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5. The probabilityof any impossibleevent is 0, but not all events whose probabilityis 0 are
impossible. (Forexample-at least if we allow ourselves a little harmlessidealization-the
probabilityof a dart'shittingany particularpoint on a dartboardis 0.) Or,at any rate,this is
true if probabilitiesare real numbers,which is what I shall assume in this paper.I am not
going to defend my assumptionthatprobabilitiesare real numbers.The primaryreason is
thatifI wereto rejectthis assumptionandto assumethattherewereinfinitesimalprobabilities
(probabilitiesgreaterthan0 but less than any real numbergreaterthan0) the effect of this
assumptionon the argumentwould be mainly verbal:I'd have to word some of the things I
say a bit differently.
6. Robin Collins has called my attentionto the fact thata brief statementof the essence of
the argumentoccurs in RobertNozick's Philosophical Explanations(Cambridge,Mass.:
HarvardUniversity Press, 1981), pp. 127-128. I had read Nozick's book when it first
appeared-in fact, I had taught a graduateseminar on it-but, as far as I can tell, I had
entirelyforgottenthis featureof it. I do not recallhaving seen the argumentelsewherein the
philosophical literature,but it is so simple that it can hardly be unobvious. (Jim Holt, a
science writer, has a version of the argumentin his article 'Nothing Ventured' in the
November, 1994 Harper's;he seems to have got the argumentfromNozick. Robin Collins
has shown me a paperhe wrote as a first-yeargraduatestudentthatcontainsa version of the
argumentthatis certainlyindependentof Nozick.)
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Now let Spinozism be the thesis that there is just one possible
world. We proceedby cases.
If Spinozismis true,then, by premise (1), it is a necessarytruth
that there are some beings, and the probabilityof there being no
beings is 0.
If Spinozism is false, then, by premise (2), logical space
comprises infinitely many possible worlds. If logical space
comprisesinfinitelymany possible worlds, and if any two worlds
are equiprobable-premise (4)-then the probability of every
world is 0. If a propositionis true in at most one world, and if the
probability of every world is 0, then the probability of that
propositionis 0. But then, by premise (3), the probabilityof there
being no beings is 0.
Hence, the probabilityof therebeing no beings is 0.
It is importantnot to confuse the conclusion of this argument
with various superficiallysimilarpropositions.The conclusion of
the argumentis consistent with the following proposition: the
probability that God (or whatever factor produces physical
universes) will produce a physical universe is much greaterthan
0-say, 0.8. The conclusion of the argument is not about the
probability of there being no physical beings, but about the
probabilityof therebeing no beings of any sort.If 'whateverfactor
produces physical universes' existed but had not produced a
physical universe, it would still be true that there was at least one
being. (If God had not produceda physical universe, and if God
was a necessarybeing, then the probabilityof there being beings
would be 1-as high as a probabilitygets.) At any rate,I do not see
how a 'factor'thatmight (but in fact does not) producea physical
universe could exist if there were no beings. Such a factor-at
least this seems evident to me-would have to be 'embodied' in
the propertiesof one or more beings or in the relations that held
among two or more beings. (John Leslie, I suppose, would
disagree. I should be interested to know whether anyone else
would.)
Let us examine the premises of the argument.
The truthof premise (1) seems a safe enough assumption.
In defence of premise (2), it may be pointed out that if there is
more than one possible world, then things can vary; and it seems
bizarreto suppose, given the kinds of propertieshad by the things
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