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Defending the New Nation:

Who was the last active Continental Navy officer and the first U.S. Navy commissioned officer?
John Barry
Why were the border lakes between the U.S. and Canada of strategic importance during the War of 1812?
The Americans planned to win the war by conquering Canada and needed control of the lakes to do so.
Which of the following was NOT an innovation in naval warfare introduced by the U.S. between 1775 and 1815?
Who fought at anchor in Plattsburg Bay to nullify Royal Navy long guns and maximize American carronades, and won the
most strategic naval victory of the War of 1812?
Thomas Macdonough
During the War for independence, which countries came to the assistance of America with their navies?
France, Spain, and the Netherlands
How did the frigate Philadelphia complicate the Navys task in the War with Tripoli?
The crew was captured after the frigate ran aground in Tripoli Harbor and the Pasha of Tripoli demanded
its three hundred sailors taken as prisoners of war.

ransom for

In 1794, Congress authorized the president to create a naval force of 6 frigates in response to ____________________.
the threat from the Barbary Powers of Africa's Mediterranean coast

Sailing in Distant Waters:


Which of following changes in the naval service did NOT pertain to enlisted Sailors in the era before the Civil War?
Establishment of a retirement system
In what years did the Second Seminole War take place?
1835-1842
Between the War of 1812 and the Civil War, the Navy had a variety of missions. These included ____________________.
All of these answers are correct
In the years before the Civil War, U.S. Squadrons established a regular presence in ____________________.
the Mediterranean, off Africa and South America, in the Pacific, and in Asia
Which of the following tasks did the Navy NOT undertake in the Mexican War?
Blockade the coast of Cuba
What tactical advantage did steam power have over sail power in naval warfare?
Steam power enabled a warship to operate independent of the wind when engaged in battle.
____________________ designed a steam engine that was 40% more efficient, half the size, and significantly cheaper
than standard steam engines.
Benjamin Franklin Isherwood
Which war left the U.S. with two seacoasts to defend, and propelled the U.S. into Pacific affairs?
The Mexican War

Select True or False: To encourage temperance onboard vessels, in 1831 the Navy allowed Sailors to receive money in
lieu of the spirit, or grog ration.
True
____________________ commanded the South Sea Exploring Expedition from 1838 to 1842. This six-vessel expedition
surveyed South Pacific islands, charted continental coastlines, proved Antarctica is a continent, and collected natural
history and ethnological specimens that formed the basis of the Smithsonian Institution's collections.
Charles Wilkes
Which Antebellum Navy leader earned the title Pathfinder of the Seas for his contributions to ocean science?
Matthew F. Maury
What was the main advantage of the bottle-shape of the Dahlgren gun?
It kept the gun lighter by removing metal where it was not needed.
Which of the following accomplishments was NOT Matthew Fontaine Maurys?
Proved Antarctica is a continent.
What was the significance of Matthew C. Perrys expedition to Japan?
The Japanese opened their ports to American ships.

The Civil War and its Aftermath:


What did the Union naval blockade of the Confederacy accomplish?.
It captured transport vessels, creating acute supply shortages.
Which of the following best characterizes the Navy between 1866 and 1880?
Decreasing in size and deteriorating, with old and outmoded ships.
The Naval War College was established in 1884:
To provide officers the opportunity to study naval tactics, strategy, and policy.
What international developments stimulated resurgence of American naval power in the 1880s?
European nations competing and building large navies to defend their empires.
______________was in charge of Upper Mississippi River forces that participated in the captures of Fort Henry,
Tennessee, Fort Donelson, Tennessee, and Island Number Ten, in the Mississippi River.
Andrew Hull Foote
____________ made his first of several expeditions in 1886 that placed him in the vanguard of Arctic explorers.
Robert Edwin Peary
What did the Confederate raiders accomplish?
They drove the carrying of trade to foreign ships, hurting the U.S. Merchant Marine fleet.
Select True or False: Union forces controlled the western rivers, dividing the Confederacy and stopping Texas supplies
from reaching Confederate troops, a strategic advantage that resulted in greater mobility for Union troops.
True

Select True or False: After the Civil War the U.S. Navy fell into neglect, while navies of other countries modernized. In the
1880's, the U.S. Navy was modernized and joined the ranks of major world powers
True
In January 1865, the last Confederate port open to blockade-runners fell. Where was this port located?.
Wilmington, North Carolina
For what is David W. Taylor known?
Which distinguished Civil War officer commanded the North Atlantic Blockading Squadron and led naval forces in the
1864 and 1865 assaults against Fort Fisher, North Carolina?
David D. Porter
What did Union control of the Mississippi River accomplish?
It prevented Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops.

The Navy on a Global Stage:


Select True or False: In 1889, eleven nations had warship fleets larger than that of the United States, but less than two
decades later only the British Royal Navy was larger than the U.S. Navy.
True
What organization did the Navy establish to institutionalize the contribution of female medical personnel?
Navy Nurse Corps
Who was the strategic thinker and Naval War College professor who developed the Theory of Sea Power?
Alfred T. Mahan
What two new weapons systems of the early 20th century enabled the Navy to fight over and under the surface of the
ocean?
The airplane and the submarine
The dawn of undersea warfare dates from 1900 with the launch of the ____________________.
USS Holland
As a result of the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922, the United States and the other victorious Allied powers
____________.
drastically reduced their battle fleets, hoping to stop the arms race and prevent another global conflict.

WWII in the Atlantic and European Waters:


Select True or False: To man its tens of thousands of naval vessels, aircraft, and shore bases, the Navy enlisted over 3
million Sailors.
True
The breakdown of pre-war barriers to the enlistment of African Americans and women was due to wartime necessity
and ____________________.

the growing American support for social equality


How many Allied merchantmen and warships did German and Italian submarines sink during the war?
3000
The cipher machine used by the Germans for radio communication security was called the ____________________.
Enigma
So the U.S. and British armed forces could synchronize not only their Atlantic but global operations and speak with one
voice about the need for convoy escort vessels, amphibious landing craft, and similar materiel, in 1942 the two nations
established an organization named the ______________.
Combined Chiefs of Staff
Early in World War II, which country proved especially effective in signals intelligencethe interception, decryption, and
reading of enemy radio signals?
Great Britain
Significant social changes in the Navy during World War II had the greatest impact on which of the following American
minority groups?
Women and African Americans
What U.S. Naval leader took steps to standardize anti-submarine training and tactics?
Admiral Royal E. Ingersoll
For a year after the United States entered the war, German U-boats successfully operated throughout the
____________________.
Atlantic, Caribbean, and Mediterranean
What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats?
Jeep carrier
What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats?
True

WWII in the Pacific:


On what Japanese island did U.S. Marines raise Old Glory in February 1945?
Iwo Jima
Which battle marked the turning point of the Pacific campaign and was considered the most decisive naval battle of WW
II?
Midway
Select True or False: Although the Battle of Okinawa was the last major operation of WWII, the U.S. Navy beat their
Japanese adversaries with very few casualties.
False
What U.S. naval assets became primary striking assets after the morning of Dec 7, 1941?
Submarines and aircraft carriers

Select True or False: Improvements in the Navys logistical capabilities played a significant role in victories of the Pacific
campaign.
True
What key technical system helped U.S. naval forces locate and track enemy surface and air naval forces?
Radar
August 1942 marked the start of a bloody six-month struggle for control of what island?
Guadalcanal
What two naval vessel types did the Japanese NOT destroy during the Pearl Harbor attack?
Submarines and aircraft carriers

The Cold War:


What was the first major armed conflict of the Cold War?
Korean War
Greater than 95% of supplies and logistical support for troops in Vietnam came from this organization:
Military Sealift Command (MSC)
Which fleet improvements were introduced in the Navy in the later Cold War years?
Ticonderoga-class cruisers and Los Angeles-class submarines
In what way did the U.S. Navy contribute to the successful resolution of the Cuban Missile Crisis of 1962?
Navy ships blocked the delivery of Soviet missiles to Communist Cuba.
What was the U.S. strategy in the early period of the Cold War for dealing with the Soviet Union and its allies?
Containment Strategy
The Navy's Cold War mission was to enforce containment of the USSR and its allies through:
Maintenance of sea control in the world's oceans
Forward deployment of naval forces to the periphery of Communist bloc nations
Deployment at sea of nuclear-armed submarines to deter Soviet nuclear attack
Navy-wide directives, or Z-grams, that were issued to improve the life of enlisted Sailors were the inspiration of what
Admiral?
Admiral Elmo R. Zumwalt, Jr.
At the climax of the Cold War 1989, the SECNAV had generated enough support to build the size of the Navy to almost
____________________ ships.
600
Why is the North Vietnamese naval attack on the USS Maddox in August 1964 important?
It prompted Congress to pass the Tonkin Gulf resolution, which authorized U.S. military operations in the Vietnam
Conflict.

What naval vessel types did the Navy deploy during the Cold War to discourage Soviet nuclear attacks on the United
States?
Submarines armed with nuclear ballistic missiles
Which attack submarine was lost at sea with her entire crew while returning from operations in the Mediterranean Sea
during the Cold War?
USS Skorpion
Who were the first African American and female officers promoted to flag rank?
Samuel L. Gravely and Alene B. Duerk
The climax of the Cold War was marked by U.S. Naval involvement in conflicts such as ____________________.
Naval forces deployed to Grenada and Panama

Littoral Operations:
One of the most significant changes in the Navy in the mid-1990s was a transition from a blue water navy to a navy that
would ___________________.
project power ashore in the littoral regions of the world
The UN-sponsored intervention in Somalia in the mid-1990s resulted in ___________________.
Somalia
What two U.S. ships did Iraqi mines damage in 1991
USS Princeton and USS Tripoli
What was the name of the 1987-1988 Persian Gulf operation where U.S. naval units escorted Kuwaiti oil tankers through
the Persian Gulf?
Operation Earnest Will
What is the name of the conflict in the Persian Gulf during 1987 and 1988 in which U.S. naval forces protected Kuwaiti
oil tankers?
Tanker War
Which ship was damaged by an Iranian mine and was the catalyst for launching Operation Praying Mantis?
USS Samuel B. Roberts
From which African nation did American forces withdraw when the UN-sponsored intervention failed?
Somalia
The Persian Gulf War was instrumental in opening up many opportunities for women in the following areas:
Combat air squadrons
All major warships
Shore commands

Global War on Terrorism:


Select True or False: The destruction of terrorist cells following 9/11 was primarily confined to the Middle-East

False
Al Qaeda had established a training complex in ____________________, from which it supported terrorist activities
worldwide.
Afghanistan
Select True or False: The United States, United Nations (UN), world governments, and international financial institutions
joined to identify and destroy terrorist groups and their sources of funding immediately following 9/11.
True
What was the Navys primary focus immediately after the 9/11 attacks?
Homeland security
Which U.S. led offensive was launched in October 2001 against Al Qaeda and Taliban forces in Afghanistan?
Operation Enduring Freedom
Which command delivered large amounts of the tanks, vehicles, and supplies needed for Operation Iraqi Freedom to
staging areas in Kuwait?
Military Sealift Command
Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched to:
Liberate the Iraqi people
Promote democracy in Iraq

Military Formations:
As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position?
Attention
Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?
From most senior award to most junior
Sailors are in a _________________, when placed in formation one behind the other?
File
Who is known as the Drillmaster of the American Revolution?
Baron von Steuben
Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?
Precision and automatic response
As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors?
Prior to the seasonal uniform change

Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies:


What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign country is played?
Salute

What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?


Staff Sergeant
What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?
The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations
At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?
At six paces or closest point of approach
The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of _____________.
Chief Master Sergeant
What is meant by under arms?
When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
What is the U.S. Armys highest enlisted pay grade?
Sergeant Major
What is the definition of prescribable items?
Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with
uniform at the individuals discretion unless otherwise directed

basic

Fleet Response Plan:


When is a CSG considered surge ready?
When they have completed integrated phase training
When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable?
After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway
training and certification of the unit for forward deployed operations

sustainment phase

At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is _________________.


a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan
Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP?
2001 Quadrennial Defense Review
Presence with a purpose provides what?
Routine deployments in support of specific combatant commander objectives or on shorter pulse employment periods
The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories: ________________________.
emergency surge, surge ready, routine deployable, deployed
Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet?
Sea Basing
What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?
6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within 90 days
The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days?

6
Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)?
Commander, Fleet Forces Command
The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of
specific national priorities such as _______________.
homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events, deterrent operations, or prosecution of the
Global War on Terrorism

Chief Petty Officer History:


In the early 1900s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?
Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
Strengthen chief petty officer standards
According to the 1918 BlueJackets Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were ________.
Technical expert and example setter
The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the _____.
hat device
On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a
defined role?
The top technical authority and expert within a rating
On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy.
GMCM Delbert Black

Manpower Management:
TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for ________________.
resource sponsors
Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform
Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?
Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)
In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?
Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements

Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and
______________________.
personal inventory
TFMMS Micro Manpower Change Application (TMMCA) allows a command to ____________________.
initiate AMD change requests
Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.
commands, Sailors
OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change
of station (PCS) moves necessary for ________________________.
national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
The AMD is a single source document that provides ________________.
quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements

Naval Customs:
In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence?
All the answers are correct
The author of Anchors Aweigh, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen
All the answers are correct
The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?
Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United
States
Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)?
All answers are correct
Which of these statements is true regarding Anchors Aweigh?
It is played today at many athletic events and parades
Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navys heritage. These days are
____________________.
Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navys Birthday (13 October)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Navy Hymn?
All the answers are correct
Why was the song Anchors Aweigh written?
To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906.
__________ proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage.
Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson
Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World
War II battle?
All the answers are correct

What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?


The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it.

Customs and Traditions:


Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ____________________.
Pollywogs
Formal dinners promote ____________________.
all the answers are correct
Initiation rites that include hazing are ____________________.
a violation of SECNAV Instructions
Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of longitude?
Golden
Which statement is true concerning morning colors?
Honors to foreign ensigns may be rendered by the playing of appropriate foreign national anthems
Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat?
Avoid walking on varnished areas
The conduct of a Dining-In is defined by ____________________.
OPNAV Instruction 1710.7
The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle ____________________.
Blue Nose
What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to shore?
Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914.
Morning and evening colors have been governed by Navy regulations since __________.
since the mid 19th century
The oldest of all seafaring traditions is _______.
the burial at sea
SecNav Instruction 1610.2A concerns ____________.
Hazing
The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is
____________________.
Mossback
A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor ____________________.
should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency

Ships Customs and Traditions:


Before commissioning, a ship must ____________________.
complete and pass a series of Sea Trials
Todays Returning Home Pennant ____________________.
all the answers are correct
What is the tradition of the quarterdeck?
All the answers are correct
All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT ____________________.
walking on the port side
You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out Boat
ahoy! and the boats coxswain replies, John Paul Jones! He is ____________________.
announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat
Ships in the U.S. Navy ____________________.
are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ships sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance
While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) ____________________.
All of these answers are correct
All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT ____________________.
the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive
Boat hailing protocols became necessary ____________________.
in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required
The Navys battle streamers ____________________.
span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovospan the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo
On modern ships, the quarterdeck ___________________.
is designated by the Commanding Officer
While a ship is at anchor or at a pier, ____________________.
the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck
The Returning Home Pennant ____________________.
is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port
The sloop Concord is notable because ____________________.
it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman

Honors and Ceremonies:


Passing honors are ____________________.
All the answers are correct

There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special
remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are ____________________.
Washingtons Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day
At the end of their careers, all Sailors may ____________________.
all the answers are correct
Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in ____________________.
MILPERSMAN 1800-010
Half-masting the national ensign ____________________.
is a symbol of mourning and respect
Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________.
in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable

Military Ethics Overview:


Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the greatest
happiness for the greatest number.
False
Select True or False: In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and
moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations.
True
Freedom-based ethics focus on __________________.
decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses
Thoughts such as: life has no purpose or meaning, truth can not be known, and what I do doesn't matter best
typify which one of the following?
Nihilism
An ethical person is __________________.
someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live
Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of __________________.
Consequentialism
Thoughts such as: I do whatever I want, no one can stop me, and I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in
my way best typify which one of the following?
Criminality
Select True or False: Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured.
True
Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdales leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of
__________________.

character-based ethics
A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies
__________________.
a reason-based approach to truth and justice

Ethics in the Profession of Arms:


What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional?
The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society.
Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally ____________________.
All the answers are correct
Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. What is the ideal toward which
moral development leads?
It is the path to becoming a person of character
Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still possible to act ineffectively?
Yes
The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are ____________________.
All the answers are correct.
The ability, right, and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a
profession.
Responsibility
Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals?
All of the answers are correct.
An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor best defines
____________________.
A professional
____________________ is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that
comes with self-regulation.
Corporateness
Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral____________________.
Effectiveness
Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of ones knowledge, skills, and values in
order to accomplish the intended action.
Effectiveness
Select True or False: A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good.
False
Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determining and
articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong.

Reasoning

Ethics and the Warfighter:


Select True or False: The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention.
False
Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct?
I will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths?
Professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths.
The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for ____________________.
Prisoners of war
Select True or False: A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and
vice-versa.
False
The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it ____________________.
clearly states a Sailors duty from the moment of enlistment

Just War Tradition:


The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________.
that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good
the operation

accomplished by

Select True or False: In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum.
False
The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included ____________________.
self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack
The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________.
theology, philosophy, and law
The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________.
Political leaders
Select True or False: All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva
Conventions.
True
Select True or False: While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play
a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement.
True

The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires ____________________.


reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good
Select True or False: The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to
the most senior military commanders.
False
The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________.
help to set the military professional apart
Select True or False: Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war.
True
The two key criteria jus in bello criteria are ____________________.
discrimination and proportionality
Select True or False: The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict.
False
The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants:
Chaplains and medical personnel.

Military Justice System:


Which of the following is true?
A general court-martial is composed of a military judge, a defense counsel, a prosecutor and at least five

members.

Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice __________.


provides a service member the opportunity to file a complaint of wrongs against his or her commanding

officer

The Constitution ______________________.


all of the answers are correct
The maximum punishment which may be given at a special court-martial is limited to _______________.
one year confinement, three months of hard labor without confinement, forfeitures of two-thirds pay for not
than one year, reduction to paygrade E-1, and bad conduct discharge

more

Nonjudicial punishment, as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is also known as
_____________.
Captains Mast
A member of a general court-martial _________________.
is the military equivalent of a civilian juror
Which of the following is NOT true?
Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate the military, the Department of Defense is
legislative branch of the federal government
A convening authority is responsible for ___________.
All of the answers are correct

part of the

Which of the following is true?


Congress is limited by the Constitution to enact only those laws that relate to the authority of the federal
government.
A service member _____________.
does not have the protection of the rules of evidence at Captains Mast

Conduct and Government Ethics:


Which of the following would be prohibited?
The commanding officer of a ship is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (the ships communications officer) as a
Christmas present. Two months later the commanding officer is given a framed picture of the ship worth $7.50 by the
Ensign as a birthday present. Two months later, the Ensign gives the commanding officer a stuffed animal for his
daughter as an Easter present worth $8.00.
Which statement is NOT true?
Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own, unique ethical code.
Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited?
The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a magazine article concerning
maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his squadron.

the

Which of the following statements is NOT true?


The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees. Military personnel are
solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

governed

Which of the following statements is NOT true?


The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses.
The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s), if accepted by the Commanding Officer would
most likely NOT be prohibited?
One of the carriers divisions pitch in $2.00 per sailor and buys the Commanding Officer a framed picture of the ship
valued at approximately $90.00. Another division collects $1.00 per sailor and presents the Commanding Officer with
a brass bell valued at approximately $75.00. The Chiefs Mess presents the Commanding Officer with a sword valued
at approximately $200.00.

Privacy Act:
Select True or False: The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted to access records maintained by the
government and request amendments to erroneous information that may be contained in those records.
True
Select True or False: The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the protection provided by the Privacy
Act, has the right to access all records held by the government that pertains to him or her.
False
What is a common way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data?
All of the answers are correct

A record is ___________________________________________.
any collection, grouping, or item of information about an individual maintained by an agency
The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection, maintenance, and use of personal information, as well as to
_____________________________________________ .
All of the answers are correct.
The records the Government is not required to release to the requester are referred to as _________________.
Exempt.
The release of protected information to a third party, without the consent of the individual of concern, include situations
where ____________________________________.
the information is needed for use in a census or statistical research
Select True or False: The Privacy Act doesn't permit the subject of the record to access his or her information.
False.

Lawful and Unlawful Orders:


A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. Which of the following is true?
The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only required to obey orders
military police officer if the military police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer.

from a

A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except __________.
Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was
given, the LT had never seen the major before, the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him.
The LT did not obey the given order. Which of the following is true?
The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him the
order was a Marine major.
A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with supplies so that the
supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their
commanding officer (who is also the LTs commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the units radios in
preparation for an inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then
return to the radios. The sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following statements is true?
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his commanding
officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer ordered them to
accomplish.
Which of the following statements is true?
An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order
lawful order.

may be a

Which of the following is true?


A Seaman that willfully disobeys a lawful order issued by a Third Class Petty Officer may be prosecuted
91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

under Article

What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal?
Refuse the order and report to higher authority.
An officer (LT) receives an order from a superior (CDR) which annuls an order received from another superior (CAPT).
The LT protests this new order and shows the CDR the orders from the CAPT. The LT even represents the facts in writing
to the CDR. The CDR insists that his order be followed. What should the LT do?
Follow the order issued by the CDR and report the circumstances of the case to the CAPT.
_______ provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military senior.
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039

Roles, Missions, and Functions of DON:


Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code
__________ are those tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant commanders by the President of the United
States or the Secretary of Defense.
Missions
Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S.
Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.
False.
As defined by Joint Publication 1-02, the primary purpose of an amphibious operation is to:
Introduce a land force ashore from ships or craft.
Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S.
Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guards reserve component.
False.
The list of service-specific functions continues to evolve over time. Initially authored in Executive Order 9877, the term
functions in this context refers to:
Those various activities, operations, and capabilities for which the services are responsible.
Which of the following has been assigned the task of managing strategic sea lift in the Joint arena?
The U.S. Navy and the U.S. Maritime Administration.
Which service is the only one whose minimum force structure is codified in law?
The U.S. Marine Corps
Maritime power projection includes:
All of these answers are correct.
The functions specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense directive 5100.1 authorizes the
Department of the Navy to develop force structure to accomplish which one(s) of the following?
Primary functions.

Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code
The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area?
Pacific Command
The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.
remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander
A carrier strike group ____________.
has two chains of command administrative and operational
The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.
(1) the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift Command and (3) the Armys
Deployment and Distribution Command

Surface

Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States?
The European Command
The National Security Council's members include, by law, _____________.
the President, Vice President, Secretary of State and Secretary of Defense
The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.
always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Functional combatant commanders ___________________.
are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President
Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.
the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense

National Military Organization:


____________ is responsible for developing the National Military Strategy.
The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
A carrier strike group ____________.
has two chains of command administrative and operational
Functional combatant commanders ___________________.
are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President
Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States?
The European Command
The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.
(1)
the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift Command and (3) the Armys Surface
Deployment and Distribution Command
The Chief of Naval Operations ___________.

must place his duties as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff ahead of his duties to the Secretary of the
military service chief

Navy as a

The overseas area where U.S. interests are mostly likely to be directly threatened is the area of responsibility of
______________.
the Central Command
The Joint Staff ____________.
is responsible only to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The European Command ___________.
has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations Enduring Freedom and Iraqi Freedom
Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.
the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense
The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.
always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.
remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander
The Unified Command Plan ________________.
establishes the missions, force structures and responsibilities of the combatant commanders
The Defense Intelligence Agency ____________.
is designated as a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight provided by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of
Staff
An outbreak of hostilities between India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the area of responsibility of
______________.
the Central Command and the Pacific Command
The Commandant of the Coast Guard _______________.
is a military service chief but is not a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The Presidents cabinet includes ________________.
the Secretary of Defense as a military representative
The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area?
Pacific Command
The lead combatant command(s) in planning, directing and executing the Global War on Terrorism is/are
_________________.
the Special Operations Command

National Security Strategy:


The National Security Strategy states that ___________ is America's most immediate challenge.
Terrorism

To complete the task of Expanding the Circle of Development, the United States will ________.
help build stable, prosperous, and peaceful societies
make foreign assistance more effective
The National Security Strategys essential task of global economic growth includes ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The National Security Strategy states that ___________.
globalization has exposed us to many new challenges
globalization presents many opportunities
As addressed in the President's cover letter to the National Security Strategy, ________ must take the lead in order for
the world to successfully confront problems like human trafficking and the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
The United States
The National Security Strategys essential task of transforming the nations National Security Institutions will require
_______________.
reorienting the State Department towards transformational diplomacy which promotes effective democracy and
responsible sovereignty
The National Security Strategy states that _____________.
peace and international stability are most reliably built on a foundation of freedom.
The National Security Strategy takes the position that ____________.
left unaddressed, regional conflicts can lead to failed states
The current National Security Strategy _____________.
builds upon the framework of the last National Security Strategy, updated to take into account the time that
passed and the events that have occurred

has

The National Security Strategy points out that _____________.


because of the potentially devastating events of an attack with WMD, the United States will not rule out the
preemptive force

use of

National Defense Strategy:


The National Defense Strategy deals with ______________.
All of the answers are correct
The National Defense Strategy _______________.
recognizes that a secure international system requires collective action
The National Defense Strategys view of deterrence is ____________.
that there needs to be increased emphasis on protecting against attacks
In order to establish favorable security conditions, the United States _______________.
All of the answers are correct
Stability operations, as discussed in the National Defense Strategy, __________.
include operations ranging from peacekeeping to substantial combat action

When and if actual combat operations are necessary against a hostile force, the National Defense Strategy contemplates
the use of all of the following except _____________.
combat operations only when they can be conducted with other nations
Which of the following is NOT one of the Strategic Objectives of the NDS?
Establish secure forward bases when required
Which of the following is not true?
Because of the different nature of todays threat when compared to the Cold War threat, the United States
assure its
international partners that it will contribute to their physical defense.

need not

The National Defense Strategy does not contemplate securing access to which of the following as part of its strategic
objectives?
None of the answers are correct
Of the various ways the National Defense Strategy outlines to achieve the Department of Defenses objectives, fielding a
missile defense system is
considered ___________.
a part of deterring aggression and countering coercion by protecting the nation from attack
National Military Strategy:
The complex battle space used by adversaries to threaten the United States include _______________.
All of the answers are correct
As discussed in the National Military Strategy ________________.
an adversary must believe that the United States has the ability to impose severe consequences in response to hostile or
potentially hostile actions for deterrence to be successful
Which of the following statements is not true?
Concerning armed conflict, the National Military Strategy is limited to gaining a decisive victory, post-conflict stability is
the role of civilian government agencies and departments.
The non-state actors that menace stability and security may include __________________.
terrorist networks, international criminal organizations, illegal armed groups and individuals
The National Military Strategy is _________________.
the highest level guidance document issued by a uniformed military officer
The National Military Strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is __________________.
the protection of the United States against attack
Which of the following will make the statement not true?
The National Military Strategy _______________.
states that defending the United States against missile attack is no longer a priority
The priorities essential to the success of the Armed Forces outlined in the National Military Strategy are:
______________.
winning the War on Terrorism while protecting the United States; (2) enhancing our ability to fight as a joint force;
and (3) transforming the Armed Forces by fielding new capabilities and adopting new operational concepts

Rogue states can threaten global and regional stability by ___________.


All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is true?
The combatant commanders assist the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in developing the National
Strategy.

Military

Which of the following accurately reflects a purpose of the National Military Strategy?
Conveys CJCS message on the Strategic direction the Armed Forces of the United States should follow
Which of the following is not a tool that may be used by an adversary in an attack against the United States or its
interests?
none of the answers are correct
In its guidance on the development of the Joint Force, the National Military Strategy ____________________.
1.
requires commanders to ensure military activities are synchronized among the various services
2.
tasks commanders to develop plans that integrate actions with other government agencies
The National Military Strategy is guided by the goals and objectives contained in the ________________ and serves to
implement the ___________.
National Security Strategy, National Defense Strategy
Which of the following is not true?
Terrorist and criminal organizations can only operate from rogue states.
The functions and capabilities required of the Joint Force in achieving the objectives of the National Military Strategy
are: ______________.
(1) applying force; (2) deploying and sustaining military capabilities; (3) securing battlespace; and (4) achieving
decision superiority
Joint Guidance and Resources:
The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the
highest position in the hierarchy of concepts.
Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
Which of the following is not true?
None of the answers are correct
Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________.
Experimentation
________________ provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts.
The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
A joint concept is __________________.
a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might employ capabilities to achieve
desired effects and objectives
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.

describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battle space
of tomorrow
In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States enjoys today requires
________________.
a transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural changes across the joint community
Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________.
Joint Functional Concepts
____________ publications are the top group of joint doctrine documents in the hierarchy of joint publications.
Capstone
A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________.
a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to generate effects and achieve an objective
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance
to the development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Operations Concepts Development Process
Joint Functional Concepts ________________.
receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint Operating Concept
At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance
to the development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Operations Concepts Development Process
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that will succeed in the battle space
of tomorrow
A Joint Operating Concept describes how a joint force commander will accomplish a strategic objective
______________.
8-20 years in the future
A Joint Operating Concept __________________.
identifies broad principles and essential capabilities
Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus?
Joint Integrating Concept

Sea Power 21:


_____________ is central to the Sea Shield concept.
Achieving battle-space superiority in forward theaters
Which of the following is NOT true?
ForceNet is the follow-on program to Task Force EXCEL a fully integrated force wide network of linked
Which of the following is NOT true?
Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges.

computers.

Sea Warrior will address the challenges brought on by ________.


the reduced crew sizes that are the result of optimal manning policies and new platforms
The Sea Power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the acceleration of expeditionary deployments and
employment timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment and supplies in-theater is ____________________.
Sea Basing
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
ForceNet is the glue that binds together Sea Trial, Sea Warrior and Sea Enterprise.
Which of the following is NOT true?
Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand our forward presence globally.
Which of the following is NOT considered essential to the Navys ability to counter the increased risk to the United
States in the future?
None of the answers are correct.
Sea Strike ______________.
is the ability to project precise and persistent offensive power from the sea
Sea Power 21 was published by ___________________.
The Chief of Naval Operations
The foundation upon which offensive and defensive fires are projected is ____________.
Sea Basing
The Marine Corps tactical aviation integration plan is an example of ___________.
Sea Enterprise
Sea Trial is concerned with ______________.
the implementation of a continual process of rapid concept and technology development
Sea Shield will protect U.S. national interests with defensive power based on ____________.
control of the seas, forward presence, and networked intelligence
Which of the following is NOT one of the fundamental concepts of Sea Power 21?
Sea Denial
The Maritime Strategy was _______________.
a Cold War-era strategy focused on war-at-sea with the USSR in a blue water environment
The three fundamental concepts that are key to Navys continued operational effectiveness are _________________.
Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing
The American Way of War:
Select True or False: The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle of Quebec.
This led to the American View that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies.
False

Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conventional
armies using conventional tactics.
False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War.
Select True or False: In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving West, a large standing
army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War.
False
During the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________.
was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a legitimate nation
Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________.
quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army
The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War?
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American War was seen as
a victory by militia
(volunteer) forces and proof that the United States didnt need to maintain a large standing army.
True
One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was
____________________.
the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation
The Second Seminole War _______________.
became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victory
During the time between the First and Second World Wars, the American military was engaged in ________________.
a series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in order to maintain order and discourage
European
intervention in the Western Hemisphere
Select True or False: Todays Reserve Component and National Guard are direct descendents of the militias established
by the early European
colonists.
True
The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of _______________.
the perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact
During the American Revolution, the American land forces found success against the British through
____________________.
a combination of conventional and unconventional actions fought by the Continental Army, the militia and
forces

The Naval Way of War:


By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will ____________________.
have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of communication

irregular

Select True or False: Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available.
True
All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest peril during non-wartime
activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is ____________________.
Fire
During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of the ship and
operating environment?
The attitudes of Naval officers toward their job
Navigation is ____________________.
an art of approximation
Select True or False: According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea.
False
In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree?
GPS
The Navys organizational culture comes from ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions, threats, tactics, and technologies, its
important to know ___________________.
The U.S. Navys organizational culture
Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The Navys intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to
limit the enemys freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for maneuver
U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and, at this time, they
____________________.
have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support operations
Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform is the not-to-centralize philosophy
of the U.S.
________________________.
Navy
According to Admiral Nimitz, the primary responsibility of every commanding officer is to ____________________.
ensure the ship is safe
An organizations culture ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.

Theory of War:

An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war?


It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action
The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.
in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on
battlefield to achieve those objectives

the

The enemys center of gravity ____________________.


can change particularly at the operational and tactical level
An enemys critical vulnerability ____________________.
is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the enemys ability to resist us
The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________.
may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability
Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on ____________________.
the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions
Which of the following is correct?
The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine.
Carrier Strike Group and Expeditionary Strike Group commanders generally operate at what level of war?
Tactical
The three components of military art are ____________________.
strategy, tactics, and operational art
The enemys center of gravity ____________________.
can change particularly at the operational and tactical level
Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________.
concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness
The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________.
by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of divisions and corps
commanded by a general
officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives
Operational art ____________________.
deals with the study, theory, and practice of planning, preparing, conducting, and sustaining major
campaigns
designed to accomplish operational or strategic objectives
Generally speaking, the President, ____________________, function at the strategic level of war.
the Secretary of Defense, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Doctrine:
Select True or False: Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or multinational force.
True

each

operations and

Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.
True
Joint doctrine is based on ____________________.
current capabilities
Select True or False: Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive.
False
The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________.
all publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site
The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through ____________________.
NWDC SIPRNET site
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Doctrine is directive.
Which of the following is NOT correct about Naval Doctrine Publications (NDPs)?
NDPs include tactics, techniques, and procedures.
Which of the following is NOT correct about Navy Warfare Publications (NWPs)?
NWPs do not contain tactics, techniques, and procedures.
Which of the following is most correct?
Joint doctrine is the highest level of warfighting guidance.
Which of the following is most correct?
Some tasks on the UNTL may be based on future threats, and may not be considered mission-essential
tasks by combatant commanders.
Select True or False: Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it must be followed without exception.
False
All doctrinal publications are reviewed ____________________.
continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has been ten years since the last revision
The UNTL is ____________________.
a comprehensive/hierarchical listing of Navy tasks at all levels of war
Naval Warfare Publications are approved by ____________________.
Commander, NWDC
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of NTTPs?
They are not related to NWPs.
The joint doctrine development process has four steps: ____________________.
initiation, development, approval, maintenance
Select True or False: Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine.
True
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine?

Detailed threat profiles


Joint Doctrine and TTPs in joints publications are
not authoritative and approved by the Commander, Joint Forces Command
Naval Doctrine Publications are capstone publications which
link overarching Navy concepts to fleet operations
Which of the following is characteristic of NTRPs?
They are not necessarily related to NWPs.
The type of doctrine publication that covers mission areas, enabling functions, and the organization and support of
forces for sustained operations, is called __________________.
NWPs
Naval Doctrine Publications are approved by ____________________.
CNO and Commandant, USMC
COMMAND AND CONTROL:
Feedback is most important to control because ___________________ .
It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing circumstances.
Control is the ___________________ .
commanders means of guiding a military operation
Naval commanders exercise TACON over ___________________ .
all of the answers are correct
OPCON would be delegated to ___________________ .
JTF commanders
Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the functioning of the human nervous
system?
All of the answers are correct
C enables the Commander to ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Combatant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following are considered command and control support?
The people, facilities and equipment that provide information to commanders.
OPCON and TACON:
All of the answers are correct
The C organization is defined to include ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON?

Organization, logistics and training


Command and control is ___________________ .
a system and a process
The process of command control includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following is not considered and example of OPCON?
not establishment of objectives
The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as
its doctrine for tactical command and control
U.S. forces, including U.S. naval forces are
not: may be placed under OPCON of a UN Commander based on a general assembly resolution
Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the functioning of the human nervous
system?
All of the answers are correct
Joint Force Maritime component commander:
The JFMCC concept is _______________________ .
still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions have been finalized
According to the concept, the JFMCC _______________________ .
All of the answers are correct
What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations?
Sea control
Which of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC?
All of the answers are correct
The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander ___________________.
Will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies upon the Navy service
commander
The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to:
Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commanders campaign plan.
The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to:
All of the answers are correct
Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given _____________________ .
both OPCON and TACON
Who ordinarily will have functional responsibility for the performance of a JTF's maritime missions?
The JFMCC
The JFMCCs subordinate commanders include:

component

Both CSG and ESG commanders.


The Joint Force Commander (JFC) has the authority to organize forces to best accomplish the assigned mission based
upon:
The JFC's vision and CONOPS
The functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC (and the Joint Forces Air Component Commander and the Joint
Forces Land Component
Commander) serves which of the following purposes?
Better integrate military assets during operations.
The Joint Force Commander _____________________ .
may retain control of any function
During the Cold War, the Navy assumed that when it fought at sea against the Soviet Navy, it would be:
fighting virtually independently of other U.S. and allied forces
The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to
request specific support to execute assigned missions
The JFMCC is ordinarily composed of
not: officers individually pre-designated by the CNO
not: officers individually by the JFC
Under the JFMCC concept, logistics, personnel support and service specific trouble would:
not: none of the answers are correct
not: be put on the shelf until after the JTF operation is complete and JFMCC is stood down
What is the unifying factor in all joint maritime operations?
not: sea basing
The functional component commander is usually
The service commander with the preponderance of forces assigned to the functional component
CWC CONCEPT:
Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because:
In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage.
What is the cornerstone tenet of the CWC concept?
Command by negation
The common operating picture, or COP, includes ______________.
All of the answers are correct
The CWC concept addresses defense against:
All of the answers are correct
After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission:
Shifted in orientation to the littorals.
The CWC would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because ___________________ .
that is where the needed C2 assets will be

Under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept warfare commanders are given call signs that
___________________.
All of the answers are correct.
Decentralization and command by negation are:
Design keys of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) because they reduce complexity and information

overload.

Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed?


To attempt to manage the complexity of the environment
The principal offensive operations envisioned under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept are:
Deep precision strikes on land targets.
Under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept control of different weapon systems on a single ship
___________________ .
may be delegated to different warfare commanders
Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation:
Assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical.
The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will designate:
All of the answers are correct.
Focus on the littorals had this effect on Carrier Strike Group (CSG) vulnerability?
Increased vulnerability
The littorals are:
Areas near the shore and inland from the shore.
Tactical Control (TACON)
not: none of the answers are correct
The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is intended to enable the carrier battle group (CVBG) commander to
manage information overload
The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) delegation to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is
not: issued by the numbered fleet Commander for the entire fleet

CWC Roles and Responsibilities:


If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be ______________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Decentralized command is an effective approach because?
It helps to prevent the CWC from being overwhelmed by information overload.
It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to achieve mission objectives.
What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar?
The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the plan and their

roles in it.

The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following are not part of the CWC structure?
JTF commanders
Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to:
Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders.
Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ .
immediately subordinate to the CWC
What is the role of preplanning of responses in the CWC concept?
All of the answers are correct
The CWC will have _____________________ .
TACON
TACON over any single asset can be ___________________ .
held by only one commander and any given time
The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on ________________ .
a carrier
Tatical Control over any single asset can be ___________________ .
Not shared by Principal and Functional Warfare Commanders
Which of the following are not examples of Functional Warfare Commanders?
Secure Telecommunications Group Commander
Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by:
not: The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)
not: The Principal Warfare Commander (PWC)
Which of the following functions are not the responsibility of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)?
Establishing mission objectives.
The Air Defense Warfare Commander is ordinarily assigned to ___________________ .
the most capable and experienced air defense ship
Which of the following is not a Principal Warfare Commander (PWC)?
Not Air Defense Warfare Commander
Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ .
immediately subordinate to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)
Which of the following functions are the responsibility of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)?
Not All of the answers are correct.
Composite Warfare Commanders (CWCs) relationship to Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) is
______________________ .
always subordinate, even if Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) and Composite Warfare Commander
by the same commander

(CWC) are filled

Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to


not: initiate combat
JFMCC/CWC Challenges:

BLOCK 04

What are the challenges to the CWC concept?


All of the answers are correct
Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to ___________________.
developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite
communications
Select True or False: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution.
False
The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
A downside of CWCs dependency on communications is ______________.
all of the answers are correct
According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except
that the ___________________.
CWC creates broad war fighting specialists
Important challenges for CWC include ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of
___________________.
20NM
What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation?
not: Satellite communications
STRIKE WARFARE INTRODUCTION
Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) are ______________________________________
-Employed in a variety of sea control roles
-Formed and disestablished as necessary so each may differ
-Comprised of similar types of ships employing a Carrier Air Wing (CVW) and Tomahawk land attack
missiles (TLAMs)
Which of the following describes Sea Strike?
-Sea Strike comprises the offensive, power projection leg of Sea Power 21.
-Sea Strike includes strike warfare, information operations, special operations forces, and Marines.
-Sea Strike is a broad concept for naval power projection that leverages C5ISR, precision, stealth,
information, and joint strike together.
-All of the above describe Sea Strike.

Origins and Development:BLOCK 04


Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike
warfare in a joint environment, it is
necessary for the on scene Naval air commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander.
False
Strike operations are a component of which navy mission?
Projecting power ashore
Select True or False: During Operation Desert Storm, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi
infrastructure.
False
Select True or False: Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resulted in the new mission
of close-air support being
assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft.
False
Select True or False: The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made possible by the
introduction of the Tomahawk
Land Attack Missile.
False
Select True or False: The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions and
as a result nearly no
dumb bombs were utilized.
False
Select True or False: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission
because the main
components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or army units.
False
Select True or False: While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such
operations for an extended
period.
False
How do the Navys two principal missions influence events on land?
Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while power projection ashore directly
influences those events.
Select True or False: Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with ordnance. Thus,
aircraft such as the EA-6B
Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike.
False
The two principal missions of the United States Navy are:
Sea Control and Projection of Power Ashore
Select True or False: The Air Tasking Order (ATO) is the Air Force equivalent of the Navy Air Tasking Order (NATO).
FALSE

Which of the following is not a principal mechanism by which the Navy executes strike warfare?
Amphibious Assault
Select True or False: Strike Warfare is only applicable to high intensity conflict situations
False
The two principal missions of the United States Navy are:
Sea Control and Projection of Power Ashore
Select True or False: During Operation Desert Storm, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi
infrastructure.
False
Select True or False: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission
because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units.
False
Select True or False: Strike Warfare is only applicable to high intensity conflict situations
False
Strike operations are a component of which navy mission?
Projecting power ashore
During Operation DESERT STORM, Navy and Marine Corps aircraft ___________________.
flew approximately one third of the total sorties flown by U.S. aircraft an amount in direct proportion to their numbers
in the U.S. air inventory
Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike
warfare in a joint environment, it is
necessary for the on scene Naval air Commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander.
False
Select the statement(s) illustrating how Operations DESERT SHIELD and DESERT STORM proved to be a learning
experience for Navy strike warfare.
Air operations for all services needed to be planned and directed by the Joint Force Air Component
Commander, through the Air Operations Center and the Air Tasking Order (ATO).
The Navy needed to work more effectively in the detailed and often complicated planning processes
that produce the ATO.
The Navy needed to aggressively pursue the development, production, and deployment of greater
numbers of more effective precision guided munitions.
All these statements illustrate how DESERT SHIELD and DESERT STORM proved to be a learning
experience for Navy strike warfare.
Select True or False: Submarines have no role in strike warfare.
False
CSG:.block 04
Select True or False: The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has
greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more
weapons than the Seawolf class.

False
The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.
sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three
an emergency order

months of

Select True or False: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier
when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed.
False
Select True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested.
False
Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?
all of the answers are correct
Carrier Strike Groups are employed _____________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navys strike warfare mission, the Carrier
Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability.
False
The Summer Pulse 04 exercise ___________________.
utilized seven Carrier Strike Groups deployed around the world
The principal platform of a Carrier Strike Group is ___________.
always a CV/CVN
Select True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested.
False
Anti-Submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group (CSG) by
All the answers are correct
The Flexible deployment concept
not all the answers are correct
Select True or False: Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage
caused by an anti-ship guided missile.
False
Select True or False: Because they have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided missile frigates are the
primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group.
False
Carrier Strike Groups _______________.
are formed and disestablished on an as needed basis
Select True or False: Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) consist solely of surface ships. Submarines may provide support to the
CSG, but are not under the command of the CSG commander.
False

The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.


sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to deploy within three months of an
emergency order
Which of the following is not able to conduct long range strike missions?
FFG
Select True or False: Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland due to
their inability to conduct in-flight refueling.
False
Select True or False: The Virginia-class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has
greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf-class.
False
Select True or False: Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navys strike warfare mission, the Carrier
Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability.
False
Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to, and upon arrival in, an amphibious objective area may be
provided by ____________.
Not All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested.
False
Anti-Submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group (CSG) by
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) consist solely of surface ships. Submarines may provide support to the
CSG, but are not under the command of the CSG commander.
False
Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?
all of the answers are correct
CV/CVN:.block 04
What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates?
Reduce the number of aircraft required
Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:
None of the answers are correct
___________________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable
power.
Human organization
Successful strike warfare depends upon ?
All of the answers are correct
Iraqi Freedom strike operations illustrate the CV/CVNs unique capability to conduct air operations in:

Sandstorms
Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?
Permit 24 hour strike warfare
Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?
Improved ship design
What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy?
Aircraft carrier
What types of redundancy are necessary for reliable alternatives in an environment of danger which could cause serious
losses in case of operational failure?
not: Supply and Personnel
The Carrier Air Department is responsible for:
Flight Deck Control
What types of redundancy involves shipboard operations-critical units or components such as computers, radar
antennas, etc.?
Technical
Mission requirements for coordinated air operations must be balanced among which of the following?
Training
Ordnance and aircraft handling
Maintenance
CV/CVN strike capability can be increased by which of the following:
not: Augmenting flight crews and Contingency planning before high-intensity operations
Select True or False: Trade-offs between naval effectiveness and safety of naval operations involve higher acceptance of
risk in wartime and less toleration of risk in peacetime.
True
What types of redundancy involves shipboard operations-critical units or components such as computers, radar
antennas, etc.?
Technical
Mission requirements for coordinated air operations must be balanced among which of the following?
Training
Ordnance and aircraft handling
Maintenance
IRAQI FREEDOM strike operations illustrate the CV/CVNs unique capability to conduct air operations in:
Sandstorms
The Carrier Combat Systems Department is responsible for:
Electronic equipment maintenance and repair
Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?
Improved ship design
Which factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the application of non-organic assets?

In-flight refueling
The Carrier Air Department is responsible for:
Flight deck control
Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?
Permit 24 hour strike warfare
_________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable power.
Human organization
CVW:..block 04
Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through punctuated stability; this refers to?
Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.
The Joint Strike Fighter which will replace the Tomcats and Hornets in some of its versions has all the following
advantages except:
ASW capability
What do the Tomcat, Prowler, Viking, Joint Strike Fighter currently have in common?
Recent mission changes
Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following:
National Command Authority
Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by:
All of the answers are correct
Match the aircraft with their primary mission.
1. air defense and strike
A. F-14 Tomcat
2. ASW, air refueling
B. E-2C Hawkeye
3. electronic attack
C. EA-6B Prowler
4. early warning
D. S-3B Viking
Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of
destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets?
Combat air patrol
What is the principal limitation of PGMs?
Cost
Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions(JDAM) are?
Operates in adverse weather
Converts dumb bomb into precision guided weapon
Concept of Operations(CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include:
battle damage assessment

Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings.
Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War.
The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single fighting system.
Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of the carrier air wing.
What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch?
The embarked air wing
Advantages of PGMs include all but one of the following:
reduced costs and maintenance expenses
What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following statements are true concerning the size and composition of CVs and CAWs?
not: Much greater variety in carrier hull design is anticipated in the next decade
Which weapons caused the greatest damage to Iraqi targets in the Gulf War?
Laser guided bombs
Detection of enemy air or surface units by radar or other equipment carried in an airborne vehicle and transmission of
a warning to friendly units is the mission of:
Not Electronic warfare
NOT: Combat search and rescue
What is the greatest cause of improved weapon accuracy?
Not Satellite sensors
What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition?
All of the answers are correct.
Circular Error Probability refers to:
Not Expected rate of casualties in strike operations
The F/A Super Hornet is capable of all but the following missions?
ASW
What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch?
The embarked air wing
Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by:
All of the answers are correct

TLAM:block.04
Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile?
survivability in a high threat environment

Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component Commander and Joint Force Air
Component Commander if
present, the tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path?
Naval Component Commander (NCC), TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC), Launch Area Coordinator (TAC), TLAM firing
unit
The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator ____________.
is appointed by the Naval Component Commander/Tomahawk Executive Agent and is responsible for all
planning,
coordination, and reporting strikes
The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes ___________.
either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both protects the missile during
serves as the
missile's launch tube

TLAM strike

transport and

Which of the following is not true?


Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas where collateral damage is not a concern
Submarines can communicate with surface units _____________.
when operating at periscope depth
Submarines have the ability to launch ______________.
Tomahawks from torpedo tubes and from vertical launch tubes if so equipped
The _____ assigns targets, numbers of missiles, and time on target so firing units can execute the launch.
Launch Sequence Plan (LSP)
The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ________.
reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets
redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver
Which of the following is true.
not: The Launch Sequence Plan gives each platform commander the authority to launch Tomahawk missions assigned to
his/her command at the designated time.
not: Tomahawk mission failures have been significantly higher for torpedo tube launched missions compared to VLS
launched missions
The Block IV or TLAM-E_________.
substantially increases the capabilities of the Block III missile while cutting the cost in half
The __________ is the central liaison point of contract for all aspects of TLAM employment at the Joint Force Air
Coordination Center and works for the Naval Component Commander.
Tomahawk Liaison Officer (TLO)
Terrain Masking_______________________.
involves flying around hills in order to remain concealed from detection by point-defenses around the target.
Which of the following is true?
The Naval Component Commander is typically appointed by the Joint Force Commander to act as the Tomahawk
Executive Agent.

In order to ensure TLAMs are effectively integrated into operations, Tomahawk Strike Coordinator liaisons are placed
with all the following except _________________.
Not: appropriate ground force commanders
Which of the following is true?
Tomahawk missiles fired from submarines are identical to those fired by surface combatants
Submarines have the ability to launch ______________.
Tomahawks from torpedo tubes and from vertical launch tubes if so equipped.
The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ________.
reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets
redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver
Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile?
survivability in a high threat environment
Submarines must launch their VLS Tomahawks ___________.
while submerged to avoid damage to the system
Which of the following is not a capability of a surface ship launched Tomahawk missile?
the ability to be loaded onto the ship while underway
Surface Warfare:
Which is NOT among the primary roles of the Surface Warfare Commander?
Direct submarine operations
The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets:
All of the answers are correct
Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of combat boats has which of the following
effects:
Complicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces.
Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode?
Maverick and Hellfire
Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force because they are:
All of the answers are correct
Principal sources of threat to the task force include:
Surface forces; anti-ship missiles; and mines and submarines
Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of the ASM threat?
All the answers are correct.
A successful Surface Warfare Commander must achieve more than passive protection of the task force or avoidance of
hostile contact; he is also required to ____________________ .
gain and maintain access to the operating area, maintain a safe buffer around the task force during transit to operating
areas, and be prepared to conduct offensive operations
Combat boats present great problems for conventional naval forces because they are:

All of the answers are correct


Asymmetric threat refers to:
Threat from unconventional naval forces
Asymmetric threats to the surface fleet do not normally include:
Chemical weapons
Short range protection of major surface units relies on which of the following?
Mark 45, 5 54 caliber gun and Harpoon missile
Principal sources of threat to the task force include:
Surface forces; anti-ship missiles; and mines and submarines
A successful Surface Warfare Commander must achieve more than passive protection of the task force or avoidance of
hostile contact; he is also required to ____________________ .
gain and maintain access to the operating area, maintain a safe buffer around the task force during transit to operating
areas, and be prepared to conduct offensive operations
Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode?
Maverick and Hellfire
The Recognized Maritime Position is difficult to maintain with complete accuracy for the following reasons:
Adverse weather conditions
Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to:
All the answers are correct.
Task force protection within a radius of 50 miles is accomplished by:
Embarked helicopters and surface vessels
Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to:
All the answers are correct
Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force because they are:
All of the answers are correct
The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets:
All of the answers are correct
Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of the ASM threat?
All the statements are correct.
Air Defense:..block 04
To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense ________ enemy airborne
platforms and weapons.
All of the answers are correct
____________________ is the primary mission of air defense.
Defense in Depth

Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission?
Point defense ships and patrol craft
Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include:
Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds and ranges of weapons
platforms, and
increased difficulty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons.

and launch

Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense responsibility.
The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense operations.
Select True or False: Absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval
operations.
False
Which air wing asset provides all-weather airborne early warning for the carrier strike group?
E-2C Hawkeye
Select the platforms with long range capabilities.
Aircraft carriers, Aegis cruisers, and destroyers
Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission?
Point defense ships and patrol craft
The principal weapon threat to the aircraft carrier (CV/CVN) is a:
Missile
Bomb
In the current environment, difficulties in air defense are caused by:
Less reaction time, greater difficulty in predicting timing and sector of attack, and greater stress on data gathering and
communications
The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense operations from:
An AEGIS cruiser
Which of the following refers to the procedure of denying or allowing the use of certain electromagnetic systems during
force operations?
EMCON
The Air Defense Commander must be:
None of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the threat to naval
operations.
False
Select True or False: Airborne attacks may be launched from submarines, surface ships, aircraft, and land bases.
True
Denying or altering enemy use of electronics systems-----EMCON
Techniques to confuse or deceive enemy forces-----OPDEC
Establishing positions to absorb and weaken attacks-----Defense or Depth
Use of sensors to identify distant missile threats-----Early Warning

Which of the following does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hostile airborne threats:
not: Contribute to battlespace dominance
Non-organic air defense support refers to:
All of the answers are correct
Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense responsibility.
The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense operations.
Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare commanders facilitates:
Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance data; and security for
departing and
landing aircraft.
To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense ________ enemy airborne
platforms and weapons.
All of the answers are correct
Which phase of the air defense mission deals with threat assessment?
Surveillance
Naval Special Warfare:
Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron?
All of the answers are correct
Select the statement that is NOT true.
Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators to foreign audiences to influence
their actions.
Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United States ____________________.
are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander
Direct Action missions ____________________.
involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions
The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is ____________________.
Counterterrorism
A clandestine operation ____________________.
is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself
The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________.
is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew
The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________.
delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from submarines
The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________.
is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant commanders

A SEAL team is composed of ____________________.


a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons
MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by ____________________.
Special Boat Teams
The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in ____________________.
low to medium threat environments
A Naval Special Warfare Squadron ____________________.
is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core training requirements
The MK-V Special Operations Craft_______________.
not: deploy in pairs as two are required to carry an entire SEAL platoon.
Naval Special Warfare (NWS) forces normally deploy as ____________________.
An NSW Squadron
Operations that include actions to prevent, limit and/or minimize the development, possession and employment of
weapons of mass destruction are part of the ____________________ mission.
CP
The army component of the U.S. Special Operations Command is the ____________________.
Army Special Operations Command (USASOC)
Select the statement that is NOT true.
Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators to foreign audiences to influence
their actions.
Naval Special Warfare (NWS) forces normally deploy as ____________________.
An NSW Squadron
The Naval Special Warfare long-range dry submersible is the ____________________.
Not Advanced Dry Deck Submersible Vehicle (ADDSV)
A typical Naval Special Warfare Squadron generally contains ____________________.
six SEAL platoons
Direct Action missions ____________________.
involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions
Select the statement that is NOT true.
NOT: Unconventional Warfare operations include sabotage and subversion.

Introduction to Expeditionary Warfare:block 04


The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to previously deployable forces?
All of the answers are correct
The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ___________________.
All of the answers are correct

The amphibious planning process ___________________.


All of the answers are correct
The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Key aspects of OMFTS include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts?
All of the answers are correct
The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the Navys concept of Forward from the
Sea. It accomplishes this by ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
An amphibious force might include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS)________________.
allows an attack to be launched from an at-sea, over-the-horizon position
Advantages gained by using Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) must be maintained by the landing force. The
concept that supports this
aspect is known as__________________.
Ship-to-Objective Maneuver (STOM)
Expeditionary operations include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Strengths of amphibious operations do not include which of the following aspects?
Uncomplicated logistic support.
A military operation launched from the sea with the primary purpose of introducing a landing force ashore is the
definition for what term?
An amphibious operation
Strengths of amphibious operations do not include which of the following aspects?
Uncomplicated logistic support.
The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts?
All of the answers are correct
Advantages gained by using Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) must be maintained by the landing force. The
concept that supports
this aspect is known as__________________.

not: Beyond-the-Beach Projection (BTBP)


A type of amphibious operation designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit to a disadvantageous course of
action is known as a
______________.
NOT: Raid
The Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) is built around a Marine infantry ______________.
Battalion
The Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) is a versatile sea-based force capable of which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Naval Logistics:
MSCs Kilauea Class ammunition ships ____________________.
Have no armament
The sustainment element of the logistics process is ____________________.
the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support required to maintain operations
The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered ____________________.
organizational-level maintenance
Which of the following is NOT true?
Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ships company.
The Navys two hospital ships ___________________.
contain 12 fully-equipped operating rooms each
The Military Sealift Commands eight fast sealift ships ____________________.
can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U.S. Army mechanized division
The Military Sealift Commands Combat Prepositioning Force ____________________.
supports Army prepositioning requirements
The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of which class of supplies?
Class V
The bulk of the Navys combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by ____________________.
the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force
The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of
the Navys logistics process?
Distribution
Prepositioned equipmentboth afloat and ashoreis considered logistics support at the ___________________.
strategic level
The Dry Cargo Office ____________________.
handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be accommodated by regularly scheduled
liner service

ocean

Ready Reserve Force ships _______________.


are under Military Sealift Command control when activated
Repair parts are considered _______________.
Class IX supplies
The Military Sealift Commands largest combat logistics ships are the _______________.
Supply class T-AOEs
Casualty collection, treatment, and evacuation is considered a part of which logistics functional area?
Health services
For Navy transportation matters, the Military Sealift Command reports to the _______________.
Not U.S. Transportation Command or Defense Transportation System
Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are capable of the speeds necessary to keep up with carrier strike groups?
NOT: Sirius Class T-AFS
NOT: Powhaton Class T-ATFs
Operational logistics _______________.
encompasses theater support sites and activities, ashore or afloat, and the theater transportation required to move
personnel and material to and from supported forces
MSCs Kilauea Class ammunition ships
have no armament
For Navy transportation matters, the Military Sealift Command reports to the
The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is
the Military Sealift Command (MSC)
Prepositioned equipment-afloat and ashore-is considered logistics support at the
Strategic level
The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of
the Navys logistics process?
distribution
The Military Sealift Commands Combat Prepositioning Force____________________
NOT: supports deployed carrier and expeditionary strike groups
Which of the following is NOT true?
Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ships company
Undersea Warfare:..block 04
Which of the following is NOT true?
While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are driven by Air Independent Propulsion systems
typically snorkel at
least once a day to recharge their batteries.

still must

Which of the following is true?


Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a submarine or an acoustic

mine.

Which of the following is NOT true?


Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols.
Which of the following is true?
Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out of the noise generated

by the ship.

The ASW warfare commanders call sign under the Navys Composite Warfare Commander concept is
___________________.
AX
Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________.
detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earths magnetic field caused by the submarine
Which of the following is NOT true?
The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and defensive submarine

operations.

When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine, the Near-term Reconnaissance System (NMRS) vehicle
___________________.
is launched and recovered through a torpedo tube
The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly submarines are ___________________.
prevention of mutual interference and water space management
Which of the following is true?
Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing vessel.
The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________.
Acoustic and non-acoustic
Which of the following is NOT true?
U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platforms.
Which of the following is NOT true?
At then end of its preset battery life, sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded information can be
analysis.

downloaded for

The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutralization System ___________________.


features a self-propelled, remotely-controlled Mine Neutralization Vehicle
Which of the following is NOT true?
Surface detection sensors such as radar and ESM have proven to be ineffective in the search for submarines.
During the search phase of an ASW operation, ___________________.
Passive sensors are preferred to prevent the submarine from being alerted
Which of the following is true?
Not The Long-term Mine Reconnaissance System (LMRS) along with its organic handling, control and logistical support is
designed to be air transportable anywhere in the world.
NOT: The Long-term Mine Reconnaissance System (LMRS) is standard equipment for MCM-1 class ships.

The AN/SLQ-38 ___________________.


is used to cut the mooring cables of moored mines
Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of the use of mines?
ability to discriminate between friendly, hostile and neutral ships
The Osprey Class (MHC-51) ships are ___________________.
glass reinforced plastic hulled
Coordinated ASW operations ___________________.
are usually conducted to provide ASW protection for designated units or are characterized by a designated ocean area
being searched by several coordinated ASW platforms
Area ASW operations ___________________.
are usually commanded and controlled from a shore-based facility
Which of the following is NOT true?
Advances in sonar and computer technology have made underwater sound propagation entirely predictable
The most effective means of countering a mine threat is ___________________.
Not the accurate determination of mine location and subsequent avoidance of that area
The current submarine threat ___________________.
is more likely to be a diesel powered submarine
Magnetic ranging ___________________.
provides measurements to allow a ship to fine tune its degaussing
The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly submarines are ___________________.
prevention of mutual interference and water space management
Which of the following is true?
The Long-term Mine Reconnaissance System (LMRS) can be employed from SSN-688 and newer class submarines.
Mines were first successfully laid by aircraft during ___________________.
World War II
Wake homing torpedoes and sub-launched anti-ship missiles are weapons associated with ___________________.
Both nuclear and diesel powered submarines
Which of the following is true?
The Navys SSGNs are planned to carry 150 Tomahawk cruise missiles
Which of the following is NOT true?
In order for an active sonar system to detect a submarine, the submarine must make a noise that can be detected. Or
Passive sonar is more affected by noises in the water than active sonar.
Which mine countermeasure method is used for the collection of drifting mines?
single ship antenna sweep
Which of the following is true?

NOT: In order to provide protection against submarines for Expeditionary strike groups, certain amphibious
combatants have hull
mounted active sonars and can deploy a towed passive sonar array.
Which mine countermeasure method is used for the collection of drifting mines?
single ship antenna sweep
Fundamentals of Joint Warfare:
Select True or False: Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action synchronizes and/or integrates
joint and single-service
operations with the actions of supporting combatant commands, other military forces during multinational operations,
and nonmilitary and other federal
government agencies.
True
Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement; Cooperation among the combatant commanders and
their supporting joint force and
component commanders is crucial?
Unity of Effort
On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select the best answer.)
Geographic or functional
Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship?
Administrative Control (ADCON)
The Combatant Commanders campaign is based on which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
Which command is NOT a functional combatant command?
U.S. Southern Command
The term joint forces includes which of the following commands?
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command?
A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander composed of forces from two or
departments.

more military

Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally accomplished?
By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and functions and provides the
commander a means to measure, report,
and correct performance?
Control
Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command?
U.S. Forces Korea
The Joint Forces Maritime Component Commander is an example of a ____________________.
Functional component commander

Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement; Cooperation among the combatant commanders and
their supporting joint force and component commanders is crucial?
Unity of Effort
Joint warfare is best described as the ____________________.
integrated and synchronized application of all appropriate capabilities
The term joint forces includes which of the following commands?
All the answers are correct
T/F-Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action synchronizes and/or integrates joint and singleservice operations with the actions of supporting combatant commands, other military forces during multinational
operations, and nonmilitary and other federal government agencies.
True
Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command?
NOT: useurcom
On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select best answer)
Geographical or functional
What level of authority is normally exercised by the functional component commanders of a combatant command?
Tactical Control (TACON)
Which of the following document(s) provides(s) strategic direction for the combatant commanders?
NOT: National Security Strategy and Unified Command Plan
T/F-The combatant commander can give authoritative direction to subordinate commands and forces necessary to carry
out missions assigned to the command.
True
Overwhelming force would fall under which fundamental of joint warfare?
Concentration
Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command?
A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander composed of forces from two or more military
departments.
Which statement best reflects the concept of command?
Command includes both the authority and responsibility for effectively using available resources to
assigned missions.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the combatant commander?
Budget and procure service-specific equipment
Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship?
A unified command will always contain which of the following?
NOT: A Joint Task Force.
Fundamentals of Information Operations:

accomplish

Which of the following statements is true?


Disrupting the transmission of an adversary government's television station by physically attacking it with
outside the realm
of Information Operations.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to both domestic and
audiences.

aircraft is

foreign

The Combatant Commanders plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by ________________.
the Office of the Secretary of Defense
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Information Operations is only concerned with information collected, processed and disseminated
networked computer
systems operated by an adversary.

through

Which of the following statements is true?


The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack, electronic protection, and
warfare support.

electronic

The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence decision making, the flow of
information, and the interpretation of
information by individuals or groups at any level in a state or organization are properties associated with which
dimension of the information
environment?
Cognitive
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of Operations Security

actions.

Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following except ______________.
prisoner of war interrogation
Department of Defense policy describes information superiority as:
the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and disseminate an uninterrupted flow
information while
exploiting or denying an adversarys ability to do the same.
Which of the following statements is true?
Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or adversary automated
systems or
networks.

of

information

Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or adversary automated information
systems or networks are a part of
___________________.
computer network exploitation
Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________.
the J-3 (Operations)

Leadership, morale, and level of training are factors that influence the ______________ dimension of the information
environment.
Cognitive
Who has been given the specific responsibility to coordinate Information Operations (core capabilities) among the
combatant commanders?
Commander, U.S. Strategic Command
Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental assumptions that are the bases of Information Operations
ability to affect and defend decision making?
Generally, the relative importance of each quality criterion of information is universal and not influenced by things
such as language, culture and religion
The three dimensions of the information environment are ______________.
the physical, the informational, and the cognitive
The three main subdivisions of Computer Network Operations are:
computer network attack, computer network defense, and computer network exploitation
Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________.
The J-3(OPERATIONS)
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups
The combatant commanders plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by
the Office of the Secretary of Defense (SecDec)
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to both domestic and foreign audiences.
Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or adversary automated information
systems or networks are a part of
computer network exploitation (CNE)
Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________.
the J-3 (Operations)
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT: Psychological Operations are those actions intended to generate insurrection among an adversarys
population.

civilian

The United States Army:


Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following?
The Mechanized Infantry Division
The key difference between the airborne division and the light infantry division is:
Airborne has the ability to conduct forcible entry operations; light infantry does not.
The U.S. Armys ___________________ provides combatant commanders with a broad range of land power options to
shape the security

environment.
strategic responsiveness
The ___________________ is the largest division in the U.S. Army.
Mechanized Infantry Division
What are the hidden transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division?
Square footage requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division.
Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support, aeromedical evacuation, command
and control, and special
operations support to combat, stability, and support operations?
UH-60L Blackhawk
Select True or False: Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift.
False
Select True or False: The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and the
spectrum of conflict is a key
differentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Marine Corps.
True
Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?
Sea-based operations
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?
The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any primary U.S. Army
mission area.
The Air Assault Division is considered:
All of the answers are correct.
Heavy divisions offer exceptional:
Tactical mobility.
A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to maneuver and fire.
Platoon
Select True or False: The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise command and control over
all land forces, and may
be an allied or coalition commander.
True
This is the deployable level of command required to synchronize and sustain combat operations.
not: Division
NOT: Battalion
List the U.S. Army combat organizations from the largest to the smallest:
A) Brigade
B) Squad
C) Platoon
D) Company

E) Corps
F) Division
G) Battalion
E, F, A, G, D, C, B
Challenges facing the U.S. Army since the end of the Cold War include:
More demand for peacekeeping
A less stable global environment
What is the primary mission of a brigade?
To deploy on short notice and destroy, capture, or repel enemy forces, using maneuver and shock effect.
___________________ are capable of at least limited short-term self-defense and are commanded by lieutenant
colonels.
Battalions
Select True or False: Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift.
False
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?
The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any primary U.S. Army
mission area.
The key difference between the airborne division and the light infantry division is:
Airborne has the ability to conduct forcible entry operations; light infantry does not.
This is the deployable level of command required to synchronize and sustain combat operations.
not: Division
Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support, aeromedical evacuation, command
and control, and special
operations support to combat, stability, and support operations?
UH-60L Blackhawk
The Air Assault Division is considered:
All of the answers are correct.

US Air Force:block 04
Select True or False: USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by specially-trained Special Operations personnel.
False
The U.S. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of the following aircraft:
B-2
Which aircraft is the newest, most flexible aircraft capable of rapid strategic delivery of troops and cargo, as well as
tactical airlift and air drop?
C-17 Globemaster III
Which aircraft is considered the USAFs front-line ground-attack aircraft providing critical close air support to friendly
forces on the ground?

A-10
Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) accurate location and time reference in support of strategic,
operational, and tactical operations:
Select all
___________________ allows the U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal risk and collateral damage.
Precision engagement
___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemys center of gravity or other vital
targets.
Strategic attack
Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the electromagnetic spectrum?
RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint
The U.S. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain flexible and efficient combat
operations.
Agile combat support
Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations?
Air refueling
The C-5, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobility Commands __________.
Strategic airlift concept
The U.S. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at the decisive time and place is one of
the most constant and important trends found throughout military history.
Concentration
Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of satellite link frequencies are operations achieved by this
U.S. Air Force function:
Counterspace
Select True or False: Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery systems used.
True
The acronyms COMARFFOR and JFACC, respectively, designate which command and control entities?
Service Component Commander, Functional Component Commander
What characteristic of U.S. Air Force operations gives air and space platforms a unique vantage point over the territory
of potential adversaries?
Altitude
___________________ integrate(s) surveillance and reconnaissance assets to reduce uncertainties while planning.
Intelligence
Select True or False: Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery systems used.
True
Which of the following are the largest war fighting organizations of the U.S. Air Force?
The Numbered Air Forces

Which function is considered a collateral use in the application of U.S. Air Force power?
Countersea
The ___________________s primary mission is to provide theater ground and air commanders with ground surveillance
to support attack operations and targeting that contributes to the delay, disruption, and destruction of enemy forces.
Not RC-135
Select True or False: USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by specially-trained Special Operations personnel.
False
___________________ allows air and space forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously, while
___________________ is the ability to employ air and space power effectively at all levels of warfare.
Not Coordination, Persistence
What characteristic of U.S. Air Force operations gives air and space platforms a unique vantage point over the territory
of potential adversaries?
Altitude
Why does the U.S. Air Force believe air power must be controlled by a single commander who maintains the broad
strategic perspective necessary to balance and prioritize the use of powerful, yet limited force?
Air and space power have the unique potential to directly affect the strategic and operational levels of war
Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) accurate location and time reference in support of strategic,
operational, and tactical operations:
Select all
The U.S. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at the decisive time and place is one of
the most constant and
important trends found throughout military history.
Concentration
The U.S. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain flexible and efficient combat
operations.
Agile combat support
Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations?
Air refueling
Air and space-based surveillance assets exploit ___________________ to detect enemy initiatives at long range.
Not Offensive counterair operations
Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations?
Not Airlift
Introduction to the United States Marine Corp:
Select True or False: The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes are set by law?
False
Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF?
MEU
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a MAGTF?

Requires pre-existing infrastructure to execute missions


Select True or False: The Maritime Prepositioning Force (MPF) currently possesses a forcible entry capability and
therefore can offload equipment
and supplies in a hostile environment.
False
Which one(s) of the following make up the 4th Marine Expeditionary Brigade?
All of the answers are correct
An integrated organization of air, ground, and logistics forces is a(n):
MAGTF
Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is defined as rapid employment of the MAGTF by air or
surface means to objectives in the
littorals and beyond?
Ship-to-object maneuver
The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of heavy equipment and supplies during the ship-to-shore
movement of an amphibious
assault, and during subsequent operations ashore:
CH-53 E Super Stallion
Which event marked the beginning of large-scale U.S. Marine Corps involvement in Viet Nam?
The landing of the 9th MEB at Da Nang.
Select True or False: U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of operations are based on the principle of Maneuver
Warfare.
True
The Navy-Marine Corps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for ___________________.
expeditionary force; overseas deployment
List the strategic concepts governing the use of military force in the execution of the National Military Strategy.
Strategic agility, overseas presence, power projection, decisive force
Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS):
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is/are not considered part of the operating forces of the U.S. Marine Corps available to the
combatant commanders?
The Supporting Forces
Which one(s) of the following is/are capabilities of a MEU (SOC)?
All of the answers are correct
Which one of the following is NOT a type of MAGTF?
not: MEB
Select True or False: All U.S. Marine forces in a given theater automatically fall under the command of the Marine
Component Commander.
False

Which one of the following is characteristic of a MEB?


not: Organized and equipped for sustained operations ashore
Select True or False: The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes are set by law?
False
The primary mission of the MAGTF aviation combat element is the support of:
The MAGTF ground combat element
Which one(s) of the following make up the 4th Marine Expeditionary Brigade?
All of the answers are correct
MARFORLANT is not the Marine Service Component Commander for which one of the following?
CENTCOM
Which of the following is/are not considered part of the operating forces of the U.S. Marine Corps available to the
combatant commanders?
The Supporting Forces
Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is defined as rapid employment of the MAGTF by air or
surface means to objectives in the
littorals and beyond?
Ship-to-object maneuver
The acronyms COMARFFOR and JFACC, respectively, designate which command and control entities?
Service Component Commander, Functional Component Commander
The most limiting factor for MPF operations today is:
not: Limited payload capability of ships currently in the MPF
MARFORLANT is not the Marine Service Component Commander for which one of the following?
not: EUCOM
Which of the following is/are not considered part of the operating forces of the U.S. Marine Corps available to the
combatant commanders?
The Supporting Forces
Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is defined as rapid employment of the MAGTF by air or
surface means to objectives in the
littorals and beyond?
Ship-to-object maneuver
Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF?
MEU
Which one of the following is characteristic of a MEB?
not: Organized and equipped for sustained operations ashore
Which event marked the beginning of large-scale U.S. Marine Corps involvement in Viet Nam?
The landing of the 9th MEB at Da Nang.
List the strategic concepts governing the use of military force in the execution of the National Military Strategy.
Strategic agility, overseas presence, power projection, decisive force

The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of heavy equipment and supplies during the ship-to-shore
movement of an amphibious
assault, and during subsequent operations ashore:
CH-53 E Super Stallion
The most limiting factor for MPF operations today is:
not: Limited payload capability of ships currently in the MPF
Select True or False: U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of operations are based on the principle of Maneuver
Warfare.
True
A key component of OMFTS is:
The assembly area, attack position, and LOD are all at sea and over the horizon.
A MAGTF is always composed of a command element, a ground combat element, an aviation combat element, and:
A combat service support element
US Coast Guard:
Can the USCG be considered a redundant, non-complementary resource supporting the National Military Strategy?
No
Which one of the following is NOT a USCG capability offered to the combatant commander?
Forcible entry from the sea
Which one(s) of the following is/are unique to the USCG?
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Article 14, USC 1 states that the USCG is a branch of military service at all times.
True
Which aircraft is the U.S. Coast Guards primary short-range helicopter for SAR and surveillance?
HH-65A Dolphin
The present day U.S. Coast Guard can trace its roots back to:
Select all
Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the USCG inventory?
MH-68 Shark
Which of the following is not true regarding current and future U.S. Coast Guard operations?
The non-DOD budget nature of the USCG allows for greater funding and flexibility than the other military services.
Select True or False: With regards to domestic coastal sea control, the Coast Guard Area Commander reports directly to
the respective Navy Fleet
Commander.
True
In accordance with 14 USC 2, which service ...shall enforce or assist all applicable federal laws on and under the high
seas and waters subject to the

U.S. jurisdiction?
The U.S. Coast Guard at all times
All USCG cutters are readily identifiable by which one of the following hull colors:
None of the answers are correct; USCG cutter hull color is dependant upon each ships mission
Which units integrate into a military staff in the event of a massive pollution incident which may impact the ability of
U.S. and allied forces to conduct military operations?
Pollution strike teams
What is the Integrated Deepwater System program?
An integrated approach to upgrading existing USCG assets while transitioning to newer, more capable platforms.
US Coast Guard Law Enforcement Dectachments (LEDETS) perform the following mission(s):
All the answers are correct
Who can initiate requests for U.S. Coast Guard forces to support military operations?
not: Unified Commanders, CNO
Which small boats in the U.S. Coast Guard inventory are the only ones specifically listed in the Joint Strategic Capability
Plan?
not: Reliance class patrol boats
The USCG __________ retain operational control over the major cutters and long range patrol craft, while the
__________ has/have operational
control over patrol boats, buoy tenders, and aids to navigation.
Area Commanders; District Commanders
This is the only USCG cutter class armed with the close-in weapon system (CIWS).
NOT: Reliance class
Special Operations Forces:
The development of joint special operations tactics is a responsibility of ____________________.
the Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)
A battalion of the Army's 75th Ranger Regiment is forward deployed to Hawaii. This battalion is most likely under the
command of
____________________.
a geographic combatant commander
Fire support for Special Operations Forces can be provided by ____________________.
AC-130 aircraft
Direct Action missions ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following statements is/are true?
All of the answers are correct
A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________.
All of the answers are correct

Special operations in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or
operational significance is a
part of which Special Operations core task?
Special Reconnaissance
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) controls promotions of those officer and enlisted personnel that are
attached to Special
Operations Forces units.
The Air Force Special Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assist a foreign nation in organizing and
training its military and paramilitary
forces to combat internal subversion is
___________________.
the 6th Special Operations Squadron
U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include all of the following EXCEPT
____________________.
assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat an internal insurgency
A characteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________.
that it is conducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) is subordinate to the geographic combatant commanders in waging the
global war on
terrorism.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
Army Civil Affairs units are provided to combatant commanders around the world by the U.S. Army Special Operations
Command.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
All of the answers are correct
The combat forces of the Navy Special Warfare Command (NAVSPECWARCOM) include __________________.
not: SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, Special Boat Teams, and Special Warfare aircraft squadrons
Which of the following statements is true?
The Marine Special Operations Command (MARSOC) is planned to contain 2,700 Marines and Sailors.
____________ responsible for ensuring Special Operations Forces are fully integrated into the Combatant
Commanderss Theater Security
Cooperation Plan and contingency plans and operations.
not: None of the answers are correct
Which of the following statements is true?
not: The U.S. Army Special Operations Command
Which service(s) provide(s) special operations units whose mission is combat search and rescue in support of
conventional combat operations?
not: All the answers are correct

Generally, a geographic combatant commander exercises control over Special Operations Forces assigned to the
combatant command
_______________.
not: None of the answers are correct
NOT: through the Joint Special Operations Task Force Commander
The development of joint special operations tactics is a responsibility of ____________________.
the Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)
A battalion of the Army's 75th Ranger Regiment is forward deployed to Hawaii. This battalion is most likely under the
command of
____________________.
a geographic combatant commander
Fire support for Special Operations Forces can be provided by ____________________.
AC-130 aircraft
Direct Action missions ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Special operations in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or
operational significance is a
part of which Special Operations core task?
Special Reconnaissance
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) controls promotions of those officer and enlisted personnel that are
attached to Special
Operations Forces units.
U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include all of the following EXCEPT
____________________.
assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat an internal insurgency
A characteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________.
that it is conducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries
Which of the following statements is/are true?
Army Civil Affairs units are provided to combatant commanders around the world by the U.S. Army Special Operations
Command.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
All of the answers are correct
The combat forces of the Navy Special Warfare Command (NAVSPECWARCOM) include __________________.
not: SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, Special Boat Teams, and Special Warfare aircraft squadrons
Which of the following statements is true?
The Marine Special Operations Command (MARSOC) is planned to contain 2,700 Marines and Sailors.

____________responsible for ensuring Special Operations Forces are fully integrated into the Combatant Commanderss
Theater Security
Cooperation Plan and contingency plans and operations.
not: None of the answers are correct
A SEAL platoon is assigned to an expeditionary strike group. The platoon is most likely under the operational control of
_______________.
the appropriate combatant commander's Navy component commander
Which of the following statements is true?
The U.S. Army Special Operations Command includes Reserve component units.
Homeland Security/Homeland Defense:
Select True or False: The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize our Nation
to secure the U.S.
Homeland from terrorist attacks.
True
Which of following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?
All of the answers are correct
Which of following is a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
All of the answers are correct
Which of these is NOT a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
All of the answers are correct
The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and initiatives into a comprehensive and cohesive
national effort involving
appropriate Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called __________?
the National Strategy for Maritime Security
What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement activities in the United States?
Posse Comitatus Act of 1878
The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be achieved by
___________________.
blending public and private maritime security measures
In the event of a terrorist incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to respond?
Local police and fire departments.
Often seen as a secondary task, Stability missions are often called ___________________ and have been formally raised
to an equal status with major combat operations.
Nation Building
Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
Defending the National Capital Region.
The ______________ provides the fundamental justification for Homeland Security activities.
U.S. Constitution

What is the number one strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
Prevent and disrupt terrorist attacks.
Select True or False: Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security provides military guidance for the exercise of authority by
combatant commanders and other joint force commanders and prescribes joint doctrine for operations and training.
True
What key document established NORTHCOM, the new combatant command assigned to defend the United States?
Unified Command Plan
Select True or False: Stability missions, often seen as a secondary task are also referred to as NEO.
False
Which of following is NOT a primary mission of U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?
Force Protection
Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
Maritime Interception
Select True or False: A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector.
True
What command has the primary responsibility for the military support to civil authorities mission?
not: Fleet Forces Command
In the event of a terrorist incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to respond?
Local police and fire departments.
Often seen as a secondary task, Stability missions are often called ___________________ and have been formally raised
to an equal status with major combat operations.
Nation Building
Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
Defending the National Capital Region.
The ______________ provides the fundamental justification for Homeland Security activities.
U.S. Constitution
What is the number one strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
Prevent and disrupt terrorist attacks..
Select True or False: Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security provides military guidance for the exercise of authority by
combatant commanders and other joint force commanders and prescribes joint doctrine for operations and training.
True
What key document established NORTHCOM, the new combatant command assigned to defend the United States?
Unified Command Plan
Select True or False: Stability missions, often seen as a secondary task are also referred to as NEO.
False
Which of following is NOT a primary mission of U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?

Force Protection
Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
Maritime Interception
Select True or False: A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector.
True
Which of these is NOT a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
All of the answers are correct
The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be achieved by
___________________.
blending public and private maritime security measures
What command has the primary responsibility for the military support to civil authorities mission?
not: Fleet Forces Command
Select True or False: The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize our Nation
to secure the U.S. homeland
from terrorist attacks.
True
Which of following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?
All of the answers are correct
Which of following is a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
All of the answers are correct
Which of these is NOT a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
All of the answers are correct
The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and initiatives into a comprehensive and cohesive
national effort involving
appropriate Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called __________?
the National Strategy for Maritime Security
What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement activities in the United States?
Posse Comitatus Act of 1878
The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be achieved by
___________________.
blending public and private maritime security measures
In the event of a terrorist incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to respond?
Local police and fire departments.
Often seen as a secondary task, Stability missions are often called ___________________ and have been formally raised
to an equal status with major combat operations.
Nation Building
The ______________ provides the fundamental justification for Homeland Security activities.
U.S. Constitution

What is the number one strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
Prevent and disrupt terrorist attacks.
Select True or False: Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security provides military guidance for the exercise of authority by
combatant commanders and other joint force commanders and prescribes joint doctrine for operations and training.
True
What key document established NORTHCOM, the new combatant command assigned to defend the United States?
Unified Command Plan
Select True or False: Stability missions, often seen as a secondary task are also referred to as NEO.
False
Which of following is NOT a primary mission of U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?
Force Protection
Irregular Warfare:
Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________.
measures taken to preempt terrorism
In addressing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important to remember that
___________________.
promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some conditions that foster terrorism
Insurgent groups can be differentiated from purely terrorist organizations by which of the following?
The desire of insurgent groups to control a particular area.
By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ .
a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and release of energy
Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Included within the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission area(s):
All of the answers are correct.
Of the following which is/are true of terrorist organizations?
They often use critical infrastructure vulnerabilities to serve their own purposes
The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following aspects?
All of the answers are correct
The collapse of the Soviet Union impacted terrorism by_________________.
destroying or neutralizing many terrorist groups
The effects of Weapons of Mass Destruction_________________________.
not: normally dont require military personnel to modify their behaviors
NOT: can be addressed by rapid actions after-the-fact)

Military guerillas tend to prefer which of the following?


Modest engagements followed by withdrawal.
Which of the following Weapons of Mass Destruction would be considered to be (a) chemical weapon(s)?
Sarin
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the effects of terrorism on naval operations?
Terrorism focus is to alter our habits, possibly reducing operational efficiency or increasing personnel stresses.
History shows that the best way to defeat terrorism is to ___________________.
isolate and localize terrorist activities and then use intensive, sustained actions to destroy the terrorist group
Small units may need to alter their operations to counter the WMD threat by ___________________.
All of the answers are correct
The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following aspects?
All of the answers are correct
Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________.
measures taken to preempt terrorism
By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ .
a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and release of energy
Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ .
a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and release of energy
Terrorism________________.
became a more conscious threat after the events of September 11, 2001.
The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following aspects?
All of the answers are correct
Political Structure:
During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were ______________ and their behavior was to a large part
defined by ______________.
NOT: aligned with either of the two superpowers, shifting alliances in order to realize economic gain
Select True or False: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the foreign policy arena
because experts are not the
sole arbitrators of what course of action to pursue.
True

Select True or False: The results gathered from significant research shows that elections have a significant impact on the
peacefulness of a
democracys foreign policy toward other democracies.
False
The fact that the worlds leading democracies share common moral values guides them to cooperate with each other to
maintain world peace.
Not true under all circumstances.
Select True or False: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each time a new president is
sworn into office.
False
Select True or False: In a uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war are remote compared to a multipolar international system.
True
In a multi-polar international system _____________.
the capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar international system
there is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than in a bi-polar international

system

Select True or False: One reason for the continued existence of NATO after the decline of its major security threat is that
its member states believe
there is an economic benefit to be had from continued cooperation.
True
Select True or False: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is an example
of a change in domestic
structure.
True
During the Cold War, the world was a(n) _____________ international system.
bi-polar
Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ___________ international system.
multi-polar
Select True or False: Some theorists argue that bargaining in the foreign policy arena by democracies is impeded by the
openness required by the democratic format.
True
The international system of state-actors is ______________ by definition because each state-actor is sovereign and can
make its own decisions.
Not Hierarchic
Select True or False: The results gathered from significant research shows that elections have a significant impact on the
peacefulness of a democracys foreign policy toward other democracies.
False
According to the systems theory of international politics, a political system may be defined ______________.
All of the answers are correct

Select True or False: The theory that the tightening economic bonds and growing interdependence between
democracies will solidify peaceful relations between democracies has been countered, in part, by Joanne Gowa who
points out that shifting markets is always possible if trade is disrupted by conflict.
True
A bi-polar international system is more conducive to peace to than a multi-polar system.
True, because of the relative ease of balancing power through internal efforts
True, because there is a greater likelihood of miscalculating balances in a multipolar international system leading to
conflict between great powers.
Joanne Gowa argues that _____________.
Prior to 1914, democratic states were just as likely to engage in conflicts with one another as they were with nondemocratic states
Prior to World War I, democracies were less likely to align with other democracies than with non-democratic states.
Which statement is not used to support the theory that a world populated by democracies would be a peaceful world?
not: Democratic regimes seem to find alternative methods to war when resolving disputes among each other.
The international system is generally defined by functions of differentiated units.
not: True
Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior:
Select True or False: Political culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study of political
culture focuses on behavior
patterns and dispositions of a group of persons.
False
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society
toward democracy or
authoritarianism.
False
Select True or False: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a political
leader.
True
The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.
is shaped by the totality of all lifes influences on multiple generations
Select True or False: The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variety of personality
types.
True
Select True or False: Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a quiet, reserved
personality over one with a
gregarious personality.
True
Select True or False: In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled experiments that can
illuminate the unconscious
assumptions of its members can be useful.

True
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeons position is that an examination of institutional causal factors to explain a
political action should be
undertaken before an examination of political culture causal factors.
True
Select True or False: By understanding a collectivitys political culture, it is possible to determine the personality of a
person belonging to that
collectivity.
False
Select True or False: Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explanation, of why states and individuals interact
the way they do in
international affairs.
True
Political culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________.
None of the answers are correct
According to Elkins and Simeon, all of the following except _____ are factors that may contribute to the creation of a
political culture that could have a
significant impact on political action.
whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian state
Select True or False: Because a culture is a collective attribute of society, knowledge of that societys political culture will
allow one to predict the response of an individual from that society to a given situation quite accurately.
False
The danger of using political culture to explain all political actions __________.
is that it ignores structural and institutional causes
The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.
is shaped by the totality of all lifes influences on multiple generations
If two collectivities have different behaviors when they have the same dependent variable applied, Elkins and Simeon
state that ___________.
All of the answers are correct
Political culture________________.
Both the answers are correct
Select True or False: In selecting individuals best suited to fill certain social roles, personality and culture may become
blended as political culture
biases.
True
Studying and measuring the effect of political culture on different dependent variables is difficult because:
All of the answers are correct.
Political culture __________________.
NOT: All of the answers are correct.

Democracy and Nationalism:


Select True or False: Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings.
TRUE
Select True or False: Nationalist conflicts are happening only during violent regime transitions.
False
Nationalism could provoke conflict during the process of democratization because ______________________________.
All of the answers are correct.
The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the below, except
________________________.
Ethno nationalism
After World War II, the purpose for the wave of forced democratization upon Axis powers was to
_________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
The political system which aims to protect a nation's distinct culture, history and traditions, expresses the doctrine of
_________________.
Nationalism
Select True or False: According to Snider, the transition toward democracy is always awakening nationalist desires.
True
Select True or False: Democracy cannot be accompanied by international and inter-ethnic violence.
False
In the beginning of the democratization process, in order to secure political and economic interests, nationalism is the
right tool in the hands of the ______________.
National elites
Select True or False: Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings.
True
What would be the most democratic solution in preventing future ethno national conflicts?
Inclusion
At this time, the most violent ethnic conflict in East Europe is taking place in
Chechnya
The political system which aims to protect a nations distinct culture, history and traditions, expresses the doctrine of
______________.
Nationalism
After the fall of Communism the most significant nationalist conflict on European soil, since the end of WW II, took place
in the former ______________.
Yugoslavia
According to Snider, the most benign form of nationalism is ______________.

not: Revolutionary Nationalism


not: Counterrevolutionary Nationalism
After World War II, the Emperor of Japan escaped prosecution and remained on the throne as a constitutional monarch
______________.
All of the answers are correct.
In the early stages of democratization, in multi ethnic societies partition of states ______________.
Is necessary if cultural differences have been strongly institutionalized along ethnic lines
The first phase in breaking away from the authoritarian non-democratic regime is to ______________.
Ensure National Unity between all social strata of the society
In Japan, a one-party democracy with a slightly authoritarian bias was acceptable to the Western countries
because__________________________.
not: All of the answers are correct.
not: It was a part of Japanese culture
In the early stages of democratization, in multi ethnic societies partition of states _________________.
Is necessary if cultural differences have been strongly institutional along ethnic lines.
the main reason for nationalistic violence is ________________.
Age old rivalries among people with different ethnic and cultural backgrounds
During the early stages of democratization,________________ are most likely to inflame nationalism in the society.
not: All of the answers are correct
The Future of Democracy and Democratization:
________________ gives a gloomy appraisal of the future of democracy.
Samuel Huntington
The Optimistic Scenario of democracys future _______________.
believes that democratization in the East will lead to the integration of the Eastern economies with those of the West
Select True or False: According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracy's future, the twenty first century may be the
century of collectivism.
False
Francis Fukuyama believes that _____________________________.
The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a prosperous and secure

future

Which of the following is not true?


Because liberal democracies operate under the theory of majority rule, the rights of minorities are often
unprotected.
Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratization are all of the following, except
____________________.
Low debt.
Since 1974, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule?

Over eighty.
The Pessimistic Scenario of democracys future ________________.
sees transnational corporations becoming a greater source of order within the international community
George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy, providing __________________________.
A Balanced Perspective
The major contender to the liberal democracy, on an ideological level, in the post Cold War world is
__________________.
Islam
The Optimistic Scenario of the future democracies includes all of the following, except that ______________.
Transnational corporations will continue to grow as sources of order within the international community
Select True or False: As the role of the State increases in societies, democratic values will also increase in its strength and
importance.
False
Benito Mussolinis prediction about the future Fascist Century__________________.
NOT: None of the answers are correct
NOT:Was very accurate for the twentieth century
Western Hemisphere Overview
The ______________ religion was a legacy of Spanish and Portuguese colonization in the 16th, 17th, and 18th centuries
and is the predominant religion of the mainland countries of Latin America.
Roman Catholic
______________ have NOT significantly influenced the ethnic makeup of Latin America.
Chinese
When did the U.S. issue the Monroe Doctrine?
Not Mid 1900s
______________ was not a catalyst, or driving force, in conquering and colonizing Latin America during the 15th and
16th centuries.
Not The Catholic Church
The longest river system in North America is the ______________.
Mississippi-Missouri-Ohio
What are the two dominant languages throughout Latin America?
Spanish and Portuguese
By 1825, all of Spains Latin American colonies had gained their independence except ______________and
______________.
Puerto Rico; Cuba
Latin American culture has NOT been significantly influenced by ______________.
China

The ______________ instituted by President Franklin Roosevelt is credited with most of the nations in Latin America
giving unified support to the allies during World War II.
Good Neighbor Policy
Which of the following Latin American cities is smaller than New York City?
None of the answers are correct
When did the U.S. begin construction on the Panama Canal in order to link the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans?
Not: Late 1800s
NOT: Mid 1800s
According to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), ______________ of heroin in the U.S. comes from Latin
America.
82%
The ______________ operates as the de facto currency in many parts of Latin America.
U.S. dollar
______________ is the largest trading partner of Mexico, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, and Peru.
The U.S.
While the Panama Canal is no longer considered by U.S. commanders as a major route for warships, it is
______________ to world commerce.
vital
The ______________ links the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
Panama Canal
Which of the following is NOT a conflict in which Mexico was involved?
Spanish-American War (1898)
_____________ conducted the only successful slave rebellion in history in 1804.
Haiti
For national security purposes, the area known as Latin America encompasses the ______________.
Western Hemisphere south of the United States, including islands of the Caribbean
The ______________, found in Latin America, is the largest river basin in the world.
Amazon River Basin
The Panama Canal is __________________.
A critical economic path for commerce between the east and west coasts of the U.S.
The export of products from Latin American countries continues to ____________ due to the expanded role of foreign
investment.
increase
The U.S. undid much of the good relations built up as a result of the Good Neighbor Policy in Latin America
during__________________.
The Cold War
________________has/have impacted the nations of Latin America.

not: Narco-terrorism
_______________ was the primary focus of U.S. policy in Latin America during the Cold War.
not: Countering the expansion of Spanish colonies
______________ was NOT involved in the 1902 blockade of Venezuela.
Spain
The population in Canada is now approximately ______________.
NOT: 60 million
______________ did not establish colonial territories in North America.
Australia
BALANCE OF POWER IN THE SOUTHERN CONE OF LATIN AMERICA
In 1984, what dispute between Argentina and Chile was resolved through papal mediation?
Beagle Channel islands
In 2004, UN peacekeeping efforts in Haiti ______________.
were led by Brazilian military forces
What is the name of the theory that suggests that democracies do not wage war against other democracies?
Democratic Peace
Select True or False: The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at the highest level its ever been.
False
Since its independence, Argentina has been a major rival of ______________.
Chile
Historically, one of the biggest rivalries in Latin America has been between Brazil and ______________.
Argentina
The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and ______________.
Chile
Select True or False: In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all became democratic countries.
false
The southern Cone of Latin America includes the following countries, except ___________________.
Columbia
Which of the statements are true with regards to the dispute between Ecuador and Peru in the mid-1990s?
The efforts of Argentina and Chile, in part, were responsible for a peace treaty being signed between Ecuador and Peru.
The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are ___________________.
Chile and Bolivia
Geopolitics is _______________.
the study of the relationship between geography and power politics

The Democratic Peace Theory states that ______________.


Democracies do not wage wars against other democracies
In 2004, in order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord with ______________.
the United States
The Common Market of the South was founded by Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, and ______________.
NOT: Colombia
The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between ______________.
NOT: Chile and Paraguay
In 1980, Argentina and Brazil put aside their rivalries in ______________.
NOT: the sphere of territorial dispute
Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6
Latin American countries, except ______________.
Venezuela and Peru
LATIN AMERICAN MILITARIES
Which of the following, if any, Latin American countries are capable of projecting and sustaining power for an extended
period of time?
No one single country
The Latin American militaries generally face a crisis over their role and missions due to ______________.
Lack of external threats
Which of the following statements is true?
Brazil has expanded its participation in peacekeeping missions, in part, as a way to justify its seeking a permanent seat
on the UN Security Council.
Latin American militaries ______________.
All of the answers are correct
In the last 15 years, which of the following countries in South America had the most dramatic reduction in military
expenditures?
Argentina
Which of the following roles is not generally associated with militaries in Latin America?
Warfighter
In terms of the sale of weapons, Latin America is most interested in buying ______________ from the United States and
Europe.
High technology jet fighters
Which of the following organizations generally discouraged military expenditures?
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following statements is true?
Argentina is able to participate in many United Nations peacekeeping missions due to its large military
What region of the world has been considered a Zone of Peace?

budget.

not: North America


not: Europe
Select True or False: Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military expenditures in Latin America, is the
only country in its region that has a military capable of major expeditionary operations.
False
The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of ____________________.
not: supporting U.S. military objectives
The two South American countries that have specialized in peacekeeping operations are _______________.
not: Bolivia and Chile
The United States is especially involved in __________, assisting that government in its campaign against the insurgents.
not: Venezuela
Some view ________________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.
not: Brazil
not: Chile
Which of the following statements is true?
not: The civilian government of Chile is highly suspicious of its military
NOT: The Chilean military has seen signficant cuts to its budgets since the 1980s.
The United States __________________________.
All of the answers are correct.
According to most observers, South America has been ______________since at least the mid-1990s.
A Zone of Peace
Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military expenditures per year?
NOT: Colombia
The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military expenditures is ______________.
NOT: Chile

Latin America and the United States:


In the new millennium, the United States has committed several billion dollars to assist which country on its war on
drugs?
Columbia
In the aftermath of September 11, 2001, the United States has focused on countering __________________ throughout
the world, including Latin America.
Terrorism
During the Cold War, the U.S. foreign policy goal was to___________________________________.
contain Communism across the globe, and Soviet expansionism in particular

Select True or False: During the Cold War, the most important goal for the United States in Latin America was support
for democracy.
False
In 1994,The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) joined the economies of the
_________________________________.
United States, Canada and Mexico
The Good Neighbor Policy is associated with which U.S. president?
Franklin Roosevelt
Latin Americans __________________________ the Good Neighbor Policy.
Welcomed
Which corollary to the Monroe Doctrine claimed that the United States had the right and moral duty to exercise
international police power in the Americas?
Roosevelt corollary
How did Latin America respond to the Monroe Doctrine?
Latin Americans resented the Monroe Doctrine
The United States gained nearly half of the territory of what country in Latin America from 1845 to 1853?
Mexico
After the Cold War, U.S. policy toward Latin America was focused on _____________________________.
supporting democracy
During the Cold War, the United States intervened militarily in Central America and the Caribbean primarily to
____________________.
contain Communism
Politics in Latin America:
Which of the following countries in Latin America did not become democratic after 1978?
Cuba
During the first half of the 20th Century a period of growing authoritarianism in Latin America was the result of
_______________________.
the Great Depression
Select True or False: Latin America was more prosperous in the 1990s than in the 1980s.
False
Which institution in Latin America played a primary role in the 19th Century in filling the vacuum of power created by
independence?
The military
Most of the military regimes in Latin America were ______________.
friendly toward the United States
What historical event led to greater political polarization in Latin America?
The Cuban Revolution led by Fidel Castro

The "Washington Consensus" called for all of the below, except for __________________.
free transportation for the poor
Political polarization in Latin America took place in _________.
1959
The Balance of Power in the Southern Cone of Latin America:
Select True or False: The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at the highest level its ever been.
False
In 1978, Argentina considered a war against ____________.
Chile
Geopolitics is __________________________.
the study of the relationship between geography and power politics
The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are _________________.
Chile and Bolivia
The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and _____________________.
Chile
In 2004, in order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord with ___________________.
The EU
Select True or False: Today, there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any countries in the Southern Cone.
True
Select True or False: In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all became democratic countries.
False
Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6
Latin American countries, except _____________________.
Venezuela and Peru
The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between _____________________.
Argentina and Brazil
Latin American Militaries:
Which of the following statements is true?
The military is widely respected in Chile.
According to most observers, South America has been ________________________________ since at least the mid1990s.
a Zone of Peace
What region of the world has been considered a Zone of Peace?
South America
Which of the following organizations generally discourage military expenditures?

All of the answers are correct


Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military expenditures per year?
Brazil
The United States: _______________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military expenditures in Latin America, is the
only country in its region that has a military capable of major expeditionary operations.
False
The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military expenditures is
________________________.
Columbia
Some view ____________________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.
Costa Rica
The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of ______________________.
Defense
1.) Which of the following, if any, Latin American countries are capable of projecting and sustaining power for an
extended period of time?
No one single country
2.) The Latin American militaries generally face a crisis over their role and missions due to ______________.
Lack of external threats
3.) Which of the following statements is true?
Brazil has expanded its participation in peacekeeping missions, in part, as a way to justify its seeking a permanent seat
on the UN Security Council.
4.) Latin American militaries ______________.
All of the answers are correct
5.) In the last 15 years, which of the following countries in South America had the most dramatic reduction in military
expenditures?
Argentina
6.) Which of the following roles is not generally associated with militaries in Latin America?
Warfighter
7.) In terms of the sale of weapons, Latin America is most interested in buying ______________ from the United States
and Europe.
High technology jet fighters
8.) Which of the following organizations generally discouraged military expenditures?
All of the answers are correct
9.) Which of the following statements is true?
not: Very few Latin American countries use their militaries as internal security (police) forces.

10.) What region of the world has been considered a Zone of Peace?
not: North America
not: Europe
11.) Select True or False: Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military expenditures in Latin America, is
the only country in its region that has a military capable of major expeditionary operations.
False
12.) The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of ____________________.
not: supporting U.S. military objectives
13.) The two South American countries that have specialized in peacekeeping operations are _______________.
not: Bolivia and Chile
14.) The United States is especially involved in __________, assisting that government in its campaign against the
insurgents.
not: Venezuela
15.) Some view ________________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.
not: Brazil
not: Chile
16.) Which of the following statements is true?
not: The civilian government of Chile is highly suspicious of its military
17.) The United States __________________________.
All of the answers are correct.
18.) According to most observers, South America has been ______________since at least the mid-1990s.
A Zone of Peace
GREATER MIDDLE EAST OVERVIEW
Which of the following is NOT a result of the collapse of the Soviet Union?
Jewish emigration from the former Soviet Union to Israel slowed to a trickle.
Which of the following statements is true?
The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran resulted in the deposing of the Shah, an ally of the United States
Which of the following is true concerning the Byzantine Empire?
Mostly Christian
Which of the following are the major groups of Islam?
Sunni Islam, Shia Islam
Which of the following statements is true?
Israel and India are the most stable liberal democracies in the Southwest Asia region.
Indias collapsing economy has made it less of an important future trading partner of the United States.
False

Which of the following statements is NOT true?


Not The Middle East possesses the worlds largest easily accessible reserves of crude oil
NOT: Oil wealth allowed various Middle East national leaders to consolidate their hold on power.
Which of the following statements is true?
In a parliamentary democracy, the political party (or coalition of parties) with the greatest representation in the
parliament (legislature) chooses the nations leader
Which of the following is NOT considered a chokepoint for the sea lines of communication in South West Asia?
Strait of Gibralter
Which of the following statements is true?
Turkey is considered the most Westernized state in its region
The region around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in modern-day Iraq is also known as ______________.
Mesopotamia
Which was the first religious group to adopt monotheism, the belief in one god?
Jews
Which of the following statements is true?
not: Large scale insurgency movements led to India gaining its independence from the British
not: The Muslim League became the ruling party in India upon that nations independence.
Kashmir ______________.
is a continuing source of tension between India and Pakistan
When did the first waves of Jewish settlers begin emigrating from Europe to the Middle East as part of the Zionist
movement?
The 1880s
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is made up of solely Middle Eastern nations.
False
Which of the following statements is true?
Britain, France, Italy, and Russia divided up the Arab part of the Ottoman Empire after World War I.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
NOT: Both India and Pakistan have developed nuclear weapons.
ARAB-ISRAELLI CONFLICTS
Select True or False: The United States government strongly supported the partition of Palestine.
False
Select True or False: Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights
and Suez Canal.
False
During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ___________________________
occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank

The first direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in ___________________.
Oslo, in 1992
The Arab League and Palestinian institutions __________________.
rejected the partition plan
The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the __________________________.
Six Day War in 1967
Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israeli
Prime Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995.
True
The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14, 1948, was ________________.
the United States
Following the Camp David Accords _________________________.
Israeli withdrew from the Sinai
The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza Strip, in 1947-1948, was a result of
the ________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab states with Jerusalem
______________________.
to become an International Zone
On November 22, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon ______________________________.
Israel to withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict
What is the Bush administration's attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is constructing on the West Bank?
It acquiesced to construction of the wall
Reflecting the principle of Land for Peace, the Camp David Accords in 1978, provided for ______________.
None of the answers are correct
Before Jerusalem became united under Jewish sovereignty on June 7th 1967, following the Six Day War, it was
controlled by the ______________.
Not Palestinians
Within the frame of the Oslo Declaration, the Israelis agreed to ______________.
All of the answers are correct
During the June 1967 Six Day War, Isreal _____________________.
Occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank
Select True or False: Following the 1973 was against Isreal, Syria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights
and Suez Canal.
False
The Arab League and Palestinian institutions ___________________________.
not: were indifferent to the partition plan

Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israel Prime
Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995.
True
The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza Strip, in 1947-1948, was a result of
the ____________________________.
All of the answers are correct.
In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab states with Jerusalem
________________________.
not: to be included into the Jewish state
In 2003, Israeli Prime Minister Sharon announced that ______________.
Israeli forces would unilaterally withdraw from four Israeli settlements in Gaza and from a small section of the northern
West Bank
Select True or False: The United States government strongly supported the partition of Palestine.
False
1.) Reflecting the principle of Land for Peace, the Camp David Accords in 1978, provided for ______________.
None of the answers are correct
2.) Before Jerusalem became united under Jewish sovereignty on June 7th 1967, following the Six Day War, it was
controlled by the ______________.
Not Palestinians
3.) Within the frame of the Oslo Declaration, the Israelis agreed to ______________.
All of the answers are correct
4.) During the June 1967 Six Day War, Isreal _____________________.
Occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank
5.) Select True or False: Following the 1973 was against Isreal, Syria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan
Heights and Suez Canal.
False
8.) The Arab League and Palestinian institutions ___________________________.
not: were indifferent to the partition plan
9.) Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israel
Prime Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995.
True
10.) The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza Strip, in 1947-1948, was a
result of the ____________________________.
All of the answers are correct.
11.) In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab states with Jerusalem
________________________.
not: to be included into the Jewish state
The Zionist underground Army called the Haganah was formed in the late 1930s in ______________________ .
not: Jordan

The borders of modern Israel were finally established in which of the following ways?
not: All the answers are correct
not: The UN drew the borders in the partition of Palestine into Israeli and Palestinian homelands. These border
survive today as the borders of Israel and the West Bank
Historical Framework:
What event caused the Allied European Powers (primarily Britain and France) to divide the Middle East and take
territory away from the Ottoman Empire?
The Ottoman Empire's support for Germany during World War I
The victory of the European combined forces against the Turkish invading army in the battle at Vienna in 1683
_______________________.
all of the answers are correct
Napoleon's occupation of Egypt is significant for which of the following reasons?
All of the answers are correct
The Sykes-Picot Agreement provides that _____________________.
All of the answers are correct
In the Balfour Declaration, Britain declared _______________________.
its support for a Jewish national home in Palestine
The collapse of which empire resulted in today's configuration of the Middle East map?
The Ottoman Empire
How did modern Turkey emerge from the Ottoman Empire?
The Turkish forces seized control over most of what is today Turkey by defeating the occupying allied

armies

The kingdom of Iraq was created in ___________.


1920
What part of the Ottoman Empire became autonomous following the Russo-Turkish war in 1829?
Serbia
Following the ________________________ , the Ottoman Empire was abolished and British mandated territories were
formalized.
Treaty of Sevres
Which goal did Britain not have for the partition of the Middle East following World War I?
To promote settlements of the British citizens in the Middle East on its mandated territories
United States Security Strategy and Policy:
The leading power in the Middle East after the World War II was __________________.
Great Britain
In August of 1945, the Saudis gave the United States permission to start building ____________________________.
An Air base

During the 1990s, the U.S. policy goal in the Middle East and the Persian Gulf region was to
_____________________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The U.S.-led coalition enjoyed considerable support in the Middle East for the liberation of Iraq
from the oppressive regime of Saddam Hussein.
False
In the 1950s, the United States supported Saudi Arabia by ____________________________.
All of the answers are correct
The Baghdad pact created by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and Pakistan served as
_______________________________________.
A defense alliance against the Soviet Union
May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis _______________________________.
All of the answers are correct
What does Operation Earnest Will stand for?
The U.S. escorting Kuwait's oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987 to 1988
The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________________________.
The importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential battleground in the emerging contest with the
Soviet Union
In 1953, after a coup dEtat backed by Britain and the United States, _________________________________________.
All of the answers are correct
In 1948, the formation of the State of Israel was a result of ______________.
Not: All of the answers are correct
NOT: The armed resistance of the Jewish people in their struggle for independence against the Arab population of
Palestine
During the 1990s ______________, became the United States Navys busiest port of call in the world outside the
continental United States.
Dubai
In October of 1956, after Egyptian president Abdel Nasser nationalized the Suez Canal, ______________.
Not All of the answers are correct
In 1956, U.S. President Eisenhower refused to back ______________.
the seizure of the Suez Canal by Britain, France and Israel
What happened on board the USS Quincy in the Great Bitter Lake in February, 1945?
NOT: All of the answers are correct.
1.) In 1948, the formation of the State of Israel was a result of ______________.
Not All of the answers are correct
2.) During the 1990s ______________, became the United States Navys busiest port of call in the world outside the
continental United States.
Dubai

3.) In October of 1956, after Egyptian president Abdel Nasser nationalized the Suez Canal, ______________.
Not All of the answers are correct
4.) In 1956, U.S. President Eisenhower refused to back ______________.
the seizure of the Suez Canal by Britain, France and Israel
With the eruption of the Iran-Iraq war in 1980, the United States adopted its Gulf partners idea that included all of the
below, except the following __________________ .
Saddams aggressive military intentions in the Gulf region should be restrained by all means necessary.
What was Operation EARNEST WILL?
not: All the answers are correct.
ISLAM IN THE GREATER MIDDLE EAST
The Muslim calendar starts with the year that ______________.
the early Muslim community fled from Mecca to Medina
The calendar year for Muslims consists of ______________ days.
354
Islam is the predominant religion in ______________.
All of the answers are correct
The hajj, or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina, is a journey every Muslim seeks to make at least ______________ in a
lifetime.
Not None of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Islam allows for only finely crafted physical representations of God or the Prophet Muhammad.
False
Muslims fast for one lunar month during ______________, the ninth month of the Islamic calendar.
Ramadan
A crisis in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the community of Muslims into the
______________ branches of Islam.
Not Sunni and Sharia
NOT: Sufi and Sharia
______________ or zakat is used primarily to support the Muslim community through the building and upkeep of
hospitals, mosques, and schools.
Almsgiving
The Quran (the sacred book of Islam) frequently mentions ______________.
Not: All of the answers are correct.
NOT: Jesus disciples
The pilgrimage in the Islamic faith is also known as the ______________.
Hajj

Members of the Islamic faith ______________.


All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: All Arabs are Muslim and all Muslims are Arabian.
False
Select True or False: No Muslim is exempt from the fast during the month of Ramadan.
False
Select True or False: The Muslim and Gregorian (Christian) calendar years match precisely.
False
If they are able, Muslims are expected to pray ______________ time(s) per day, especially at noon on Friday.
NOT: three
Islamic law is called ______________ law.
NOT: Shia
Muslims believe that God (known as Allah in Arabic) first revealed his last message to humanity through the Prophet
Muhammad in the year ______________.
NOT: 410 BC
NOT: 510 AD
Select True or False: Islam recognizes the prophets of Judaism, such as Abraham and Moses.
True
1.) The Muslim calendar starts with the year that ______________.
The early Muslim community fled from Mecca to Medina
2.) The calendar year for Muslims consists of ______________ days.
354
3.) Islam is the predominant religion in ______________.
All of the answers are correct
4.) The hajj, or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina, is a journey every Muslim seeks to make at least ______________
in a lifetime.
Not None of the answers are correct.
5.) Select True or False: Islam allows for only finely crafted physical representations of God or the Prophet Muhammad.
False
6.) Muslims fast for one lunar month during ______________, the ninth month of the Islamic calendar.
Ramadan
7.) A crisis in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the community of Muslims into the
______________ branches of Islam.
Not Sunni and Sharia
8.) ______________ or zakat is used primarily to support the Muslim community through the building and upkeep of
hospitals, mosques, and schools.
Not Offerings

9.) The Quran (the sacred book of Islam) frequently mentions ______________.
Not All of the answers are correct.
10.) The pilgrimage in the Islamic faith is also known as the ______________.
Hajj
11.) Members of the Islamic faith ______________.
All of the answers are correct
Islam is a ______________________ faith.
Monotheistic (One God)
EURASIA
Which of the following statements is true?
The Soviet decision to prop up a pro-Soviet government in Afghanistan during the Brezhnev years contributed to the
decline of the Soviet economy
Many experts consider ___________ as the foundation of western civilization.
not: the Roman Empire of the 1st century BC
Which of the following statements is true?
Finland fought much of World War II on the side of Germany.
The European Union ______________.
is the largest economy in the world
One of the earliest significant civilizations to inhabit Western Europe was the Carthaginians who arrived in the region
from ______________.
north Africa
Mustafa Kemal (Atatrk) ______________.
established a democratic, secular form of government that continues to form the political foundation of modern Turkey
Which of the following statements is true?
The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire.
Which of the following statements is true?
In a parliamentary democracy, the prime minister, premier, or chancellor, is chosen by the national legislature.
The Eastern Roman Empire, centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the ______________.
Not Second Greek Empire or Holy Roman Empire
During most of the First World War, the Central Powers included which nations?
Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottoman Empire
When did the creation of a single German state occur?
After the Napoleonic Wars
Which of the following statements is true?
Russia became a major European power during the reign of Peter the Great in the latter part of the 17th

century.

The Eastern Roman Empire, centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the ______________.

Not Second Greek Empire


Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Following the end of World War II, Adolf Hitler was put on trial for war crimes by the victorious Allied Powers
At its peak, the holdings of the Ottoman Empire included ______________.
all of modern Turkey, parts of Africa, and parts of Europe
Which of the following statements is true?
The vast majority of Turkish territory is in Asia, with only a small portion located in Europe.
Which of the following statement is true?
Not Russia led all other European countries in experiencing a peaceful transition from an absolute monarchy type of
government to a democratic form of government
NOT: Russian victories over German and Austro-Hungarian forces during World War I forced those two countries to sue
for peace and strengthened the Russian Tsars position as ruler of his country
Yugoslavia ______________.
Not was annexed by the Soviet Union in the late 1940s
NOT: was an independent sovereign country beginning in the 16th century lasting up until it was split up into five
separate states by the Soviets after World War II
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The decreasing capabilities of Russias military has resulted in it losing its permanent membership on the UN Security
Council in favor of China
______________, ______________, and ______________ broke away from Russia during the Russian Civil War and
were able to maintain their independence until the early years of World War II.
Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania
Soviet casualties, both military and civilian, during World War II ______________.
included over 20 million deaths
When did the creation of a single German state occur?
Not Just prior to the fall of the Western Roman Empire
The Peace of Westphalia is significant because it ______________.
Not: formally defined the borders between the Western and Eastern Roman Empires
Not: ended the first World War
Russia is the worlds second largest oil exporter.
True
Russias natural resources have given it the ability to woe its former allies and satellites from pursuing closer
relationships with the West.
True
1.) Which of the following statements is true?
The Soviet decision to prop up a pro-Soviet government in Afghanistan during the Brezhnev years contributed to the
decline of the Soviet economy
2.) Which of the following statements is true?
Finland fought much of World War II on the side of Germany.

3.) The European Union ______________.


is the largest economy in the world
4.) One of the earliest significant civilizations to inhabit Western Europe was the Carthaginians who arrived in the region
from ______________.
north Africa
5.) Mustafa Kemal (Atatrk) ______________.
Not commanded Turkish troops during World War II in numerous battles against German and Italian forces or was the
last ruler of the Ottoman Empire
6.) Which of the following statements is true?
The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire.
7.) Which of the following statements is true?
In a parliamentary democracy, the prime minister, premier, or chancellor, is chosen by the national legislature.
8.) The Eastern Roman Empire, centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the ______________.
Not Second Greek Empire or Holy Roman Empire
9.) During most of the First World War, the Central Powers included which nations?
Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottoman Empire
10.) When did the creation of a single German state occur?
Not Just prior to the fall of the Western Roman Empire or In the latter half of the 17th century
11.) Which of the following statements is true?
Not Russia was only able to defeat Napoleons invasion of Moscow after Napoleon, who was leading his army in Russia,
was overthrown by a military coup back in France
12.) The Eastern Roman Empire, centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known as the
______________.
Not Second Greek Empire
13.) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Following the end of World War II, Adolf Hitler was put on trial for war crimes by the victorious Allied Powers
14.) At its peak, the holdings of the Ottoman Empire included ______________.
all of modern Turkey, parts of Africa, and parts of Europe
15.) Which of the following statements is true?
The vast majority of Turkish territory is in Asia, with only a small portion located in Europe.
16.) Which of the following statement is true?
Not Russia led all other European countries in experiencing a peaceful transition from an absolute monarchy type of
government to a democratic form of government or Russian victories over German and Austro-Hungarian forces during
World War I forced those two countries to sue for peace and strengthened the Russian Tsars position as ruler of his
country
17.) Yugoslavia ______________.
Not was annexed by the Soviet Union in the late 1940s

18.) Which of the following statements is NOT true?


The decreasing capabilities of Russias military has resulted in it losing its permanent membership on the UN Security
Council in favor of China
19.) ______________, ______________, and ______________ broke away from Russia during the Russian Civil War and
were able to maintain their independence until the early years of World War II.
Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania
20.) Soviet casualties, both military and civilian, during World War II ______________.
included over 20 million deaths
21.) When did the creation of a single German state occur?
Not Just prior to the fall of the Western Roman Empire
23.) Russia is the worlds second largest oil exporter.
True
24.) Russias natural resources have given it the ability to woe its former allies and satellites from pursuing closer
relationships with the West.
True
Which of the following countries is not a member of NATO?
not: Turkey
One of the earliest civilizations to inhabit Western Europe was the Carthaginians who arrived in the region from
____________________.
not: the area that is now known as the Arabian peninsula

EUROPEAN UNION
The Reform Treaty (undertaken in June 2007) provides the framework to ______________.
amend existing treaties
The European Union (EU) and the U.S. share interests in ______________.
All of the answers are correct
The European Union (EU) is a construct very similar to the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and the North
American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA).
False
European leaders believed that to head off another world war, the politics and economies of ______________ needed
closer alignment.
Not France and Spain
______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping capability.
Eurocorps
Todays European Union (EU) is a supranational organization consisting of ______________ countries.
27

The European Union (EU) has many of the attributes associated with independent nations, including:
All of the answers are correct
The Treaty of ______________ laid the foundation for further forms of cooperation in foreign and defense policy among
European nations, including a common currency.
Maastricht
A precursor to the formation of the European Union (EU) was the establishment of the ______________.
European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC)
The capitals of the European Union (EU) are located in ______________.
Brussels (Belgium) and Strasbourg (France)
The European Union (EU) faces internal challenges due to ______________.
None of the answers are correct.
The harmonization of European border policy occurred as a result of the signing of the Treaty of ______________ in
1997.
Not Paris
In the near future, competition between the European Union (EU) and the U.S. will likely center on ______________.
economic strength and geopolitical ambitions
European leaders believed that to head off another world war, the politics and economies of ______________ needed
closer alignment.
France and Germany
AFRICA
Which of the following was NOT a factor hampering the formation of stable African governments following colonial rule?
Local workers did not have sufficient technical expertise to extract raw materials.
Most of todays African nations became independent ______________.
during the 1950s and 1960s
The following climates can be found in Africa:
Desert, rain forest, savanna, and subarctic
Which is NOT a true statement regarding Zimbabwe (in the South African Region)?
Following the South African model, Zimbabwe is reaching reconciliation between its ethnic factions
The U.S. national interest in West Africa is focused on:
Not Christian-Muslim civil war
Muslim domination of North Africa arose from:
Arab immigration along trade routes between Arabia and sub-Saharan empires
Which is NOT true regarding Somalia?
NOT: The United States withdrew troops from Somalia after Operation UNITED SHIELD successfully captured warlord
Mohamed Siad Barre.
NOT: Neighboring Ethiopia sent troops into Somalia with the backing of the United States.

Which is NOT true regarding Northern Africa?


Not Countries are currently enjoying a period of relative peace under the governance of moderate Arab leaders.
NOT: Most North African nations were aligned with the Soviet Union during the Cold War.
Conflict arises along various fault lines which run through African societies. These fault lines include the following,
EXCEPT:
Not Arab vs. non-Arab populations
NOT: Religious/ethnic divisions
Africa comprises ______________.
Not a dozen continental nations and two additional island nations
NOT: 135 nations (including 7 island nations)
Which is a true statement regarding languages spoken in Africa?
There are over 1,000 languages spoken in Africa.
Which of the following was NOT a factor hampering the formation of stable African governments following colonial rule?
Not Withdrawal of colonial governments left newly-independent nations without the political infrastructure needed for
self-rule
The U.S. population is approximately 300 million; African population was ______________ by 2020.
922 million in 2005 and expected to reach 1.27 billion
The following are NOT challenges affecting African governments:
Scarcity of natural resources and available labor pool
An estimated ______________ of Africans suffer from malnutrition.
one-third
In general, African countries ______________.
have two or more official languagesone indigenous and the other Arabic or European
Which is the best description regarding the East Africa Region?
Rwanda has just emerged from a time of widespread ethnic violence.
Which statement is NOT true regarding the Horn of Africa?
Not It occupies a strategic location adjacent to the Bab el Mandeb (strait between Africa and Asia).
NOT: It is the most unstable region of Africa.
Between 1956 and 2001:
Africa enjoyed an era of relative peace, stability and rapid economic development under the Organization
Unity.

of African

Conflict arises along various fault lines which run through African societies. These fault lines include the following,
EXCEPT:
Not Religious/ethnic divisions
In the Horn of Africa region the ______________.
Not South African governments fight against apartheid, has spilled over into Namibia and Botswana, displacing an
estimated 100,000 people
Which was not a general problem facing African nations upon gaining independence from European colonial rule?
Lack of natural resources

The size of Africa is approximately ______________.


three times the size of the United States
The Central African Region is important to U.S. national interests, because:
It has rich natural resources, including oil, copper and potential for hydroelectric power
Indigenous African peoples do NOT include the ______________.
NOT: Berbers
RELIGIONS IN AFRICA
Select True or False: Classical ancient African religions include beliefs that state there are many gods, but one god rules
over them all.
True
______________ can be defined as a faith system of supernatural belief that is not testable with empirical methods.
Religion
One of the most significant impacts of Christianity of Africans was improvements to ______________.
health and education
The majority of Africans follow ______________ Islam.
Sunni
In Africa, ______________ was perceived as a protector of the much-persecuted Christians.
Islam
Select True or False: Shia Islam is banned on the continent of Africa by the African Union (AU).
False
______________ is one of many African faiths calling for the worshipping of more than one god.
Animism
______________ is a form of individual or collective struggle to refocus or empower Muslim communities.
Jihad
The majority of African Muslims consider themselves ______________.
Not Shia
Which continent has links to some of the worlds earliest religions?
Africa
Select True or False: It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to explain the natural world.
False
Islam arrived in Africa during the ______________ centuries.
Not 10th and 12th
Select True or False: It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to exercise social control.
True
Select True or False: Where religion revival can be found in Africa, most interactions among faiths are rife with conflict.

False
Select True or False: A strong correlation exists between a type of religion and the quality of governance within an
African country.
False
______________ has its roots in Africa, as demonstrated by Moses flight from Egypt.
Judaism
Select True or False: Early Christianity is rooted in the central part of Africa.
False
In modern times, ______________ in Africa is increasingly becoming an instrument of social mobilization.
Not: None of the answers are correct
NOT: politics
______________ is often used as a tool of mobilization to achieve political or military ends.
Religion
AFRICAN SECURITY
Most of Africa emerged from colonial rule during the ______________.
Not 1970s or 1950s
______________ is/are linking Africans together in ways that were unimaginable only a few years ago.
All of the answers are correct
The use of ______________ degrades the economies of the entire African continent by depriving its nations of
legitimate revenue.
child labor
Select True or False: The elites in Africa, that assumed power when European colonial nations departed, greatly
improved the process of the peaceful transfer of power between successive governments.
False
Select True or False: Internet cafes are becoming commonplace in even the smallest villages in Africa.
True
Coordination of ______________ are essential for the continued development of African nations.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Strong evidence exists to support the notion that the suspension of civil rights has brought peace
and stability to wide areas of Africa.
False
Select True or False: Africa has made the most of its vast hydroelectric power potential.
False
______________ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa.
Multiparty democracy
Addressing ______________ is the most constructive way to resolve the sources of conflict in Africa.

organized crime
The largest number of African deaths each year is caused by ______________.
disease and famine
______________ can be used to promote increased capacity among African nations for peacekeeping and stability
operations.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: The motive for most African conflicts is purely military.
False
Risks to Africas internal security could be reduced through ______________.
the provision of generous social welfare programs
Africas economic development must keep pace with its ______________ or its economy will stagnate and decline.
population growth
______________ is one of the root causes of armed conflict in Africa.
Environmental degradation
______________ is an ideal source for funding insurgencies in Africa and contribute greatly to instability on the
continent.
All of the answers are correct.
Most of Africa emerged from colonial rule during the ______________.
Not 1970s or 1950s
______________ is/are linking Africans together in ways that were unimaginable only a few years ago.
All of the answers are correct
The use of ______________ degrades the economies of the entire African continent by depriving its nations of
legitimate revenue.
child labor
Select True or False: The elites in Africa, that assumed power when European colonial nations departed, greatly
improved the process of the peaceful transfer of power between successive governments.
False
Select True or False: Internet cafes are becoming commonplace in even the smallest villages in Africa.
True
Coordination of ______________ are essential for the continued development of African nations.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Strong evidence exists to support the notion that the suspension of civil rights has brought peace
and stability to wide areas of Africa.
False
Select True or False: Africa has made the most of its vast hydroelectric power potential.
False
______________ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa.

Not One-party state or socialism


Addressing ______________ is the most constructive way to resolve the sources of conflict in Africa.
Not human trafficking concerns or arms control issues
______________ can be used to promote increased capacity among African nations for peacekeeping and stability
operations.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: The motive for most African conflicts is purely military.
False
Risks to Africas internal security could be reduced through ______________.
the provision of generous social welfare programs
Africas economic development must keep pace with its ______________ or its economy will stagnate and decline.
population growth
ASIA PACIFIC OVERVIEW
The width of Asia Pacific spans ______________ time zones.
16
Americas number two trading partner is ______________.
China
The combined oceans of Asia Pacific cover nearly ______________ of the earths surface.
one-half
The population of Asian cities is growing at a rate of ______________ the overall population.
Twice
Asia Pacific contains nearly ______________ percent of the worlds population.
NOT: 40
NOT:20
Which of the following nations is not a Communist nation?
Burma
Which of the following modern nations was not a part of French Indochina?
Thailand
______________ has the largest economy in terms of gross domestic product (GDP) in Asia Pacific.
Japan
______________ (or one of its variants) is the most common language of Asia Pacific.
Chinese
The largest Muslim population in the world can be found in ______________.
Indonesia
Approximately 90 percent of the worlds Hindus live in ______________.
India and Nepal

The combined population of India and China account for ______________ percent of the worlds people.
NOT: 10
NOT: 20
In which country is Christianity the majority religion?
Philippines
Which of the following nations is not considered a possessor of nuclear weapons?
Japan
The most strategically important waterway in the Asia Pacific region is the ______________.
Strait of Malacca
______________ is the official language of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).
English
PARTITION OF THE INDIA SUBCONTINENT
In order to stop the violence among Muslims, Hindus, and Sikhs in British India ______________.
The Indian nationalist leadership accepted Muslims demand for partition
The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949, and their mission is to ______________.
Not All of the answers are correct
______________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country populated mostly by Muslims and one
country populated mostly by non-Muslims.
The Muslim League
Select True or False: After the partition of British India until present, there have been no major clashes between
Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs.
False
Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of Colonial India, including the military
assets.
False
The Mohajirs were ______________.
The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsiders
The Northwestern Frontier Province is an unsettled boundary dispute between ______________.
Pakistan and Afghanistan
The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India ______________.
All of the answers are correct
Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent state of their own?
Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-independent India, Muslims minorities would be denied full

rights

The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949, and their mission is to ______________.
Not All of the answers are correct or prevent

Pakistan controlled Kashmir is known as:


Azad Kashmir
Domestic opposition in Pakistan to the U.S.-led war against terrorism is due to ______________.
Traditional support for the Taliban by some Pakistani fundamentalist groups
The First Kashmir War (January 1948-January 1, 1949), between Pakistan and India, ended as a result of
______________.
The United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities
The partition of South Asia was driven by ______________.
South Asian Hindus fear of being underrepresented
______________ presided over the partitioning of British India which ended colonial rule in India.
Not A council of Hindu and Muslim leaders
Under the partition plan, colonial Indias military assets ______________.
were to be divided between India and Pakistan in a 60:40 ratio
The India-Pakistan conflict is based upon ______________ issues.
All of the answers are correct
Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ______________.
Climate, beauty, and natural environment
The riots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as Direct Action day, were provoked by ______________.
NOT: The Hindu population demanding full independence from the British
China: Alone and Joining the World:
In 1978, China normalized relations with ______________.
Not Vietnam
Under the leadership of Deng Xiaoping, China normalized relations with ______________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: After Washington broke diplomatic relations with Taiwan, Beijing continued to strongly object to
the fact the U.S. still maintained a non-official relationship with the ROC.
False
By 1989, the PRC normalized relations with the below mentioned countries, except ______________.
Taiwan
In the 1960s the Chinese-Soviet relationship ______________.
Not slowly began to normalize
The primary beneficiary of the Cultural Revolution ______________.
was the Chinese Communist party
China: Alone and Joining the World:
The main purpose of the Cultural Revolution was to ______________.

reassert Maos power and his supreme authority in the country


President Nixon went to China because ____________________
he thought relations with Beijing would be useful against the USSR and in Vietnam
In the 1950 and 60s, the U.S. policy of containing China included ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Deng Xiaoping's reforms ____________________.
legitimized private sector in the economy and opened China to foreign investment and trade
Deng Xiaoping's reforms stressed ____________________.
the expending the role of international trade and investment in China's development
The Tiananmen demonstrations ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
At the end of the 1950's and in the beginning of 1960s, the hallmark of Chinese policies was ____________________.
to promote self-reliance
In the 1960's, China pursued policies of self-reliance because ____________________.
in the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pressure, it had no other choice
The Great Leap Forward ____________________.
resulted in three years of famine and the deaths of millions of people
China's break from the USSR meant that ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Mao launched the Cultural Revolution in the late 1960s ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: By the end of the1960's, China continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary.
False
The "three bitter years" were recalled by the Chinese government after the failure of ______________ policy.
the Great Leap Forward
In the 1960s the military strategy of the PLA of China mainly relied on below mentioned factors, except
______________.
Chinas technological superiority
In the 1960s the Chinese-Soviet relationship ______________.
NOT: showed signs of a strong friendship
NOT: was one of peaceful coexistance
By 1989, the PRC normalized relations with the below mentioned countries, except ______________.
Taiwan
The struggle for power among the leadership of the PRC in the early 1970s was between ______________.
NOT: the PLA and the CCP
Why is China increasingly important today?

Chinas economic, political, and military power is rising


The main reason for serious disagreements between Moscow and Beijing in the early 1960s was ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
In 1978, China normalized relations with ______________.
NOT: the US
The Early Years of the Peoples Republic of China:
Since 1981, PRC was in possession of ____________________.
intercontinental ballistic missiles
Why is China increasingly important today?
China's economic, political, and military power is rising
During the Korean War (1950-1953) the U.S. and UN forces had to retreat from the northern part of the Korean
peninsula as a result of ____________________________.
the sudden intervention of thousands of Chinese forces
In 1949 and in early 1950s, the PRC established a close relationship with __________________.
Stalinist USSR
How was the PRC created?
Armies led by Mao Zedong defeated the Republican Chinese government under Chiang Kai-Shek
After being defeated by the Chinese People's Liberation Army (PLA) in 1949, the ROC armies retreated to
____________________.
the island of Taiwan
Select True or False: Following the Sino-Soviet Treaty of 1950, the PRC became part of the Soviet Bloc.
True
By placing the U.S. Seventh Fleet in the Taiwan Strait, President Truman helped to stop __________________________.
All of the answers are correct
How did Chinese Communist forces gain strength during World War II?
The Japanese invasion of China gave them a chance to rebuild
Select True or False: According to the Sino-Soviet Security Treaty the USSR had an obligation to Beijing to provide
military aid if PRC was attacked by Japan.
False
In what year did the PRC explode its first hydrogen bomb?
1967
What was the major goal of the CCP in organizing people into work units?
All of the answers are correct
South Asia Before Independence:
The Indian national Congress Party and the Muslim League ____________________.

Demanded the British leave India


The dominant religions in the South Asian Region include all of the below except:
Christianity
What was the name of the explorer who led the first Europeans to India in the late 15th century?
Vasco Da Gama
Before 1947, the British colonial empire in South Asia consisted of the present states: Pakistan, India, Bangladesh,
Afghanistan and all of the below, except ________________________.
Burma
The first Europeans to arrive in India were the ____________________.
Portuguese
Why was 1857 a landmark year in South Asian history?
Indian Sepoys participated in the first armed mutiny against the British authority.
Select True or False: In Pakistani society the moderates as well as the religious hardliners have traditionally supported
organizations such as the Taliban and an Al-Qaeda.
False
Since Muslims made up only twenty five percent of the population of South Asia, their leaders ____________________.
Called for partition after British leave

Independence and the Partition of the Indian Subcontinent:


The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India
____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
________________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country populated mostly by Muslims and one
country populated mostly by non-Muslims.
The Muslim League
Domestic opposition in Pakistan to the U.S.-led war against terrorism is due to ____________________.
Traditional support for the Taliban by some Pakistani fundamentalist groups
The India-Pakistan conflict is based upon ____________________ issues.
All of the answers are correct
The Mohajirs were ____________________.
The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsiders
Select True or False: After the partition of British India until present, there have been no major clashes between
Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs.
False
The riots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as Direct Action day, were provoked by ____________________.
Muslims who were pushing hard for the partition of British India into two nations

The First Kashmir War (January 1948-January 1, 1949), between Pakistan and India, ended as a result of
____________________.
The United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities
Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent state of their own?
Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-independent India, Muslims minorities would be denied full

rights.

Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of Colonial India, including the military
assets.
False
The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India
____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ____________________.
Climate, beauty, and natural environment
The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949, and their mission is to
____________________.
Observe

South Asia and the Outside World:


The cultural behavior associated with ____________________ is a major cause of current religious intolerance and
terrorism in South Asia.
Jihad
What events contributed to India's decision to turn to Russia for aid in 1971?
All of the answers are correct
What prompted Washington to remove or waive all proliferation and democracy related restrictions on U.S. aid to
Pakistan in 2001?
Following the 9/11 terrorist attack, the Musharraf government severed all ties with the Taliban and joined the U.S.led anti-terrorism campaign as a front-line state
Select True or False: In January 2004, Pakistan became a member of NATO.
False
Select True or False: After the Cold War and the fall of Communism in the Soviet Union, military and economic
cooperation between Russia and India continued to develop.
True
During the Cold War the United States and India ____________________.
Had convergent interests on many issues
Select True or False: During the presidency of Bill Clinton in the 1990s, the relationship between the U.S. and Pakistan
improved greatly.
False

Select True or False: During the Cold War, the United States was trying to prevent India from achieving self-sufficiency
and attempted to make it dependant on U.S. markets.
False
During the Cold War India had a policy of ____________________.
Non-alignment

India-Pakistan Military Competition:


Select True or False: Since 1947, the Kashmir region has been the cause of four India-Pakistan wars.
False
After the withdrawal of British colonial rule, the partition of the Indian subcontinent in 1947 was justified on the
grounds of ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ____________________.
Shias and Sunnis
Kashmir ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
In May 2001, after Islamabad conducted five nuclear tests of its own ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The part of Kashmir region controlled by India is known as ______________________.
Jammu Kashmir
The Third Option stands for ____________________.
Kashmiri independence
In 2002, an all-out India-Pakistan war was averted because ____________________.
The intervention by the United States and the restrained attitude of the leaders of both countries helped to
this conflict

resolve

Under the British partition plan, Kashmir _________________.


would be free to accede to either India or Pakistan
Select True or False: The United Nations has maintained an observatory presence in the disputed area since December
1971.
False
Which of the following statements is true?
Pakistan claims that Kashmir should have become part of Pakistan in 1947 due to the regions
The dominant religion of the disputed area of Kashmir is ____________________.
Islam
The so-called Smiling Buddha represents ____________________.
The first nuclear explosive test detonated by India in 1974

demographics.

European Civilization:
Select True or False: In 8th Century A.D. the Greco-Roman-Christian civilization on the territories of the former Roman
Empire was replaced by the Arab-Muslim civilization.
False
Due to collapse of the ____________________,the face of Europe radically changed, as a result of the First World War.
German, Russian, Ottoman and Austria-Hungarian empires
After the collapse of the Western Roman Empire, the Roman traditions, cultural and linguistic influences continue to
thrive in Italy, Southern France and Spain but almost completely disappeared in the_________________ parts of the
former empire.
North-Western
The Triple Entente was a coalition of Britain, France and Russia against Germany and ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: In 2002, a new single European currency, the EURO, was introduced to all of EU member
countries.
False
Select True or False: The confrontation between Germany and the USSR created an alliance between the Communist
dictatorship and the Western democracies.
True
In the 1920s and 1930s, the rise of ____________________ threatened most European nations.
All of the answers are correct
By 1871, the process of unification in the form of one nation-state was complete for several European nations except for
the_______________.
Serbs
The Protestant movements took place in Europe as a result of a popular dissatisfaction with the
____________________.
Catholic Church
In the history of Western Europe, The Hundred Year War (1337-1453) was a long struggle between
____________________.
England and France
During the Early Middle Ages, in the 8th and 9th centuries, Western Europe was going through a time commonly known
as ______________.
Dark Ages
The imperial authority as absolute and divine, over the centuries, was deeply implanted and remains even today part of
the cultures of the______________________ peoples.
Balkan and Russian
Some believe that ____________________ is emerging as one of the Americas major competitors.
Europe

The purpose of the U.S. Marshall Plan for Europe was to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
The idea of imperial authority as absolute and divinely instituted originated from ____________________.
Byzantine
Select True or False: Throughout the Middle Ages, the Muslim world served as a protective barrier between Western
Europe and Byzantine Empire.
False
The most populated, largely urbanized and heavily industrialized continent on earth is ____________________.
Europe
Introduction to Planning:
The subsets of joint strategic planning are ______________.
NOT: strategic military planning, strategic economic planning, global political planning and joint intelligence

planning

When the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military action related to a crisis, the Chairman
of the Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n) ____________________ to implement the approved military course of action
Execute Order
Contingency planning focuses on ___________________.
potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces
A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the objective of securing a inland airbase.
In order to divert enemy forces, two Carrier Strike Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute
air strikes as required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and a list of targets he
needs to be attacked prior to his assault on the airbase. Which is most likely the supported commander for this
operation?
The Colonel commanding the MEU.
An Operation Order (OPORD) is ____________________.
a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinating execution of an

operation

Which of the following is correct?


A commander may be a supporting commander for one operation while being a supported commander for
A concept plan (CONPLAN) ____________________.
is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require considerable expansion or alteration to
an OPLAN

another.

convert it into

Which situations are not appropriate subjects for contingency planning?


None of the answers are correct
A(n) ___________________ provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of execution planning after
the President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action.
Alert Order
Which of the following is correct?
In the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is generally issued after the President or Secretary of
approves a military course of action.

Defense

Joint strategic planning ____________________.


All the answers are correct
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Crisis Action Planning only takes place when a situation develops that will require U.S. military combat
response.

operations as a

Security Cooperation Planning goals are identified by the ______________.


Secretary of Defense
Combatant commanders prepare their theater strategies and plans based on the guidance and directions given by the
______________.
President, Secretary of Defense and the Chairman of the Joints Chief of Staff
Security Cooperation Planning deals with ______________.
bilateral and multilateral defense activities conducted with foreign countries
At the national strategic level, force planning is associated with ______________.
Not the review of theater strategic plans before approval by the Secretary of Defense
The purpose of Joint Operation Planning is to ______________.
prepare and employ American military power in response to actual and potential contingencies
The subsets of Joint Operation Planning are ______________.
Not military contingency planning, operations other than war contingency planning and crisis action planning
Which situations are not appropriate subjects for contingency planning?
None of the answers are correct
Which of the following may be tasked to produce supporting plans by a combatant commander?
All the answers are correct
The Role of Intelligence:
The primary focus of naval intelligence is ________________.
NOT: None of the answers are correct.
Which of the following statements is true as it describes the focus of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace in
reference to conventional and asymmetric operations?
The steps remain the same but the focus is slightly different.
Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?
All the answers are correct
What is the primary difference between Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) for conventional war vice for
Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW)?
The focus
The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________.
the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operations area and the
dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area

nonphysical

Which step of the IPB process seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order to help the JFC attain battlespace
knowledge?
Determine adversary potential COAs.
Gathering information of potential intelligence value from sources such as newspapers, television broadcasts and the
internet is a part of which intelligence discipline?
Open-source Intelligence
Select True or False: Although the four steps in the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process remain the
same across the spectrum of conflict, they may be compacted or expanded as time permits.
True
Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) focus?
Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue
Select True or False: An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in light of U.S. doctrine.
False
The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to ____________________.
support the commanders planning and decision making by identifying, assessing and estimating the adversary
Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively prior to an operation
to support the commanders planning effort.
False
Determining the intention of allies and potential coalition partners is a focus of intellegence at what level of war?
Strategic level
What process is used to analyze the air, land, sea, space, weather, electromagnetic, and information environments as
well as other dimensions of the battlespace, and to determine an adversarys capabilities to operate in each?
Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace
Which of the following best describes Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) applicability within the range of
military operations?
NOT: The IPB is a strategic level tool aimed at providing the combatant commander a broad-spectrum analysis of the
adversary.
Select True or False: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process is applicable to asymmetric
operations.
False
Who, on the Commanders staff, has the primary responsibility for planning, coordinating and conducting the overall
Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) analysis and production effort?
The N-2/J-2 (Intelligence)
Navy Planning Process:
Which statement best states what a good Course of Action provides to the operation?
All the answers are correct

The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what level (s) of command?


All the answers are correct
The Intelligence of the Battlespace process assists in identifying facts and assumptions about ____________________
and ____________________.
the battlespace environment; the adversary
Which statement is correct when discussing the Navy Planning Process?
A logical decision process that helps focus the commander and staff
Select True or False: Once a wargame has begun, a commander may change an existing Course of Action.
True
Select True or False: The Navy Planning Process is a rigid step-by-step process that, if followed, will lead the staff to a
decision.
False
A friendly Course of Action ____________________.
is any concept of operation open to a commander that, if adopted, would result in the accomplishment of the mission
____________________ is a written or oral communication that directs actions and focuses a subordinates tasks and
activities toward mission accomplishment.
An order
Select True or False: Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are a type of implied task.
False
During the comparison of the friendly Courses of Action step in the Navy planning Process, what does comparing the
strengths and weaknesses of the Courses of Action provide?
It aids in identifying respective COA advantages and disadvantages.
During wargaming, the staff ____________________.
Not compares the most likely adversary COA with the most favorable friendly COA
NOT: compares each adversary COA against the most likely friendly COA
What will the staff normally use in comparing friendly Courses of Action and to aid in focusing on the advantages and
disadvantages of each COA?
Governing factors
Select True or False: Once a wargame has begun, a commander may change an existing Course of Action.
True
Within the Navy Planning Process, at what point would the commander determine potential adversary Courses of
Action?
During the JIPB process
An implied task is a ____________________.
major task not specified by the higher commander
Tasks listed in the mission received from higher headquarters are what type of tasks?
Specified tasks

Select True or False: Like the Navy Planning Process, the process for deliberate and crisis planning is left up to the
combatant commander.
False
During wargaming, the staff ____________________.
Not compares the most dangerous adversary COA with the riskiest friendly COA
The Course of Action selected during the NPP is the basis for what?
NOT: None of the answers are correct.
Law of the Sea and Airspace:
Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the high seas, which _______________.
All the answers are correct
References regarding the law of the sea include which of the following?
All the answers are correct
Why does the law of the sea and airspace matter?
All the answers are correct
National waters are subject to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include which of the following?
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: According to UNCLOS, territorial seas extend to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical miles and may
be temporarily closed (with the exception of international straits) by a coastal nation for security purposes.
True
Historic bays are __________.
Exempt from normal rules.
A party transiting an international strait must do which of the following?.
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is true of Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZs)?
They apply to all aircraft
Basic maritime zones are drawn from baselines which may include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
If a Notice to Mariners/Airmen (NOTMAR/NOTAM) has been issued for international waters, which of the following is
true?
Not: All of the answers are correct.
Where a nation has drawn straight baselines that do not conform with the coastline according to U.S. policy (as in the
case of Iran), U.S. military ships can do which of the following?
They can enter the area representing an excessive claim with the permission of higher authority
High seas freedoms include which of the following?
NOT: All of the answers are correct.
Innocent passage is a right of all ships to transit through territorial seas and _______________________.

Coastal nations may use force in some circumstances to remove ships which are demonstrating nonbehavior.

innocent

Regarding the collision of a U.S. EP-3 and a Chinese fighter on 01 April 2001, which of the following is/are true?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?
It is the only formal international agreement regarding maritime conduct.
Which of the following statements is true?
The U.S. is both a coastal state and a maritime state.
Which of the following statements is true?
All of the answers are correct.
Scope:
Select True or False: The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the Navy have issued directives that
state that the armed forces of the United States will, unless otherwise directed by competent authorities, comply with
the principles and spirit of the Law Of Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operations that do not
involve armed conflict.
False
Given that it has been determined that the al-Qaida and Taliban members captured in Afghanistan should be classified
as unlawful combatants, which of the following statements is true?
The U.S. is not required to afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs under the Geneva Conventions,
but will do so as a matter of U.S. domestic policy.
Select True or False: The Geneva Conventions of 1949, which govern many aspects of military operations, are similar to
the Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC), in that they apply to all nations.
false
Select True or False: U.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva Conventions as a minimum concerning the
conduct of hostilities and the care of victims of armed conflict.
FALSE
If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a non-signatory nation
____________________.
the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva Convention bind only the signatory

nation

The Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________.


a generally accepted body of international law
U.S. policy views the terms of the Geneva Conventions as ____________________.
a minimum standard
Select True or False: The United States policy is to broadly apply the LOAC when conducting military operations so that
it may more easily punish its enemies after the cessation of hostilities.
False
In the discourse and interaction between nations, war is employed as a means to ________________________.
secure a favorable outcome

Which statement is true?


The United States has unilaterally decided to apply the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) to all of its military operations.
Select True or False: It is advantageous for a nation to become a signatory to the Geneva Conventions as not doing so
will deny its military personnel the treatments required under that treaty should they be captured by the forces of a
signatory nation.
False
Select True or False: Current U.S. policy concerning the applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict is consistent
with at least the minimum standards of international law.
True
Law of Armed Conflict is a more accurate phrase than Law of War ____________________.
NOT: as the Law of War was superseded by the Law of Armed Conflict through a 1952 act of Congress and
longer applicable to the U.S. military

thus, is no

The Law of Armed Conflict ____________________.


essentially encompasses the same body of law as The Law of War
Select True or False: If a nation that is a signatory to the Geneva Conventions is involved in armed conflict with nonsignatory nations, and those nations engage in activities that are contrary to the terms of the Geneva Convention, the
signatory nation is no longer bound by the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).
False
Select True or False: When a member of the United Nations Security Council is engaged in a military action pursuant to a
United Nations Security Council resolution, it is automatically exempted from its Law of Armed Conflict obligations.
False
Principles:
In attacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________.
incidental consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the anticipated concrete and direct
advantage to be gained from the attack
Military medical officers, if captured ____________________.
are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner of war camps to provide medical
POWs

military

services to

Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an acceptable tactic.
False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes.
Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused by the enemys forces during an armed engagement,
____________________.
while a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse, its status must be continually verified
ensure it does not return to civilian object status

to

Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged in armed conflict ____________________.
may not be targeted, but are to be afforded POW status if captured
Select True or False: Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the U.S. military undergoes a review to
ensure its legality under LOAC, there is no need for a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC.
False

Select True or False: It is possible for a person (such as a reservist) to be classified simultaneously as both a civilian and a
combatant.
False
Legitimate military objectives may include ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: The wearing and use of camouflage by combatants is prohibited by LOAC because doing so would
violate the wearing of a fixed emblem recognizable at a distance part of the test to determine combatant status.
False
Select True or False: A combatant who commits a war crime loses his status as a combatant, but is still afforded POW
status and treatment if captured by the enemy even if found guilty of the crime.
False
A civilian airport may be classified as a legitimate military objective if ____________________.
it is currently being used by the enemy to launch and recover military aircraft
Select True or False: Junior officers who are not in a designated command billet are required to report violations of LOAC
they have personally witnessed, but are not required to report suspected violations of LOAC that they have no direct
knowledge of.
False
Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an acceptable tactic.
False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes
Violations of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) are violations of U.S. law and punishable under the Uniform Code of
Military Justice.
True
Select True or False: Only members of a nations regular military can be classified as combatants under LOAC.
False
Select True or False: It is possible for a person (such as a reservist) to be classified simultaneously as both a civilian and a
combatant.
False
The principles that have guided the development of LOAC are ____________________.
NOT: necessity, efficiency, proportionality and humanity
Which statement is NOT true?
Department of Defense policy does not require the reporting of unconfirmed alleged actions by U.S. forces that violate
LOAC
Rules of Engagement
U.S. Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________ issued by ____________________.
NOT: directives, the President after Congressional approval
Well developed and succinct Rules of Engagement (ROE) should clarify what degree of force may be used based on
____________________.

the mission, threat level and political goals


Judge advocates are ____________________.
used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to
and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)

assist planners

U.S. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces ____________________.
shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC
Select True or False: Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nations political
goals.
False
Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. forces
will continue combat engagement as only the nations civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement.
False
Select True or False: U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules of Engagement (ROE) other than
approving the ROE as presented to them by the military establishment.
False
The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must ____________________.
allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission
Select True or False: Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission
protect U.S. nationals and their property.
True
Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in order to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners and tactical level operators enough
leeway to effectively accomplish their assigned missions.
True
Judge advocates are ____________________.
used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to
and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)

assist planners

The three major components of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________.


political, military and legal
Select True or False: Domestic and international public support of a military action is a factor to be considered when
developing Rules of Engagement (ROE).
True
SROE:
The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is organized ____________________to facilitate
quick reference during crisis or deliberate planning.
NOT: by classification of hostile force

NOT: by weapon types


The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is promulgated by the ____________________.
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) are only applicable to U.S. forces operating within the
territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.
False
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________.
Not are divided into three portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of force in self-defense; 2) a classified
portion discussing the use of force for mission accomplishment; and 3) a classified portion discussing the use of force
within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States
NOT: are divided into three portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of force in self-defense; 2) a
classified portion discussing the use of force in self-defense; and 3) a classified portion discussing the use of force for
mission accomplishment
A commander has an obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all appropriate actions in defense of
____________________.
the commander's own unit and other U.S. forces in the vicinity
When U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by ____________________.
the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S. and the U.S. Standard
Rules of Engagement (SROE) if responding to a military attack
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces operating within the United
States when supporting law enforcement authorities conducting counterdrug operations against foreign nationals.
False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not apply to U.S. forces supporting law enforcement
agencies conducting special event security within the U.S. if the suspected threat is a terrorist group based in a foreign
country.
False
Select True or False: The unclassified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can serve as a
coordination tool with U.S. allies for the development of combined or multinational ROE.
True
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require proportionality in the use of force in
self-defense as to do so would restrict a commander's inherent right and obligation of self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include the destruction of a hostile force
under actions permitted in self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are applicable during peacetime.
True
U.S. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive because they ____________________.
provide commanders with the flexibility to act quickly and decisively without repetitively requesting
take certain actions

permission to

Select True or False: The guidance concerning the inherent right of self-defense provided by the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE) are only applicable to U.S. forces operating in areas outside of U.S. territorial jurisdiction.
False
Select True or False: The goals of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a stable international environment
consistent with U.S. national interests.
True
When U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by ____________________.
the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S. and the
Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if responding to a military attack

U.S.

In its guidance concerning self-defense measures, the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)
____________________.
permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces during military attacks against
the United States.
True
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during military operations
____________________.
occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.
U.S. national security interests guide global objectives of deterring, and, if necessary, defeating armed attacks or
terrorist actions against designated non-U.S. forces.
NOT: Only if the armed attacks or terrorist actions against the designated non-U.S. forces have a high probability
endangering U.S. forces

of

Supplemental measures are contained in which section of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)?
The classified section
Self Defense:
Self-defense includes the authority to pursue the enemy force ____________________.
NOT: under all conditions
Select True or False: A commanders inherent authority and obligation to use all necessary means available and to take
all appropriate actions in self-defense is limited to the self-defense of the commanders own unit.
False
A civilian may exhibit hostile intent sufficient to meet the necessity requirement for the use of force in self-defense.
If his or her actions demonstrates the threat of the imminent use of force.
The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.
is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile
can be prevented or terminated

intent

When involved in a situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the commander ____________________.
should give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to withdraw or cease threatening actions if
time and circumstances permit
Select True or False: As a form of self-defense, the use of riot control agents is always authorized.

False
Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. nationals and property from attack?
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend themselves before they are attacked.
True
Select True or False: Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat requirement for self-defense.
True
The authority to extend U.S. protection to non-U.S. forces and foreign nations may be exercised only by
____________________.
Not the President, the Secretary of Defense or another person so designated by the President or the Secretary of
Defense
Knowledge that a terrorist is preparing to use force to attack a U.S. Navy ship ____________________.
may be sufficient to satisfy the imminent requirement and thus authorize the use of force in self-defense
Normally, a force is declared hostile by ____________________.
Not a ROE authorized by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
The practice of extending U.S. protection to non-U.S. forces and foreign nations is known as ______________.
Not allied self-defense or coalition self-defense
Force used in self-defense must be ____________________.
necessary and proportional
A force that has been declared hostile via an ROE authorized by the President _______________.
Not None of the answers are correct.
Individual self-defense allows one to use force to defend oneself and U.S. forces in ones vicinity from a hostile act or
demonstrated hostile intent.
False
Select True or False: Hostile intent is defined as the threat of instantaneous or immediate use of force against the U.S.,
U.S. forces, and in certain circumstances, others.
False
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) provides ___________ to assist commanders in determining if an
approaching aircraft, ship or ground unit is demonstrating hostile intent.
guidance on various indicators that might be considered
Select True or False: Impeding U.S. forces from the recovery of U.S. personnel and vital U.S. government property can be
considered a hostile act.
True
Mission Accomplishment:
In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission ____________________.
the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered

In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role of the principal assistant to staff director for
operations in developing and integrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into operational planning.
Staff Judge Advocate
Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
____________________.all factor into the development of mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE).
Political, military and legal objectives
Select True or False: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of
Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that a U.S. could be assigned to perform.
False
Supplemental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________.
augment the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific ROE, if any and should be
reviewed by commanders to ensure they are sufficient to successfully accomplish the mission

constantly

The Operation Order (OPORD) that is promulgated by the commander of an assigned mission should/may include all of
the following except ___________.
requests for supplemental measures
Commanders who have been delegated the responsibility to draft Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are required to
____________________.
constantly review them and modify as necessary
Select True or False: Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment and Rules of Engagement may define
certain permissible targets.
True
Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissive ____________________.
but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapons and/or tactics
Rules of Engagement (ROE) development ____________________.
is parallel and collaborative with operations planning and require extensive coordination
When developing alternative courses of action (COAs) to accomplish an assigned mission, the planning staff
____________________.
must give due consideration to the Rules of Engagement not yet approved but required in order to conduct

the COA

The initial guidance in developing Rules of Engagement (ROE) for a particular mission ____________________.
is the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)
Clear guidance on what forces are declared hostile should be included in ____________________.
Not a document separate from the Rules of Engagement (ROE) as the ROE is general in nature and guidance on what
forces are declared hostile is mission specific
The drafting of Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement has been delegated to the various ____________________.
Not Force Commanders
NOT: Regional Commanders
The supplemental measures found in the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are
available for use by all commanders of U.S. forces unless specifically withheld.

False
Select True or False: If there are Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement in effect, a commander given a mission within
that theater is limited to those Rules of Engagement when executing an assigned mission.
False
Guidance on how to request Rules of Engagement (ROE), including the proper formatting of ROE request messages are
found in ____________________.
the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)
Mission planners must ensure that the mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE) support ____________________.
the pre-conflict, conflict, and post-conflict phases of an operation

RUF:
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may apply to U.S. forces guarding prisoners outside the territorial
jurisdiction of the United States.
True
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force always apply to U.S. military forces operating within the territorial
jurisdiction of the United States.
False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply to operations conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction
of the United States.
False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U.S. forces overseas when they are protecting vital
government assets.
True
Select True or False: Operations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) would include disaster
relief response.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States in support of another
agency (for example the U.S. Coast Guard) may operate under that agencys Rules for the Use of Force (RUF).
True
Select True or False: When operating in support of other government agencies, U.S. military forces always operate under
Rules for the Use of Force developed specifically for that operation.
False
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.S. Naval Ships while in foreign ports.
True
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States may operate under Rules
for the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed specifically for the mission they are assigned.
True
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to protecting U.S. Naval Ships in international waters

True
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may apply to U.S. forces guarding prisoners outside the territorial
jurisdiction of the United States.
True
Select True or False: When operating in support of other government agencies, U.S. military forces always operate under
Rules for the Use of Force developed specifically for that operation.
False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) apply to all U.S. forces operating inside the territorial
jurisdiction of the United States conducting: counter-drug operations, special event security and response to military
attack.
False
Force multiplication: sensors through out military history
Which of the following statements concerning the Global Positioning System (GPS) is true?
Although first patented in 1904, radar wasnt very militarily useful until ______________.
NOT: the Cold War
Night vision goggles see in the dark by using ______________.
ambient light
A GPS receiver determines its position by ______________.
comparing the difference between received time signals from four or more different GPS satellites
Night vision goggles work best and give the greatest tactical advantage when used ______________.
under extremely low levels of ambient light
GPS provides users with accurate information on ______________.
position, velocity and time
Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems were developed during ______________ and used up until
______________.
the Cold War, the present time
Which of the following sensor types uses sound to detect a target?
Sonar
Improving our ability to survey the environment improves our capacity to ______________.
defend against attack
seize the initiative
During World War II, the British developed ______________, the first ______________, which played a pivotal role in
the British victory at the Battle of Britain.
The magnetron, higher power microwave source
Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used in which weapon?
Not MK-48 ADCAP torpedo
NOT: TOW 2B missile

Sonar-type sensors were first developed ______________.


Prior to World War I
The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ______________.
All the answers are correct
Infrared systems are best used to detect ______________.
a warm object against a relatively cool background
Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of German submarine activity during World
War I?
Sonar
GPS made possible the rescue of Captain Scott OGrady after he was shot down over Serbia because ______________.
the GPS receiver he carried allowed him to precisely pinpoint his location and relay the information to rescuers
Advanced sensor systems allow their users to ______________.
Gauge enemy forces before being detected themselves
The first known sinking of a U-boat during World War 1 was aided by a(n)___________.
Passive sonar system
During the 1990s, increases in technology related to which type of sensor system allowed its users to own the night?
NOT: Radar
SENSOR FUNDAMENTALS
which type of sensor operates in such a way that it can be used with minimal risk of detection by enemy forces?
Passive sonar
If system A has an antenna gain of 1 and system B has an antenna gain of 4, which statement is not true?
NOT: All of the sound wave energy associated with system B is squeezed into a conical wedge with of the area of a
full sphere.
Which is not typically considered a component of a sensor system?
Warhead
Gain refers to the increase of a transmitted signals power per unit area caused by ______________.
NOT: increasing the sensor system's signal-to-noise ratio to filter out background noise
NOT: an increase in power to amplify the signal
A monostatic sensor has ______________.
the detector and source collocated
Interference may be ______________.
constructive and destructive
The ratio of the highest deviation of a value represented by the sensor to the actual value is used to determine a
sensors ______________.
accuracy

Measuring the output of a sensor in response to an accurately known input is known as ______________.
calibration
Which statement is NOT true?
Radio waves have a higher frequency than gamma rays.
Which statement is NOT true?
None of the answers are correct.
Which statement is NOT true?
NOT: A radar system with a transmitter antenna having a gain of 4 will have a greater effective range than another
radar identical in all respects except having a transmitter antenna gain of 2.
NOT: Signal analysis software improvements can increase the sensitivity of a sensor without improvements to the
systems detector.
A multistatic sensor is a sensor ______________.
that has multiple receivers and/or transmitters
An antenna typically provides gain to a sensor system by ______________.
NOT: amplifying the signal
Spectroscopy is used to determine ______________.
what wavelengths are coming off a target
A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ______________.
NOT: has a signal wave velocity that is directly proportional to its frequency over its entire range
Refraction refers to ______________.
the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the medium the signal is traveling

through

Increasing the frequency of a signal wave (while maintaining a constant wave velocity) results in ______________.
NOT: no change in wavelength
Sound travels ______________.
faster than light in air
Which statement is true?
Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit change in the parameter being

UNDERSTANDING THE FREQUENCY SPECTRUM


Select True or False: The elasticity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water.
False
The speed of sound through water changes with ______________.
water temperature
What is an alternative way of writing 7.4 x 108 Hz?
Not 7,400 KHz

measured.

Select True or False: While we can only see/hear a small fraction of the exploitable frequency spectrum, we can employ
sensors to make use of the remainder of the spectrum.
True
Select True or False: Aircraft can only accommodate sensors of one meter or less.
False
Select True or False: The terms standard industry, standard international, and standard military are synonymous when
referring to frequency band designations.
False
Select True or False: The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at 20 degrees C would be the
same for underwater and above water platforms.
False
Select True or False: Sensor size is proportional to frequency.
False
A short wave radio signal at 20 MHz would exist in which standard military band?
D-band
What is an alternate way of writing .023 km?
23 meters
Select True or False: For a given frequency, a larger sensor can receive more effectively than a smaller one.
False
What is the most appropriate platform for an acoustic sensor operating at 20 Hz?
Surface ship
Gamma rays are a good example of ______________.
high frequency and low wavelength
How does the speed of sound through water compare with the speed of sound through air?
Approx. 4.4 times faster in water than air
Select True or False: Sensor size is proportional to wavelength.
True
Sensor challenges for modern combat systems
______________ is one of the current challenges to increasing our ability to avoid being detected by an infrared sensor.
NOT:How to reduce the amount of shipboard engine noise transmitted to the water through a ships hull
The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe ______________.
multiple false targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target
Of the various optical sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abilities in the future include
______________.
unmanned aerial vehicles
A diesel powered submarine can reduce its likelihood of detection by passive sonar by ______________.

operating on battery power.


An enemy uses barrage jamming in order to attempt to ______________.
overload our receivers and prevent our systems from providing range to the target
Which of the following includes three propagation paths of sound in the ocean?
Direct path, bottom bounce and sound channel
The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a targets radar at unexpected times is used in ______________.
NOT: barrage jamming
Select True or False: Infrared sensors can be utilized to detect submarines under certain conditions.
True
Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming?
Cover pulse jamming
Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat ability more efficient, more cost
effective and safer by ______________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The military fields and continues to use systems that may be generations behind the civilian state of
the art in order to avoid being forced to utilize unreliable assets.
True
A major limitation of airborne antisubmarine assets is that aircraft ______________.
have a relatively short on-station time
Which of the following includes three methods employed by the AN/SPY-1 series of radars that enable them to be less
susceptible to jamming?
information-dense wave packets, complex waveforms, phased array beam-forming
Erratic environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except ______________.
None of the answers are correct
Electronic warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual threats to its platform because
______________.
NOT: they cannot localize, identify and deconflict incoming contacts before radar
NOT: they do not yet have the ability to classify incoming missile emitters
Biological weapons detectors are currently deployed aboard ______________.
None of the answers are correct
Which type of sonar is the most effective in detecting relatively close contacts and formulating a firing solution?
Active sonar
Select True or False: In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement sequence, one can never have
too much sensor provided information. The more information that can be collected, the easier the human decision
making process is in a tense, stressful environment.
False
The sending out of electromagnetic energy at a power level significantly higher than that of an enemys radar and at the
same frequency is used in ______________.

NOT: cover pulse jamming


Maintaining Technical Superiority
The program office that is in charge of the development a system must strive to ______________.
All of the answers are correct
Because nearly every type of sensor system can be improved, it is important to ______________.
Not All of the answers are correct
Navy officers that directly contribute to Navy program management are typically ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: The Navys development of new technologies is managed completely by Department of the Navy
civilian personnel.
False
Unmanned autonomous sensor carrying vehicles are being developed in order to ______________.
increase personnel safety
Select True or False: Because of the rapid increase of computing power, and every indication that such increases will
continue at least for at least the next 10 years, there is no longer the danger of what is commonly referred to as
information overload.
False
A limiting factor in developing the most advanced aircraft sensor systems possible is ______________.
The space needed to house such a system using current, or near future technology
The ever increasing amount of data provided by current and future sensor systems, increases the potential of
______________.
subjecting the operators and decision makers to information overload
______________ generate(s) a lit of Future Naval Capabilities (FNCs) that serve as a roadmap to direct research and
development funding.
Not SYSCOMs
NOT OPNAV
The Office of Naval Research uses ______________ and ______________ input to assist in guiding research and
development funding.
Not Fleet, SPAWAR
Select True or False: Program Executive Offices are solely concerned with the technical aspects of bringing future
systems on line and thus are not involved in determining warfighter requirements.
False
Select True or False: Unmanned autonomous vehicles will eliminate one of the largest cost factors for equipment
manpower.
False
______________ control(s) large scope programs not falling within the scope of a Systems Command.
Program Executive Offices

Select True or False: All officers that have been involved in Navy program management are barred from working for
defense contractors after retirement because to do so would be a conflict of interest.
False
______________ is the command responsible for the development of ships and shipboard systems.
NAVSEA
______________ is the command responsible for the development of communications and computer systems.
NAVSYS
Magnetic sensors
Some magnetic sensors use multiple magnetometers in order to ______________.
increase the chances of detection
Magnetic sensors are useful for detecting ______________ objects.
Metallic
Increasing the sensitivity of a magnetic sensor by a factor of eight would result in ______________ the range of the
sensor.
doubling
______________ are devices that detect changes in a magnetic field.
Not Seismographs
Objects that cant be detected using sound, radio frequency, or light energy may be sensed using ______________
sensors.
magnetic
Magnetic sensors are capable of detecting ______________ objects.
Concealed
The purpose of a magnetic sensor is to ______________.
Detect changes in a magnetic field
Magnetic sensors are capable of detecting ______________ objects.
Undersea
Lines of magnetic force are ______________ as they pass between mediums such as air, earth, or water.
NOT: reflected
A submarines magnetic intensity depends upon ______________.
All the answers are correct.
Self-generated magnetic noise falls into the two broad categories of ______________ noise.
NOT: maneuver and generator
One of the things that affect a magnetic sensors ability to detect changes in a magnetic field is the ______________.
intensity of the change
The Greek letter ______________ is used to symbolize magnetic field intensity.
gamma

Magnetic sensors are only effective at ranges of ______________ meters or less.


500
Sonar
Underwater sounds are classified as ______________.
NOT: All the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Sounds can usually be detected from the direct path method of propagation at long ranges.
False
The ______________ contains 80 percent of the oceans vertical thickness.
Not None of the answers are correct
As the relative motion between a sounds source and its receiver increases, the corresponding Doppler shift
______________.
Increases
A ships sonar blind spot is commonly referred to as its ______________.
Not None of the answers are correct.
A hydrophone is a(n) ______________.
underwater microphone
A sonars ______________ enables operators to make control inputs to the system.
Display
The two major types of sonar are ______________.
active and passive
In the ______________, water density changes sharply with depth.
Pycnocline
______________ has the most impact on the speed of sound in seawater.
Temperature
The oceans acoustic characteristics are affected by ______________.
All the answers are correct
The apparent change in a sounds frequency due to relative motion between the sounds receiver and its source is called
the ______________.
Doppler effect
Less than ______________ percent of the worlds total ocean area is shallow water.
Eight
Generally, ______________ frequency sounds are detectable at longer ranges in seawater.
Lower
Seawaters property of ______________ is what makes it an excellent conductor of sound.
NOT: conductivity

The ______________ contains 80 percent of the oceans vertical thickness.


deep zone
The ______________ contains water with the highest temperature and least density.
surface zone
A sonar transducer is most similar to a ______________.
NOT: microphone
Radar
Pulse radar is effective at ______________.
determining a targets relative velocity
Select True or False: Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or away from a radar.
True
Blind speeds are a problem with ______________.
pulse Doppler
Select True or False: A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arranged in rectangular
or circular arrays.
True
Select True or False: A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as the
transmitted energy.
False
Frequency-modulated continuous wave radar overcomes the normal inability of continuous wave radar to determine
______________.
Range
Select True or False: Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target size.
False
The amplitude of a radar pulse relates to ______________.
power and range
A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ______________.
mixer, amplifier, and discriminator
The two types of energy transmissions used by radar are ______________.
pulse and continuous wave
Which type of radar presents range on the x-coordinate and elevation on the y-coordinate?
E-Scope
Select True or False: Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object from which the signal
reflected.
True
Radar is an acronym for ______________.

radio detection and ranging


______________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the target.
NOT: Pulse Doppler
NOT: Frequency-modulated continuous wave
______________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the radars platform.
Pulse Doppler
Select True or False: Larger targets exhibit up Doppler while smaller targets have down Doppler.
False
______________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the radars platform.
NOT: Frequency-modulated continuous wave
Electro-optics
Select True or False: Laser designators can work with many kinds of munitions.
True
Select True or False: Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good visual conditions.
True
Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.
True
The mechanism used to introduce the energy for an active emission is the ______________.
Pump
An example of long wavelength, low frequency is ______________.
AM radio waves
Laser light is available in both ______________.
continuous and pulsed form
Laser light has unique applications due to ______________.
low beam divergence
Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum?
Not Microwave
NOT: UV and X-ray
The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is ______________.
a narrow part of the spectrum between the IR and UV portions
Select True or False: Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target, from which the
attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target.
False
A laser technique that allows PGMs to identify a particular laser designation from several in its field of view based upon
a predetermined pulsing code, is ______________.

Not laser locking


The optical spectrum consists of ______________.
IR, visible and UV
______________ is an example of long range application of passive emission detection.
Thermal imaging
Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.
True
The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ______________.
placing the designating force at risk of detection
Military Space Mission Areas:
SATCOM is:
Satellite Communications
Select True or False: A fundamental requirement for the U.S. military to implement Information Superiority is effective
use of space assets.
True
Space capabilities__________________________:
All the answers are correct
Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers, communications, people, and other support
structures that
Include command and control, tactical, intelligence, and commercial communications systems used to transmit DOD
data
Serve DOD information needs
Select True or False: Currently, space force application assets are operating in space
False
Select True or False: Space support operations consist of operations that launch, deploy, augment, maintain, sustain,
replenish, deorbit, and recover space forces, including the command and control network configuration for space
operations.
True
Select True or False: Space force application operations consist of attacks against terrestrial-based targets carried out by
military weapons systems operating in or through space.
True
Select True or False: Space control operations provide freedom of action in space for friendly forces while, when
directed, denying it to an adversary, and include the broad aspect of protection of U.S. and U.S. allied space systems and
negation of enemy adversary space systems.
True
The force enhancement function concerned with providing timely detection and warning of ballistic missile launch and
nuclear detonation is: _________________________.
Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment

The military space mission area concerned with launch, replenishment of spares, and orbital control is
__________________.
Space support
The four military space mission areas are _______________________.
Space Control, Space Support, Force Application, and Force Enhancement
The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on meteorological, oceanographic, and space
environmental factors that might affect operations in other battlespace dimensions is _______________.
Environmental monitoring
The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to the Space Force Enhancement mission area:
__________________________.
Communications; Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment; Environmental Monitoring
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.
True
The importance of space operations is ______________.
increasing due to enabling capabilities they provide to deployed military forces
Offensive and defensive space operations employed by friendly forces are categorized within the military space mission
area of ______________.
Space Control
Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance:
Types of data and information collected from space include ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Force enhancement - ISR mission ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
ISR is the collection of data and information within an area of interest on a continuing or event driven basis. Collection
that is event driven or occurs on a one-time basis is called ______________.
NOT: remote sensing
The ______________ orbit allows continuous surveillance of specific regions of the world.
NOT: low earth orbit
Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Surveillance from space infers that a single satellite or system must be continuously collecting.
False
The most significant advantage of a space-based Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance sensor is
__________________________.
the ability to provide continuous and focused coverage

Select True or False: Satellite systems may be affected by a variety of atmospheric disturbances which affect the ability
of imaging systems to detect adversary activity, missile launches, and battle damage.
True
Select True or False: Single low and medium earth orbiting systems or architectures that provide limited numbers of low
or medium orbital systems are well suited to the reconnaissance mission.
True
ISR support:
All the answers are correct
In Operation Iraqi Freedom, space-based ISR:
Was a central factor in assuring rapid military success.
The next generation of satellites will offer ______________.
All of the answers are correct
Space-based imagery supports the full range of military intelligence activities including ______________.
All of the answers are correct
Several satellites in low and medium earth orbits can provide coverage of targets on the order of ______________.
Not seconds
A significant limiting factor regarding space-based ISR sensors is ______________.
Not wide area of sensor coverage
Select True or False: Intelligence is the product resulting from the collecting, processing, integrating, analyzing,
evaluating, and interpreting available information concerning foreign countries or areas.
True
The most significant advantage of a space-based ISR sensor is ______________.
the ability to provide continuous and focused coverage
Integrated tactical warning and Attack Assessment:
Select True or False: Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) will combine scanning with staring sensors to provide
continuous tracks of tactical missiles.
True
Select True or False: DSP detected Iraqi Scud missile launches during Desert Storm.
True
Select True or False: Space systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches. Voice and data warning information is
immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time to support tactical decision making to counter the threat.
True
The SBIRS ground architecture______________________.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing with the diverse threats of the post-communist
era.

False
Select True or False: The Defense Support Program (DSP) constellation of geosynchronous early-warning satellites is a
quintessential Cold War system which was originally conceived to provide warning of strategic-missile launches against
the United States and its allies.
True
Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning _____________________.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: The ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became operational in 2001, fully replacing the old
DSP ground architecture the following year. As a result, tactical users got more mileage out of DSP satellites in Iraqi
Freedom than they did in the earlier Persian Gulf War.
True
Theater missile warning data is:
Gathered by ground stations, then processed and disseminated over communications networks, including
assets.

space

Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Attack Assessment" is
defined as _______________________.
the evaluation of information to determine the nature and objective of an attack
Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Tactical Warning" is
defined as _______________________.
a specific threat event that is occurring
Select True or False: U.S. exchanges missile detection and warning information with its allies and coalition partners.
True
The constellation of satellites that provides notification of missile launch is the ______________.
Not Threat Launch Detection System
A substantial limitation of the DSP satellites that was partially corrected with the deployment of the Space-Based
Infrared System (SBIRS) ground control element was ______________.
Not deconflicting friendly cruise missile launches
NOT: detecting the launch plumes of long-range ballistic missiles
Satellite- and ground-based systems provide detection and communicate warning of an adversarys use of ballistic
missiles or nuclear detonations (NUDET) to ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Joint Tactical Ground Stations (JTAGS) is a deployable system that consists of deployable trailers and
communications equipment.
True
Environmental Monitoring:
Select True or False: Space systems provide forecasts, alerts, and warnings of weather conditions from space.
True
Select True or False: Space systems are the military commanders primary and sometimes sole source of environmental
data.

True
Select True or False: Weather data never affects the choice of weapons for a target or the platform that delivers them.
False
A unique form of weather,______________ weather, commonly disrupts or degrades communications.
Space
Select True or False: Observation of the space environment is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space.
This enables U.S. military joint forces to determine the impact of environmental factors on both adversary and friendly
space and weapons systems.
True
Weather affects ________________________.
All the answers are correct
____________ support from space is needed for weather forecasts and operational planning.
Meteorological and Oceanographic
Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features can be used by the commander to
_________________.
avoid submarine or maritime mine threats
concentrate forces in an area where an adversary is most likely to be operating
Weather satellites have a limited multi-spectral capability, typically gathering data in _____ spectral bands.
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Space weather can degrade or disrupt various forms of communications.
True
Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features such as _______ are critical for undersea
warfare operations.
All the answers are correct
Observation of the space environment ______________.
is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space and contributes directly to battlespace

awareness

Within the Space Force Enhancement functions, environmental monitoring provides forecast and conditions in the
following environments ______________.
meteorological, oceanographic, and space
A significant advantage of space-based environmental sensors is that the ______________.
data can be gathered from remote or hostile areas when there are no surface reporting stations
A disadvantage of space-based environmental sensing is the ______________.
reduction in image quality due to distance
Select True or False: Some meteorological parameters needed by forecasters for operational support cannot currently
be accurately determined from satellites, including heights of cloud bases and visibility restrictions.
True
Select True or False: Imagery capabilities can provide joint force planners with current information on surface
conditions, such as vegetation and land use.

True
The communication bands in which the military operates satellite communication systems are ______________.
UHF, SHF, EHF, commercial
Since most communications satellites are in geosynchronous orbit, the region of the world which receives least coverage
is the ______________ region.
Polar
______________ satellite systems are more complex and survivable and possess features not found on other systems.
Not Synchronous
Select True or False: Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate jamming.
False
Communications:
MILSTAR stands for:
military strategic and tactical relay system satellite network
Select True or False: It is impossible for a unit to lose their primary communication link with the military strategic and
tactical relay system (MILSTAR) satellite network.
False
Heavy solar activity ___________________________.
can disrupt satellite communications for short periods of time, causing communications outages in extreme

cases

Select True or False: SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EHF systems, are particularly affected by rain (the
higher the frequency, the greater the effect). Rain not only degrades the signal but, if heavy enough, can cause a
complete outage.
True
Wideband satellite communications support ________________.
All the answers are correct
Significant advantages of satellite communication systems over terrestrial communication systems are
_________________________.
global coverage, security, flexibility
Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with:
All the answers are correct
Select True or False: Requirements for SATCOM service worldwide significantly exceed the capacity of current
MILSATCOM systems.
True
Select True or False: Protected satellite communications permits the use of smaller antennas that increase its mobility,
enabling wider use of submarine, airborne, and other mobile terminals.
True
The communication bands in which the military operates satellite communication systems are ______________.
UHF, SHF, EHF, commercial

Generally, the ______________ the frequency (e.g., SHF, EHF), the ______________ the available bandwidth and the
higher the data rate capacity.
higher / wider
Position, Timing, Velocity and Navigation:
Global positioning system (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation occurs more
often ______________.
NOT: near the equator and the poles
Select True or False: The use of nulling antennas/ filters, and the correct placement of GPS receivers on various
platforms all improve jamming resistance.
True
Select True or False: The default navigation grid used by global positioning system (GPS) is the World Geodetic System
1984 (WGS-84).
True
NAVSTAR GPS provides the primary space-based source for U.S. and allied:
All the answers are correct
Although the presence of the highly accurate navigational information from the Global Positioning System constellation
is exploitable by adversary forces, it is unlikely the Global Positioning System signal will be interdicted to interrupt the
signal availability to adversary forces because ________________.
signal interruption will affect the tremendous civil dependence upon Global Positioning System
GPS navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation is a local effect that has daily and seasonal
variations. The effects are worse at ________ and will usually taper off by _______.
local sunset / local midnight
Benefits to Naval forces from GPS include:
All the answers are correct
Global Positioning System is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces to establish a _______________, where
all forces are geographically referenced correctly and precisely synchronized operations are possible.
Common grid
Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. Units relying on hand-held GPS receivers in areas of ______may have
diminished GPS capabilities.
dense vegetation or steep terrain
The Air Force space squadrons controlling the orbit of global positioning system (GPS) satellites during combat
operations during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM were able to improve the navigation accuracy to approximately
______________ meters on a planned basis.
NOT: 8.3
The global positioning system (GPS) navigational solution depends on having a number of satellites in view from any
position on Earth. Based upon this requirement, many satellites have been placed in orbit. Currently, there are
approximately ______________ GPS satellites in orbit.
28

The space based navigational system used by U.S. forces for position and timing reference is the global positioning
system (GPS). This system relies upon the receipt of signals from at least ______________ satellites simultaneously.
NOT: 6
Global positioning system (GPS) is extremely useful in air operations. Accurate position, velocity, and time enhances
______________.
ALL ANSWERS CORRECT
The global positioning system (GPS) constellation provides continuous global service. The type of ______________ used
and the number and ______________ of the satellites in view determine ______________.
receiver / geometric configuration / accuracy
Because of ______________ of satellites in the global positioning system (GPS) constellation, a single satellite failure
______________ cause significant degradation of the system.
the number and orbit location / will not
Significant advantages offered by global positioning system (GPS) to operational forces are ______________.
NOT: coverage, high data rate, and accuracy
Data and Information:
Select True or False: The concept of operations and commander's intent should convey only a general idea or mental
image of the operation and the desired outcome. Details will always come later.
False
Information systems consist of _____________________.
entire infrastructure, organization, personnel, and components that collect, process, store, transmit, display,
disseminate, and act on information
The higher you are in the chain of command, the more you rely on _________________.
Information systems
The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C architecture for the following reason.
Situational awareness among subordinate commanders
All are true statements about information EXCEPT ___________.
information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an officer
Information is used to help create an understanding of the situation as the basis for making a decision. This imagebuilding information will contain _____________ .
status and disposition of our own forces
_____________ is the lifeblood of any C system.
Information
New information that conflicts with our existing image requires us either to __________.
validate the image or revise it
Select True or False: Secondhand information normally elicits the same natural intuitive evaluation of reliability.
False

Decisions should be based on ___________.


Information
FORCEnet is enabled by ______________.
information technology
NAVY INFORMATION NETWORKS
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) is the Navys central operating authority for ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
IT-21 is the Navys ______________.
Afloat network
______________ is the Navy component of the Global Information Grid (GIG).
NOT: Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR)
______________ delivers the naval component of the Global Information Grid.
NOT: Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
The classified (high) side of the Defense Information Systems Network is called ______________.
SIPRnet
Navy/Marine Corps Intranet (NMCI) is the Navys ______________.
NOT: None of the answers are correct.
Consolidation of the Navys network infrastructure is taking place as a part of ______________.
FORCEnet
______________ advocates for the Fleet in the development and fielding of information technology.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
The unclassified (low) side of the Defense Information Systems Network is called ______________.
NIPRnet
DISA is a combat support agency under the ______________.
Secretary of Defense (SecDef)
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Commands (SPAWARs) origins date back to the Navys support of the
______________ program during the 1960s.
Space
The global battlespace consists of ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
The concept of designing weapon systems for the total battle force instead of individual platforms and weapons was
called ______________.
NOT: The Battle Force Systems Concept
Select True or False: The naval networking environment presently contains numerous legacy networks.
True

C2:
_________________ drive(s) the command and control process.
Information
In addition to mission responsibility, with respect to personnel, Command includes the authority and responsibility for:
health & welfare
discipline
morale
Feedback is a vital element of control; it gives the commander a way to:
Monitor events
Adapt to changing circumstances
Adjust the allocation of resources
The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces through ____________________.
a command and control system
Select True or False: Command is defined as the authority that a commander in the armed forces lawfully exercises over
subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment.
True
Select True or False: C refers both to the process and to the system by which the commander decides what must be
done and by how he sees that his decisions are carried out.
True
Select True or False: Effective training, education, and doctrine will make it more likely that subordinates will take the
proper action in combat. This is control before the action but nonetheless is still control.
True
While the conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction, it is the subconscious brain
(______________________) that monitors and regulates most actions.
subordinate commanders and forces
Using a central nervous system analogy, the commander is the conscious brain of the military body and C is
______________.
the system of nerves that carry information to him from the senses (the information-gathering units and sensors)
The focus of naval C, as well as the driver of C is ______________.
NOT: communication links
Commanders use information to support decision-making and, through ________________ to extend their dominance
over the forces of the adversary.
subordinate commanders
______________ is the cornerstone of effective command and is the catalyst that inspires effort, courage, and
commitment.
Leadership
Information systems ______________.
make the right information available to the commander at the right time

Decision Making:
Which of the following is the most important stage of the decision and execution cycle?
NOT: Observe
Select True or False: Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the operational commander, all phases of
the cycle are active at each echelon of command.
True
Select True or False: During the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the execution of operations and
gauges the results. This is intended merely to gauge results. It is important not to reinitiate the decision cycle based
upon post action phase observations.
False
Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences the way we _______, _________ , and
_________ .
observe / decide / act
Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in _______________.
situational awareness
_______________ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander makes decisions and exercises authority over
subordinate commanders in accomplishing an assigned mission.
C2
After the commander derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his next step is to ___________ on a
course of action and develop a plan.
Decide
______________ is the key to the entire decision and execution cycle.
Orientation
The commanders orientation is rooted in what he believes to be the current "reality" of the battlespace. This image of
reality is derived from his _________, __________, __________, and situation reports from subordinate commanders.
direct observation / sensors / intelligence systems
Certainty is a function of ______________.
Knowledge
Knowledge is the result of ______________, ______________, and fusing data that have been processed and evaluated
as to their reliability, relevance, and importance
analyzing / correlating
What is the key element of the command and control process?
Not: Decision
Orientation is the result of a ______________ process that turns data gathered from the environment into knowledge
and understanding.
Cognitive
The OODA focuses on the ______________ as the crucial element in the entire process of C.
NOT: All of the answers are correct.

Select True or False: In a well-trained force, imbued with initiative, the lower we can push the decision-making
threshold, the swifter our decision and execution cycle will become.
TRUE
A key tenet of naval warfare is that commanders at every level must understand their seniors intent, so they can
______________ in harmony with the broader, more general efforts at higher levels.
NOT: execute and deliver
Forcenet:
Select True or False: In a world of complex interrelationships, where a single shot can have global ramifications, naval
professionals must share databases with government agencies and nongovernmental organizations.
True
By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate the
tempo of operations by:
Enhancing deterrence
Controlling crises
Sustaining warfighting superiority
The Navy's success in Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed to unprecedented tactical flexibility
made possible by:
Coordination over secure data links and voice circuits
Precision-guided munitions made effective by these systems
Advanced sensing and targeting systems in the air and on the ground
____________________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats, locate and destroy anti-access
challenges and intercept missiles.
Sea shield
____________________ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions afloat.
Sea Basing
Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high endurance organic
communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre networking.
True
Identify the statement that does not represent a limitation or technology or the result of limited technology in todays
battle space.
Increasing lethal aircraft, sub-surface, and surface combat platforms
Identify the statement that does NOT represent a capability of technology in the current battle space.
Standard joint protocols in the Navys network architecture
FORCEnets goal is to arm our forces with superior ______________.
Knowledge
Naval forces will complement ______________ collection programs with widely dispersed sensing systems that
contribute vital data to the planning and execution of trans-global operations.
NOT: joint

COMMUNICATION FOR THE WARFIGHTER


What are the two types of channels for transmitting electromagnetic waves?
Free space and guided medium
Open and guarded
Clear and cluttered
Unshielded and shielded
The term dBm refers to a power level ______________.
Unit referenced to 1 milliwatt
______________ is NOT a type of satellite orbit.
Medium earth
Geostationary/geosynchronous
High earth
Low earth
What type of device converts an electrical signal into electromagnetic waves for transmission through a channel?
Transmitter
Transducer
Transponder
Modifier
Which type of cable enables the longest transmission distances?
UTP
Coaxial
Fiber optic
STP
Select True or False: The phenomenon of destructive interference results in the complete cancellation of both
interfering waves.
False
SElect True or False: Baseband modulation uses a carrier signal
False
Which is NOT one of the types of digital passband modulation?
Phase angle keying
Select True or False: Atmospheric noise is most significant at frequencies above 30 MHz.
True
False
A sinusoidal function has which three parameters?
Amplitude, frequency, and phase angle
The link margin is the ______________.
ratio of power received to receiver sensitivity
Ground waves achieve ranges longer than line-of-sight by ______________.
hugging the surface of the earth, especially over water
UTP cable has ______________ pairs of wires.
4
Select True or False: Baseband modulation uses a carrier signal.
False
There is a peak in atmospheric absorption at 180 GHz due to ______________.
water vapor

An antenna that radiates its power equally in all directions is called a/an ______________ radiator.
equilateral
multi-directional
isotropic
multi-phase
Select True or False: Noise introduced by a receiver is called internal noise.
TRUE
What type of device converts audio/visual information into an electrical signal?
Transducer
Seapower 21:
Sea Power 21 divides the Navys roles and missions into three fundamental concepts:
Sea Basing Projecting joint operational independence
Sea Strike Projecting precise and persistent offensive power
Sea Shield Projecting global defensive assurance
Select True or False: SeaPower 21 sets the stage for minimal increases in naval precision, reach, and connectivity. Joint
operations, though important, will come secondary to blue water capabilities and a shore based support infrastructure.
Innovative concepts and technologies that integrate sea, land, air, space, and cyberspace will be incorporated if, and
when, the need arises.
False
Select True or False: SeaPower 21 represents a clear vision of the Navys part in future joint warfighting in an
unpredictable strategic environment typified by regional and transnational threats.
True
Select True or False: A major premise of SeaPower 21 is that we will continue the evolution of U.S. naval power from the
blue-water, war-at-sea focus to an emphasis of From the Sea and Forward from the Sea, strategy.
True
Identify the elements of FORCEnet.
Sea Trial, Sea Warrior, Sea Enterprise
The SeaPower 21 concept is enabled by _________ and that, in turn, is enabled by ___________ .
FORCEnet, information technology

Force Multiplication: Sensors Throughout Military History:


Which of the following sensor types uses sound to detect a target?
Sonar
Infrared systems are best used to detect ____________________.
a warm object against a relatively cool background
Night vision goggles see in the dark by using ____________________.
ambient light
Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used in which weapon?
AIM-9 Sidewinder missile

Select True or False: The AIM-9 Sidewinder missile has proven to be a disappointment as its limited success has not
justified its high cost.
False
Improving our ability to survey the environment improves our capacity to ____________________.
defend against attack
seize the initiative
The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
Although first patented in 1904, radar wasnt very militarily useful until ____________________.
World War II
Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of German submarine activity during World
War I?
Sonar

How do Sensor Systems Work?:


A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ___________.
has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire range
If system A has an antenna gain of 1 and system B has an antenna gain of 4, which statement is not true?
System Bs signals power per unit area is one fourth that of system As signal.
A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having __________.
a transmitter in one location and the receiver in another
Which is not typically considered a component of a sensor system?
Warhead
Which statement is true?
Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit change in the parameter being
Refraction refers to ______________.
the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the medium the signal is traveling
Interference may be ___________.
constructive and destructive
Spectroscopy is used to determine __________.
what wavelengths are coming off a target

Understanding the Frequency Spectrum:


The speed of sound through water changes with ____________________.
water temperature

measured.
through

A hull-mounted sonar transmits a 3 KHz acoustic signal into fresh water at 20 degrees C. What is the wavelength of the
signal?
.5m
Select True or False: The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at 20 degrees C would be the
same for underwater and above water platforms.
False
Select True or False: The elasticity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water.
False
Select True or False: For a given frequency, a larger sensor can receive more effectively than a smaller one
False
Select True or False: Sensor size is proportional to wavelength.
True
What is the most appropriate platform for an acoustic sensor operating at 20 Hz?
Surface ship
What is an alternative way of writing 7.4 x 108 Hz?
740 MHz
Gamma rays are a good example of ____________________.
high frequency and low wavelength
Select True or False: The terms standard industry, standard international, and standard military are synonymous when
referring to frequency band designations.
False

Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems:


Biological weapons detectors are currently deployed aboard ________.
None of the answers are correct
Select True or False: The military fields and continues to use systems that may be generations behind the civilian state of
the art in order to avoid being forced to utilize unreliable assets.
True
The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe ____________________.
multiple false targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target
Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat ability more efficient, more cost
effective and safer by ________________.
All the answers are correct
Of the various optical sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abilities in the future include
________________.
unmanned aerial vehicles

Electronic Warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual threats to its platform because
____________.
many nations utilize commercial radar on their naval ships which may lead to misidentification
Select True or False: In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement sequence, one can never have
too much sensor provided information. The more information that can be collected, the easier the human decision
making process is in a tense, stressful environment.
False
Erratic environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except ____________.
None of the answers are correct
Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming?
Cover pulse jamming
A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is __________.
that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar
The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a target's radar at unexpected times is used in __________.
cover pulse jamming
___________ is one of the current challenges to increasing our ability to avoid being detected by an infrared sensor.
How to increase a platforms ability to cool and diffuse exhaust gases

Maintaining Technical Superiority:


Select True or False: All officers that have been involved in Navy program management are barred from working for
defense contractors after retirement because to do so would be a conflict of interest.
False
Navy officers that directly contribute to Navy program management are typically ___________________.
All the answers are correct
___________________ control(s) large scope programs not falling within the scope of a Systems Command.
Program Executive Offices
Unmanned autonomous sensor carrying vehicles are being developed in order to ___________________.
increase personnel safety
Select True or False: Because of the rapid increase of computing power, and every indication that such increases will
continue at least for at least the next 10 years, there is no longer the danger of what is commonly referred to as
information overload.
False
Select True or False: The Navy's development of new technologies is managed completely by Department of the Navy
civilian personnel.
False

Computer for the Warfighter:

Select True or False: Embedded microprocessors are tailored to limited applications.


True
The compiler converts ____________________.
high level code into assembly language code
Select True or False: One of the keys to effective personal computer use is to isolate the user from high level
programming language and hardware.
False
Select True or False: The microprocessors in personal computers are called limited purpose microprocessors.
False
Select True or False: Access times for non-volatile memory tend to be slower than for volatile memory.
True
The assembler converts ____________________.
assembly language code into binary data
Select True or False: The volatile memory in a computer is used for the boot-up process.
False
The types of memory/storage in a computer, listed in order from fastest to slowest access are ____________________.
register, cache, RAM, mass storage
What are the four subsystems that make up a computer systems hardware?
Microprocessor, memory, mass storage, input/output devices
The group of logic devices that can perform mathematical operations on data in the microprocessors registers is called
the ____________________.
arithmetic logic unit
What controls the switching of states in the control unit?
Clock
____________________ is the process by which excess RAM is temporarily stored in mass storage.
Virtual memory
____________________ is the most complicated of the resource management functions.
Processor management

Stealth Technology:
Which sensor provides the best resolution for radar imaging?
NOT: Laser radar
To determine the RCS of a cylinder, the key consideration is ____________________.
polarization of the cylinder
A B-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because of ____________________.

large RCS and IR signature


Select True or False: Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck, its RCS should be much larger.
False
Select True or False: Non-imaging sensor systems can establish the presence of a target, but cannot provide information
regarding movement.
False
Methods used to reduce RCS include ____________________.
avoiding large, flat surfaces and using radar absorbing material
Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ____________________.
complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems
Select True or False: Scattering, which occurs when an electromagnetic wave encounters a physical object, is the
dispersal of particle beams of radiation into a range of directions.
True
Select True or False: At changing higher frequencies, the RCS of a sphere changes dramatically.
False
A critical capability of sensor systems is to ____________________.
distinguish specific target electronic signatures from background data
Select True or False: Stealth technology helps to prevent detection, but once detected a stealth platform can easily be
tracked and targeted.
False
The primary means of aircraft detection is ______________.
radar
RCS is measured in ______________.
NOT: radians

Electro-Optic Technology:
Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum?
IR
The amount of energy in an electromagnetic wave is ____________________.
proportional to the frequency
Select True or False: Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target, from which the
attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target.
False
Select True or False: The goal of precision guided munitions is to steer the ordnance so that the reflected spot on the
target is centered on the detector.
True

Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.


False
____________________ is an example of long range application of passive emission detection.
Thermal imaging
The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ____________________.
placing the designating force at risk of detection
The accuracy of a typical laser designator is approximately ____________________.
5m
An example of long wavelength, low frequency is ____________________.
AM radio waves
The optical spectrum consists of ____________________.
IR, visible and UV
Select True or False: Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good visual conditions.
True

Radar:
Select True or False: Larger targets exhibit up Doppler while smaller targets have down Doppler.
False
Blind speeds are a problem with ____________________.
pulse Doppler
How long will it take a radar signal to travel to and from a target 90 KM from the radar?
0.6 milliseconds
Select True or False: Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target size.
False
Select True or False: Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object from which the signal
reflected.
True
Select True or False: A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arranged in rectangular
or circular arrays.
True
Pulse radar is effective at ____________________.
determining a targets relative velocity
Select True or False: Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or away from a radar.
True
Select True or False: A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as the
transmitted energy.

False
What is the maximum unambiguous range of a radar with a PRF of 5 KHz?
30 km
A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ____________________.
mixer, amplifier, and discriminator
____________________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the target.
Inverse synthetic aperture

EVOLUTION OF THE U.S. SUBMARINE


The Alligator was the first submarine to ______________.
employ an air purifying system and deploy a diver while submerged
The modified Mk 27 was the first torpedo used by the United States Submarine Fleet capable of ______________.
NOT: being launched while the submarine was submerged
NOT: using homing technology
Identify the key technological advancements of the 19th century that were instrumental to the further development of
submarines in the United States.
Advances in the internal combustion engine, battery and electric motors and the invention of the torpedo
What was a primitive type of passive sonar system, first introduced aboard submarines in 1917?
NOT: Underwater acoustic transducers
Which United States submarine successfully completed the first fully-submerged circumnavigation of the earth in 60
days and 21 hours?
USS Triton
During World War II, how many aircraft carriers did the United States submarine fleet sink in the Pacific?
8
The USS Nautilus (SSN-571), launched in 1958, was the first ______________ for the United States.
nuclear powered submarine
Identify the mission(s) of the Los Angeles-class submarines. Select all that apply.
ALL ARE CORRECT
Which treaty was responsible for limiting the construction of U.S. naval bases in the far east?
Five-Power Naval Limitation Treaty
Which submarine successfully sank the USS Housatonic?
NOT: Alligator
What was the benefit of the separate main ballast and trim tanks that were first introduced aboard the USS Holland?
Improved control of the submarine
The ______________ and ______________ were the first two Navy submarines to be equipped with diesel engines.

USS Skipjack, USS Sturgeon


Regulus, the first strategic long-range nuclear-armed guided missile deployed by the Navy, had several major
disadvantages that led to it being replaced. What were those disadvantages? Select all that apply.
ALL ARE CORRECT
What was the advantage of sail mounted vice bow mounted planes?
Increased bow mounted sonar efficiency
Which class of submarine has a mission of strategic deterrence?
OHIO
EVOLUTION OF SURFACE COMBATANTS
Radar was first installed on a Navy ship ______________.
in the years immediately prior to World War II
Surface to air missiles using beam-riding guidance ______________.
require that the launching platforms fire control radar keep its beam pointed at the target
The widespread employment of torpedo boats by the end of the 19th century ______________.
represented a relatively inexpensive but potent threat to battleships
Which of the following is not true?
NOT: A breech loading gun generally has a higher rate of fire than a muzzle loaded gun.
The so-called ABCD ships were significant in that they ______________.
were considered the beginning of the modern Navy
Turboelectric drive propulsion plants ______________.
NOT: use a reduction gear to allow the turbine and the propeller to turn at their most efficient speeds
A rifled gun generally ______________ than a smooth-bore gun of similar size.
is more accurate and has a longer range
Aegis ______________.
is able to track over 100 targets and direct over 20 missiles simultaneously
The first wartime sinking of a warship by an anti-ship missile ______________.
NOT: was the sinking of a British ship during the Falklands War
EVOLUTION OF CARRIER AVIATION
Which of the following statements is true?
The first takeoff and landing on a Navy warship were conducted by a civilian.
The introduction of the angled flight deck in the 1950s ______________.
led to many World War II-era carriers being retrofitted with angled flight decks
The Navys current fighter aircraft is an ______________.
F/A-18 Hornet
Which of the following statements is true?

Aircraft with folding wings were first introduced prior to World War II.
Which of the following statements is true?
The Navys first aircraft carrier was a converted collier.
Which of the following statements is true?
The H-60 helicopter has replaced virtually all carrier and carrier battle group support ship rotary-wing

aircraft.

Which was the first U.S. ship built from the keel up as an aircraft carrier?
NOT: USS Enterprise
NOT: USS Langley
Todays aircraft carriers are equipped with ______________.
steam catapults
The first operational jet-powered military aircraft was fielded by ______________.
the German Luftwaffe
The first Navy aircraft carriers designed for Fleet operations rather than independent operations were ______________.
the Yorktown-class
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The angled flight deck was an American development adopted later by the British Royal Navy.
The first successful shipboard launch of an airplane from a Navy warship was ______________.
financed by a civilian aviation enthusiast
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT: The Washington Naval Treaty did not affect the U.S. Navy.
The Navys first experience with operating in the air domain occurred ______________.
in the 1930s
Which of the following statements is true?
NOT: World War II carriers had the ability to conduct landing operations even when launching an entire aircraft
group.

strike

ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM
Block 2
SECTION 1
1. Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? Precision and automatic response
2. Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner? From most senior award to most junior
3. Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? To use as a tool to punish
your Sailors
4 As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions?
Awards ceremony
5. During the Revolutionary War, ______________ developed a set of standardized drills for General
George Washington and the Continental Army.
Baron von Steuben
6. Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? Leaving
the shipyards after 120 days
7. Who is known as the Drillmaster of the American Revolution? Baron von Steuben
8. What type of command is the first word in Parade Rest? Preparatory
9. At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, ______________ was the leaders' primary tool to achieve
discipline in ranks. fear
10. What do you call the extreme right or left of an element? FLANK
11. As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position?
Attention
12. Sailors are in a _____________, when placed in formation one behind the other? File
13. Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters? Refueling
evolution
14. What is the distance between ranks?

40

15. A/an__________ can be a single person or a section of a larger formation.


Element
File
16. When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice?
inflection
17. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the
sailors? OPEN RANKS

SECTION 2
1. When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute? The
right front passenger seat salutes
2. What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? The requirement to
generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations
3. When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on? LEFT
4. Who exits a military vehicle first? The senior leaves first
5. How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army? The hat insignia and
rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal
6. What is the U.S. Armys highest enlisted pay grade? Sergeant Major
7. What is meant by under arms? When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
8. At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? At six paces
or closest point of approach.
9. The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of ? Chief
Master Sergeant
10. What is the definition of prescribable items? Uniform items which may be directed
or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at
the individuals discretion unless otherwise directed.
11. What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?
Staff Sergeant
12. What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign?country is plat
should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign country is?
Salute

SECTION 3
1. Presence with a purpose provides what?
routine, pulse
2. Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP? 2001
Quadrennial Defense Review
3. Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment
training cycle (IDTC)? Commander, Fleet Forces Command
4. When is a CSG considered surge ready? When they have completed integrated phase training
5. The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories?
Maintenance
Emergency surge, surge ready surge deploy
Emergency surge, surge ready, routine
6. The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what? Fleet Readiness Plan
7. What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle? A 27-month cycle
8. At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is? a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan
9. The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days? 6
10. When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable? After successfully completing all
necessary capabilities training including completion of underway sustainment phase training and
certification of the unit for forward deployed operations
11. Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet? Sea
Basing
12. What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?
6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days
6 CSG deployed plus 2
6 CSG available to deploy within 90 days
13. Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what?
Maintain its relevance
14. Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months?
Approximately 16 months
15. The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on
deployments in support of specific national priorities such as?
homeland defense
16. When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status? When they have successfully completed their
unit level phase training phase

Section 4
1. The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the? hat device
2. Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893?
U.S. Navy Regulation Circular Number 1
General Order Number 409
3. On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of
the following was a defined role? The top technical authority and expert within a rating
4. The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to? Represent the enlisted force to Navy
leadership on professional and personnel issues
5. The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change? It designated chief petty
officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1
6. What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master Chief Petty
Officer of the Navy? The Retention Task Force of 1964
7. In the early 1900s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first? Voids in critical Navy billets,
normally in their own command
8. During the early 1900s chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointment based on?
Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer
9. On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy. GMCM
Delbert Black
10. What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
Report to CNP
Travel extensively
11. On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first? Senior Enlisted
Advisor of the Navy
12. The duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were? broadened to include
contributing to command-level policy formulation
13. The paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year? 1958
14. The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to? Strengthen chief petty officer
standards
15. According to the 1918 BlueJackets Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were ______
Technical expert and example setter

SECTION 5

1. TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for?


resource sponsors
2. Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
Peace-time operational environment
Environment in which a command is expected to operate
Adverse weather conditions
3. Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform

4. OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only
permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ______________. national security and/or to
ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
5. Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? Environment in which a command
is expected to operate
6. Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and
______________.
warfare sponsor requirements
personal inventory
7. Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpower requirements and
authorizations? Activity Manning Document (AMD)
8. Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)?
Mission and warfare sponsors
Congress
9. OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and Procedures, defines
manpower management as a? methodical process
10. In manpower management, commands are responsible for what? Submitting requests to revise, add, or
delete requirements
11. For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement
functions? Enlisted
12. The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower requirements as a basis for
budget decisions defines ______________.
manpower management
13. The AMD is a single source document that provides? Quantitative and qualitative manpower
requirements
14. How often is the EDVR published? Monthly
15. What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and end strength?
Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS)
16. Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and personnel distribution?
AMD
17. Which document defines military manpower authorizations allocated to a naval activity?

AMD

18. Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.


commands, Sailors
Sailors, commands
Sailors, Navy

CUSTOMS, HONORS, TRADITIONS, AND CEREMONIES


1. proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage? Chief of Naval Operations,
Admiral Jay L. Johnson
2. Why was the song Anchors Aweigh written? To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an
Army-Navy football game in 1906
3. What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?
The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it.
4. What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units?
Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet
5. Which of these statements is true regarding Anchors Aweigh?
It is played today at many athletic events and parades.
6. Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navys heritage. These days are
____________________. Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navys Birthday (13 October)
7. Why did some Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy? All the answers are correct.
8. Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of Anchors Aweigh? Midshipman
George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so that they could be usable today at a wide
range of events.
Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanza.
9. A popular use of the Navy Hymn is for the funerals of those who have served in or with the United
States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn was ____________________. Franklin D.
Roosevelt
10. What person or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain services from a sea
service in opposing the British military? George Washington used funds to contract for several schooners
to intercept British supply ships.
11. In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of
Independence? All the answers are correct.
12. What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet
units?
Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet headquarters.
13. Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to
commemorate that World War II battle? All the answers are correct.
14. What is the Navy Hymns connection to the United States Naval Academy? The first stanza of the
Navy Hymn is sung to close each chapel service during Sundays Divine Services
15. Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what
purpose(s)? All the answers are correct.

16. The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason? Until that point, the Japanese Navy
was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of
the United States.
17. The author of Anchors Aweigh, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the
midshipmen? All the answers are correct.
18. Why was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradition and history of the naval service? It
was on that day in 1775 that the Continental Congress voted to establish a Navy by outfitting two sailing
vessels to intercept British transports
19. Where did the song known as the Navy Hymn to United States Navy men and women originate?
It is one of many compositions by American bandmaster John Philip Sousa.
A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words around 1860.

Section 2
1. Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of
longitude?
Golden
2. The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is?
Mossback
3. Initiation rites that include hazing are ____________________.
a violation of SECNAV Instructions
4. Among those eligible for burial at sea are ____________________.
All the answers are correct
5. Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat?
Avoid walking on varnished areas.
Hands and arms are allowed outside the boat to enjoy the breeze
6. A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor
should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency
7. The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle
Blue Nose
8. Which of the following describes the burial at sea ceremony?
Three volleys are fired, followed by Taps.
9. Formal dinners promote
All the answers are correct

10. The Persian Excursion certificate inducts Sailors into which special group?
Mystic Society of One Thousand and One Nights
11. Which statement is an example of proper boat etiquette?
Juniors board the boat first.
12. If all of the following are in a boat, which one is ultimately responsible for its safe operation?
Surface Warfare Lieutenant
13. Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ____________________.
Pollywogs
14. What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to shore?
Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914.
15. The oldest of all seafaring traditions is _______.
the burial at sea

Section 3
1. Before commissioning, a ship must
complete and pass a series of Sea Trials
2. Ship launching ceremonies
began at the dawn of recorded history
3. Hailing protocols
are not published in any regulation
4. The Navys battle streamers
span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo
reflect Naval battles prior to WWII
reflect only declared wars
5. The christening ceremony includes
naming of the vessel, knocking supports away so the ship glides into the sea, and then breaking a bottle of
champagne across the bow
6. The U.S. Navy
has identical practices for streamers as the other services
was the first service to adopt battle streamers
was the last service to adopt battle streamers
7. The sloop Concord is notable because
it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman
8. While a ship is at anchor or at a pier
the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck
9. What is the tradition of the quarterdeck?
All the answers are correct
10. On modern ships, the quarterdeck
is designated by the Commanding Officer
11. The Returning Home Pennant
is created by plank owners of the ship
is an extra long commissioning pennant
12. The Returning Home Pennant
is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port
13. You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You
call out Boat ahoy! and the boats coxswain replies, John Paul Jones! He is
announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat
14. All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT
walking on the port side
15. Ship christening in the U.S. Navy
first was recorded for the USS Constitution in 1797
16. All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT
the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive

17. Boat hailing protocols became necessary


during Vietnam, when junior officers in Swift boats failed to recognize seniors
in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required
to relieve the OOD of the burden of saluting people in approaching boats
18. While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD)
All the answers are correct
19. Todays Returning Home Pennant ____________________.
All the answers are correct.
20. Ships in the U.S. Navy ____________________.
are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ships sponsor and other prominent guests in
attendance
21. Stars on Navy streamers ____________________.
follow the practice of a bronze star for each action, and a silver star in lieu of five bronze stars

Section 4
1. The most traditional aspect of an official inspection is
side honors are rendered to the official
2. There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which
receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are
Washingtons Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day
3. Morning and evening colors refers to
ceremonies in which the national ensign is raised and lowered
4. The tradition of the shadow box
dates from the days of sail in the British Navy, wards off bad luck if the persons shadow were to hit the
pier before the person, and includes a ceremonial box to contain things that reflect his/her tour
5. The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is
passing honors
6. Gun salutes are currently offered
in five second intervals
7. In which of these circumstances are passing honors rendered?
A small boat carrying the mayor of the Greek village you are anchored near comes to pay an official visit.
8. What is meant by dressing ship?
Hoisting a display of flags in celebration of a festival.
9. At the end of their careers, all Sailors may
All the answers are correct.
10. Half-masting the national ensign
is a symbol of mourning and respect
11. Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies?
All officers and crew face the ensign and salute
12. Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in
MILPERSMAN 1800-010
Commanding Officers orders
ships history

13. Passing honors are


All the answers are correct.
14. The Change of Command Ceremony always includes
all hands called to quarters, orders read, and statements: I relieve you, Sir, and I stand relieved
15. Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________.
in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable
shots deliberately were aimed away from targets

Ethics and Professionalism for the Warfighter

Section 1
1. The Principle of Utility is
All of the answers are correct
2. The Western ethical heritage is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant custom. Today,
military ethics are derived from our Services
core values and heritage
3. Thoughts such as: life has no purpose or meaning, truth can not be known, and what I do doesn't
matter best typify which one of the following?
Nihilism
4. The idea of absolute truth is not a fundamental tenet of the military concept of duty
False
5. Character-based ethics argues
right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue
6. Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legitimate authority from an area
in the wake of war or national disaster typifies:
Freedom-based ethics
7. In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral
standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations
True
8. A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion
that is true typifies
a reason-based approach to truth and justice
9. Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel.
All the answers are correct
10. Freedom-based ethics focus on
decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses
11. Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdales leadership were founded upon the ethical
approach of
character-based ethics
12. Relativism is a subset of the following ethical system
Freedom-based ethics
13. Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured.
True
14. Ethical systems may be generally classified as freedom-based, rule-based, or
character-based
15. An ethical person is
someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live
16. Relativism postulates

All the answers are correct


17. The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the greatest happiness
for the greatest number.
False
18. Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of __________________.
consequentialism
19. Thoughts such as: I do whatever I want, no one can stop me, and I take what I want and harm
anyone who gets in my way best typify which one of the following?
Criminality
20. Utilitarianism can best be represented by the following phrase:
Truth cannot be known; what I do doesnt matter.
Virtue is its own reward.
The greatest happiness for the greatest number.

Section 2
1. is the problematic philosophy of the ethical standard of doing what is best for me; it does nothing to
preclude evil.
Egoism
2. Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral
effectiveness
3. Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military
professionals?
All the answers are correct.
4. Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. What is the ideal
toward which moral development leads?
It is the path to becoming a person of character.
5. Well-developed knowledge, abilities, and values in which of the following is NOT necessary for
effective moral development?
Moral relativism
6. Moral ____________________ is the ability to recognize when a problem is not merely a narrow,
technical dilemma that lends itself merely to a narrow, technical solution, but rather is one with some richer
moral content.
Awareness
7. is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that comes with
self-regulation.
Corporateness
8. A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good.
False
9. Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still possible to act ineffectively?
Yes
10. What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional?
The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society.
11. The ability, right, and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an
association into a profession
responsibility
12. Moral ____________________ is the willingness and desire of an individual resulting in the execution
of what he or she has determined (through knowledge, instinct and/or reasoning) is the right thing to do,
regardless of difficulty
courage
13. An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor best defines
a professional
14. Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for
determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong.
reasoning
15. Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally
All the answers are correct
16. The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are
All the answers are correct

17. An officer has the obligation to exercise responsibility and be concerned with anything that might
impact all of the following, EXCEPT
personal recognition and remuneration
18. Which statement is NOT true regarding the professional responsibilities of military professionals?
A military professional does not have an obligation with regards to influences on material and resource
management
19. A key component of professional responsibility is
accountability
20. Which of the following are the three recognized characteristics of all professions?
Expertise, responsibility, and corporateness
21. permits a military leader to exercise the ordered use of force to achieve a desired political objective
that serves the nation at large
Expertise
22. Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of ones knowledge,
skills, and values in order to accomplish the intended action.
reasoning
courage
effectiveness
23. Select True or False: Extensive knowledge of right and wrong and sophisticated moral reasoning skills
will necessarily lead to moral behavior.
False

Section 3
1. In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war
to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations?
A prisoner is permitted to aid others in their attempt to escape.
The Geneva Convention allows escape attempts by prisoners of war to be punishable by death if a guard is
killed.
The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape
2. A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and viceversa.
False
3. is the good personal character and reputation of honesty and loyalty.
Honor
4. Which philosophers proposed system of ethics is most closely associated with the Navys Core Values?
Aristotle: Nicomachean Ethics
5. is/are a duty-bound standard of performance to be adhered to, even in the most difficult circumstances.
The Code of Conduct
6. The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for
prisoners of war

7. Which one(s) of the following allow(s) for judicial penalties after repatriation for misdeeds committed
while a prisoner of war?
The Uniform Code of Military Justice
8. Which of the following is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based?
Truth is relative

9. The Code of Conduct was created due to the failure of American service members to escape, and due to
their contributions to the enemys propaganda effort during which conflict?
World War II
The Korean War
10. The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention.
False
11. I will bear true faith and allegiance.
I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over
me, according to regulations and the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic.
Honor, Commitment, Courage
12. In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of
war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations?
The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape.
13. The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it
clearly states a Sailors duty from the moment of enlistment
14. The Oath of Enlistment is clear regarding the hierarchy of loyalties. Which of the following best
demonstrates this priority (highest to lowest)?
Ship, shipmate, self
15. In the process of inspiring confidence in a team, a leader may need to manage the teams perceptions
of who the leader is, to the point of hiding certain information; perception management may be a legitimate
goal.
True
16. Which of the following, if not resolved prior to being presented with an ethical challenge, poses a risk
to choosing the proper course of action in accordance with the Oath of Enlistment?
Loyalty
Honor
17. When a Sailor is presented with a potential or real conflict between honesty and loyalty, which of the
two is more important?
This is an ethical dilemma which can not be resolved without amplifying information and/or context.
18. The primary assertion of Aristotles Nicomachean Ethics is
characteristics develop from corresponding activities
19. Regarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Convention, which one(s) of the following
is/are true?
The detaining power has the right to interrogate a prisoner of war..
20. Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct?
will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape.

21. What value must be balanced by a healthy sense of commitment so that a team sees its contribution to
the overall mission, but the individuals of the team do not think of themselves as indispensable links to
mission accomplishment?
Responsibility
22. Which of the following is NOT a right of prisoners of war under the Geneva Convention?
The right of enlisted personnel to refuse to perform paid labor
23. Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths?
A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths
24. is the state of being involved in an obligation and provides the wherewithal to continue in a task to the
realization of its completion.
Commitment
25. ____________________ is the value that gives us the moral and mental strength to do what is right,
with confidence and resolution, even in the face of personal or professional temptation or adversity.
Responsibility
Honesty
Courage

Section 4
1. The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included
self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack
2. The notion that a just war may be morally preferable to an unjust peace can be traced back
____________________.
more than 1600 years
3. While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a
key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement.
True
4. The jus ad bellum criterion of last resort requires ____________________.
that all reasonable non-violent options be explored before using military force
5. Key principles of the jus in bello are proportionality and ____________________.
discrimination
6. In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum.
False
7. The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the
most senior military commanders.
False
8. The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________.
help to set the military professional apart
9. Jus in bello relates to ____________________.
the legality of the actual conduct of hostilities
10. Jus ad bellum relates to ____________________.
the justification for resorting to war
11. The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict.
False

12. Key principles of the jus in bello are proportionality and ____________________.
diversion
dispersion
discrimination
13. Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war.
True
14. The jus in bello principle of discrimination requires that ____________________.
non-combatants not be the direct object of attack
15. The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants:
Chaplains and medical personnel
16. The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________.
that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good
accomplished by the operation
that the damage done to civilians not be more than half the damage done to combatants

17. The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________.


political leaders
18. The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires
reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good
19. All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva
Conventions.
True
20. The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________.
theology, philosophy, and law

YOU WILL NEVER GET THOSE HOURS OF YOUR LIFE BACK!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Governance of the Navy

Legislation and Policy


Section 1
1. Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice __________.
provides a Service member the opportunity to file a complaint of wrongs against his or
her commanding officer
2. Which of the following is true?
The Military Rules of Evidence do not apply at nonjudicial punishment
3. The Military Rules of Evidence can be found in ______________.
the Manual for Courts-Martial
4. Which of the following is true?
Congress cannot pass any law that would prohibit an action that is already prohibited by a
state law.
Congress is limited by the Constitution to enact only those laws that relate to the
authority of the federal government.
5. Which of the following is true?
A general court-martial is composed of a military judge, a defense counsel, a prosecutor
and at least five members.
6. A convening authority is responsible for ___________.
All of the answers are correct
7. The Constitution ______________________.
All of the answers are correct.
8. Which contains orders for the administration of a Navy unit?
The Plan of the Day (POD
9. Which of the following is NOT true?
The Uniform Code of Military Justice was enacted by Congress under the authority
granted by Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution.
Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate the military, the
Department of Defense is part of the legislative branch of the federal government.
10. Which of the following is NOT true?
A summary court-martial can have jurisdiction over all military service members

11. Which of the following is NOT true?


Active duty military personnel who are captured and held by an enemy are no longer
subject to the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

12. Which of the following answers will make the following statement NOT true?
The Standard Organization and Regulations Manual of the U.S. Navy (SORM)
__________________.
is issued by the Secretary of the Navy and maintained by the Chief of Naval Operations
13. Nonjudicial punishment, as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of
Military Justice, is also known as _____________.
Captains Mast
14. The Uniform Code of Military Justice was enacted ____________.
by Congress in 1950
15. The maximum punishment which may be given at a special court-martial is limited to
_______________.
one year confinement, three months of hard labor without confinement, forfeitures of
two-thirds pay for not more than one year, reduction to paygrade E-1, and bad conduct
discharge
16. Which of the following is NOT true?
The United States Navy Regulations (NAVYREGS) specifies the procedures for
Captains Mast.
The United States Navy Regulations is issued by the Chief of Naval Operations.
17. A Service member _____________.
does not have the protection of the rules of evidence at Captains Mast
18. Which statement is true?
If a court, when presented with a certain set of facts, lays down a principle of law, the
court is bound by that decision if substantially the same set of facts are presented in a
later case

19. The term Administrative Law refers to ________________.


regulations made by governmental agencies in order to allow those agencies to carry out
their duties

20. A member of a general court-martial _________________.


is the military equivalent of a civilian juror

Section 2
1. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees.
Military personnel are governed solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
2 Which of the following actions would most likely be prohibited?
Because of the large number of military dependents that attend schools in the local
community, a base commanding officer attends meetings of the local school board as part
of his official duties. This has been approved by his chain of command. At one meeting
he is invited to become a part of the boards steering committee. He accepts.
3 Which of the following would most likely be prohibited?
A Commanders husband works for a defense contractor that supplies the Commander's
unit (shes a department head) with supplies. Her husband is one of thirty executives at
his company. She is invited to attend the contractors annual retreat with her husband.
She is told by the contractors CEO that the spouses of all of the executives were invited.
Upon arrival the Commander realizes that she is the only spouse in attendance and
because of that, she and her husband are given a luxury suite while the other
executives share double rooms. Because she was told all of the spouses were invited, she
stays at the retreat
4 The main purpose of the Standards of Conduct is to __________.
ensure Federal employees serve the public good
5 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses.
6 Which of the following is NOT true?
Private wagers between roommates living in government assigned living quarters are
never prohibited.
A Commander is attending a seminar hosted by a major aircraft manufacturer in Reno,
Nevada as the official representative of his command. During the hours that the
seminar is in session, the Commander is
prohibited from playing the slot machines
that are present in the lobby outside the seminar room.
7 . A CDR is concerned that her husbands employment may cause a conflict of interest
in her role as the base supply officer. In order to avoid any possible later disciplinary
action should it be determined that there is a conflict of interest, she should
_____________.
-seek advice from a designated ethics counselor and disclose all relevant facts to that
person

8 Which of the following is NOT true?


Federal employees may solicit gifts to be used as door prizes at events such as Morale
Welfare and Recreation fund raisers.

9 Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited?


The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a magazine
article concerning the maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his
squadron
10 Civilian Department of Defense employees who violate the Standards of Conduct
may face __________________.
Select all answers that would make the above statement true:
court-martial
fines and prosecution by the Federal government
termination
11 The primary source of guidance and information on standards of conduct for military
personnel is _________________.
DOD Directive 5500.7R
the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ
12 Criminal laws pertaining to former Department of Defense employees seeking postgovernment employment can be found in _______________.
United States Code, Title 18
13 In response to an appeal by a local charity attempting to raise money to assist the
victims of a natural disaster that had destroyed several hundred homes in the local
community, a command desires to officially support and hold a fun run. The event will
be part of the charitys fundraising effort and monies raised will be turned over to that
charity.
Which of the following is true?
The Office of Personnel Management may approve emergency disaster appeals.
14 The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s), if accepted
by the Commanding Officer would most likely NOT be prohibited?
One of the carriers divisions pitch in $2.00 per sailor and buys the Commanding Officer
a framed picture of the ship valued at approximately $90.00. Another division collects
$1.00 per sailor and presents the Commanding Officer with a brass bell valued at
approximately $75.00. The Chiefs Mess presents the Commanding Officer with a sword
valued at approximately $200.00.
15 A command is taking part in the annual Combined Federal Campaign fund raising
drive. Which of the following actions would most likely NOT be prohibited?
The commanding officer announces at morning muster that the Combined Federal
Campaign is a worthy cause and that he hoped each sailor would give some thought in
their decision to giving or not.
16 Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity?
In order to fund its annual summer picnic, a commands Morale Welfare and Recreation
committee plans to hold a bake sale the week prior to the picnic.

17 While on official travel, a Commander is involuntarily bumped from her flight. The
airline books the Commander on the next flight which wont leave until the next morning
and gives her one free round trip ticket as compensation. Which of the following
statements is true?
All of the answers are correct.
18. The base commander is asked by a local church if it could use a softball field on the
base for their annual picnic as its field was destroyed by a grass fire. As part of the
churchs community outreach program, underprivileged children of the community are to
be invited to partake in the festivities.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
This is absolutely prohibited by the Standards of Conduct.
19. Which statement is NOT true?
Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own, unique
ethical code.

Section 3
1. Willful violations of Privacy Act provision will subject a person to felony criminal
prosecution.
False
2. The Privacy Act gives individuals the right to correct factual inaccuracies contained in
their records.
True
3. The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the protection provided by
the Privacy Act, has the right to access all records held by the government that pertains to
him or her.
False
4. Why is it important to protect one's personal information?
All of the answers are correct
5. What is a common way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data?
All of the answers are correct
6. The military gathers and maintains ___________________________.
All of the answers are correct.
7. Before releasing information without consent of the subject of record, commanders
should _____________________________.
request an advisory opinion from the staff judge advocate in his or her chain of command
8. To obtain credit in someone elses name, unscrupulous individuals simply need to
have that persons name and date of birth.
False
9. The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted to access records maintained by
the government and request amendments to erroneous information that may be contained
in those records.
True
10. The release of protected information to a third party, without the consent of the
individual of concern, include situations where
____________________________________.
the information is needed for use in a census or statistical research
11. Actions which would not constitute criminal activity under the Privacy Act include
disclosing private information to someone who does not have an official need through

12. There are some records the Government is not required to release to a requestor.
These records are referred to as ______________.
exempt

13. The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection, maintenance, and use of
personal information, as well as to?
All of the answers are correct
14. A record is ___________________________________________.
top secret information about a person maintained by the Government
any collection, grouping, or item of information about an individual maintained by an
agency
a collection of only personal data about an individual maintained by an agency
15. requires Navy personnel to protect all records that include personally identifying
information.
The Sellers admendment to the Pricay Act
DOD and DON policy
16. An individuals request for access to his or her records must be in writing.
False
17. In order to request an individual's personal information, the U.S. government
_________________________________.
should give an appropriate Privacy Act notification explaining why the Government
needs the information and how it will be used
does not need to notify the subject of the record

Section 4
1. A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base
commander. Which of the following is true?
The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the
Uniform Code of Military Justice.
2. A LT driving home is pulled over by a Seaman Recruit in his duties as a member of
the base police force. Believing the LT to be driving while drunk, the Seaman Recruit
orders the LT to exit the automobile in order to conduct a field sobriety test. The LT
refuses to and only exits the vehicle when the Seaman Recruits supervisor, a LCDR
arrives and orders the LT to exit the car and take the test. The LT complies and is found
not to be impaired. Which of the following statements is true?
The LT may be found guilty of violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military
Justice.
3. A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help
load a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded
on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding officer (who
is also the LTs commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the units radios
in preparation for an inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help
with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The sailors then head over to help
load the truck. Which of the following statements is true?
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his
actions to his commanding officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from
the task the commanding officer ordered them to accomplish.
4. In order for a service member to be found guilty of Failure to Obey a General Order
_____________.
it must be shown beyond a reasonable doubt that the general order was in effect and that
the service member either violated or failed to obey the general order
the general order needs to have been issued by a service member senior to the service
member accused of having violated it
it is not necessary to show that the service member had knowledge of the order or had a
duty to obey it

5. In 1995, Army Specialist 4 Michael New refused to wear United Nations beret and
armband as part of his uniform as he believed that the order to do so was not a lawful
order. Which of the following statements is true?

A military court-martial determined the order to be lawful and he was convicted of failure
to obey a lawful order.
6. What should a service member do when given an order that is unclear, but appears to
be an unlawful order?
Select all answers which make the above statement true:
Determine if the order is in contradiction to previously issued orders.
Ask for clarification of the order, in writing if necessary
7. provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military
senior.
Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039

8. Which of the following statements is true?


An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the
contradicting order may be a lawful order.

9. A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine


major. At the time the order was given, the LT had never seen the major before, the major
was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey the
given order. Which of the following is true?
The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that
the individual giving him the order was a Marine major
10. Which of the following is true?
All orders from competent authority are presumed lawful.
11. A Third Class Petty Officer willfully disobeys a lawful order given him by a warrant
officer. If prosecuted, the petty officer would be accused of violating
________________.
Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
12. The maximum penalty for willfully disobeying a superior commissioned officer is
______________.
death during time of war

13. Which of the following is NOT true?


Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only
required to obey orders from a military police officer if the military police officer is a
warrant or commissioned officer.

14. Which of the following is NOT true?


A lawful order must relate to military duties.
A lawful order must require the performance of a military duty.
A service member may only receive a lawful order from a service member who is senior
to him or her in rank.
15. The maximum punishment for insubordinate conduct towards a warrant officer is
discharge from the service with a dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and
allowances, and confinement for two years
16. A Navy Reserve medical detachment headed by a Navy Reserve Medical Corps
Captain, is attached to a Navy ship commanded by a Navy Commander. Which of the
following is true?
The Commander may issue orders to the Captain as provided for by Navy Regulations,
Chapter 10, paragraph 1039.
17. A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except
Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
18. What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is
obviously illegal?
Refuse the order and report to higher authority.

Section 5
1. As defined by Joint Publication 1-02, the primary purpose of an amphibious operation
is to:
Introduce a land force ashore from ships or craft.
2. By definition, Sea Control operations include which of the following:
Select all answers which make the above statement true:
Suppression of enemy sea commerce.
Destruction of enemy naval forces.
3. In accordance with Title 10, U.S. Code, the United States Marine Corps is tasked with
the role of coordinating the development of those phases of amphibious operations that
pertain to the tactics, techniques, and equipment used by landing forces with the Army
and the Air Force.
True
4. The nuclear triad consists of:
SSBNs, ICBMs, and air-delivered strategic nuclear weapons.
5. The functions specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense
directive 5100.1 authorizes the Department of the Navy to develop force structure to
accomplish which one(s) of the following?
Primary functions.
6. Strategic deterrence assumes:
All of the answers are correct.
7. Which of the following has been assigned the task of managing strategic sea lift in the
Joint arena?
The U.S. Navy and the U.S. Maritime Administration
8. By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of
the U.S. Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast
Guards reserve component.
False
9. Is Sea Control a concept that embraces the notion of universal dominance of the sea
at all times, or limited control of the sea in place and in time?
Limited control in place and time due to prudent employment of assets
10. help focus the organizing, training, and equipping of forces efforts of the services.
Service-specific functions

11. According to section 5062 of Title 10, U.S. Code, the United States Navys principal
reason for existence is:
To conduct operations at sea

The conduct of land campaign operations as may be essential to the prosecution of a


naval campaign.
12. The naval service is specifically granted authority to develop aircraft, weapons,
tactics, organization, and equipment of naval combat and service elements by Title 10,
U.S. Code. Why is this important?
To explicitly prevent contention with the U.S. Air Force in the employment of naval
aviation.
13. Which one(s) of the following assign(s) specific responsibilities, principally outlined
in Department of Defense Directive 5100.1, to enable the services to fulfill the purposes
for which they were established:
Select all answers which make the above statement true:
The President
The Secretary of Defense
The Supreme Court
The Congress
14. Which service is the only one whose minimum force structure is codified in law?
The U.S. Marine Corps
15. The list of service-specific functions continues to evolve over time. Initially
authored in Executive Order 9877, the term functions in this context refers to:
Those various activities, operations, and capabilities for which the services are
responsible.
16. This act placed the job of carrying out broad operational missions into the hands of
joint organizations and took it out of the hands of the individual services, essentially
making the Services force providers for the combatant commanders (COCOMs).
The Department of Defense Reorganization Act of 1958
17. Maritime power projection includes:
All of the answers are correct.
18. Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic
purpose of each of the armed forces.
Title 10, U.S. Code

19. The term __________ establishes each Services primacy in its respective domain of
war.
Functions
Roles

20. In accordance with DOD Directive 5100.1, which of the following services has
primary responsibility for the development of amphibious landing force doctrine, tactics,
and techniques of common interest to the U.S. Army and U.S. Marine Corps?
U.S. Marine Corps

21. are those tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant commanders by the
President of the United States or the Secretary of Defense.
Missions
22. Why has the U.S. Marine Corps been tasked with being prepared and equipped to
carry out land operations?
To provide the combatant commander with an on-call land capability
23. Which of the following is not one of the six general categories into which
Department of the Navy functions fall into?
Space Superiority

National military organization


Section 6
1. A carrier strike group ____________.
has two chains of command administrative and operational
2. An operation conducted in South Africa would fall under the responsibility of
the Africa Command
3. The Navys ballistic submarines operate as a component of which combatant
command?
Strategic Command
4. Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered
outside of the United States?
The European Command
The Northern Command
The Pacific Command
5. Which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area?
Pacific Command
6. The advisors to the National Security Council, by law, are _________.
the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of Central Intelligence
the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, National Security Advisor and Director of
Central Intelligence
7. The Joint Staff ____________.
is responsible only to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
operates as an overall general staff in controlling the various combatant commanders
8. Combatant Commanders submit their reports for operational requirements
to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff so that he may better incorporate those views
in his advice to the President and the Secretary of Defense
9. The Central Command _______________.
is organized as a headquarters element with no war fighting units permanently assigned
to it

10. The responsibility to train, equip, and provide combat-ready special operations forces
to the geographic Combatant Commanders _______________.
is a mission of the Special Operations Command
11. The Joint Chiefs of Staff are ___________________.
not in the administrative nor operational chains of command

12. The National Security Council's members include, by law, _____________.


the President, Vice President, Secretary of State and Secretary of Defense
13. The Defense Intelligence Agency ____________.
is designated as a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight provided by the
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
14. The National Security Council is chaired by ____________.
the President
the Secretary of State
15. An outbreak of hostilities between India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the
area of responsibility of ______________.
the Central Command and the Pacific Command
16. Operational and contingency plans are _________________.
reviewed by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to determine their adequacy and
feasibility
developed and promulgated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
17. The European Command ______________.
has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations ENDURING
FREEDOM and IRAQI FREEDOM
18. The functional combatant commands ___________________.
are assigned worldwide functional responsibilities
19. is responsible for developing the National Military Strategy.
The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
20. The Chief of Naval Operations ___________.
must place his duties as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff ahead of his duties to the
Secretary of the Navy as a military service chief

21. is/are the Presidents principal defense policy advisor(s).


The Secretary of Defense
22. The overseas area where U.S. interests are mostly likely to be directly threatened is
the area of responsibility of ______________.
the Northern Command
the Central Command

23. The Unified Command Plan ______________.


is prepared by the Secretary of Defense and signed by the President
24. The Joint Chiefs of Staff consist of __________.
-the Chairman, Vice Chairman, Chief of Staff of the Army, Chief of Naval Operations,
Chief of Staff of the Air Force and Commandant of the Marine Corps
-the Chairman, Chief of Staff of the Army, Chief of Naval Operations, Chief of Staff of
the Air Force and Commandant of the Marine Corps
-the Chairman, Chief of Staff of the Army, Chief of Naval Operations, Commandant of
the Coast Guard, Commandant of the Marine Corps and Chief of Staff of the Air Force
25. The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.
(1) the Air Forces Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navys Military Sealift Command and
(3) the Armys Surface Deployment and Distribution Command
26. The Presidents cabinet includes ________________.
the Secretary of Defense as a military representative
27. In the administrative chain of command, the Service Chiefs report to
______________.
the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff who in turn reports to the Secretary of Defense
their respective Service Secretaries who then report to the Secretary of Defense
28. A unified command _______________.
has a broad, continuing mission
must be composed of forces from all of the military services
29. The United States two most senior ranking military officers are __________.
always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
30. The Northern Command's commander is _____________.
also the Commander of the Joint Forces Command
also the Commander of the North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD)
is not responsible for executing civil support mission within the United States
31. Deploying joint forces to geographical combatant commanders is the responsibility
of ________________.
the Joint Forces Command
32. The Special Operations Command ________________.
provides combat-ready special operations forces to American Ambassadors
does not execute combat missions
although considered a geographical combatant command, it has no geographic
boundaries

33. The Commandant of the Coast Guard _______________.


is a military service chief but is not a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
is prohibited by statute to participate in meetings of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
34. The Unified Command Plan ________________.
sets forth the basic guidance to all of the service chiefs
establishes the missions, force structures and responsibilities of the combatant
commanders
35. The Secretary of Defense ___________________.
issues operational orders to the various combatant commanders using the Chairman of the
Joints Chief of Staff as his communications conduit
36. The lead combatant command(s) in planning, directing and executing the Global War
on Terrorism is/are _________________.
the Special Operations Command
37. The responsibility for military space operations belongs to ___________________.
the Joint Forces Command
the Strategic Command

38. Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.


the Chief of Naval Operations who reports to the Secretary of the Navy
both the Secretary of the Defense and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense

Section 7
1. The National Security Strategy ______________.
specifically sets as a goal the turning over of suspected terrorists to the International
Criminal Court for prosecution
encourages democracies to protect independent and impartial systems of justice
2. As addressed in the President's cover letter to the National Security Strategy,
______________ must take the lead in order for the world to successfully confront
problems like human trafficking and the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
the United States
3. The National Security Strategy states that ______________.
Select all answers which make the above statement true:
globalization has exposed us to many new challenges
globalization presents many opportunities
4. Which of the following statements is NOT one of the short term steps required to
combat and defeat terrorism ______________?
permitting terrorist groups a know sanctuary in rogue states so that targeting terrorist
cells is less difficult
5. The National Security Strategy points out that ______________.
because of the potentially devastating events of an attack with WMD, the United States
will not rule out the use of preemptive force
6. The most current National Security Strategy explicitly states that ______________.
Select all answers which make the above statement true:
- the United States preference is to address proliferation concerns through international
diplomacy, in
concert with key allies and regional partners
-the United States has not ruled out preemptive acts against those forces that threaten the
United States
7. The National Security Strategys essential task of global economic growth includes
______________.
All of the answers are correct

8. In order to deal with threats before they can damage our people or our interests, the
United States must ______________.
withdraw from regional alliances to ensure the pursuit of our national interests is not
hindered by others
maintain a military without peer
9. The National Security Strategy takes the position that ______________.
left unaddressed, regional conflicts can lead to failed states
10. To complete the task of Expanding the Circle of Development, the United States will
______________.
Select all answers which make the above statement true:
help build stable, prosperous, and peaceful societies
make foreign assistance more effective
11. The most current National Security Strategy covers ______________.
all branches of the federal government
12. The current National Security Strategy ______________.
builds upon the framework of the last National Security Strategy, updated to take into
account the time that has passed and the events that have occurred
13. As part of the United States task of championing aspirations for human dignity, The
National Security Strategy seeks to ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
14. The National Security Strategy argues that winning the war on terror
______________.
Select all answers which make the above statement true:
-will, in the short run, require both military force and other instruments of national power
to kill or capture terrorists, deny them safe haven, and cut off their sources of support
in the long run, requires winning the battle of ideas
-will, in the short and long runs, always be about using military force to seek out and kill
terrorists

15. The National Security Strategy states that ______________ is America's most
immediate challenge.
terrorism
16. The National Security Strategy states that ______________.
peace and international stability are most reliably built on a foundation of freedom.
17. The National Security Strategys essential task of transforming the nations National
Security Institutions will require ______________.

the dilution of the authority of the Director of Central Intelligence


reorienting the State Department towards transformational diplomacy which promotes
effective democracy and responsible sovereignty
eliminating the need for bases within Western Europe
18. The pillars upon which The National Security Strategy is built upon are
______________.
promoting freedom, justice, and human dignity, working to end tyranny, to promote
effective democracies, and to extend prosperity through free trade and wise development
policies and to confront the challenges of our time by leading a growing community of
democracies
19. The National Security Strategy is ______________.
signed personally by the President of the United States

Section 8
1. Because terrorist and other extremist groups constitute the greatest threat to the U.S.
for the foreseeable future and the likelihood of interstate conflict has declined, the
Department of Defense can afford to decrease its capabilities to defeat state adversaries
with minimal risk to U.S. regional interests.
False
2. The term Future challenges risks concerns ______________.
risks associated with the Department of Defenses capacity to execute future missions
successfully
3. The term Operational risks concerns ______________.
risks associated with the current force executing the National Defense Strategy
successfully within acceptable costs
4. The Department of Defenses top priority is ______________.
improving our militarys proficiency in irregular warfare
5. Select the false statement.
The ability to convince a potential adversary that it cannot achieve victory is the sole
focus of deterrence.
6. Select the false statement.
The concept of Total Force includes only the Armed Forces.
7. Deterrence is ___________.
a strategic objective contained in the National Defense Strategy
8. The National Defense Strategy was first promulgated _____________.
in 2005
9. Encouraging other nations to avoid destabilizing paths is ______________.
one of the ways to achieve the objectives of the National Defense Strategy
10. Which of the following would make this statement false. The National Defense
Strategy contemplates the Department of Defense working with ______________.
None of the answers would make the statement false
11. Select the statement that is false. In the war against violent extremist movements,
working with and through local actors is inefficient
12. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the National Defense Strategy?
Prevent adversaries from acquiring weapons of mass destruction
13. Given the increase in the number of rogue states in the contemporary world
environment, the likelihood of interstate conflict has increased.
False
14. Securing U.S. strategic access and retaining freedom of action ______________.

is required in order to meet our national security needs


15. Which of the following statements is false?
The National Defense Strategy is derived from the National Military Strategy.
The National Defense Strategy outlines how the Department of Defense will contribute to
achieving the National Security Strategy objectives.
16. The National Defense Strategy is based on unilateral U.S. action.
False

Section 9
1. The priorities essential to the success of the Armed Forces outlined in the National
Military Strategy are ______________.
(1) winning the War on Terrorism while protecting the United States; (2) enhancing our
ability to fight as a joint force; and (3) transforming the Armed Forces by fielding new
capabilities and adopting new operational concepts
2. The National Military Strategy states that the primary task of the Armed Forces is
______________.
the application of military force to achieve the objectives of the National Military
Strategy
3. The National Military Strategy is guided by the goals and objectives contained in the
______________ and serves to implement the ______________.
National Security Strategy, National Defense Strategy
4. Deterring aggression and coercion ______________.
must be anticipatory in nature
5. As discussed in the National Military Strategy ______________.
an adversary must believe that the United States has the ability to impose severe
consequences in response to hostile or potentially hostile actions for deterrence to be
successful
6. Which of the following statements is not true?
Concerning armed conflict, the National Military Strategy is limited to gaining a decisive
victory, post-conflict stability is the role of civilian government agencies and
departments.
7. Rogue states can threaten global and regional stability by ______________.
All of the answers are correct
8. The functions and capabilities required of the Joint Force in achieving the objectives
of the National Military Strategy are ______________.
(1) applying force; (2) deploying and sustaining military capabilities; (3) securing
battlespace; and (4) achieving decision superiority
9. The National Military Strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is
______________.
the protection of the United States against attack
10. Which of the following is not a tool that may be used by an adversary in an attack
against the United States or its interests?
None of the answers are correct

11. Which of the following is true?


The combatant commanders assist the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in
developing the National Military Strategy.

12. The non-state actors that menace stability and security may include
______________.
terrorist networks, international criminal organizations, illegal armed groups and
individuals
13. Adversaries, as discussed in the National Military Strategy, include
______________.
states, non-state organizations and individuals
non-state organizations and states
14. To support the Joint Forces function of deploying and sustaining military
capabilities ______________.
the National Military Strategy requires the Armed Forces to increase its expeditionary
logistics capabilities
15. Which of the following is not true?
Terrorist and criminal organizations can only operate from rogue states.
16. Which of the following will make the statement NOT true?
The National Military Strategy ______________.
states that defending the United States against missile attack is no longer a priority
17. The National Military Strategy is ______________.
the highest level guidance document issued by a uniformed military officer
the basis of the National Defense Strategy
18. In its guidance on the development of the Joint Force, the National Military Strategy
______________.
Select all answers which make the above statement true:
tasks commanders to develop plans that integrate actions with other government
requires commanders to ensure military activities are synchronized among the various
services
19. The complex battlespace used by adversaries to threaten the United States include
______________.
All of the answers are correct.

Section 10
1. In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States
enjoys today requires ________________.
a transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural changes
across the joint community
2. A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________.
a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to generate
effects and achieve an objective
3. Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________.
Joint Functional Concepts
4. Joint Operating Concepts are concerned with what level of war?
Operational
5. Which of the following is not true?
None of the answers are correct
6. A Joint Operating Concept describes how a Joint Force Commander will accomplish a
strategic objective ______________.
8-20 years in the future
10-30 years in the future
during the next 10 years

7. The Joint Concepts Development and Revision Plan ____________.


describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint Force that
will succeed in the battlespace of tomorrow
8. A joint concept is __________________.
a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander might
employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives
9. Joint Functional Concepts ________________.
receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a Joint
Operating Concept
10. A joint concept __________________.
describes a particular military problem and proposes a solution that can be supported by
logic and investigated through experimentation
11. Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________.
experimentation

12. The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force
will operate and occupies the highest position in the hierarchy of concepts.
Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
13. At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept
developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of future
capabilities is the _________________.
Joint Operations Concepts Development Process
14. Joint Functional Concepts provide _________.
functional context for Joint Integrating Concepts development and joint
experimentation
15. provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts.
The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations
The Joint Unification Concept
The ______________ is focused on the military instrument of national power and
the Department of Defense.
National Defense Strategy (NDS)
Which organization coordinates the employment of Americas instruments of
national power?
National Security Council
Military might is the United States most important instrument of national power.
F
______________ is an instrument of national power.
Economic
The ______________ is the law that requires the President to prepare the
National Security Strategy for Congress.
Goldwater-Nichols Act
Taft-Hartley Act
The National ______________ Strategy discusses the ways and means the
Department of Defense will achieve its strategic objectives.
Defense
The _____ instrument of national power has no single center of control.

informational

Who is responsible for combining military and diplomatic activities in their regions
of responsibility?
Special envoys
Combatant commanders
All other national strategies are subordinate to the ______________.
National Security Strategy (NSS)
strategic guidance that is prepared by the executive branch of government and
signed by the President.
National Defense Strategy (NDS)
National Security Strategy (NSS)
National Maritime Strategy (NMS)
Which of the following is NOT one of the four instruments of national power
discussed in Joint Publication 1?
Production

Possessing a credible threat of military force tends to undermine the


effectiveness of diplomacy.
F
The military instrument of national power is most effective when its use is
synchronized with the other three instruments.
T
The primary purpose of the National Military Strategy (NMS) is to implement the
National ______________ Strategy.
Defense
Security
Protection
When a combatant commander uses military forces on foreign soil, the
combatant commander of the region in which U.S. forces are employed, retains
control of those forces.

T
The ______________ instrument of national power is the primary means through
which the U.S. engages with foreign nations or groups.
Diplomatic
The National ______________ Strategies comprise the two capstone documents
for the Department of Defense.
Defense and Military
Per Joint Publication 3-0, Doctrine for Joint Operations, the art and science of
employing instruments of national power in a synchronized and integrated
fashion to achieve theater, national, and/or multinational objectives is called
_____________.
operations
planning
strategy

16. Joint Functional Concepts support _______________.


the Capstone Concept for Joint Operations and Joint Operating Concepts
17. A Joint Operating Concept __________________.
identifies broad principles and essential capabilities
18. Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus?
Joint Integrating Concept
19. Full Spectrum Dominance is __________________.
the ability to control any situation or defeat any adversary across the range of military
operations
20.

Section 11
1. Which of the following is NOT true?
Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand our forward
presence globally.
2. Which of the following is true?
Sea Strike options include the landing of Marines from ships on a hostile shore.
3. Which of the following is NOT considered essential to the Navys ability to counter
the increased risk to the United States in the future?
None of the answers are correct.
4. Which of the following is NOT true?
Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges.
5. The three fundamental concepts that are key to Navys continued operational
effectiveness are _________________.
Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing
6. The Maritime Strategy was _______________.
a Cold War-era strategy focused on war-at-sea with the USSR in a blue water
environment
7. Sea Shield will protect U.S. national interests with defensive power based on
____________.
control of the seas, forward presence, and networked intelligence
8. The Sea Power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the acceleration of
expeditionary deployments and employment timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment
and supplies in-theater is ____________________.
Sea Basing
9. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
FORCEnet is the glue that binds together Sea Trial, Sea Warrior and Sea Enterprise.
10. Sea Warrior will address the challenges brought on by ________.
the reduced crew sizes that are the result of optimal manning policies and new platforms
11. Which of the following is NOT true?
FORCEnet is the effort to integrate personnel, sensors, networks, command and control,
platforms, and weapons into a fully netted, combat force.
12. Sea Trial will be coordinated by ____________.
the Navy Warfare Development Command
13. The foundation upon which offensive and defensive fires are projected is
____________.
Sea Basing

15. Sea Trial is concerned with ______________.


the implementation of a continual process of rapid concept and technology development
16. Sea Power 21 was published by ___________________.
the Chief of Naval Operations
17. Which of the following is NOT true?
Sea Shield focuses on the defense of individual Navy platforms, the U.S. fleet and the sea
lines of communications
18. Task Force EXCEL is _____________.
a program associated with Sea Enterprise
a program associated with Sea Warrior
19. Sea Strike ______________.
is the foundation from which offensive and defensive fires are projected
is the ability to project precise and persistent offensive power from the sea
provides the United States with sea-based strategic defense
20. The Marine Corps tactical aviation integration plan is an example of ___________.
Sea Enterprise
a Task Force EXCEL initiative

Section 12
1. The security and prosperity of the United States is inextricably linked to the security
and prosperity of other nations.
True
2. Which of the following are threats to national and world security and prosperity?
All the answers are correct.
3. is a core capability of U.S. maritime power.
None the answers are correct
4. Maritime forces require the cooperation of land forces in order to protect our citizens.
False
5. is a strategic imperative that can be accomplished through sea power.
All the answers are correct.
6. Speed is a characteristic of maritime forces.
True
7. One of the consequences of the expanding global economic system is
______________.
increased competition for scarce resources
8. The maritime domain supports what percentage of the worlds trade?
50%
90%
______________ will be required to partner to counter the maritime domains
emerging threats.
All the answers are correct.
______________ is the ability to operate freely at sea.
Sea control
9. The United States will employ ______________ to accomplish its strategic
imperatives.
All the answers are correct
10. Which of the following is a theme used to develop the Cooperative Maritime
Strategy?
Work with our partners around the world to prevent war.
11. is one of the six key tasks of naval forces.
Deter major power war

12. Maritime forces lack the capability to approach deterrence with conventional,
unconventional, and nuclear forces.
False

13. The Cooperative Maritime Strategy seeks to ______________.


integrate sea power with other elements of national power
14. Maritime forces provide decision makers with ______________.
All the answers are correct.
15. U.S. homeland defense efforts provide the highest level of security by integrating
______________.
All the answers are correct.
16. One of the ways that maritime forces protect the homeland is to ______________.
disrupt and neutralize threats far from the U.S.
The need to implement a continual process of rapid concept and technology
development that will deliver enhanced capabilities to our Sailors as swiftly as
possible, is the idea behind which initiative of Sea Power 21?
Sea Trial
What is the main idea outlined in the guidance presented in Sea Power 21
It is the Navys vision for 21st century operations.
Which document helps guide key financial planners in developing the Navys
annual budget?
The Navy Strategic Plan
An example of a past document that outlines the strategy used by the Navy in
achieving its vision is

All the answers are correct.


Maritime Strategy (1986)
Forward From the Sea (1994)
The ______________ program is designed to develop naval professionals who
are highly skilled, powerfully motivated, and optimally employed for mission
success.
Sea Warrior

Sea Trial will be Fleet-led, with Commander, ______________ serving as


Executive Agent.
U.S. Fleet Forces Command
Second Fleet (C2F)
The Naval Operating Concept for Joint Operations outlines the _____________
used by the warfighter.
tactics
information systems
While vision establishes the Navys goals, ______________ is/are the way the
Navy goes about achieving those goals.
strategy
___________________ sets the Navys vision for future maritime operations.
Sea Power 21
The Sea Power 21 initiative ____________________ provides guidance to
improve organizational alignment, refine requirements, and reinvest savings to
buy the platforms and systems needed to transform our Navy.
Sea Enterprise
The Navy values ______________ as its highest priority.
operational excellence
__________________ is an overarching effort to integrate warriors, sensors,
networks, command and control, platforms, and weapons into a fully netted,
combat force.
FORCEnet
______________ is the glue that binds Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing
together, serving as the architectural framework for naval warfare in the
information age
FORCEnet
______________________ operations are how the 21st century Navy will exert
direct, decisive, and sustained influence in joint campaigns.
Sea Strike

______________ serves as the foundation from which offensive and defensive


combat power is projected.
Sea Shield
Sea Basing
In the October 2002 issue of the U.S. Naval Institutes journal Proceedings, thenCNO Admiral Vern Clark introduced ________________ which outlines the
Navys vision for the 21st century.
From the Sea
The Navy Strategic Plan
Sea Power 21
This element of Sea Power 21 provides the nation with sea-based theater and
strategic defense.
Sea Shield
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental concept key to the Navys
continued operational effectiveness as described in Sea Power 21?
Sea Advantage
Which of the following is not true
Experimentation is used to investigate solutions to identified capability gaps.
None of the answers are correct.
Joint concepts must propose a solution that can be investigated through
experimentation.
The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process ______________.
describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a
Joint Force that will succeed in
the battlespace of tomorrow
was formerly known as the Joint Operations Concept and Development Plan
is an illustrative concept of operations for a specific scenario and a set of
distinguishing principles
applicable to a range of scenarios
BLOCK 4
How the Navy thinks about War
The American Way of War
1. Which post World War II operation(s) evidenced flaws in Americas ability to fight
small, low intensity conflicts?

The Iranian hostage rescue attempt and Operation Urgent Fury in Grenada
2. During the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________.
was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a legitimate
nation
3. The Second Seminole War _______________.
became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring victory
4. Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American
War was seen as a victory by militia (volunteer) forces and proof that the United States
didnt need to maintain a large standing army.
True
5. Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought
solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics.
False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War.
6. Generals Grant and Sherman provided very lenient terms of surrender to the
Confederate forces of Lee and Johnston in order to _______________.
avoid a protracted guerilla war waged by disgruntled Confederate soldiers
7. General Winfield Scotts capture of Mexico City during the Mexican War was
____________________.
an example of conventional 19th century warfare
8. One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the
American Revolution was ____________________.
the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation
9. Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________.
quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army
10. The Europeans who first settled what would become the United States
____________________.
formed militias for protection
11. In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving West, a
large standing army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War.
False
12. The United States maintained a large standing force after World War II because of
_______________.
the perceived threat of the Soviet Union and the Warsaw Pact
13. The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War?
All of the answers are correct

14. The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle
of Quebec. This led to the American View that wars were won by the utilization of
conventional armies.
False
15. In the United States, the Battle of New Orleans was seen as
____________________.
the defeat of the best army in the world by an American militia force
16. Congress was unwilling to expend the funds necessary to maintain a large standing
army during the latter part of the 19th century because ____________________.
it did not see any threat to the existence of the nation
17. Public opposition to fighting the Philippine Insurrection was largely based on
_______________.
the high U.S. casualty rate suffered in battling the insurgents
the idea that the acquisition of colonies was incompatible with American values
the fear of possible intervention by European colonial powers that could lead to armed
conflict
18. During the American Revolution, the American land forces found success against the
British through ____________________.
a combination of conventional and unconventional actions fought by the Continental
Army, the militia and irregular forces
19. During the time between the First and Second World Wars, the American military
was engaged in ________________.
a series of small actions throughout Central America and the Caribbean in order to
maintain order and discourage European intervention in the Western Hemisphere

The Naval Way of War


1. In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions,
threats, tactics, and technologies, its important to know ___________________.
the U.S. Navys organizational culture
2. What is the best example of Independence of Action?
All of the answers are correct.
3. Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
4. An organizations culture ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
5. According to Admiral Nimitz, the primary responsibility of every commanding officer
is to ____________________.
ensure the ship is safe
6. In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your
location to a considerable degree?
GPS
7. Why does the Navy still fear technological advances?
It could irrevocably alter, in a harmful way, the values that traditionally have been held
near and dear to the Navy.
8. Navigation is ____________________.
an art of approximation
the part of Astronomy that teaches how to pinpoint your location at sea in relation to the
stars
how to get from point A to point B using the shortest amount of time
9. Due to increase in jointness in Naval operations there will be all of the following
changes in the future, except, with respect to ____________________.
the U.S. fleet composition

10. Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology
available.
True

11. What do all Navys do?


Provide support and assistance to the Merchant Marines
Protect their national waters
Establish and take control of the sea

12. The contemporary maritime strategy of the U.S. Navy ____________________.


All of the answers are correct.
13. U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups
against the Russians and, at this time, they ____________________.
have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support operations
continue to perform the same task as they did during the Cold war
14. According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an absolute control of
the sea.
False
15. Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform
is the not-to-centralize philosophy of the U.S. ________________________.
Navy
16. All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the
greatest peril during non-wartime activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest
peril is ____________________.
fire
17. The Navys organizational culture comes from ____________________.
All of the answers are correct
18. The Navys intent in extending control from the sea to the land is to
______________.
limit the enemys freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for
maneuver
19. During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in
terms of safety of the ship and operating environment?
Typhoons

Theory of War
1. The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________.
by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of
divisions and corps each commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his
strategic objectives
2. Carrier strike group and expeditionary strike group commanders generally operate at
what level of war?
Tactical
3. Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on
____________________.
the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions
4. An action undertaken by a Navy SEAL team operates at what level of war?
It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action
5. The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.
in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the
tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives
6. The principles of war ____________________.
are a summary of the characteristics of successful military operations
7. The principles of war include ____________________.
surprise, maneuver, mass, economy of force, simplicity, offensive
8. The three components of military art are ____________________.
strategy, tactics, and operational art
9. The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________.
may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability
10. Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________.
concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness
11. Operational art was born during the ____________________.
period following World War I
12. Operational art ____________________.
deals with the study, theory, and practice of planning, preparing, conducting, and
sustaining major operations and campaigns designed to accomplish operational or
strategic objectives
13. The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized
____________________.

by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use of
divisions and corps each commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his
strategic objectives
14. In current joint and navy doctrine, centers of gravity ____________________.
are those characteristics, capabilities, or sources of power from which a military force
derives its freedom of action, physical strength, or will to fight
15. The enemys center of gravity ____________________.
is most likely to change at the strategic level
16. Generally speaking, the President, ____________________, function at the strategic
level of war.
the Secretary of Defense, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
17. An action undertaken by a Navy SEAL team operates at what level of war?
Tactical due to the relatively small size of the unit and the rank of the SEAL team
commander
It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action
18. The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.
in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the
tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives
19. Which of the following is correct?
The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine.
20. The most significant preparation a commander can make is ____________________.
to express clearly the objective of the operation to subordinate commanders
21. The geographic areas of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders are
established at what level(s)?
Strategic
The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through
______________.
Naval Doctrine Development Command
NWDC SIPRNET site

22. Which of the following is NOT true?


Select one or more of the following:
/-Electronic emission control does not contribute to the principle of security, rather it
contributes to the principle of surprise.

None of the answers are correct


-/ The purpose of security is to never permit the enemy to acquire an unexpected
advantage.
-/ Gaining a thorough understanding of the enemy's strategy, doctrine and tactics
enhances our ability to protect our forces
23. An enemys critical vulnerability ____________________.
is synonymous with the enemys center of gravity
is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the enemys
ability to resist us
need not be determined if one has already determined the enemys center of gravity

Doctrine
1. The UNTL is ____________________.
a comprehensive/hierarchical listing of Navy tasks at all levels of war
2. Joint doctrine is based on ____________________.
current capabilities
3. The type of doctrine publication that covers mission areas, enabling functions, and the
organization and support of forces for sustained operations, is called
__________________.
NWPs
4. All doctrinal publications are reviewed ____________________.
continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has been ten years since the
last revision
5. The joint doctrine development process has four steps: ____________________.
initiation, development, approval, maintenance
6. Naval Doctrine Publications are capstone publications which
____________________.
link overarching Navy concepts to fleet operations
7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of doctrine?
Detailed threat profiles
8. Naval Doctrine Publications are approved by ____________________.
CNO and Commandant, USMC
9. Naval Warfare Publications are approved by ____________________.
Commander, NWDC
Commanders of U.S. forces operating as part of a multinational command should
follow ______________.
U.S. joint doctrine/procedures which have been approved by the U.N.
multinational doctrine/procedures which have been ratified by the U.S.
Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine.
T
10. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of NTTPs?
They are not related to NWPs.
11. Joint doctrine and TTPs in joint publications are ____________________.
authoritative and approved by the Chairman, JCS

12. Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or multinational force.
True
13. Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it must be followed without exception.
False
14. Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive.
False
15. Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.
True
16. Which of the following is characteristic of NTRPs?
They are not necessarily related to NWPs.
They are not descriptive in nature.
They are not reviewed by NWDC.
17. The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________.
all publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site
How many Air Expeditionary Force modules are normally on call at any one time
to support the needs of combatant commanders?
two
one
The major difference between a fighter/bomber wing and a mobility wing is that
mobility wings have ______________.
none of the answers are correct.
three to four times as many pilots
additional mission support areas
The Air Force airpower tenet of _____ explains that a single commander,
focused on the broader aspects of an operation, can best mediate the competing
demands for air and space support against the strategic and operational
requirements of a conflict.
Priority
Centralized Control
AETF structure requires military planners to ensure that all AETF assets are able
to operate from a single base, as spreading them among multiple bases will
reduce their combat effectiveness.

False
The Air Force contains non-aviation wings.
True
The type of Air Force command immediately junior to a Numbered Air Force is
called a ______________.
squadron
wing
formation
An Air Force Air Operations Center (AOC) is capable of providing command and
control for joint air operations anywhere in the theater.
True
Each warfighting headquarters in a combatant commanders area of
responsibility (AOR) is supported by an Air Force weapon system called a(n)
______________ Air Operations Center (AOC).
Falconer
Steady state conditions for an Air Expeditionary Task Force typically allow for
______________ hours of operation every day, with additional surge capability
available for short durations.
12

The Numbered Air Forces are junior to the Air Forces major commands.
True
The Air Forces Total Force numbers approximately ______________
personnel.
658,000
331,000
768,000
The officer to enlisted ratio in the Air Force is approximately ______________
to 1.

12
6
4
Which of the following are Air Force core competencies? Select all that apply.
Leveraging technology to Warfighting
Developing Airmen

The Air Force believes that air and space power will eventually render land and
naval forces obsolete.

False
The Air Force employs ______________ tenets of airpower that are central to
their doctrine and compliment the principles of war.
6
7
5
If the operation is relatively small in scale, a Joint Force Commander may assign
a naval officer as the Joint Force Air Component Commander.
True
All Marine Corps components reinforce and support the ______________.
Headquarters, USMC
Marine Corps Operating Forces
The largest Marine Air-Ground Task Force is called a ______________, which
can contain as many 100,000 Marines.
Marine Expeditionary Force

The Marine Corps utilizes ______________ Maritime Prepositioning Squadron(s)


that contain a total of 16 ships to provide its strategic lift capability.
three
In order to deploy rapidly without the delays inherent to mobilizing reserves, the
Marine Corps maintains its active force at about ______________ percent of its
total force.

60
80
The MEF typically fights at the ______________ level to fulfill the Joint Force
Commanders objectives.
tactical
The largest type of Marine Air-Ground Task Force that deploys for combat is
called a ______________.
Marine Expeditionary Group (MEG)
Amphibious Readiness Group (ARG)
Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF)
The personnel, bases, and activities that support the Marine Corps operating
forces comprise the Marine Corps ______________.
supporting establishment
Historically, the Marine Corps has conducted operations ______________ of the
ROMO.
outside
at the lower end
The Marine Corps is organized into ______________ broad components.
four
Due to the Marines rigid task force construct, they are usually assigned to
operate independently of joint forces.
False
Marines fight as an integrated air-ground-logistics task force under a single
commander called a ______________.

MAGTF
Marines seek to avoid attrition by employing ______________ warfare against
an adversarys critical vulnerabilities.
maneuver

The highly tailored nature of Marine Air-Ground Task Forces makes them
unsuitable for service as the core around which a Joint Task Force headquarters
may be formed.
False
The Marine Corps standing operational organizations are called
______________.
Marine Expeditionary Forces (MEFs)
Amphibious Readiness Groups (ARGs)
There are ______________ types of Marine Air Ground Task Forces.
four
The Commandant of the Marine Corps reports directly to ______________.
SECNAV
SECDEF
JCS Chairman
Marine Air-Ground Task Forces are capable of being deployed to areas with no
pre-existing infrastructure (roads, electrical power, etc.).
True
Approximately how many Marines are 25 years old or younger?
Three quarters
The Coast Guards ______________ is an enhanced deployable force that has
the advanced interdiction skills needed to operate in a non-compliant or hostile
environment.
Maritime Security Response Team
The objective of the ______________ is to prevent and reduce the risk of
maritime mishaps.
Marine Safety
The Coast Guards headquarters is located in ______________.
Norfolk
Tampa
Washington DC

Only the Secretary of Defense can initiate planning directly with the Secretary of
Homeland Security for the tasking of Coast Guard forces.
False
The Coast Guard is a military service that normally operates under the
______________.
Department of Homeland Security
The Coast Guard is prohibited by law (Titles 10 and 14) from performing military
and law enforcement services simultaneously.
False
Coast Guard ______________ are capable of operating from Navy platforms
during counterdrug and maritime interdiction operations in compliant boarding
environments.
Port Security Units
Maritime Tactical Interdiction Teams
Tactical Law Enforcement Teams
The Coast Guards eleven specific mission programs are grouped into which of
the following categories? Select all that apply.
Non-DHS Missions
DHS Missions
A Coast Guard Port Security Unit (PSU) is capable of deploying via airlift within
______________ hours of notification.
96
During times of war, the President can direct the Coast Guard to operate under
the Department of Defense within the Navy.
True
Extensive operational testing in mountainous and other harsh terrain has resulted
in the CV-22 Osprey tilt-rotor aircraft being determined unfit for use by special
operations forces.

False

______________ is charged with the responsibility of studying special operations


requirements and techniques to ensure interoperability and equipment
standardization among special operations forces.
JSOC
______________ is the only subunified command under USSOCOM.
JSOC
Short duration strikes, raids and ambushes, and standoff attacks are examples of
which USSOCOM core task?
Foreign internal defense
Direct action
USSOCOM is comprised principally of service members from the
______________. Select all that apply.
Marine Corps
Air Force
Army
Navy

Command and Control Navy Forcas:


Section 1
1. Control is the ___________________ .
commanders means of guiding a military operation
Which of the following is the definition of Command and Control in Joint
Doctrine?

The exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander


over assigned and attached
forces in the accomplishment of the mission
None of the answers are correct

C enables the Commander to ______________.


All of the answers are correct

The OTC will designate:


All of the answers are correct.
Under the CWC concept warfare commanders are given call signs that
______________.
All of the answers are correct.
The CWC concept addresses defense against ______________.
All the answers are correct.

2. Which of the following is not an example of OPCON?


Detailed direction in the application of force.
3. Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON?
Organization, logistics and training
4. OPCON would be delegated to ___________________ .
JTF commanders
Ship commanders

5. Combatant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through


___________________ .
All of the answers are correct.
6. The principal element of command and control is:
Control
Command
7. The process of command control includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
8. The C organization is defined to include ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct.
9. Feedback is most important to control because ___________________ .
It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing circumstances.
10. Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the
functioning of the human nervous system?
All of the answers are correct
11. Why is C considered the single most important activity in war?
Without it, military forces can lose organization and direction and fail to achieve their
mission.
12. Command and control is ___________________ .
a system and a process
13. OPCON and TACON:
All of the answers are correct
14. Which of the following are considered command and control support?
The people, facilities and equipment that provide information to commanders.
15. U.S. forces, including U.S. Naval forces are ___________________ .
May be placed under OPCON of a UN commander based upon a Security Council
resolution
16. Operational control or OPCON includes organizing commands and which of the
following functions?
All of the answers are correct.
17. The Navy uses the Composite Warfare Commander concept as
___________________ .
its doctrine for tactical command and control
18.

Section 2
1. Under the JFMCC concept, logistics, personnel support, and service-specific training
would:
Be put on the shelf until after the JTF operation is complete and the JFMCC stood down.
Remain the responsibility of the service component commander.
Become the responsibility of the JFMCC
2. Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given _____________________ .
both OPCON and TACON
3. The Joint Force Commander has ___________________ .
wide authority to organize the Joint Task Force
4. The JFMCCs subordinate commanders include:
Both CSG and ESG commanders.
5. The Joint Force Commander _____________________ .
may retain control of any function
6. The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to:
Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commanders campaign
plan.
7. Which of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC?
All of the answers are correct
8. The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to:
All of the answers are correct.
9. During the Cold War the Navy assumed that when it fought at sea against the Soviet
navy , it would be:
Fighting virtually independently of other U.S. and allied forces.
Fighting in concert with other U.S. forces.
10. The MARSUPREQ is designed to ___________________ .
enable the commanders of Carrier Strike Groups, Expeditionary Strike Groups and other
functional components to request JFMCC assets
11. The JFMCC is ordinarily composed of:
A service or component staff, augmented by service staff.
12. What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations?
Sea control
According to the concept, the JFMCC ______________.
All of the answers are correct.

The JFMCC is equivalent to the following commanders ______________.


the Composite Warfare Commander
the JFLCC and JFACC
the JTF commander
13. The JFMCC concept is _______________________ .
still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions have
been finalized
14. The functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC (and the Joint Forces Air
Component Commander and the Joint Forces Land Component Commander) serves
which of the following purposes?
Better integrate military assets during operations.
Lead the way to reorganization of the services or unified commands.
15. The MARSUPREQ is used by subordinate commanders to ___________________ .
request specific support to execute assigned missions
16. The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander ___________________.
will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies upon the
Navy service component commander
17.

Section 3
1. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) would be on a carrier or flag-configured
amphibious ship because ___________________ .
that is where the needed C2 assets will be
2. The littorals are:
Areas near the shore and inland from the shore.
3. The chain of command under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept
______________________.
must be established by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) in an Operation General
Matter (OPGEN)
4. Focus on the littorals had this effect on Carrier Strike Group (CSG) vulnerability?
Increased vulnerability
5. Decentralization and command by negation are:
Design keys of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) because they reduce complexity
and information overload.
Not central features of Composite Warfare Commander (CWC).
Design keys that will likely be revised in the near future
6. After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission:
Shifted in orientation to the littorals.
7. The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) delegation to the Composite Warfare
Commander (CWC) is:
Determined by the OTC based on each individual situation
8. The common operating picture, or COP, includes:
All of the answers are correct
9. Why was the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept developed?
To counter the Soviet threat
To attempt to manage the complexity of the environment
To improve the coordination of maneuvers at the fleet level
10. Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because:
In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage.
11. Naval historian Thomas Hone asserts that command by negation:
Assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical.
Is the traditional way of doing things.
12. The common operating picture, or COP, includes:
All of the answers are correct.

13. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is intended to enable the carrier battle
group (CVBG) commander to:
Manage information overload
14. Under the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept control of different
weapon systems on a single ship ___________________ .
may be delegated to different warfare commanders
15. The principal offensive operations envisioned under the Composite Warfare
Commander (CWC) concept are:
Deep precision strikes on land targets.
16. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept addresses defense against:
All the answers are correct.
17. Under Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) concept, the Officer in Tactical
Commands (OTCs) primary focus should be on:
Conducting Carrier Strike Group (CSG) offensive operations against an adversary.
18. What is the cornerstone tenet of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)
concept?
Command by negation
Centralization
Command override
19. The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) will designate:
All of the answers are correct.
20. Tactical Control (TACON):
May be retained by the Officer in Tactical Command (OTC)

Section 4
1. Which of the following is not an example of a coordinator under the Composite
Warfare Commander (CWC) concept?
Interagency Working Group Coordinator
2. What is the role of preplanning of responses in the Composite Warfare Commander
(CWC) concept?
All of the answers are correct.
3. The Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) will have _____________________ .
Tactical Control
neither
4. Which of the following functions are the responsibility of Composite Warfare
Commander (CWC)?
Developing plans in support of assigned missions.
5. If an alternate Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) is designated, his or her
functions would be ______________________ .
All of the answers are correct
6. Which of the following are not examples of Functional Warfare Commanders?
Secure Telecommunications Group Commander
7. Which of the following functions are not the responsibility of the Composite Warfare
Commander (CWC)?
Resolve competing asset allocation requests.
Establishing mission objectives.
8. What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar?
The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the
plan and their roles in it.
9. Who retains overall responsibility for mission accomplishment?
Officer in Tactical Command (OTC)
10. Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ .
immediately subordinate to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)

11. Composite Warfare Commanders (CWCs) relationship to Officer in Tactical


Command (OTC) is ______________________ .
always subordinate, even if Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) and Composite Warfare
Commander (CWC) are filled by the same commander
12. Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to:

Long range deployment of sensors.


Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders.
13. Sector Warfare Commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by:
Either the Principal Warfare Commander (PWC) or the Composite Warfare Commander
(CWC)
14. The Air Defense Warfare Commander is ordinarily assigned to
___________________ .
the most capable and experienced air defense ship
15. The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare
Commander include ___________________ .
All of the answers are correct.
16. The Surface Warfare Commander is ordinarily based on ________________ .
a carrier
TACON over any single asset can be ______________.
held by only one commander and any given time
held by the CWC and the Functional Warfare Commander
shared by Principal and Functional Warfare Commanders

17. Which of the following are not part of the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)
structure?
Joint Task Force (JTF) commanders
18. Decentralized command is an effective approach because?
Select all correct answers.
It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to achieve
mission objectives.
It helps to prevent the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC) from being overwhelmed
by information overload.

Section 5
1. The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat,
which means ___________________.
All of the answers are correct.
2. What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation?
super high frequency radios
3. Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to
___________________.
developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and
improvement in satellite communications
4. According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to
the flagship, must be in the radius of ___________________.
20 NM
5. What mitigates the concern that the CWC concept is too communications intensive?
Improved C4 architecture
6. A downside of CWCs dependency on communications is ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
7. Important challenges for CWC include ___________________.
All of the answers are correct.
8. According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments
against the CWC concept, except that the ___________________.
CWC creates broad war fighting specialists
9. What are the challenges to the CWC concept?
All of the answers are correct.
10. The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized
execution.
False

Strike Warfare
Section 1
1. Strike warfare is only applicable to high intensity conflict situations.
False
2. Strike operations are a component of which Navy mission?
Projecting power ashore
3. Which of the following is not a principal mechanism by which the Navy executes
strike warfare?
amphibious assault
4. The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made
possible by the introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile.
False
5. Difficulties encountered by the Navy in integrating into the joint air operations
planned and directed by the Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) during
Operation DESERT STORM were due to __________.
Select all correct answers.
- -/ -the JFACC's refusal to let the Navy direct over-water operations
-/ -the Navys long time practice of decentralized command of air power
-/ the lack of compatible communications equipment
6. Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with ordnance.
Thus, aircraft such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike.
False
7. The two principal missions of the United States Navy are:
Sea Control and Projection of Power Ashore
8. While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly effective way, it
cannot sustain such operations for an extended period.
False
9. The Air Tasking Order (ATO) is the Air Force equivalent of the Navy Air Tasking
Order (NATO).
False
10. Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resulted in the
new mission of close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft.
False

11. The changes in strike warfare organization and planning resulting from lessons
learned in the 1990s Gulf War were tested _______________.
in the series of operations in the Balkans during the late 1990s
12. In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously
conducting strike warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval
Air Commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander.
False
13. Operation DESERT STORM introduced ___________________ to the Navy
mission of projecting power ashore.
ship launched long range non-nuclear guided missiles
14. Submarines have no role in strike warfare.
False
Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navys strike warfare
mission, the Carrier Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine
warfare capability.
F
15. During Operation DESERT STORM, the Navy's capability to conduct amphibious
operations ___________________.
caused the Iraqis to divert a portion of its forces to defend Kuwait against amphibious
attack which contributed to its forces being enveloped by coalition forces
16. During Operation DESERT STORM, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks,
targeting the Iraqi infrastructure.
False
17. During Operation DESERT STORM, Navy and Marine Corps aircraft
___________________.
flew approximately one third of the total sorties flown by U.S. aircraft an amount in
direct proportion to their numbers in the U.S. air inventory
18. The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision
guided munitions and as a result nearly no dumb bombs were utilized.
False
19. How do the Navys two principal missions influence events on land?
Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while power
projection ashore directly influences those events
20. Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore
projection mission because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps
and/or Army units.
False

Section 2
1. The Summer Pulse 04 exercise ___________________.
successfully tested the Navys Global Naval Forward Presence Policy
utilized seven Carrier Strike Groups deployed around the world
2. Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a Carrier Strike Group by
_______________.
All of the answers are correct
3. The Fleet Response Plans goal is to ______________.
sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups ready to
deploy within three months of an emergency order
4. The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be
implemented and tested.
False
5. Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far
inland due to their inability to conduct in-flight refueling.
False
6. The Flexible Deployment Concept ________________.
Select one or more of the following:
-//is based on naval forces sustaining a presence in a given geographical region by
rotating forces in to and out of the region on a set schedule
-//allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments of varied
duration in support of specific national priorities
//-provides more options to national leaders when contemplating how to response to
specific global needs
7. Because they have no long-range strike capability, the Perry-class guided missile
frigates are the primary means of AAW within a Carrier Strike Group.
False
8. The principal platform of a Carrier Strike Group is ___________.
always a CV/CVN
9. The Virginia-class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as
quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons
than the Seawolf-class.
False
10. Experience has shown that the Perry-class guided missile frigate cannot withstand
the damage caused by an anti-ship guided missile.
False
11. Which of the following is not able to conduct long range strike missions?

FFG
12. Carrier Strike Groups are dependant on Logistical Supply Squadrons (LSSs) for
replenishment of ammunition, fuel and supplies as they do not have logistical support
ships organic to them.
False
13. All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up
with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed.
False
14. Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the
Tomahawk missile?
All of the answers are correct.
15. The Navys Flexible Deployment Concept has been the foundation for the successful
use of carrier-based aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts
over the past several decades.
False
16. Protection of a Marine amphibious force while enroute to, and upon arrival in, an
amphibious objective area may be provided by ____________.
Navy fighter aircraft operating from the decks of the amphibious ships
a Carrier Strike Group
17. Select True or False: Carrier Strike Groups (CSGs) consist solely of surface ships.
Submarines may provide support to the CSG, but are not under the command of the CSG
commander.
False

Section 3
1. Successful strike warfare depends upon:
All of the answers are correct.
2. IRAQI FREEDOM strike operations illustrate the CV/CVNs unique capability to
conduct air operations in:
Sandstorms
3. CV/CVN strike capability can be increased by which of the following:
Select all correct answers.
Reducing operating tempo between 0300-0500
-/-/Augmenting flight deck crews
/-/-Pausing operations before high-intensity flight operations to rest personnel
-/-/-Contingency planning before high-intensity operations
4. What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates?
Reduce the number of aircraft required
5. What types of redundancy are necessary for reliable alternatives in an environment of
danger which could cause serious losses in case of operational failure?
Select all correct answers.
-//Supply
//Decision management
-/-Personnel
-/-Technical
6. Mission requirements for coordinated air operations must be balanced among which of
the following?
Select all correct answers.
Training
Ordnance and aircraft handling
Maintenance
7. Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:
None of the answers are correct.
8. Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and
effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?
Improved ship design
9. Which factor(s) impacting sortie rates require(s) the application of non-organic assets?
In-flight refueling
10. Naval Air Strike Warfare is executed by:
Aircraft Carrier Wing

11. Trade-offs between naval effectiveness and safety of naval operations involve higher
acceptance of risk in wartime and less toleration of risk in peacetime.
True
12. Which of the following correctly describe carrier organization and operations?
Select all correct answers.
-/-Flight operations planning is conducted by relatively flat collegial organization.
-/Carrier is organized in a steep hierarchy by rank with clear chain of command.
//Individual pilots are unconstrained in the operation of their aircraft.
-/-Flight deck operations are conducted by concensus.
13. What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy?
Aircraft carrier
14. Effective strike operations are coordinated through a negotiation process in which
officers:
Select all correct answers.
-/-/Attempt to ensure primacy of their units in competition for assets
-/-/Resist demands which could compromise the safety or performance of their units
/-/-Maximize demands on other units for operational and logistics support
/-/-Bargain for optimum strike assignments
15. Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?
Permit 24 hour strike warfare
16. _____________converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft
carrier into real and useable power.
Human organization
17. The Carrier Air Department is responsible for:
Flight deck control
18. The Carrier Combat Systems Department is responsible for:
Electronic equipment maintenance and repair
19. What types of redundancy involves shipboard operations-critical units or components
such as computers, radar antennas, etc.?
Technical

Section 4
1. Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by:
All of the answers are correct
2. Detection of enemy air or surface units by radar or other equipment carried in an
airborne vehicle and transmission of a warning to friendly units is the mission of:
Airborne early warning
3. Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following:
National Command Authority
4. Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings.
Select one or more of the following:
Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of the
carrier air wing.
The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single fighting
system.
Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War.
5. What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition?
All of the answers are correct.
6. What is the principal limitation of PGMs?
Cost
7. Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of
the combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their
targets?
Combat air patrol
8. Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions (JDAM) are?
Select one or more of the following:
/-//Operates in adverse weather
-/-/-200 mile range
-//--Converts dumb bomb into precision guided weapon
-//-/Air to employment
9. Which weapons caused the greatest damage to Iraqi targets in the Gulf War?
Laser guided bombs
10. What is the greatest cause of improved weapon accuracy?
PGMs

11. Which of the following statements are true concerning the size and composition of
CVs and CAWs?

Select one or more of the following:


Greater uniformity will follow phase-out of conventional carriers.
Great variation in both Cc size and CAW composition since WWII.

12. What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition?
All of the answers are correct
13. The F/A Super Hornet is capable of all but the following missions?
ASW
14. Circular Error Probability refers to:
Area in which 50% of ordnance can be expected to hit.
15. Concept of Operations (CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include:
battle damage assessment
tasking

Submarines have the ability to launch ______________.


Tomahawks from torpedo tubes and from vertical launch tubes if so equipped
16. What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch?
The embarked air wing
17. Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through punctuated stability; this
refers to?
Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.

Section 5
1. The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator ____________.
is appointed by the Joint Force Commander and designates a Tomahawk Executive Agent
to be responsible for all TLAM strike planning, coordination and reporting strikes
2. Programmed Warhead Detonation (PWD) _____________.
allows the missile to be detonated while flying directly over a target
3. Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile?
survivability in a high threat environment
4. Which of the following is not a capability of a surface ship launched Tomahawk
missile?
the ability to be loaded onto the ship while underway
5. The Block IV or TLAM-E _____________.
substantially increases the capabilities of the Block III missile while cutting the cost in
half
6. In order to ensure TLAMs are effectively integrated into operations, Tomahawk Strike
Coordinator liaisons are placed with all the following except _________________.
the Joint Interface Control Officer
7. Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component
Commander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present, the tasking to launch
a Tomahawk missile follows what path?
Naval Component Commander (NCC), TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC), Launch Area
Coordinator (TAC), TLAM firing unit
8. Which of the following is true?
Tomahawk missiles fired from submarines are identical to those fired by surface
combatants.
9. The _____ assigns targets, numbers of missiles, and time on target so firing units can
execute the launch.
Launch Sequence Plan (LSP)
10. Which of the following is not true?
The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator is the Launch Area Coordinator's principal agent,
responsible for leading the execution of TLAM strike operations.
11. Which of the following is true?
The Naval Component Commander is typically appointed by the Joint Force Commander
to act as the Tomahawk Executive Agent.
12. Submarines must launch their VLS Tomahawks ______________.
while submerged to avoid damage to the system

13. The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ______________.


Select one or more of the following:
reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targets
redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver
14. The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes ___________.
either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both protects the
missile during transport and serves as the missile's launch tube
15. Which of the following is not true?
Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas where collateral damage is not
a concern.
16. The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ______________.
Select one or more of the following:
redirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver
17. Submarines can communicate with surface units _____________.
when operating at periscope depth
18. Terrain masking ___________________.
involves flying around hills in order to remain concealed from detection by pointdefenses around the target
is the method of continuously matching altitude information from a radar altimeter to a
preprogrammed radar map of the area below the missile so that it can accurately follow a
detailed predetermined flight path
is the ability to detonate the missiles warhead while the missile is flying directly over a
target, thus preventing the enemy from masking itself behind a hill or similar terrain
feature
19.
Advantages gained by using Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) must
be maintained by the landing force. The concept that supports this aspect is
known as ______________.
Ship-to-Objective Maneuver (STOM)

Domain of Force Employment


Section 1
1. Pair the following missiles with their primary missions:
B1. Anti-radiation
D2. Air-to-surface close air support
C3. Land-attack
A4. Low-level anti-ship

A. Harpoon
B. SLAM-ER
C. Maverick
D. HARM

2. The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following


assets:
All of the answers are correct.
3. Task force protection within a radius of 50 miles is accomplished by:
Embarked helicopters and surface vessels
4. Short range protection of major surface units relies on which of the following?
Mark 38, 25 mm. machine gun and Harpoon missile
Harpoon missile
Mark 45, 5 54 caliber gun and Harpoon missile
5. What is the most critical task of the Surface Warfare Commander?
Develop and maintain the Recognized Maritime Position.
6. Combat boats present great problems for conventional naval forces because they
are:
All of the answers are correct.
7. Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of combat
boats has which of the following effects:
Complicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces
8. Surface warfare includes coordination of surface, subsurface, land, and sea assets.
True
9. Asymmetric threats to the surface fleet do not normally include:
Chemical weapons
Combat boats
10. Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to:
All the answers are correct.
hich is NOT among the primary roles of the Surface Warfare Commander?
Direct submarine operations

11. Which statements are true concerning the seriousness of the ASM threat?
All the answers are correct.
12. Match the following missiles with their primary delivery craft:
B
D
C
A

1. SH-60 Seahawk

A. Harpoon, HARM, SLAM-ER, Maverick

2. EA-6B Prowler

B. Hellfire, Penguin

3. S-3B Viking

C. Harpoon, SLAM-ER, Maverick

4. F/18 Hornet

D. HARM

13. Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task
force because they are:
All the answers are correct.
Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode?
Maverick and Hellfire
Penguin
Harpoon

14. A successful Surface Warfare Commander must achieve more than passive protection of the
task force or avoidance of hostile contact; he is also required to ____________________ .
gain and maintain access to the operating area, maintain a safe buffer around the task force
during transit
to operating areas, and be prepared to conduct offensive operations

15. The Surface Warfare Commander is:


Tasked by the Composite Warfare Commander, the most qualified commander well suited to
support the
surface warfare mission, and sometimes assigned to Destroyer Squadron or
Tomahawk Land Attack
Missile command

Section 2
1. The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense operations from:
An AEGIS cruiser
2. Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include:
Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds and ranges
of weapons and launch platforms, and increased difficulty in engaging and destroying air
borne weapons.
3. Match each air defense principle with the appropriate definition.
C
A
D
B

1. Techniques to confuse or deceive enemy forces

A. Defense in Depth

2. Establishing positions to absorb and weaken attacks

B. EMCON

3. Use of sensors to identify distant missile threats

C. OPDEC

4. Denying or altering enemy use of electronics systems.

D. Early Warning

4. The principal weapon threat to the aircraft carrier (CV/CVN) is a:


Missile
5. Which of the following does Air Defense NOT do to defeat hostile air borne threats:
Conduct sequential operations, including air defense for amphibious landings
6. Which air wing asset provides all-weather airborne early warning for the carrier strike
group?
E-2C Hawkeye
7. ________is the primary mission of air defense.
Defense in Depth
8. Airborne attacks may be launched from submarines, surface ships, aircraft, and land
bases.
True
9. Select the platforms with long range capabilities.
Aircraft carriers, Aegis cruisers, and destroyers
10. Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission?
Point defense ships and patrol craft
11. Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare
commanders facilitates:
Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate
surveillance data; and security for departing and landing aircraft.
12. Select the statement that is NOT correct concerning air defense responsibility.
The Strike Warfare Commander has ultimate control over air defense operations.

13. Absence of major power challenges to U.S. naval superiority has greatly reduced the
threat to naval operations.
False
14. The Air Defense Commander must be:
None of the answers are correct.
15. Which of the following refers to the procedure of denying or allowing the use of
certain electromagnetic systems during force operations?
EMCON
16. Which phase of the air defense mission deals with threat assessment?
Surveillance

Section 3
1. The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________.
is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant
commanders
2. A clandestine operation ____________________.
is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself
3. A Naval Special Warfare Squadron ____________________.
is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core training
requirements
4. The MK-V Special Operations Craft ____________________.
is capable of carrying an entire SEAL platoon
5. The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in
____________________.
low to medium threat environments
6. The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________.
delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from
submarines
7. MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by
____________________.
Special Boat Teams
8. The army component of the U.S. Special Operations Command is the
____________________.
Army Special Operations Command (USASOC)
9. Select the statement that is NOT true.
Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and indicators to
foreign audiences to influence their actions.
10. Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United
States ____________________.
are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander
11. The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________.
is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew
12. Select the statement that is NOT true.
Information Operations are generally directed at strategic or operational intelligence
requirements.

13. The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is
____________________.

Counterterrorism
14. Direct Action missions ____________________.
involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions
15. A typical Naval Special Warfare Squadron generally contains
____________________.
six SEAL platoons
16. A SEAL team is composed of ____________________.
a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons
17. Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron?
All the answers are correct.
18. Operations that include actions to prevent, limit and/or minimize the development,
possession and employment of weapons of mass destruction are part of the
____________________ mission.
CP
19. Naval Special Warfare (NWS) forces normally deploy as ____________________.
a SEAL Team
an NSW Squadron

Expeditionary warfare
1. Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) ______________.
requires a decision for the point of attack be made thousands of miles distant from the
objective(s)
assembles the amphibious force as the ships approach the target coastline
increases the complexity for the enemy in defending a coastline
2. A type of amphibious operation designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit
to a disadvantageous course of action is known as a ______________.
Demonstration
3. The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
4. Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the
Navys concept of Forward from the Sea. It accomplishes this by ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
5. The Commander, Landing Force (CLF), a senior Marine Corps officer, is responsible
for which of the following?
Conduct of the assault.
6. The Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) is a versatile sea-based force capable of which
of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
7. An amphibious force might include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
8. Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts?
All of the answers are correct.
9. The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
10. The amphibious planning process ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
11. The Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) is built around a Marine infantry
______________.
Battalion
12. The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to
previously deployable forces?
All of the answers are correct.

13. Strengths of amphibious operations do not include which of the following aspects?

Uncomplicated logistic support.


14. A military operation launched from the sea with the primary purpose of introducing a
landing force ashore is the definition for what term?
An amphibious operation
15. An Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG) and a Carrier Strike Group CSG) can be
combined to form what organization?
An Expeditionary Strike Force (ESF).
Which of the following is NOT true?
Antisubmarine Warfare is a Navy core competency.
Antisubmarine warfare is a subset of Undersea Warfare.
The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and
defensive submarine
operations
The AN/SLQ-38 ______________.

is used to counter magnetic mines


is used to cut the mooring cables of moored mines
The AN/SLQ-37 ______________.
is used to counter moored mines by cutting their mooring cables
is primarily used to counter pressure influence mines
is used to counter magnetic and passive acoustic mines

Which of the following is true?


The Navys SSGNs are planned to carry 150 Tomahawk cruise missiles.

Logistics
Section 1
1. The sustainment element of the logistics process is _______________.
the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support required to maintain operations
2. The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is
_______________.
the Military Sealift Command (MSC)
3. The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces
describe which general element of the Navys logistics process?
Distribution
4. The Military Sealift Commands Combat Prepositioning Force _______________.
supports Army prepositioning requirements
5. Ready Reserve Force ships _______________.
are under Military Sealift Command control when activated
6. The bulk of the Navys combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by
_______________.
the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force
7. Operational logistics _______________.
encompasses theater support sites and activities, ashore or afloat, and the theater
transportation required to move personnel and material to and from supported forces
8. Prepositioned equipmentboth afloat and ashoreis considered logistics support at
the ______________.
strategic level
9. The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces
describe which general element of the Navys logistics process?
Distribution
Disposition
10. The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of
which class of supplies?
Class V
11. For Navy transportation matters, the Military Sealift Command reports to the
_______________.
Chief of Naval Operations
12. The Navys two hospital ships ______________.
contain 12 fully-equipped operating rooms each

13. MSCs Kilauea Class ammunition ships _______________.


have no armament
14. The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered _______________.
organizational-level maintenance
15. Which of the following is NOT true?
Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ships company.
16. Casualty collection, treatment, and evacuation is considered a part of which logistics
functional area?
Health Services
17. The Military Sealift Commands largest combat logistics ships are the
_______________.
Supply class T-AOEs
18. The Dry Cargo Office _______________.
handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be accommodated by
regularly scheduled ocean liner service
19. The Military Sealift Commands eight fast sealift ships _______________.
can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U.S. Army mechanized
division
20. Repair parts are considered _______________.
Class IX supplies
21. Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are capable of the speeds necessary to keep
up with carrier strike groups?
Powhaton Class T-ATFs
Kilauea Class T-AEs
Supply Class T-AOEs

Undersea Warfare
Section 1
1. The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutralization System ___________________.
is a highly accurate active sonar system which locates mines for later detonation
features a self-propelled, remotely-controlled Mine Neutralization Vehicle
2. Which of the following has mine counter measures as its primary mission?
MH-53E helicopter
3. Area ASW operations ___________________.
are usually commanded and controlled from a shore-based facility
Which mine countermeasure method is used for the collection of drifting mines?

single ship antenna sweep

4. Which of the following is NOT true?


Surface detection sensors such as radar and ESM have proven to be ineffective in the
search for submarines.
5. Coordinated ASW operations ___________________.
are usually conducted to provide ASW protection for designated units
6. Which of the following is NOT true?
Advances in sonar and computer technology have made underwater sound propagation
entirely predictable.
7. Which of the following is NOT true?
While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are driven by Air Independent
Propulsion systems still must typically snorkel at least once a day to recharge their
batteries.
Which species of marine mammals are used for mine detection and marking?
Dolphins and seals
Dolphins and sea lions
Seals and sea lions

8. Which of the following is NOT true?

U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platforms.
9. Which of the following is NOT true?
At then end of its preset battery life, sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded information
can be downloaded for analysis.
10. Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of the use of mines?
ability to discriminate between friendly, hostile and neutral ships

Which of the following statements is true?


Computer Network Operations is a supporting capability of Information
Assurance Operations.
Computer Network Defense includes only those actions which protect
Department of Defense systems
from external adversaries.
Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target
or adversary automated
information systems or networks.

11. Magnetic ranging ___________________.


provides measurements to allow a ship to fine tune its degaussing
is a method of determining the range to a contact by measuring changes in the earths
magnetic field caused by the contact
uses an electrical current passed through coils wrapped around a ship to decrease the
ships magnetic signature
12. The ASW warfare commanders call sign under the Navys Composite Warfare
Commander concept is ___________________.
AX
13. Which of the following is NOT true?
Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols.
14. The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________.
Acoustic and non-acoustic
Which of the following has mine countermeasures as its primary mission?
MH-53E helicopter

The Prairie Air System reduces a ships radiated noise by ______________.


eliminating air bubbles formed along the blade edges of the ships propeller(s)

supplying air along the leading edge of the propeller blades

During the search phase of an ASW operation, ______________.


Passive sensors are preferred to prevent the submarine from being alerted
Active sensors are preferred due to their longer range
a combination of passive and active sensors are preferred in order to
maximize the advantages of each

15. Which of the following is NOT true?


The terms mine hunting and mine sweeping are synonymous.
16. Which of the following is true?
Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out of the
noise generated by the ship
17. Mines were first successfully laid by aircraft during ___________________.
World War II
18. The most effective means of countering a mine threat is ___________________.
the prevention of mine laying
19. The Osprey Class (MHC-51) ships are ___________________.
glass reinforced plastic hulled
20. Which of the following is true?
Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing vessel.
Which of the following is true?
The SH-60Fs primary ASW sensor is its dipping sonar.

21. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of using radar in ASW operations?
Radar is not able to detect targets as small as a periscope or snorkel exposed above the
surface.
22. The current submarine threat ___________________.

is more likely to be a diesel powered submarine


23. Which of the following is NOT true?
The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and defensive
submarine operations.
24. Which of the following is NOT true?
In order for an active sonar system to detect a submarine, the submarine must make a
noise that can be detected.
25. Which of the following is true?
U.S. submarine development has shifted towards developing capabilities against diesel
powered submarines operating in shallow water
26. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Submarines are the platform of choice for the replenishment of large minefields due to
the larger number of mines they can carry.
27. Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________.
detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earths magnetic field caused by the
submarine
28. During the search phase of an ASW operation, ___________________.
Passive sensors are preferred to prevent the submarine from being alerted
29. Which of the following is true?
Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a submarine
or an acoustic mine.
A ships degaussing system consists of one coil built into the ship to counter both vertical
and horizontal magnetic fields.
Deperming is the use of electrical coils built into a ship to counter the induced magnetism
created as the ship passes through the earths magnetic field.
30. The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly
submarines are ___________________.
prevention of mutual interference and water space management

Joint Warfare
Section 1
1. Which command is NOT a functional combatant command?
U.S. Southern Command
2. Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command?
U.S. Forces Korea
3. The Combatant Commanders campaign is based on which of the following?
All the answers are correct
4. Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action synchronizes and/or
integrates joint and single-service operations with the actions of supporting combatant
commands, other military forces during multinational operations, and nonmilitary and
other federal government agencies.
True
5. Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally
accomplished?
By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
6. The combatant commander can give authoritative direction to subordinate commands
and forces necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command.
True
7. Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and
functions and provides the commander a means to measure, report, and correct
performance?
Control
8. Overwhelming force would fall under which fundamental of joint warfare?
Concentration
Joint warfare is best described as the ______________.
integrated and synchronized application of all appropriate capabilities
application of the principles of war to operations with allied forces
The Joint Forces Maritime Component Commander is an example of a
______________.
Task force commander
Functional component commander

9. A unified command will always contain which of the following?


Service components.
10. The term joint forces includes which of the following commands?
All the answers are correct.
11. On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select the best answer.)
Geographic or functional
12. Which of the following document(s) provide(s) strategic direction for the combatant
commanders?
National Security Strategy and National Military Strategy
13. Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement; Cooperation
among the combatant commanders and their supporting joint force and component
commanders is crucial?
Unity of Effort
14. Which statement best reflects the concept of command?
Command includes both the authority and responsibility for effectively using available
resources to accomplish assigned missions.
15. Which of the following is NOT a function of the combatant commander?
Budget and procure service-specific equipment.
16. Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command?
A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander composed of
forces from two or more military departments.
17. What level of authority is normally exercised by the functional component commanders of a
combatant command?
Tactical Control (TACON)
Combatant Command (COCOM) command authority
Administrative Control (ADCON)
18. Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship?
Administrative Control (ADCON)

Section 2
1. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of
Operations Security actions.
2. Department of Defense (DOD) policy describes information superiority as
______________.
the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and
disseminate an uninterrupted real
time flow of information faster than an
adversarys ability to do the same
the ability to freely exploit the weaknesses in an adversarys ability to collect,
process and disseminate an
uninterrupted flow of information
the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and
disseminate an uninterrupted flow
of information while exploiting or denying
an adversarys ability to do the same
3. Which of the following statements is true?
Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or
adversary automated information systems or networks.
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist
groups.
5. Which of the following statements is true?
Civil-Military Operations only take place in friendly or neutral operational areas.
Civil-Military Operations only include those operations that occur subsequent to armed
conflict.
Civil-Military Operations may include military personnel performing functions that are
normally the responsibility of a national government.
6. Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________.
the J-3 (Operations)
7. The three dimensions of the information environment are ______________.
the physical, the informational, and the cognitive
8. Which of the following statements is true?
The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack, electronic
protection, and electronic warfare support.
9. Which of the following statements is true?
Psychological Operations are the only Department of Defense (DOD) operations
authorized to influence foreign target audiences directly.
10. The three main subdivisions of Computer Network Operations are:

computer network attack, computer network defense, and computer network exploitation.
11. The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence
decision making, the flow of information, and the interpretation of information by
individuals or groups at any level in a state or organization are properties associated with
which dimension of the information environment?
Cognitive
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to both
domestic and foreign audiences.
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental assumptions that are the
bases of Information Operations ability to affect and defend decision making?
Generally, the relative importance of each quality criterion of information is universal
and not influenced by things such as language, culture and religion.
14. Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following EXCEPT
______________.
prisoner of war interrogation
15. Leadership, morale, and level of training are factors that influence the
______________ dimension of the information environment.
cognitive
16. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Disrupting the transmission of an adversary government's television station by physically
attacking it with aircraft is outside the realm of Information Operations.
17. The combatant commanders plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are
approved by ________________.
the Office of the Secretary of Defense (SecDef)
18. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Information Operations (IO) is only concerned with information collected, processed and
disseminated through networked computer systems operated by an adversary.
19. Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or
adversary automated information systems or networks are a part of
___________________.
computer network exploitation (CNE)
20. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Disrupting the transmission of an adversary government's television station by physically
attacking it with aircraft is outside the realm of Information Operations.
21. Who has been given the specific responsibility to coordinate Information Operations
(core capabilities) among the combatant commanders?
Commander, U.S. Strategic Command

Force Capabilities
Section 1
1. The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise command
and control over all land forces, and may be an allied or coalition commander.
True
2. _________are capable of at least limited short-term self-defense and are commanded
by lieutenant colonels.
Battalions
3. Heavy divisions offer exceptional:
Tactical mobility.
4. is the U.S. Army force that can rapidly respond to contingency operations.
XVIII Corps
5. The ___________________ is the largest division in the U.S. Army.
Mechanized Infantry Division
6. Challenges facing the U.S. Army since the end of the Cold War include:
Select all correct answers.
More demand for peacekeeping.
A less stable global environment
7. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?
The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment
for any primary U.S. Army mission area.
8. A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to
maneuver and fire.
Platoon
9. The Air Assault Division is considered:
All of the answers are correct
10. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Armys transformation?
Increased Joint interdependency necessitates increased logistics and combat formations.

11. Which of the following are light forces ideally suited for?
Select all correct answers.
-/Exploitation or pursuit.
-/-Defensive missions requiring economy of force.
-/-Attack key enemy armor forces.
-/-Operating in restricted terrain.
//MOUT

12. Army divisions are classified depending on:


Select all correct answers.
/The footprint occupied by equipment for airlift.
-The relative combat power they possess.
-The speed in which they can be deployed.
-The gross tonnage of all equipment.
13. The U.S. Armys ___________________ provides combatant commanders with a
broad range of land power options to shape the security environment.
strategic responsiveness
14. Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following?
The Air Assault Division
The Mechanized Infantry Division
The Airborne Division
15. Light infantry divisions:
Select all correct answers.
-/-Can be rapidly deployed.
-/-Perform well in urban operations.
//Are deployable entirely by air.
16. Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift.
False
17. What are the hidden transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division?
Square footage requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division.
Short ton requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division.
Short ton requirements are almost equal to that of the Light Infantry Division.
18. Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support,
aeromedical evacuation, command and control, and special operations support to combat,
stability, and support operations?
UH-60L Blackhawk
19. Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?
Sea-based operations
20. The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full range of military
operations and the spectrum of conflict is a key differentiator between the U.S. Army and
the U.S. Marine Corps.
True

21.List the U.S. Army combat organizations from the largest to the smallest:

A) Brigade
B) Squad
C) Platoon
D) Company
E) Corps
F) Division
G) Battalion
E, F, A, G, D, C, B
22. What is the primary mission of a brigade?
To deploy on short notice and destroy, capture, or repel enemy forces, using maneuver and
shock effect

What practice complicates the Navys operational chain of command in support


of the Geographical Combatant Commands?
Dual-Hatting
Who is the senior military officer in the Navys administrative chain of command?
CNO
The number of sorties (flights) that a Carrier Strike Group (CSG) can generate
per day is limited mainly by the ______________.
endurance of flight deck crews
Which of the following are key strategic documents that guide the Navy today?
Select all that apply.
CS-21
CONOPS 2020
Navy Regulations
NOC 10
The ARG/MEUs superior speed and robust mine countermeasure capabilities
make it the force of choice to make an area safe for CSG operations.
False
The earths littoral regions are normally of little concern to maritime commanders
due to their dry climate and deep inland location.
F
The Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) may combine the responsibilities of
which two commanders into the role of Sea Combat Commander?
Antisubmarine Warfare Commander and Surface Warfare Commander
Antisubmarine Warfare Commander and Strike Warfare Commander

The majority of Navy doctrine is focused at the ______________ level of war.


tactical
The Navys two primary deployment packages are the ______________.
CSG and ESF
CSG and ARG/MEU
SSG and ESF
Which body of law describes the mission and organization for the Navy?
Title 10, United States Code
The Joint Force Commander can expect a Carrier Strike Group (CSG) to
generate ______________ sorties (flights) during a normal 12-hour day.
100
Who is responsible for directing the Navy?
SECNAV
Mechanized infantry and armor are best suited for operations in
______________.

open plains
For the Army, its doctrine ______________. Select all that apply.
reflects the Armys approach to combat
Heavy maneuver forces can maneuver strategically with ease and are ideally
suited for operations in urban terrain.
F

______________ operations directly accomplishes the tasks assigned by higher


headquarters.
Decisive
As part of the Armys redesign, it moved away from being a ______________centric force and transformed into a more flexible ______________-centric
modular combat team.

division, brigade
Mechanized, armored, and air assault divisions require a significant amount of
______________ in order to conduct operations. Select all that apply.
time to assemble 1a
strategic lift 1b
light infantry forces 1a
logistic sustainment 1b
The weight of an air assault division makes it require almost the same amount of
strategic lift as an armored division.

False

5. The Army is comprised of ______________ divisions.


10
An air assault division is well suited for the following types of operations. Select
all that apply.
Helicopter firepower
Stability and support
Night fighting
Close or urban terrain
The most efficient way to deploy Army combat forces is ______________.
using a combination of strategic sealift and strategic airlift

Given their similarities, the concepts of Battlespace and Area of Operations are
often used interchangeably by Army commanders.

False
Which of the following are roles of the U.S. Army? Select all that apply.
Seizing, occupying, and defending land areas
Defeating enemy land forces
Prompt and sustained land combat1a

Armored Cavalry Regiments are capable of acting as a ______________. Select


all that apply.
corps commanders eyes and ears 1b
pursuit force 1a
special purpose force 1b
covering force 1a
The two basic types of Army divisions, in terms of their fighting power, are
______________.
heavy and light
The Army has approximately ______________ soldiers serving on active duty.
800,000
400,000
600,000
In 2006, the Army reorganized into three ______________ and ten
______________.
army commands, army service component commands

Since the Armys Civil Affairs and PSYOPS forces are comprised mostly of Army
Reserve personnel, they are rarely deployed and spend more time at their home
bases than any other type of Army unit.

False

There are ______________ active SEAL teams.

eight

The Armys critical combat support capabilities are embedded almost entirely in
the _____. Select all that apply.
Army National Guard
Army Reserve

The Armys premier forced entry unit is the ______________.


75th Ranger Regiment

Just as USSOCOM is dependent upon the services for its personnel, it is also
dependent upon the services for its operating budget and research and
development funding.

False

USSOCOMs responsibilities are ______________ in nature.


global
Which special operations aviation asset is used for both observation, and escort
and attack missions?
MC-130E
OH-6
MH-47
One of the four SOF truths is, ______________.
humans are more important than hardware

USSOCOM is a Geographic Combatant Command (GCC).

False
The Army component of USSOCOM is located at ______________.
Fort Bragg
The Naval Special Warfare Command is located at ______________.
Naval Amphibious Base Coronado

USSOCOMs origins can be traced to the aftermath of Operation


______________.
EAGLE CLAW
SHARP GUARD
In traditional warfare, relatively small levels of resources are required to find the
enemy, while large amounts of resources are required to achieve a decisive
victory.
True
How many SEAL platoons are assigned to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron?
one
four
two
Which combatant command was assigned the responsibility of synchronizing all
efforts in the Global War on Terrorism for DoD?
USSOCOM
The Navys ______________ operate and maintain rigid-hull inflatable boats and
special operations craft.
Delivery Vehicle Teams
Special Boat Teams
Swimmer Delivery Units
What key document established NORTHCOM, the new combatant command
assigned to defend the United States?
Unified Command Plan
Joint Publication 3-26
Joint Publication 3-28
Which of these is a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland
Security?
.
All of the answers are correct.
The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and
initiatives into a comprehensive and cohesive national effort involving appropriate
Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called ______________?
the National Strategy for Maritime Security

Which of the following will the military do in pursuit of its counterterrorism


strategic framework?
All the answers are correct.
The responsibility for homeland security lies strictly with the Federal government.

False
National Security can be considered a subset of Homeland Security.

False
Our national counterterrorism strategy includes which of the following:
prevent terrorists' acquistion of weapons of mass distruction
interdict the movement of terrorists and their supplies
shift focus away from ungoverned spaces

Section 2
1. Which aircraft is the newest, most flexible aircraft capable of rapid strategic delivery
of troops and cargo, as well as tactical airlift and air drop?
C-17 Globemaster III
2. The U.S. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to
sustain flexible and efficient combat operations.
Agile combat support
3. ___________________ are actions taken to influence, affect, or defend systems and
decision-making.
Information operations
Military operations other than war
4. The C-5, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air
Mobility Commands __________.
Strategic airlift concept
5. Which function is considered a collateral use in the application of U.S. Air Force
power?
Countersea
6. ___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemys
center of gravity or other vital targets.
Strategic attack
7. Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint
operations?
Air refueling
8. ___________________ allows the U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with
minimal risk and collateral damage.
Precision engagement
9. Air and space-based surveillance assets exploit ___________________ to detect
enemy initiatives at long range.
Elevation
10. The U.S. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of the following
aircraft:
B-2

11. Which aircraft is considered the USAFs front-line ground-attack aircraft providing
critical close air support to friendly forces on the ground?
F-16

A-10
12. The acronyms COMARFFOR and JFACC, respectively, designate which command
and control entities?
Service Component Commander, Functional Component Commander
13. ___________________ allows air and space forces to exploit mass and maneuver
simultaneously, while ___________________ is the ability to employ air and space
power effectively at all levels of warfare.
Flexibility, Versatility
14. ___________________ integrate(s) surveillance and reconnaissance assets to reduce
uncertainties while planning.
Intelligence
15. What characteristic of U.S. Air Force operations gives air and space platforms a
unique vantage point over the territory of potential adversaries?
Altitude

16. The U.S. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at
the decisive time and place is one of the most constant and important trends found
throughout military history.
Concentration
17. The ___________________s primary mission is to provide theater ground and air
commanders with ground surveillance to support attack operations and targeting that
contributes to the delay, disruption, and destruction of enemy forces.
RC-135
E-8C
U-2
18. Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery systems used.
True

19. Why does the U.S. Air Force believe air power must be controlled by a single
commander who maintains the broad strategic perspective necessary to balance and
prioritize the use of powerful, yet limited force?
Air and space power have the unique potential to directly affect the strategic and
operational levels of war.
Centralized air and space power employment authority avoids ambiguity.
Air and space power have the unique potential to directly affect the tactical level of war.
20. Which of the following are the largest warfighting organizations of the U.S. Air
Force?

The Numbered Air Forces


Groups
Wings
21. Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of satellite link
frequencies are operations achieved by this U.S. Air Force function:
Counterspace
22. USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by specially-trained Special
Operations personnel.
False
23. Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout
the electromagnetic spectrum?
RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint
24. Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) accurate location and time
reference in support of strategic, operational, and tactical operations:
Select all correct answers.
airborne-based systems; air-to-surface radar
ground-based systems; various navigational aids
space-based systems; GPS
25. Interdiction and close air support are components of what U.S. Air Force function?
Counterland

Section 3
1. U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of operations are based on the principle of
Maneuver Warfare.
True
2. The Navy-Marine Corps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for
___________________.
expeditionary force; overseas deployment
3. Which event marked the beginning of large-scale U.S. Marine Corps involvement in
Viet Nam?
The landing of the 9th MEB at Da Nang.
4. The Maritime Prepositioning Force (MPF) currently possesses a forcible entry
capability and therefore can offload equipment and supplies in a hostile environment.
False
5. A key component of OMFTS is:
The assembly area, attack position, and LOD are all at sea and over the horizon.
6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a MAGTF?
Requires pre-existing infrastructure to execute missions
7. The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of heavy equipment and
supplies during the ship-to-shore movement of an amphibious assault, and during
subsequent operations ashore:
CH-53 E Super Stallion
CH-46E Sea Knight
8. Which one of the following is characteristic of a MEB?
Designed for small-scale contingencies
9. MARFORLANT is not the Marine Service Component Commander for which one of
the following?
CENTCOM
10. Which of the following is/are not considered part of the operating forces of the
U.S. Marine Corps available to the combatant commanders?
The Supporting Forces
Fleet Marine Force
11. Which one(s) of the following make up the 4th Marine Expeditionary Brigade?
All of the answers are correct.
12. An integrated organization of air, ground, and logistics forces is a(n):

MAGTF
13. All U.S. Marine forces in a given theater automatically fall under the command of
the Marine Component Commander.
False
14. A MAGTF is always composed of a command element, a ground combat element, an
aviation combat element, and:
A combat service support element
15. Which one(s) of the following is/are capabilities of a MEU (SOC)?
All of the answers are correct.
16. MEU (SOC) means that a MEU:
Has expertise in amphibious raids executable within six hours of mission receipt.
17. Which one of the following is NOT a type of MAGTF:
FSSG
18. Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF?
MEU
19. The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes are set by
law?
False
20. Which one of the following is NOT a tenet of the maneuver warfare doctrine?
Execution of speed over time and distance.
Focus strength against enemy critical vulnerabilities.
Wear down an enemys defense in order to penetrate it.
21. Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is defined as rapid
employment of the MAGTF by air or surface means to objectives in the littorals and
beyond?
Operations from a sea base
Sustained operations ashore
Ship-to-object maneuver
22. List the strategic concepts governing the use of military force in the execution of the National
Military Strategy.
Strategic agility, overseas presence, power projection, decisive force

Section 4
1. With regards to domestic coastal sea control, the Coast Guard Area Commander
reports directly to the respective Navy Fleet Commander.
True
2. Who can initiate requests for U.S. Coast Guard forces to support military operations?
All of the answers are correct.
3. This is the only USCG cutter class armed with the close-in weapon system (CIWS).
Hamilton class
4. Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the USCG inventory?
HH-65A Dolphin
MH-68 Shark
5. Can the USCG be considered a redundant, non-complementary resource supporting
the National Military Strategy?
No
6. Which of the variants of the HU-25 Guardian aircraft is configured for oil pollution
detection?
B
7. All USCG cutters are readily identifiable by which one of the following hull colors:
None of the answers are correct; USCG cutter hull color is dependant upon each ships
mission
8. US Coast Guard Law Enforcement Detachments (LEDETs) perform the following
mission(s):
All of the answers are correct.
9. In accordance with 14 USC 2, which service ...shall enforce or assist all applicable
federal laws on and under the high seas and waters subject to the U.S. jurisdiction?
The U.S. Coast Guard at all times
10. Which aircraft is the U.S. Coast Guards primary short-range helicopter for SAR and
surveillance?
HH-65A Dolphin
11. Which patrol boat class has the capability of a stern-launched rigid hull inflatable
allowing for more rapid and safe deployment of boarding crews?
Island
Marine Protector
12. Which one of the following is NOT a USCG capability offered to the combatant
commander?
Forcible entry from the sea

13. What is the Integrated Deepwater System program?


An integrated approach to upgrading existing USCG assets while transitioning to newer,
more capable platforms.
14. Which of the following is not true regarding employment of the USCG by DoD and
the State Department for peacetime engagement?
The USCG does not have robust anti-piracy capabilities.
15. Which units integrate into a military staff in the event of a massive pollution incident
which may impact the ability of U.S. and allied forces to conduct military operations?
Pollution strike teams
16. The USCG __________ retain operational control over the major cutters and long
range patrol craft, while the __________ has/have operational control over patrol boats,
buoy tenders, and aids to navigation.
District Commanders; Area Commanders
Area Commanders; District Commanders
17. Which of the following deploys to provide force protection at OUTCONUS seaports
of debarkation?
PSUs
18. Article 14, USC 1 states that the USCG is a branch of military service at all times.
True
19. Which small boats in the U.S. Coast Guard inventory are the only ones specifically listed in
the Joint Strategic Capability Plan?
Island class patrol boats
Reliance class patrol boats
Port security Raider boats

Section 5
1. A characteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________.
that it is conducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries
2. Special operations in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or
verify information of strategic or operational significance is a part of which Special
Operations core task?
Special Reconnaissance
3. A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________.
All the answers are correct.
4. The development of joint special operations tactics is a responsibility of
____________________.
the Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)
5. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) controls promotions of those officer
and enlisted personnel that are attached to Special Operations Forces units.
6. Generally, a geographic combatant commander exercises control over Special
Operations Forces assigned to the combatant command ____________________.
through a subunified theater Special Operations Command (SOC)
7. A battalion of the Army's 75th Ranger Regiment is forward deployed to Hawaii. This
battalion is most likely under the command of ____________________.
a geographic combatant commander
8. The Air Force Special Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assist a
foreign nation in organizing and training its military and paramilitary forces to combat
internal subversion is ____________________.
the 6th Special Operations Squadron
9. Which of the following statements is/are true?
All the answers are correct.
10. The combat forces of the Navy Special Warfare Command (NAVSPECWARCOM)
include ____________________.
SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, and Special Boat Teams
SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, and SEAL transportation units
SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, Special Boat Teams, and Special Warfare
aircraft squadrons
11. A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________.
All the answers are correct.
12. U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include
all of the following EXCEPT ____________________.

assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat an
internal insurgency
13. Which of the following statements is/are true?
Army Civil Affairs units are provided to combatant commanders around the world by the
U.S. Army Special Operations Command.
14. Which of the following statements is true?
The U.S. Army Special Operations Command includes Reserve component units.
15. ____________________ responsible for ensuring Special Operations Forces are
fully integrated into the Combatant Commander's Theater Security Cooperation Plan and
contingency plans and operations.
The theater Special Operations Commands are
16. Direct Action missions ____________________.
All the answers are correct
Direct Action missions ______________.
involve a broad spectrum of military operations, normally of long duration
normally utilizes Naval Special Warfare forces only in a supporting role
involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions

17. A SEAL platoon is assigned to an expeditionary strike group. The platoon is most
likely under the operational control of ____________________.
the appropriate combatant commander's Navy component commander
18. Which of the following statements is true?
The Marine Special Operations Support Group will be tasked with Foreign Internal
Defense missions.
The Marine Special Operations Command (MARSOC) is planned to contain 2,700
Marines and Sailors.
19. Which service(s) provide(s) special operations units whose mission is combat search
and rescue in support of conventional combat operations?
Marine Corps
Air Force
20. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) is subordinate to the geographic
combatant commanders in waging the global war on terrorism.
21. Fire support for Special Operations Forces can be provided by
____________________.
AC-130 aircraft

Range of Military operations


Section 1
1. What command has the primary responsibility for the military support to civil
authorities mission?
Northern Command (NORTHCOM)
2. Often seen as a secondary task, Stability missions are often called
___________________ and have been formally raised to an equal status with major
combat operations.
Nation Building
3. The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and
organize our Nation to secure the U.S. homeland from terrorist attacks.
True
4. Which of following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to
Homeland Defense?
All of the answers are correct.
5. The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to guide, organize, and
unify our Nations homeland security efforts.
True
6. The ______________ provides the fundamental justification for Homeland Security
activities.
Posse Comatatus Act
U.S. Constitution
7. Stability missions, often seen as a secondary task are also referred to as NEO.
False
8. A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector.
True
9. In the event of a terrorist incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the
first to respond?
Local police and fire departments
10. Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the National Strategy for
Homeland Security?
Maritime Interception.
11. What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement
activities in the United States?
Posse Comitatus Act of 1878
12. Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the National Strategy for
Homeland Security?

Protecting critical infrastructure.


Domestic counterterrorism.
Defending the National Capital Region.
13. What is the number one strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
Prevent and disrupt terrorist attacks.

14. Select True or False: Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security provides military guidance
for the exercise of authority by combatant commanders and other joint force commanders and
prescribes joint doctrine for operations and training.
True

15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

Section 2
1. Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________.
measures taken to preempt terrorism
2. Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the
following?
All of the answers are correct.
3. Included within the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission
area(s):
All of the answers are correct.
4. History shows that the best way to defeat terrorism is to ___________________.
isolate and localize terrorist activities and then use intensive, sustained actions to destroy
the terrorist group
5. Terrorism ___________________.
became a more conscious threat after the events of September 11, 2001
6. Small units may need to alter their operations to counter the WMD threat by
___________________.
monitoring the environment for the presence of hazardous agents
securing ventilation to enclosed spaces
All of the answers are correct.
7. Which of the following Weapons of Mass Destruction would be considered to be (a)
chemical weapon(s)?
Sarin
Radioactive materials
Anthrax
8. Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which
of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
9. By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ .
a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and release of
energy
10. The effects of Weapons of Mass Destruction ___________________.
demand that troops devote resources preparing for their potential use
can largely be ignored by small naval units
normally dont require military personnel to modify their behaviors

11. In addressing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important
to remember that ___________________.
promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some conditions that
foster terrorism
12. The collapse of the Soviet Union impacted terrorism by ___________________.
destroying or neutralizing many terrorist groups
13. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the effects of terrorism on
naval operations?
Terrorism focus is to alter our habits, possibly reducing operational efficiency or
increasing personnel stresses.
14. Enhanced force protection ___________________.
can cause frustration for affected personnel if left in place for extended periods
15. Of the following which is/are true of terrorist organizations?
They often use critical infrastructure vulnerabilities to serve their own purposes.
16. The 4D Strategy to combat terrorism is framed by which of the following sets of
terms?
Defeat, Deny, Diminish and Defend.
17. The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following
aspects?
All of the answers are correct.
18. Common actions to address an insurgency would include which of the following?
Select all correct answers.
Social, political or economic reforms.
Civic action or amnesty programs.

Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 4 - How the Navy Thinks About War

Regional & Cultural Awareness


1. Neo-realist scholars, such as John Mearsheimer, argue that ______________.
Select all the correct answers.
-the attitudes of people in democracies differ substantially from the attitudes of
authoritarian leaders with
respect to the issue of the use of war as a foreign policy tool
there is a sufficient body of evidence to prove democracies do not fight one another
-the attitudes of people in democracies do not differ substantially from the attitudes of
authoritarian leaders
with respect to the issue of the use of war as a foreign policy tool
there is a not a sufficient body of evidence to prove democracies do not fight one another
2. Some theorists argue that bargaining in the foreign policy arena by democracies is
impeded by the openness required by the democratic format.
True
3. A bi-polar international system is more conducive to peace than a multi-polar system.
Select all the correct answers.
True, because there is a greater likelihood of miscalculating balances in a multi-polar
international system leading to conflict between great powers.
True, because of the relative ease of balancing power through internal efforts.
4. The fact that the worlds leading democracies share common moral values guides
them to cooperate with each other to maintain world peace.
Not true under all circumstances.
5. A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the foreign
policy arena because experts are not the sole arbitrators of what course of action to
pursue.
True
6. In a uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war are remote compared
to a multi-polar international system.
True
7. In a multi-polar international system ______________.
Select all the correct answers.
-there is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than in a bipolar international system
-the capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar international
system
8. The transformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is
an example of a change in domestic structure.
True

9. The results gathered from significant research shows that elections have a significant
impact on the peacefulness of a democracys foreign policy toward other democracies.
False

10. Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ______________ international system.
multi-polar
11. During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were ______________ and
their behavior was to a large part defined by ______________.
aligned with either of the two superpowers, shifting alliances in order to realize economic
gain
aligned with either of the two superpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were
aligned with
made impotent, what was dictated to them by the superpowers
12. Joanne Gowa argues that ______________.
Select all the correct answers.
prior to 1914, democratic states were just as likely to engage in conflicts with one another
as they were with non-democratic states
prior to World War I, democracies were less likely to align with other democracies than
with non-democratic states
13. During the Cold War, the world was a(n) ______________ international system.
bi-polar
14. The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each time a new
president is sworn into office.
False
15. The theory that the tightening economic bonds and growing interdependence between democracies will
solidify peaceful relations between democracies has been countered, in part, by Joanne Gowa who points
out that shifting markets is always possible if trade is disrupted by conflict.
True

16. According to the systems theory of international politics, a political system may be
defined ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
17. The international system of state-actors is ______________ by definition because
each state-actor is sovereign and can make its own decisions.
Anarchic

18. The international system is generally defined by functions of differentiated units.


False, because the international system is an anarchic system composed of like units (sovereign
units).

19. Which statement is not used to support the theory that a world populated by democracies
would be a peaceful world?
Peaceful relations between democracies act as a moral foundation for international relations.
Democratic economies are capable of rapidly reducing interrelated societal problems.

Democratic regimes seem to find alternative methods to war when resolving disputes among
each other.

Geopolitical Culture
Section 1
1. Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explanation, of why states and
individuals interact the way they do in international affairs.
True
2. Elkins and Simeon believe that political culture should be used to explain political
behavior _______________.
only after the examination of structural and institutional causal factors has been
exhausted
3. Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a
quiet, reserved personality over one with a gregarious personality.
True
4. Political culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study
of political culture focuses on behavior patterns and dispositions of a group of persons.
False
5. Political culture _______________.
is frequently considered a scientifically useless concept by social scientists
Both the answers are correct
is often used as an explanation of political behavior by some political commentators
6. Studying and measuring the effect of political culture on different dependent variables
is difficult because:
All of the answers are correct.
7. By understanding a collectivitys political culture, it is possible to determine the
personality of a person belonging to that collectivity.
False
8. In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled
experiments that can illuminate the unconscious assumptions of its members can be
useful.
True
9. The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variety of
personality types.
True

10. The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a
political leader.
True
11. If two collectivities have different behaviors when they have the same dependent
variable applied, Elkins and Simeon state that ___________.
All of the answers are correct.
12. The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.
is shaped by the totality of all lifes influences on multiple generations

13. Select True or False: In selecting individuals best suited to fill certain social roles, personality
and culture may become blended as political culture biases.

True
14. Political culture __________________.

-represents a disposition in favor of one range of alternatives while giving another range
of alternatives little or no attention

15. According to Elkins and Simeon, all of the following except _____ are factors that
may contribute to the creation of a political culture that could have a significant impact
on political action.
whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian state
16. Select True or False: Because a culture is a collective attribute of society, knowledge of that
societys political culture will allow one to predict the response of an individual from that society to
a given situation quite accurately.
False
17. The danger of using political culture to explain all political actions __________.
is that it ignores structural and institutional causes

18. Political culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________.


None of the answers are correct.

Democracy and Nationalism


Section 2
1. The political system which aims to protect a nations distinct culture, history and
traditions, expresses the doctrine of ______________.

Nationalism
2. During the early stages of democratization, ______________ are most likely to
inflame nationalism in the society.
National elites
3. The first phase in breaking away from the authoritarian non-democratic regime is to
______________.
Ensure National Unity between all social strata of the society
4. Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and
nationalistic feelings.
True
5. As in ______________, during the early stages of democratization some ethnic
conflicts could promote international conflict.
Argentina
6. Nationalist conflicts are happening only during violent regime transitions.
False
7. In the beginning of the democratization process, in order to secure political and
economic interests, nationalism is the right tool in the hands of the ______________.
National elites
8. At this time, the most violent ethnic conflict in East Europe is taking place in
______________.
Chechnya
9. The first phase in breaking away from the authoritarian non-democratic regime is to
______________.
Ensure National Unity between all social strata of the society
10. In Japan, a one-party democracy with a slightly authoritarian bias was acceptable to
the Western countries because ______________.
Of the bulwark this regime created against the growing influence of the Soviet Union

11. According to Snider, the most benign form of nationalism is ______________.


Civic Nationalism
Ethnic Nationalism
12. Nationalism could provoke conflict during the process of democratization because
______________.
All of the answers are correct.

13. Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and
nationalistic feelings.
True
14. After World War II, the purpose for the wave of forced democratization upon Axis
powers was to ______________.
All of the answers are correct
15. The main reason for nationalistic violence is ______________.
Age old rivalries among people with different ethnic and cultural backgrounds
16. What would be the most democratic solution in preventing future ethno national
conflicts?
Inclusion
17. The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the
below, except ______________.
Ethno nationalism
Mass participation in politics
18. After the fall of Communism the most significant nationalist conflict on European
soil, since the end of WW II, took place in the former ______________.
Yugoslavia
19. In the early stages of democratization, in multi ethnic societies partition of states
______________.
Is necessary if cultural differences have been strongly institutionalized along ethnic lines

20. Democracy cannot be accompanied by international and inter-ethnic violence.


False

21. Select True or False: According to Snider, the transition toward democracy is always
awakening nationalist desires.
True

Section 3
1. According to ______________ The liberal democracy will triumph in the future.
None of the answers are correct.
2. George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy, providing ______________.
A Balanced Perspective
3. According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracys future, the twenty first century
may be the century of collectivism.
False
4. As the role of the State increases in societies, democratic values will also increase in
its strength and importance.
False
5. ______________ gives a gloomy appraisal of the future of democracy.
Samuel Huntington
6. The Optimistic Scenario of the future democracies includes all of the following,
except that ______________.
Transnational corporations will continue to grow as sources of order within the
international community
7. Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratization are
all of the following, except ______________.
Low debt
8. Benito Mussolinis prediction about the future Fascist Century ______________.
May come to pass in this century

9. The major contender to the liberal democracy, on an ideological level, in the post Cold
War world is ______________.
Islam
10. To ensure the process of democratization and to strengthen democracy on the
national level, all efforts in the future should be focused on?
Greater social, economic and political empowerment of the poor
11. Since 1974, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule?
Over eighty
12. Francis Fukuyama believes that ______________.
The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a
prosperous and secure future

Regional Studies
Section 1
1. ______________ has/have impacted the nations of Latin America.
All of the answers are correct.
2. By 1825, all of Spains Latin American colonies had gained their independence except
______________and ______________.
Puerto Rico; Cuba
3. When did the U.S. issue the Monroe Doctrine?
Early 1800s
4. Canadas history is similar to the United States and includes: Select all that apply.
-/-In 1867 the British North American Act established Canada as an independent country.
//Canada was originally inhabited by native tribes migrating from Asia.
-//Early settlers in the 1600s were from Europe.
-/-British seized control in 1763.
5. The population in Canada is now approximately ______________.
120 million
32 million
60 million
6. ______________ conducted the only successful slave rebellion in history in 1804.
Haiti
7. ______________ did not establish colonial territories in North America.
Australia
8. While the Panama Canal is no longer considered by U.S. commanders as a major
route for warships, it is ______________ to world commerce.
vital
9. What are the two dominant languages throughout Latin America?
Spanish and English
Portuguese and English
Spanish and Portuguese

10. Which country has the most members in its lower house of legislature?
Mexico

11. According to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), ______________ of


heroin in the U.S. comes from Latin America.
82%
12. The U.S. is a major trade partner of Latin American countries.
True
13. The ______________ religion was a legacy of Spanish and Portuguese colonization
in the 16th, 17th, and 18th centuries and is the predominant religion of the mainland
countries of Latin America.
Roman Catholic
14. Latin America is ______________.
one and one half times the size of the U.S.
15. Colombia alone produces ______________ of the worlds cocaine supply.
75%
16. The Panama Canal is ______________.
a critical economic path for commerce between the east and west coasts of the U.S.
17. The U.S. used the Monroe Doctrine for what purpose?
To legitimize U.S. military interventions in Mexico, Central America, and the Caribbean
18. The longest river system in North America is the ______________.
Mississippi-Missouri-Ohio
19. The U.S. did NOT gain territories from Mexico as a result of the ______________.
Monroe Doctrine
20. Latin American culture has NOT been significantly influenced by ______________.
China
21. ______________ was not a catalyst, or driving force, in conquering and colonizing
Latin America during the 15th and 16th centuries.
The Monroe Doctrine
22. The ______________, found in Latin America, is the largest river basin in the world.
Amazon River Basin
23. ______________ was NOT involved in the 1902 blockade of Venezuela.
Great Britain
Spain
When did the U.S. begin construction on the Panama Canal in order to link the
Atlantic and Pacific Oceans?

Early 1900s

24. ______________ is the largest trading partner of Mexico, Brazil, Colombia,


Ecuador, and Peru.
The U.S.
25. The ______________ instituted by President Franklin Roosevelt is credited with
most of the nations in Latin America giving unified support to the allies during World
War II.
Good Neighbor Policy
26. Latin America has been home to which of the following indigenous peoples and
civilizations? Select all that apply.
/Toltec
/Inca
27. The ______________ links the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
Panama Canal
28. ______________ have NOT significantly influenced the ethnic makeup of Latin
Chinese
29. What are the two dominant languages throughout Latin America?
Spanish and Portuguese
30. ______________ was the primary focus of U.S. policy in Latin America during the
Cold War.
Countering the Soviet Union and its allies
31. Which of the following is NOT a conflict in which Mexico was involved?
Spanish-American War (1898)

Section 2
1. In 1978, Argentina considered a war against ______________.
Chile
2. Since its independence, Argentina has been a major rival of ______________.
Chile
3. In 1980, Argentina and Brazil put aside their rivalries in ______________.
the sphere of economic competition
the nuclear and ballistic missile spheres
the sphere of cultural disagreements
4. Geopolitics is ______________.
the study of the relationship between geography and power politics
5. In 1984, what dispute between Argentina and Chile was resolved through papal
mediation?
Beagle Channel islands
6. In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all became democratic
countries.
False
7. Historically, one of the biggest rivalries in Latin America has been between Brazil and
______________.
Argentina
8. In 2004, in order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord
with ______________.
the EU
9. The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between
______________.
Argentina and Brazil

10. The Southern Cone of Latin America includes the following countries, except
______________.
Chile
11. The Common Market of the South was founded by Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, and
______________.
Uruguay
Colombia

Ecuador
12. The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay,
Uruguay, and ______________.
Chile
13. Today, there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any countries in the
Southern Cone.
True
14. The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are
______________.
Chile and Bolivia
15. Which of the statements are true with regards to the dispute between Ecuador and
Peru in the mid-1990s?
The efforts of Argentina and Chile, in part, were responsible for a peace treaty being
signed between Ecuador and Peru.
16. The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at the highest level
its ever been.
False
17. The Democratic Peace Theory states that ______________.
Democracies do not wage wars against other democracies
18. Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or
MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin American countries, except
______________.
Venezuela and Peru
19. What is the name of the theory that suggests that democracies do not wage war
against other democracies?
Democratic Peace
20. In 2004, UN peacekeeping efforts in Haiti ______________.
were led by Brazilian military forces

Section 3
1. Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military
expenditures per year?
Brazil
2. Which of the following, if any, Latin American countries are capable of projecting and
sustaining power for an extended period of time?
No one single country
3. Which of the following organizations generally discourage military expenditures?
All of the answers are correct.
4. Some view ______________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.
Costa Rica
5. The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military
expenditures is ______________.
Colombia
6. According to most observers, South America has been ______________ since at least
the mid-1990s.
a Zone of Peace
7. What region of the world has been considered a Zone of Peace?
South America
8. The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of ______________.
defense
9. Which of the following statements is true?
Argentina is able to participate in many United Nations peacekeeping missions due to its
large military budget.

10. Which of the following statements is true?


Brazil has expanded its participation in peacekeeping missions, in part, as a way to justify
its seeking a permanent seat on the UN Security Council
11. The Latin American militaries generally face a crisis over their role and missions due
to ______________.
lack of external threats

12. In terms of the sale of weapons, Latin America is most interested in buying
______________ from the United States and Europe.
high technology jet fighters
13. The United States ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
14. Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military expenditures in Latin
America, is the only country in its region that has a military capable of major
expeditionary operations.
False
15. The United States is especially involved in ______________, assisting that
government in its campaign against the insurgents.
Colombia
16. The two South American countries that have specialized in peacekeeping operations
are ______________.
Argentina and Uruguay
17. Which of the following statements is true?
The military is widely respected in Chile.
18. Which of the following roles is not generally associated with militaries in Latin
America?
Warfighter
Defender
Police functions

Great Middle East


Section 1
1. Which of the following statements is true?
In a parliamentary democracy, the political party (or coalition of parties) with the greatest
representation in the parliament (legislature) chooses the nations leader.
2. Kashmir ______________.
is a continuing source of tension between India and Pakistan
3. The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is made up of solely
Middle Eastern nations.
False
4. Which of the following is true concerning the Byzantine Empire?
Mostly Christian
5. Which of the following statements is true?
Turkey is considered the most Westernized state in its region.
6. When did the first waves of Jewish settlers begin emigrating from Europe to the
Middle East as part of the Zionist movement?
After World War II
The 1880s
After the First World War
7. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Oil wealth spurred significant social reforms in Middle Eastern nations.
8. Which of the following are the major groups of Islam?
Sunni Islam, Shia Islam
9. Which of the following is NOT a result of the collapse of the Soviet Union?
Jewish emigration from the former Soviet Union to Israel slowed to a trickle
10. Which of the following is NOT considered a chokepoint for the sea lines of
communication in South West Asia?
Strait of Gibraltar
11. Indias collapsing economy has made it less of an important future trading partner of
the United States.
False
12. Which was the first religious group to adopt monotheism, the belief in one god?
Jews
13. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Both India and Pakistan have developed nuclear weapons.

India and Pakistan have recently shown greater willingness to resolve their differences
bilaterally and peacefully.
Indias government is founded on religious law.
14. Which of the following statements is true?
The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran resulted in the deposing of the Shah, an ally of the
United States.
15. Which of the following statements is true?
Britain, France, Italy, and Russia divided up the Arab part of the Ottoman Empire after
World War I.
16. The region around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in modern-day Iraq is also known
as ______________.
Mesopotamia
the Nile Delta region
17. Which of the following statements is true?
A campaign of civil disobedience and non-violent protest led to India gaining its
independence from the British.
18. Which of the following statements is true?
Israel is not considered to be a nuclear power.
Israel and India are the most stable liberal democracies in the Southwest Asia region.
The Soviet Union was a firm supporter of Israel during the Cold War.

Section 2
1. Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syria and Egypt regained their control over the
Golan Heights and Suez Canal.
False
2. The Arab League and Palestinian institutions ______________.
rejected the partition plan
3. The borders of modern Israel were finally established in which of the following ways?
After being invaded the Israelis established their own borders in battle by pushing back
the Armies of five Arab countries
4. The United States government strongly supported the partition of Palestine.
False
5. On November 22, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon ______________.
Israel to withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict
6. The Zionist underground Army called the Haganah was formed in the late 1930s in
______________.
Palestine
7. In 2003, Israeli Prime Minister Sharon announced that ______________.
Israeli forces would unilaterally withdraw from four Israeli settlements in Gaza and from
a small section of the northern West Bank
8. Before Jerusalem became united under Jewish sovereignty on June 7th 1967,
following the Six Day War, it was controlled by the ______________.
Jordanians

9. The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza
Strip, in 1947-1948, was a result of the ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
10. The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination
of Israeli Prime Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995.
True
11. The first direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in
______________.
Oslo, in 1992
12. The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the
______________.
Six Day War in 1967

13. The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14,
1948, was ______________.
the United States
14. Following the Camp David Accords ______________.
Israeli withdrew from the Sinai
15. Within the frame of the Oslo Declaration, the Israelis agreed to ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
16. During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ______________.
was attacked, counter-attacked, and regained control of its borders
occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank
carried out pre-emptive military strikes against Arab population centers
17. Reflecting the principle of Land for Peace, the Camp David Accords in 1978,
provided for ______________.
None of the answers are correct.
18. What is the Bush administrations attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is
constructing on the West Bank?
It considers it an illegal structure (akin to the Berlin Wall) that is a barrier to a final peace
settlement
It acquiesced to construction of the wall
19. In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab
states with Jerusalem ______________.
to become an International Zone

Section 3
1. What was Operation EARNEST WILL?
The U.S. escorting Kuwaits oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987 to 1988.
2. The leading power in the Middle East after the World War II was ______________.
Great Britain
3. The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________.
the importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential battleground in the
emerging contest with the Soviet Union
4. In 1933, Standard Oil of California received a concession for oil exploration in Saudi
Arabia, as ______________.
Ibn Saud mistrusted Britain and therefore, began to cultivate a relationship with the
United States
5. During the 1990s ______________, became the United States Navys busiest port of
call in the world outside the continental United States.
Dubai
6. In 1956, U.S. President Eisenhower refused to back ______________.
the seizure of the Suez Canal by Britain, France and Israel
7. In August of 1945, the Saudis gave the United States permission to start building
______________.
an Air base
military intelligence installations
8. May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
9. In October of 1956, after Egyptian president Abdel Nasser nationalized the Suez
Canal, ______________.
Britain, France and Israel seized it in a joint military operation

10. During the 1990s, the U.S. policy goal in the Middle East and the Persian Gulf
region was to ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
11. The U.S.-led coalition enjoyed considerable support in the Middle East for the
liberation of Iraq from the oppressive regime of Saddam Hussein.
False

12. With the eruption of the Iran-Iraq war in 1980, the United States adopted its Gulf
partners idea that included all of the below, except the following ______________.
Saddams aggressive military intentions in the Gulf region should be restrained by all
means necessary
13. In 1948, the formation of the State of Israel was a result of ______________.
Britain abandoning the mandate in Palestine and retreating from the region

14. The main objective for U.S. led Operation SOUTHERN WATCH was to
______________.
enforce the southern no-fly and no-drive zones in Iraq
monitor the Kuwaiti border with Iraq
patrol the air space of Kuwait
15. The Baghdad pact created by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and Pakistan served as
______________.
an economic commonwealth between these countries
a defense alliance against the Soviet Union
a way to minimize U.S. influence in the Middle East through political cooperation
16. In 1953, after a coup dEtat backed by Britain and the United States,
______________.
All of the answers are correct.
17. In the 1950s, the United States supported Saudi Arabia by ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
18. What happened on board the USS Quincy in the Great Bitter Lake in February, 1945?
President Roosevelt met with the Saudi King to politically affirm the emerging U.S.-Saudi
partnership

Section 4
1. The Muslim and Gregorian (Christian) calendar years match precisely.
False
2. Islam is a ______________ faith.
monotheistic (one god)
3. Members of the Islamic faith ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
4. The Quran (the sacred book of Islam) frequently mentions ______________.
Mary (the mother of Jesus)
5. The pilgrimage in the Islamic faith is also known as the ______________.
hajj
6. The hajj, or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina, is a journey every Muslim seeks to
make at least ______________ in a lifetime.
once
7. Muslims believe that God (known as Allah in Arabic) first revealed his last message
to humanity through the Prophet Muhammad in the year ______________.
610 AD
8. A crisis in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the community
of Muslims into the ______________ branches of Islam.
Shia and Sunni
9. All Arabs are Muslim and all Muslims are Arabian.
False
10. Islam recognizes the prophets of Judaism, such as Abraham and Moses.
True
11. ______________ or zakat is used primarily to support the Muslim community
through the building and upkeep of hospitals, mosques, and schools.
Almsgiving

12. If they are able, Muslims are expected to pray ______________ time(s) per day,
especially at noon on Friday.
Five
Which of the following statements is true?
Russia became a major European power during the reign of Peter the Great

in the latter part of the 17th

century.

13. The calendar year for Muslims consists of ______________ days.


360
354
14. The Muslim calendar starts with the year that ______________.
the early Muslim community fled from Mecca to Medina
15. Islam allows for only finely crafted physical representations of God or the Prophet
Muhammad.
False
16. In Islam, women are the spiritual equals of men.
True
17. Islamic law is called ______________ law.
Sharia

18. Select True or False: No Muslim is exempt from the fast during the month of Ramadan.
False

Eurasia
Section 1
1. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The decreasing capabilities of Russias military has resulted in it losing its permanent
membership on the UN Security Council in favor of China.
2. ______________, ______________, and ______________ broke away from Russia
during the Russian Civil War and were able to maintain their independence until the early
years of World War II.
Estonia, Serbia, and Turkey
Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania
Armenia, Ukraine, and Moldova
3. At its peak, the holdings of the Ottoman Empire included ______________.
all of modern Turkey, parts of Africa, and parts of Europe
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Following the end of World War II, Adolf Hitler was put on trial for war crimes by the
victorious Allied Powers.
5. Mustafa Kemal (Atatrk) ______________.
established a democratic, secular form of government that continues to form the political
foundation of modern Turkey
6. Which of the following statements is true?
The Ottoman Empire maintained a neutral position throughout the First World War.
The Ottoman Empire was a close ally of Great Britain during World War I.
The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire.
7. Many experts consider ______________ as the foundation of western civilization.
the various Greek city-states that began to rise in the 9th century BC
8. Yugoslavia ______________.
came into existence in the years between the two World Wars
9. Which of the following statements is true?
In a parliamentary democracy, the prime minister, premier, or chancellor, is chosen by
the national legislature.
10. Which of the following statements is true?
Finland fought much of World War II on the side of Germany.
11.

Which of the following statements is true?

The Soviet decision to prop up a pro-Soviet government in Afghanistan during the


Brezhnev years contributed to the decline of the Soviet economy.
12. Which of the following statement is true?
.
Russian victories over German and Austro-Hungarian forces during World War I forced
those two countries to sue for peace and strengthened the Russian Tsars position as ruler
of his country.
The Russo-Japanese War (19041905) was the first
13. Russias natural resources have given it the ability to woe its former allies and
satellites from pursuing closer relationships with the West.
True
14. Soviet casualties, both military and civilian, during World War II ______________.
included over 20 million deaths
15. Which of the following countries is not a member of NATO?
Switzerland
16. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The decreasing capabilities of Russias military has resulted in it losing its permanent
membership on the UN Security Council in favor of China.
17. Which of the following statements is true?
Russia became a major European power during the reign of Peter the Great in the latter
part of the 17th century.
18. One of the earliest significant civilizations to inhabit Western Europe was the
Carthaginians who arrived in the region from ______________.
north Africa
19. During the 1991 Gulf War, few Eurasian nations participated in the American-led
coalition forces that ended the Iraqi occupation of Kuwait.
False
20. During most of the First World War, the Central Powers included which nations?
Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottoman Empire
21. Which of the following statements is true?
Roman Catholics comprise the largest religious group in Turkey.
The vast majority of Turkish territory is in Asia, with only a small portion located in
Europe.
22. Russia is the worlds second largest oil exporter.
True
23. The European Union ______________.

is the largest economy in the world


24. The Peace of Westphalia is significant because it ______________.
has been credited with the establishment of the modern nation-state system
resulted in the exile of Napoleon Bonaparte and thus ended the Napoleonic Wars
25. Which of the following statements is true?
The Soviet decision to prop up a pro-Soviet government in Afghanistan during the
Brezhnev years contributed to the decline of the Soviet economy.
26. Which of the following statements is true?

The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire.
as split up into five
separate states by the Soviets after World War II
27. When did the creation of a single German state occur?

After the Napoleonic Wars


28. The Eastern Roman Empire, centered in Constantinople (modern day Istanbul) is also known
as the
Byzantine Empire

Section 2
1. ______________ provides the European Union (EU) with a police and peacekeeping
capability.
Eurocorps

2. European leaders believed that to head off another world war, the politics and
economies of ______________ needed closer alignment.
France and Germany
3. In the near future, competition between the European Union (EU) and the U.S. will
likely center on ______________.
economic strength and geopolitical ambitions
4. A precursor to the formation of the European Union (EU) was the establishment of the
______________.
European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC)
5. The European Union (EU) faces internal challenges due to ______________.
None of the answers are correct.
6. The capitals of the European Union (EU) are located in ______________.
Brussels (Belgium) and Strasbourg (France)
7. The origins of the European Union (EU) can be traced to ______________.
an economic agreement among six nations
8. High on the agenda of the European Union (EU) goals are ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
9. The European Union (EU) has many of the attributes associated with independent
nations, including:
All of the answers are correct.
10. The harmonization of European border policy occurred as a result of the signing of
the Treaty of ______________ in 1997.
Amsterdam
11. The European Union (EU) and the U.S. share interests in ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
12. The European Union (EU) is a construct very similar to the Association of Southeast
Asian Nations (ASEAN) and the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA).
False

Africa
Section 1
1. Conflict arises along various fault lines which run through African societies. These
fault lines include the following, EXCEPT:
Desert vs. tropical economies
2. Between 1956 and 2001:
There were over 185 coups detat throughout Africa.
3. In general, African countries ______________.
have two or more official languagesone indigenous and the other Arabic or European
4. The size of Africa is approximately ______________.
three times the size of the United States
ten times the size of the United States
half the size of the United States
5. Indigenous African peoples do NOT include the ______________.
Ottomans
6. Which is the best description regarding the East Africa Region?
Rwanda has just emerged from a time of widespread ethnic violence.
7. Muslim domination of North Africa arose from:
Arab immigration along trade routes between Arabia and sub-Saharan empires
8. Which statement is NOT true regarding the Horn of Africa?
It is the most unstable region of Africa.
Christian dominance prevents spread of Islamic extremism despite unstable, corrupt
governments.
Islamic extremists see the area as a safe haven.

9. Which of the following was NOT a factor hampering the formation of stable African
governments following colonial rule?
Local workers did not have sufficient technical expertise to extract raw materials.
10. The following are NOT challenges affecting African governments:
Scarcity of natural resources and available labor pool
11. The U.S. national interest in West Africa is focused on:

Nigerian oil
12. Africa comprises ______________.
46 continental nations and 7 island nations
13. The Central African Region is important to U.S. national interests, because:
It has rich natural resources, including oil, copper and potential for hydroelectric power.
14. Most of todays African nations became independent ______________.
during the 1950s and 1960s
15. Which is NOT true regarding Northern Africa?
Islamic extremism within moderate Arab states has manifested itself in the Algerian
insurgency and assassination of heads of state (i.e. Anwar Sadat).
Islamic fundamentalism is concentrated in this region of Africa, making it the primary
source of worldwide jihad.
Most North African nations were aligned with the Soviet Union during the Cold War.
16. The following climates can be found in Africa:
Desert, rain forest, savanna, and subarctic
17. Which is NOT true regarding Somalia?
The United States withdrew troops from Somalia after Operation UNITED SHIELD
successfully captured warlord Mohamed Siad Barre.
18. An estimated ______________ of Africans suffer from malnutrition.
one-third

Section 2
1. Select True or False: Classical ancient African religions include beliefs that state there
are many gods, but one god rules over them all.
True
2. ______________ has its roots in Africa, as demonstrated by Moses flight from
Egypt.
Judaism
3. ______________ is a form of individual or collective struggle to refocus or empower
Muslim communities.
Jihad
4. Select True or False: A strong correlation exists between a type of religion and the
quality of governance within an African country.
False
5. Which continent has links to some of the worlds earliest religions?
Europe
Africa
South America
6. ______________ is often used as a tool of mobilization to achieve political or military
ends.
Religion
7. Select True or False: Where religion revival can be found in Africa, most interactions
among faiths are rife with conflict.
False
8. In modern times, ______________ in Africa is increasingly becoming an instrument
of social mobilization.
religion
9. The majority of African Muslims consider themselves ______________.
Sunni
10. Which continent has links to some of the worlds earliest religions?
Africa
11. In Africa, ______________ was perceived as a protector of the much-persecuted
Christians.
Islam

12. Select True or False: Shia Islam is banned on the continent of Africa by the African
Union (AU).
False
13. The majority of Africans follow ______________ Islam.
Sunni
14. One of the most significant impacts of Christianity of Africans was improvements to
______________.
health and education
infrastructure
horticulture
15. ______________ can be defined as a faith system of supernatural belief that is not
testable with empirical methods.
Religion
16. ______________ is one of many African faiths calling for the worshipping of more
than one god.
Catholicism
Secularism
Animism
17. Select True or False: It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to
explain the natural world.
False
18. Select True or False: Early Christianity is rooted in the central part of Africa.
False
19. Select True or False: It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to
exercise social control.
True

Section 3
1. Most of Africa emerged from colonial rule during the ______________.
1960s
2. Addressing ______________ is the most constructive way to resolve the sources of
conflict in Africa.
pre-conflict circumstances
human trafficking concerns
organized crime
3. Select True or False: Internet cafes are becoming commonplace in even the smallest
villages in Africa.
True
4. The use of ______________ degrades the economies of the entire African continent
by depriving its nations of legitimate revenue.
child labor
5. ______________ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa.
Multiparty democracy
6. ______________ is one of the root causes of armed conflict in Africa.
Environmental degradation
7. Select True or False: The motive for most African conflicts is purely military.
False
8. ______________ can be used to promote increased capacity among African nations
for peacekeeping and stability operations.
All of the answers are correct.
9. ______________ is/are linking Africans together in ways that were unimaginable only
a few years ago.
All of the answers are correct.
10. Africas economic development must keep pace with its ______________ or its
economy will stagnate and decline.
population growth
11. The largest number of African deaths each year is caused by ______________.
disease and famine
12. Select True or False: The elites in Africa, that assumed power when European
colonial nations departed, greatly improved the process of the peaceful transfer of power
between successive governments.
False

13. Coordination of ______________ are essential for the continued development of


African nations.
agriculture, health, and food delivery systems
14. Many of the security issues in Africa can be traced to ______________.
the challenges many Africans face in supporting themselves
15. Select True or False: Africa has made the most of its vast hydroelectric power
potential.
False
16. Risks to Africas internal security could be reduced through ______________.
the availability of regular and adequate employment
17. ______________ is an ideal source for funding insurgencies in Africa and contribute
greatly to instability on the continent.
All of the answers are correct.
18. Select True or False: Unpopular governments in Africa have found their positions
strengthened by the availability of mass communication.
False
19. Select True or False: Strong evidence exists to support the notion that the suspension
of civil rights has brought peace and stability to wide areas of Africa.
False

Asia Pacific
Section 1
1. ______________ has the largest economy in terms of gross domestic product (GDP)
in Asia Pacific.
Japan
2. Americas number two trading partner is ______________.
China
3. The population of Asian cities is growing at a rate of ______________ the overall
population.
half
twice
4. Approximately 90 percent of the worlds Hindus live in ______________.
India and Nepal
5. The combined oceans of Asia Pacific cover nearly ______________ of the earths
surface.
one-half
seven-eights
6. ______________ is the official language of the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN).
English
7. In which country is Christianity the majority religion?
Philippines
8. In many Asian countries, the majority of the population ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
9. The combined population of India and China account for ______________ percent of
the worlds people.
40
10. The most strategically important waterway in the Asia Pacific region is the
______________.
Strait of Malacca
11. ______________ (or one of its variants) is the most common language of Asia
Pacific.
Chinese
12. Asia Pacific contains nearly ______________ percent of the worlds population.

60
13.
The largest Muslim population in the world can be found in ______________.
Indonesia
14. Which of the following nations is not considered a possessor of nuclear weapons?
nbv
Japan
15. The width of Asia Pacific spans ______________ time zones.
16
16. Which of the following modern nations was not a part of French Indochina?
Cambodia
Laos
Thailand
17. Which of the following nations is not a Communist nation?
Burma

Section 2
1. Pakistan controlled Kashmir is known as:
Azad Kashmir
2. Select True or False: After the partition of British India until present, there have been
no major clashes between Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs.
False
3. Under the partition plan, colonial Indias military assets ______________.
were to be divided between India and Pakistan in a 60:40 ratio
4. Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of
Colonial India, including the military assets.
False
5. Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent
state of their own?
Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-independent India, Muslims minorities
would be denied full rights.
6. The Mohajirs were ______________.
The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsiders
7. ______________ presided over the partitioning of British India which ended colonial
rule in India.
British Lord Mountbatten
8. Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ______________.
Climate, beauty, and natural environment
9. ______________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country
populated mostly by Muslims and one country populated mostly by non-Muslims.
A colation of influential Sihk and Hindu leaders
The Muslim League
Mohandas Gandhi

10. The partition of South Asia was driven by ______________.


South Asian Sihks fear of being underrepresented
South Asian Muslims fear of being underrepresented
British desire to maintain influence in the region

11. The First Kashmir War (January 1948-January 1, 1949), between Pakistan and India,
ended as a result of ______________.
The United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities
12. Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ______________.
Shia and Sunni Muslims
13. Today, as a result of the partition of British India, there are three sovereign countries
______________.
Pakistan, Bangladesh and India
14. The India-Pakistan conflict is based upon ______________ issues.
All of the answers are correct.
15. The riots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as Direct Action day, were
provoked by ______________.
Muslims who were pushing hard for the partition of British India into two nations
16. Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ______________.
Shia and Sunni Muslims
Sunni and Ahmedia Muslims
Muslims and Christians
17. The Northwestern Frontier Province is an unsettled boundary dispute between
______________.
Pakistan and Afghanistan

Section 3
1. In the 1960s the Chinese-Soviet relationship ______________.
turned into outright hostility
2. The Sino-Soviet split ______________.
grew out of diverging strategic interests over Krushchevs policy of "peaceful
coexistence" with the West
3. Deng Xiaopings reforms ______________.
legitimized private sector in the economy and opened China to foreign investment and
trade
4. The main purpose of the Cultural Revolution was to ______________.
reassert Maos power and his supreme authority in the country
5. China adopted a defense posture of the peoples war in the 1960s because
______________.
its huge population and territory were its best assets for resisting foreign attack at the
time
6. The primary beneficiary of the Cultural Revolution ______________.
was the Peoples Liberation Army
7. The struggle for power among the leadership of the PRC in the early 1970s was
between ______________.
moderate leaders and Cultural Revolution radicals within the CCP
8. President Nixon went to China because ______________.
he thought relations with Beijing would be useful against the USSR and in Vietnam
9. Chinas break from the USSR meant that ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
10. By the end of the 1960s, China continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary.
False
11. In the 1960s the military strategy of the PLA of China mainly relied on below
mentioned factors, except ______________.
Chinas technological superiority
12. The Tiananmen demonstrations ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
13. Deng Xiaopings reforms stressed ______________.
the expending the role of international trade and investment in Chinas development
14. In the 1950 and 60s, the U.S. policy of containing China included
______________.

All of the answers are correct.


15. Chinas transformation into an emerging world power was the result of
______________.
Deng Xiaopings reform policies
the huge loans received from the IMF
Maos successfully launched Cultural Revolution in 1966
16. Under the leadership of Deng Xiaoping, China normalized relations with
______________.
All of the answers are correct.
17. At the end of the 1950s and in the beginning of 1960s, the hallmark of Chinese
policies was ______________.
to promote self-reliance
18. In 1978, China normalized relations with ______________.
Japan
19. The main reason for serious disagreements between Moscow and Beijing in the early
1960s was ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
20. By the end of the 1960s, China continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary.
False
21. Mao launched the Cultural Revolution in the late 1960s ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
22. Why is China increasingly important today?
Chinas economic, political, and military power is rising
23. In the 1960s, China pursued policies of self-reliance because ______________.
None of the the answers are correct.
in the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pressure, it had no other choice
24. The "three bitter years" were recalled by the Chinese government after the failure of
______________ policy.
the Great Leap Forward

Operational Planning
Section 1
1. An Operation Order (OPORD) is ______________.
a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinating
execution of an operation
2. Which of the following is correct?
In the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is generally issued after the
President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action.
3. Contingency planning focuses on ______________.
potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces
4. Which of the following is correct?
A commander may be a supporting commander for one operation while being a
supported commander for another.
5. The subsets of Joint Operation Planning are ______________.
contingency planning and crisis action planning
contingency planning, crisis action planning and combat action planning
6. Security Cooperation Planning deals with ______________.
bilateral and multilateral defense activities conducted with foreign countries
assisting foreign counties in providing for their own national security
7. A concept plan (CONPLAN) ______________.
is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require considerable expansion or
alteration to convert it into an OPLAN
8. Security Cooperation Planning goals are identified by the ______________.
Secretary of Defense
9. Which of the following may be tasked to produce supporting plans by a combatant
commander?
All the answers are correct.
10. A(n) ______________ provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation
of execution planning after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a military
course of action.
Alert Order
11. A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the
objective of securing a inland airbase. In order to divert enemy forces, two Carrier Strike
Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air strikes as
required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and a

list of targets he needs to be attacked prior to his assault on the airbase. Which is most
likely the supported commander for this operation?
The Colonel commanding the MEU.
12. Combatant commanders prepare their theater strategies and plans based on the
guidance and directions given by the ______________.
President, Secretary of Defense and the Chairman of the Joints Chief of Staff
13. At the national strategic level, force planning is associated with ______________.
creating and maintaining military capabilities
14. The purpose of Joint Operation Planning is to ______________.
prepare and employ American military power in response to actual and potential
contingencies
15. Security Cooperation Planning goals are identified by the ______________.
President
Secretary of Defense
16. When the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military
action related to a crisis, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n)
______________ to implement the approved military course of action.
Execute Order
17. Joint strategic planning ______________.
All the answers are correct
18. The subsets of joint strategic planning are ______________.
ground combat planning, air combat planning, naval combat planning and logistical
support planning
security cooperation planning, joint operation planning and force planning
19. Who is responsible for the development and production of joint operation plans?
The Combatant Commanders

Section 2
1. Gathering information of potential intelligence value from sources such as newspapers,
television broadcasts and the internet is a part of which intelligence discipline?
Open-source Intelligence
2. Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the
adversary?
All of the answers are correct.
3. The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________.
the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operations area
and the nonphysical dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational
area
4. The primary focus of naval intelligence is ________________.
to provide tactical support to operating forces
5. Which of the following best describes Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace
(IPB) applicability within the range of military operations?
The basic IPB process remains the same across the range of military operations.

6. What process is used to analyze the air, land, sea, space, weather, electromagnetic, and
information environments as well as other dimensions of the battlespace, and to
determine an adversarys capabilities to operate in each?
Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace
7. Who, on the Commanders staff, has the primary responsibility for planning,
coordinating and conducting the overall Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB)
analysis and production effort?
The N-2/J-2 (Intelligence)
8. Which of the following statements is true as it describes the focus of the Intelligence
Preparation of the Battlespace in reference to conventional and asymmetric operations?
There is no difference between JIBP and the two types of operations.
The steps remain the same but the focus is slightly different.
9. The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process is applicable to
asymmetric operations.
True

10. The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to
____________________.
support the commanders planning and decision making by identifying, assessing and
estimating the adversary

11. In which step of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process are
overlays depicting the geography of the area of responsibility produced?
Describe the Battlespaces Effects.
12. Determining the intention of allies and potential coalition partners is a focus of
intellegence at what level of war?
Strategic level
13. The geographic and non-geographic dimensions of the battlespace are both contained
within the Commanders designated operating area.
False
14. The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively prior
to an operation to support the commanders planning effort.
False
15. An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in light
of U.S. doctrine.
False
16. Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB)
focus?
Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue
17. Which step of the IPB process provides a disciplined method for analyzing the set of
potential adversary Courses of Action in order to identify the most likely and the most
dangerous COAs?
Define the Battlespace Environment.
Evaluate the Adversary.
Determine Adversary Courses of Action.
18. The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________.
the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operations area
and the nonphysical dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated
operational area
the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operations area

Although the four steps in the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB)
process remain the same across the spectrum of conflict, they may be
compacted or expanded as time permits.
True

19. What is the primary difference between Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace
(IPB) for conventional war vice for Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW)?
The focus
20. Which step of the IPB process seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order
to help the JFC attain battlespace knowledge?
Determine adversary potential COAs.
21. Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the
adversary?
All of the answers are correct.

Section 3
1. The Navy Planning Process is a rigid step-by-step process that, if followed, will lead
the staff to a decision.
False
2. What will the staff normally use in comparing friendly Courses of Action and to aid in
focusing on the advantages and disadvantages of each COA?
Governing factors
3. A friendly Course of Action ____________________.
is any concept of operation open to a commander that, if adopted, would result in the
accomplishment of the mission
4. ____________________ is a written or oral communication that directs actions and
focuses a subordinates tasks and activities toward mission accomplishment.
An order
5. The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what level (s) of command?
All of the answers are correct.
6. The Course of Action selected during the NPP is the basis for what?
the development of plans and the issuing of combat orders.
7. Which statement best states what a good Course of Action provides to the operation?
All of the answers are correct.

Once a wargame has begun, a commander may change an existing Course of


Action.
True

8. Tasks listed in the mission received from higher headquarters are what type of tasks?
Specified tasks
9. Which statement is correct when discussing the Navy Planning Process?
A logical decision process that helps focus the commander and staff
10. During the comparison of the friendly Courses of Action step in the Navy planning
Process, what does comparing the strengths and weaknesses of the Courses of Action
provide?
It aids in identifying respective COA advantages and disadvantages.
11. Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are a type of implied task.
False

12. Like the Navy Planning Process, the process for deliberate and crisis planning is left
up to the combatant commander.
False
13. What is prepared in anticipation of operations and normally serves as the basis of a
future order?
A plan
14. The Intelligence of the Battlespace process assists in identifying facts and
assumptions about ____________________ and ____________________.
the battlespace environment; the adversary
15. Within the Navy Planning Process, at what point would the commander determine
potential adversary Courses of Action?
During the JIPB process
16. During wargaming, the staff ____________________.
compares each friendly COA with each adversary COA
compares the most likely adversary COA with the most favorable friendly COA
compares the most dangerous adversary COA with the riskiest friendly COA
17. The wargaming process relies heavily on ____________________.
a solid joint doctrinal foundation, tactical judgment, and operational experience
an inflexible process that ensures complete adherence to joint doctrine
completely objective gaming criteria

Operational Law
1. Which of the following statements is true?
The U.S. is both a coastal state and a maritime state.
Why does the law of the sea and airspace matter?
All of the answers are correct.

2. Which of the following statements is true?


Permission from higher authority may be required to enter a specific body of water.
3. National waters are subject to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include
which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
4. Innocent passage is a right of all ships to transit through territorial seas and
_______________________.
Coastal nations may use force in some circumstances to remove ships which are
demonstrating non-innocent behavior.
5. A party transiting an international strait must do which of the following?.
All of the answers are correct.
6. Which of the following statements is true regarding the UN Convention on the Law of
the Sea (UNCLOS)?
It attempts to create a new legal order for ocean space.
7. International waters include which of the following?
Select all the correct answers.
Territorial seas.
Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs).
8. Regarding the collision of a U.S. EP-3 and a Chinese fighter on 01 April 2001, which
of the following is/are true?
All of the answers are correct.
9. UNCLOS includes two major parts which are ____________.
Coastal nation and navigation/overflight rights & deep seabed mining provisions.
10. References regarding the law of the sea include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct
11. Basic maritime zones are drawn from baselines which may include which of the
following?

All of the answers are correct.


12. Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the high seas,
which _______________.
All of the answers are correct.
13. According to UNCLOS, territorial seas extend to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical
miles and may be temporarily closed (with the exception of international straits) by a
coastal nation for security purposes.
True
14. Which of the following is true of Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZs)?
They apply to all aircraft.

If a nation that is a signatory to the Geneva Conventions is involved in armed


conflict with non-signatory nations, and those nations engage in activities that are
contrary to the terms of the Geneva Convention, the signatory nation is no longer
bound by the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).

False

Law of Armed Conflict


Section 1
1. Given that it has been determined that the Al-Qaeda and Taliban members captured in
Afghanistan should be classified as unlawful combatants, which of the following
statements is true?
The U.S. is not required to afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs under
the Geneva Conventions, but will do so as a matter of U.S. domestic policy.
2. Which statement is true?
The United States has unilaterally decided to apply the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)
to all of its military operations.
3. U.S. domestic policy broadens the circumstances under which we apply the Law of
Armed Conflict.
True
4. Which of the following will make the statement not true?
The terms of treaties concerning the conduct of forces during armed conflict, such as the
Geneva and Hague Conventions, ____________.
only apply to the signatories to those treaties
in some cases, have been narrowed by U.S. domestic policy as they pertain to U.S.
military personnel
5. The applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is guided by the
generally accepted terms of international law.
True
6. Law of Armed Conflict is a more accurate phrase than Law of War
____________________.
as Law of Armed Conflict conveys the message that some or all of the law will apply in
all types of military operations
7. The Geneva Conventions of 1949, which govern many aspects of military operations,
are similar to the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC), in that they apply to all nations.
False
8. U.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva Conventions as a minimum
concerning the conduct of hostilities and the care of victims of armed conflict.
True
9. The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the Navy have issued
directives that state that the armed forces of the United States will, unless otherwise
directed by competent authorities, comply with the principles and spirit of the Law of
Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operations that do not involve
armed conflict.

False
10. U.S. policy views the terms of the Geneva Conventions as ____________________.
a minimum standard
11. The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________.
a generally accepted body of international law
12. The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) applies to ____________________.
the militaries of all nations
13. Current U.S. policy concerning the applicability and scope of the Law of Armed
Conflict is consistent with at least the minimum standards of international law.
True
14. The United States policy is to broadly apply the LOAC when conducting military
operations so that it may more easily punish its enemies after the cessation of hostilities.
False
15. When a member of the United Nations Security Council is engaged in a military
action pursuant to a United Nations Security Council resolution, it is automatically
exempted from its Law of Armed Conflict obligations.
False
16. It is advantageous for a nation to become a signatory to the Geneva Conventions as
not doing so will deny its military personnel the treatments required under that treaty
should they be captured by the forces of a signatory nation.
False
17. If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a
non-signatory nation ____________________.
the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva Convention bind
only the signatory nation

Section 2
1. A combatant who commits a war crime loses his status as a combatant, but is still
afforded POW status and treatment if captured by the enemy even if found guilty of the
crime.
False
2. The wearing and use of camouflage by combatants is prohibited by LOAC because
doing so would violate the wearing of a fixed emblem recognizable at a distance part of
the test to determine combatant status.
False
3. A civilian that directly participates in hostile actions ____________________.
is classified as a unlawful combatant

4. The principles that have guided the development of LOAC are


____________________.

distinction, necessity, proportionality and humanity


5. Only members of a nations regular military can be classified as combatants under
LOAC.
False
6. Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged in armed conflict
____________________.
may not be targeted, but are to be afforded POW status if captured
7. Military medical officers, if captured ____________________.
are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner of war camps to
provide medical services to POWs
8. Violations of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) are violations of U.S. law and
punishable under the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
True
False
9. If a subordinate commits a war crime, his or her superior ____________________.
can be held accountable if the superior reasonably should have known that a war crime
was committed and failed to intervene or hold the subordinate accountable
10. A nation has a duty under LOAC to remove civilians and civilian objects from the
vicinity of military objectives.
True
11. Civilians in the battlespace are classified as ____________________.

civilians
12. Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the U.S. military undergoes
a review to ensure its legality under LOAC, there is no need for a service member to
worry that its use would violate LOAC.
False
13. In attacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________.
incidental consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the anticipated
concrete and direct military advantage to be gained from the attack
the use of a weapon that will knowingly cause incidental consequences is prohibited
under LOAC
the use of any weapon which will destroy that target is allowable under LOAC
14. Legitimate military objectives may include ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
15. A civilian airport may be classified as a legitimate military objective if
____________________.
it is currently being used by the enemy to launch and recover military aircraft
16. Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused by the enemys forces during
an armed engagement, ____________________.
while a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse, its status must be
continually verified to ensure it does not return to civilian object status

17. Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an
acceptable tactic.
False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes.

Rules of Engagement
Section 1
1. U.S. Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________ issued by
____________________.
directives, competent military authority
2. Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any
given mission protect U.S. nationals and their property.
True
3. The political component of Rules of Engagement seeks to _________.
All of the answers are correct.
4. Developers of U.S. Rules of Engagement (ROE) must ensure that the ROE comply
with domestic law.
True
5. Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nations
political goals.
False
6. German military analyst Carl von Clausewitz theorized that ____________________.
war is a continuation of political intercourse
7. Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under
which U.S. forces will continue combat engagement as only the nations civilian leaders
may initiate a combat engagement.
False
8. U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules of Engagement
(ROE) other than approving the ROE as presented to them by the military establishment.
False
9. U.S. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces
____________________.
shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC

10. Judge advocates are ____________________.


used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the
mission and to assist planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific
Rules of Engagement (ROE)

11. Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners and tactical level
operators enough leeway to effectively accomplish their assigned missions.
True
12. The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must
____________________.
allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission
13. The three major components of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are
____________________.
political, military and economic
political, military and legal
14. Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in
order to ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
15. Domestic and international public support of a military action is a factor to be
considered when developing Rules of Engagement (ROE).
True

Section 2
1. U.S. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive because they
____________________.
provide commanders with the flexibility to act quickly and decisively without repetitively
requesting permission to take certain actions
2. The goals of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a stable international
environment consistent with U.S. national interests.
True
3. The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) are only applicable to U.S. forces operating
within the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.
False
4. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include the destruction of a
hostile force under actions permitted in self-defense.
False
5. In its guidance concerning self-defense measures, the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE) ____________________.
permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat
6. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces operating
within the United States when supporting law enforcement authorities conducting
counterdrug operations against foreign nationals.
False
7. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require proportionality in the
use of force in self-defense as to do so would restrict a commander's inherent right and
obligation of self-defense.
False
8. The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not apply to U.S. forces supporting law
enforcement agencies conducting special event security within the U.S. if the suspected
threat is a terrorist group based in a foreign country.
False
9. A commander has an obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all
appropriate actions in defense of ____________________.
the commander's own unit and other U.S. forces in the vicinity
other allied forces in the vicinity

10. When U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by
____________________.

the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial jurisdiction
of the U.S. and the U.S. Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if responding to a
military attack
11. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces during military
attacks against the United States.
True
12. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during
military operations ____________________.
occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.
occurring within the continental U.S
13. The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is
organized ____________________to facilitate quick reference during crisis or deliberate
planning.
by authorization level
14. The unclassified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can
serve as a coordination tool with U.S. allies for the development of combined or
multinational ROE.
True
15. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________.
are divided into three portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of force in
self-defense; 2) a classified portion discussing the use of force for mission
accomplishment; and 3) a classified portion discussing the use of force within the
territorial jurisdiction of the United States
are divided into two unclassified portions discussing the use of force in self-defense and
the use of force for mission accomplishment
are divided into two portions: 1) an unclassified portion discussing the use of force in
self-defense; and 2) a classified portion discussing the use of force for mission
accomplishment
16. U.S. national security interests guide global objectives of deterring, and, if necessary,
defeating armed attacks or terrorist actions against designated non-U.S. forces.
True under certain circumstances
17. Supplemental measures are contained in which section of the U.S. Standing Rules of
Engagement (SROE)?
The classified section
18. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) is promulgated by the
____________________.
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Section 3
1. Impeding U.S. forces from the recovery of U.S. personnel and vital U.S. government
property can be considered a hostile act.
True
2. Hostile intent is defined as the threat of instantaneous or immediate use of force
against the U.S., U.S. forces, and in certain circumstances, others.
False
3. The authority to extend U.S. protection to non-U.S. forces and foreign nations may be
exercised only by ____________________.
the President or the Secretary of Defense
4. Individual self-defense allows one to use force to defend oneself and U.S. forces in
ones vicinity from a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent.
True, but an individuals right to defend oneself may be constrained by direction from the
appropriate commander.
5. The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.
is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or
demonstration of hostile intent can be prevented or terminated
6. When involved in a situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the
commander ____________________.
should give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to withdraw or
cease threatening actions if time and circumstances permit
7. Normally, a force is declared hostile by ____________________.
a ROE authorized by the President or the Secretary of Defense
8. Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. nationals and property from attack?
All of the answers are correct.
9. Self-defense includes the authority to pursue the enemy force
____________________.
only if the enemy force remains an imminent threat
10. The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) provides ___________ to assist
commanders in determining if an approaching aircraft, ship or ground unit is
demonstrating hostile intent.
guidance on various indicators that might be considered
11. Knowledge that a terrorist is preparing to use force to attack a U.S. Navy ship
____________________.
may be sufficient to satisfy the imminent requirement and thus authorize the use of force
in self-defense

12. Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat requirement for selfdefense.
True
13. Hostile intent is defined as the threat of instantaneous or immediate use of force
against the U.S., U.S. forces, and in certain circumstances, others.
False
14. A commanders inherent authority and obligation to use all necessary means available
and to take all appropriate actions in self-defense is limited to the self-defense of the
commanders own unit.
False
15. Force used to preclude or impeded the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces can be
considered ____________________.
a demonstration of hostile intent
a violation of LOAC
a hostile act
16. A force that has been declared hostile via an ROE authorized by the President
_______________.
may be engaged immediately by a commander of U.S. forces
must commit a hostile act or demonstrate hostile intent before it may be engaged by a
commander of U.S. forces
17. The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend themselves before they
are attacked.
True
18. Force used in self-defense must be ____________________.
necessary and effective
necessary and approved by the combatant commander
necessary and proportional

Section 4
1. When developing alternative courses of action (COAs) to accomplish an assigned
mission, the planning staff ____________________.
must give due consideration to the Rules of Engagement not yet approved but required in
order to conduct the COA
2. The Operation Order (OPORD) that is promulgated by the commander of an assigned
mission should/may include all of the following except ___________.
requests for supplemental measures
3. The drafting of Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement has been delegated to the
various ____________________.
Combatant Commanders
4. The supplemental measures found in the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules
of Engagement (SROE) are available for use by all commanders of U.S. forces unless
specifically withheld.
False
5. In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission
____________________.
the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered
6. Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissive ____________________.
but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapons and/or tactics
7. If there are Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement in effect, a commander given a
mission within that theater is limited to those Rules of Engagement when executing an
assigned mission.
False
8. Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
9. Supplemental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________.
augment the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific ROE, if
any and should be constantly reviewed by commanders to ensure they are sufficient to
successfully accomplish the mission
should never be revised once they are in place

10. Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment and Rules of


Engagement may define certain permissible targets.
True

11. As part of the military command and control structure, the United States has divided
its global responsibilities into geographic regions each commanded by a
________________.
Combatant Commander
12. ____________________ all factor into the development of mission-specific Rules of
Engagement (ROE).
Political, military and legal objectives
Military, legal and international objectives
13. In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role of the
principal assistant to staff director for operations in developing and integrating Rules of
Engagement (ROE) into operational planning.
Staff Judge Advocate
14. Mission planners must ensure that the mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
support ____________________.
the pre-conflict, conflict, and post-conflict phases of an operation
15. Clear guidance on what forces are declared hostile should be included in
____________________.
the developed mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)
16. The initial guidance in developing Rules of Engagement (ROE) for a particular
mission ____________________.
is the classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)
17. Rules of Engagement (ROE) development ____________________.
is parallel and collaborative with operations planning and require extensive coordination
occurs after operations planning so that ROE can be tailored to support the mission
18. Commanders who have been delegated the responsibility to draft Theater-Specific
Rules of Engagement are required to ____________________.
constantly review them and modify as necessary

Section 5
1. U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States in support
of another agency (for example the U.S. Coast Guard) may operate under that agencys
Rules for the Use of Force (RUF).
True
2. The Rules for the Use of Force may apply to U.S. forces guarding prisoners outside
the territorial jurisdiction of the United States.
True
3. The Rules for the Use of Force only apply when conducting operations that involved
armed conflict.
False
4. The Rules for the Use of Force only apply when conducting operations that involved
armed conflict.
False
5. Rules for the Use of Force apply to protecting U.S. Naval Ships in international
waters.
True
6. U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States may
operate under Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed specifically for the
mission they are assigned.
True
7. The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) apply to all U.S. forces operating inside the
territorial jurisdiction of the United States conducting: counter-drug operations, special
event security and response to military attack.
False
8. The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U.S. forces overseas when they are
protecting vital government assets.
True

Block 6
Sensors
Section 1
1. Which of the following sensor types uses sound to detect a target?
Sonar
2. Night vision goggles work best and give the greatest tactical advantage when used
______________.
under extremely low levels of ambient light
3. Which of the following statements concerning the Global Positioning System (GPS) is
true?
Select all correct answers.
-The constellation consists of 28 satellites.
It cannot be used as a weapons guidance system.
-It consists of satellites and ground stations used for monitoring and control.
-Its most significant disadvantages for surface ship navigation purposes is the limited
over -ocean coverage and the high cost of receivers.
4. Advanced sensor systems allow their users to ______________.
gauge enemy forces before being detected themselves
5. GPS provides users with accurate information on ______________.
position, velocity and time
6. The first known sinking of a U-boat during World War I was aided by a(n)
______________.
passive sonar system
7. Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems were developed during
______________ and used up until ______________.
the Cold War, the present time
8. Infrared systems are best used to detect ______________.
a warm object against a relatively cool background
9. Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used in which weapon?
AIM-9 Sidewinder missile

10. During World War II, the British developed ______________, the first
______________, which played a pivotal role in the British victory at the Battle of
Britain.
the magnetron, higher power microwave source

silicon impregnated quartz, infrared sensitive material


11. Although first patented in 1904, radar wasnt very militarily useful until
______________.
World War II
12. Improving our ability to survey the environment improves our capacity to
______________.
Select all correct answers.
defend against attack
seize the initiative
13. During the 1990s, increases in technology related to which type of sensor system
allowed its users to own the night?
Low-light imaging
14. Night vision goggles see in the dark by using ______________.
ambient light
15. Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of
German submarine activity during World War I?
Sonar
16. A GPS receiver determines its position by ______________.
comparing the difference between received time signals from two or more different GPS
land-based radio stations (GPSLBR)
17. The AIM-9 Sidewinder missile has proven to be a disappointment as its limited
success has not justified its high cost.
False

18. The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ______________.
All the answers are correct.

Section 2
1. The ratio of the highest deviation of a value represented by the sensor to the actual
value is used to determine a sensors ______________.
accuracy
2. Which statement is true?
Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit change in the
parameter being measured.
3. A monostatic sensor has ______________.
the detector and source collocated
4. Increasing the frequency of a signal wave (while maintaining a constant wave
velocity) results in ______________.
a decrease of wavelength
5. Measuring the output of a sensor in response to an accurately known input is known as
______________.
calibration
6. Gain refers to the increase of a transmitted signals power per unit area caused by
______________.
focusing a transmitted signal's power in a certain direction, or directions
7. Which type of sensor operates in such a way that it can be used with minimal risk of
detection by enemy forces?
Passive sonar
8. Interference may be ______________.
constructive and destructive
9. Spectroscopy is used to determine ______________.
what wavelengths are coming off a target
10. Which statement is NOT true?
Dispersion does not affect a highly focused beam of energy.
11. A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having ______________.
a transmitter in one location and the receiver in another
12. Which statement is NOT true?
None of the answers are correct.

13. Sound travels ______________.


faster in water than in air

14. If system A has an antenna gain of 1 and system B has an antenna gain of 4,
which statement is not true?
System Bs signals power per unit area is one fourth that of system As signal.
15. A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ______________.
has multiple receivers and/or transmitters arrayed in a linear pattern
has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire range
16. Refraction refers to ______________.
the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the medium the signal
is traveling through
17. A multistatic sensor is a sensor ______________.
that can be operated in both active and passive modes
18. Which statement is NOT true?
Radio waves have a higher frequency than gamma rays.
19.
20.

Section 3
1. A frequency of 1 GHz is how many times higher than 1 KHz?
One thousand
One billion
One million
2. While we can only see/hear a small fraction of the exploitable frequency spectrum, we
can employ sensors to make use of the remainder of the spectrum.
True
3. For a given frequency, a larger sensor can receive more effectively than a smaller one.
False
4. What is the standard military band for a sensor operating at 3.5 x 108 Hz?
B-band
5. The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at 20 degrees C
would be the same for underwater and above water platforms.
False
6. Gamma rays are a good example of ______________.
high frequency and low wavelength
7. Sensor size is proportional to frequency.
False
8. What is an alternative way of writing 7.4 x 108 Hz?
740 MHz
9. Aircraft can only accommodate sensors of one meter or less.
False
10. A short wave radio signal at 20 MHz would exist in which standard military band?
A-band
11. What is an alternate way of writing .023 km?
23 meters
12. The terms standard industry, standard international, and standard military are
synonymous when referring to frequency band designations.
False

13. The elasticity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water.
False

14. How does the speed of sound through water compare with the speed of sound
through air?
Approx. 4.4 times faster in water than air
15. The speed of sound through water changes with ______________.
water temperature

Section 4
1. A diesel powered submarine can reduce its likelihood of detection by passive sonar by
______________.
operating on battery power
2. The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe
______________.
multiple false targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target
3. Which of the following includes three propagation paths of sound in the ocean?
Direct path, bottom bounce and sound channel
4. A major limitation of airborne antisubmarine assets is that aircraft ______________.
have a relatively short on-station time
5. Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat
ability more efficient, more cost effective and safer by ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
6. Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming?
Cover pulse jamming
7. The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a targets radar at unexpected
times is used in ______________.
cover pulse jamming
8. In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement sequence, one can
never have too much sensor provided information. The more information that can be
collected, the easier the human decision making process is in a tense, stressful
environment.
False
9. Biological weapons detectors are currently deployed aboard ______________.
None of the answers are correct.
10. A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is ______________.
that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar

The military fields and continues to use systems that may be generations behind
the civilian state of the art in order to avoid being forced to utilize unreliable
assets.
True

11. Electronic warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual
threats to its platform because ______________.
they cannot localize, identify and deconflict incoming contacts before radar
many nations utilize commercial radar on their naval ships which may lead to
misidentification
they do not yet have the ability to classify incoming missile emitters
12. Infrared sensors can be utilized to detect submarines under certain conditions.
True
13. Of the various optical sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abilities
in the future include ______________.
unmanned aerial vehicles
14. Erratic environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except
______________.
None of the answers are correct.
15. The sending out of electromagnetic energy at a power level significantly higher than
that of an enemys radar and at the same frequency is used in ______________.
barrage jamming

Section 5
1. ______________ is the command responsible for the development of aircraft and air
systems.
NAVAIR
2. The ever increasing amount of data provided by current and future sensor systems,
increases the potential of ______________.
subjecting the operators and decision makers to information overload
3. Because nearly every type of sensor system can be improved, it is important to
______________.
anticipate future threats and develop systems with specific specifications to defeat them
4. ______________, through its ______________ sifts through fleet requirements and
decides which programs to support.
The System Commands, Subject Matter Experts (SMEs)
The Office of the Chief of Naval Operations (OPNAV), Resource Sponsors
5. ______________ generate(s) a lit of Future Naval Capabilities (FNCs) that serve as a
roadmap to direct research and development funding.
ONR
6. Expenditures for future threats must always take a back seat to current warfighter
needs as it is useless to develop a weapon or system for tomorrow if we cant win today.
False
7. ______________ is the command responsible for the development of communications
and computer systems.
SPAWAR
8. Unmanned autonomous vehicles will eliminate one of the largest cost factors for
equipment manpower.
False
9. The program office that is in charge of the development a system must strive to
______________.
All of the answers are correct.
10. A limiting factor in developing the most advanced aircraft sensor systems possible is
______________.
the space needed to house such a system using current, or near future technology
11. The Navys development of new technologies is managed completely by Department
of the Navy civilian personnel.
False

12. All officers that have been involved in Navy program management are barred from
working for defense contractors after retirement because to do so would be a conflict of
interest.
False
13. ______________ is the command responsible for the development of ships and
shipboard systems.
NAVSEA
14. ______________ control(s) large scope programs not falling within the scope of a
Systems Command.
BUPERS
Program Executive Offices
The specific type commander whose forces will ultimately utilize the subject of the
program
15. A limiting factor in developing the most advanced aircraft sensor systems possible is
______________.
the training level of the Sailors currently maintaining similar equipment
the necessity of using outside (civilian) contractors to manufacture such sensors
the space needed to house such a system using current, or near future technology
16. Because of the rapid increase of computing power, and every indication that such
increases will continue at least for at least the next 10 years, there is no longer the danger
of what is commonly referred to as information overload.
False
17. Program Executive Offices are solely concerned with the technical aspects of
bringing future systems on line and thus are not involved in determining warfighter
requirements.
False

Section 6
1. Magnetic sensors are capable of detecting ______________ objects.
undersea
2. The purpose of a magnetic sensor is to ______________.
detect changes in a magnetic field
3. A submarines magnetic intensity depends upon ______________.
All the answers are correct.
4. ______________ are devices that detect changes in a magnetic field.
Magnetometers
5. Magnetic sensors are only effective at ranges of ______________ meters or less.
500
6. Self-generated magnetic noise falls into the two broad categories of ______________
noise.
maneuver and DC circuit
7. Magnetic sensors are useful for detecting ______________ objects.
metallic
8. Some magnetic sensors use multiple magnetometers in order to ______________.
increase the chances of detection
9. Objects that cant be detected using sound, radio frequency, or light energy may be
sensed using ______________ sensors.
magnetic

10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.

20.

Section 7
1. Sounds can usually be detected from the direct path method of propagation at long
ranges.
False
2. A ships sonar blind spot is commonly referred to as its ______________.
baffles
3. The ______________ contains water with the highest temperature and least density.
surface zone
4. In the ______________, water density changes sharply with depth.
pycnocline
5. A sonar transducer is most similar to a ______________.
speaker
6. Sound normally propagates through the ocean via a single path.
False
7. Seawaters property of ______________ is what makes it an excellent conductor of
sound.
elasticity
8. The apparent change in a sounds frequency due to relative motion between the
sounds receiver and its source is called the ______________.
Doppler effect
9. Underwater sounds are classified as ______________.
steady or intermittent
natural or manmade
high or low pitch
10. The oceans acoustic characteristics are affected by ______________.
All the answers are correct.
11. Less than ______________ percent of the worlds total ocean area is shallow water.
eight

12. Acoustic energy is a form of ______________ energy


mechanical
13. The average ocean depth is approximately ______________ feet.
12,000

14. The ______________ contains 80 percent of the oceans vertical thickness.


deep zone
15. Generally, ______________ frequency sounds are detectable at longer ranges in
seawater.
lower
16. As the relative motion between a sounds source and its receiver increases, the
corresponding Doppler shift ______________.
increases
17. A bathythermograph measures ______________.
seawater temperature
salinity
the speed of ocean currents
18. A hydrophone is a(n) ______________.
underwater microphone
19. ______________ has the most impact on the speed of sound in seawater.
Temperature
20. The two major types of sonar are ______________.
active and passive
21. ______________ enables operators to make control inputs to the system.
transducer
control programmer
display
22. A sonar transducer is most similar to a ______________.
speaker
capacitor
light emitting diode

Section 8
1. Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object from which the
signal reflected.
True
2. The two types of energy transmissions used by radar are ______________.
pulse and continuous wave
3. Pulse radar is effective at ______________.
positive target identification
determining a targets relative velocity
4. A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as
the transmitted energy.
False
5. Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or away from a radar.
True
6. Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target size.
False
7. Blind speeds are a problem with ______________.
pulse Doppler
8. Radar is an acronym for ______________.
radio detection and ranging
9. ______________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by
the target.
Inverse synthetic aperture
10. ______________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by
the radars platform.
Synthetic aperture
Pulse Doppler
Inverse synthetic aperture
11. A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arranged
in rectangular or circular arrays.
True

Section 9
1. The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ______________.
placing the designating force at risk of detection
2. Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.
True
3. Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum?
IR
4. Laser light has unique applications due to ______________.
low beam divergence
5. The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is ______________.
a narrow part of the spectrum between the IR and UV portions
6. Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good visual conditions.
True
7. Laser light is available in both ______________.
continuous and pulsed form
8. ______________ is an example of long range application of passive emission
detection.
Thermal imaging
9. The optical spectrum consists of ______________.
IR, visible and UV
10. Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target,
from which the attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target.
False
11. A laser technique that allows PGMs to identify a particular laser designation from
several in its field of view based upon a predetermined pulsing code, is ______________.
PIM coding
12. The mechanism used to introduce the energy for an active emission is the
______________.
transmitter
laser
pump

Space Force Enhancement


Section 1
1. Space control operations encompass all elements of the space defense mission and
include offensive and defensive operations by friendly forces to gain and maintain space
superiority and situational awareness if events impact space operations.
True
2. Offensive and defensive space operations employed by friendly forces are categorized
within the military space mission area of ______________.
Space Control
3. A fundamental requirement for the U.S. military to implement Information Superiority
is effective use of space assets.
True
4. Space support operations consist of operations that launch, deploy, augment, maintain,
sustain, replenish, deorbit, and recover space forces, including the command and control
network configuration for space operations.
True
5. The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on
meteorological, oceanographic, and space environmental factors that might affect
operations in other battlespace dimensions is ______________.
Environmental monitoring
6. SATCOM is:
Satellite Communications
7. Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers, communications,
people, and other support structures that:
-Include command and control, tactical, intelligence, and commercial communications
systems used to transmit DOD data.
-Serve DOD information needs.

8. The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to the Space Force
Enhancement mission area ______________.
Communications; Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment; Environmental
Monitoring
9. The military space mission area concerned with launch, replenishment of spares, and
orbital control is ______________.

Space Support
10. Space force application operations consist of attacks against terrestrial-based targets
carried out by military weapons systems operating in or through space.
True
11. Support operations consist of spacelift, satellite operations, and deorbiting and
recovering space vehicles, if required.
True
12. Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.
True
13. Currently, space force application assets are operating in space.
False
14. The force enhancement function concerned with providing timely detection and
warning of ballistic missile launch and nuclear detonation is ______________.
Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance

Space control operations provide freedom of action in space for friendly forces
while, when directed, denying it to an adversary, and include the broad aspect of
protection of U.S. and U.S. allied space systems and negation of enemy
adversary space systems.
True

Section 2
1. Force enhancement - ISR mission ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
2. Single low and medium earth orbiting systems or architectures that provide limited
numbers of low or medium orbital systems are well suited to the reconnaissance mission.
True
3. Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) is the collection of data and
information within an area of interest on a continuing or event driven basis. Collection
over continuous periods of time is called ______________.
reconnaissance
4. In Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, space-based ISR ______________.
None of the answers are correct.
was a central factor in assuring rapid military success
was detrimental to the operation
5. Intelligence is the product resulting from the collecting, processing, integrating,
analyzing, evaluating, and interpreting available information concerning foreign countries
or areas.
True
6. A significant limiting factor regarding space-based ISR sensors is ______________.
a predictable overflight schedule
7. A significant advantage of a space-based ISR sensor is ______________.
the ability to cue terrestrial systems for more precise locations or targeting
8. ISR systems enhance planning capabilities by providing updated information
regarding terrain and adversary force dispositions.
True
9. Satellite systems are not affected by atmospheric disturbances such as fog, smoke,
electrical storms, precipitation, and clouds.
False

10. ISR is the collection of data and information within an area of interest on a
continuing or event driven basis. Collection that is event driven or occurs on a one-time
basis is called ______________.
reconnaissance

11. Geosynchronous or geostationary satellites are not capable of performing


reconnaissance from space.
False
12. ISR support ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
13. Types of data and information collected from space include ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
14. In Operation IRAQI FREEDOM, space-based ISR ______________.
was detrimental to the operation
was a central factor in assuring rapid military success
was not a factor in the success of the operation
15. The most significant advantage of a space-based ISR sensor is ______________.
the ability to provide continuous and focused coverage
16. Several satellites in low and medium earth orbits can provide coverage of targets on
the order of ______________.
minutes
17. The ______________ orbit allows continuous surveillance of specific regions of the
world.
geosynchronous
18. Surveillance from space infers that a single satellite or system must be
continuously collecting.
False
19. The next generation of satellites will offer ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
20. Space-based imagery supports the full range of military intelligence activities
including ______________.
All of the answers are correct.

Section 3
1. Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
2. Sharing information on missile launches on a near real time basis with allies and
coalition partners is the objective of ______________.
Shared Early Warning
3. A substantial limitation of the DSP satellites that was partially corrected with the
deployment of the Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) ground control element was
______________.
integrating warnings from multiple satellites and fusing data from other sources
4. Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing with the diverse threats of the postcommunist era.
False
5. Satellite- and ground-based systems provide detection and communicate warning of
an adversarys use of ballistic missiles or nuclear detonations (NUDET) to
______________.
All of the answers are correct.
6. Joint Tactical Ground Stations (JTAGS) is a deployable system that consists of
deployable trailers and communications equipment.
True
7. In addition to sensor satellites, other space assets provide communication links
carrying ______________ to warn the affected air, land, sea, space, and special
operations forces.
raw data, processed data, and verbal command directions
8. Space systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches. Voice and data warning
information is immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time to support tactical
decision making to counter the threat.
True
9. The SBIRS ground architecture ______________.
All of the the answers are correct.
10. U.S. exchanges missile detection and warning information with its allies and
coalition partners.
True
11. The ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became operational in 2001, fully
replacing the old DSP ground architecture the following year. As a result, tactical users
got more mileage out of DSP satellites in IRAQI FREEDOM than they did in the earlier
Persian Gulf War.

True
12. Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the
definition of "Tactical Warning" is defined as ______________.
a specific threat event that is occurring

Section 4
1. Space systems provide forecasts, alerts, and warnings of weather conditions from
space.
True
2. Observation of the space environment ______________.
is crucial to specifying and forecasting conditions in space and contributes directly to
battlespace awareness
3. Within the Space Force Enhancement functions, environmental monitoring provides
forecast and conditions in the following environments ______________.
meteorological, oceanographic, and space
meteorological, orthographic, and space
4. ______________ are used to measure or infer sea surface winds (direction and speed),
ground moisture, rainfall rates, ice characteristics, atmospheric temperatures, and water
vapor profiles.
Microwave sensors
5. Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features such as
______________ are critical for undersea warfare operations.
All of the answers are correct.
6. Observation of the space environment is crucial to specifying and forecasting
conditions in space. This enables U.S. military joint forces to determine the impact of
environmental factors on both adversary and friendly space and weapons systems.
True
7. Space weather can degrade or disrupt various forms of communications.
True
8. Thermal and visible images together provide the coverage and extent of
______________.
Select all correct answers.
/sea surface winds
-other physical phenomena such as ice fields and snow
-rainfall rates
-clouds at various levels
9. A disadvantage of space-based environmental sensing is the ______________.

reduction in image quality due to distance

Section 5
1. Satellite communications provide ______________ coverage enabling military leaders
to maintain ______________ and convey their intent to the operational commander.
near-global / strategic situational awareness
2. Narrowband Satellite Communications supports ______________ data rates for both
mobile and fixed users by providing access on a single dedicated channel or on a demand
assigned multiple access channels.
secure voice and data transmission at relatively low
3. Requirements for SATCOM service worldwide significantly exceed the capacity of
current MILSATCOM systems.
True
4. Satellite Communications:
Select all correct answers.
-Permit information transfer from the highest levels of government to the theater tactical
level for all matters to include operations, logistics, intelligence, personnel, and
diplomacy.
-Collectively provide an essential element of national and Department of Defense (DOD)
communications worldwide.
5. SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EHF systems, are particularly affected
by rain (the higher the frequency, the greater the effect). Rain not only degrades the
signal but, if heavy enough, can cause a complete outage.
True
6. Generally, the ______________ the frequency (e.g., SHF, EHF), the ______________
the available bandwidth and the higher the data rate capacity.
higher / wider
7. Protected satellite communications permits the use of smaller antennas that increase
its mobility, enabling wider use of submarine, airborne, and other mobile terminals.
True
8. Satellite communications are often the only means of providing critical beyond line of
sight communications.
True
9. Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate
jamming.
False

10. MILSTAR stands for:

military strategic and tactical relay system satellite network


11. Significant advantages of satellite communication systems over terrestrial
communication systems are ______________.
global coverage, security, flexibility
12. It is impossible for a unit to lose their primary communication link with the military
strategic and tactical relay system (MILSTAR) satellite network.
False
13. Wideband satellite communications support ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
14. All radio receivers, including satellite systems, are susceptible to jamming and
interference.
True
15. The communication bands in which the military operates satellite communication
systems are ______________.
UHF, SHF, EHF, commercial
16. Heavy solar activity ______________.
can disrupt satellite communications for short periods of time, causing communications
outages in extreme cases
17. Unintentional interference is not as deleterious to SATCOM operations as deliberate
jamming.
False
18. Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with:
All of the answers are correct.
19. Since most communications satellites are in geosynchronous orbit, the region of the
world which receives least coverage is the ______________ region.
polar
oceanographic
sub-Saharan

20. ______________ satellite systems are more complex and survivable and possess
features not found on other systems.
Protected

Section 6
1. Global positioning system (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric
scintillation. Scintillation is a local effect that has daily and seasonal variations. The
effects are worse at ______________ and will usually taper off by ______________.
local sunset / local midnight

2. The default navigation grid used by global positioning system (GPS) is the World
Geodetic System 1984 (WGS-84).
True
3. The global positioning system (GPS) navigational solution depends on having a
number of satellites in view from any position on Earth. Based upon this requirement,
many satellites have been placed in orbit. Currently, there are approximately
______________ GPS satellites in orbit.
28
4. Because of ______________ of satellites in the global positioning system (GPS)
constellation, a single satellite failure ______________ cause significant degradation of
the system.
the altitude / will not
the number and orbit location / will not
5. Global positioning system (GPS) is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces
to establish a ______________, where all forces are geographically referenced correctly
and precisely synchronized operations are possible.
common grid

6. Benefits to naval forces from global positioning system GPS include:


Select all correct answers.
-Ships and submarines can precisely plot their position allowing safe port operations and
navigation through restricted waters.
-Rendezvous at sea (e.g., replenishment ships and the strike group), sea rescue, and other
operations can be facilitated using space position, velocity, time, and navigation support.
-Mines can be laid and precisely plotted for friendly force avoidance and later retrieval.
-Coastlines can be accurately surveyed using a combination of laser range finding along
with highly accurate position information.

7. Virtually all DOD ______________ are equipped with a global positioning system
(GPS) receiver.
Select all correct answers.
aircraft

combat vehicles
indirect-fire weapon systems
ships
8. Global positioning system (GPS) ______________.
plays a key role in almost all military missions
9. The Air Force space squadrons controlling the orbit of global positioning system
(GPS) satellites during combat operations during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM were able
to improve the navigation accuracy to approximately ______________ meters on a
planned basis.
2.2
10. The use of nulling antennas/ filters, and the correct placement of GPS receivers on
various platforms all improve jamming resistance.
True
11. Space based navigation systems (e.g., GPS) are ______________.
not resistant to any types of jamming
resistant to some types of jamming
12. The space based navigational system used by U.S. forces for position and timing
reference is the global positioning system (GPS). This system relies upon the receipt of
signals from at least ______________ satellites simultaneously.
4
13. Global positioning system (GPS) navigation signals are affected by ionospheric
scintillation. Scintillation occurs more often ______________.
in the mid-latitudes (40-60 degrees latitude (North or South))

14. Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. Units relying on hand-held global
positioning system (GPS) receivers in areas of ______________ may have diminished
GPS capabilities.
dense vegetation or steep terrain
15. NAVSTAR global positioning system (GPS) provides the primary space-based
source for U.S. and allied:
All of the answers are correct.

Information Technology & FORCEnet


Section 1
1. The purpose of an information system is to ______________.
support an organizations operations
2. Decisions should be based on ______________.
information
3. Select the information criterion that is NOT one of the top six characteristics of
quality information.
Veracity
4. New information that conflicts with our existing image requires us either to
______________.
validate the image or revise it
5. The technological impact C must allow the warfighting commander to
______________.
Select all correct answers.
have freedom to exercise individual initiative based upon assessments of the local
situation
direct operations from long distances
6. The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C architecture for the
following reason.
Extract information for command presentations
Situational awareness among subordinate commanders
Entertainment during slow periods
7. Intuition and judgment are a product of our personal ______________.
Select all correct answers.
experiences
preconceptions
education
8. Information systems consist of ______________.
entire infrastructure, organization, personnel, and components that collect, process, store,
transmit, display, disseminate, and act on information
9. Select True or False: Naval, joint, and national information sources should "push" relevant,
time-sensitive information to naval forces, based on planned information requirements and
dissemination criteria.
True
10. FORCEnet is enabled by ______________.
information technology

11. Select True or False: The concept of operations and commanders intent should convey only
a general idea or mental image of the operation and the desired outcome. Details will always
come later.
False
12. All are true statements about information EXCEPT ______________.
information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an officer

Section 2
1. ______________ delivers the naval component of the Global Information Grid.
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR)
2. Space and Naval Warfare Systems Commands (SPAWARs) origins date back to the
Navys support of the ______________ program during the 1960s.
space
3. Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) is the Navys central operating
authority for ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
4. ______________ provides information system planning, engineering, acquisition,
fielding, and support for Department of Defense (DOD).
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
5. ______________ is the Navy component of the Global Information Grid (GIG).
FORCEnet
6. The White House Communications Agency is operated by the ______________.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
7. DISA is a combat support agency under the ______________.
Secretary of Defense (SecDef)
8. ______________ is the functional program manager that is responsible for all Navy
networks, information assurance programs, and enterprise services.
PMW-160
9. Consolidation of the Navys network infrastructure is taking place as a part of
______________.
Sea Trial
FORCEnet
10. ______________ is operationally focused while ______________ drives the
strategic direction of Navy information networks.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM) - Space and Naval Warfare
Systems Command (SPAWAR)
PMW-160 - Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
11. ONE-NET is the Navys ______________.
Afloat network
12. ______________ advocates for the Fleet in the development and fielding of
information technology.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)

13. Navy/Marine Corps Intranet (NMCI) is the Navys ______________.


Continental United States (CONUS) ashore network
14. ______________ provides the program and policy support that underpin the Navys
information networks.
Space and Naval Warfare Systems Command (SPAWAR)
15. The naval networking environment presently contains numerous legacy networks.
True
16. The central operating authority for all Navy information networks is
______________.
Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEA)
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
Program Executive Office-Enterprise Information Systems (PEO-EIS)
17. The classified (high) side of the Defense Information Systems Network is called
______________.
SIPRnet
18. ______________ currently provides total information systems management for the
Department of Defense (DOD).
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
19. IT-21 is the Navys ______________.
Afloat network
20. The concept of designing weapon systems for the total battle force instead of
individual platforms and weapons was called ______________.
Warfare Systems Architecture

21. ______________ is the U.S. Fleet Forces Commands N6 and Strategic Commands
component commander for network operations, information operations, and space
systems.
Naval Network Warfare Command (NETWARCOM)
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
22. The global battlespace consists of ______________.
All of the answers are correct.

Section 3
1. C is the exercise of ______________ by a properly designated commander over
assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of a mission.
authority and direction
2. Information systems ______________.
make the right information available to the commander at the right time
merely add credibility to a system of tactical exchange that can otherwise "stand alone"
3. Information is ______________.
the raw material from which knowledge is generated
4. In addition to mission responsibility, with respect to personnel, Command includes the
authority and responsibility for:
Select all correct answers.
morale
health & welfare
discipline
5. The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces through
______________.
a command and control system
6. Feedback is a vital element of control; it gives the commander a way to:
Select all correct answers.
Monitor events
Adjust the allocation of resources
Adapt to changing circumstances
7. Using a central nervous system analogy, the commander is the conscious brain of the
military body and C is ______________.
the system of nerves that carry information to him from the senses (the informationgathering units and sensors)
8. Command is defined as the authority that a commander in the armed forces lawfully
exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment.
True
9. While the conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction, it is the
subconscious brain (______________) that monitors and regulates most actions.
subordinate commanders and forces
10. C functions are performed through an arrangement of resource groups (system)
including:
All of the answers are correct.

11. The focus of naval C, as well as the driver of C is ______________.


the commander
12. C provides which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
13. Effective training, education, and doctrine will make it more likely that subordinates
will take the proper action in combat. This is control before the action, but nonetheless is
still control.
True
14. Drives the command and control process.
Information
15. C refers both to the process and to the system by which the commander decides what must
be done and by how he sees that his decisions are carried out.
True

16. In the accomplishment of the mission (process) through C, a commander will employ the
resource groups in: Select all correct answers.
Planning
Coordinating
Directing

Section 4
1. Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in ______________.
situational awareness
understanding
2. Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the operational commander,
all phases of the cycle are active at each echelon of command.
True
3. In a well-trained force, imbued with initiative, the lower we can push the decisionmaking threshold, the swifter our decision and execution cycle will become.
True
4. Orientation is the result of a ______________ process that turns data gathered from
the environment into knowledge and understanding.
cognitive
5. The commanders orientation is rooted in what he believes to be the current "reality"
of the battlespace. This image of reality is derived from his _________, __________,
__________, and situation reports from subordinate commanders.
direct observation / sensors / intelligence systems
6. After the commander derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his
next step is to ______________ on a course of action and develop a plan.
decide
7. ______________ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander makes
decisions and exercises authority over subordinate commanders in accomplishing an
assigned mission.
C
8. The commander forms a mental picture of the situation converting sensor data and
other information into ______________.
Select all correct answers.
----estimates
//--assumptions
-/-/judgments
---/actions
9. Which of the following is the most important stage of the decision and execution
cycle?
Orient

10. During the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the execution of
operations and gauges the results. This is intended merely to gauge results. It is important
not to reinitiate the decision cycle based upon post action phase observations.
False
11. Certainty is a function of ______________.
knowledge
12. The OODA focuses on the ______________ as the crucial element in the entire
process of C.
squadron commander
decision-maker
computer programmer
13. Our ______________, ______________, ______________, and the unfolding
circumstances of war all influence our ability to orient ourselves.
experience / expectations / culture
14. What is the key element of the command and control process?
Action
Commander
15. Knowledge is the result of ______________, ______________, and fusing data that
have been processed and evaluated as to their reliability, relevance, and importance.
analyzing / correlating
16. The first step toward understanding is gathering data. Data is gathered primarily from
our ______________ in the form of ______________.
sensors / raw signals
17. Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences the way we
______________, ______________, and ______________.
observe / decide / act

18. ______________ is the key to the entire decision and execution cycle.
Orientation

19. Processing raw signals so they may be understood


resulting information, may require ______________.
All of the answers are correct.

by the people who must use the

Section 5

1. ______________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats, locate


and destroy anti-access challenges and intercept missiles.
Sea Shield
2. FORCEnet is what enables the Sea Power 21 pillars of ______________.
Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing
3. By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the
knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of operations by:
Select all correct answers.
Enhancing deterrence
Sustaining warfighting superiority
Controlling crises
4. The Navy shares data among platforms and other services through:
Select all correct answers.
--Link 16
--The Cooperative Engagement Capability
/-The Joint Fires Network
/-VHF Radio
5. FORCEnet is a necessity because todays engagements are measured in
______________ and cover ______________.
seconds, hundreds of miles
6. ______________ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions afloat.
Sea Basing
7. Identify the statement that does not represent a limitation or technology or the result of
limited technology in todays battle space.
Increasing lethal aircraft, sub-surface, and surface combat platforms
8. In a world of complex interrelationships, where a single shot can have global
ramifications, naval professionals must share databases with government agencies and
nongovernmental organizations.
True

9. FORCEnet is not an acquisition program; rather it is a/an ______________ and


integration initiative to serve as a change agent and an engine for innovation, potentially
touching every naval program.
communication

enterprise alignment
None of the answers are correct
Identify the statement that does NOT represent a capability of technology in the
current battle space.
Standard joint protocols in the Navy's network architecture
Joint data links
Space-based navigation systems

10. By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the
knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of operations by:
Select all correct answers.
Controlling crises
Sustaining warfighting superiority
Enhancing deterrence
11. The Navys success in Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed
to unprecedented tactical flexibility made possible by:
Select all correct answers.
-Precision-guided munitions made effective by these systems
-Coordination over secure data links and voice circuits
-Advanced sensing and targeting systems in the air and on the ground
12. Identify the statement that does not represent a limitation or technology or the result
of limited technology in todays battle space.
Increasing lethal aircraft, sub-surface, and surface combat platforms
13. As we prepare for the future, we must build on our successes to acquire operational
capabilities at the next level of integration and effectiveness, by safeguarding data
streams and other information from the other services.
False
14. ______________ relies on rich situational awareness to sense hostile capabilities and
trigger rapid and precise attacks.
Sea Strike
15. As we prepare for the future, we must build on our successes to acquire operational
capabilities at the next level of integration and effectiveness, by safeguarding data
streams and other information from the other services.
False

16. Specific FORCEnet objectives include:

Select all correct answers.


-Expand joint, interagency, and coalition interoperability
-Experiment, innovate, integrate, and implement
-Focus on the "warrior" in FORCEnet development
-Enhance sensing, connectivity, and decision making
17. Launched and maintained from forward-deployed ships and submarines, sensors will
provide persistent and responsive networked sensor coverage to:
Select all correct answers.
/sharpen decision making
-increase battlespace transparency
/ultimately allow the navy to reduce personnel
-reduce operational costs
18. FORCEnets goal is to arm our forces with superior ______________.
Knowledge
19. Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high
endurance organic communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre
networking.
True
20. Developing FORCEnet will be challenging, and require a comprehensive
______________, multi-agency, and international program that integrates systems,
processes, and organizations.
joint

Communications for the warfighter


1. The phenomenon of destructive interference results in the complete cancellation of
both interfering waves.
False
2. A sinusoidal function has which three parameters?
Amplitude, frequency, and phase angle
3. What are the two types of channels for transmitting electromagnetic waves?
Free space and guided medium
4. Baseband modulation uses a carrier signal.
False
5. DAMA schemes grant user access based upon ______________.
reservations
6. The link margin is the ______________.
ratio of power received to receiver sensitivity
7. Which type of cable enables the longest transmission distances?
Fiber optic
8. Noise introduced by a receiver is called internal noise.
True
9. The term dBm refers to a power level ______________.
unit referenced to 1 milliwatt
10. UTP cable has ______________ pairs of wires.
4
11. What type of device converts an electrical signal into electromagnetic waves for
transmission through a channel?
Transmitter
12. ______________ is NOT one of the types of digital baseband modulation.
Pulse angle
13. Ground waves achieve ranges longer than line-of-sight by ______________.
hugging the surface of the earth, especially over water

14. Which is NOT one of the types of digital passband modulation?


Phase angle keying
15. What type of device converts audio/visual information into an electrical signal?
Transducer

16. There is a peak in atmospheric absorption at 180 GHz due to ______________.


water vapor
17. antenna that radiates its power equally in all directions is called a/an
______________ radiator.
isotropic
18. ______________ is NOT a type of satellite orbit.
Low earth
High earth
Medium earth
19. In link budget analysis, the important parameter is ______________.
received power
20. What is the power rating of the Flux Capacitor?
1.21 GIGAWATTS

The primary means of aircraft detection is ______________.


radar

Stealth Technology
1. Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ______________.
complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems
2. Which sensor provides the best resolution for radar imaging?
Millimeter wave radar
3. Radar cross section is the relation of ______________.
a radar wave scattered from a target to the wave directed at the target
4. RCS is measured in ______________.
square meters
5. Scattering, which occurs when an electromagnetic wave encounters a physical object,
is the dispersal of particle beams of radiation into a range of directions.
True
6. Non-imaging sensor systems can establish the presence of a target, but cannot provide
information regarding movement.
False
7. Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck, its RCS should be much
larger.
False
8. The success of stealth technology is leading to an increased emphasis on the
development of capabilities to detect stealth platforms, such as ______________.
passive array and low frequency radars
9. A B-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because
of ______________.
large RCS and IR signature
10. Interference is the result when electromagnetic waves at differing frequencies
interact with each other.
False
11. A critical capability of sensor systems is to ______________.
distinguish specific target electronic signatures from background data
12. Which sensor provides the best resolution for radar imaging?
Millimeter wave radar

13. Which type of electronic sensor system is the least complex and expensive?
Passive electro-optic

14. Stealth technology helps to prevent detection, but once detected a stealth platform
can easily be tracked and targeted.
False
15. Methods used to reduce RCS include ______________.
avoiding large, flat surfaces and using radar absorbing material

Evaluation of Naval Platforms


Section 1
1. Which two innovations, developed during the 1920s and 1930s did the United States
submarine fleet enter World War II with?
Mk14 torpedoes and the Torpedo Data Computer (TDC)
Improved air filtration system and deck guns
2. The ______________-class submarine introduced the all electric drive to the United
States submarine force.
Tang
Gato
3. The ______________ and ______________ were the first two Navy submarines to be
equipped with diesel engines.
USS Skipjack, USS Sturgeon
4. Prior to World War I, what did the Navy envision as the two roles for submarines?
Coast defense and fleet operations
5. The USS Nautilus (SSN-571), launched in 1958, was the first ______________ for
the United States.
nuclear powered submarine
6. What was the advantage of sail mounted vice bow mounted planes?
Increased bow mounted sonar efficiency
7. Identify the mission(s) of the Los Angeles-class submarines. Select all that apply.
Power projection ashore
Escort carrier and expeditionary strike groups
Anti-surface warfare
Anti-submarine warfare
8. Identify the key technological advancements of the 19th century that were
instrumental to the further development of submarines in the United States.
Advances in the internal combustion engine, battery and electric motors and the invention
of the torpedo

9. Which treaty was responsible for limiting the construction of U.S. naval bases in the
far east?
Five-Power Naval Limitation Treaty

10. What class of submarine has been selected to be converted to guided missile
submarines (SSGNs)?
Ohio
11. The Alligator was the first submarine to ______________.
employ an air purifying system and deploy a diver while submerged
12. What were some of the limitations of the first submarines? Select all that apply.
/Size
/Weapon technology
--Range
--Speed
13. What was the name of the first submarine used by the military?
Turtle
14. During World War II, how many aircraft carriers did the United States submarine
fleet sink in the Pacific?
2
8
0
15. Which United States submarine successfully completed the first fully-submerged
circumnavigation of the earth in 60 days and 21 hours?
USS Triton

17. The modified Mk 27 was the first torpedo used by the United States Submarine Fleet
capable of ______________.
attacking submerged submarines

Section 2
1. Compared to European battleships, the Navys battleships of the late 1890s were
______________.
relatively smaller and slower, but more heavily armed and armored
2. Radar was first installed on a Navy ship ______________.
in the years immediately prior to World War II
3. Ships with gas turbine propulsion plants, such as the Ticonderoga class cruisers can go
from full ahead to full back ______________.
through use of an auxiliary backing propulsion plant
through use of controllable pitch propellers
by using the reduction gear to reverse the direction the propeller is turning
4. Turboelectric drive propulsion plants ______________.
use an electric motor to turn the propeller shaft
5. Surface to air missiles using beam-riding guidance ______________.
require that radar be installed in the missile to find the target
require that the launching platforms fire control radar keep its beam pointed at the target
6. When constructed, USS Constitution was armed with ______________.
muzzle loaded smooth bore guns
7. The destroyer was initially designed to combat ______________.
torpedo boats
8. The so-called ABCD ships were significant in that they ______________.
were considered the beginning of the modern Navy
9. Aegis ______________.
sucks
is able to track over 100 targets and direct over 20 missiles simultaneously
10. Which of the following is not a part of todays Navys surface combatant inventory?
Raymond Spruance-class destroyers
11. Steam turbines were first used in Navy battleships constructed ______________.
during the early 20th century before World War I
during World War II
12. The Navys Vertical Launch System ______________.
is capable of carrying a variety of surface to air missiles

13. The first wartime sinking of a warship by an anti-ship missile ______________.


was by a submarine launched weapon
was the result of a ship-launched Harpoon missile
occurred in the 1967 Arab-Israeli war
14. Ships with gas turbine propulsion plants, such as the Ticonderoga class cruisers can
go from full ahead to full back ______________.
through use of controllable pitch propellers
15. The Navy took delivery of its first steam-powered warship ______________.
during the 1810s
16. Which of the following is not true?
Breech loading guns became the Navy standard in the early 1800s
Turrets had to be made larger to accommodate breech loading guns as opposed to muzzle
loaded guns of similar size.
17. The widespread employment of torpedo boats by the end of the 19th century
______________.
was a result of the threat posed by submarines to merchant ships
resulted in no change to battleship design
represented a relatively inexpensive but potent threat to battleships
18. Which advances were first incorporated into the Navys ships during the Civil War?
Armor plating and turret mounted guns
19. A proximity fuse ______________.
contains a radio transmitter-receiver to detect its distance from a target
20. A closed loop fire control system, such as the one used by the Phalanx Close-InWeapons System, ______________.
tracks both the target and outgoing projectiles

Section 3
1. Which of the following statements is true?
The Navys first aircraft carrier was a converted collier.
2. Which of the following statements is true?
The H-60 helicopter has replaced virtually all carrier and carrier battle group support ship
rotary-wing aircraft.
3. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The angled flight deck was an American development adopted later by the British Royal
Navy.
4. Which was the first U.S. ship built from the keel up as an aircraft carrier?
USS Ranger
5. The introduction of the angled flight deck in the 1950s ______________.
led to many World War II-era carriers being retrofitted with angled flight decks
6. Which of the following statements is true?
The first takeoff and landing on a Navy warship were conducted by a civilian.
7. Which of the following statements is true?
Aircraft with folding wings were first introduced prior to World War II.

8. The first successful shipboard launch of an airplane from a Navy warship was
______________.
funded by a special appropriation by Congress
conducted during World War I
financed by a civilian aviation enthusiast
9. The first Navy aircraft carriers designed for Fleet operations rather than independent
operations were ______________.
the Essex-class
the Yorktown-class
10. The Navys first experience with operating in the air domain occurred
______________.
during the Civil War
during World War I
11. The Navys first nuclear-powered aircraft carrier was ______________.
USS Enterprise

12. Which of the following statements is true?


During World War II, the fight deck catapults on the Navys front-line carriers were used
very little.
Crash barriers eliminated the possibility of a landing aircraft colliding with aircraft
parked on the flight deck.
Hanger deck catapults were widely used during World War II.
13. The first catapults used by the Navy ______________.
were introduced during World War II
used compressed air for power
14. Which of the following statements is true?
The Washington Naval Treaty led to the conversion of two under-construction battle
cruisers to aircraft carriers.
15. Samuel Langleys successful 1896 flight of an unmanned heavier than air vehicle
prompted the Navy to appropriate funds to allow Langley to develop a manned version.
False
16. The Navys current fighter aircraft is an ______________.
F/A-18 Hornet
Which class of submarine has a mission of strategic deterrence?
Ohio
Virginia
Seawolf
Regulus, the Navy's first nuclear-armed guided missile, had several major
disadvantages that led to it being replaced. What were those disadvantages?
Select all that apply.
Relay submarines needed to track and steer the missile
Size of the missiles
Submarine had to be surfaced to launch
Dependent on GPS for guidance
Where did the first attempted attack of a warship by a submarine occur?
Pearl Harbor
Chesapeake Bay
New York Harbor
The Chinese government has recognized in recent years, spectacular economic
growth and rapid modernization guarantees human development.

False
Select the correct answer to define: The State maintains control over some
sectors of the economy, but allows free-market principles to regulate other
sectors of the economy to help build socialism.
Building Chinas socialist market economy
Communist Party control
Building Chinas free-market for goods and services
This arid region of China includes high plateaus, mountain ranges, and desert
basins with rich mineral and energy resources.
Western China

Since 1993, China has embarked on a reform process of fiscal decentralization


that has continued to grow to the present day.
True
Throughout the 1980s and early 1990s, the household responsibility system
______________. Select all that apply.
reallocated all land-use rights to individual households
dismantled all of the Mao-era communes
gave each household the right to sell a portion of its produce to local markets
at unregulated prices
What is the definition of a group of workers who come to the city often to
generate additional income to support their families in rural areas?
The floating population
The sinking population
The dependent population
State support and basic social services is given to ______________.
only to those with local household registration
any person living in China longer that six months
migrants
This region of China constitutes less than one-third of the total Chinese
landmass, but has the richest soils, three major river systems, the best natural
transport routes, and great ease of access to the Pacific Ocean.
Eastern-coastal China
Western-coastal China
Northern China
Many economists attribute Chinas high domestic saving investment levels to the
virtuous cycle of growth.

True
Chinas fiscal decentralization policies have helped to close the income gap
between different regions and provinces of China.

False
High levels of national saving and investment are dependent on the virtuous
cycle of growth.
True
In Deng Xiaopings view, the meaning of reform was the ___________. Select all
that apply.
allowing free-market forces to play supporting role in national economic
development
providing the basic framework for national development and modernization
today to a socialist market economy
continuing central economic planning
continuing state ownership of property
The first Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in China were created in the
southeastern coastal cities of ______________. Select all that apply.
Zhuhai
Shenzhen
Shantou
Xiamen
Foreign direct investment (FDI) accounts for nearly ______________.
30% of all exports and 25% of all industrial output
20% of all industrial output and 50% of all exports
50% of Chinas imports
The urban-rural income and development gap ______________.
is growing
Chinas Five-Year Plan for 2006-2010 mandated a system for evaluating the
performance of sub-national government officials on a combination of
environmental measures, as well as economic growth.

T
What campaign primarily focused on ideological and political change?

Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution


The Great Leap Forward
Agenda 21
What campaign sought to rebuild a nation devastated by years of war, foreign
occupation, civil war, and human displacement?
The Great Leap Forward
What pollution problem in China causes over four billion dollars in crop damage
per year?
Acid rain
Soil

China is the largest producer of ______________.


oil
coal
By 2007, over 60,000 premature deaths were reported annually by the World
Bank due to ______________.
famine
natural disasters
poor water quality
Chinas greatest natural resource problem is ______________.

water

In 2005 the Ministry of Water Resources classified over half of the total length of
Chinas ______________ major river systems as unfit for any type of direct
human contact.
seven
More than half of Chinas cities suffer from chronic ______________.
water shortage
In the 2007 Work Bank report on pollution, ______________ premature deaths
were due do urban air pollution.
750,000

In 1994, China adopted _____________ the United Nations guidelines for


achieving sustainable economic development.
Agenda 21
China relies on coal for ______________ percent of its basic energy needs.

70
The first Environmental Protection Law, passed in 1979, directed the
Environmental Protection Agency to ______________.

produce environmental impact statements for proposed heavy industry and


infrastructural projects
Due to widespread overexploitation and uncoordinated management of land,
water, and natural resources during the Great Leap Forward approximately 34
to 40 million Chinese people died of ______________.
starvation
Although economic growth remains a high priority for the Chinese government,
there is also a fear that this growth will result in ______________.
All the answers are correct.
Which nation does not possess territory that lies within the geographic definition
of the Arctic?
Iceland

______________ made the discovery of a Northwest Passage a priority for early


explorers.
The threat of invasion by the British Royal Navy
The possibility of shorter shipping routes between Europe and Asia
The threat of nuclear attack prompted the U.S. and Canada to construct the
_______________ across the Arctic to detect inbound Soviet bombers and
missiles.
DEW Line
Which of the following is NOT a reason the IMO is proposing mandatory
measures to reduce risks to Arctic shipping?

Remoteness of Arctic shipping operations


The increasing likelihood of terrorist infiltration
The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a/an_______________specialized agency.

UN
The Arctic's indigenous peoples ______________.
have survived and even thrived despite the challenges of living in the Far
North
Approximately _______________ percent of the Arctic population lives in Russia.
80

In 1968, the largest oil field in North America was discovered at


______________, Alaska.

Prudhoe Bay
Since 1982, _______________ has served as the principle international
agreement that defines the rights and responsibilities of nations in their use of the
world's oceans.
the Geneva Convention
the Kyoto Protocols
United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
Sir John Franklin led an expedition to discover a Northwest Passage
______________.
with two ships that used the latest technical innovations
Arctic ______________ is a resource of high strategic value to the United States.

oil
The Arctic region is dominated by ______________.
the Arctic Ocean

On 6 April 1909, America's Robert Peary and Matthew Henson were the first to
______________.
reach the North Pole

Despite the endorsements of several presidents and high ranking military


officers, the U.S. has yet to ratify United Nations Convention on the Law of the
Sea (UNCLOS).
True
______________ appears to be the nation most heavily invested in Arctic
research.
Russia
The U.S.
Until the mid-_______________ century, virtually all of the Arctic's population
was limited to settlements of indigenous people; today it is only around 10
percent.
17th
20th
Which of the following is NOT a reason for increasing the Arctic's relative
importance to U.S. national interests?
Increasing access to new fishing grounds
Dramatic increase in Russian military infrastructure
New and lucrative shipping routes
______________ contains the largest percentage of the Arctic's indigenous
population.
Russia
______________ made the discovery of a Northwest Passage a priority for early
explorers.
The possibility of shorter shipping routes between Europe and Asia
_______________ is a member of the Arctic Council.
All the answers are correct.

The Arctic's indigenous peoples have long been content to ______________.


live a subsistence lifestyle
The opening of the Northwest and Northeast passages have great economic
potential because they _______________.
reduce the distance of shipping routes by thousands of miles
The Bering Strait is a strategic chokepoint that divides _______________.
the U.S. and Russia
The Arctic's geographic boundary lies at ______________ degrees north.

66.3
______________ is generally recognized as an Arctic nation.
All the answers are correct.
The origin of native Americans can be traced to the ______________.
indigenous inhabitants of the North American continent
Spanish Conquistadors
peoples who migrated from Siberia
The cost and level of difficulty associated with conducting Arctic operations is
consistent with that of other regions.

False
Approximately _______________ people live in the Arctic (as defined by the
Arctic Human Development Report).
4 million
1 million
The International Maritime Organization (IMO) was chartered to
_______________.
act as a maritime law enforcement organization
combat seaborne terrorism
maintain a regulatory framework for shipping

The effects of climate change have NOT made Arctic waters safe for commercial
shipping.
True
During the 20th century, Arctic exploration was carried out mainly for commercial
reasons.

False

Today's aircraft carriers are equipped with ______________.


steam catapults

Strategic Guidance and Planning


National Military Strategy
The national military strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is_______.
The protection of the united states against attack
Which of the following is not true.
Terrorist and criminal organizations can only operate from rogue states
Which of the following is not a tool that may be used by an adversary in an attack against the
united states or its interests.
None of the answers are correct
Which of the following is true.
???
Rogue states can threaten global and regional stability by _____.
All the answers are correct
Which of the following will make the statement NOT true.
The national military strategy ______
States that defending the united states against missile attack is no longer a priority
Deterring aggression and coercion ________
Must be anticipatory in nature
Sea Power 21
Sea power 21 was published by
The chief of naval operations
______ is central to the sea shield concept
Achieving battle-space superiority in forward theaters
The Sea power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the acceleration of expeditionary
deployments and employment timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment and supplies intheater is ___________
Sea basing

Which of the following is NOT considered essential to the Navys ability to counter the increased
risk to the United States in the future
None of the answers are correct
Which of the following is not true
FORCEnet is the glue that binds together sea trial, sea warrior and sea enterprise
Which of the following is not true
Sea power 21does not have a focus that includes regional challenges
The three fundamental concepts that are key to the Navys continued operational effectiveness
are
Sea strike, sea shield and sea basing
Which is the following is not true
FORCEnet is the follow on program to Task force EXCEL- a fully integrated force wide network
of linked computers
Sea trial will be coordinated by
The navy warfare development command
Sea warrior will address the challenges brought on by
The reduced crew sizes that are the result of optimal manning policies and new platforms
Which of the following is true
Sea strike options include the landing of marines from ships on a hostile shore
The maritime strategy was
A cold war-era strategy focused on war-at-sea with the USSR in a blue water environment
Cooperative maritime strategy
______ will be required to partner to counter the maritime domains emerging threats
All the answers are correct
Maritime forces provide decision makers with
All the answers are correct
_____ is a characteristic of maritime forces
All the answers are correct

U.S. homeland defense efforts provide the highest level of security by integrating
All the answers are correct
____ is one of the six key tasks of naval forces
Deter major power war
The united states will employ _______ to accomplish its strategic imperatives
All the answers are correct
The cooperative maritime strategy seeks to
Integrate sea power with other elements of national power
The National Military Strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is _____.The
National Military Strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is
______________.

BLOCK 4
The American way of war
True or False: Todays reserve component and national guard are direct descendants of the
militias established by the early European colonists
True
Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities the Spanish American war was seen
as a victory by militia forces and proof that the united states didnt need to maintain a large
standing army
True
During the time between the first and second world wars the American military was engaged in
A series of small actions throughout central America and the caribbean in order to maintain
order and discourage European intervention in the western hemisphere
During the American revolution the continental army
Was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the US was a legitimate nation
Public opposition to fighting the phillipine insurrection was largely based on
The idea that the acquisition of colonies was incompatible with American values
Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and civil wars which were fought solely
between two conventional armies using conventional tactics
False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican war and civil war
In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving west a large
standing army was maintained by the united states after the civil war
False
Following the end of the First World war the US
Quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army
The second Seminole war
Became a stalemate and was abandoned by the united states after declaring victory

Generals Grant and Sherman provided very lenient terms of surrender to the confederate
forces of lee and Johnston in order to
Avoid a protracted guerilla war waged by disgruntled confederate soldiers
The Europeans who first settled what would become the united states
Formed militias for protection
The French and Indian war ended with a british victory over the French at the battle of quebec.
The led to the American view that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies
False
General Winfield Scotts capture of mexico city during the Mexican war was
An example of conventional 19th century warfare
The Vietnam war shared what characteristics with the second Seminole war
All the answers are correct

The naval way of war


In close waters what navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to
a considerable degree
GPS
The contemporary maritime strategy of the US navy
All of the answers are correct
Organizational culture affects the way the organization
All of the answers are correct
According to the rule of naval warfare the navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea
False
Historically the navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available
True

All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest
peril during non-wartime activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is
Fire
Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform is the not-tocentralize philosophy of the US
Navy
During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of
safety of the ship and operating environment
The attitude of naval officers toward their job
An organizations culture
All of the answers are correct
Due to the increase in jointness in naval operations there will be all of the following changes in
the future, except, with respect to
The US fleet composition
In our time, in order to understand how the US navy responds to new missions, threats, tactics
and technologies, its important to know
The us navys organizational culture
By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will
Have a strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of
communication
The Navys organizational culture comes from
All of the answers are correct

Theory of war
Commanders should focus their efforts on
Concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness
An enemys critical vulnerability

Is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the enemys ability to
resist us
The concept of operational level of war developed
In order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics
employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives
The three components of military art are
Strategy, tactics and operational art
In current joint and navy doctrine, centers of gravity
Are those characteristics, capabilities, or sources of power from which a military force derives
its freedom of action, physical strength, or will to fight
The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized
By napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield
The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy
May change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability
Operational art
Deals with the study, theory, and practice of planning, preparing, conducting and sustaining
major operations and campaigns designed to accomplish operational or strategic objectives
Generally speaking, the president, ______, function at the strategic level of war
The secretary of defense and the chairman of the joint chiefs of staff
The principles of war
Are a summary of the characteristics of successful military operations

Doctrine
Naval doctrine publications are approved by
CNO and commandant USMC
Tactics, techniques and procedures are all non prescriptive

False
Joint doctrine takes precedence over conflicting service doctrine
True
Which of the following is not a characteristic of doctrine
Detailed threat profiles
Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint/and or multinational force
True
The UNTL is
A comprehensive/hierarchical listing of navy tasks at all levels of war
The navy warfare library provides
All publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site
All doctrinal publications are reviewed
Continually and revised due to fundamental changes or if it has been 10 years since the last
revision
Joint doctrine is authoritative, which means it must be followed without exception
False
Which of the following is characteristic of NTRPs
They are not necessarily related to NWPs
The navys web based doctrine development process works through
NWDC SIPRNET site
Naval warfare publications are approved by
Commander NWDC

Command and control


Feedback is most important to control because

It gives commander information they will need to adapt to changing circumstances


Combatant command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through
All the answers are correct
The C2 is defined to include
All of the answers are correct
The process of command control includes which of the following
All of the answers are correct
C2 enables the commander to
All of the answers are correct
Operational control or OPCON includes organizing commands and which of the following
functions
All of the answers are correct
OPCON and TACON
All of the answers are correct
Which of the following is the definition of command and control in the joint doctrine
The exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and
attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission

Joint force maritime component commander


The functional approach as exemplified in the JFMCC serves which of the following purposes
Better integrate military assets during operations
The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to
Integrate all naval assets and capabilities into the joint force commanders campaign plan
The JFMCCs subordinate commanders include
Both CSG and ESG commanders
Under the JFMCC concept, logistics, personnel support, and service specific training would

Remain the responsibility of the service component commander


The joint force commander
May retain control of any function
The MARSUPREQ is designed to
Enable the commanders of carrier strike groups, expeditionary strike groups and other
functional components to request JFMCC assets
The Joint force maritime component commander ____________
Will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies upon the navy
service component commander
Which of the following are typical war fighting function of the JFMCC?
All of the answers are correct
What is the unifying factor in all joint maritime operations
Sea Control
Who ordinarily will have functional responsibility for the performance of a JTFs maritime
missions
The JFMCC
The functional component commander is usually
The service commander with the preponderance of forces assigned to the functional
component

CWC Concept
The common operating picture, of COP, includes
All of the answers are correct
The officer in tactical command (OTC) delegation to the composite warfare commander (CWC)
is
Determined by the OTC based on each individual situation
Admiral arleigh burke said that command by negation was important because

In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage
Tactical control (TACON)
May be retained by the officer in tactical command (OTC)
The composite warfare commander (CWC) would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious
ship because
That is where the needed C2 assets will be
After the cold war, the navys primary mission
Shifted in orientation to the littorals
The composite warfare commander (CWC) concept addresses defense against
All of the answers are correct
Decentralization and command by negation are
Design keys of composite warfare commander (CWC) because the reduce complexity and
information overload
The composite warfare commander (CWC) is intended to enable the carrier battle group (CVBG)
commander to
Manage information overload
Focus on the littorals had this effect on carrier strike group (CSG) vulnerability
Increased vulnerability
Under the composite warfare commander (CWC) concept warfare commanders are given call
signs that
All of the answers are correct
Naval Historian Thomas hone asserts that command by negation
Assumes that direct, immediate control is not practical
Why was the composite warfare commander (CWC) concept developed
To attempt to manage the complexity of the environment

Roles and responsibilities


Which of the following is not a Principal warfare Commander (PWC)
Marine expeditionary unit commander
Who retains overall responsibility for mission accomplishment
Officer in tactical command (OTC)
The surface warfare commander is ordinarily based on
A carrier
What is the role of preplanning of responses in the composite warfare commander (CWC)
concept
All of the answers are correct
Decentralized command is an effective approach because
2 of the 3 answers are correct
Which of the following are not part of the composite warfare commander (CWC) structure
Joint task force (JTF) commanders
Sector warfare commanders may be designated in dispersed operations by
PWC or CWC
Principal warfare commanders are
Immediately subordinate to the CWC
What did admiral mustin say about nelsons plan at Trafalgar
The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates understood the plan
and their roles in it
If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be
All the answers are correct

Challenges
What are the challenges to the CWC concept

All the answers are correct


Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to
Developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvements
in satellite communications
Important challenges for CWC include
All the answers are correct
A downside of CWCs dependency on communication is
All the answers are correct
The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means
All the answers are correct
The authoritative joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution
False
What has allowed a higher dispersion of a naval formation
Super high frequency radios
According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the
flagship, must be in the radius of
20 NM

Strike Warfare
Strike warfare, as practiced by the navy during the 1990-91 gulf war, resulted in the new
mission of close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft.
False
Submarines have no role in strike warfare
True
In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike
warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval air commander to operate
independent from the joint air component commander.

False
Strike warfare is only applicable to high intensity conflict situations.
False
During operation desert storm, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks targeting the Iraqi
infrastructure
False
Difficulties encountered by the navy in integrating into the joint air operations planned and
directed by the joint force air component commander (JFACC) during operation desert storm
were due to
The lack of compatible communications equipment
The navys long time practice of decentralized command of air power
Strike operations are a component of which navy mission
Projecting power ashore
The 1990-1 gulf war validated the navys strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions
and as a result nearly no dumb bombs were utilized
False
The air tasking order (ATO) is the air force equivalent of the navy air tasking order (NATO)
False
The changes in strike warfare organization and planning resulting from lessons learned in the
1990s gulf war were tested
In the series of operations in the Balkans during the late 1990s
Which of the following is not a principal mechanism by which the navy executes strike warfare
Amphibious assault
Operations desert storm introduced _______ to the navy mission of projecting power ashore
Ship launched long range non-nuclear guided missiles

CSG

Carrier strike groups (CSG) are employed


All the answers are correct
Carrier based aircraft are limited in their ability to attack targets located relatively far inland
due to their inability to conduct in-flight refueling
False
All of the ships assigned to a carrier strike group have the capability of keeping up with the
carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed
False
Carrier strike groups are dependent on logistical supply squadrons (LSSs) for replenishment of
ammunitions, fuel and supplies as they do not have logistical support ships organic to them.
False
The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but
has greater speed, can operate in increased depth and can carry more weapons than seawolf
class.
False
Because a carrier strike group is the main element of the navys strike warfare mission, the
carrier strike group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability.
False
The navys flexible deployment concept has been the foundation for the successful use of
carrier-based aviation during several major wars and numerous smaller conflicts over the past
several decades.
False
Anti-submarine warfare capability is provided to a carrier strike by
All of the answers are correct
Carrier strike groups (CSG) consist solely of surface ships. Submarines may provide support to
the CSG but are not under command of the CSG commander
False

The fleet response plan and the flexible deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and
tested.
False
Because they have not long range strike capability, the perry class guided missile frigates are
the primary means of AAW with the carrier strike group
False
Experience has shown that the perry class guided missile frigate cannot withstand the damage
caused by an anti-ship guided missile.
False
Protection of a marine amphibious force while enroute to, and upon arrival in, an amphibious
objective area may be provided by
A carrier strike group
The principal platform of a carrier strike group is
Always a CV/CVN

CV/CVN
What is the largest and most complex ship in the navy
Aircraft carrier
Successful strike warfare depends on
All of the answers are correct
Flight deck danger can be eliminated by
None of the answers are correct
The carrier combat systems department is responsible for
Electronic equipment maintenance and repair
Iraqi freedom operations illustrate the CV/CVNs capability to conduct operations in
Sandstorms

Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and
effectiveness of the CV/CVN force
Improved ship design

CVW
What single fighting system give the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch
The embarked air wing
Reduction of CEPs is due to the greater precision afforded by
All of the answers are correct
Circular error probability refers to
Area in which 50% of ordnance can be expected to hit
Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings
All but- air wing composition has remained constant over extended periods
What is the principal limitation of PGMs
Cost
Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat
zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets
Combat air patrol
What factors have determined the evolution of air wing size and composition
All the answers are correct
The F/A Super hornet is capable of all but the following missions
ASW

TLAM
The newest version of the tomahawk can be
Both answers- NOT none of the answers are correct
Submarines have the ability to launch

Tomahawks from torpedo tubes and vertical launch tubes if so equipped


Submarines must launch their VLS tomahawks
While submerged to avoid damage to the system
The all up round (AUR) includes
Either a canister or a capsule that both protects the missile during transport and serves as the
missiles launch tube
Which of the following is true
The naval component commander is typically appointed by the joint force commander to act as
the tomahawk executive agent
Which of the following is not a capability of a surface ship launched tomahawk missile
The ability to be loaded on the ship while underway
In order to ensure TLAMs are effectively integrated into operations tomahawk strike
coordinator liaisons are placed with all the following except
The joint interface control officer
Which of the following is true
Tomahawk flight profiles must be de-conflicted with other air operations
Programmed warhead detonation (PWD)
Allows the missile to be detonated while flying directly over a target
Terrain masking
Involves flying around hills in order to remain concealed from detection by point-defenses
around the target
The ______ is the central liaison point of contract for all aspects of TLAM employment at the
joint force air coordination center and works for the naval component commander
Tomahawk Liaison officer (TLO)
Which of the following is not true

Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in area where collateral damage is not a
concern

Surface Warfare
Defensive surface warfare relies on military deception which may attempt to
All of the answers are correct
Combat boats present great problems for conventional naval forces because they are
All of the answers are correct
Which is not among the primary roles of the surface warfare commander
Direct submarine operations
Asymmetric threat refers to
Threat from unconventional naval forces
Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of combat boats has
which of the following effects:
Complicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces.
The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets:
All of the answers are correct.
Principal sources of threat to the task force include:
Surface forces; anti-ship missiles; and mines and submarines
The Surface Warfare Commander is:
Tasked by the Composite Warfare Commander, the most qualified commander well suited to
support the
surface warfare mission, and sometimes assigned to Destroyer Squadron or
Tomahawk Land Attack
Missile command
The Recognized Maritime Position is difficult to maintain with complete accuracy for the
following reasons:
Adverse weather conditions

Air Defense
Which phase of the air defense mission deals with threat assessment?
Surveillance
The Air Defense Commander usually controls air defense operations from:
An AEGIS cruiser
Which air wing asset provides all-weather airborne early warning for the carrier strike group?
E-2C Hawkeye
Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare commanders
facilitates:
Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance
data; and security for departing and landing aircraft.
Match each air defense principle with the appropriate definition.
D
A
B
C

1. Use of sensors to identify distant missile threats

A. Defense in Depth

2. Establishing positions to absorb and weaken attacks

B. EMCON

3. Denying or altering enemy use of electronics systems.

C. OPDEC

4. Techniques to confuse or deceive enemy forces

D. Early Warning

Select the platforms with long range capabilities.


Aircraft carriers, Aegis cruisers, and destroyers

Naval Special Warfare


The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________.
is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew
A typical Naval Special Warfare Squadron generally contains ____________________.
six SEAL platoons
Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron?
All the answers are correct.
The army component of the U.S. Special Operations Command is the ____________________.

Army Special Operations Command (USASOC)


The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is ____________________.
Counterterrorism
MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by ____________________.
Special Boat Teams
A clandestine operation ____________________.
is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself
Direct Action missions ____________________.
involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions

Introduction to expeditionary warfare


The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
The amphibious planning process ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts?
All of the answers are correct.
The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to previously
deployable forces?
All of the answers are correct.
A type of amphibious operation designed to deceive the enemy to force him to commit to a
disadvantageous course of action is known as a ______________.
Demonstration
The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ______________.
All of the answers are correct.

Naval Logistics
Ready Reserve Force ships _______________.
are under Military Sealift Command control when activated
The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe
which general element of the Navys logistics process?
Distribution
The Military Sealift Commands largest combat logistics ships are the _______________.
Supply class T-AOEs
Prepositioned equipmentboth afloat and ashoreis considered logistics support at the
______________.
strategic level
The sustainment element of the logistics process is _______________.
the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support required to maintain operations
The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is
_______________.
the Military Sealift Command (MSC)
Which Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force ships are capable of the speeds necessary to keep up with
carrier strike groups?
Supply Class T-AOEs
Which of the following is NOT true?
Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ships company.

Undersea warfare
Mines were first successfully laid by aircraft during ___________________.
World War II
Wake homing torpedoes and sub-launched anti-ship missiles are weapons associated with
___________________.
Both nuclear and diesel powered submarines

The ASW warfare commanders call sign under the Navys Composite Warfare Commander
concept is ___________________.
AX
Which of the following is NOT true?
Surface detection sensors such as radar and ESM have proven to be ineffective in the search
for submarines.
The most effective means of countering a mine threat is ___________________.
the prevention of mine laying
Which of the following has mine counter measures as its primary mission?
MH-53E helicopter
Which of the following is NOT true?
U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platforms.
Which of the following is NOT true?
The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and defensive submarine
operations.
Which of the following is true?
Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out of the noise
generated by the ship.
Which of the following is true?
Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing vessel.
During the search phase of an ASW operation, ___________________.
Passive sensors are preferred to prevent the submarine from being alerted
The current submarine threat ___________________.
is more likely to be a diesel powered submarine
The Osprey Class (MHC-51) ships are ___________________.
glass reinforced plastic hulled

Fundamentals of joint warfare


The term joint forces includes which of the following commands?
All the answers are correct.
Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement; Cooperation among the
combatant commanders and their supporting joint force and component commanders is
crucial?
Unity of Effort
Joint warfare is best described as the ____________________.
integrated and synchronized application of all appropriate capabilities.
Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally
accomplished?
By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Select True or False: Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action
synchronizes and/or integrates joint and single-service operations with the actions of supporting
combatant commands, other military forces during multinational operations, and nonmilitary and
other federal government agencies.

True
Which of the following is NOT a function of the combatant commander?
Budget and procure service-specific equipment.
What level of authority is normally exercised by the functional component commanders of a
combatant command?
Tactical Control (TACON)
Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command?
A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander composed of forces
from two or more military departments.
Overwhelming force would fall under which fundamental of joint warfare?
Concentration
Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and functions and
provides the commander a means to measure, report, and correct performance?
Control

Select True or False: The combatant commander can give authoritative direction to
subordinate commands and forces necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command.
True

Fundamentals of information operations


Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information to both domestic
and foreign audiences.
Who has been given the specific responsibility to coordinate Information Operations (core
capabilities) among the combatant commanders?
Commander, U.S. Strategic Command
Which of the following statements is true?
Psychological Operations are the only Department of Defense (DOD) operations authorized to
influence foreign target audiences directly.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental assumptions that are the bases of
Information Operations ability to affect and defend decision making?
Generally, the relative importance of each quality criterion of information is universal and not
influenced by things such as language, culture and religion.
Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following EXCEPT ______________.
prisoner of war interrogation
Which of the following statements is true?
Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or adversary
automated information systems or networks.
The three dimensions of the information environment are ______________.
the physical, the informational, and the cognitive
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Information Operations (IO) is only concerned with information collected, processed and
disseminated through networked computer systems operated by an adversary.

The three main subdivisions of Computer Network Operations are:


computer network attack, computer network defense, and computer network exploitation.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The ability to attack U.S. information systems is still not within the ability of terrorist groups.

The united states army


Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?
Sea-based operations
Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support, aeromedical
evacuation, command and control, and special operations support to combat, stability, and
support operations?
UH-60L Blackhawk
What is the primary mission of a brigade?
To deploy on short notice and destroy, capture, or repel enemy forces, using maneuver and
shock effect.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?
The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or equipment for any
primary U.S. Army mission area.
Select True or False: The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise
command and control over all land forces, and may be an allied or coalition commander.
True
Heavy divisions offer exceptional:
Tactical mobility.
This is the deployable level of command required to synchronize and sustain combat
operations.
Corps
The Air Assault Division is considered:
All of the answers are correct.

Challenges facing the U.S. Army since the end of the Cold War include:
More demand for peacekeeping.
A single superpower adversary
Increased domestic instability
A less stable global environment.
A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to maneuver
and fire
Platoon
The key difference between the airborne division and the light infantry division is:
Airborne has the ability to conduct forcible entry operations; light infantry does not.
What event caused the U.S. Army to restructure and embed critical combat support capabilities
almost exclusively in the Reserve Component?
Viet Nam
Army divisions are classified depending on:
The speed in which they can be deployed.
The footprint occupied by equipment for airlift.
The relative combat power they possess.
The gross tonnage of all equipment.

U.S. Air Force


Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations?
Air refueling
Why does the U.S. Air Force believe air power must be controlled by a single commander who
maintains the broad strategic perspective necessary to balance and prioritize the use of
powerful, yet limited force?
Air and space power have the unique potential to directly affect the strategic and operational
levels of war.

___________________ allows the U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal
risk and collateral damage.
Precision engagement
Which aircraft is considered the USAFs front-line ground-attack aircraft providing critical close
air support to friendly forces on the ground?
A-10
Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the
electromagnetic spectrum?
RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint
Which of the following are the largest warfighting organizations of the U.S. Air Force?
The Numbered Air Forces
___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemys center of
gravity or other vital targets.
Strategic attack

U.S. Marine Corps


MEU (SOC) means that a MEU:Has expertise in amphibious raids executable within six hours of
mission receipt.
Select True or False: The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes
are set by law?False
Select True or False: All U.S. Marine forces in a given theater automatically fall under the
command of the Marine Component Commander.False
The Navy-Marine Corps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for
___________________.expeditionary force; overseas deployment
Which one of the following is NOT a type of MAGTFFSSG
Which one(s) of the following make up the 4th Marine Expeditionary Brigade?All of the answers
are correct.
An integrated organization of air, ground, and logistics forces is a(n):MAGTF
Select True or False: U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of operations are based on the
principle of Maneuver Warfare.True

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a MAGTF?


Requires pre-existing infrastructure to execute missions
A key component of OMFTS is:
The assembly area, attack position, and LOD are all at sea and over the horizon.
MARFORLANT is not the Marine Service Component Commander for which one of the
following?
CENTCOM
Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF?MEU

The MEF typically fights at the ______________ level to fulfill the Joint Force
Commanders objectives.
tactical

U.S. Coast Guard


US Coast Guard Law Enforcement Detachments (LEDETs) perform the following mission(s):
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: With regards to domestic coastal sea control, the Coast Guard Area
Commander reports directly to the respective Navy Fleet Commander.
True
Can the USCG be considered a redundant, non-complementary resource supporting the
National Military Strategy?
No
Select True or False: Article 14, USC 1 states that the USCG is a branch of military service at
all times
True
In accordance with 14 USC 2, which service ...shall enforce or assist all applicable federal laws
on and under the high seas and waters subject to the U.S. jurisdiction?
The U.S. Coast Guard at all times
What is the Integrated Deepwater System program?
An integrated approach to upgrading existing USCG assets while transitioning to newer, more
capable platforms.
Today, the USCG falls under what department during peacetime operations?
Department of Homeland Security
Which aircraft is the U.S. Coast Guards primary short-range helicopter for SAR and
surveillance?
HH-65A Dolphin
Which of the following is not true regarding employment of the USCG by DoD and the State
Department for peacetime engagement?
The USCG does not have robust anti-piracy capabilities.
Which units integrate into a military staff in the event of a massive pollution incident which may
impact the ability of U.S. and allied forces to conduct military operations?
Pollution strike teams

Which patrol boat class has the capability of a stern-launched rigid hull inflatable allowing for
more rapid and safe deployment of boarding crews?
Marine Protector
This is the only USCG cutter class armed with the close-in weapon system (CIWS).
Hamilton class
All USCG cutters are readily identifiable by which one of the following hull colors:
None of the answers are correct; USCG cutter hull color is dependant upon each ships mission
Which of the variants of the HU-25 Guardian aircraft is configured for oil pollution detection?
B
Which of the following deploys to provide force protection at OUTCONUS seaports of
debarkation?
PSUs
Which one(s) of the following is/are unique to the USCG?
All of the answers are correct.

Special Operations Force


Which of the following statements is/are true?
All the answers are correct.
Fire support for Special Operations Forces can be provided by ____________________.
AC-130 aircraft
Special operations in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify
information of strategic or operational significance is a part of which Special Operations core
task?
Special Reconnaissance
Direct Action missions ____________________.
All the answers are correct.
A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________.
All the answers are correct.
A characteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________.

that it is conducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries


U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include all of the
following EXCEPT ____________________.
assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat an internal
insurgency
Which service(s) provide(s) special operations units whose mission is combat search and
rescue in support of conventional combat operations?
Air Force
A battalion of the Army's 75th Ranger Regiment is forward deployed to Hawaii. This battalion is
most likely under the command of ____________________.
a geographic combatant commander
____________________ responsible for ensuring Special Operations Forces are fully
integrated into the Combatant Commander's Theater Security Cooperation Plan and
contingency plans and operations.
The theater Special Operations Commands are
The Air Force Special Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assist a foreign nation
in organizing and training its military and paramilitary forces to combat internal subversion is
____________________.
the 6th Special Operations Squadron
The combat forces of the Navy Special Warfare Command (NAVSPECWARCOM) include
____________________.
SEAL teams, SEAL delivery vehicle teams, and Special Boat Teams
U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include all of the
following EXCEPT ____________________.
assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat an internal
insurgency

homeland security/defense
Select True or False: Joint Publication 3-26, Homeland Security provides military guidance for
the exercise of authority by combatant commanders and other joint force commanders and
prescribes joint doctrine for operations and training.
True

Which of these is NOT a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?
All of the answers are correct.
The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be achieved
by ___________________.
blending public and private maritime security measures
In the event of a terrorist incident at the Atlanta-Hartsfield Airport, who would be the first to
respond?
Local police and fire departments.
Which of the following is NOT a critical mission area for the National Strategy for Homeland
Security?
Maritime Interception.
Select True or False: A large part of Homeland Security is left to the civilian sector.
True
Select True or False: The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to
mobilize and organize our Nation to secure the U.S. homeland from terrorist attacks.
True
Select True or False: The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to guide,
organize, and unify our Nations homeland security efforts.
True

Irregular warfare
Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________.
measures taken to preempt terrorism
Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Terrorism ___________________.
became a more conscious threat after the events of September 11, 2001
The threat that is presented by Al-Qaida is enhanced by which of the following aspects?
All of the answers are correct.

Of the following which is/are true of terrorist organizations?


They often use critical infrastructure vulnerabilities to serve their own purposes.
The effects of Weapons of Mass Destruction ___________________.
demand that troops devote resources preparing for their potential use
Insurgent groups can be differentiated from purely terrorist organizations by which of the
following?
The desire of insurgent groups to control a particular area.

PPME Block 5

Political Structures
According to the systems theory of international politics, a political system may be defined ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
During the Cold War era, most of the powerful states were ______________ and their behavior was to a large part defined by ______________.
aligned with either of the two superpowers, their relationship to the superpower they were aligned with
Select True or False: Some theorists argue that bargaining in the foreign policy arena by democracies is impeded by the openness required by
the democratic format.
True
Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ______________ international system.
multi-polar
The fact that the worlds leading democracies share common moral values guides them to cooperate with each other to maintain world peace.
Not true under all circumstances.
Select True or False: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each time a new president is sworn into office.
True
Select True or False: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is an example of a change in domestic
structure.
True
During the Cold War, the world was a(n) ______________ international system.
bi-polar
Joanne Gowa argues that ______________.

democratic states have engaged in conflict more often with other democratic states than with non-

democratic states

prior to 1914, democratic states were just as likely to engage in conflicts with one another as they were with
prior to World War I, democracies were less likely to align with other democracies than with non-

non-democratic states

democratic states

democratic states have not engaged in conflict with other democratic states since the 1700s
Cultural explanation of political behavior
Studying and measuring the effect of political culture on different dependent variables is difficult because:
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward democracy or
authoritarianism.
False

Select True or False: Political culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study of political culture focuses on
behavior patterns and dispositions of a group of persons.
False
Select True or False: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a political leader.
True
Select True or False: Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a quiet, reserved personality over one with
a gregarious personality.
True
Select True or False: In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled experiments that can illuminate the
unconscious assumptions of its members can be useful.
True
Political culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________.
None of the answers are correct.
The danger of using political culture to explain all political actions __________.
is that it ignores structural and institutional causes
Select True or False: The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variety of personality types.
True
If two collectivities have different behaviors when they have the same dependent variable applied, Elkins and Simeon state that ___________.
All of the answers are correct.
Democracy and nationalism
After World War II, the purpose for the wave of forced democratization upon Axis powers was to ______________.
All of the answers are correct
Select True or False: Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings.
True
Select True or False: Nationalist conflicts are happening only during violent regime transitions.
False
In the early stages of democratization, in multi ethnic societies partition of states ______________.
Is necessary if cultural differences have been strongly institutionalized along ethnic lines
According to Snider, the most benign form of nationalism is ______________.
Civic Nationalism

What would be the most democratic solution in preventing future ethno national conflicts?
Inclusion
The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the below, except ______________.
Ethno nationalism
Select True or False: Democracy cannot be accompanied by international and inter-ethnic violence.
False
During the early stages of democratization, ______________ are most likely to inflame nationalism in the society.
National elites
Nationalism could provoke conflict during the process of democratization because ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Future of democracy and democratization
The Optimistic Scenario of the future democracies includes all of the following, except that ______________.
Transnational corporations will continue to grow as sources of order within the international community
Select True or False: According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracys future, the twenty first century may be the century of collectivism.
False
Francis Fukuyama believes that ______________.
The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a prosperous and secure future
Select True or False: As the role of the State increases in societies, democratic values will also increase in its strength and importance.
False
To ensure the process of democratization and to strengthen democracy on the national level, all efforts in the future should be focused on?
Greater social, economic and political empowerment of the poor
The major contender to the liberal democracy, on an ideological level, in the post Cold War world is ______________.
Islam
Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratization are all of the following, except ______________.
Low debt
Since 1974, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule?
Over eighty
George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy, providing ______________.

A Balanced Perspective
Western hemisphere overview
Colombia alone produces ______________ of the worlds cocaine supply.
75%
The ______________ religion was a legacy of Spanish and Portuguese colonization in the 16th, 17th, and 18th centuries and is the predominant
religion of the mainland countries of Latin America.
Roman Catholic
According to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), ______________ of heroin in the U.S. comes from Latin America.
82%
Which country has the most members in its lower house of legislature?
Mexico
When did the U.S. begin construction on the Panama Canal in order to link the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans?
Early 1900s
______________ did not establish colonial territories in North America.
Australia
The ______________, found in Latin America, is the largest river basin in the world.
Amazon River Basin
For national security purposes, the area known as Latin America encompasses the ______________.
Western Hemisphere south of the United States, including islands of the Caribbean
The U.S. undid much of the good relations built up as a result of the Good Neighbor Policy in Latin America during ______________.
the Cold War
Which of the following Latin American cities is smaller than New York City?
None of the answers are correct.
While the Panama Canal is no longer considered by U.S. commanders as a major route for warships, it is ______________ to world commerce.
Vital
Balance of power in the southern cone of latin America
Select True or False: The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at the highest level its ever been.
False
The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and ______________.

Chile
The Democratic Peace Theory states that ______________.
Democracies do not wage wars against other democracies
Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin American
countries, except ______________.
Venezuela and Peru
What is the name of the theory that suggests that democracies do not wage war against other democracies?
Democratic Peace
Historically, one of the biggest rivalries in Latin America has been between Brazil and ______________.
Argentina
Select True or False: In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all became democratic countries.
False
The Southern Cone of Latin America includes the following countries, except ______________.
Columbia
Select True or False: Today, there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any countries in the Southern Cone.
True
In 1978, Argentina considered a war against ______________.
Chile
The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are ______________.
Chile and Bolivia
Geopolitics is ______________.
the study of the relationship between geography and power politics
Which of the statements are true with regards to the dispute between Ecuador and Peru in the mid-1990s?
The efforts of Argentina and Chile, in part, were responsible for a peace treaty being signed between Ecuador and Peru.
Latin American militaries
The United States ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
In the last 15 years, which of the following countries in South America had the most dramatic reduction in military expenditures?
Argentina

Latin American militaries ______________.


All of the answers are correct.
Some view ______________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.
Costa Rica
Which of the following organizations generally discourage military expenditures?
All of the answers are correct.
According to most observers, South America has been ______________ since at least the mid-1990s.
a Zone of Peace
Which of the following roles is not generally associated with militaries in Latin America?
Warfighter
The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military expenditures is ______________.
Colombia
The United States is especially involved in ______________, assisting that government in its campaign against the insurgents.
Colombia
Greater middle east overview
The region around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers in modern-day Iraq is also known as ______________.
Mesopotamia
Indias collapsing economy has made it less of an important future trading partner of the United States.
False
Which of the following is true concerning the Byzantine Empire?
Mostly Christian
Which of the following statements is true?
A campaign of civil disobedience and non-violent protest led to India gaining its independence from the British.
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is made up of solely Middle Eastern nations.
False
Which of the following is NOT considered a chokepoint for the sea lines of communication in South West Asia?
Strait of Gibraltar
Which of the following statements is true?

Britain, France, Italy, and Russia divided up the Arab part of the Ottoman Empire after World War I.
Kashmir ______________.
is a continuing source of tension between India and Pakistan
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Indias government is founded on religious law.
When did the first waves of Jewish settlers begin emigrating from Europe to the Middle East as part of the Zionist movement?
The 1880s
Arab-Isreali Conflict
Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israeli Prime Minister Rabin by a
Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995.
True
Select True or False: Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights and Suez Canal.
False
On November 22, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon ______________.
Israel to withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict
During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ______________.
occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank
Select True or False: The United States government strongly supported the partition of Palestine.
False
Within the frame of the Oslo Declaration, the Israelis agreed to ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
The Arab League and Palestinian institutions ______________.
rejected the partition plan
Following the Camp David Accords ______________.
Israeli withdrew from the Sinai
The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the ______________.
Six Day War in 1967
Before Jerusalem became united under Jewish sovereignty on June 7th 1967, following the Six Day War, it was controlled by the
______________.

Jordanians
The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14, 1948, was ______________.
the United States
What is the Bush administrations attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is constructing on the West Bank?
It acquiesced to construction of the wall
The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza Strip, in 1947-1948, was a result of the ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
United states security strategy and policy
The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________.
the importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential battleground in the emerging contest with the Soviet Union
May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: The U.S.-led coalition enjoyed considerable support in the Middle East for the liberation of Iraq from the oppressive
regime of Saddam Hussein.
False
The Baghdad pact created by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and Pakistan served as ______________.
a defense alliance against the Soviet Union
In the 1950s, the United States supported Saudi Arabia by ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
During the 1990s ______________, became the United States Navys busiest port of call in the world outside the continental United States.
Dubai
In 1953, after a coup dEtat backed by Britain and the United States, ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Islam in the greater middle east
Select True or False: Islam recognizes the prophets of Judaism, such as Abraham and Moses
True
The hajj, or the pilgrimage to Mecca and Medina, is a journey every Muslim seeks to make at least ______________ in a lifetime.
Once
Select True or False: No Muslim is exempt from the fast during the month of Ramadan

False
The pilgrimage in the Islamic faith is also known as the ______________.
Hajj
Muslims fast for one lunar month during ______________, the ninth month of the Islamic calendar.
Ramadan
Members of the Islamic faith ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: Islam allows for only finely crafted physical representations of God or the Prophet Muhammad.
False
The Muslim calendar starts with the year that ______________.
the early Muslim community fled from Mecca to Medina
A crisis in the succession of Islamic leadership resulted in a division of the community of Muslims into the ______________ branches of Islam.
Shia and Sunni
Select True or False: The Muslim and Gregorian (Christian) calendar years match precisely
False
Select True or False: In Islam, women are the spiritual equals of men
False
If they are able, Muslims are expected to pray ______________ time(s) per day, especially at noon on Friday
Five
Islam is a ______________ faith.
monotheistic (one god)
Eurasia
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
The decreasing capabilities of Russias military has resulted in it losing its permanent membership on the UN Security Council in favor of China.
Which of the following statements is true?
In a parliamentary democracy, the prime minister, premier, or chancellor, is chosen by the national legislature.
Many experts consider ______________ as the foundation of western civilization
the various Greek city-states that began to rise in the 9th century BC

Which of the following statements is true?


The end of World War I saw the final collapse of the Ottoman Empire
Russia is the worlds second largest oil exporter.
True
Mustafa Kemal (Atatrk) ______________.
established a democratic, secular form of government that continues to form the political foundation of modern Turkey
Soviet casualties, both military and civilian, during World War II ______________.
included over 20 million deaths
______________, ______________, and ______________ broke away from Russia during the Russian Civil War and were able to maintain their
independence until the early years of World War II.
Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania
Russias natural resources have given it the ability to woe its former allies and satellites from pursuing closer relationships with the West.
True
Which of the following statements is true?
Finland fought much of World War II on the side of Germany.
Which of the following countries is not a member of NATO?
Switzerland
When did the creation of a single German state occur?
After the Napoleonic Wars
During the 1991 Gulf War, few Eurasian nations participated in the American-led coalition forces that ended the Iraqi occupation of Kuwait.
False
At its peak, the holdings of the Ottoman Empire included ______________.
all of modern Turkey, parts of Africa, and parts of Europe
Which of the following statements is true?
Russia became a major European power during the reign of Peter the Great in the latter part of the 17th century.
Which of the following statements is true?
The Soviet decision to prop up a pro-Soviet government in Afghanistan during the Brezhnev years contributed to the decline of the Soviet
economy.
European union

High on the agenda of the European Union (EU) goals are ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
European leaders believed that to head off another world war, the politics and economies of ______________ needed closer alignment.
France and Germany
In the near future, competition between the European Union (EU) and the U.S. will likely center on ______________.
economic strength and geopolitical ambitions
The European Union (EU) and the U.S. share interests in ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
The origins of the European Union (EU) can be traced to ______________.Union (EU)
an economic agreement among six nations
The European Union (EU) has many of the attributes associated with independent nations, including:
All of the answers are correct.
Africa
Most of todays African nations became independent ______________.
during the 1950s and 1960s
The size of Africa is approximately ______________.
three times the size of the United States
Africa comprises ______________.
46 continental nations and 7 island nations
In the Horn of Africa region the ______________.
Sudanese governments fight against rebel groups has spilled over into Chad and the Central African Republic, displacing an estimated six
million people
Which is a true statement regarding languages spoken in Africa?
There are over 1,000 languages spoken in Africa.
Which is NOT true regarding Somalia?
The United States withdrew troops from Somalia after Operation UNITED SHIELD successfully captured warlord Mohamed Siad Barre.
The U.S. population is approximately 300 million; African population was ______________ by 2020
922 million in 2005 and expected to reach 1.27 billion
Muslim domination of North Africa arose from:

Arab immigration along trade routes between Arabia and sub-Saharan empires
The Central African Region is important to U.S. national interests, because:
It has rich natural resources, including oil, copper and potential for hydroelectric power.
The following are NOT challenges affecting African governments:
Scarcity of natural resources and available labor pool
Indigenous African peoples do NOT include the ______________.
Ottomans
Religions in Africa
Select True or False: Classical ancient African religions include beliefs that state there are many gods, but one god rules over them all.
True
Select True or False: Where religion revival can be found in Africa, most interactions among faiths are rife with conflict.
False
Select True or False: Shia Islam is banned on the continent of Africa by the African Union (AU).
False
One of the most significant impacts of Christianity of Africans was improvements to ______________.
health and education
Select True or False: Early Christianity is rooted in the central part of Africa
False
______________ is often used as a tool of mobilization to achieve political or military ends
Religion
Select True or False: It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to explain the natural world
False
______________ is one of many African faiths calling for the worshipping of more than one god
Animism
Select True or False: It can be said that one of the main functions of religion is to exercise social control.
True
Which continent has links to some of the worlds earliest religions?
Africa

The majority of African Muslims consider themselves ______________.


Sunni
African Security
______________ waste disposal is a challenge facing Africas environment
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: The motive for most African conflicts is purely military.
False
______________ is/are linking Africans together in ways that were unimaginable only a few years ago
All of the answers are correct.
______________ is a form of government that is on the rise in Africa
Multiparty democracy
The largest number of African deaths each year is caused by ______________.
disease and famine
Select True or False: Strong evidence exists to support the notion that the suspension of civil rights has brought peace and stability to wide areas
of Africa.
False
The use of ______________ degrades the economies of the entire African continent by depriving its nations of legitimate revenue.
child labor
Asian Pacific Overview
______________ (or one of its variants) is the most common language of Asia Pacific.
Chinese
In which country is Christianity the majority religion?
Philippines
The population of Asian cities is growing at a rate of ______________ the overall population.
Twice
Asia Pacific contains nearly ______________ percent of the worlds population
60
Which of the following nations is not a Communist nation?
Burma

The most strategically important waterway in the Asia Pacific region is the ______________.
Strait of Malacca
The combined oceans of Asia Pacific cover nearly ______________ of the earths surface
one-half
In many Asian countries, the majority of the population ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Partition of the India subcontinent
The India-Pakistan conflict is based upon ______________ issues.
All of the answers are correct.
Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of Colonial India, including the military assets.
False
The riots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as Direct Action day, were provoked by ______________.
Muslims who were pushing hard for the partition of British India into two nations
Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ______________.
Climate, beauty, and natural environment
______________ presided over the partitioning of British India which ended colonial rule in India.
British Lord Mountbatten
Select True or False: After the partition of British India until present, there have been no major clashes between Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs.
False
Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ______________.
Shia and Sunni Muslims
The Mohajirs were ______________.
The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsiders
______________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country populated mostly by Muslims and one country populated mostly
by non-Muslims
The Muslim League
Domestic opposition in Pakistan to the U.S.-led war against terrorism is due to ______________.
Traditional support for the Taliban by some Pakistani fundamentalist groups
The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India ______________.

All of the answers are correct.


Pakistan controlled Kashmir is known as:
Azad Kashmir
China: Alone and joining the world
Select True or False: After Washington broke diplomatic relations with Taiwan, Beijing continued to strongly object to the fact the U.S. still
maintained a non-official relationship with the ROC.
False
In the 1960s, China pursued policies of self-reliance because ______________.
in the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pressure, it had no other choice
Select True or False: By the end of the 1960s, China continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary.
False
President Nixon went to China because ______________.
he thought relations with Beijing would be useful against the USSR and in Vietnam
In the 1960s the military strategy of the PLA of China mainly relied on below mentioned factors, except ______________.
Chinas technological superiority
Why is China increasingly important today?
Chinas economic, political, and military power is rising
Mao launched the Cultural Revolution in the late 1960s ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Deng Xiaopings reforms ______________.
legitimized private sector in the economy and opened China to foreign investment and trade
The Sino-Soviet split ______________.
grew out of diverging strategic interests over Krushchevs policy of "peaceful coexistence" with the West
The Great Leap Forward ______________.
resulted in three years of famine and the deaths of millions of people
China adopted a defense posture of the peoples war in the 1960s because ______________.
its huge population and territory were its best assets for resisting foreign attack at the time
Chinas transformation into an emerging world power was the result of ______________.
Deng Xiaopings reform policies

In the 1950 and 60s, the U.S. policy of containing China included ______________.
All of the answers are correct.

CHINA SECURITY ISSUES


Select True or False: The Chinese government has recognized in recent years, spectacular economic growth and rapid
modernization guarantees human development.
False

State support and basic social services is given to ______________.

migrants

only to those with local household registration


Throughout the 1980s and early 1990s, the household responsibility system ______________. Select all that apply.
reallocated all land-use rights to individual households
dismantled all of the Mao-era communes
None of the answers are correct.
gave each household the right to sell a portion of its produce to local markets at unregulated prices
Select True or False: Since 1993, China has embarked on a reform process of fiscal decentralization that has continued to grow to
the present day.

True

This region of China constitutes less than one-third of the total Chinese landmass, but has the richest soils, three major river
systems, the best natural transport routes, and great ease of access to the Pacific Ocean.
Western-coastal China
Southern China
Northern China
Eastern-coastal C
Giving individual rural households the freedom to lease farm-land and generate household income by selling part of their produce on
the open market was the purpose of the establishment of ______________.

the household responsibility system


Select True or False: High levels of national saving and investment are dependent on the
virtuous cycle of growth.

True
In Deng Xiaopings view, the meaning of reform was the ___________. Select all that apply.
continuing state ownership of property
allowing free-market forces to play supporting role in national economic development
providing the basic framework for national development and modernization today to a

socialist market economy


continuing central

Household resist land-use buyouts because: _______________. Select all that apply.
unwillingness to restructure basic family economy
lack of negotiation of terms
family commitment to farming is a way of life
perceptions are that compensation is too little

Introduction to planning
The subsets of joint strategic planning are ______________.
security cooperation planning, joint operation planning and force planning
Joint strategic planning ______________.
All the answers are correct
Which of the following is correct?
A commander may be a supporting commander for one operation while being a supported commander for another.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Crisis Action Planning only takes place when a situation develops that will require U.S. military combat operations as a response.
Contingency planning focuses on ______________.
potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces
A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the objective of securing a inland airbase. In order to divert
enemy forces, two Carrier Strike Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air strikes as required by the MEU. The
MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and a list of targets he needs to be attacked prior to his assault on the airbase. Which is
most likely the supported commander for this operation?
The Colonel commanding the MEU.

The role of intelligence


Select True or False: An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in light of U.S. doctrine.
False
The primary focus of naval intelligence is ________________.
to provide tactical support to operating forces
Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) focus?
Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue
Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?
All of the answers are correct.
What process is used to analyze the air, land, sea, space, weather, electromagnetic, and information environments as well as other dimensions of
the battlespace, and to determine an adversarys capabilities to operate in each?
Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace
The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to ____________________.

support the commanders planning and decision making by identifying, assessing and estimating the adversary
Select True or False: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively prior to an operation to support the
commanders planning effort.
False
What is the primary difference between Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) for conventional war vice for Military Operations Other
Than War (MOOTW)?
The focus
Which step of the IPB process provides a disciplined method for analyzing the set of potential adversary Courses of Action in order to identify
the most likely and the most dangerous COAs?
Determine Adversary Courses of Action.
Navy planning process
Tasks listed in the mission received from higher headquarters are what type of tasks?
Specified tasks
The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what level (s) of command?
All of the answers are correct.
Which statement is correct when discussing the Navy Planning Process?
A logical decision process that helps focus the commander and staff
The Intelligence of the Battlespace process assists in identifying facts and assumptions about ____________________ and
____________________.
the battlespace environment; the adversary
Select True or False: The Navy Planning Process is a rigid step-by-step process that, if followed, will lead the staff to a decision.
False
Select True or False: Like the Navy Planning Process, the process for deliberate and crisis planning is left up to the combatant commander.
False
A friendly Course of Action ____________________.
is any concept of operation open to a commander that, if adopted, would result in the accomplishment of the mission
Within the Navy Planning Process, at what point would the commander determine potential adversary Courses of Action?
During the JIPB process
During the comparison of the friendly Courses of Action step in the Navy planning Process, what does comparing the strengths and weaknesses
of the Courses of Action provide?
It aids in identifying respective COA advantages and disadvantages.

During wargaming, the staff ____________________.


compares each friendly COA with each adversary COA
Select True or False: Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are a type of implied task.
False
Select True or False: Once a wargame has begun, a commander may change an existing Course of Action.
True
What is prepared in anticipation of operations and normally serves as the basis of a future order?
A plan
The Course of Action selected during the NPP is the basis for what?
the development of plans and the issuing of combat orders.
Law of the sea and airspace
Which of the following statements is true?
Permission from higher authority may be required to enter a specific body of water.
Innocent passage is a right of all ships to transit through territorial seas and _______________________.
Coastal nations may use force in some circumstances to remove ships which are demonstrating non-innocent behavior.
Select True or False: According to UNCLOS, territorial seas extend to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical miles and may be temporarily closed
(with the exception of international straits) by a coastal nation for security purposes.
True
Why does the law of the sea and airspace matter?
All of the answers are correct.
Basic maritime zones are drawn from baselines which may include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following is true of Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZs)?
They apply to all aircraft.
Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the high seas, which _______________.
All of the answers are correct.
A party transiting an international strait must do which of the following?.
All of the answers are correct.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?

It attempts to create a new legal order for ocean space.


During UNCLOS negotiations, what was the most important issue for the United States Navy?
Transit of international straits.
Historic bays are __________.
Exempt from normal rules.
National waters are subject to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include which of the following?
All of the answers are correct.
Regarding the collision of a U.S. EP-3 and a Chinese fighter on 01 April 2001, which of the following is/are true?
All of the answers are correct.
LOAC Scope
Select True or False: As a nation, we have announced to the world that we will broadly apply the Law of Armed Conflict to enemy nations in
our armed conflicts in the hope that they will reciprocate and broadly apply the same body of law towards us.
True
Select True or False: It is advantageous for a nation to become a signatory to the Geneva Conventions as not doing so will deny its military
personnel the treatments required under that treaty should they be captured by the forces of a signatory nation.
False
Select True or False: When a member of the United Nations Security Council is engaged in a military action pursuant to a United Nations
Security Council resolution, it is automatically exempted from its Law of Armed Conflict obligations.
False
Select True or False: Current U.S. policy concerning the applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict is consistent with at least the
minimum standards of international law.
True
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) applies to ____________________.
the militaries of all nations
Select True or False: U.S. domestic policy broadens the circumstances under which we apply the Law of Armed Conflict.
True
Which statement is true?
The United States has unilaterally decided to apply the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) to all of its military operations.
Select True or False: The applicability and scope of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is guided by the generally accepted terms of
international law.
True

Select True or False: The Geneva Conventions of 1949, which govern many aspects of military operations, are similar to the Law of Armed
Conflict (LOAC), in that they apply to all nations.
False
Select True or False: The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the Navy have issued directives that state that the armed forces
of the United States will, unless otherwise directed by competent authorities, comply with the principles and spirit of the Law of Armed Conflict
during armed conflict but not during operations that do not involve armed conflict.
False
Given that it has been determined that the Al-Qaeda and Taliban members captured in Afghanistan should be classified as unlawful combatants,
which of the following statements is true?
The U.S. is not required to afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs under the Geneva Conventions, but will do so as a matter of
U.S. domestic policy.
If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a non-signatory nation ____________________.
the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva Convention bind only the signatory nation
LOAC Principles
Select True or False: Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the U.S. military undergoes a review to ensure its legality under
LOAC, there is no need for a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC.
False
Violations of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) are violations of U.S. law and punishable under the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
True
Select True or False: The wearing and use of camouflage by combatants is prohibited by LOAC because doing so would violate the wearing of
a fixed emblem recognizable at a distance part of the test to determine combatant status.
False
The principles that have guided the development of LOAC are ____________________.
distinction, necessity, proportionality and humanity
A civilian airport may be classified as a legitimate military objective if ____________________.
it is currently being used by the enemy to launch and recover military aircraft
Legitimate military objectives may include ____________________.
All of the answers are correct.
Military medical officers, if captured ____________________.
are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner of war camps to provide medical services to POWs
Select True or False: Only members of a nations regular military can be classified as combatants under LOAC.
False
Select True or False: A combatant who commits a war crime loses his status as a combatant, but is still afforded POW status and treatment if
captured by the enemy even if found guilty of the crime.
False

ROE General Principles


Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. forces will continue combat
engagement as only the nations civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement.
False
The three major components of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________.
political, military and legal
Select True or False: Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nations political goals.
False
U.S. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces ____________________.
shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC
U.S. Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________ issued by ____________________.
directives, competent military authority
Select True or False: Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners and tactical level operators enough leeway to effectively
accomplish their assigned missions.
True
Select True or False: U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules of Engagement (ROE) other than approving the ROE as
presented to them by the military establishment.
False
Select True or False: Domestic and international public support of a military action is a factor to be considered when developing Rules of
Engagement (ROE).
True
The political component of Rules of Engagement seeks to _________.
All of the answers are correct.
The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must ____________________.
allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission
German military analyst Carl von Clausewitz theorized that ____________________.
war is a continuation of political intercourse
SROE
U.S. national security interests guide global objectives of deterring, and, if necessary, defeating armed attacks or terrorist actions against
designated non-U.S. forces.
True under certain circumstances

Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are applicable during peacetime.
True
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include the destruction of a hostile force under actions permitted
in self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The unclassified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coordination tool with U.S.
allies for the development of combined or multinational ROE.
True
The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during military operations ____________________.
occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces during military attacks against the United States.
True
Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require proportionality in the use of force in self-defense as to do
so would restrict a commander's inherent right and obligation of self-defense.
False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) are only applicable to U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the
U.S.
False
Self Defense
Force used to preclude or impeded the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces can be considered ____________________.
a hostile act
Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. nationals and property from attack?
All of the answers are correct.
A force that has been declared hostile via an ROE authorized by the President _______________.
may be engaged immediately by a commander of U.S. forces
Individual self-defense allows one to use force to defend oneself and U.S. forces in ones vicinity from a hostile act or demonstrated hostile
intent.
True, but an individuals right to defend oneself may be constrained by direction from the appropriate commander.
Normally, a force is declared hostile by ____________________.
a ROE authorized by the President or the Secretary of Defense
Select True or False: As a form of self-defense, the use of riot control agents is always authorized.
False
Select True or False: Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat requirement for self-defense
True
Select True or False: The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend themselves before they are attacked.
True

The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.


is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent can be prevented or terminated
Knowledge that a terrorist is preparing to use force to attack a U.S. Navy ship ____________________.
may be sufficient to satisfy the imminent requirement and thus authorize the use of force in self-defense
Mission accomplishment
Select True or False: If there are Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement in effect, a commander given a mission within that theater is limited to
those Rules of Engagement when executing an assigned mission.
False
In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role of the principal assistant to staff director for operations in developing and
integrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into operational planning.
Staff Judge Advocate
When developing alternative courses of action (COAs) to accomplish an assigned mission, the planning staff ____________________.
must give due consideration to the Rules of Engagement not yet approved but required in order to conduct the COA
Mission planners must ensure that the mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE) support ____________________.
the pre-conflict, conflict, and post-conflict phases of an operation
Select True or False: Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment and Rules of Engagement may define certain permissible
targets.
True
In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission ____________________.
the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered
When developing alternative courses of action (COAs) to accomplish an assigned mission, the planning staff ____________________.
must give due consideration to the Rules of Engagement not yet approved but required in order to conduct the COA
Guidance on how to request Rules of Engagement (ROE), including the proper formatting of ROE request messages are found in
____________________.
the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE)
The drafting of Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement has been delegated to the various ____________________.
Combatant Commanders
Select True or False: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of Engagement (ROE)
tailored to various missions that a U.S. could be assigned to perform
False
RUF

Select True or False: Operations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) would include disaster relief response. True
Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.S. Naval Ships while in foreign ports. True
Select True or False: When operating in support of other government agencies, U.S. military forces always operate under Rules for the Use of
Force developed specifically for that operation. False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply when conducting operations that involved armed conflict False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) apply to all U.S. forces operating inside the territorial jurisdiction of the United
States conducting: counter-drug operations, special event security and response to military attack False
Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States in support of another agency (for example the
U.S. Coast Guard) may operate under that agencys Rules for the Use of Force (RUF).True
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply to operations conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction of the United
States.False
Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may apply to U.S. forces guarding prisoners outside the territorial jurisdiction of the United
States.True

Block 6 Force Multiplication: Sensors throughout Military History


Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of German submarine
activity during World War I?
A: Sonar
Improving our ability to survey the environment improves our capacity to ______________.
A: best guess
Sonar-type sensors were first developed ______________.
A: best guess
Night vision goggles work best and give the greatest tactical advantage when used ______________.
A: under extremely low levels of ambient light
Although first patented in 1904, radar wasnt very militarily useful until ______________.
A: World War II
Global Positioning System (GPS) provides users with accurate information on ______________.
A: best guess
Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems were developed during ______________ and
used up until ______________.
A: the Cold War, the present time
During World War II, the British developed ______________, the first ______________, which played a
pivotal role in the British victory at the Battle of Britain?
A: best guess
The first known sinking of a U-boat during World War I was aided by a(n) ______________.
A: passive sonar system
The AIM-9 Sidewinder missile has proven to be a disappointment as its limited success has not justified
its high cost.
A: False
Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used in which weapon?
A: AIM-9 Sidewinder missile

A Global Positioning System (GPS) receiver determines its position by ______________.


A: best guess
The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ______________.
A: All the answers are correct.
Advanced sensor systems allow their users to ______________.
A: gauge enemy forces before being detected themselves
Which of the following sensor types uses sound to detect a target?
Sonar
During the 1990s, increases in technology related to which type of sensor system allowed its
users to own the night?
Low-light imaging
Sensor Fundamentals
The ratio of the highest deviation of a value represented by the sensor to the actual value is used to
determine a sensors ______________.
A: accuracy
If system A has an antenna gain of 1 and system B has an antenna gain of 4, which statement is NOT
true?
A: Best Guess
Which type of sensor operates in such a way that it can be used with minimal risk of detection by enemy
forces?
A: Passive sonar
Increasing the frequency of a signal wave (while maintaining a constant wave velocity) results in
______________.
A: Best Guess
A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having ______________.
A: a transmitter in one location and the receiver in another
Which is not typically considered a component of a sensor system?
A: Warhead

Which statement is NOT true?


A: Best Guess
A multistatic sensor is a sensor ______________.
A: the detector and source collocated
Measuring the output of a sensor in response to an accurately known input is known as
______________.
A: calibration
A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ______________.
A: has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire range
Sound travels ______________.
A: faster in water than in air
Spectroscopy is used to determine ______________.
A: what wavelengths are coming off a target
Gain refers to the increase of a transmitted signals power per unit area caused by ______________.
A: focusing a transmitted signal's power in a certain direction, or directions
Which statement is true?
A: Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit change in the parameter being
measured.
Interference may be ______________.
constructive and destructive
Refraction refers to ______________.
the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the medium the signal is
traveling through

Understanding the Frequency Spectrum


What is an alternate way of writing .023 km?
23 meters

Select True or False: Sensor size is proportional to wavelength.


True
Select True or False: Sensor size is proportional to frequency
False
Select True or False: The terms standard industry, standard international, and standard
military are synonymous when referring to frequency band designations
False
Select True or False: While we can only see/hear a small fraction of the exploitable frequency
spectrum, we can employ sensors to make use of the remainder of the spectrum
True
A short wave radio signal at 20 MHz would exist in which standard military band?
A-band
Select True or False: For a given frequency, a larger sensor can receive more effectively than
a smaller one
False
Select True or False: The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at
20 degrees C would be the same for underwater and above water platforms
False
Select True or False: Aircraft can only accommodate sensors of one meter or less.
False
Gamma rays are a good example of ______________.
high frequency and low wavelength
A frequency of 1 GHz is how many times higher than 1 KHz?
One million
How does the speed of sound through water compare with the speed of sound through air?
Approx. 4.4 times faster in water than air
Sensor challenges for modern combat systems

A diesel powered submarine can reduce its likelihood of detection by passive sonar by
______________.
operating on battery power
______________ is one of the current challenges to increasing our ability to avoid being
detected by an infrared sensor.
How to increase a platforms ability to cool and diffuse exhaust gases
Which of the following includes three propagation paths of sound in the ocean?
Direct path, bottom bounce and sound channel
A major limitation of airborne antisubmarine assets is that aircraft ______________.
have a relatively short on-station time
Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming?
Cover pulse jamming
Select True or False: In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement
sequence, one can never have too much sensor provided information. The more information
that can be collected, the easier the human decision making process is in a tense, stressful
environment.
False
Select True or False: The military fields and continues to use systems that may be generations
behind the civilian state of the art in order to avoid being forced to utilize unreliable assets
True
The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a targets radar at unexpected times is
used in ______________.
cover pulse jamming
Biological weapons detectors are currently deployed aboard ______________.
None of the answers are correct.
Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat ability more
efficient, more cost effective and safer by ______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Which type of sonar is the most effective in detecting relatively close contacts and formulating a
firing solution?

Active sonar
A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is ______________.
that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar
Maintaining technical superiority
Select True or False: Program Executive Offices are solely concerned with the technical
aspects of bringing future systems on line and thus are not involved in determining warfighter
requirements
False
Select True or False: All officers that have been involved in Navy program management are
barred from working for defense contractors after retirement because to do so would be a
conflict of interest.
False
______________ is the command responsible for the development of communications and
computer systems.
SPAWAR
The program office that is in charge of the development a system must strive to
______________.
All of the answers are correct.
The ever increasing amount of data provided by current and future sensor systems, increases
the potential of ______________.
subjecting the operators and decision makers to information overload
A limiting factor in developing the most advanced aircraft sensor systems possible is
______________.
the space needed to house such a system using current, or near future technology
______________ is the command responsible for the development of aircraft and air systems.
NAVAIR
______________ generate(s) a lit of Future Naval Capabilities (FNCs) that serve as a roadmap
to direct research and development funding
ONR

______________ is the command responsible for the development of ships and shipboard
systems
NAVSEA
Navy officers that directly contribute to Navy program management are typically
______________.
All of the answers are correct.
Unmanned autonomous sensor carrying vehicles are being developed in order to
______________.
increase personnel safety
Magnetic sensors
The purpose of a magnetic sensor is to ______________.
detect changes in a magnetic field
Magnetic sensors are useful for detecting ______________ objects.
Metallic
Magnetic sensors are only effective at ranges of ______________ meters or less
500
______________ are devices that detect changes in a magnetic field.
Magnetometers
Some magnetic sensors use multiple magnetometers in order to ______________.
increase the chances of detection
The Greek letter ______________ is used to symbolize magnetic field intensity
Gamma
Sonar
A ships sonar blind spot is commonly referred to as its ______________.
Baffles
As the relative motion between a sounds source and its receiver increases, the corresponding
Doppler shift ______________.
Increases

The apparent change in a sounds frequency due to relative motion between the sounds
receiver and its source is called the ______________.
Doppler effect
The ______________ contains water with the highest temperature and least density.
surface zone
The two major types of sonar are ______________.
active and passive
Generally, ______________ frequency sounds are detectable at longer ranges in seawater.
Lower
The average ocean depth is approximately ______________ feet
12,000
A bathythermograph measures ______________.
seawater temperature
A hydrophone is a(n) ______________.
underwater microphone
The ______________ contains 80 percent of the oceans vertical thickness
deep zone
Select True or False: Sound normally propagates through the ocean via a single path.
False
Select True or False: Sounds can usually be detected from the direct path method of
propagation at long ranges.
False
Radar
Select True or False: A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be the same
frequency as the transmitted energy.
False
Frequency-modulated continuous wave radar overcomes the normal inability of continuous
wave radar to determine ______________.

Range
The two types of energy transmissions used by radar are ______________.
pulse and continuous wave

Select True or False: Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or
away from a radar.
True
Radar is an acronym for ______________.
radio detection and ranging
Which type of radar presents range on the x-coordinate and elevation on the y-coordinate?
E-Scope
Select True or False: Larger targets exhibit up Doppler while smaller targets have down
Doppler.
False
Select True or False: Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target size.
False
A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ______________.
mixer, amplifier, and discriminator
Select True or False: Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object
from which the signal reflected.
True
Select True or False: A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small
antennas arranged in rectangular or circular arrays.
True
Electro optics
The optical spectrum consists of ______________.
IR, visible and UV

Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.


True
The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ______________.
placing the designating force at risk of detection
Laser light is available in both ______________.
continuous and pulsed form
Select True or False: Laser designators can work with many kinds of munitions.
True
______________ is an example of long range application of passive emission detection.

Thermal imaging
Military space mission areas
Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers, communications, people, and
other support structures that:
Used only in peace time.
Used o