a weak entity needs to be formed. It is known as the
a. Discriminator or partial key
b. Foreign key
c. Weak key
d. None of the above
30. The process of minimizing the difference between entities by identifying their
common characteristics is known as
a. Specialization
b. Generalization
c. Multiplicity
d. None of the above
31. The process of compiling information on an object, there by abstracting a higher
level object is known as
a. Specialization
b. Generalization
c. Aggregation
d. None of the above
32. The relationship between a weak entity-set is called as the
a. Weak relationship
b. Identifying relationship
c. Connecting relationship
d. Associative relationship
33. An ER-diagram that shows the concepts of Specialization and Generalization are
known as
a. Extended ER-diagrams
b. Effective ER-diagrams
c. Expanded ER-diagrams
d. Enhanced ER-diagrams
34. Those candidate keys which are not currently selected as the primary key are
called as
a. Super keys
b. Candidate key
c. Alternate key
d. None of the above
35. A key that has no meaning to the business or organization is
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a. Candidate key
b. Alternate key
c. Artificial key
d. None of the above
36. A rule that states that in a base relation, the value of attribute of a primary key
cannot be null is called as
a. Entity integrity rule
b. Referential integrity rule
c. Security integrity rule
d. None of the above
37. A virtual relation is also known as a
a. View
b. Table
c. Snapshot
d. None of the above
38. When we want to display records with attributes from many relations then we use
a. SELECT operation
b. PROJECT operation
c. JOIN operation
d. None of the above
39. What is the cardinality of a table with 50 rows and 5 columns?
a. 50
b. 5
c. 250
d. None of the above
40. What is the degree of a table with 50 rows and 5 columns?
a. 50
b. 5
c. 250
d. None of the above
41. To sort records we use
a. ORDER BY clause
b. HAVING clause
c. GROUP clause
d. None of the above
42. The logical tables of data extracted from existing tables are known as
a. Records
b. Views
c. Queries
d. None of the above
43. Oracle provides a special table that can be used to test any function. This table is
a. DUAL table
b. VIEW table
c. CALCULATION table
d. None of the above
44. ROLLBACK, COMMIT and SAVEPOINT are
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a. DMLs
b. DDLs
c. VDLs
d. TCLs
45. Primary indexing is also known as
a. Clustering index
b. Non-clustering index
c. Pinned indexing
d. None of the above
46. A buffer use to store results of the recent query
a. Cursor
b. Triggers
c. Packages
d. Exceptions
47. The process of decomposition of a table is known as
a. Specialization
b. Generalization
c. Normalization
d. None of the above
48. The process of Normalization was proposed by
a. Dr. E.F. Codd
b. Dr. Berry Boehm
c. Jacobson
d. None of the above
49. An association between two attributes of the same table is known as
a. Functional Dependency
b. Multi Valued Dependency
c. Join Dependency
d. None of the above
50. After normalization the original table can be obtained by
a. Delete operation
b. Cascade operation
c. Join operation
d. None of the above
51. Every BCNF is in
a. 1NF
b. 2NF
c. 3NF
d. 4NF
52. Shadow paging was introduced by
a. Boehm
b. Dr. E.F. Codd
c. Lorie
d. None of the above
53. Shadowing maintains
a. 2 tables
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b. 3 tables
c. 4 tables
d. None of the above
54. The page size in shadowing technique is of the order
a. 210 to 215 bytes
b. 211 to 215 bytes
c. 212 to 216 bytes
d. 213 to 217 bytes
55. Shadowing may result in
a. Page loss
b. Data scattering
c. Page swap
d. None of the above
56. A checkpoint where transactions are allowed to perform updates even while
buffer blocks are being written out is called as a
a. Buffer
b. Fuzzy checkpoint
c. Shadow paging
d. None of the above
57. The point of synchronization between the database and the transaction log file is
called as a
a. Checkpoint
b. Fuzzy checkpoint
c. UNDO and REDO
d. None of the above
58. Shadow paging is used for
a. Writing same item at same location
b. Writing same item at different location
c. Creating shadow
d. None of the above
59. The process of choosing a suitable execution strategy for processing a query is
known as
a. Query optimization
b. Query evaluation
c. Query execution plan
d. None of the above
60. The process of sending the result of one operator to another operator without
creating a temporary relation to hold the intermediate results is known as
a. Query
b. Relation
c. Pipelining
d. None of the above
61. The syntax of the query is checked by
a. Parser
b. Compiler
c. Assembler
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d. None of the above
62. The first phase of query processing is
a. Decomposition
b. Restructuring
c. Analysis
d. None of the above
63. The result of a query, in a query tree is represented by
a. Root node
b. Leaf node
c. Intermediary node
d. None of the above
64. Which of the following query processing method is more efficient:
a. Pipelining
b. Materialization
c. Tunnelling
d. None of the above

DBMS
1. a
2. c
3. c
4. c
5. d
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. b
10. d
11. a
12. a
13. b
14. d
15. c
16. c
17. d
18. a
19. a
20. a
21. b
22. b
23. a
24. a
25. b
26. a
27. a
28. b
29. a
30. b
31. c
32. b
33. d
34. c
35. c
36. a
37. a
38. c
39. a
40. 5
41. a
42. b
43. a
44. d
45. a
46. a
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47. c
48. a
49. a
50. c
51. c
52. c
53. a
54. a
55. b
56. b
57. a
58. b
59. a
60. c
61. a
62. a
63. a
64. a

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