Resonance CT 12015 - 08 - 10 - 17 - 10 - 38

CUMULATIVE TEST-1 (CT-1) Code
TARGET: AIPMT-2017
COURSE : SAMARTH (MB)

Date : 09-08-2015
Time : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 720
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
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prohibited.
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and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry (45), Physics (45) and Biology (90) questions.
Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 5 for correct response of each question. [one fourth
(1)] marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made
if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
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wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above.
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PARTA
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,
Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
Straight Objective Type

This section contains 45 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which Only One is correct.
1.
Total number of neutrons present in 4g of heavy

water
(D2O)
is
(Where
NA
6.
The unknown compound is :
represents
Avogadro's number)
(1) 2.4 NA
(2) 4NA
(3) 1.2 NA
(4) 2NA
0.2 moles of an unknown compound weigh 5.6 g.
7.
(1) H2O
(2) CO2
(3) CO
(4) N2O
How many gram-ions of SO4
are present in
1 gram-molecule of K2SO4. Al2(SO4)3. 24H2O :

2.
Which of the following has the highest mass ?

(1) 1 g atom of C
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4
(2) 1/2 mole of CH4

(3) 10 ml of water
(4) 3.011 10
23
8.
Sulphur exist in different allotropic forms like S2 ,

S6 and S8 etc. If equal moles of these three forms
atoms of oxygen
are taken in separate containers, then the ratio of

3.
number of atoms present in them respectively is
The weight of a molecule of the compound

C6H12O6 is :
21
(1) 1.09 10
(2) 2.988 10
22
(3) 5.025 10
23
23
9.
(1) 1 : 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 12 : 4 : 3
(4) 1 : 2 : 3
The number of atoms in 280 g Fe is :

(1) twice that in 60 g Carbon
(4) 16.023 10
Equal
of
(2) same as that in 160 g Oxygen

(3) half that in 8 g Helium
4.
masses
oxygen,
hydrogen
and
(4) same as that in 120 g Magnesium
methane are taken in a container in identical

condition. The ratio of the volumes of the gases-
5.
(1) 2 : 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 16
(3) 1 : 16 : 2
(4) 16 : 2 : 1
10. 16 g of an ideal gas SOx occupies 5.6 L. at STP.

The value of x is
(1) x = 3
(2) x = 2
(3) x = 4
(4) none
64 amu of Helium contains :

(1) 16 mole of He atoms.
11. The volume of 2.8g of CO at 27C and 0.821
(2) 13 He atoms.
atm.pressure is (R = 0.0821 lit. atm mol
(3) 13 mole of He atoms.
(1) 1.5 litre
(2) 3 litre
(3) 30 litre
(4) 0.3 litre
(4) 16 He atoms.
K )
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MBCT1090815C0-1
12. 1 amu is equal to :

(1) 1.66 10
24
17. A species of an element X has a net charge of
kg
1 and it has 18 electrons and 20 neutrons.

Then the correct statement is :
(2)
1
times the mass of one
8
(3)
1
times the mass of one 11H -atom
2
(2) Mass Number of X is 38.
1
times the mass of one
12
(4) None of these .
(4)
16
8 O -atom
12
6 C -atom
(1) Atomic number of X is 18.
(3) Number of proton are 17.
18. Correct decreasing order of magnitude of e/m is :

13. Wave number of radiations having frequency of
4
4 10 Hz will be :
(1) 1.33 10
(2) 1.33 10
11
(3) 9 10
(4) 4 10
cm
cm
cm
cm
(1) neutron, -particle, proton, electron

(2) -particle, neutron, proton, electron
(3) electron, proton, -particle, neutron
(4) can not be predicted
19. Select correct statement(s) :

(1) Anode rays are not produced at anode.
14. A photon-I of wavelength 4000 and photon-II

of wavelengths 8000. Then ratio of energy of
(2) e/m for cathode rays is gas dependent.

(3) e/m for cathode rays is maximum when H2
is filled in discharge tube.
photon-I to photon-II is :
(1) 3/1
(2) 2/1
(3) 1/2
(4) 4/1
15. The e/m ratio for cathode rays :

(1) varies with the element forming the cathode
in the discharge tube.
(2) varies with the gas in the discharge tube.
(4) Gases are good conductor of electricity at

normal condition.
20. The charge on the atom having 17 protons, 18

neutrons and 18 electrons is
(1) + 1
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) zero
(3) is constant.
(4) has the smallest value when the discharge
tube is filled with hydrogen.
21. The electronic velocity in the fourth Bohrs orbit

of hydrogen is v. The velocity of the electron in
the first orbit would be:
16. Which of the following are isobars :

(i) Atom, whose nucleus contains 20p + 15n
(ii) Atom, whose nucleus contains 20p + 20n
(iii) Atom, whose nucleus contains 18p + 17n
(iv) Atom, whose nucleus contains 18p + 22n
(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii)
(1) 4v
(2) 16v
(3) v/4
(4) v/16
22. A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of

wave length 6000 . Calculate the number of
photons emitted by the bulb per second.
21
(1) 1.8 10 photons

(2) 3.02 1019 photons
22
(3) 1.8 10 photons

(4) None of these
MBCT1090815C0-2
23. A photon of energy h is absorbed by a free

electron of a metal having work function w < h.
Then :
28. Correct IUPAC name of

(1) ethanoylmethanoate
(1) The electron is sure to come out

(2) The electron is sure to come out with a
kinetic energy (h w)
(2) ethanoic anhydride

(3) ethanoic methanoic anhydride
(4) methanoylethanoate
(3) Either the electron does not come out or it

comes with a kinetic energy (h w)
(4) It may come out with a kinetic energy less
than (h w)
29. 2-methylpropanoic acid and CO2 is oxidation

product of
(1) 3-methylbut-1-ene
(2) 2-methylbut-2-ene
24. Bohr's theory is not applicable to :
(3) 2,5-dimethylhex-3-ene
(4) 4-methylpent-2-ene
(1) H
(2) He
2+
30. Butyne-1 and butene-2 can be distinguish by
(3) Li
(1) Ammonical silvernitrate solution
(4) H
(2) Ammonical cuprouschloride solution

25. The velocity of electron in second shell of
(4) Baeyer's reagent (cold dilute alkaline KMnO4
hydrogen atom is :
6
(1) 10.94 10 ms
(2) 18.88 10 ms
solution)
31. Which one amongst the following pairs are not
(3) 1.888 106 ms1

6
(4) 1.094 10 ms
(3) Both (1) and (2)
isomers
(1) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 & CH3COCH2CH3

26. IUPAC name of the compound
(2)
&
(3) CH3CH2CO2H & CH3CO2CH3
is
(1) 1,1-dimethylbutane-1,3-diol
(4)
&
(2) 2-methylpentane-2,4-diol
(3) 1,3,3-trimethylpropane-1,3-diol
(4) 1,3,3-trimethylpentane-2,4-diol
27. IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is :
32. The general formula which represents the
(1) 2-Methyl-3-butanone
homologous series of alkanols is :
(2) Isopropylmethylketone
(1) CnH2nO2
(3) 3-Methylbutanone
(2) CnH2nO
(4) 4-Methylisopropylketone
(3) CnH2n+2O
(4) CnH2n2O
MBCT1090815C0-3
33. Which one is not aromatic ?
38. Which one of the following does not contain

nitrogen when treated with NaNO2 & HCl
(1)
(2)
(1)
(3)
(4)
(2)
34. Total No. of C sp2 H bond in benzene

(1) 12
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 10
(3)
(4)
35. A hydrocarbon (1) of molecular formula C5H8 on

ozonolysis give formaldehyde (CH2=O) and
39. Which one of the following will give isocyanide

with CHCl3 and alkali.
methylglyoxal (
). The structure of
(1) CH3CH2NH2
hydrocarbon is (1) CH2=CHCCH3
(2)
CH2
(2)
(3)
(3) CH2=CHCH2CH=CH2
(4) All of these
(4) CH3CH=C=CHCH3
40. How many moles of H2 will be obtained when
36. Total structure of trichlorobenzene are
(1) 2
following compound reacts with excess of Nametal
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1
(1) 5 moles
37. 0.34 g of a hydrocarbon that gives white
(2) 5/2 moles
precipitate with Tollen's reagent when treated
(3) 3 moles
with Na-matel liberates 56 ml of H2 at STP. The
(4) 7/2 moles
structure of hydrocarbon will.

(1) CH3CH2CH2CCCH3
41. Which one on reductive ozonolysis gives glyoxal
(2)
(3)
(4)
only
(1) HCCH
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these
MBCT1090815C0-4
42. Which one of the following is ozonolysis product

of C6H12
44. How many ethers are possible for C5H12O

(1) 6
(2) 4
(1)
(3) 3
(2)
+ CH3CH2CH=O
(3)
+ CH3CH =O
(4) 8
45. How many amine structures are possible in

C3H9N
(1) 3
(4)
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1
43. Which one amongst following will have only one

type of replaceable H-atom
(1) (CH3)4C
(2) (CH3)3CC(CH3)3
(3)
(4) All of these
MBCT1090815C0-5
50. The numerical ratio of displacement to the
PARTB
distance covered is always

This
section
contains
45
multiple
(1) Less than one

choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which Only One
(2) Equal to one

(3) Equal to or less than one
(4) Equal to or greater than one
is correct.
51. A 100 m long train is moving with a uniform

46. A person travels along a straight road for half the
distance with velocity v1 and the remaining half
distance with velocit y v2 The average velocity is
given by
(1) v 1v 2
(3)
v1 v 2
2
(2)
(4)
v 22
velocity of 45 km/hr. The time taken by the train

to cross a bridge of length 1 km is
(1) 58 s
(2) 68 s
(3) 78 s
(4) 88 s
v 12
2v 1v 2
v1 v 2
52. A particle moves for 20 seconds with velocity

3 m/s and then velocity 4 m/s for another
20 seconds and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s
47.
The displacement-time graph for two particles

A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of
30 and 60 with the time axis. The ratio of
velocities of VA : VB is
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1: 3
(3)
(4) 1 : 3
3 :1
for next 20 seconds. What is the average velocity

of the particle
(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) Zero
53. The correct statement from the following is

(1) A body having zero velocity will not
necessarily have zero acceleration
48. A car travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km/hr
(2) A body having zero velocity will necessarily
and returns at a speed of 30 km/hr. The average

speed of the car for the whole journey is
(1) 25 km/hr
(2) 24 km/hr
(3) 50 km/hr
(4) 5 km/hr
have zero acceleration

(3) A body having uniform speed can have
only uniform acceleration
(4) A body having non-uniform velocity will
49. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km
have zero acceleration
with constant speed of 2.5 km/hour and walks

back with a constant speed of 4 km/hr. His
average speed for round trip expressed in
54. A particle experiences a constant acceleration for

20 sec after starting from rest. If it travels a
distance S1 in the first 10 sec and a distance S2
km/hour, is
(1) 24/13
(2) 40/13
(3) 3
(4) 1/2
in the next 10 sec, then

(1) S1 = S2
(2) S1 = S2 / 3
(3) S1 = S2 / 2
(4) S1 = S2 / 4
MBCT1090815C0-6
55. The displacement x of a particle along a straight

2
61. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of
line at time t is given by x = a0 + a1t + a2t . The
8 km/hr. If the resultant velocity of boat is
acceleration of the particle is
10 km/hr, then velocity of the river is :
(1) a0
(2) a1
(1) 10 km/hr
(2) 8 km/hr
(3) 2a2
(4) a2
(3) 6 km/hr
(4) 4 km/hr
56. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time

are given by x = at2 and y = bt2. The speed of the
particle at any moment is
62. An object is thrown along a direction inclined at

an angle of 45 with the horizontal direction. The
horizontal range of the particle is equal to
(1) 2t(a b )
(2) 2t (a b )
(3) t a 2 b 2
(4) 2t (a 2 b 2 )
57. The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and
(1) Vertical height

(2) Twice the vertical height
(3) Thrice the vertical height
(4) Four times the vertical height
the acceleration f is given by at. Which of the

63. The height
following relation is valid

(1) v u at 2
(2) v u a
(3) v u at
(4) v u
t2
2
y and the distance x along the
horizontal plane of a projectile on a certain planet

(with no surrounding atmosphere) are given by
y (8 t 5t 2 ) meter and x 6t meter, where t is
58. Two trains, each 50 m long are travelling in

opposite direction with velocity 10 m/s and
15 m/s. The time of crossing is
in second. The velocity with which the projectile

is projected is
(1) 8 m/sec
(2) 6 m/sec
(1) 2s
(2) 4s
(3) 2 3s
2
(4) t 1
a
4s
59. A 210 meter long train is moving due North at a

of 25m/s. A small bird is flying due South a little
above the train with speed 5m/s. The time taken
(3) 10 m/sec
(4) Not obtainable from the data
64. The range of a particle when launched at an

angle of 15 with the horizontal is 1.5 km. What is
the range of the projectile when launched at an
angle of 45 to the horizontal
by the bird to cross the train is

(1) 6a
(2) 7s
(3) 9s
(4) 10 s
(1) 1.5 km
(2) 3.0 km
(3) 6.0 km
(4) 0.75 km
65. A stone is projected from the ground with velocity

60. A police jeep is chasing with, velocity of 45 km/h
25 m/s. Two seconds later, it just clears a wall
a thief in another jeep moving with velocity

153 km/h. Police fires a bullet with muzzle
5 m high. The angle of projection of the stone is

2
velocity of 180 m/s. The velocity it will strike the

car of the thief is
(1) 150 m/s
(2) 27 m/s
(3) 450 m/s
(4) 250 m/s
(g = 10m/sec )
(1) 30
(2) 45
(3) 50.2
(4) 60
MBCT1090815C0-7
66. Galileo writes that for angles of projection of a
71. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle
projectile at angles (45 + ) and (45 ), the
with the horizontal reaches maximum height H1.
horizontal ranges described by the projectile are
When it is projected with velocity u at an angle
in the ratio of (if 45)
with the horizontal, it reaches maximum

2
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 3
67. A projectile thrown with a speed v at an angle
height H2. The relation between the horizontal

range R of the projectile, H1 and H2 is
(1) R 4 H1H2
(2) R 4(H1 H2 )
(3) R 4(H1 H2 )
(4) R
has a range R on the surface of earth. For same

v and , its range on the surface of moon
will be
H1
H2
72. An object is projected with a velocity of 20 m/s
(1) R/6
(2) 6R
making an angle of 45o with horizontal. The
(3) R/36
(4) 36R
equation for the trajectory is h = Ax Bx where
h is height, x is horizontal distance, A and B are

68. The greatest height to which a man can throw a
stone is h. The greatest distance to which he can
throw it, will be
(1) h/2
(2) h
(3) 2h
(4) 3h
constants. The ratio A : B is (g = 10 ms )

(1) 1 : 5
(2) 5 : 1
(3) 1 : 40
(4) 40 : 1
73. For a given velocity, a projectile has the same

range R for two angles of projection if t1 and t2
69. When a body is thrown with a velocity u making

an angle with the horizontal plane, the
are the times of flight in the two cases then

(1) t 1t 2 R 2
(2) t 1t 2 R
maximum distance covered by it in horizontal

(3) t 1t 2
direction is
2
1
R
(4) t 1t 2
1
R2
(1)
u sin
g
(2)
u sin 2
2g
(3)
u 2 sin 2
g
(4)
u 2 cos 2
g
74. At what point of a projectile motion acceleration

and velocity are perpendicular to each other
(1) At the point of projection
(2) At the point of drop
70. A body is projected at such an angle that the

horizontal range is three times the greatest
(3) At the topmost point

(4) Any
where
in
between
the
point
of
projection and topmost point

height. The angle of projection is
(1) 258'
75. The maximum horizontal range of a projectile is
(2) 337'
400 m. The maximum value of height attained by

it will be
(3) 428'
(4) 538'
(1) 100 m
(3) 400 m
(2) 200 m
(4) 800 m
MBCT1090815C0-8
76. Newton's first law of motion describes the
82. A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force
following
F = kx with k = 15 N/m. What will be its initial
(1) Energy
acceleration if it is released from a point 20 cm
(2) Work
(3) Inertia
away from the origin
(4) Moment of inertia
(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
77. Newton's second law gives the measure of
(1) Acceleration
(3) 3 m/s
(2) Force
(4) 15 m/s
(3) Momentum
(4) Angular momentum
83. A train of 150 meter length is going towards north

direction at a speed of 10 m/sec. A parrot flies at
78. A force of 100 dynes acts on mass of 5 gm for
the speed of 5 m/sec towards south direction
10 sec. The velocity produced is
parallel to the railway track. The time taken by
(1) 2 cm/sec
the parrot to cross the train is
(2) 20 cm/sec
(3) 200 cm/sec
(1) 12 sec
(4) 2000 cm/sec
(2) 8 sec
(3) 15 sec
(4) 10 sec
79. An object will continue moving uniformly until

(1) The resultant force acting on it begins to
decrease
84.
(2) The resultant force on it is zero

(3) The resultant force is at right angle to its
d
(uv) is
dx
(1)
udv
dx
(2)
vdu
dx
(3)
udv vdu
dx
dx
rotation
(4) The resultant force on it is increased
continuously
80. A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t1
to
reach the floor when lift is stationary. It takes

time t2
(4) None of these
when lift is moving up with constant
acceleration. Then
(1) t1 > t2
(2) t2 > t1
(3) t1 = t2
(4) t1 > > t2
81. If the tension in the cable of 1000 kg elevator is

1000 kg weight, the elevator
85.
d
(xe x ) is
dx
(1) xex
x
(2) e (x + 1)
(3) ex (x 1)
(1) Is accelerating upwards
(4) e (2x + 1)
(2) Is accelerating downwards

(3) May be at rest or accelerating
(4) May be at rest or in uniform motion
MBCT1090815C0-9
86.
sin(2x 3)dx is
(1) cos(2x + 3) + C
(2)
cos(2x 3)
C
2
89.
(sin
x cos2 x)dx is
(1) x + c
(2)
x2
C
2
(3)
x3
C
3
(4)
x4
C
4
(3) tan(2x + 3) + C
(4) cot(2x + 3) + C
87.
1
dx is
4x 9
(1) loge |4x a| + C

(2)
loge | 4x 9 |
C
9
(3)
loge | 4x 9 |
C
4
(4)
loge | 4x 9 |
C
9
90. 2 vectors are parallel if

(1) A B 0

(2) A B 0

(3) A B
(4) Both (1) and (3)
88.
2x
dx is
(1) 42x + C
(2)
42x
loge4 C
2
(3) 42x loge4 + C

(4)
42x
2loge4
MBCT1090815C0-10
PART-C
97.
This section contains 90 multiple
Bacterial cell divides every one minute. It takes

15 minutes a cup to be one-fourth full. How
choice
much time will it take to fill the cup?
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(1) 30 minutes
(2) 45 minutes
(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY
(3) 60 minutes
(4) 17 minutes
ONE is correct.
98.
Phase of cell cycle when DNA polymerase is

active.
91.
92.
Bacterial flagella are formed of
(1) G1
(2) S
(1) Amines
(2) Proteins
(3) G2
(4) M
(3) Lipids
(4) Carbohydrates
99.
The number of mitochondria increases in cell of
If a cell has 12 bivalents in zygotene stage how
(1) Dormant seeds
(2) Germinating seeds
many kinetochores are found in it.
(3) Dry seeds
(4) Dead seeds
(1) 24
(2) 48
(3) 12
(4) 36
100. Outer and inner membranes of mitochondria

are
93.
The colour of rose petals is due to water

soluble pigments present in the
(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Nucleus
(3) Intercellular spaces(4) Vacuoles
94.
I. It is the final phase of prophase I

II. Terminalization of chiasmata occurs
III. Fully condensed chromosomes
(1) Structurally and functionally similar

(2) Structurally and functionally dissimilar
(3) Structurally similar but functionally different
(4) Structurally different but functionally similar
101. Law of segregation of mendel occurs during

(1) Anaphase I
(2) Anaphase II
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Metaphase II
IV. Spindle is assembled

V. Nucleolus and NM breaks down
Above characteristics belong to
95.
(1) Zygotene
(2) Dikinesis
(3) Diplotene
(4) Metaphase
as
(1) Desmosomes
(2) Tonoplast
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Junctions
Protoplasm is physical basis of life was stated

103. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
by
96.
102. The membrane covering the vacuole is known
(1) Purkinje
(2) Huxely
homologous chromosomes is called
(3) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Schwann
(1) Kinetochore
(2) Bivalent
(3) Axoneme
(4) Equatorial plate
A plant cell has 24 chromosomes at the end of

mitosis. How many chromosomes would it have
104. Which of the following is present in both plant
in the G2 phase of its next cell cycle
and animal cells?
(1) 48
(2) 8
(1) Centriole
(3) 12
(4) 24
(3) Plasma membrane (4) Plastids
(2) Secondary wall
MBCT1090815C0-11
112. In
105. This diagram represents
which
stage
of
cell
cycle,
tetrad
is
conspicuous
(1) zygotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Between pachytene & diplotene
(4) Between zygotene and pachytene
(1) Prophase II
(2) Telophase I
(3) Prophase I
(4) Telophase II
106. Bacteria have cell membrane made of

(1) Chitin
(2) Cellulose
113. Most of hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes

function at
(1) Basic pH
(2) Any pH
(3) Neutral pH
(4) Acidic pH
(3) Proteins and phospholipids

114. If number of chromatids are 40 in anaphase-I
(4) Peptidoglycan
than how many chromosomes will present in

107. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded
exclusively in the
(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Glyoxysomes
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Proplastids
the egg cell of this organism

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 80
115. Basal
108. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the
bodies
are
(1) Cilia and flagella
(2) Inner membrane
(2) Cell plate
(3) Intermembrane space
(3) Phragmoplast
(4) Matrix
(4) Kinetochore
a critical ion level of

(1) Magnesium
(2) Calcium
(3) Copper
(4) Manganese
with
the
development of
(1) Outer membrane
109. The two subunits of ribosomes remain united at
associated
116. Cell wall is absent in

(1) Paramecium
(2) Chara
(3) Yeast
(4) E. Coli
117. Three morphological forms of golgi complex are

(1) Lamellae, tubules and vesicles
110. Nucleolus is produced from
(2) Cisternae, tubules and vesicles
st
(1) 1 constriction
(2) NOR of certain chromosomes
(3) Cisternae, tubules and lamellae
(3) Nuclear envelope
(4) Granum, thylakoids and vesicles
(4) ER
118. In GERL system ER is
111. The larger sub-unit of 80 S ribosomes contain
the following RNA molecule
(1) 23 S, 5.8 S, 5.0 S
(2) 28 S, 5.8 S, 5.0 S
(3) 25 S, 5.8 S, 5.0 S
(4) 25 S, 5.8 S, 5.0 S
(1) RER
(2) SER
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None
119. Myeloid bodies, sarcoplasm of muscles and

nissl granules are rich in(1) Fats
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Lipids
(4) ER
MBCT1090815C0-12
120. Endomembrane system is formed by

(1) ER + Nuclear membrane + GB
(2) ER + GB + Vacuole
(3) ER + GB + Vacuole + Lysosomes
(4) ER + GB + Centriole
127. ER of rapidly dividing cells is(1) Non functional

(3) Less developed
(2) Highly developed

(4) Absent
128. Besides giving out secretory vesicles, Golgi

apparatus is also concerned with formation of
121. The site of formation of glycoproteins and
(1) Grana of chloroplasts

(2) Plastids
(3) Cell plates after cells division in plants
glycolipids are
(4) Lysosomes
(1) ER
(2) GB
(3) Chloroplast
(4) None of these
129. Golgi bodies are maximum in

(1) Root cap cells
122. The organelle that moves materials out of the

cell is-
(2) Root tip cells

(3) Calyprogen
(4) Quiesent centre
(1) ER
(2) Lysosomes
130. Oxysomes or elementary particles are centre of
(3) Golgi bodies
oxidative phosphorylation are found in(1) Inner membrane of chloroplast
(4) Ribosomes bound on ER
(2) Outer membrane of mitochondria

123. Peptidyl transferase is found on
(1) A-site of smaller unit of ribosome
(3) Perimitochondrial space

(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(2) P-site of larger unit of ribosome

131. Who discovered the chloroplast DNA and
(3) Entire ribosome
Mitochondrial DNA (1) Dangered Ris and plaut
(4) mRNA
(2) Willstater and Ris and Plaut

124. The mitochondria serves as a marker for
cytochrome oxidase and the Lysosomes serve
(3) Ris and Plaut & Nass and Nass

(4) Nass and Nass & Ris and Plaut
for ........
132. The cell organelle responsible to make luminal
and extra-luminal compartment in eukaryotic
(1) Succinic dehydrogenase

(2) Catalse
cell is -
(3) Galactosidase
(1) ER
(3) Nucleus
(4) Acid phosphatase
125. ER is extensively developed in

(1) Liver
(2) Panereas
(3) Fibroblast
(4) All of the above
126. Golgi apparatus is absent in(1) Yeast

(2) Liver cells
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Higher plants
(2) GB
(4) Vacuole
133. Arrangement of golgi apparatus in a cell is :

(1) Convex Cis/forming face is towards cell
membrane
(2) Concave Cis/forming face is towards cell
membrane
(3)Convex Cis/forming face is towards Nucleus
while concave trans or maturing face is
towards plasma membrance.
(4) Convex Cis/forming face is towards Plasma
membrane while concave trans or maturing
face is towards Nucleus.
MBCT1090815C0-13
134. Organic acid and most common element in sap

vacuole
++
(1) Ca , acitic acid

++
(3) Ca , citric acid
143. What is the partial pressure of O2 and CO2 (in

mmHg) in alveoli
(1) 40,104
(2) 95, 40
(3) 40, 95
(4) 104, 40
(2) K , oxaloacetic acid

(4) K , acetic acid
144. Structure
135. The cell nucleus was discovered by
(1) De Duve
(2) Robert Brown
(3) Robert Hooke
(4) Virchow
136. Residual air found in
which
does
not
contribute
to
breathing movement is
(1) Ribs
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Abdominal muscles(4) Larynx
145. Some cnidarians examples corals have a
(1) Alveoli
(2) Bronchi
(3) nasal chamber
(4) Trachea
skeleton composed of
(1) Spongin fibres
(2) Silica
(3) Calcium carbonate(4) All of these

137. What will be PO2 and PCO2 in the atmospheric
air compared to those in the alveolar air.
146. Fluid present between lung covering is called
(1) PO2 - lesser, PCO2 - higher
as
(2) PO2 -higher, PCO2 - lesser
(1) CSF
(2) ECF
(3) PO2 - higher, PCO2 - higher
(3) Pleural fluid
(4) Perilymph
(4) PO2 - lesser, PCO2 - lesser

147. The quantity 1100 ml in the respiratory volumes
of a normal human adult refers to
138. Metagenesis is shown by

(1) Hydra
(2) Adamsia
(1) Maximum air that can be breathed in and
(3) Aurelia
(4) Obelia
out
(2) Residual volume
139. How many O2 is delivered by 100ml of
(3) Expiratory reserve volume

(4) TLC
oxygenated blood to tissue

(1) 24 ml
(2) 10 ml
148. Body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb
(3) 4 ml
(4) 5 ml
plates present in phylum_____________.

(1) Coelentrata
140. Following is known as Portuguese man-of-war
(2) Porifera
(1) Gorgonia
(2) Aurelia
(3) Ctenophora
(3) Physalia
(4) Obelia
(4) Platyhelminthes
A
149. CO + H O
141. Total lung capacity is
(1) 1200 ml
(2) 2400-3600 ml
Here A & B is/are
(3) 5100-6000 ml
(4) 3600-4100 ml
(1)
H2CO3
Carbonic
HCO3 + H+
Anhydrase,
Lysolecithinase
142. Which one of the following living organisms
(2)
A=
Lysolecithinase
B=
completely lacks a cell wall?
Anhydrase
(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Sea-fan (Gorgonia)
(3) Both A & B-Lysolecithinase
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Green algae
(4) Both A & B- Carbonic Anhydrase
Carbonic
MBCT1090815C0-14
150. Gastro-vascular cavity with single opening is

found in
156. Sponges need a continuous current of water

flowing through their bodies for
(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterate
(1) Respiration
(3) Aschelminths
(4) Annelida
(2) Respiration and excretion

(3) Respiration, excretion and reproduction
151. Factors which are favourable for formation of
(4)
Respiration,
excretion,
nutrition
and
reproduction
oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli are

(1) High PO2, low PCO2 , lesser H+ & lower
157. How many molecules of oxygen2 can bind with
temperature
(2) High PO2 , low PCO2 ,more H+ & lower
temperature
(3) Low PO2 , high PCO2 , more H+ & lower
Haemoglobin
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 8
temperature
(4) High PO2, low PCO2, lesser H+ & higher
temperature
152. Plathyhelminthes called flat worms because

(1) They are triploblastic
158. Example of ctenophores is

(1) Pleurobrachia
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of these
159. What is the partial pressure of O2 & CO2 in

systemetic veins (in mmHg)
(2) They are without coelom

(3) They have organ level or organization
(1) 45 & 40
(2) 95 & 40
(3) 40 & 95
(4) 40 & 45
(4) Their body is dorso-ventrally flattened

160. First diploblastic animal showing tissue level of
153. After deep inspiration capacity after maximum
expiration of lung is called as
(1)TLC
(2) FRC
(3) VC
(4) IC
organization is
(1) Sycon
(2) Gorgonia
(3) Taenia
(4) Locust
161. Rate of breathing is controlled by

154. Which of the following is respiratory disease
(1) Polio
(1) Amount of freely available O2

(2) CO2
(2) Measles
(3) Muscular function of body
(3) Mumps
(4) Stress
(4) Emphysema
162. Following characters are related to phylum :
155. CO 2 + Haemoglobin
..................
I. Aquatic, mostly marine
(1) Carboxyhaemoglobin
II. Sessile or free swimming
(2) Carbon-di-oxide haemoglobin
III Radially symmetrical animals
(3) Carbide haemoglobin
(1) Porifera
(2) Ctenophora
(4) Carbamino haemoglobin
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Coelentrata
MBCT1090815C0-15
163. Nasopharynx opens into larynx by
169. Chemoreceptors are located in
(1) Gullet
(2) Glottis
(1) Carotid bodies
(3) Cardiac valve
(4) Pyloric sphincter
(2) Aortic bodies

(3) Pneumotaxic centre
164. Polyp Asexually Medusa sexually
(4) both (1) & (2)
Polyp
170. The body of the aschelminthes is circular in
The above cycle is shown by

(1) Physalia
(2) Aurelia
cross section. Hence it is named as
(3) Obelia
(4) Hydra
(1) Tapeworm
(2) Earthworm
(3) Hookworm
(4) Roundworm
165. Respiration machanism is controlled by

171. What is true about R.B.C. in humans ?
(1) Central Nervous System

(2) Autonomic Nervous System
(3) Sympathetic Nervous System
(4) Parasympathetic Nervous System
(1) They carry about 20-25% of CO2 (average

23%)
(2) They transport 99.5% of O2
(3) They do not transport C O2 at all
(4) They transport about 80% O2 only and rest
166. Ctenophores show

(1) Extra and intra cellular digestion
20% of it is transported in dissolved state in
(2) Sexual reproduction only
blood plasma.
(3) Bio luminescence

172. Cnidoblat is used for
(4) All of these
167. Haemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve is :

(1) Hyperbolic
(2) Sigmoid
(3) Straight
(4) Constant
168. Match the following :
(1) Anchorage
(2) Defense
(3) Capture of prey
(4) All
173. Pneumotaxis centre is present in

(1) Fore brain
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla
(4) None
Column I
Column II
Physalia
Brain coral
Adamsia
Sea fan
Pennatula
Sea pen
Gorgonia
Sea anemone
Meandrina
Portuguese man-of-war
deoxygenated blood to tissue
Aurelia
Jellyfish
(1) 24 ml
(2) 10 ml
(3) 4 ml
(4) 5 ml
174. Choanocytes or collar cells occurring only in

(1) Cnidarians
(2) Trematodes
(3) Sponges
(4) Earthworms
175. How many CO2
is delivered by 100ml of
(1) A 5, B 5, C 2, D 3, E 1, F 6
(2) A 5, B 4, C 3, D 2, E1, F6
176. Polyp phase is absent in
(3) A 5, B 4, C 3, D 1, E 2, F 6
(1) Hydra
(2) Aurelia
(4) A 5, B 3, C 4, D 2, E 1, F 6
(3) Obelia
(4) Physalia
MBCT1090815C0-16
177. Respiratory rhythm centre is present in

(1) Fore brain
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla
(4) None
178. Animals having cylindrical body having organ

system
level
of
organization
showing
metamerism belong to phylum

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Mollusca
(3) Annelida
(4) Platyhelminthes
179. In blood CO2 is transported majorly by

(1) Sodium Carbonate
(2) Carboxyhaemoglobin
(3) Bicarbonate
(4) CO2 as such
180. In which of the following disease in lungs

fibrous tissue proliferates
(1) Fibrosis
(2) Emphysema
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Asthma
MBCT1090815C0-17

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CUMULATIVE TEST-1 (CT-1) Code

COURSE : SAMARTH (MB)

Max. Marks : 720

Name of the Candidate :

Resonance Eduventures Pvt. Ltd.

Straight Objective Type

Total number of neutrons present in 4g of heavy

The unknown compound is :

0.2 moles of an unknown compound weigh 5.6 g.

How many gram-ions of SO4

1 gram-molecule of K2SO4. Al2(SO4)3. 24H2O :

Which of the following has the highest mass ?

(2) 1/2 mole of CH4

Sulphur exist in different allotropic forms like S2 ,

are taken in separate containers, then the ratio of

number of atoms present in them respectively is

The weight of a molecule of the compound

The number of atoms in 280 g Fe is :

(2) same as that in 160 g Oxygen

(4) same as that in 120 g Magnesium

methane are taken in a container in identical

10. 16 g of an ideal gas SOx occupies 5.6 L. at STP.

64 amu of Helium contains :

11. The volume of 2.8g of CO at 27C and 0.821

atm.pressure is (R = 0.0821 lit. atm mol

(3) 13 mole of He atoms.

(1) 1.5 litre

(4) 0.3 litre

12. 1 amu is equal to :

17. A species of an element X has a net charge of

1 and it has 18 electrons and 20 neutrons.

(2) Mass Number of X is 38.

(4) None of these .

(1) Atomic number of X is 18.

(3) Number of proton are 17.

18. Correct decreasing order of magnitude of e/m is :

(1) neutron, -particle, proton, electron

19. Select correct statement(s) :

14. A photon-I of wavelength 4000 and photon-II

(2) e/m for cathode rays is gas dependent.

15. The e/m ratio for cathode rays :

(4) Gases are good conductor of electricity at

20. The charge on the atom having 17 protons, 18

21. The electronic velocity in the fourth Bohrs orbit

16. Which of the following are isobars :

22. A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of

(1) 1.8 10 photons

(3) 1.8 10 photons

23. A photon of energy h is absorbed by a free

28. Correct IUPAC name of

(1) The electron is sure to come out

(2) ethanoic anhydride

(3) Either the electron does not come out or it

29. 2-methylpropanoic acid and CO2 is oxidation

24. Bohr's theory is not applicable to :

30. Butyne-1 and butene-2 can be distinguish by

(1) Ammonical silvernitrate solution

(2) Ammonical cuprouschloride solution

(4) Baeyer's reagent (cold dilute alkaline KMnO4

31. Which one amongst the following pairs are not

(3) 1.888 106 ms1

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(1) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 & CH3COCH2CH3