D Rest Chem Eng

1.
In flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, carbon

monoxide is absorbed by
(a) cuprous chloride (b)potassium hydroxide
(c) alkaline pyrogallol soln (d) none of these
2. Calorific value as determined by bomb
calorimeter is
(a) higher calorific value at constant volume
(b) gross calorific value at constant pressure
(c) lower calorific value at constant pressure
(d) net calorific value at constant volume
3. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is characterized
by
(a) smoke formation
(b) high gas temperature
(c) high percentage of oxygen in flue gas
(d) high carbon monoxide content in flue gas
4. For maximum discharge through a chimney, its
height should be
(a) 200 meters
(b) infinitely long
(c) more than 105.7 meters
(d) equal to the height of the hot gas column
producing draught
5. Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmospheric
air is
(a) 19
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 29
6. Stack (chimney) height in a big thermal power
plant is dictated by
(a) pollution control aspect
(b) draught to be created
(c) limitation of constructional facilities
(d) none of these
7. A particular coal is said to be free burning when
it
(a) burns completely (b) gives smokeless
burning
(c) shows little or no fusing action (d) none
8. As time passes, the calorific value of stored coal
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains unaltered
(d) may increase or decrease (depends on the
method of storage)
9. Emission of dense white smoke out of chimney
of a thermal power plant is an indication of the
use of
(a) less air for combustion
(b) correct amount of air for combustion
(c) too much air for combustion
(d) pulverized coal in boilers
10. Use of pulverized coal in boiler furnace
provides
(a) high calorific value (b) better combustion

(c) smokeless burning (d) pulverized coal
11. Which of the following fuels is best for burning
on chain grate smoker?
(a) non caking coal
(b) caking coal
(c) coking coal
(d) pulverized coal
12. Which of the following accounts for maximum
energy loss in a boiler
(a) flue gases
(b) ash content in the fuel
(c) incomp combustion(d) unburnt C in flue gas
13. Over-fire burning in a furnace is a
phenomenon characterized by
(a) supply of excess fuel
(b) supply of excess air
(c) burning carbon monoxide and other
incombustible in upper zone of furnace by
supplying more air
(d) none of these
14. When steam is passed over coal resulting in the
endothermic reaction (C + H2O ----- CO + H2),
it is called
(a) carbonization of coal (b) oxidation of coal
(c) coalification (d) gasification of coal
15. Fischer-Tropsch method aims at
(a) gasification of coal
(b) synthesis of gasoline (from water gas)
(c) hydrogenation of coal to produce gasoline
(d) none of these
16. Commercial production of petrol from coal (as
practiced in a factory at Sasol in South Africa) is
done by
(a) hydrogenation of coal
(b) gasification of coal
(c) carbonization of coal
(d) none of these
17. In case pulverized coal from steam boiler, the
secondary air serves the main purpose of
(a) transportation of coal
(b) drying of coal
(c) combustion of coal by supplying in
around the burner
(d) pre-heating the primary air
18. The main function of primary air in pulverized
coal fired burner is to
(a) burn CO to CO2 (b) dry transport of the
coal
(c) have proper combustion by supplying it
around the burner
(d) pre-heat the tertiary air used for complete
combustion of CO to CO2
19. The advantage of firing pulverized coal in the
furnace lies in the fact that if
(a) permits the use of high ash content of coal

(b) permits the use of low fusion point ash coal
(c) accelerates the burning rate and
economizes on fuel combustion
(d) all of the above
20. Orsat apparatus is meant for
(a) gravimetric analysis of flue gas
(b) finding out combustion efficiency
(c) direct determination of nitrogen in flue gas
by absorbing it in ammoniacal cuprous
chloride
(d) none of these
21. Pick out the wrong statement
(a) Theoretical
flame
temperature
is
temperature attained by the products of
combustion when the fuel is burned without
loss or gain of heat
(b) Burning the fuel with theoretically required
amount of pure oxygen results in attainment
of maximum adiabatic flame temperature
(c) Burning the fuel with excess pure oxygen
results in maximum theoretical flame
temperature
(d) Adiabatic flame temperatures of actual
combustions are always less than maximum
values
22. The maximum adiabatic flame temperature in
air compared to that in pure oxygen is
(a) much lower (b) much higher
(c) same
(d) either lower or higher, depends on the type
of fuel
23. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is
dependant on the initial temperature of
(a) the fuel
(b) the air
(c) both fuel & the air (d) neither fuel nor the
air
24. Preheating of
(a) the gaseous fuel before combustion
decreases the flame temperature
(b) Combustion air decreases the flame
temperature
(c) either the fuel or the air or both increases
the flame temperature
(d) either the fuel or the air does not affect the
flame temperature
25. The fuel ratio of a coal is
(a) the ratio of its percentage of fixed carbon to
that of volatile matter
(b) helpful in estimation of its rank
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
26. A fuel containing carbon and carbon monoxide

(but containing the hydrogen or its compounds)
is burnt in pure oxygen at constant pressure. Its
gross calorific value as compared to the net
calorific value will be
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same (d) data insufficient; cant be predicted
27. Removal of hydrogen from coke oven gas
(a) increases its calorific value
(b) decreases its calorific value
(c) does not alter its calorific value
(d) is not possible on commercial scale
28. With increase in calorific value of fuels, their
adiabatic flame temperatures
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) may increase or decrease; depends on the
quantity of products of combustion
29. Grindability index of a coal is 100. It implies
that the
(a) coal can be pulverized with great difficulty
(b) coal cant be pulverized
(c) coal can easily be pulverized
(d) power consumption in grinding the coal will
be very high
30. If the specific heat of gaseous products of
combustion of a fuel is high, the adiabatic flame
temperature will be
(a) low
(b) high
(c) very high if fuel is of low calorific value
(d) none of these
31. Calorific value (kcal/kg) of dry wood may be
around
(a) 5
(b) 50
(c) 500
(d) 5000
32. A coal containing high amount of volatile matter
will have
(a) low ignition temperature
(b) very little content
(c) high fusion point of its ash
(d) low adiabatic flame temperature
33. Steam is intermittently admitted in to the fuel
bed during the production of producer gas to
(a) convert CO to CO2
(b) increase in combustion rate
(c) increase the gas production rate
(d) minimize the chances of clinker formation
34.Which of the following is called blue gas?
(a) coke oven gas
(b) water gas

(c) natural gas
(d) producer gas (produced using Kopper
Totzek gasifier).
35. During combustion of gaseous fuel deficiency
of air
(a) lengthens the flame
(b) tends to shorten the flame
(c) does not affect the flame length
(d) increases the flame temperature
36. Use of excess of combustion air in the
combustion of fuels results in
(a) heat losses
(b) long flame
(c) condensation of water vapor from the flue
gas
(d) none of these
37. A gaseous fuel in order to develop luminosity on
burning, must contain
(a) carbon monoxide
(b) hydrocarbons
(c) hydrogen
(d) oxygen
38. Preheating of gaseous fuel results in increased
(a) flame length (b) flame temperature
(c) quantum of flue gas (d) ignition temperature
39. Quantity of coke oven gas produced by high
temperature carbonization of one ton of dry coal
may be around
(a) 30 Nm
(b) 300 Nm
(c) 3000 Nm
(d) 30,000 Nm
40. Coke oven gas is a better fuel than blast furnace
gas because of its higher
(a) calorific value, cleanliness and relatively
low distribution cost (due to its low specific
gravity)
(b) adiabatic flame temperature
(c) heat release rate (thus requiring smaller
combustion chamber)
(d) all of the above
41. Which of the following constituents of fuel does
not contribute to its calorific value on
combustion
(a) hydrogen
(b) sulfur
3
(c) carbon
(d) none of these
42. Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to
that of lump coal
(a) develops a non-luminous flame
(b) develops a low temperature flame
(c) can be done with less excess air
(d) provides a lower rate of heat release
43. Which of the following is the most important
deterrents to an extended use of pulverized coal
in boiler firing?
(a) ash disposal problem
(b) excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack
(c) high power consumption in its transportation
(d) erosion of induced draft fan blades
44. Pulverized coal used in boiler firing need have
(a) less moisture content
(b) high fusion point of its ash
(c) high bulk density
(d) lower ash constant
45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon
completely may be around
(a) 11.5 lb
(b) 2.67 lb
(c) 16 lb
(d) none of these
46. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft of CO to
CO2 may be around
(a) 2.4 ft
(b) 1.75 ft
(c) 0.87 ft
(d) 11.4 ft
47. Washing of coal
(a) reduces its sulfur and ash content
(b) controls its ash fusibility and increases its
calorific value
(c) improves its coking properties
(d) all (a), (b), and (c)
48. Which of the following has the highest gross
calorific value?
(a) blast furnace gas
(b) coke oven gas
(c) carburetted water gas (d) oil refinery gas
49. Most of coking coals are
(a) anthracite coal
(b) bituminous coal
(c) lignite
(d) none of these
50. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in
(a) increased fuel consumption
(b) incomplete combustion
3
(c) smoky flame

(d) none of these
51. Atomizing steam to fuel oil ratio in a burner
should be around
(a) 0.5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
52. For every 10% increase in the excess air; the
fuel consumption increases by
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
53. Ash content in the coke produced from a coking
coal having 20% ash may be around
(a) 5%
(b) 2%
(c)17%
(d) 25%
54. Out of the following fuels, the difference
between the net and gross calorific value is
maximum in case of
(a) pitch
(b) fuel oil
(c) blast furnace gas
(d) bituminous gas
55. Spontaneous combustion of coal on storage
results due to
(a) inadequate ventilation
(b) low temperature oxidation
(c) storage in large heaps with small surface to
volume ratio
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
56. Low temperature oxidation of coal resulting
from bad storage conditions does not decrease
its
(a) caking power (b) calorific value
(c) hydrogen content
(d) oxygen content
57. Efficient burning of anthracite coal requires
(a) low preheat of air
(b) fine grinding
(c) high excess air
58. Rate of temperature oxidation of coal due to bad
storage conditions
(a) decrease with increase in surface area
(b) does not vary with increase in surface area
(c) is more for low volatile coal compared to
high volatile coal
(d) is accelerated by storage in large heaps
with small surface to volume ratio
59. Fusion of point coal ash increases in its
(a) iron sulfate content (b) iron silicate content
(c) lime and magnesia content (d) all (a), (b) (c)
60. Which of the following accentuates clinkering
trouble on furnace grate burning coal
(a) low density of carbonized residue containing
high proportions of iron and sulfur
(b) low forced draught and fuel bed temperature
(c) thick fire and preheated primary air
61. A coal having high ratio of volatile matter to
fixed carbon as compared to a coal having low
ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon
(a) is less liable to spontaneous combustion on
storage
(b) is more difficult to ignite and produces a
shorter flame
(c) requires smaller combustion space and less
secondary air
(d) none of these
62. Which of the following can be made into
briquettes without the use of a binder
(a) lignite
(b) bituminous coal
(c) anthracite coal
(d) none of these
63. Presence of free moisture in coal is most
disadvantageous during
(a) its pulverization (as it requires more
power)
(b) combustion of fine slacks on the grates
(c) handling (e.g. when emptying wagons)
(d) none of these
64. Which of the following is not a binder for coal
briquetting?
(a) coal tar
(b) bitumen
(c) molasses
(d) none of these
65. Highly caking coals
(a) produce weak coke
(b) produce strong coke
(c) may damage the coke oven walls during
carbonization
(d) both (b) and (c)
66. Presence of free moisture in coal during its high
temperature carbonization
(a) reduces the coking time
(b) protects the volatile products from

pyrolysis (cracking) in the presence of hot
coke and hot oven walls
(c) increases the loss of fine coal dust from the
ovens when charging
(d) none of these
67. Higher percentage of ash in coal meant for the
production of metallurgical grade coke
(a) increases the hardness of coke
(b) increases the abrasion resistance of coke
(c) causes brittleness in steel
(d) none of these
68. Increases in ash content of blast furnace coke
(a) reduces its consumption in the furnace
(b) increases its consumption in the furnace
(c) does not affect its consumption in the
furnace
(d) decreases its hardness and abrasion
resistance
69. High sulfur content in a fuel
(a) increases the dew point of the flue gases
(b) decreases the dew point of the flue gases
(c) reduces combustion efficiency by limiting
the permissible temperature reduction of the
flue gases
(d) both (a) and (c)
70. With the increase in carbonization temperature
(a) gas yield increases (b) tar yield increases
(c) hydrogen percentage in the coke oven gas
decreases
(d) methane percentage in the coke oven gas
increases
71. Fill up the blank
With increase in time of carbonization at a
particular temperature (say 1000C ), the
. percentage in coke oven gas increases
(a) hydrogen
(b) methane
(c) unsaturates
72. Producer gas containing least amount of tar is
produced by
(a) partial combustion of coal
(b) partial combustion of large size (<50mm)
(c) high pressure gasification of coal (e.g. in

Lurgi gasifier)
(d) atmospheric pressure gasification of coal
(e.g., in Kopper-Totzek gasifier)
73. High temperature in gasification of coal favors
(a) high production of CO2
(b) low production of CO2
(c) high production of CO
(d) both (b) and (c)
74. Lurgi gasifier (high pressure gasifier) as
compared to Kopper-Totzek gasifier
(atmospheric pressure gasifier) produces
(a) higher amount of methane
(b) lower amount of hydrogen
(d) higher amount of both methane and
hydrogen
75. Which of the following constituents of coal is
most important in the production of coke
(a) moisture
(b) ash
(c) volatiles
(d) carbon
76. Which of the following is most reactive (as
regards the formation of CO + H2 from C +
H2O)?
(a) blast furnace coke (b) low temp coke
(c) anthracite coal (d) sub-bituminous coal
77. A coal that softens and fuses on heating in
(a) classified
(b) carbonized
(c) caking
(d) non-caking
78. Purity of coke means that it is high in carbon
and low in
(a) volatiles
(b) ash
(c) iron
(d) moisture
79. Calorific value (kcal/Nm ) of coke oven furnace
gas is around
(a) 900
(b) 4500
(c) 7500
(d) 2000
80. Calorific value (kcal/Nm ) of blast furnace gas
is around
(a) 900
(b) 1800
(c) 4500
(d) 6500
81. Blast furnace gas is a very poisonous gas
because of its predominantly high
3
(a) H2S content (b) CO2 content

(c) CO content (d) CH4 content
82. Percentage of carbon monoxide in blast furnace
gas may be around
(a) 0.5
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 55
83. Percentage of hydrogen in coke oven gas may
be around
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 50
84. Percentage of methane in coke oven gas may be
around
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 25
(d) 55
85. Coke oven gas compared to blast furnace gas is
(a) more explosive and inflammable
(b) (b) less poisonous
(c) lighter
86. Which of the following gases will require
maximum amount of air for combustion of 1 Nm
gas?
(b) natural gas
(c) producer gas
(d) water gas
87. Which of the following will generate maximum
volume of product of complete combustion
(Nm /Nm of fuel)?
(a) carburetted water gas (b) blast furnace gas
(c) natural gas
(d) producers gas
88. Which is the heaviest fuel gas out of the
following?
(b) coke oven gas
(c) water gas
(d) carburetted water gas
89. Fuel can be defined as a substance which
produces heat by
(a) combustion (b) nuclear fission
(c) nuclear fusion (d) all (a), (b) and (c)
90. Catalyst used in Fisher-Tropsch process is
(a) Nickel
(b) Zinc oxide
(c) Alumina
(d) Thorium oxide
91. In the flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus,
oxygen is absorbed by
(a) potassium hydroxide (b) cuprous chloride
3
(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none

92. In flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, carbon
dioxide is absorbed by
(a) potassium hydroxide
(b) dilute potassium carbonate
(c) cuprous chloride
(d) alkaline pyrogallol solution
93. The sequence of absorption in flue gas analysis
by Orsats apparatus is respectively
(a) CO2, O2, CO (b) CO, O2, CO2
(c) CO2, CO, O2 (d) O2, CO2, CO
94. Which of the following has the highest calorific
value?
(a) lignite
(b) sub-bituminous coal
(c) anthracite
(d) peat
95. The main product of high temperature
carbonization is
(a) coke
(b) ammonia
(c) tar
(d) coke oven gas
96. High temperature carbonization produces
(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature
carbonization
(b) less of gases compared to liquid products
(c) large quantity of tar compared to low
(d) none of these
97. High temperature carbonization takes place at
(a) 2000C
(b) 600 C
(c) 1100 C
(d) 1600 C
98. Low temperature carbonization takes place at
(a) 300 C
(b) 1100 C
(c) 500-650 C
(d) 150 C
99. Proximate analysis of determines
(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter
(b) moisture, volatile matter, ash, fixed
carbon
(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon
(d) none of these
100. Ultimate analysis of coal determines
(a) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur
(b) carbon, ash, sulfur, nitrogen
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash
(d) carbon, volatile matter, ash, moisture
1. Catalysts used in the manufacture of

sulfuric acid by chamber and contact
processes are
respectively
(a) V2O5 and Cr2O3
(b) Oxides of nitrogen and Cr 2O3
(c) V2O5 on a porous carrier and oxides of
nitrogen
(d) oxides of nitrogen and V2O5 on a
porous carrier
2. In contact process, SO 3 is absorbed in
97% H2SO4 and not in water because
(a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water
(b) water forms an acid mist which is
difficult to absorb
(c) the purity of acid is affected
(d) scale formation in absorber is to be
avoided
3. Contact process
(a) yields acid of higher
concentration than chamber process
(b) yields acids of lower concentration
than chamber process
(c) is obsolete
(d) eliminates absorber
4. 20% Oleum means that in 100 lb., there
are 20 lb. of
(a) SO3 and 80 lb of H2SO4
(b) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
(c) SO3 for each 100 lb of H2SO4
(d) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
5. Producer gas consists mainly of
(a) CO, CO2, N2, H2
(b) CO, H2
(c) H2, CH4
(d) C2H2, CO2, H2
6. Oxygen is produced by fraction of air
using
(a) Linde's process
(b) Claude's process
(c) both Linde's and Claude's process
(d) Bayer's process
7. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for
manufacture of the soda ash are
(a) salt, limestone ,ammonia and
coke oven gas
(b) ammonia, salt and limestone
(c) ammonia, limestone and coke
(d) ammonia and coke oven gas
8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends

upon the efficiency of
(a) carbonating tower
(b) ammonia recovery
(c) ammonia recovery and size of
plant
(d) ammoniation of salt solution
9.
Mercury cells for caustic soda
manufacture compared to diaphragm cells
(a) require lower initial investment
(b) require more power
(c) produce lower concentration of NaOH
(d) none of these
10. Cement mainly contains
(a)CaO, SiO2, Al2O3
b (b) MgO, SiO2, K2O
(c) Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3
(d) CaO, MgO, K2O
11. Gypsum is
(a) calcium chloride
(b) potassium sulfate
(c) sodium sulfate
(d) calcium sulfate
12. Glauber's salt is
(a) calcium sulfate
(b) potassium sulfate
(c) potassium chlorate
(d)sodium sulfate decahydrate
13. Permanent hardness of water is due to
the presence of calcium and magnesium
(a) bi-carbonates
(b)sulfates and chlorides
(c) carbonate
(d) chlorides
14. Widely used method for conditioning of
boiler feed water is
(a) cold lime process
(b) coagulation
(c) hot-lime soda process
(d) sequestration
15. Hydrazine is largely used
(a) as a starting material for 'hypo'
(b) in photographic industry
(c) as rocket fuel
(d) in printing industry
16. Trinitro-toluene is
(a) used in glycerin manufacture
(b) an explosive
(c) used in dye manufacture
(d) used in paint manufacture

17. Oil is
(a) a mixture of glycerides
(b)a mixture of glycerides of fatty
acids
(c) solid at normal temperature
(d) ester of alcohols other than glycerin
18. Wax is
(a) a mixture of glycerides
(b) a mixture of esters of polyhydric
alcohols except glycerin
(c) liquid at room temperature
(d) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
19. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated
oils have
(a) lower melting point and higher
reactivity to oxygen
(b) higher melting point and higher
(c) lower melting point and lower
(d) higher melting point and lower
20. Rancidity of oil can be reduced by
(a) decoloration
(b) hydrogenation
(c) oxidation
(d) purification
21. Solvent used for extraction of oil is
(a) hexane
(b) methyl ethyl ketone
(c) furfural
(d) benzene
22. Solvent extracted oil
(a) has low free fatty acid-content
(b) is odorless
(c) has more of unsaturated oil
(d) none of these
23. Hydrogenation of oil does not
(a) remove double bonds
(b) rise in melting point
(c) improve its resistance
oxidation
(d) none of these

24. Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oil is
(a) nickel
(b) platinum
(c) iron
(d) alumina
25. Soaps remove dirt by
(a) increasing the surface tension
(b) decreasing wettability
(c) supplying hydrophilic group

(d) none of these
26. Metallic soap is
(a) sodium salt of fatty acids
(b) potassium salt of fatty acids
(c) both sodium and potassium salt of
fatty acids
(d) aluminum or calcium salt of fatty
acids
27. Fat splitting catalyst is
(a) CaCO3
(b) ZnO
(c) alumina
(d) iron
28. Free alkali in toilet soap is
(a) less than that in a laundry soap
(b) more than that in a laundry soap
(c) same as that in a laundry soap
(d) not present in laundry soap
29. Soap cannot be used with hard water
because
(a) hard water contains sulfate
(b) they form insoluble calcium
soaps which precipitate
(c) they attract back the removed dirt
(d) they increase the surface tension
30. Builders are added in soap to
(a) boost cleaning power
b (b) act as anti-redeposition agent
(c) act as corrosion inhibitor
(d) acts as fabric brightener
31. Bio-degradable detergents
(a) can be readily oxidized
(b) pose problem in sewerage plant
(c) have an isoparaffinic structure
(d) should not be used as it spoils the
cloth
32. Which of the following is a detergent?
(a) fatty alcohol
(b) alkyl benzene sulfonate
(c) fatty acids
(d) methyl chloride
33. Yellow glycerin is made into white, using
(a) activated carbon
(b) diatomaceous earth
(c) bauxite
(d) bentonite
34. Essential oils are usually obtained using
(a) steam distillation
(b) extractive distillation
(c) solvent extraction
(d) leaching
35. Plasticizers are added to paints to
(a) make it corrosion resistant
(b) make glossy surface
(c) give elasticity and prevent

cracking of the film
(d) increase atmospheric oxidation
36.
Which oil is preferred for paint
manufacture?
(a) drying oil
(b) non-drying oil
(c) semi-drying oil
(d) saturated oil
37. Function of thinner in a paint is to
(a) accelerate the oxidation of oil
(b) prevent gelling of the paint
(c) suspend pigments and dissolve
film-forming materials
(d) form a protective film
38. Varnish does not contain
(a) pigment
(b) thinner
(c) dryer
(d) anti-skinning agent
39. Enamels
(a) give good glossy finish
(b) are same as varnish
(c) are prepared from non-drying oil
(d) do not contain pigment
40. SO2 is bubbled through hot sugar-cane
juice to
(a) act as an acidifying agent
(b) increase its concentration
(c) increase the amount of molasses
(d) increase the crystal size
41. Molasses is the starting material for
(a) alcohol
(b) essential oil
(c) fatty acids
(d) ether
42. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of
paper should have high
(a) cellulose content
(b) lignin content
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
43. In Kraft process of paper manufacture,
white cooking liquor consists of caustic soda
(a) sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate
(b) sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate
(c) sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide
(d) and sodium carbonate
44. Comparing sulfate process with sulfite
process, we find that
(a) both temperature and pressure in
former is less than that in the latter
(b) both temperature and pressure
in former is more than that in the
latter
(c)
temperature is more in former
whereas pressure is more in the latter
(d) pressure is more in the former
whereas temperature is less in the
latter
45. Cooking liquor in case of sulfite process
is
(a) sodium sulfite and sodium
bisulfite
(b) magnesium sulfite and free SO2 in
acid medium
(c) magnesium sulfate and magnesium
bicarbonate
(d) sodium bisulfite
46. Which is a high-grade pulp?
(a) rag pulp
(b) mechanical pulp
(c) sulfate pulp
(d) sulfite pulp
47. Which of the following paper does not
require a filler during manufacture?
(a) bond paper
(b) writing paper
(c) blotting paper
(d) colored paper
48. Bleaching of paper pulp is done with
(a) activated clay
(b) bromine
(c) chlorine or chlorine dioxide
(d) magnesium sulfite
49. Sizing material is incorporated in paper
to
(a) impart resistance to penetration
by liquids
(b) increase its thickness
(c) increase its flexibility and opacity
(d) increase its brightness
50. Viscose rayon is
(a) cellulose nitrate
(b) regenerated cellulose nitrate
(c) regenerated cellulose acetate
(d)regenerated cellulose fiber
51. Which of the following coal has the
highest calorific value?
(a) Lignite
(b) Sub-bituminous
(c) Anthracite
(d) Peat
52. The main product of high temperature
carbonization is
(a) Coke
(b) Ammonia
(c) Tar
(d) Phenol
53.
High temperature carbonization
produces
(a)
inferior coke compared to low
(b) less of gases compared to liquid
products
(c) larger quantity of tar compared to
low temperature carbonization
(d) relatively low tar and yields of
gaseous products are larger than
the yield of liquid
products
54. High temperature carbonization takes
place at
(a) 4000 - 5000F
(b) 950F
(c) > 1650F
(d) < 1000F
55. Low temperature carbonization takes
place at
(a) 500F
(b) 1300F
(c) 750 - 1100F
(d) 2500 F
56. Proximate analysis of coal determines
(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter
(b) moisture, volatile matter
(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed
carbon
(d) carbon, hydrogen, ash
57. Ultimate analysis of coal determines
(a) moisture, hydrogen, nitrogen,
sulfur
(b) carbon, ash, sulfur,nitrogen
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash
(d) carbon,volatile matter, ash, moisture
58. Washing of coal is done to
(a) remove the inherent impurities
(b) remove the adhering impurities
(c) reduce the ash content
(d) both b and c
59. A good quality coal should have
(a) low fusion point of ash
(b) high ash content
c (c) high sulfur content
d (d) none of these
60. Coke oven gas consists mainly of
(a) H2, CH4
(b) CO, CO2
(c) H2, CO
(d) CH4, CO
61. Lurgi coal gasifier is a pressurized
(a) moving bed reactor
(b) fixed bed reactor
(c) fluidized bed reactor
(d) entrained bed reactor

62. In Lurgi gasifier
(a) cooking coals cannot be used
(b) low carbon conversion efficiency is
achieved
(c) entrainment of solids is higher
(d) large quantity of coal can be
processed
63. The catalyst used in shift converter is
(a) nickel
(b) vanadium
(c) silica gel
(d) alumina
64.
The gasification reaction C + H2O
CO + H2 is
(a) exothermic
(b)endothermic
(c) catalytic
(d) autocatalytic
65.
The combustion reaction C + O2
CO2 is
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) autocatalytic
(d) catalytic
66. Kopper-Totzek coal gasifier
(a) can give ammonia synthesis gas
(b) is a moving bed reactor
(c) cannot use cooking coal
(d) operate at very high pressure
67. Acrylonitrile is mainly used in
(a) polymer industry
(b) printing industry
(c) dyeing industry
(d) photographic industry
68. The major use of butadiene is
(a) as a plasticizer for unsaturated
polyester
(b) in the manufacture of synthetic
rubber
(c) as an anti-skinning agent in paint
(d) as corrosion inhibitor
69. Phenol is mainly used
(a) to produce benzene
(b) to produce phenol formaldehyde
(c) to produce polyester resin
(d) as a plasticizer for unsaturated
polyester
70. Phthalic anhydride is made by
(a) Oxidation of naphthalene
(b) Oxidation of benzene
(c) Dehydrogenation of ethyl benzene
(d) Oxidation of toluene
71. Trinitrotoluene (TNT), an explosive, is
made by nitration of
(a) nitrobenzene
(b) toluene
(c) nitrotoluene
(d) benzene
72.
Which is the most suitable dye for
synthetic fibers?
(a) acid dye
(b) azoic dye
(c) pigment dye
(d) mordant dye
73. Fumigant insecticides
(a) kill insects when they eat it
(b) emit poisonous vapor
(c) are absorbed throughout the plant
(d) are stomach poisons
74. Systemics insecticides
(a) are absorbed throughout the
plant
(b) kill insects following external bodily
contact
(c) are stomach poisons
(d) emit poisonous vapor
75. DDT stands
(a) diethyl-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(b) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(c) diphenyl-dichloro-trichloromethane
(d)dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane
76. BHC (Benzene hexa-chloride) is made by
chlorination of benzene
(a) which is an addition reaction
(b) which is a substitution reaction
(c) in absolute dark
(d) in presence of sunlight
77. Analgesic drugs are
(a) pain relievers
(b) antibiotics
(c) used in the treatment of TB
(d) used in the treatment of typhoid
78. Antibiotic
(a) prohibits/destroys the growth of
micro-organism
(b) is used as pain reliever
e (c) is an anti-malaria
(d) is an anaesthetic
79. Penicillin is made employing
(a) continuous
fermentation
process
(b)aerobic batch fermentation
(c) anaerobic batch fermentation
(d) aerobic
or
anaerobic
batch
fermentation
80.
Which of the following is not an
antibiotic?
(a) penicillin
(b) streptomycin
(c) tetracyclin
(d)quinine
81. Molecular weights of polymers are in the

range of
(a) 10 - 1000
(b) 105 - 109
(c) 103 - 107
(d) 105 - 107
82. Zeigler process
(a)
produces high density
polyethylene
(b) produces low density polyethylene
(c) uses no catalyst
(d) employs very high pressure
83. Poly-Vinyl Chloride (PVC) is
(a) thermosetting
(b) thermoplastic
(c) a fibrous material
(d) chemically active
84. Phenol formaldehyde
(a) employs
addition
polymerization
(b)employs
condensation
polymerization
(c) is a monomer
(d) is an abrasive material
85. Epoxy resin
(a) is a good adhesive
(b) is an elastomer
(c) cannot be used on surface coatings
(d) is a polyester
86. Vulcanization of rubber
(a) decreases its tensile strength
(b) increases its ozone and oxygen
reactivity
(c) increases its oil and solvent resistant
(d)converts
its
plasticity
into
elasticity
87. Most commonly used rubber vulcanizing
agent is
(a) sulfur
(b) bromine
(c) platinum
(d) alumina
88. Styrene butadiene rubber (SBR) is
(a) a natural rubber
(b)a synthetic polymer
(c) a synthetic monomer
(d) another name for silicon rubber
89. Nylon-6 is manufactured from
(a) caprolactam
(b) hexamethylene diamine and adipic
acid
(c) hexamethylene diamine and maleic
anhydride
(d) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic

acid
90. Nylon 6-6 is manufactured from
(a) hexamethylene diamine adipic
acid
(b) hexamethylene diamine and maleic
anhydride
(c) caprolactam
(d) dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene
glycol
91. Dacron is
(a) a polyester
(b) an unsaturated polyester
(c) a polyamide
(d) an inorganic polymer
92. Celluloid is
(a) cellulose acetate
(b) regenerated cellulose
(c) cellulose nitrate
(d) cellulose acetate butyrate
93. Thermoplastic materials
(a) do not soften on application of heat
(b) are heavily branched molecules
(c) are solvent insoluble
(d)are capable of softening or fusing
when heated and of hardening
again when cooled
94. Thermosetting materials
(a) are
capable
of
becoming
permanently rigid when heated
or cured
(b) soften on application of heat
(c) are solvent insoluble
(d) are heavily branched molecules
95. Type of glass used in optical work is
(a) soda-lime glass
(b) fiber glass
(c) lead glass
(d) borosilicate glass
96. Silicon carbide is
(a) an adhesive
(b) an abrasive
(c) a type of glass
(d)brittle
97. The temperature in the calcium carbide
furnace is
(a) 200 - 300C
(b) 700 - 850C
(c) 2000 -2200C
(d) 4000 - 4500C
98. Cumene (Isopropyl benzene) is made by
(a) oxidation of naphthalene
(b) propylene alkylation of benzene
(c) polymerization of a mixture of
benzene and propylene
(d) polymerization of propylene

99. Glycerin can be obtained from
(a) fat
(b) naphthalene
(c) cumene
(d) sucrose
100. Cumene is the starting material for the
production of
(a) benzoic acid
(b) phenol and acetone
(c) isoprene
(d) styrene
101. Which of the following is not responsible
for causing permanent hardness of water?
(a) Ca(HCO3)2
(b) CaCl2
(c) MgCl2
(d) NaCl
102. Zeolite used in water softening process
(cation exchange) is regenerated by washing
with
(a) brine
(b) chloramines
(c) sodium bisulfite
(d) liquid chlorines
103. Presence of H2S in raw water (to be
chlorinated) results in
(a) reduced softening capacity of
zeolite
(b) increase dosage of chlorine to
provide a disinfecting residual
in the
water
(c) easy removal of its hardness
(d) residual turbidity
104. Lime and soda ash are added to water
to remove
(a) bicarbonates and sulfates of
calcium and magnesium
(b) undesirable taste and odor
(c) bacteria
(d) its corrosiveness
105. Chloramines are used in water
treatment for
(a) disinfection and control of taste
and odor
(b) corrosion control
(c) removing turbidity
(d) control of bacteria
106. Deaeration of water in its treatment is
necessary as it
(a) minimizes its turbidity
(b) helps in controlling its taste and odor
(c) minimizes its corrosiveness
(d) controls bacteria
107. Sodium Bisulfate is used for
(a) deaeration of water
(b) dechlorination of water

(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
108. Dechlorination of treated water is
necessary to
(a) remove residual turbidity
(b) reduce the bacterial load on filter
(c) control taste and odor
(d) remove chlorinous taste
109. The main used of the activated carbon
in water treatment is to control
(a) bacterial growth
(b) taste and odor
(c) turbidity
(d) corrosion
110. Alum [Al2(SO4)3] is used as a coagulant
in water treatment to remove
(a) color
(b) turbidity
(c) bacteria
(d) all a, b and c
111. Use of hydrated lime in water treatment
(a) before filtration, reduces the bacterial
load on filters
(a) after
filtration,
combats
the
corrosiveness of water due to
presence of O2 and CO2
(c) is to adjust the pH value
(d) all a, b and c
112. The purpose of adding Na2CO3 to water
of low alkalinity is to
(a) permit the use of alum as a
coagulant (b)
increase the softening
capacity of zeolite
(c) facilitate the easy regeneration of
zeolite
(d) all a, b and c
113. Pick out the true statement pertaining
to water treatment
(a) Slow sand filters can remove color
completely
(b) Activated carbon can be used for taste
and odor control without subsequent
filtration
(c) Application of activated carbon
reduces the temporary hardness of water
(d) Normally, the turbidity is
removed by adding a coagulant prior to
sedimentation
114. Pick out the false statement pertaining
to water treatment
(a) Aeration of water is effective in CO2
removal
f
(b) The zeolite water softening
process reduces the hardness of
water by not more
than 50%
(c) Sodium sulfate or sodium
carbonates do not cause hardness in water
(d) Water with pH value less than 7, is
acidic
115. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining
to solvent extraction of oil
Rate of extraction.
(a) decreases with decrease of
thickness of the flakes
(b) increases with the increasing flake
size keeping the flake thickness constant
(c) increases considerably with the rise
of temperature
g
(d) decreases as the moisture content
of flakes increases
116. Fats as compared to oils have
(a) more unsaturated glycerides of
fatty acids
(b) less unsaturated glycerides of
fatty acids
(c) much higher reactivity to oxygen
h
(d) lower melting point
117. Salt is added in the kettle during soap
manufacture to separate
(a) soap from lye
(b) glycerin from lye
(c) the metallic soap
(d) the unsaponified fat from soap
118. Hydrazine (N2H4) is used mainly as
(a) explosive
(b) rocket fuel
i (c) an additive in detergent
j (d) catalyst
119. Oils are partially hydrogenated (not
fully) to manufacture vanaspati, because
fully saturated
solidified oils
(a) cause cholesterol build up and
blood clotting
(b) are prone to rancid oxidation
(c) always contain some amount of
nickel (as their complete removal is very
difficult)
(d) have affinity to retain harmful sulfur
compounds
120. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in
(a) an autothermal reactor
(b) a trickle bed reactor
(c) a plug flow reactor
(d) backmix reactor
121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil
should not be more than 200C, otherwise it
will
result in
(a) pyrolysis of oil
(b) sintering of porous catalyst

(c) hydrogen embrittlement
(d)all a, b and c
122. Shaving soaps are
(a) soft potassium soaps (potassium
salt of fatty acid) with free
stearic acid to give
lather a lasting property
(b) metallic soaps compounded with
frothing agents
(c) high free alkali soaps having excess
of cane sugar and alcohol
(d) usually soap soaps
123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are
(a) usually soft soaps (made from
coconut oil) in which cane sugar
and alcohol are
added and finally washed with
methylate
spirit
to
achieve
transparency
(b) metallic soaps with frothing agent
and free stearic acid to achieve transparency
(c) metallic soaps with frothing agent
from which glycerin has not been recovered
(d) high free alkali soaps having excess
of cane sugar and alcohol
124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by
(a) evaporation followed by vacuum
distillation
(b) liquid extraction technique
(c) extractive distillation technique
(d) steam distllation
125. Glycerin is not used in the
(a) manufacture of explosive
(b) conditioning and humidification of
tobacco
(c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals
(d) manufacture of caustic soda
1. The vapor pressure exerted by the

moisture contained in a wet solid depends
upon the
a) nature of the moisture
b) temperature
c) nature of the solid
d) all a, b, and c
2. To remove all the moisture from a wet
solid requires exposure to
a) perfectly dry air
b) highly humid air
c) air at high temperature
d) none of these
3. Milk is dried usually in a
a) freeze dryer
b) spray dryer
c) tray dryer
d) rotary dryer
4. Equilibrium-moisture curves of different
solids
a) are different
b) are same
c) depend on the humidity of the gas
d) none of these
5. Detergent solution is dried to a powder in
a
a) spray dryer
b) spouted bed dryer
c) tunnel dryer
d) pan open to atmosphere.
6. If moisture content of a solid on dry basis
is X then the same on wet basis is
a)
X
b)
X+1
X
c)
1-X
1+X
7. In paper industry, paper is dried in

a) tunnel dryer
b) heated cylinder dryer
c) conveyor dryer
d) festoon dryer
8. Moisture content of a substance when at
equilibrium with a given partial pressure
of the
vapor is called
a) free moisture
b) unbound moisture
c) equilibrium moisture
d) bound moisture
9. Calcium ammonium nitrate (a fertilizer) is
dried in a
a) rotary dryer
b) vacuum dryer
c) tunnel dryer
d) none of these
10.Moisture in a substance exerting an
equilibrium vapor pressure less than that
of pure liquid at
at the same temperature is
a) bound moisture
b) unbound moisture
c) critical moisture
d) none of these
11.Rotary dryer cannot handle

a) free flowing materials
b) dry materials
c) sticky materials
d) granular materials
12.Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium
vapor pressure equal to that of the pure
liquid at
the same temperature is
a) unbound moisture
b) critical moisture
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture
13.Refractory bricks are usually dried in a
a) tray dryer
b) tunnel dryer
c) conveyor dryer
d) festoon dryer
14.Heat sensitive materials like certain
pharmaceuticals and food stuff can be
dried
a) in indirect tray dryer
b) in spray dryer
c) by freeze drying
d) none of these
15.Moisture contained by a substance in
excess of the equilibrium moisture is
called
a) unbound moisture
b) free moisture
c) critical moisture
d) bound moisture
16.Flights in a rotary dryer are provided to
a) lift and shower the solids thus
exposing it thoroughly to the
drying action of the gas
b) reduce the residence time of solid
c) increase the residence time of the
solid
d) none of these
17.In the constant rate period of the rate of
drying curve for batch drying
a) cracks develop on the surface of the
solid
b) rate of drying decreases abruptly
c) surface evaporation of unbound
moisture occurs
d) none of these
18.The falling rate period in the drying of a
solid is characterized by
a) increase in rate of drying
b) increasing temperatures both on
the surface and within the solid
c) decreasing temperatures
d) none of these
19.Dryer widely used in a textile industry is
a) cylinder dryer
b) conveyor dryer
c) tunnel dryer
d) festoon dryer
20.Sticky material can be dried in a
a) tray dryer
b) rotary dryer
c) fluidized bed dryer
d) none of these
21.Drying of a solid involves
a) only heat transfer
b) only mass transfer
c) both heat and mass transfer
d) none of these
22.A solid material shows case hardening
properties while drying. Which of the
following
should be controlled to control the drying
process?
a) flow rate of inlet air
b) relative humidity of outlet air
c) humidity of inlet air
d) temperature of the solid
23.Capacity of a rotary dryer depends on
a) its r.p.m
b) its inclination with ground surface
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
24.Air at a particular humidity is heated in a
furnace. The new dew point
a) decreases
b) increases
c) depends on the extent of heating
d) remains unchanged
25.The critical moisture content in case of
drying indicates
a) beginning of falling rate period
b) beginning of constant rate period
c) end of falling rate period
d) none of these
26.A slurry is to be dried to produce flaky
solid.
Which
dryer
would
you
recommend?
a) spray dryer
b) drum dryer
c) rotary dryer
d) dielectric dryer
27.For continuous drying of granular or
crystalline material, the dryer used is
a) tunnel
b) tray
c) rotary
d) none of these
28.All moisture in a non-hygroscopic material
ismoisture
a) free
b) equilibrium
c) unbound
d) bound
29.During constant rate period, the rate of
drying decreases with
a) decrease in air temperature
b) increased air humidity
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
30.Which is the controlling factor for a drum
dryer?
a) diffusion
b) heat transfer
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
31.Paper industry employs..dryers
a) cylinder
b) rotary
c) spray
d) fluidized bed
32.Sand is dried in foundaries in a ..dryer
a) rotary
b) fluidized bed
c) vacuum
d) spray
33.Free flowing granular materials can be
best dried in a
a) rotary dryer
b) cylinder dryer
c) drum dryer
d) freeze dryer
1. Humidification involves mass transfer
between a pure liquid phase and a fixed
gas which is:
a) insoluble in the liquid
b) soluble in the liquid
c) non-ideal in nature
d) at a fixed temperature
2. At a fixed total pressure, humidity
depends only on the
a) partial pressure of vapor in the
mixture
b) heat capacity of the vapor
c) density of the vapor
d) none of these
3. In saturated gas, the
a) vapor is in equilibrium with the
liquid at the gas temperature
b) vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid
at the room temperature
c) partial pressure of vapor equals the
vapor pressure of the liquid at room
temperature
d) none of these
4. Relative humidity is the ratio of the

a) partial pressure of the vapor to the
vapor pressure of the liquid at room
temperature
b) partial pressure of the vapor to
the vapor pressure of the liquid at
gas temperature
c) actual humidity to saturation humidity
d) none of these
5. The percentage humidity is less than the
relative humidity only at
a) zero percentage humidity
b) hundred percent humidity
c) both zero or hundred percent
humidity
d) none of these
6. Heat is BTU necessary to increase the
temperature of 1 lb. of gas and its
accompanying
vapor by 1o F is called the
a) latent heat
b) humid heat
c) specific heat
d) sensible heat
7. Humid volume is the total volume in cubic
feet of 1 lb. of
a) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. And room
temperature
b) gas plus its accompanying vapor at 1
atm. and room temperature
c) gas plus its accompanying vapor
at 1 atm. and gas temperature
d) vapor laden gas at 1 atm. and gas
temperature
8. The temperature to which a vapor gas
mixture must be cooled (at varying
humidity)
to become saturated is
a) dew point
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dry bulb temperature
d) none of these
9. The dew point of a saturated gas phase
equals the
a) gas temperature
b) room temperature
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
10.Steady state temperature reached by a
small amount of liquid evaporating into a
large amount
of unsaturated vapor-gas mixture is
a) dry-bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dew point
d) adiabatic saturation temperature

11.Dry bulb temperature of the gas is
a) less than the wet-bulb temperature
b) greater
than
the
wet-bulb
temperature
c) equal to the wet-bulb temperature
d) none of these
12.The difference of wet bulb temperature
and adiabatic saturation temperature of
unsaturated
mixture of any system is
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) none of these
13.When the temperature and humidity of
air is low we usually use
a) natural draft cooling tower
b) forced draft cooling tower
c) induced draft cooling tower
d) none of these
14.The equipment frequently used for
adiabatic humidification-cooling operation
with
recirculating liquid is
a) natural draft cooling tower
b) induced draft cooling tower
c) spray chamber
d) none of these
15.The most efficient cooling tower out of
the following is
a) induced draft
b) forced draft
c) natural draft
d) atmospheric
16.Critical humidity of a solid salt means the
humidity
a) above which it will always become
damp
b) below which it will always stay dry
c) both a and b
d) above which it will always become dry
and below which it will always stay
damp.
19.Percentage
saturation
is..the
relative saturation.
a) always smaller than
b) always greater than
c) not related to
d) none of these
20.Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures
become identical at
a) 100% saturation curve
b) 50% saturation curve
c) 78% saturation curve

d) none of these
21.Which of the following processes is
followed by unsaturated air (with dry bulb
temperature
12oC and relative humidity 47%) passing
through water spray washer (temperature
of water being constant at 40oC)?
a) humidification only
b) heating only
c) both heating and humidification
d) evaporative cooling
22.Which of the following remains constant
during sensible cooling process?
a) specific humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
23.During sensible cooling process
a) relative humidity decreases
b) relative humidity increases
c) wet bulb temperature increases
d) both b and c
24.A mixture of 10% C6H6 vapor in air at
25oC and 750 mm Hg has a dew point of
20oC. Its
dew point at 30oC and 700 mm Hg will be
around
a) 21.7oC
b) 20oC
c) 27.3oC
d) 18.7oC
25.Which of the following remains constant
during evaporative cooling process with
recirculated water supply?
a) relative humidity
b) partial pressure of vapor
d) none of these
26.Dew point of a gas-vapor mixture
a) increases with temperature rise
b) decreases with temperature rise
c) decreases
with
increases
in
pressure
d) increases with increases in pressure
27.Which of the following decreases during
evaporative
cooling
process
with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) none of these
28.Which of the following increases during
evaporative
cooling
process
with
recirculated water
supply?
a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) partial pressure of vapor
d) both b and c
29.The relative saturation of a partially
saturated mixture of vapor and gas can
be increased by
a) reducing the total pressure of the
mixture
b) increasing the total pressure of the
mixture
c) reducing the temperature of the
mixture
d) both b and c
30.Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just
begin when
a) p = P
b) p P
c) p P
d) p>= P
where: p = partial pressure of the vapor
P = vapor pressure of the liquid
31.Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb
temperatures being 35oC and 25oC
respectively) is
passed through water spray chamber
maintained at 35oC. The air will be
a) cooled
b) humidified
c) both a and b
d) dehumidified
32.In case of unsaturated air
a) dew point wet bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature dry bulb
temperature
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
33.Unsaturated
air
(with
dry
bulb
temperature and dew point being 35oC
and 18oC respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber
a) cooled and humidified
b) cooled and dehumidified with increase
in wet bulb temperature
c) cooled at the same relative humidity
d) cooled and dehumidified with
decrease in wet bulb temperature
34.Which of the following parameters
remains almost constant during adiabatic
saturation of
unsaturated air?
a) dry bulb temperature
b) dew point
d) none of these
35.Unsaturated air (with dry bulb and wet
bulb temperatures being 45oC and 25oC
respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber
a) cooled and humidified with wet
bulb temperature decreasing
b) cooled and humidified at constant wet
bulb temperature
c) cooled and dehumidified
d) none of these
1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
a.) cm2/ec
b.) cm/sec
c.) cm3/sec
d.) cm3/sec3
2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture
is related to the temperature (T) as
a.) D T
b.) D T0.5
c.) D T1.5
d.) D T3
3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture
is related to the pressure (P) as
a.) D T1.5
c.) D
1
P
4. Molecular diffusion is caused by

a.) transfer of molecules from low
concentration to high concentration
region
b.) thermal energy of the molecules
c.) activation energy of the molecules
d.) potential energy of the molecules
5. Pick out the correct statement
a.) Diffusivity decreases with increase in
temperature
b.) Diffusivity increases with increase in
molecular weight
c.) Diffusivity increases with the size of
the individual molecule
d.) None of these
6. Mass transfer co-efficient is defined as
a.) Flux = (Co-efficient) / (concentration
difference)
b.) Co-efficient = Flux / concentration
difference
c.) Flux = concentration difference / coefficient
d.) None of these
7. Mass transfer co-efficient (K) and
diffusivity (D) are related according to
film theory as
a.) K D
b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D
d.) K D2
8. Penetration theory relates average mass
transfer co-efficient (K) with diffusivity (D)
as
a.) K D
b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D
d.) K D2
9. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat
transfer, the dimensionless group in mass
transfer is
a.) Schmidt number b.) Sherwood
number
c.) Peclet number
d.) Stanton
number
10.Schmidt number is
a.)
b.) Re.Pe
DAB
b.) Sh x Pe
d.) Re / Pe
11.In physical terms, Schmidt number means
a.) thermal diffusivity / mass diffusivity
b.) thermal diffusivity / momentum
diffuisivity
c.) momentum diffusivity / mass
diffusivity
d.) mass diffusivity / thermal diffusivity
12.Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat
transfer, the dimensionless group in mass
transfer, is
a.) Scherwood number b.) Schmidt
number
c.) Peclet number
d.) Stanton
number
13.Mass transfer coefficient of liquid is
a.) affected more by temperature
than that for gases
b.) affected much by less temperature
than that for gases
c.) not affected by temperature
d.) none of these
14.Lewis number (Le) is
a.) Sc x Pr
b.) Pr x Sc
c.) Sc x Pr
d.) St
x Sh
15.Which of the following is not a unit of
mass transfer coeffiecient?
a.)
moles transferred
(time)(area)(mole fraction)
b.)
moles transferred
( time)(area)(pressure)
c.)
mass transferred
(time)(area)(mass A / mass B)
d.) none of these
16.In case liquid-liquid binary diffusion ,

diffusivity of one constituent into another
is not dependent on
a.) temperature and pressure
b.) concentration
c.) nature of the constituents
d.) none of these
17.Steady state equimolal counter diffusion
is encountered in
a.) separation of a binary mixture by
distillation
b.) absorption of NH4 from air by water
c.) all liquid-liquid diffusion systems
d.) all liquid-solid diffusion systems
18.Which of the following has the same
dimension as mass diffusivity?
a.) momentum flux
b.) kinematic
viscosity
c.) thermal diffusivity d.) both b and c
19.Diffusivity in concentrated solutions
differs from that in dilute solutions
because of changes in
a.) viscocity with concentration
b.) degree of ideality of the solution
c.) both a and b
d.) neither a nor b
20.The value of Lewis number Le = Sc for
air-water vapour system is around
Pr
a.) 1
b.) 0.24
c.) 3.97
d.) 600.
1. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a
liquid, the
a.) gas side coefficient should be
increased
b.) liquid side coefficient should be
increased
c.) gas side coefficient should be
decreased
d.) liquid side coefficient should be
decreased
2. For contacting a highly soluble gas with a
liquid
a.) bubble the gas through liquid
b.) spray the liquid on gas stream
c.) either a or b will suffice
d.) none of these
3. Wetted wall tower experiment determines
a.) molal diffusivity
b.) volumetric coefficient
c.) mass transfer coefficient
d.) none of these
4. Stacked packing compared to dumped

packing
a.) provides poorer contact between the
fluids
b.) gives lower pressure drop
c.) both (a) and (b)
d.) gives higher drop
5. Channeling is most severe
a.) in towers packed with stacked
packing
b.) in towers packed randomly with
crushed solids
c.) in dumped packing of regular units
d.) at very high liquid flow rate
6. Flooding results in
a.) High tray efficiency
b.) Low tray efficiency
c.) High gas velocity
d.) Good contact between the fluids
7. Operating velocity in a packed tower is
usually
a.) half the flooding velocity
b.) twice the flooding velocity
c.) equal to flooding velocity
d.) more than the flooding velocity
8. At the same gas flow rate, the pressure
drop in a packed tower being irrigated
with liquid
a.) is greater than that in dry packed
b.) is lower than that in drying packing
c.) is same as that in drying packing
d.) cannot be predicted as data are
insufficient
9. Berl saddle made of carbon cannot be
used
a.) for alkalis
b.) for SO2
c.) for H2SO4
d.) in oxidizing atmosphere
10.Flooding in a column results due to
a.) high pressure drop
b.) low
pressure drop
c.) low velocity of the liquid d.) high T
11.The operating line for an absorbed is
curved when plotted in terms of
a.) mole fractions
b.) mole
ratios
c.) partial pressure d.) mass fractions
12.In case of an absorber, the operating
a.) line always lies above the
equilibrium curve
b.) line always lies below the equilibrium
curve
c.) line can be either above or below the
equilibrium curve
d.) velocity is more than the loading

velocity
13.For an absorber, both equilibrium and
operating line will be straight for
a.) concentrated solution and nonisothermal operation
b.) dilute solution and non-isothermal
operation
c.) dilute solution and isothermal
operation
d.) concentrated solution and isothermal
operation
14.In case of desorber (stipper)
a.) the operating line always lies above
the equilibrium curve
b.) the operating line always lies
below the equilibrium line
c.) temperature remains unaffected
d.) temperature always increases
15.The minimum liquid rate to be used in an
absorber corresponds to an operating line
a.) of slope = 1
b.) of slope = '1
c.) tangential to the equilibrium
curve
d.) none of these
16.Absorption factor is defined as
a.) slope of the equilibrium curve
slope of the operating line
b.) slope of the operating line
slope of the equilibrium curve
c.) slope of the operating line - slope of
d.) slope of the operating linexslope of
17.H2S present in naphtha reformed gas is
removed by absorbing with
a.) ethanolamine
b.) K2CO2
c.) HCL
d.) vacuum gas soil
18.If G = insoluble gas in gas stream and L =
non-volatile solvent in liquid stream, then
the slope of the operating line for the
absorber is
a.) L/G
b.) G/L
c.) always < 1
d.) none of these
19.Raschig ring made of porcelain cannot be
used for treating
a.) concentrated hydrochloric acid
b.) concentrated nitric acid
c.) alkalis
d.) concentrated sulfuric acid
20.For absorbers, high pressure drop results
in
a.) increased efficiency
b.) decreased efficiency
c.) high operating cost
d.) better gas liquid contact
21.Which of the following is an undesirable

property for an absorbing solvent?
a.) low vapour pressure
b.) low velocity
c.) low freezing point
d.) none of these
22.Out of the following properties of a
solvent for absorption, which combination
of properties provides a good solvent?
I. high viscosity
II. Low viscosity
III. high vapour pressure
IV. Low
vapour P
V. high gas solubility VI. High freezing
point
VII. low freezing point
Choose from the following combinations:
a.) II,IV,V,VII
b.) I,IV,V,VI
c.) II,IV,V,VI
d.) I,IV,V,VII
23.When both the fluids flow concurrently in
an absorber, the slope of the operating
line is
a.) negative
b.) positive
c.) 1
d.) -1
24.Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is
removed by washing with
a.) caustic solution
b.) dilute ammoniacal liquor
c.) dilute HCl
d.) ethanolamine
25.Which of the following is not fixed by
process requirements in the design of
absorbers?
a.) flow rate of the entering gas
b.) composition of the entering liquid
c.) terminal concentration of gas stream
d.) none of these
26.In an absorber, HETP does not vary with
a.) flow rate of liquid
b.) flow rate of gas
c.) type and size of packing
d.) none of these
27. Which of the following is an undesirable
property in a low-packing
a.) large surface per unit volume
b.) large free cross-section
c.) low weight per unit volume
d.) large weight of liquid retained
28.Very tall packed towers are divided into
series of beds to
a.) reduce the over-all pressure drop
b.) avoid channeling
c.) reduce liquid hold-up
d.) avoid flooding

29.For the same system, if the same liquid
used in an absorber is decreased, the
tower height will
a.) increase
b.) decrease
c.) remain unaffected
d.) decrease or increase depends on the
type of liquid
30.HETP is numerically equal to HTU only
when operating line
a.) lies below the equilibrium line
b.) lies above the equilibrium line
c.) and equilibrium lines are parallel
d.) is far from the equilibrium line
31.Desirable value of absorption factor in an
absorber is
a.) 1
b.) <1
c.) >1
d.) 0.5
32.Absorption accompanied by heat
evolution results in
a.) increased capacity of the absorber
b.) increase in equilibrium solubility
c.) decrease in equilibrium solubility
d.) none of these
33.Co-current absorbers are usually used
when the gas to be dissolved in the liquid
is
a.) sparingly soluble
b.) highly soluble
c.) a pure substance
d.) a mixture
34.Channeling in a packed tower results from
a.) high pressure drop
b.) maldistribution of liquid
c.) non-uniformity of packing
d.) both b and c
35.Diameter of raschig rings used in packed
tower in industry is normally around
a.) 2"
b.) 8"
c.) 12"
d.) 18"
1. For a classification of potable water, we
use
a.) gravity sand filter
b.) plate and frame filter
c.) vacuum leaf filter
d.) rotary vacuum filter
2. Vacuum filter is most suitable for
a.) removal of lines from liquid
b.) liquid having high vapour pressure
c.) liquids of very high viscosity

d.) none of these
3. Filter aid is used
a.) to increase the rate of filtration
b.) to decrease the pressure drop
c.) to increase the porosity of the
cake
d.) as a support base for the
septum
4. During the washing of cake
a.) all resistance are constant
b.) filter medium resistance increases
c.) filter medium resistance
d.) change resistance decreases
5. The porosity of a compressible cake is
a.) minimum at the filter medium
b.) minimum at the upstream face
c.) maximum at the filter medium
d.) same throughout the thickness
6. The specific cake resistance is
a.) gm / cm2
b.) cm / gm
2
c.) cm / gm
d.) gm / gm.
7. The unit of filter medium resistance is
a.) cm-1
b.) gm / cm-1
c.) cm / gm-1
d.) gm -1
8. The medium resistance is controlled by
a.) the pressure drop along
b.) the flow rate alone
c.) both pressure drop and flow rate
d.) the cake thickness
9. Compressibility coefficient for an
absolutely compressible cake is
a.) 0
b.) 1
c.) 0 to 1
d.) none of these
10.In continuous filtration (at a constant
pressure drop) filtrate flow rate varies
inversely as the
a.) square root of the velocity
b.) square root of the viscosity
c.) filtration time only
d.) washing time only
11.For separation of sugar solution from
settled out mud we use
a.) sparkler filter
b.) plate and frame
c.) centrifugal filter
d.) rotary drum vacuum filter
12.The most common filter aid is
a.) diatomaceous earth
b.) calcium silicate
c.) sodium carbonate
d.) silica gel
13.Removal of activated carbon from
glycerine is done by
a.) plate and frame filter

b.) rotary vacuum filter
c.) batch backed centrifuge
d.) none of these
14.Filtration of water in a paper mill is done
by
a.) open sand filter
d.) sparkler filter
15.The speed of a rotary drum vacuum filter
(in rpm) may be
a.) 1
b.) 50
c.) 100
d.) 500
16.Gelatinous solid (which plug the septum)
can be filtered by
a.) sparkler filter
d.) precost filter
17.For laminar of flow of filtrate through the
cake deposited on septum which of the
following with the valid?
a.) Kozency-Carman Equation
b.) Leva's equation
c.) Clack-Plummer equation
d.) none of these
18.Which of the following may prove
unsuitable for filtering volatile liquids?
a.) pressure filter
b.) gravity
filter
c.) centrifugal filter
d.) vacuum filter
19.In washing type plate and frame filter
press the ratio of washing rate to the final
filtrate rate is
a.) 4
b.) 1/4
c.) 1
d.) 1/2
20.Moore filter is a
a.) leaf filter
b.) filter press
c.) rotary filter
d.) sand filter
21.Diatomaceous earth is
a.) explosive
b.) filter aid
c.) filter medium
d.) none of
these
22.Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate
and frame filter press is best described by
a.) Kozency-Carman equation
b.) Hagen-Poiseu equation
c.) Fanning's equation
d.) Kremser equation
23.A straight line is obtained on plotting
reciprocal of filtration rate vs the volume
of filtrate
a.) compressible cakes and laminar flow
of filtrate
b.) incompressible cakes and laminar

flow of filtrate
c.) compressible cake and turbulent flow
of filtrate
d.) incompressible cake and turbulent
flow of filtrate
24.Percentage of drum submerged in slurry
in case of rotary drum filter is
a.) 3%
b.) 30%
c.) 85%
d.) 25%
25.Which of the following represents the plot
of filtrate cvolume versus time for
constant pressure filtration?
a.) parabola
b.) straight line
c.) hyperbola
d.) exponential curve
26.With increase in drum speed, in a rotary
drum filter, the filtration rate
a.) increases b.) increases linearly
c.) decreases
d.) is not affected
27.The inlet pressure in a constant rate
filtration
a.) increases continuously
b.) decreases
c.) remains constant
d.) none of these
28.Which is a continuous filter?
a.) plate and frame filter
b.) cartridge filter
c.)shell and leaf filter
d.) none of these
29.Addition of filter aid to the slurry before
filtration is done to .. of the coke
a.) increase the porosity
b.) increase the compressibility coefficient
c.) decrease the porosity
d.) decrease the compressibility
coefficient
30.The cake resistance increases steadily
with the time of filtration in a plate and
frame filter employing constant ..
filtration
a.) rate
b.) pressure
c.) both a and b
d.) neither a nor b
31.The controlling resistance in a rotary
drum vacuum filter is the . Resistance
a.) piping
b.) cake
c.) filter medium
c.) none of these
1. Physical adsorption is
a. an irreversible phenomenon
b. a reversible phenomenon
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
c. accompanied by evolution of heat

d. both b and c
Chemisorption (chemical adsorption) is
a. same as Van der Waals adsorption
b. characterized by adsorption of heat
c. also called activated adsorption
d. none of these
Rate of adsorption increases as the
a. temperature increases c. pressure decreases
b. T decreases
d. size of adsorbent increases
When adsorption hysteresis is observed, the
desorption equilibrium pressure is
a. always lower than that obtained by
adsorption
b. always higher than that obtained by adsorption
c. same as that obtained by adsorption
d. dependent on the system can be either lower or
higher than that obtained by adsorption
Which of the following adsorbent is used to
decolorize yellow glycerine?
a. silica gel
c. Fullers earth
b. alumina
d. activated carbon
Freundlich equation applies to adsorption of solute
from
a. dilute solutions, over a small concentrated
range
b. gaseous solutions at high pressure
c. concentrated solutions
d. none of these
In case of physical adsorption, the difference
between heat of adsorption and heat of normal
condensation is
a. equal to the heat of formation of surface
compound
b. equal to the heat of wetting
c. zero
d. called integral heat of adsorption
Pick out the wrong statement
Generally for physical adsorption, a gas of
a. higher molecular weight is adsorbed in
preference to a gas of low molecular weight
b. high critical temperature is adsorbed in
preference to a gas of low critical temperature
c. low volatility is adsorbed in preference to a gas
of high volatility
d. both b and c
The change in enthalpy per unit weight of adsorbed
gas when adsorbed on gas free or outgassed
adsorbent to form a definite concentration of
adsorbate is called its
a. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
c. differential heat of adsorption
d. heat of normal condensation
With increase in concentration of the adsorbate the
integral heat of adsorption
a.
b.
c.
d.
11.
12.
13.
14.
increases
decreases
remains unchanged
may increase or decrease; depends on type
of adsorbate
The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas
is adsorbed by a relatively large quantity of
adsorbent (on which a definite concentration of the
adsorbed gas already exists) is termed as the
a. differential heat of adsorption
c. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
d. heat of normal condensation
As complete saturation of an adsorbent is
approached, the differential heat of adsorption
approaches
a. heat of normal condensation c. zero
b. integral heat of adsorption d.
none of
these
Ion exchange process is similar to
a. absorption
c. adsorption
b. extraction
d. leaching
CO2 can be adsorbed by
a. hot cupric oxide
c. Cold Ca (OH)2
b. heated charcoal
d. alumina
1. For separation of sugar solution from settled out

mud we use
a. sparkler filter c. centrifugal filter
b. plate & frame filter d. rotary drum vacuum
filter
2. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using
a. tubular centrifuge
c. sparkler filter
b. clarifier
d. vacuum leaf filter
3. Which of the following can be most effectively used
for clarification of tube oil and printing ink?
a. sparkler filter c. disc-bowl centrifuge
b. precoat filter d. sharpless super centrifuge
4. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the
rpm is doubled, then
a. linear speed of the basket is doubled
b. linear speed of the basket is halved
c. centrifugal force is doubled
d. capacity of centrifuge is increased
5. Where the difference in density of the two liquid
phases to be separated is very small (as in milk
cream separator), the most suitable separator is
a. disc bond centrifuge c.batch basket centrifuge
b. sharpless supercentrifuge d. sparkler filter
1. Froth Flotation is most suitable for treating
a. iron ores
c. quartz
b. sulfide ores
d. metal ores
2. In Froth Flotation, chemical agent added to cause air
adherence is called
a. collector
c. modifier
b. frother
d. promoter
3. Pine oil used in forth flotation technique acts as a
a. collector
c.
frother
b. modifier
d. activator
4. Which of the following is the most suitable for
cleaning of fine coal dust (< 0.5 m)?
a. Through washer
c. Spiral separator
b. Baum Jig Washer d. Froth Flotation
1. Which of the following operations does not involve
leaching?
a. dissolving gold from ores
b. dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or
roots
c. dissolving sugar from the cells of the best
d. removing nicotine from its water solution by
kerosene
2. Tea percolation employs
a. liquid-liquid extraction c. absorption
b. leaching
d. adsorption
3. Rate of leaching increases with increasing
a. temperature
c. pressure
b. viscosity of solvent
d. size of the solid
4. Stage efficiency in a leaching process depends on
the
a. time of contact between the solid and the
solution
b. rate of diffusion of the solute through the solid
and into the liquid
c. both a and b
d. vapor pressure of the solution
5. Extraction of coffee from its seed is done by
a. liquid-liquid extraction c.
extractive
distillation
b. leaching
d. steam distillation
6. Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done by
a. hot water
c. dilute H2SO4
b. hexane
d. lime water
7. With increase in temperature, the leaching rate
increases due to
a. decreased liquid viscosity
c. both a and
b
b. increased diffusivity
d. neither a nor b
8. Leaching rate is independent of the
a. agitation
c. temperature
b. particle size
d. none of these
1. Heats sensitive materials with very high latent

heat of vaporization may be economically
separated using
a. liquid extraction c. evaporation
b. distillation
d. absorption
2. Fractional solvent extraction
a. employs only one solvent
c. results in low interfacial tension
b. employs two solvents
d. none of these
3. Choose the best combination or properties for a
good solvent for extraction out of the following
(i)
high selectivity
(ii)
low selectivity
(iii)
high viscosity
(iv)
low viscosity
(v)
large distribution coefficient
(vi)
small distribution coefficient
(vii)
high interfacial tension
(viii) low interfacial tension
a.
( i ), ( iv ), ( v ), ( vii ) c. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ),
( vii )
b.
( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vi ) d. ( i ), ( ii ), ( iv ), (
vii )
4. Selectivity of solvent used in extraction should be
a. 1
c. > 1
b. < 1
d. 0
5. In liquid extraction, if selectivity is unity, then
a. separation of the constituent is most
effective
b. no separation will occur
c. amount of solvent required will be minimum
d. solvent flow rate should be very low
6. When the solvent dissolves very little of solute then
a. solvent of low latent heat of vaporization
should be used
b. solvent of low freezing point should be used
c. large quantity of solvent is required to
extract the solute
d. very small quantity of solute is required
a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture

a binary mixture
d. an insoluble binary
system
10. In a countercurrent extractor as the axial mixing
increases, the extraction efficiency
a. increases
c. remains unchanged
b.
decreases d. depends on the P of the
system
11. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have
high latent heat of vaporization because
a. the pressure drops and hence the pumping
cost will be very high
b. it cannot be recovered by distillation
c. its recovery cost by distillation may be
prohibitively high
d. it will decompose while recovering by
distillation
12. In a countercurrent liquid extractor
a. both liquids flow at fixed rate
b. both liquids can have any desired flow rate
c. only one of the liquids may be pumped at
any desired rate
d. liquids flow rate depends upon the
temperature and pressure
13. Sides of equilateral triangular coordinates (on which
ternary liquid system is plotted) represent
a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture
b.
a binary mixture d. partially miscible
ternary system
14. As the reflux ratio, in a continuous counter current
extraction is increased, the number of stages
a. increase
c. remain unchanged
b. decrease
d. can either increase or decrease, depends on
the system
15. Acetic acid will be most economically separated
from a dilute solution of acetic acid in water by
a. solvent extraction
c. evaporation
b. continuous distillation
d. absorption
b.
7. Which of the following is the most suitable for

extraction in a system having very low density
difference?
a. mixer-settler extractor c. pulsed extractor
1. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky

material?
a. apron conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. pneumatic conveyor
2. Which of the following cannot be recommended for
transportation of abrasive materials?
a. belt conveyor
c. apron conveyor
b. flight conveyor
d. chain conveyor
b. centrifugal extractor d. packed extraction tower

8. In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area
of heterogeneity (area covered by binodal curve)
a. decreases
c. remains unchanged
b. increases
d. none of these
9. The apex of an equilateral triangular coordinate
(internary liquid system) represents
3. For transporting pastry material, one will use

a. apron conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. bucket elevator
4. The capacity of a belt conveyor depends upon two
factors. If one is the cross section of the load, the
other is the
a. speed of the belt c. thickness of the belt
b. length of the belt

d .material to be transported
5. Dry powdery solid material are transported by a
a. belt conveyor
c. belt conveyor
b. screw conveyor
d. bucket elevator
6. Apron conveyors are used for
a. heavy loads and short runs
c. heavy loads and long runs
b. small loads, long runs
d. transporting powdered materials
1. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor
series to that of the next smaller screen is
2
a. 2
b.
c. 1.5 d. none of these
2. The opening of 200 mesh screen (Taylor series) is
a. 0.0074 cm
b. 0.0074 mm
c.
0.0047 cm
d. 0.0047 mm
3. The ratio of the area of opening in one screen
(Taylor series) to that of openings in the next smaller
screen is
2
a. 1.5
b. 1
c.
d. none of these
4. Cumulative Analysis for determining surface is more
precise than differential analysis because of the
a. assumption that all particles in single fraction
are equal in size
b. fact that screening is more effective
c. assumption that all particles in a single
fraction are equal in size is not needed
d. none of these
5. Increasing the capacity of screen
a. decreases the screen effectiveness
c. does not affect the screen effectiveness
b. increases the screen effectiveness
d. none of these
6. Screen efficiency is
a. recovery rejection
b. recovery
c.
rejection d. none of these
7. As particle size is reduced
a. screening becomes progressively more
difficult
b. screening becomes progressively easier
c. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is
increased
d. none of these
8. A screen is said to be blinded when
a. oversizes are present in undersize fraction
b. undersizes are retained in oversize fraction
c. the screen is plugged with solid particles
d. its capacity is abruptly increased
9. Size measurement of ultrafine particles can be best
expressed in terms of
a. centimeter
c. micron
b. screen size
d. surface area per unit mass
10. Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending
on their
a. size
c. screen size
b. wet ability
d. electrical and magnetic
11. Screen capacity is expressed in terms of
a. tons/h
b. tons/ft2
c. both a and b
d. tons/h-ft2
12. Which of the following screens has the maximum
capacity?
a. grizzlies
c. shaking screen
b. trommels
d. vibrating screen
13. For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable
equipment is a
a. trommel
c. shaking screen
b. grizzly
d. vibrating screen
14. Mesh number indicates the number of holes per
a. square inch
c. square foot
b. linear inch
d. linear foot
15. Optimum ratio of operating speed to critical speed of
a trommel is
a. 0.33 0.45
c. 0.5 2
b. 1.33 1.45
d. 1.5 2.5
16. 200 mesh screens means
a. 200 openings/cm2
c. 200 openings/cm
b. 200 openings/inch
d. 200 openings/inch2
17. In screen analysis, notation + 5 mm/ -10 mm means
passing through
a. 10 mm screen and retained on 5 mm screen
b. 5 mm screen and retained on 10 mm screen
c. both 5 mm and 13 mm screens
d. neither 5 mm nor 10 mm screens
18. The critical speed of a trommel (n) is related to its
diameter (D)
1
N
D
N D
a.
c.
1
N
N D
D
b.
d.
19. With increase in the capacity of screens, the screen
effectiveness
a. remains unchanged
c. decreases
b. increases
d. decreases exponentially
20. Vibrating screens have capacity (tons/ft 2 hr mm
mesh size) in the range of
a. 0.2 to 0.8
c. 50 to 100
b. 5 to 25
d. 100 to 250
21. The material passing one screening surface and
retained on a subsequent surface is called
a. intermediate material
c.
plus
material
b. minus
d. none of the above
SEDIMENTATION
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following
information and illustration
1
In an experiment, a sphere of density
and
1
radius r is dropped in a tank of oil of viscosity
and
2
density
. The time of descent for the sphere through
the first section of height d is recorded as t1 and through
the second section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 t1 <<
1.
Sphere
d
d
(1)
2
1. Which of the following is true for the experiment

a. The drag force exerted on the sphere increases
during it descent through the second section.
b. The sphere never reaches its terminal velocity
while falling through both sections
c. The sphere reaches its terminal velocity while
falling through the first section
d. The drag force exerted on the sphere decreases
during the descent through the second section
2. The drag force exerted on the sphere during its
descent through the second section is
4
1 2 g r 3
3
a.
d
4 3
r 1 g 61r
3
t2
c.
4
1 g r 3
3
b.
d
4 3
r 1 g 61r
3
t2
d.
3. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
a. fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
b. the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
c. the solid on the fluid
d. none of these
4. Drag coefficient for flow of past immersed body is
the ratio of
a. shear stress to the product of velocity head and
density
b. shear force to the product of velocity head and

density
c. average drag per unit projected area to the
product of the velocity head and density
d. none of these
5. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds
number is
a. <1
c. >1
b. <5
d. none of these
6. Drag coefficient CD is given by (in Stokes law
range)
16
24
CD
CD
Re p
Re p
a.
c.
18.4
0.079
CD
CD
Re p
Re p 0.23
b.
d.
7. At low Reynolds number
a. viscous forces are unimportant
b. viscous forces control
c. viscous forces control and inertial forces are
unimportant
d. gravity forces control
8. At high Reynolds number
a. inertial forces control and viscous forces are
unimportant
b. viscous forces predominate
c. inertial forces are unimportant and viscous
forces control
d. none of these
9. Forces acting on a particle settling in fluid are
a. gravitational and buoyant forces
b. centrifugal and drag forces
c. gravitational or centrifugal, buoyant and
drag forces
d. external, drag and viscous forces
10. Terminal velocity is
a. constant velocity with no acceleration
b. a fluctuating velocity
c. attained after moving one-half of total distance
d. none of these
11. In hindered settling, particles are
a. placed farther from the wall
c. near each other
b. not affected by other particles and the wall
d. none of these
12. Drag coefficient in hindered settling is
a. less than in free settling
b. equal to that in free settling
c. not necessarily quarter than in free settling
d. greater than in free settling
13. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a
fluid, the slope of CD vs log NRe plot is
a. 1
c. 1
b. 0.5
d. 0.5
14. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a
viscous fluid varies as the
a. first power of its diameter
b. inverse of the fluid viscosity
c. inverse square of the diameter
d. square of the difference in specific weights of
solid and fluid
15. Buoyant force
a. for non symmetrical bodies is not vertical
b. depends on the depth of the submergence of the
floating body
c. depends on the weight of the floating body
d. none of these
16. Center of pressure in an immersed body is _______
the center of gravity
a. Above
b. below
c. at
d. either above or below; depends on the liquid
density
17. The line of action of the buoyant force passes
through the center of gravity of the
a. submerged body
b. displaced volume of the fluid
c. volume of fluid vertically above the body
d. horizontal projection of the body
18. Drag is the force component exerted on an immersed
object
a. passing the centroid of the body at 60 to the
direction of motion
b. the component being parallel to the flow
direction
c. the component being normal to the flow
direction
d. none of these
19. Sphericity of raschig ring (whose length and
diameter are equal) is
a. >1
c. <2
b. 1
d. 2
20. Sphericity of pulverized coal is
a. 1
c. <1
b. >1
d.
21. Sedimentation on commercial scale occurs in
a. classifiers
c. thickeners
b. rotary drum filters
d. cyclones
22. For non spherical particle, the sphericity
a. is defined as the ratio of surface area of a
sphere having the same volume as the particle
to the actual surface area of the particle
b. has a dimension of length
c. is always less than 1
d. is the ratio of volume of a sphere having the

same surface area as the particle to the actual
volume of the particle
23. Sphericity of a cubical particle when its equivalent
diameter is taken as the height of the tube is
2
a.0.5
c.
3
b.1
d.
24. For raschig rings, the sphericity is
a. 0.5
c. < 1
3
b. 1
d.
25. Sphericity for a non-spherical particle is given by
6V
DS
DS
V
a.
c.
V
V
6 DS
DS
b.
d.
where: V and S are volume and surface area
respectively of one particle
D = equivalent diameter of particles
1. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its
diameter is
a. 1.5
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. 0
2. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of
the sphere having the same
a. ratio of surface to volume as the actual
volume
b. ratio of volume to surface as the particle
c. volume as the particle
d. none of these
3. For coarse reduction of hard solids, use
a. impact b. attrition c. compression
d. cutting
4. Soft and non abrasive materials can be made into
fines by
a. attrition b. compression c. cutting
d. none of these
5. Crushing efficiency is the ratio of
a. surface energy created by the crushing to the
energy absorbed by the solid
b. the energy absorbed by the solid to that fed to
the machine
c. the energy fed to the machine to the surface
energy created by the crushing
d. the energy absorbed by the solid to the surface
energy created by the crushing.
6. Rittingers crushing law states that
a. work required to form a particle of any size is
proportional to the square of the surface to
volume ratio of the product.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
b. work required to form a particle of a particular

size is proportional to the square root of the
surface to volume ratio of the product
c. work required in crushing is proportional to
the new surface created
d. for a given machine and feed, crushing
efficiency is dependent on the sizes of feed and
product
Bond crushing law
a. calls for relatively less energy for the smaller
product particle than does the Rittinger law
b. is less realistic in estimating the power
requirements of commercial crushes
c. states that the work required to form particle of
any size from very large feed is proportional to
the square root of the volume to surface ratio of
the product
d. states that the work required for the crushing is
proportion
Work index is defined as the
a. gross energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to
reduce very large feed to such a size that 80%
of the product passes a 100 micron screen
b. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 200
microns
c. energy (Kwh/ton of feed) needed to crush small
feed to such a size that 80% of product passes a
200 mesh screen
d. energy needed to crush one ton of feed to 100
microns
The operating speed of a ball mill should be
a. less than the critical speed
c. at least equal to the critical speed
b. much more than the critical speed
d. none of these
A fluid energy mill is used for
a. cutting
c. ultragrinding
b. grinding
d. crushing
Wet grinding in a revolving mill
a. gives less wear on chamber walls than dry
grinding
b. requires more energy than for dry grinding
c. increases capacity compared to dry grinding
d. complicates handling of the product compared to
dry grinding
Cement clinker is reduced to fine size
a. Roll crusher
c. Tube mill
b. Ball mill
d.
Hammer
mill
For the preliminary breaking of hard rock, we use
a. gyratory crusher
c. Tube mill
b. Ball mill
d. Squirrel-cage disintegrator
14. Fibrous material is broken by

a. Roll crusher
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
c. Ball mill
b. Squirrel-cage disintegrator
d.
none of
these
As the product becomes finer, the energy required
for grinding
a. Decreases c. is same as for coarser grinding
b. increases d. is 1.5 times than for coarser
grinding
Ultrafine grinders operate principally by
a. slow compression
c. attrition
b. impact
d. cutting action
The energy consumed by a ball mill depends on
a. its speed c. the density of the material being
ground
b. its ball load
d. all a, b and c
Grinding efficiency of a ball mill is of the order of
a. 1 5%
c. 75 80%
b. 40 50%
d. 90 95%
In case of a revolving mill, wet grinding compared
to dry grinding
a. requires more energy
c.
complicates
handling and classification of the product
b. has less capacity
d. none of these
Choke crushing (in case of a jaw crusher) compared
to free crushing
a. results in increased capacity
c. consumes more power
b. consumes less power
d. both a and c
For efficient grinding, ball mills, must be operated
a. at a speed less than critical speed
c. at a speed equal to critical speed
b. at a speed more than critical speed
d. with minimum possible small balls
To get ultra fine particles, the equipment used is
a. ball mill
c. hammer crusher
b. rod mill
d. fluid energy mill
The material is crushed in a gyratory crusher by the
action of
a. impact
c. compression
b. attrition
d. cutting
To get fine talc powder from its granules, the
equipment used is
a. roller crusher
c. jaw crusher
b. ball mill
d. gyratory crusher
Ball mill is used for
a. crushing
c. fine grinding
b. coarse grinding
d. attrition
The main differentiation factor between tube mill
and ball mill is the
a. length to diameter ratio
c. final product size
b. size of the grinding media
d. operating speed
Kicks law relates to
a. energy consumption c. feed size
b. final particle size
d. none of these
28. Fluid energy mill comes in the category of

a. Grinder
c. cutting machine
b. crusher
d. ultrafine grinder
29. Which of the following gives the crushing energy
required to create new surface?
a. Taggarts rule
c. Rittingers law
b. Ficks Law
d. none of these
30. Size reduction mechanism used in Jaw crushers is
a. attrition
c. cutting
b. compression
d. impact
31. Feed size of 25 cm can be accepted by
a. ball mill
c. fluid energy mill
b. rod mill
d. jaw crusher
32. Maximum size reduction in a ball mill is done by
a. attrition
c. impact
b. compression
d. cutting
33. The main size reduction operation in ultra fine
grinders is
a. cutting
c. compression
b. attrition
d. impact
34. The reduction ratio for grinders is defined as
a. Df/Dp
c. Df Dp
b. Dp/Df
d. Dp Df
35. The reduction ratio for fine grinders is
a. 5 10
c. 10 20
b. 20 40
d. as high as 100
36. Maximum size reduction in a fluid energy mill is
achieved by
a. compression
c. cutting
b. interparticle attrition d. impact
37. Pick out the material having minimum Rittingers
number
a. calcite
c. quartz
b. pyrite
d. galena
38. Pick out the material having maximum Rittingers
number
a. Calcite
c. quartz
b. pyrite
d. galena
39. Crushing efficiency of a machine ranges between
a. 0.1 to 2 %
c. 20 to 25 %
b. 5 to 10 %
d. 50 to 70 %
40. According to Bond crushing law, the work required
to form particle of size D from very large feed is
S /V p
S /V p
a.
c.
S /V p
2
b.
S /V p
when
volume ratio
respectively
S /V f
d.
S /V f
and
of the
are surface to
product and feed
1. Vertical valves are not supported by

a. brackets
b. skirts
c. column
d. saddles
2. Bracket supports are most suitable for
a. thick walled vertical vessels
b. horizontal vessels
c. thin spherical vessel (e.g. Hortonsphere)
d. none of these
3. Skirt support is most suitable for
a. small horizontal vessels b. large horizontal
vessels
c. tall vertical vessels
d. thick walled small vertical vessels
4. Saddle supports are used for supporting
a. horizontal cylindrical vessels
b. tall vertical vessels
c. thick walled vertical vessels
d. thick spherical vessels
5. Wind load consideration in the design of a
support can be neglected when the vessel is
a. tall (say 30 meters) but is full of liquid
b. tall but empty
c. short (<2 m) and housed indoor
d. none of these
6. Leg support is meant for
a. large horizontal cylindrical vessels
b. tall but empty vessels
c. small vessels
d. thick walled tall
vessels
7. The force due to wind load acting on a tall
vessels depends upon its
a. shape
b. outside diameter
c. height
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
8. Joint efficiency for a seamless pipe is
a. 1
b. 0.85
c.1.2
d. 0.5
9. In the design of a paddle agitator the ratio
paddle diameter to tank diameter is normally
taken as:
a.0.1 b. 0.8
c.0.25
d. 0.5
10. The ratio propeller agitator diameter to tank
diameter is normally taken as
a. 0.15-0.30 b. 0.5-0.65
c. 0.75-0.85
d. 0.60-0.90
11. Baffle width is normally taken as
a. 0.1-0.12 tank diameter
b. 0.4-0.5 tank diameter
c. 0.45-0.6 tank diameter
d. 0.2-0.45 tank diameter
12. The minimum baffle height should be
a. equal to the impeller diameter
b. twice the impeller diameter
c. twice the diameter
d. 3/4 of the tank height
13. Baffles may be eliminated for
a. low viscosity liquids (<200 poise)
b. high viscosity (>600 poise)
c. large diameter tank
d. none of
these
14. Power required for agitation depends upon
the
a. height and properties of the liquid

b. agitator type and speed of agitation
c. size of agitator and the tank d. all (a),
(b) (c)
15. The retention time of material in rotary dryer
depends upon
a. its rpm
b. its slope and
length
c. the arrangement of flights d. all (a), (b)
(c)
16. Filtration rate is affected by
a. pressure drop across the cake and filter
medium
b. cake and filter medium resistance
c. area of filtering surface and viscosity of
filtrate
17. Rate of filtrate delivery is inversely
proportional to the
a. filtering the area and the pressure
difference driving force
b. viscosity of filtrate
c. cake and filter medium resistance
d. both (b) and (c)
18. In the case of a shell and the tube heat exchanger, the
logarithmic mean temperature difference
a. is always less than arithmetic average

value
b. is always more than arithmetic mean value
but more than geometric mean value
c. is always less than arithmetic mean value
but more than geometric mean value
d. may be either more or less than geometric
mean and arithmetic mean value depending
upon whether the flow of stream is cocurrent or counter-current
19. In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the
hydraulic radius for heat transfer (for a fluid flowing
through the annulus) would be
a. same as that for fluid flow

b. less than that for fluid flow
c. more than that for fluid flow
d. D2 - D1 (D1 and D2 are I.D. of inner and
outer pipes respectively)
20. Fouling factor must be included in the
calculation of over all design heat transfer coefficient when the liquid
a. containing suspended solids flows at
low velocity
b. containing suspended solids flows at high
velocity
c. is highly viscous
d. is of high specific gravity
21. The value of fouling factor depends upon the
a. characteristics of process fluid
b. velocity process fluid containing suspended
solids
c. suspended solids in the fluid
d. all (a), (b) and
(c)
22. Floating head heat exchangers are used for

a. heat transfer between corrosive fluids
b. cases where temperature difference

between the shell and the tubes is more
(>50 C)
c. co-current heat transfer systems
d. counter-current heat transfer systems
23. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, shortest
center to center distance between adjacent tubes
is
a. called tube pitch
b. called tube clearance
c. always less than the diameter of the tube
d. none of these
24. Shortest distance between two tubes is
a. called tube pitch
b. called tube clearance
c. more in case of triangular pitch as
compared to square pitch of tube layout
d. none of these
25. In most of the shell and tube heat exchanger,
the tube pitch is generally
a. less than the diameter of the tube
b. 1.25 -1.50 times the tube diameter
c. 2.5 times the tube diameter
d. one-fourth of the tube diameter
26. Triangular pitch tube layout as compared to
square pitch in a shell and tube heat exchanger
a. permits the use of less tubes in given shell
diameter
b. facilitates comparatively easier external
cleaning because of larger clearance
c. permits the use of more tubes in a given
shell diameter
d. both (b) and (c)
27. Twenty five percent cut segmental baffle
means that the baffle
a. height is 75% of the I.D. of the shell b.
height is 25% of the I.D. of the shell
c. spacing is 75% of its height
d. width is 25% of its height
28. In shell and tube heat exchangers, straight tie
rods are used to
a. hold baffle in space b. fix the tubes in
position
c. account for thermal strain
d. none of
these
29. Baffle spacing is generally
a. more than the I.D. of the shell
b. not greater than the I.D. of the shell
c. not less than one fifth of the I.D. of the shell
d. both (b) and (c)
30. Which of the following is the most common
baffle used in industrial shell and tube heat
exchange?
a. 75% cut segmental baffle
b. 25% cut segmental baffle
c. orifice baffle
d. disk and doughnut baffle
31. In a shell and tube heat exchanger for given heat transfer
surface area, smaller diameter tubes are favored as
compared to larger diameter ones because smaller

diameter tubes.
a. are easier to clean

b. are less prone to fouling
c. can be fitted into a smaller shell
diameter hence the cost of the heat
exchanger would be less
d. none of these
32. High pressure fluid in a shell and tube heat
exchanger should preferably be routed
through the
a. tubes to avoid the expense of high
pressure shell construction
b. shell side for smaller total pressure drop
c. shell side if the flow is counter-current and
tube side if the flow is co-current
d. shell side for larger overall heat transfer coefficient
33. When one of the fluids is highly corrosive and
has fouling tendency, it should
a. preferably flow inside the tube for its
easier internal cleaning
b. preferably flow outside the tube
c. flow at very slow velocity
d. flow outside the tube when the flow is
counter-current and inside the tube when
the flow is co-current
34. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the
clearance of the tube is generally
a. not less than one-fourth of the tube
diameter or 3/16
b. more than the tube diameter
c. equal to the tube diameter
d. more in case of triangular pitch as
compared to the square pitch tube layout.
35.For a given fluid as the pipe diameter
increases, the pumping cost
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains unaffected
d. may increase or decrease depending upon
whether the fluid is Newtonian or nonNewtonian
36. Optimum economic pipe diameter for fluid
flow is determined by the
a. viscosity of the fluid
b. density of the fluid
c. total cost considerations (pumping
cost plus fixed cost of the pipe)
d. none of these.
37. Friction factor turbulent flow in new pipe is
given by
a. f = 16/NRE b. f = 0.04/(NRE)0.16
c. f = 0.22NRE0.5
d. f = 25/NRE
38. In case of continuous distillation column,
increase in the reflux ratio may result
a. lower fixed charges for the column
b. greater cost for the reboiler heat supply
c. greater cost for the condenser coolant
39. Optimum reflux ratio in a continuous

distillation column is determined by the
a. maximum permissible vapor velocity
b. flooding limit of the column
c. total cost consideration (fixed cost of
the column plus the cooling water and
steam
cost)
d. none of these
40. Pressure drop due to pipe fittings can be
estimated by p/ = 4f (Le/D) (V2/2gc) where Le =
equivalent length of straight pipeline which
will incur the same frictional loss as the fitting
and D = diameter of the fitting. The value of
Le /D (dimensionless) for 45 elbow and 180
close return bends would be respectively
around
a. 5 and 10
b. 45 and 75
c. 180 and 300
d. 300 and 500
41. Le/D for 90 elbow (medium radius) and 90
square elbow would be respectively around
a. 25 and 60
b. 3 and 5
c. 100 and 250
d. 250 and 600
42. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
would be around
a.5
b. 60
c. 200
d. 350
43. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering
branch) would be
a. less than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering
run)
b. more than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering
run)
c. around 90
d. both (b) and (c)
44. Le/D for couplings and unions would be
a. 60 b. 200 c. 350
d. negligible
45. Le/D for fully open gate valves would be
a. much more than that for fully open globe
valve
b. much less (say 2% than that for fully open
globe valve)
c. around 7
d. both (b) and (c)
46. Le/D for fully open globe valve may be around
a. 10 b. 25
c. 75
d. 300
47. For turbulent flow (NRe>2100) of low viscosity
fluid (<20 cp) in steel pipes, the optimum
inside pipe diameter is given by
Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
0.13
a.
Diopt 4.7 q f
0.49
Diopt 3 q f
0.36
0.14
c.
Diopt 3.9 q f
a.
0.45
c 0.95
d.
qf
where
= fluid flow rate, ft3/sec

= fluid density, lb/ft3
c 0.18
c
= fluid viscosity, centipoise
Diopt
= optimum inside pipe diameter, inches
48. For laminar flow (NRe < 2100) in steel pipe,

the optimum inside pipe diameter is given by
Diopt 3.6 q f
0.45
c 0.28
a.
0.487
c 0.025
c.
Diopt 3 q f
a.
Diopt q f
0.36
0.18
Diopt q f
0.364
0.182
d.
49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic

storage vessel is a function of the
a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of
the material and operating temperature
b. operating pressure and welding / joint
efficiency
c. diameter of the vessel
50. Bubble cap plate column is
a. a finite stage contactor
b. used only for distillation, not for absorption
c. a differential stage contactor
d. a continuous contactor
51. The most common standard size of bubble
caps used in industrial operation is
a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser
b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riser
c. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser
d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser
52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to
the design of the distillation column
a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is
recommended to prevent plugging of the
slots by residue build up.
b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the
gas into the liquid in the form of small bubbles.
c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the
gas may pass through the skirt clearance
d. none of these
53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number
of bubble caps to be used per tray is set by the
a. allowable gas velocity through the slots
b.
plate spacing
c.
diameter of the column
d. all (a),
(b) and (c)
54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the
distillation column design) as recommended by Davies are
respectively
a. 12/ 0.5 and 3.4/ 0.5

b.3.4/ 0.5 and
0.5
12/
c. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/ 0.5
d. 3.4/ 0.5 and 12/
0.5
55. Normally, the ratio of the total riser area to
the tower cross sectional area (for bubble cap
towers of
diameter more than 3 ft) is around
a. 0.4 - 0.6
b. 0.35 - 0.75
c. 0.1 - 0.2
d. 0.55 - 0.85
56. An adequate clearance between the tray and

the shell wall of a distillation column is provided
to
a. drain the liquid from the tray when the unit
is not in operation.
b. allow for thermal expansion and
facilitate installation
c. avoid back-trapping
d. none of these
57. The function of manholes provided in the shell
of a distillation column is to
keep a check on the
liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual
observation
give access to the
individual trays for cleaning,
maintenance and installation
guard against
foaming and entrainment by dumping antiforming agent through it.
all (a), (b) and (c)
58. Weep holes provided in the plates of a
distillation column
facilitate draining out liquid from a tray
when0020the unit is not in operation
are normally located near the overflow
weir so that any delivery of liquid during
operation follow approximately the same
path as the overflow fluid
must be large enough (usually 1/4 inch to
5/8 inch diameter) to prevent plugging but
should not deliver excessive amount of
fluid during operation
all (a), (b) and (c).
59 59. Excessive liquid gradient on a tray may
result in
a. maldistribution of gas
b. back trapping
c. gas blowing beneath cap skirt
60. The maximum liquid gradient over a tray
must not exceed
a. 0.5" - 1.25" b. 2"-3.5"
c. 5"
d. half the tray spacing
61. Liquid gradient over the tray results due to
a. the resistance offered to flow of
liquids by caps and risers and the
flow of gas.
b. low gas velocity
c. large plate spacing
d. large reflux ratio
62. Liquid gradient over a tray can be minimized
by
providing a higher skirt clearance or a
higher weir
decreasing the number of rows of caps
through which the liquid flows or by
decreasing the
velocity of liquid flow past the caps or by
reducing the distance along the tray through
which the liquid must flow.
c.
using split flow, radial flow or cascade flow

for column diameter larger than 4 ft.
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
63. Which of the following factors determine the
amount of entrainment in a distillation column?
plate spacing
depth of liquid above the bubble cap slots
vapor velocity in the volume between the plates
all (a), (b) and (c)
64. Larger depth of liquid on the trays of a
distillation column
lead to high tray efficiency
results in higher pressure drop per tray
both (a) and (b)
neither (a) nor (b)
65. The minimum tray spacing in distillation
column of diameter than 3 ft is normally
a. 6"
b. 18" c. 24"
d. 34"
66. The minimum plate spacing in most of the
petroleum refinery distillation columns (of
diameter 73 ft)
is normally
a. 6" b. 12" c. 18"
d. 34"
67. Back-trapping in a distillation column results
due to
a. low gas velocity
b. high gas velocity
c. excessive liquid gradient over the
tray d. low reflux ratio
68. A calming section below the liquid flows into
the downcomer is provided to
a. permit release of entrained vapor in
the liquid
b. reduce the discharge fluctuation
c. ensure better vapor liquid contract
d. cool the liquid before it flows down.
69. The length of straight rectangular weir used
on cross-flow trays is generally
a. 0.6 - 0.8 times the column diameter
b. equal to the column diameter
c. twice the column diameter
d. 2 ft irrespective of column diameter (for
column 73 ft diameter)
70. Pick out the wrong statement
a.If sufficient residence time (around 8
seconds) is not provided to the
downcoming liquid in the
downcomer, it may entrain some vapor.
b.The liquid head in the downcomer should
not be greater than one half the plate
spacing to avoid
flooding.
c. The discharge end of the downcomer must
project far enough into the tray liquid so
that no gas
bubbles can enter the open end and bypass
the bubble caps.
d. none of these
1. What is the Laplace transform of sin t ?
(a) __1__
s + 1
(b) __s_____
1 + s
(c) __1
s -1
(d) __s_____
s - 1
2. The transfer function of the first order system is
(a) __1
Ts + 1
(b) _1_
Ts
(c)___s__
Ts + 1
(d) 1/s
3. Pick out the first order system from among the

following
(a) damped vibrator
(b) mercury in glass thermometer kept
in boiling water
(c) interacting system of two tanks in series
(d) non-interacting system of two tanks in
series
4. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input
called
(a) impulse response(b)unit step response
(c) frequency response(d) step response
5. What is the ratio of output amplitude to input
amplitude for a sinusoidal forcing
function in a first order system ?
(a) 1
(b) > 1
(c) < 1
(d) none of these
6. Phase lag of the sinusoidal response of a first
order system is
(a) 120
(b) 30
(c) 180
(d) 90
7. Conversion formula for converting amplitude
ratio (AR) into decibels is
(a) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)
(b)
Decibel=20 log e(AR)
(c) Decibel=20 log10 (AR)0.5
(d)
Decibel = log10 (AR)
8. A control system is unstable if the open loop
frequency response exhibits an
amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the crossover frequency. This is
(a) Bode stability criterion
(b) Nyquist criterion
(c) Routh stability criterion
(d) both b and c
9. Typical specifications for design stipulates the
gain margin and phase margin to be
respectively
(a) > 1.7 and > 30 b) < 1.7 and > 30
(c) < 1.7 and < 30
d) >1.7 and < 30
10. The frequency at which maximum amplitude
ratio is attained is called
(a) corner frequency (b) resonant frequency
(c) cross-over frequency
d) natural frequency
11. A negative gain margin expressed in decibels
means
(a) a stable system
unstable system
(c) critically damped system
(b)
(d) both a and c

12. Bode diagram is a plot of
(a) log (AR) vs. log (f) and vs. log (f)
(b) log (AR) vs. f and log vs. f
(c) AR vs.log (f) and vs. log (f)
(d) log (AR) vs. log f
13. For measuring the temperature of a furnace, which
is the most suitable instrument?
(a) Platinum resistance thermometer
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Optical pyrometer d) Bimetallic thermometer
14.
Degree to which an instrument indicates the
changes in measured variable without dynamic error is
called
(a) speed of response
b) reproducibility
(c) fidelity (d) its static characteristics
15. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an
instrument?
(a) high drift
(b) high fidelity
(c) high temperature lag
(d) poor reproducibility
16.
Which of the following shows maximum dip affect
(indicating reverse direction of
temperature change)?
(a) mercury thermometer
(b) radiation pyrometer
(c) bimetallic thermometer

(d) thermocouple
17.
Pick out the most suitable instrument for
measuring temperature in the range of -40
to 800F.
(a) mercury thermometer
(b)
bimetallic thermometer
(c) radiation pyrometer
(d) radiation pyrometer
18. Thermocouple is suitable for measuring
(a) liquid temperatures only
(b) very high temperatures only
(c) very low temperatures only
(d) both high and low temperatures
19. Which of the following relates the absorption and
evolution of heat at the junctions
of a thermocouple to the current flow in the
circuit?
(a) Seebeck effect
(b) Peltier effect
(c) Joule heating effect
d) Thomson effect
20.
Thermal wells are used in temperature
measurement to
(a) guard against corrosive and oxidizing
action on thermocouple materials
(b) reduce measuring lag
(c) increase the fidelity
(d) increase the sensitivity
21. Gas analysis is commonly done using
(a) thermal conductivity cell
(b)
Xray diffraction
(c) mass spectrometer
(d) emission spectrometer
22. Psychrometer determines
(a) humidity of gases
(b)
moisture content of solids
(c) water of crystallization
(d)
hygroscopic nature of solids
23. Continuous measurement of moisture content of
paper in paper industry is done by
measuring
(a) thermal conductivity through the paper
(b) electrical resistance through the paper
(c) magnetic susceptibility
(d) both b and c
24. Optimal activity of a solution can be determined

using a
(a) polarimeter (b) polarograph
(c) dilatometer (d) refractometer
25. A simple pitot tube measures
(a) average velocity (b)maximum velocity
(c) point velocity (d) static pressure
26. Pirani gauge is used for
(a) measurement of very high pressure
(b)
measurement of high vacuum
(c) liquid level under pressure
(d)
liquid level at atmospheric pressure
27. A barometer measures
(a) absolute pressure
(b)
gauge pressure
(c) both absolute and gauge pressure
(d)
dynamic pressure
28.
The level of a liquid under pressure can be
determined using
(a) bubbler system
(b) differential pressure manometer
(c) diaphragm box system
(d) airtrap system
29. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a
liquid is done by
(a) hydrometer
(b)
contact-type electric indicators
(c) displacement meter (d) both a and c
30. Hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement
of
(a) flow rates of fluid
(b) flow rates of granular solids
(c) very high temperature
(d)
thermal conductivity of gases
31. Flow rate through an orifice is
(a) proportional to the pressure differential
(b) inversely proportional to the square root of
pressure differential
(c)
proportional to the square root of
(d) inversely proportional to the square root of
32. Which of the following flow-metering instruments
is an area meter?
(a) venturi meter
(b) rotameter
(c) pitot tube

d) hot wire anemometer
33. Continuous measurement of flow rates of dry
granular fertilizer is done using
(a) velocity meters
(b) area-meters
(c) weighing meters (d) anemometer
34. Pick out the symbol for locally mounted
instrument in instrumentation diagram
(a)
(b)
(c)
_
35. Which is the symbol for pneumatic control
valve
(a)
(b)
36.
The symbol for
instrumentation diagram is
(c)
capillary
(a) ___ ___ _ ___ _ ___

(c) _________________
(d)
line
in
37. Instrumentation in a plant offers the advantage of

(a) greater safety of operation
(b)
better quality of product
(c) greater operation economy
(d) all
a, b and c
38. Dilatometer is used to measure
(a) stress
(b) strain
(c)deflection
(d) contraction/expansion due to
changes in temperature
39. Stalagmometer is used for the measurement of
(a) kinematic viscosity
(b)
surface tension
(c) refractive index
(d) optical activity
40. Stroboscope is used for the measurement of
(a) rpm of a flywheel (b) frequency of light
(c) depression of freezing point
(d)
liquid level under pressure
41. Minute depression of freezing point of a liquid
solvent or addition of a solid solute
can be best measured by
(a) Beckman thermometer
(b)
dilatometer
(c) mercury thermometer
(d)
bimetallic thermometer
42. Gain margin is equal to the
(a) amplitude ratio
(b) reciprocal of
amplitude ratio
(c) gain in P controller
(d)
gain
in
P-I
controller
43. Phase margin is equal to
(a) 180 - phase lag (b) phase lag - 180
(c) phase lag + 180
(d) phase lag - 90
44. A system with a transfer function __2s _ is

4s + 1
45.
(b)
46.
(b)
47.
(a) zero order

(b) 1st order
(c) 2nd order
(d) 3rd order
Bode stability method uses
(a) open loop transfer function
closed loop transfer function
(c) either a or b (d) neither a nor b
Routh stability method uses
(a) open loop transfer function
closed loop transfer function
(c) either a or b
(d) neither a nor b
Nichels chart deals with
(a) A.R. vs. phase lag of first order
(b) A.R. vs. phase lag of second order
(c) closed loop values vs. open loop value
(d) frequency response values of controllers

48. The fluid used in hydraulic controller is
(a) water
(b) steam
(c) air
(d) oil
49. Number of poles in a system with transfer function
________1______ is
s + 2s + 1
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 1
50. Which of the following controllers has maximum

offset?
(a) P-controller
(b) P-I controller
(c) P-D controller
(d) P-I-D controller
51. Process degrees of freedom
(a)
indicates the maximum number of
controller to be used
(b) indicates the minimum number of controller to
be used
(c) determines both maximum and minimum

number of controllers to be used
(d) gives no idea of controllers
52. Resistance of a gas in a vessel is
(a) __V__
(b) nRT
nRT
V
(c) nRT
(d) __P_
P
nRT
52.
In an exothermic chemical reactor, the
manipulated variable is the flow rate of
(a) coolant
(b) reactant
(c) product
(d) hot fluid
53. Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates
(a) elimination of offset
(b)
reduction of offset
(c) reduction of stability time
(d)
both b and c
54. Which of the following error integral is considered
as the best criterion in controller settings?
(a) | e | dt
(b) | e | dt
(c)
e2 dt
(d) both a and b
55. Cascade control means

(a) feed forward control
(b) more than one feed-back loop
(c) on-off control (d) one feed-back loop
56. Which of the following controllers has the least
maximum deviation?
(a) P-controller
(b) P-I controller
(c) P-I-D controller (d) P-D controller
57. Measurement of pressure in ammonia reactor is
done by
(a) Bourdon gauge (b) U-tube manometer
(c) Inclined tube manometer (d) Pirani gauge
58. Pressure of 0.01 psi (absolute) can be measured
by
(a) Ionization gauge
(b) Pirani gauge
(c) Mcleoid gauge (d) Bourdon gauge
59. Continuous measurement of moisture in paper is
done by
(a) sling psychrometer
(b) hair-hygrometer
(c) weighing
(d) high resistance, Wheatstones bridge
circuit
60.
Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be
measured by
(a) Meloid gauge
(b) Pirani gauge
(c) Thermocouple gauge

d) Bourdon gauge
61. E.m.f. generated by thermocouples is of the order
of
(a) millivolts
(b) microvolts
(c) volts d) bi-metallic thermometer
62. Measurement of sub-zero Celsius temperature in
industry is done by
(a) thermocouples
(b) resistance
thermometers
(c) gas thermometer
(d) bi-metallic
thermometer
63.
Starting temperature of optical radiation
pyrometer is
(a) 800C
(b) 400C
(c) 1200C
(d) 1500C
64. Which thermocouple can be used to measure
temperature around 1400C?
(a) copper-constantan (b) aluminum-chromel
(c) platinum-platinum+rhodium
(d) copper-aluminum
65. pH meter has
(a) one cell
(b) two cells
(c) three cells (d) no cell
66. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer
is
(a) 20 psi
(b) 30 psi
(c) 40 psi
(d) 50 psi
67. Interfacial level in pressure vessel is measured
(a) float (b) manometers of float type
(c) U-tube manometer d) Bourdon gauge
68. Flow rate of sludge is measured by
(a) V-notch
b) rectangular notch
(c) circular pipe (d) Kennison nozzle
69. Composition of natural gas can be determined by
(a) chromatograph
b) orsat apparatus
(c) spectrometer d) photometer
70. Bellows are made of
(a) leather
(b) paper
(c) plastic
d) thin copper
71. Flapper nozzle is a
(a) pneumatic controller
(b) hydraulic
controller
(c) electronic controller (d) both a and b
72. Weir valve is used for
(a) slurries
(b) acids
(c) neutral solutions
(d) bases
73. Valve used to supply oil to burner is
(a) gate valve
(b) butterfly valve
(c) rotary plug valve
(d) both a and b
74.
Mode used for transmitting signal for one
kilometer distance is
(a) hydraulic
(b) pneumatic
(c) electronic
(d) all a, b and c
75. Use of pilot in transmission (pneumatic) is to
(a) speed up signal
(b) change the flow
of air
(c) adjust the signal
(d) all a, b and c
76. Final control element is a
(a) valve
(b) switch
(c) signal (d) both a and b
77. Example of a second order instrument is a
(a)
mercury-glass
thermometer
with
covering
(b) bare mercury-glass thermometer
(c) pressure gauge
(d) Bourdon gauge
78. Offset
(a) varies with time
(b) varies exponentially
with time
(c) does not vary with time
(d) varies as square of the time
79. Regulator problem means that
(a) set point is constant
(b) load is
constant
80. Servo problem means that
(a) set point is constant
(b) load is
constant
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
81.
Critically damped system means that the damping
coefficient is
(a) 1
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) 0
82. In Bode stability criterion, amplitude ratio at
180 should be
(a) 1
(b) < 1
(c) > 1
(d) 0
83. Phase plane method is used for
(a) linear-behavior
(b) non-linear
behavior
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
84. Laplace transform method is used for
(a) linear behavior
(b) non-linear behavior
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
85. Phase lag of first order system is
(a) tan-1 (T)
(b) tan-1 (T)
(c) /2
d) 0
86. P-I controller as compared to P-controller has
a
(a) higher maximum deviation
(b) longer response time
(c) longer period of oscillation(d) all a, b
and c
87. Difference at any instant between the value
of controlled variable and the set point is
called
(a) deviation
(b) derivative time
(c) error ratio
(d) differential gap
88. The time difference by which the output of a
P-D controller leads the input when the input
changes linearly with time is called
(a) error ratio
(b) derivative time
(c) proportional sensitivity (d) gain
89.
Steady state deviation resulting from a
change in the value of the load variable is called
(a) offset
(b) error ratio
(c) deviation (d) static ratio
90. Time required for the output of a first order
system to change from a given value to within
36.8% of the final value when a step change of
input is made is called
(a) time constant
(b) settling time
(c) rise time
(d) derivative time
91.
A controller action in which there is a
continuous linear relation between value of the
controlled variable and rate of change of
controlled output signal is called
(a) proportional action
(b) integral
action
(c) derivative action (d)
proportionalintegral action
92.
A controller action in which there is a
continuous relation between value of the
controlled variable and the value of the output
signal of the controller is called
(a) proportional action (b) derivative action
(c) integral action (d) proportional-derivative
93.
Steady state ratio of the change of
proportional controller output variable and the
change in actuating signal is called
(a) proportional sensitivity (b) reset rate
(c) rangeability (d) integral action
94. In case of flow measurement by an orifice,
the pressure difference signal is
proportional to
(a) Q
(b) Q
(c) Q3
(d) 1 /Q
95. Thermistor is a
(a) semiconductor whose resistance
decreases with temperature rise
(b) metal whose resistance increases linearly
with temperature rise
(c) metal whose resistance does not vary
with temperature
(d) device for measuring nuclear radiation
96. Which of the following factors does not
influence measurement accuracy?
(a) static and dynamic error b) reproducibility
(c) dead zone (d) none of these
97.
Which of the following is suitable for
measuring the temperature of a red hot moving
object
(e.g. steel ingots on roller table) ?
(a) thermocouple (b) radiation pyrometer
(c) thermistor (d) radiograph
98. Thermocouples
(a) have very slow speed of response
(b) cant be connected to the measuring
instrument remotely located
(c) need cold junction compensation
(d) are much less accurate compared to
bimetallic or vapor pressure thermometer
99.
Selection of material for thermocouple
depends on the
(a) depth of immersion in the hot fluid
(b) minimum and maximum temperature
(c) pressure and velocity condition of the
fluid whose temperature is to be
measured
(d) both a and b
100. Radiation pyrometers
(a)
have very low speed of response
(b) need not see the temperature source; it
is measuring
(c) cant measure temperature of objects
without making physical contact
(d) none of these
101. V-notch is used to measure flow rate of a
liquid in
(a) an open channel
(b) a non-circular cross-section closed channel
(c) vertical pipeline (d) horizontal pipeline
102.
Which of the following is not a head
flowmeter?
(a) segmental orifice plate
(b) pitot tube
(c) rotameter (d) flow nozzle
103. Flow rate of a liquid containing heavy solids
(e.g. sand) can be best measured by
(a) pitot tube
(b) concentric orifice
(c) eccentric orifice
(d) rotameter
104. Orifice plates for flow measurement
(a) incurs very low permanent pressure
loss
(b)
has
poor
accuracy on high orifice ratios (above
0.75)
(c) cant be easily interchanged
(d) is best for very large liquid flows and big
pipelines
105. Pitot tube is used

(a) for highly accurate flow measurement
(b) when the fluid
material
(c) when the
velocity is high
(d) both a and c
106. In an area meter
rate is
a
(a) proportional
differential pressure
contains lot of suspended

line is large and the
(e.g. rotameter), the flow
to the square root of the
(b) inferred from the change in area of an

orifice in the flow line across which the
pressure differential is constant zero
(c) inferred from change in flow cross-section
across which the pressure differential is
zero
(d) all a, b and c

107. A rotameter
(a)
incurs constant and small
permanent pressure drop
(b) incurs constant but very large permanent
pressure drop
(c) is inaccurate for low flow rates
(d) need not be mounted always vertically
108. On-off control
(a) fully opens the final control element
when the measured variable is below the
set point
(b) fully closes the final control element when
the measured variable is above the set
point
(c) is a two position (fully open or fully
closed) control adequate to control a
process with slow reaction rate and
minimum dead time or transfer lag
(d) all a, b, and c
109. Floating control action
(a) moves the final control element at
constant speed in either direction in
response to an error signal
(b)
changes the position of the final control
element from on to off
(c) is used to counteract rapid load changes
(d) both b and c
110. Cascade control is
(a) the continuous adjustment of the set
point index of an automatic control loop
by a primary (master) controller
(b) used when changes in process conditions
cause serious upsets in controlled variable
(c) useful to control flow from temperature
(d) all a, b and c
1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from
coke oven gas is
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust

and iron dust (i.e. moist ferric
hydroxide)
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually
bakelite)
c. carbon free iron d. none of these
2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called
a. pig iron
b. wrought iron
c. high carbon steel d. none of these
3. The softest material in Mhos scale (for
measuring hardness) is
a. talc
b. gypsum
c. rubber
d. none of these
4. Karbate is
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually
bakelite)
c. acid resistant material
d. both (b) and (c).
5. Duralumin is an alloy of
a. aluminum, copper and manganese
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon
c. aluminum and nickel
d. none of these
6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased
by the addition of
a. phosphorus and tungsten
b. nickel and chromium
c. lead and vanadium
d. molybdenum and tungsten
7. White metal is an alloy of
a. lead, tin and cadmiumb. copper, tin
and zinc
c. copper and lead d. none of these
8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its
a. cutting ability b. corrosion
resistance
c. tensile strength d. none of these
9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out
from blast furnace contains about
a. 0.2% carbon b. 2% carbon
c. 4% carbon
d. 8% carbon
10. Carbon content in steel is
a. 0.1 2%
b. 4 6%
c. 5- 10%
d. 0
11. An ideal material of construction for the
storage of 50% caustic soda solution
would be
a. Karbate
b. high silica cast iron
c. monel
d. none of these
12. For storing water and acid free benzol, use
a. steel vessel b. karbate vessel
c. stainless steel vessel d. none of these
13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in
a vessel made of
a. monel
b. karbate
c. cast iron d. none of these
14. Most suitable material of construction for
the storage of concentrated nitric acid is
a. cast iron
b. monel
c. karbate
d. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr >

18% for cold acid).
15. Babbit metal (used for making bearings)
comprises
a. mainly tin (85%) and lead
b. saw dust and iron dust mixture
c. zinc and aluminum
d. copper and aluminum
16. The material of construction of pressure
mills used for squeezing out the juice from
sugar cane is
a. stainless steel
b. cast iron
c. mild steel
d. monel.
17. Chlorination of benzene is done to produce
benzene hexachloride (a pesticide) in a
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
photochemical reactor lined with

a. karbate
b. lead or glass
c. fire clay bricks
d. PVC
Polymerization reactor used for the production
of styrenebutadiene rubber (SBR) is made of
a. vessel
b. stainless steel or glass
lined vessel
c. karbate
d. wrought iron
Which of the following is the most suitable
material of construction for evaporator and its
tubes for concentrating NaOH solution to 70%?
a. cast iron
b. steel
c. nickel
d. karbate
Most common stainless steel type 316, which it
highly resistant to corrosion contains
a. 16 13% chromium, 10 14% nickel and
2 3% molybdenum
b. 20 22% chromium, and 8 10% nickel
c. 2 4% chromium, 22% nickel and 2 4%
molybdenum
d. none of these
Caustic soda can be stored in
a. steel drums b. cast iron drums
c. brass drums d. gun metal drums
Brass is an alloy of
a. nickel and tin b. copper and zinc
c. tin and lead d. copper, nickel & zinc
The carbonating tower used in Solvay Process
of soda ash manufacture is made of
a. cast iron b. stainless steel
c. karbate
d. lead lined steel
Gun metal is an alloy of
a. nickel, tin and copper
b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper, phosphorus and nickel
d. manganese, phosphorus and nickel
25. Marcy ball mills are usually made of

a. steel
b. cast iron
c. stainless steel
d. bronze
26. Bronze is an alloy of
a. lead and copper b. copper and tin
c. nickel and copper d. copper and zinc
27. Rotary kilns in cement industry are lined with
a. fire clay
b. silica
c. lead
d. high alumina and
high magnesia bricks
28. In the Kraft (sulfate) process for the paper
manufacture the digester is made of
a. cast iron
b. stainless steel
c. karbate carbon d. wrought iron
29. Dry chlorine can be handled in a vessel made

of
a. iron or steel
b. PVC
c. nickel
d. brass
30. Tank furnace used for melting of glass is made
of
a. mild steel
b. cast iron
c. refractory blocks d. stainless steel
31. Stainless steel contains
a. chromium and nickel b. copper
c. aluminum
d. vanadium
32. Caustic soda is reduced in a mercury cell
having anode and cathode made respectively
of
a. moving mercury and graphite
b. graphite and moving mercury
c. moving mercury and carbon
d. moving mercury and crimped steel wire
33. Monel metal is an alloy of
a. molybdenum and nickel
b. nickel and copper
c. molybdenum and aluminum
d. molybdenum and zinc
34. German silver is an alloy of
a. copper, nickel and zinc
b. copper, aluminum and silver
c. silver, zinc and aluminum
d. silver, nickel and zinc
35. Chromel (Nichrome) is an alloy of
a. chromium and molybdenum
b. nickel and chromium
c. molybdenum and nickel
d. chromium and aluminum
36. Urea autoclave is made of
a. cast iron
b. refractory blocks
c. stainless steel
d. lead lined steel
37. Steel tower used for storage of oleum
a. is lined with lead
b. need not be lined
c. is lined with rubber
d. is lined with acid-proof bricks
38. Hydrochloric acid is stored in
a. lead lined steel vessel
b. rubberlined steel vessel
c. stainless steel vessel
d. cast iron vessel
39. Photographic plates are coated in
a. silver nitrate b. silver halide
c. calcium silicate
d. metallic silver
40. Aqueous nitric acid is stored in
a. steel drum b. stainless steel vessel
c. cast iron vessel lined with acid-proof
masonry brick
d. cast iron vessel
41. SO3 is absorbed using H2SO4 in
a. cast iron packed tower
b. stainless steel plate tower
c. packed steel tower lined with acid
proof bricks
d. none of these
42. Hydrochloric acid absorber is made of
a. cast iron
b. mild steel
c. karbate
d. stainless
steel
43. Sulfuric acid is mixed with ground phosphate
rock (to produce phosphoric acid) in a steel
digester lined with
a. acidic refractory
b. rubber
c. karbate d. lead or acid-proof bricks
44. Fill up the blanks from among the

following alternatives:
Hydrochloric acid is _______ corrosive to
common metals
a. least
b. not
c. mildly
d. highly
45. In SO3 absorber (Contact Process), packing
material used is of
a. cast iron b. chemical stoneware
c. karbate
d. mild steel
46. Valves in pipe sizes of 2 and under are
normally made of
a. wrought iron
b. brass
c. bronze
d. monel
47. Acid proof stoneware
a. has very low strength
b. cannot be heated
c. is broken by small temperature changes
48. Duriron is
a. acid resistant, brittle and very hard
b. high silicon iron
c. prone to breakage due to thermal
expansion because of very high coefficient of thermal expansion.
49. Lead pipe is
a. especially resistant to solutions
containing H2SO4
b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by
melting to adjacent pieces with a torch)
c. having very low elastic limit resulting in
permanent deformation from either
mechanical or thermal strain
50. The most resistant material to alkaline
corrosion is
a. duriron
b. nickel
c. aluminum
d. karbate
51. Presence of nickel in steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance
b. cutting ability
c. wear resistance d. all (a), (b) and (c)
52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is
called
a. high carbon steel b. wrought iron
c. mild steel d. none of these
53. Bell metal is an alloy of
a. copper and zinc b. copper and tin
c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
54. Inconel is an alloy of
a. tin, zinc and nickel
b. iron, nickel and chromium
c. copper and nickel d. zinc and tin
55. Hastelloy comprises
a. copper and tin b. copper and nickel
c. molybdenum and nickel
d. lead and tin
56. Ability of a material to absorb energy in

deformation in the plastic range is
characterized as its
a. ductility
b. toughness
c. creep
d. resilience
57. Slow and progressive deformation of a
material with time under constant stress is
called
a. creep
b. erosion
c. resilience
d. none of these
58. Wrought iron is
a. high carbon iron
b. highly resistance to acid corrosion
c .malleable and ductile; hence used for
chain links, hooks and couplings
d. an alloy of iron, chromium and carbon
59. Which of the following constituents of cast
iron is mainly responsible for imparting it
an anti-corrosive property?
a. silicon
b. phosphorus
c. sulfur
d. none of these
60. Mild steel is
a. a low carbon steel (0.05 0.3%
carbon)
b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much
as stainless steel)
c. a high carbon steel (0.5 1.5% carbon)
d. very poor in strength and ductility
61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel
improves its
a. corrosion resistance
b. cutting ability
c. abrasion resistance and toughness
d. elasticity and creep resistance
62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive
to
a. aluminum, mild steel, stainless
steel, concrete and tin
b. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron
(14% Si)
c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber
and teflon
d. glass, graphite, porcelain and
stoneware
63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to
store
a. aqua regia b. ferrous sulfate
c. hydrochloric acid (10%) d. none
64. Brass container is suitable for storing
a. aqueous ammonia
b.
beer
c. H2SO4 (95% concentration)
d. phosphoric acid (95%)
65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the
storage of
a. Freon b. H2SO4 (95%) at room
temperature
c. H2SO4 (fuming)
d. Wet SO2
66. Out of the following, copper vessels are

most suitable for the storage of
a. bromine
b. dry chlorine and dry fluorine
c. nitric acid (95% and fuming)
d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid
(95% and fuming)
67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by
the action of
a. wet chlorine
b. synthetic detergent solution
c. hydrochloric acid (10%)
d. nitric acid (<25%)
68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron
(14% Si) are not suitable for the storage of
a. acetic acid
b. benzoic and boric acids
c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid
(95%)
d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)

69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable
for handling
a. hydrochloric acid (10%) b. nitric acid
c. sulfuric acid up to 60C d. all (a), (b) and
(c)
70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the
storage of
a. anhydrous ammonia
b. fatty acids
c. hydrochloric acid (95%)
d. sulfuric acid (25%)
71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for
handling
a. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous)
b. fruit juices, milk and its products and
caustic soda solution
c. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid
(concentrated)
d. sulfuric acid (concentrated)
72. Platinum and silver are corroded by
a. caustic soda solution
b. phosphoric
acid
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. none of these
73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it contains
a. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
b. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenum
c. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
d. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium
74. Stainless steel is not corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
b. nitric acid
(10%)
c. sulfuric acid (10%) d. saturated brine
75. Tin vessels are corroded by
a. anhydrous ammonia b. aromatic solvents
c. synthetic detergent solution d. none of
these
76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action
of
a. aqua regia b. chloroform
c. sulfuric acid (95%) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive
action of
a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sulfuric acid (95%)
c. ether
d. both (b) and (c)
78. Perspex is nothing but
a. acrylic sheet
b. an elastomer
c. an alloy of lead and tin

d. aluminum foil clad with bakelite
79. Teflon is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
b. hydrochloric
acid (95%)
c. sulfuric acid d. none of these
80. Polythene (low or high density) containers are
not corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%) at room
temperature
b. nitric acid (95%) at room temperature
c. sulfur trioxide at 60C
d. any of these
81. The most commonly used resin for making
reinforced plastic is
a. unsaturated polyester
b.
polyproplylene
c. polyurethane
d. nylon 6
82. Carbon tetrachloride can be stored in a storage
vessel made of
a. high silicon iron (14%)
b. tin
c. stainless steel d. all (a), (b) and (c)
83. Concrete tank can be used to store
a. alum
b. sulfuric acid
c. sulfuric acid
d. saturated brine
84. Glass is corroded by
a. fluorine (dry or wet)
b. sulfuric water
c. phosphoric acid
d. none these
85. Graphite is corroded by
a. sulfuric acid (10%) b. sea Water
b. hydrochloric acid
d. none of these
86. Wood is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid
b. SO2 (dry or wet)
c. chlorine (dry or wet) d. all (a), (b) and (c)
87. The 'bomb' in the bomb calorimeter is made of
a. molybdenum stainless steel
b. mild
steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si)
d.
copper
88. Most suitable material for high pressure vessel
operating at 500 atm and 500C is
a. molybdenum stainless steel
b. 18-8
stainless steel
c. mild steel
d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
89. Centrifugal pump made of pyrex or glass can't
be used to pump
a. mild and fruit juices b. alkaline solutions
c. dilute H2SO4 at room temperature
d. brine
90. Rubber lined pumps can be used to pump
a. caustic soda
b. chlorinated brine
c. hypochlorous acid d. all (a), (b) and (c)
91. Copper is dissolved from its ore by H 2SO4 in
percolation tanks made of
a. wood
b. stainless steel
c. reinforced concrete lined with lead
d. high silicon iron (14% Si)
92. Rotary dryers are generally made of
a. cast iron
b. mild steel
c. high silicon iron (14% Si)
d. tin lined with refractory bricks
93. Kel-F is
a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene
b. having excellent chemical and high
temperature resistance (up to 200C)
c. an elastomer
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a

nuclear reactor (thermal) is an alloy of
zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium
b. and graphite
c. and copper
d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a
suitable material of construction for handling
aqueous
hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100C?
a. none
b. stainless steel
c. graphite
d. Kel-F and Teflon
96. Specify the materials of construction
suitable for handling concentrated HNO3 at 100C.
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon
b. silicon rubber
c. tin and wood
d. stainless steel
97. Concentrated HCl at 30C can be stored in a
vessel made of
a
a. PTFE and porcelain
b. cast iron and aluminum
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron
d. copper, nickel and monel
98. Which of the following material of
construction may be recommended by a chemical
engineer
for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet)
stream in a fluid flow system?
a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber,
Kel-F and teflon
b. Mild steel and stainless steel
c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum
d. Copper, nickel and monel
99. Which of the following materials may prove
unsuitable for handling acetic (glacial and
anhydrous) at 40C?
a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and
wood
b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and
graphite
c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron
d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin
100. 100% H2SO4 at 30C can't be used and
stored in a vessel made/ lined with
a. cast iron and high silicon iron
b. mild steel and stainless steel
c. aluminum, tin and rubber
d. teflon, glass and porcelain
1.
The following cost item which in common both the

fixed and operating cost of an enterprise is:
a. interest
b. depreciation
c. taxes
d. supplies
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
The length of time, usually in years for the

cumulative net annual profit to equal the
investment is called:
a. receivable turnover b. return of investment
c. price earning ratio d. payback period
The reduction in value and marketability due to
competition from newest products / model
a. depreciated cost b. fixed cost
c. indirect cost
d. obsolescence
Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net
worth
a. production
b. break even point
c. balance method d. balance sheet
The worth of property which is equal to the original
cost less depreciation.
a. earning value
b. scrap value
c. book value
d. face value
The type of interest that is periodically added to
the amount of loan so that subsequent interest is
based on the cumulative amount.
a. compound interest
b. simple interest
c. interest rate
d. sinking fund
Output or sales at which income is insufficient to
equal operating cost
a. break even point b. investment
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
The price at which a given product will be supplied
and purchased is the price that will result in the
supply and the demand being equal.
a. law of demand and supply
b. law of diminishing returns
c. present worth method
d. obsolescence
An estimate of an assets' net market value at the
end of its estimated life.
a. break even point
b. cash flow
c. interest
d. book value
An estimate of an assets' net market value at the
end if its estimated life.
a. book value
c. salvage value
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
A lessening of the value of an asset due to a
decrease in the quantity available as a coal, oil and
timber in forests.
a. depletion
b. depreciation
c. amortization
d. investment
A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation
usually for a period of net loss that ten years and
guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the
corporation or its subsidiaries.
a. appraisal
b. bond
c. written contract
d. equity capital
Funds supplied and used by owners of an
enterprise in the expectation that profit will be
earned.
a. equity capital
b. investment
c. working capital
d. present
14. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of
interest must be paid and the debt be repaid at a
specific place and time
a. discount
b. cash flow
c. working capital
d. borrowed capital
15. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered
for sale at a certain price at a given place and time
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
16. The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought
at a certain price at a given place and time.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
a. supply
b. demand
c. discount
d. investment
A condition where only few individuals produce a
certain product that action of one will lead to
almost the same action by the other.
a. monopoly
b. oligopoly
c. semi monopoly d. perfect competition
Is the simplest form of business organization
a. sole proprietorship
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
An association of two or more persons for a
purpose of engaging in a profitable business
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
A distinct legal entity which can practically transact
any business transaction which a real person could
do.
b. enterprise
c. partnership
d. corporation
An increase in the value of capital asset is called
a. profit
b. capital gain
c. capital expenditure
d. capital stock
The reduction in the money value of a capital asset
is called
a. capital expenditure
b. capital loss
c. loss
d. deficit
The difference between sales revenue and the cost
of goods sold
a. net income
b. gross profit
c. rate of return
d. gross national product
A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for
which the demand is consistently high in relation to
its supply
a. money market
b. hard currency
c. treasury bill
d. certificate of deposit
Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a
corporation usually for a period not less than 10
years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain
assets of a corporation
a. bonds
b. T-bills
c. stock
d. all of these
It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a
term deposit
a. time deposit
b. bond
c. capital gain
d. certificate of deposit
The amount of a company's profit that the board of
directors of the corporation decides to distribute to
ordinary shareholders
a. dividend
b. return
c. share stock
d. par value
a document that shows proof of legal ownership of
a financial security
a. bond
b. bank note
c. coupon
d. check
The process determining the value of certain
properties for definite reasons
a. valuation
b. appraisal
c. estimate
d. both a and b
Represent
ownership
and
enjoys
certain
preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock b. preferred stock
c. common stock
d. incorporators stock
It is the difference between present worth and the
worth of the paper at some time in the future
a. discount
b. amortization
c. depletion
d. investment
32. The value which is usually determined by the

disinterested third party in order to establish a
price that is fair to both seller and buyer.
a. fair value
b. market value
c. salvage value
d. book value
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of
property or second hand
a. book value
b. salvage value
c. fair value
d. market value
34. The process of determining the value of certain
property for specific reasons
a. amortization
b. appraisal
c. investment
d. depreciation
35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the
equipments of the issuing corporation
a. debenture bond
b. lien bond
c. collateral bond
d. mortgage bond
36. An annuity where the payment period extends
forever or in which the periodic payment continue
indefinitely.
a. ordinary annuity b. deferred annuity
c. annuity due
d. perpetuity
37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it
produces the product it is designed to produce at a
profit
a. write off period
b. physical life
c. economic life
d. perpetual life
38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease
in value of the unit is constant each year
a. Matheson formula b. Straight line method
c. SYD method
d. Sinking fund method
39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the
individual who own it and which can engage in
practically any business transaction which a real
person can do.
b. partnership
c. corporation
d. all of the above
40. These are costs which remain relatively constant
regardless of any change in operation or policy
which is made.
a. fixed cost
b. increment cost
c. variable cost
d. differential cost
41. The length of time at which the original cost of
capital used to purchase a unit have already been
recovered.
a. economic life
b. write off period
c. physical life
d. salvage life
42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is
known as:
a. compound interest
b. nominal interest
c. simple interest d. effective interest
43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a
specific product / services in a given region of the
country.
a. franchise
b. branch
c. extension
d. outlet
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied
by a number of vendors and there is nothing to
prevent additional vendors entering the market
a. free market
b. perfect competition
c. open market
d. law of supply and demand
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required
profit on the invested capital is included as a cost.
a. rate of return
b. annual cost pattern
c. present worth pattern
d. capital cost
46. Depreciation method where the value of an asset
decreases at a decreasing rate.
a. SYD method
b. sinking fund
c. straight line method

d. declining balance
47. Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials
a. construction cost b. expenses
c. labor cost
d. investment
48. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached
a. analytic
b. gratuitous
c. private
d. pure
49. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as a
percentage of sale is called
a. profit margin
b. gross margin
c. ROI (rate of return)
d. price earnings
50. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of
time
a. interest
b. depreciation
c. annuity
d. amortization
51. A legally binding agreement on promise to
exchange goods or services
a. contract
b. barter
c. memorandum
d. pro-forma
52. An index of short term paying ability is called
a. current ratio
b. receivable turnover
c. acid test ratio
d. profit margin ratio
53. Used to produce consumer goods
a. producer goods
b. supply
c. consumer goods d. cash flow
54. It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal
interval of time where the first payment is made
several periods after the beginning of the payment
a. deferred annuity
b. delayed annuity
c. progressive annuity
d. simple annuity
55. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an
item for which there are no goods substitute
a. monopoly
b. monopsony
c. oligopoly
d. oligopsony
56. The amount of a property in which a willing buyer
will pay to a willing seller for the property when
neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell
a. fair value
b. goodwill value
c. book value
d. market value
57. A type of annuity where the payments are made at
the start of each period, beginning from the first
period
a. ordinary annuity b. annuity due
c. deferred annuity d. perpetuity
58. A method of computing depreciation in which the
annual charge is a fixed percentage of the
depreciated book value at the beginning of the
year to which the depreciation applies
a. straight line
b. sinking fund method
c. SYD method d. declining balance method
59. The cumulative effect of elapsed time on the
money value of an event based on the earning
power of equivalent invested funds capital should
or will earn
a. present worth factor
b. interest rate
c. time value of money
d. yield
60. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which
business organization?
b. partnership
c. corporation
d. enterprise
61. The function of interest rate and time that
determines the cumulative amount of a sinking
fund resulting from specific periodic deposits
a. sinking fund factor b. present worth factor
c. capacity factor
d. demand factor
62. The intangible item of value from the exclusive
right of the company to provide a specific product
or service in a stated region of the country
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
1.
a. market value
b. book value
c. goodwill value
d. franchise value
The length of time during which it is capable of
performing the function for which it was designed
and manufactured.
a. economic life
b. business life
c. insular life
d. physical life
Products that are directly used by people to satisfy
their wants.
a. supply
b. consumer goods
c. producer goods
d. cash flows
A change in cost for a small change in volume of
production.
a. fixed cost
b. sunk cost
c. first cost
d. differential cost
An amount which has been spent and for some
reasons cannot be recovered.
a. sunk cost
b. first cost
c. increment
d. fixed cost
The difference between the book value and the
actual lower resale value is
a. salvage value
b. resale value
c. sunk cost
d. fixed cost
It occurs when a unique product or service is
available only from a single supplier and entry of
all other possible suppliers presented.
a. competition
b. monopoly
c. inventory
d. profitability
A place where buyer and seller come together
a. market
b. shop
c. department store
d. parlor
Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested
a. proportion
b. rate of return
c. load factor
d. use factor
The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a
willing seller for a commodity
a. resale value
b. market value
c. book value
d. scrap value
The price of property when sold for a junk
a. scrap value
b. book value
c. resale value
d. market value
An interest earning fund in which equal deposits
are made at equal intervals of time
a. annuity
b. sinking fund
c. interest
d. investment
A term describing wealth which is placed in a
business and could include cash equipment, raw
materials and finished products
a. capital
b. investment
c. collateral
d. assets
The first cost of any property includes
a. the original purchase price and freight and
transportation charges
b. installation expenses
c. initial taxes and permits' fee
d. all of the above
The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a

source of continuous ultraviolet radiation for spectrophotometers
because of
a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium
emission lines
c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
d.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
the narrow band pass of modern grating of

monochromators
Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a
tuned ac amplifier in an atomic absorption spectrophotometer
accomplishes the following
a. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a
voltmeter for the readout
b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual
photomultiplier tube
c. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of
ground-state atoms
d. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not
interfere with the absorbance measurement
Line spectra are emitted by
a. hot solids
b. excited polyatomic molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with
feedback loops that vary the power of the reference beam until it
matches the power of the beam through the sample. This mode
of operation
a. eliminates the need for a continuous source
b. requires two monochromators
c. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents
d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that
nonlinear response to radiant power would not be
deleterious
Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is
sometimes more sensitive than flame emission spectroscopy?
a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of
ground-state atoms is much greater than the
population of excited atoms.
b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more
sensitive than those used to measure emission.
c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater
radiant power output than do ordinary flames .
d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than
an emission line because of the Doppler effect.
The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects
provided
a. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably
and does not itself introduce appreciable quantities or
interfering substances
b. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the
concentrations of interfering substances are lowered to
negligible values
c. the addition contains none of the substance being
determined
d. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some
substance to swamp out sample variations
Fe3+ and Cu2+ form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is
colorless , as is Fe3+ itself, at the concentration involved here:
the copper complex is a deep blue color (deeper than the color
of Cu2+ itself), while EDTA is colorless. The photometric titration
curve below was obtained when a solution containing both Fe 3+
and Cu2+ was titrated with EDTA using a spectrophotometer set
at a wavelength of 745 nm in the visible region of the spectrum.
d.
13.
B
A
14.
ml of EDTA solution
a.
b.
c.
A is the iron end point.

B is the iron end point
The distance from A to B on the milliliter axis
represents the quantity of iron
d. The quantity of iron could not be calculated from a
graph like this unless the quantity of copper in the
solution was known ahead of time
8. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution of the
coefficient, K, is zero may be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column occupied by the packing
materials
b. the total volume of the column
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the volume within the column available to the mobile
phase
9. The purpose of the solid support material in a GLC column is to
a. immobilize the stationary liquid phase
b. adsorb sample components that are insufficiently soluble in
the stationary liquid phase
c. provide a "backup" stationary phase in the event that the
liquid is lost by evaporation
d. remove impurities from the carrier gas
10. Helium, rather than nitrogen, is sometimes used as the carrier
gas in GLC because
a. being lighter than nitrogen, helium elutes the sample
components more rapidly
b. helium is less expensive than nitrogen
c. nitrogen has stable isotopes which separate and cause
anomalous column behavior
d. of its much higher thermal conductivity
11. An important feature of open-tubular GLC column is
a. they can accept much larger samples than can packed
column because of their great length
b. solute partitioning between stationary and mobile
phases is very rapid and the C term in the Van Deemter
equation is relatively small
c. they permit the use of a wider variety of carrier gases
d. they can be operated at temperatures closer to the boiling
point of the stationary liquid phase than can packed
columns and thus handle less volatile examples
12. Raising the column temperature in GLC decreases solute
retention times primarily because
a. solute diffusion coefficients in the liquid phase decrease
with increasing temperature
b. van der Waals interactions between solutes and stationary
phase are stronger at higher temperatures
c. gases are generally less soluble in liquids at higher
temperatures
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
detector sensitivity is a function of temperature, especially

with a thermal conductivity cell
Which of the following would have practically no effect upon the
retention volume of a solute in GLC?
a. changing the carrier-gas flow-rate
b. increasing the stationary liquid loading of the column
packing from 5 to 10% by weight
c. increasing the column temperature
d. changing the chemical nature of the stationary liquid
The separation factor, S, in chromatography depends upon
a. the length of the column
b. the square root of the length of the column
c. the nature of the stationary liquid phase
d. the number of theoretical plates in the column
In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often
cause
a. unusually narrow elution bands
b. asymmetric elution band
c. excessive eddy diffusion
d. decreased detector sensitivity
Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the
column packing will, with everything else the same,
a. increase tR for a solute
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer
equation
A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its
way into the pores of a typical anion-exchange resin can be
eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-forone exchange basis
d. by flushing out the water
In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution
coefficient, K, is zero may be used to estimate
a. the volume within the column available to the moving
phase
b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the total volume of the column
Which of the following statements is false in normal phase
absorption?
a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be
adsorbed from a solution
b. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors
being equal
c. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the
adsorption of the solute
d. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear
The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC is
a. the height of the elution band
b. the area of the elution band
c. the baseline width of the elution band
d. the retention volume
Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which
adsorbent and what solvent system to use for a larger-scale
chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product from
materials formed in side reactions?
a. Paper chromatography
b. Affinity chromatography
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
c. TLC
d. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution
To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the
best approach employs
a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the
hydrogen form
b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the
hydroxyl form
c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation
exchanger in the sodium form and a strong-base anion
exchanger in the chloride form
d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation
exchanger in the hydrogen form and a strong-base
anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
Line spectra are emitted by
a. incandescent solids
b. excited molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
Band spectra are emitted by
a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. incandescent solids
A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development
of analytical methods based upon chemiluminescence. If a
conventional spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements,
an the instrument has separate switches for its various circuits,
which switch will be left in the "off" position?
a. detector power supply
b. amplifier
c. source power supply
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator
on the emission side of the instrument
In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant
combination available as yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
c. acetylene-oxygen
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide
If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy
involves change in the average separation of the nuclei of two or
more atoms, then the change is
a. electronic
b. vibrational
c. translational
d. rotational
The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon
a. Beer's law
b. Fajar's law
c. Bouger law's
d. Beer Lambert's Law
IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic
components as visible and UV spectro-photometers. In which of
the following basic components could the devices be used
interchangeable in both:
a. sources of radiant energy
b. optical system
c. sample holders
d. detectors
Which of the following may not be used in the determination of
sugars?
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
a. TLC chromatography
b. Polarimetry
c. Copper reduction methods
d. Lane and Eynon methods
Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?
a. hydrogen arc lamp
b. glass filter
c. barrier layer photocell
d. none of these
This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted
by a solution is an experimental function of the concentration of
absorbing substance present and the sample path length
a. Bouger's Law
b. Beer's Law
c. Lambert's Law
d. Bouger-Beer Law
Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to
a. instrumental
b. intermolecular reactions
c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
d. all of these
IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV
spectrophotometers, except:
a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these
Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited
atoms:
a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
d. Nephelopmetry
The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not
depend on the :
a. wavelength of the incident light
b. intensity of the incident light
c. concentration of the substance
d. thickness of the sample cell
If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission
spectroscopy, which of the following statements will be true?
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission
spectroscopy
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than
emission spectroscopy
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than
emission spectroscopy
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission
spectroscopy
Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible
absorption spectrophotometry because AAS
a. has no light source
b. does not need a monochromator
c. does not follow Beer's Law
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made
Gas chromatography does not use this detector
a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector
c. flame ionization detector
d. electron capture detector
In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on
a. carrier gas velocity
b.
c.
d.
column temperature
volume of compound analyzed
volatility of compound analyzed
1. The main component of air is ____________.

a. oxygen
b. argon c. carbon dioxide
d. nitrogen
e. methane
2. Of the following, ____________ is characteristic of gases.
a. Gases are highly compressible
b. These are relatively large distances between
molecules
c. Gases form homogenous mixtures regardless of the
non-reacting gas components
d. All of these
e. A gas expands spontaneously to fill its container
3. One significant difference between gases and liquids is
that ______________________.
a. a gas is made up of molecules
b. a gas assumes the volume of its container
c. a gas may consist of both elements and compounds
d. gases are always mixtures
e. all of these answers are correct
4. Molecular compounds of low molecular weights tend to be
gases at room temperature. Which of the following is most
likely not a gas at room temperature?
a.
Cl2
b. HCl
c. LiCl
d. H2
e. CH4
5. Gaseous mixtures ________________.
a. can only contain molecules
b. are all heterogeneous
c. can only contain isolated atoms
d. are all homogenous
e. must contain both isolated atoms and molecules
6. Which one of the following is NOT true about the unit
Pascal (pa)?
a. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2
b. The Pa is the SI unit for pressure
c. 1 atm = 101.325 kPa
d. 1 Pa = 100 torr
e. The Pa is the Si unit for force
7. The first person to investigate the relationship between the
pressure of a gas ad its volume was ________________.
a. Amadeo Avogadro
b. Lord Kelvin
c. Jacques Charles
d. Robert Boyle
e. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac
8. Of the following, ____________ is a correct statement of
Boyles law.
a. PV = constant
b. P = constant
V
c. V = constant
P
d. V = constant
T
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
e. n = constant
P
Of the following, ______________ is a valid statement of
Charles law.
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
Which one of the following is a valid statement of
Avogadros law?
a. P = constant
T
b. V = constant
T
c. PV = constant
d. V = constant x n
e. V = constant x P
The volume of an ideal gas is zero at _________.
a. 0C
b. -45F
c. -273K
d. -363K
e.
-273C
Of the following, only _________ is impossible for an ideal
gas.
a. V1 = V2
T1 T2
b. V1T1 = V2T2 V1 = T1
V2 T2
c. V2 = T2 ( V1)
T1
d. V1 = T1 = 0
V2 T2
The molar volume of a gas at STP is _____L.
a. 0.08206
b. 62.36
c. 1.00
d. 22.4
e. 14.7
A gas is considered ideal if ___________.
a. it is not compressible
b. one mole of it occupies exactly 1 liter at standard
temperature and pressure
c. it can be shown to occupy zero volume at 0C
d. its behavior is described by the ideal-gas
equation
e. one mole of it in a one-liter container exerts a
pressure exactly 1 atm at room temperature
For which of the following changes is not clear whether
the volume of a particular sample of an ideal gas will
increase or decrease?
a. increase the temperature and increase the
pressure
b. increase the temperature and decrease the pressure
c. increase the temperature and keep the pressure
constant
d. keep temperature constant and decrease the
pressure
e. decrease the temperature and increase the pressure

16. Standard temperature and pressure (STP), in the context
of gases, refers to ____________________.
a. 298 K and 1 atm
b. 273 K and 1 atm
c. 298 K and 1 torr
d. 273 K and 1 pascal
e. 273 K and 1 torr
17. Of the following, ______________ correctly relates
pressure, volume, temperature, amount (mol), molecular
mass (M), density (d) and mass (g).
a. M = dRT
PV
b. M = gRT
PV
c. M = PT
GRV
d. M = gV
RT
e. M = RT
Gv
18. Of the following, _____________ correctly relates
pressure, volume, temperature, amount (mol), molecular
mass (M), density (d) and mass (g).
a. d = PM
RT
b. d = gRT
PM
c. d = PTM
gRV
d. d = gV
RT
e. d = RT
PM
19. Of the following gases, ____________ will have the
greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature.
a. NH3
b. CH4
c. Ar
d. HBr
e. HCl
20. An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules
of an ideal gas _________________.
a. have no attraction for one another
b. have appreciable molecular volume
c. have a molecular weight of zero
d. have no kinetic energy
e. has an average molecular mass
21. The statement, For a fixed mass of gas at constant
temperature, gas volume is inversely proportional to gas
pressure. Is known as:
a. Avogadros law
b. Boyles law c. Charles law
d. Grahams law e. Kelvins law
22. If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains
constant:
a. the pressure stays the same
b. the molecules move faster
c. the kinetic energy increases
d. the molecules move slower
e. none of these answers

23. Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total
pressure of a gas collected over water is an example:
a. Avogadros Hypothesis
b. Daltons law
c. Grahams law
d.
van der Waals Theory
e. ideal gas law
24. The energy of molecules of a gas:
a. is dependent on concentration
b. is distributed over a wide range at constant
temperature
c. is the same for all molecules at constant temperature
d. increases with a decrease in temperature
e. increases with an increase in pressure
25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain
the ideal gas law?
a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent
of total gas volume
b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
d. collisions between gas particles and container walls
are perfectly elastic
e. individual gas particles are perfectly
compressible to nuclear size
26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed
room, persons at the other end of the room might soon
perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar.
Such a phenomenon is an example of:
a. monometry
b. ideality
c. effusion d. diffusion
e. barometry
27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more
slowly than one filled with hydrogen is explained by citing:
a. Avogadros hypothesis b. Daltons law
c. Grahams law
d. van der Waals Theory e. ideal gas law
28. Gases tend to behave ideally at
a. low temperature and low pressure
b. low temperature and high pressure
c. high temperature and low pressure
d. high temperature and high pressure
e. gases always behave ideally
29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases
would have the lowest density at standard temperature
and pressure?
a. SF6 b. CF2Cl2 c. CO2 d. N2 e. Kr
30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at
STP is:
a. CH4
b. NH3 c. Ne d. H2 e. He
31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with
proper care, be made to float on the surface of
some water illustrates a property of liquid known
as:
a. compressibility b. polarizability c. surface
tension d. triple point e. viscosity
32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance
to flow is called:
a. capillarity
b. polarizability c. resistivity
d. viscosity
e. wetability
33. A liquid will wet a surface if:
a.
b.
the liquid has a lesser density than the surface
the forces between the liquid molecules are

weak
c. the liquid has a low vapor pressure
d. the forces between the molecules and the
surface are greater than the forces
between the molecules of the liquid
e. none of these answers
34. Which of the following statements concerning
molecules in the liquid state is true?
a. Cohesive forces are not important
b. The
molecules contract to fit the size of the container
c. The molecules have no motion
d. The molecules in a patterned
(oriented) arrangement
e. The molecules are mobile and relatively
close together
35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a
liquid equals the external pressure is called the :
a. boiling point b. critical point c. melting point d.
sublimation point
e. thermal point
36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become
indistinguishable at the:
a. triple point b. normal point c. permanent point
d. critical point
e. absolute point
37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its
vapor at a given temperature, the following
conditions could exist:
(I)
There is no transfer of molecules
between liquid and vapor
(II)
The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III)
The opposing processes, (liquid to
vapor) and (vapor to liquid), proceed at
equal rates
(IV)
The concentration of vapor is
dependent on time
Which of the above choices are applicable?
a. I b. II and III
c. I, II, and III d. II and IV
e. none of these combination
38. Which of the following does NOT describe the
critical point of a liquid?
a. The temperature and pressure at which a
liquids meniscus disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve
intersects the fusion temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can
exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid
and its vapor are identical
e. The highest temperature at which it is possible
to obtain a liquid form its vapor by increasing
pressure
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its
vapor in equilibrium If the volume of the container
is decreased, which of the following has occurred
once equilibrium is reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower
b. the temperature is higher
c. the pressure is higher
d. the pressure is lower
e. none of these
40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals
atmospheric pressure, the temperature of the
liquid equals:
a. 100C
b. boiling point c. the normal boiling
point d. the vaporization point
41. When a liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor in a

closed container:
a. The rate at which molecules from the
liquid phase enter the gas phase exactly
equals the rate at which molecules from
the gas phase pass into the liquid phase
b. A change in temperature will not change the
pressure in the container
c. The amount of gas in the container must
exactly equal the amount of liquid
d. Molecules cannot go from the liquid phase to
the gas phase because the amount of liquid in
the container is constant
e. The vapor will gradually change back to the
liquid state, that is, no vapor will be left
42. Under which of the following conditions will
vaporization best occur?
a. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic
energy
b. weak forces between molecules, high
kinetic energy, large surface area
c. high molecular energy, small surface area
d. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces,
large surface area
e. small surface area, low kinetic energy, low
molecular mass
43. Which of the following does NOT decrease rate of
vaporization?
a. closing container lid
b. increasing forces between molecules
c. increasing mass of molecule
d. decreasing temperature
e. decreasing surface area
44. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the
normal boiling point of a liquid?
a. atmospheric pressure
b. strength of forces between molecules
c. rate of evaporation
d. rate of condensation
45. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapor. If some of
the vapor is allowed to escape, what is the
immediate result?
a. condensation rate decreases
b. vaporization rate increases
c. condensation rate increases
d. vaporization rate decreases
46. The phenomenon of supercooling refers to the
existence of a metastable:
a. the liquid at a temperature below that of its
critical point
b. liquid at a temperature below that of its
sublimation point
c. liquid at a temperature below that of its
freezing point
d. gas at a temperature below that of its critical
point
e. two-phase liquid/solid mixture at the freezing
point
47. All of the following are true about crystals EXCEPT
a. A crystal softens and melts over a wide
range of temperature
b. A crystal tends to shatter along defined planes
c. Crystals generally have a specific shape for a
specific substance
d. Crystal usually have a high degree of
symmetry
48. All of the following are logical consequences of the

observed macroscopic properties of crystals
EXCEPT
a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are
arranged in a regularly repeating pattern
b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal
are the same for essentially every atom except
at the surface
c. The distances between adjacent atoms or
molecules vary greatly
d. Some defects are present in the crystals
49. Which of the following has the largest number of
lattice points per unit cell?
a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice
b. The face centered cubic lattice
c. The body centered cubic lattice
d. All these lattices have the same number of
lattice points per unit cell
50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a
crystal structure EXCEPT
a. The first lattice point can be placed at any
location
b. All lattice points have identical environments
c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice
points
d. Atoms are always located on lattice points
51. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. The face-centered cubic lattice is identical to
the cubic closest packed lattice
b. The body-centered cubic lattice is
identical to the hexagonal closest packed
lattice
c. The cubic closest packed and hexagonal
closest packed structures have identical
fractions of space which are occupied by atoms
d. The density of a metal sample is independent
of the size of the sample considered
52. Which of the following represents the minimal
amount of date necessary to determine the atomic
mass of a metal?
a. Avogadros number and the density of the
metal
b. Avogadros number, the density of the metal
and the length of the unit cell edge
c. Avogadros number, the density of the
metal, the length of the unit cell edge and
the type of lattice
d. Avogadros number, the density of the metal,
the length of the unit cell edge, the type of
lattice and the atomic radius of the metal
53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating
atomic radii of metals form crystallographic data?
a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed
in the structure
b. The atoms are almost perfect cubes
c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value
calculated for the radius is an average
d. The atoms in the structure are touching
54. What is the usual relationship between the number
of valence electrons and the number of nearest
neighbors of a metal atom in a solid metal?
a. The number of valence electrons is less
than the number nearest neighbors
b. The number of valence electrons is greater
than the number of nearest neighbors
c. The number of valence electrons is equal to the
number of nearest neighbors
d.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
The number of valence electrons can be less

than, greater than, or equal to the number of
nearest neighbors
All of the following are consequences of the theory
of the structure of metals EXCEPT
a. Metals conduct electricity
b. Metals are
malleable c. Metals are ductile
d. Metals
break easily when they are bent
Which of the following is the reason that metals
conduct electricity?
a. The metal atoms are close together
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can
move freely
Which of the following is the reason why salt stay
bonded in the solid state?
a. There are strong covalent bonds between the
ions
b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat
bind tightly to other salt molecules
c. They are held together by electrostatic
attractions and the structure includes no
electrostatic repulsions
d. There are both electrostatic attractions
and repulsions within the structure but
the total of the attractions is greater
All of the following are possible crystal defects
EXCEPT
a. An atom or ion out of its regular position and
occupying a normally empty hole
b. A crystal in which he only defect is one
pair of ions of the same charge which are
missing
c. An electron occupying a site that is normally
occupied by a 1 anion
d. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and
some ions not bearing the expected charge
Which of the following is the most important
explanation for the conductivity of metals?
a. they are almost all solids b. their coordination
numbers are high
c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high
d. Their densities are high
Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?
a. AIS and P
b. GeAs and Se
c.
GeAs and GaSe
d. Al and SiP
Which of the following is always the same for
allotropes of the same element?
a. The atomic mass
b. the molar mass
c. the structure d. the chemical and
physical properties
The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low
electrical conductivity in the dark because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than
3RT at 23C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in
all three dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements
that form metallic solids
A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction
(i.e., a region of A1 doped semiconductor bonded
to a region of P doped semiconductor) with a
flowing current due to an applied voltage from a
battery. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The color of the light is determined by the
semiconductor band gap
b.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
The device works better warm rather than cold

because the number of thermally generated
electrons is higher
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole
from the A1 region combines with an electron
from the P region
d. Both (a) and (c)
In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons,
which element should be incorporated into the
lattice?
a. P
b. A1
c. C
d. O
All of the following statements about NaCl
crystalline lattice are true, EXCEPT
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal
bond lengths, and vice versa
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the
unit cell is all the same
c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the
atomic weights of Na and Cl are known, then
the density can be calculated
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl
ions have different ionin radii
All of the following statements about the different
forms of solid C are true, EXCEPT
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no
color because its band gap is quite large
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are
strongly bonded in only two dimensions
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom
is due to C sp3 hybridization
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band
gap is large
Solids with long-range microscopic order in their
structures are called
a. amorphous
b. crystalline
c.
glasses
d. metals
e. none of
these
A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The
resulting diffraction pattern contains many sharply
defined spots. The specimen is
a. gaseous
b. crystalline
c.
amorphous
d. plastic
e. liquid
A specimen is subjected to x-ray diffraction. The
resulting diffraction pattern contains three diffuse
rings close to primary x-ray beam. The specimen is
a. gaseous
b. crystalline
c.
amorphous
d.
polycrystalline
e. colloidal
The colors in the gemstone opal result from
a. the diffraction of visible light by colloidal
crystals in the stone
b. absorption by transition metal complexes
c. contamination by large organic molecules
which absorb light in the visible region
d. radioactivity
e. none of these
Which of the following symmetry elements can be
found in an equilateral triangle?
a. a 2-fold rotation b. a 3-fold rotation
c. as
mirror line or plane d. all of these
About half of all the crystals studied so far belong
to the ______ crystal system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic
c. cubic
d. triclinic
e. monoclinic
The crystal system with the minimum symmetry
requirement of one 4-fold rotation is
a. orthorhombic
b. cubic
c.
tetragonald. triclinic
e. trigonal
74. Crystalline substances are ________. Amorphous

substances are ________.
a. isotropic, isotropic b. anisotropic, anisotropic c.
isotropic, anisotropic d. anisotropic, isotropic
75. The three-dimensional array made up of all points
within a crystal that have the same environment in
the same orientation is called the
a. unit cell b. primitive cell c. crystal system
d. crystal lattice
e. symmetry
pattern
76. The basic repeating structural unit of a crystal
lattice is the
a. unit cell
b. atom
c. molecule
d. atomic cluster
e. symmetry
pattern
77. The number of lattice points in a primitive unit cell
is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. this depends on the crystal system
78. The conditions --- a b c, alpha= beta =gamma
= 90 --- describe the _________ unit cell.
a. tetragonal b. orthorhombic
c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal
e. trigonal
79. The conditions --- a b c, alpha = gamma = 90,
90--- describe the _______ unit cell
a. tetragonal
b. orthorhombic
c. monoclinic d. hexagonal
e. trigonal
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the
body-centered cubic lattice is
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 8
81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner
contributes _____ lattice points to the unit cell
a. 1/8
b.
c.
d. 1 e. none of these
82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each
lattice point located in a face of the unit cell is
shared equally with ___ other unit cell
a. 1 b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. none of these
83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic
lattice. Which of the following correctly relates the
atomic radius r of the metal to the length of an
edge a of the unit cell?
a. r = a
b. r = a2
c. r = a3
2
4
4
d. This cannot be determined without additional
information
e. none of these
84. The forces holding the molecules together in the
lattice of a molecular solid are
a. van der Waals forces b. ionic bonds c.
covalent bonds d. all of these e. none of these
85. Molecular crystals typically
a. are soft b. have low melting points c. are
insulators d. all of these e. none of these
86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system
a. hexagonal b. orthorhombic
c. cubic
d. tetragonal
e.
monoclinic
87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______
lattice of anions, with cations occupying positions
exactly between pairs of anions
a. face-centered cubic
b. monoclinic c.
trigonal d. body-centered cubic e. primitive cubic
88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by
________ equidistant ions of opposite charge
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4
d. 8
e. none of these
89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in
the rock salt structure?
a. VN b. Na2S c. ZrSe
d. NH4I
e. MgO
90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell
of CsCl?
a. 1/8 b. c.
d. 1
e. 2
91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in
CsCl is
a. 1 b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. 12
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and
has a high melting point. The substance readily
conducts electricity when molten. This substance is
most likely _____ in nature.
a. molecular b. covalent
c. ionic
d. metallic
e. it could be more than one of
these
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice
points.
a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules
c. positively
charged core ions d. electrons e. atomic clusters
94. The metal with the highest melting point is
a. Pt b. Rh c. Nb
d. Ga
e. W
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid
spheres are placed as close together as possible is
called a ____ arrangement.
a. primitive b. close-packed
c. facecentered
d. dense
e. nematic
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for
uniform rigid spheres is
a. primitive cubic b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic
d. all of these e. none of these
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each
atom has a coordination number of
a. 2 b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 12
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to
________ other carbon atoms
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature
is
a. gaseous atoms b. long chains of sulfur atoms c. S4
tetrahedral d. S2 molecules with double bonds e. S8
rings
100.
Which element in group V does not form a solid
with each atom bonded to three others?
a. As
b. Bi
c. N
d. P
e. Sb
101.
Which of the following forms a layered
structure?
a. graphite b. white tin
c. sulfur
d. red phosphorous
e.
all of these
102.
Which of the following forms a solid with the
diamond structure?
a. sulfur
b. white tin
c. red phosphorous
d. sodium
e. gray tin
103.
The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is
displaced from its regular position in the lattice to
an interstitial site is called a(n)
a. Schottky defect b. Frenkel defect
c. Fcenter d. site defect
e. berthollide
104.
Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can
cause
a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline
lattice
b. formation of an F-center
c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
d. all of these
e. none of these
105.
In a plastic crystal,
a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s
disrupted
b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules
begin to tumble
c. the molecules are rod-like
d. all of these
e. none of these
106.
The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
a. initial concentration of reactants
b. extent of reaction
c. temperature
d. time of reaction
107.
Which of the following factors does not
influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature
108.
The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes
be reduced from
a. the temperature dependence of the rate
b. the rate law
c. the net equation
d. the activation energy
109.
The activation energy of a reaction may be
lowered by
a. raising the temperature
b. lowering the temperature
c. removing the products of the reaction
d. adding a catalyst
110.
The equilibrium constant in a reversible
chemical reaction at given temperature
a. depends on the initial concentrations of the
reactants
b. depends on the concentration of one of the
products at equilibrium
c. does
not
depend
on
the
initial
concentrations
d. is not characteristic of the reaction
Answer the following questions 111-113 with
the help of the hypothetical reaction and its
rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2
111.
Doubling of the concentration of A increases
the rate of reaction by a factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
112.
Doubling of the concentration of B increases
the rate of the reaction by a factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
113.
If the volume of the container is suddenly
reduced to one-half its original volume the rate will
increase by a factor of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
114.
The value of k, the specific rate constant, may
be increased by
a. decreasing the concentration of D
b. increasing the concentration of A
c. increasing the concentration of C
d. increasing the temperature
115.
What effect does an increase in temperature of
10C have on the rate of the reaction?
a. Halved
b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled
d.
Tripled
116.
Which of the following is the best explanation
for the effect of increase in temperature on the
rate of the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with
the necessary activation of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the
necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d.
It enables the activated complex to be more

easily converted to the products
117.
The reactions of high molecularity are rare
because
a. activation energy of many body collisions is
very high
b. many body collisions have low probability
c. many body collisions are not favoured
energetically
d. none of the above statement is true
118.
At 25C , the half life for the decomposition of
N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is dependent of the initial
pressure of N2O5 the specific rate constant is
a. ln 2
b. (1/5.7)hr-1
-1
-1
c. (ln2/5.7) hr
d. (ln2/5.7)hr
119.
If the rate of reaction is independent of the
concentration of the reactant, the reaction is of
a. zero order
b. first order
c. second order
d. third order
120.Who among the following gave the law of photochemical
equivalence?
a. Drapper
b. Einstein
c. Grotthus
d. Lambert
121.The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on
a. its amplitude
b. its frequency
c. its wave length
122.
What term is used to define the phenomenon
of emission of light in a chemical reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both
chemical
luminescence
and
photosensitization
d. None of the above
123.
Raman spectra may be obtained in
a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region
124.
ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
125.
Which one of the following rate laws has an
overall order of 0.5 for the reactions involving
substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) 1 (Cz)0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126.
Chemical reaction rates in solution do not
depend to any great extent upon
a. pressure
b. temperature
c. concentration
d. catalyst
127.
Which of the following might be used as an
electrode?
a. A stick
b. A nail
c. A glass rod
d. A soda straw
128.
The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H 2 at 1.0
atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
a. 0.00V
b. 0.059V
c. 0.059V
d. 0.030V
129.
A good reducing agent
a. will always react rapidly
b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. is readily oxidized
d. shows a negative oxidation number
130.
A Faraday of electricity is
a. one ampere per second
b. 96,500 coulombs per second

c. 6.02 x 1023 electrons per second
d. 6.02 x 1023 electronic charges
131.
When aqueous HCl is electrolyzed
a. chlorine gas is produced at the anode
b. hydrogen gas is produced at the anode
c. oxygen gas is produced at the anode
d. oxygen gas is produced at the cathode
132.
The number of electrons necessary to produce
1.00gm of Cu from Cu2+ at the cathode of an
electrolytic cell is
a. 1.89 x 1022
b. 3.04 x 103
c. 9.47 x 1021
d. 1.91 x 1025
133.
A possible advantage to using the half reaction
method for balancing oxidation-reduction equation
is
a. electrons need not be balanced
b. oxidation numbers are not assigned
c. charges are not balanced
d. atoms need not be balanced
134.
In a galvanic cell the cathode
a. is always made of copper
b. is always made of zinc
c. may be made of an inert metal
d. always attracts negative ions in the solution
135.
Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than
a. Ag+
b. Cu++
c. Cl2
d. Zn++
136.
Not all galvanic cells contain
a. a cathode
b. an anode
c. a porous partition
d. ions
137.
When a cell of a lead storage battery is being
charged, it is
a. a galvanic cell
b. an electrolytic cell
c. a Daniel cell
d. a dry cell
138.
A current of 9.65 ampere is drawn from a
Daniel cell for exactly 1 hour. The loss of mass of
anode is
a. 0.180g
b. 23.6g
c. 0.197g
d. 11.8g
139.
The following reaction does not occur
spontaneously (all ions at 1m concentration; all
gases at 1 atmosphere pressure)
a. 2Cr(s) + 3Cl2(g) 2 Cr+3 + 6 Clb. NO3- + 2 H+ + Ag(s) Ag+ + H2O + NO2(g)
c. NO3- + 4 H+ + 3 Ag(s) 3 Ag+ + NO(g) +2H2O
d. Cl2(g) + 2 Br- 2 Cl- + Br2
140.
If 0.200 liter of 0.100 M NaCl are electrolyzed
until the OH- concentration is 0.0500M, how many
moles of Cl2 gas are produced?
a. 5.00 x 10-3moleb. 1.00 x 10-2mole
c. 5.00 x 10-2mole
c. 1.00 x 10-1mole
141.
As the lead storage battery is charged,
a. the amount of sulfuric acid decreases
b. the lead electrode becomes coated with lead
sulfate
c. sulfuric acid is regenerated
d. lead dioxide dissolves
142.
If an aqueous solution of KI is electrolyzed (with
platinum electrodes) one would expect to find
a. potassium deposited at the cathode
b. oxygen liberated at the anode
c. the solution around the cathode becoming
alkaline
d. the solution around the anode becoming
brown
143.
When an aqueous solution of NaCl is
electrolyzed, a product formed at the cathode is
a. Na
c. OH-
b. H+
d. Cl2
144.If aqueous Cu SO4 is electrolyzed for one minute with a

current of 2.00 ampere, the volume of ozygen produced at
STP at the anode is
a. 3.10 x 10-4 liter
b. 6.96ml
c. 1.16 x 10-4 liter
d. 1.16 ml
145.As a lead storage battery is discharged
a. water is used up
b. lead is formed
c. lead sulfate is consumed
d. sulfuric acid is consumed
146.
If a large quantity of cobalt metal were dropped
into a solution containing Ag+, Fe+2, Cu+2, the
products of the reaction will be:
a. Ag, Fe and Cu
b. Ag, Fe++ and Cu+
c. Fe++, Cu and Co++d. Fe++, Cu, Ag and Co++
147.
Which of the following instruments makes use
of the standard electrode potentials and the variation
of electrode potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter
b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous
d. Electrophotometer
148.
The series in which the electrode potentials of
metals are arranged in an order is known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series
149.
In a salt-bridge KCl is used because
a. agar-agar forms a good jelly with it
b. KCl is an electrolyte
c. K+ and Cl- have the same transference
number
d. KCl is present in calomel electrode
150.
Four colorless salt solutions are placed in
separate test-tubes and a strip of copper is dipped in
each.. which solution finally turns blue?
a. Pb (NO3)2
b. Zn (NO3)2
c. AgNO3
d. Cd (NO3)2
151.When an electric current is passed through a cell
containing an electrolyte, positive ions move towards the
cathode and negative ions towards the anode. What will
happen if the cathode is pulled out of solution?
a. The positive ions will start moving towards the anode
and negative ions will stop moving
b. The negative ions will continue to move towards the
anode and the positive ions will stop moving
c. Both negative and positive ions move towards the
anode
d. None of these movements will take place
152.
What is the standard cell potential for the cell
Zn; Zn+2 (IM) ll Cu+2 (IM); Cu (E for Zn+2 l Zn =
-.76; E for Cu+2 l Cu = +0.34)
a. -0.076 + 0.34 = -0.42 V
b. 0.34 (-0.76) = +1.10V
c. 0.34 (-0.76) = +0.42V
d. 0.76 (+0.34) = -1.10V
153.
One Faraday of current was passed through the
electrolytic cells placed in series containing
solutions of Ag+, Ni+2 and Cr+3 respectively. The
amount of Ag (At.Wt. 108), Ni (At. Wt. 59) and Cr
(At. Wt. 52) deposited will be:
Silver Nickel Chromium
a.
108g 29.5g 17.5g
b.
108g 59g
52.0g
c.
108g 108g 108g
d.
108g 117.5g 166g
154.
Given standard electrode potentials
E
Fe++ + 2e Fe
-0.440V
Fe+++ + 3e Fe
-0.036V
The standard electrode potential (E) for Fe+++ + e

Fe++ is
a.
b.
c.
d.
0.476V
0.404V
+0.404V
+0.771V
155.The magnitude of the individual half cell potentials are

given
(i) CO2+ + 2e Co
0.28V
(ii) Hg2+ + 2e 2Hg
0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected
with SHE, the metallic electrode Co is found to be ve
and Hg electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign for
the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. ve for half cell (ii)
156.When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of
CuSo4, the blue color of the solution is lost after some
time. This is due to
a. reduction of Cu++
b. oxidation of CuSO4
c. formation of double complex between iron and
copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
157.Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of

a. sodium
b. lead
c. copper
d. gold
158. The mathematical statement of Gibbs phase rule is
a. F = C-P+2
b. C = F-P+2
c. C = F-P+1
d. P = C+F+2
159. The homogenous physically distinct and

mechanically separable parts of the heterogeneous
system in equilibrium are called
a. phases
b. components
c. degrees of freedom
160. What is the degree of freedom of a system
consisting of a gaseous mixture of carbon dioxide and
nitrogen?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
161. How many phases are present in the water system?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made

of water and methyl alcohol?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 1
d. 0
163. How many components are necessary to define the

following equilibrium?
CaCO3
CaO + CO2
Solid
solid
gas
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
164. The minimum number of phases existing in a system is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
165. The incongruent melting point is so called
a. peritectic temperature
b. meritectic temperature
c. transition temperature
d.
all of the above

D Rest Chem Eng

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1.

In flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus, carbon

(a) high calorific value (b) better combustion

(a) permits the use of high ash content of coal

26. A fuel containing carbon and carbon monoxide

(b) water gas

(c) smoky flame

(b) protects the volatile products from

(c) high pressure gasification of coal (e.g. in

(a) H2S content (b) CO2 content

(c) alkaline pyrogallol solution (d) none

(d) carbon, volatile matter, ash, moisture

1. Catalysts used in the manufacture of

8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends

(d) used in paint manufacture

(d) none of these

(c) supplying hydrophilic group

(c) give elasticity and prevent

(d) entrained bed reactor

81. Molecular weights of polymers are in the

(d) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic

(d) polymerization of propylene

(b) dechlorination of water

(b) sintering of porous catalyst

1. The vapor pressure exerted by the

7. In paper industry, paper is dried in

11.Rotary dryer cannot handle

4. Relative humidity is the ratio of the

d) adiabatic saturation temperature

c) 78% saturation curve

4. Molecular diffusion is caused by

16.In case liquid-liquid binary diffusion ,

4. Stacked packing compared to dumped

d.) velocity is more than the loading

21.Which of the following is an undesirable

d.) avoid flooding

c.) liquids of very high viscosity

a.) plate and frame filter

b.) incompressible cakes and laminar

c. accompanied by evolution of heat

1. For separation of sugar solution from settled out

1. Heats sensitive materials with very high latent

a. a pure component c. a ternary mixture

7. Which of the following is the most suitable for

1. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky

b. centrifugal extractor d. packed extraction tower

3. For transporting pastry material, one will use

b. length of the belt

1. Which of the following is true for the experiment

b. shear force to the product of velocity head and

d. is the ratio of volume of a sphere having the

b. work required to form a particle of a particular

14. Fibrous material is broken by

28. Fluid energy mill comes in the category of

1. Vertical valves are not supported by

a. height and properties of the liquid

a. is always less than arithmetic average

a. same as that for fluid flow

d. all (a), (b) and

22. Floating head heat exchangers are used for

b. cases where temperature difference

compared to larger diameter ones because smaller

a. are easier to clean

(a) _ _ _ ___ _ ___