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TEST 1: Kinematics
ME Board October 1999
It deals only with the motion of bodies without reference to the
forces that cause them.
A.
Kinetics
B.
Motion
C.
Kinematics
D.
Acceleration
ME Board October 1999
Progressive change in position of a body is called;
A.
Acceleration
B.
Motion
C.
Force
D.
Momentum
ME Board April 1998
Cam in general may be divided into two classes; uniform
motion and _____ motion cam.
A.
Reverse
B.
Gravity
C.
Decelerated
D.
Accelerated
ME Board October 1997
Product of mass and linear velocity is known as;
A.
Impulse
B.
Linear Momentum
C.
Angular Momentum
D.
Impact
ME Board April 1997
It is the motion of an object diminished or decreased speed.
A.
Deceleration
B.
Retarded Motion
C.
Negative Impulse
D.
All of these
ME Board October 1996
It is the property of matter, which causes it to resist any
change in its motion or state of rest.
A.
Brake
B.
Friction
C.
Inertia
D.
Impulse
ME Board October 1996
If the velocity of mass is the same all the time during which
motion takes place is called;
A.
Deceleration
B.
Uniform Motion
C.
Acceleration
D.
None of these
ME Board October 1996
Statement that a given body is an static equilibrium means
that the body cannot;
A.
A many type of motion
B.
Be acted upon by more than one force
C.
Undergo any Displacement
D.
have any type of acceleration

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ME Board April 1996


It is a science of motion that can be solved in terms of scalar
and vector algebra.
A.
Kinematics
B.
Curvilinear translation
C.
Projectile
D.
Acceleration
ME Board October 1995
An object thrown upward will return to earth, the magnitude of
the terminal velocity equal to;
A.
Zero
B.
the initial velocity
C.
Twice the initial velocity
D.
Initial Velocity
ME Board October 1993

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The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plain perpendicular


to the axis of the rotation of the cam.
A.
Radial Cam
B.
Cylindrical Cam
C.
Cam Curves
D.
Tangential Cam
ME Board October 1993
The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plain parallel to the
axis of the rotation.
A.
Cam Curves
B.
Cylindrical Cam
C.
Tangential Cam
D.
Radial Cam
ME Board October 1993
A cone formed by elements, which are perpendicular to the
elements of the pitch cone at the large end.
A.
Cone distance
B.
Back cone
C.
Root cone
D.
Cone center
ME Board April 1992
The ability of moving body to perform work is called;
A.
Internal energy
B.
Potential energy
C.
Kinetic energy
D.
Flow work
A slider crank chain is made up of ______.
A.
One turning and one sliding pair
B.
One turning and two sliding pairs
C.
Two turning and one sliding pair
D.
Three turning and one sliding pair
A Scott-Russell mechanism is made up of;
A.
Rotating pair only
B.
Sliding and turning pairs
C.
Turning and rotary pairs
D.
Turning pair only
Ackerman steering gear is made up of;
A.
Rolling and sliding pairs
B.
Rolling pairs
C.
Sliding and rotary pairs
D.
Turning pairs
A cam where the follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plain
parallel to the axis of the cam is called;
A.
Circular cam
B.
Cylindrical cam
C.
Reciprocating cam
D.
Tangential cam
Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar
mechanism lies on;
A.
A point obtained by intersection of extending adjoining
links
B.
Left side pivot of this link
C.
Right side pivot of this link
D.
Any of the choices above
A vector quantity that describes both how fast it is moving and
the direction in which it is heated;
A.
Acceleration
B.
Displacement
C.
Motion
D.
Velocity
Which of the following is the rate at which the velocity is
changing?
A.
Acceleration
B.
Linear
C.
Motion
D.
Velocity
The direction of the ______ is toward the center in which, the
study moves.
A.
Centripetal acceleration
B.
Centrifugal acceleration
C.
Radial cam

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D.
Tangential
It is the device that changes the magnitude, direction or mode
of application of a torque or a force while transmitting it for a
particular purpose.
A.
Frame
B.
Machine
C.
Mechanism
D.
Structure
The process of obtaining the resultant of any number of
vectors.
A.
B.
Vector Composition
C.
Vector Quantity
D.
Vector resolution
It has magnitude, direction and sense.
A.
Scalar quantity
B.
Absolute quantity
C.
Vector quantity
D.
Relative velocity
A plate, cylinder or other solid with a surface of contact so
designed as to cause or modify the motion of the piece.
A.
Cam
B.
Disk
C.
Gear
D.
Pulley
When acceleration is zero, the
A.
Velocity is constant
B.
Velocity is negative
C.
Velocity is variable
D.
Velocity is zero
When velocity is changing, the acceleration is
A.
Constant
B.
Not constant
C.
Variable
D.
Zero
Kleins construction is used to determine the
A.
Acceleration of various parts
B.
Angular acceleration of various parts
C.
displacement of various parts
D.
Velocity of various parts
Kleins construction can be used when
A.
Crank has a uniform angular acceleration
B.
Crank has a uniform angular velocity
C.
Crank has a non-uniform angular velocity
D.
B and C above
The cam angle is
A.
The angle subtended by live portion of a cams center
B.
The angle of rotation of a cam for a definite
displacement of the follower
C.
The angle subtended at the cam center by the portion of
the cam during which the follower moves
D.
The angle subtended by the cam at the cam center
when the follower dwells
The pitch point on a cam refers to
A.
Any point on pitch curve
B.
A point at the distance equal to pitch circle radius from
the center
C.
The point of cam pitch circle that has that has the
maximum pressure angle
D.
None of the above
For a kinematics chain to be considered as mechanism
A.
None of the links should be fixed
B.
One link should be fixed
C.
There is no such criterion
D.
Two links should be fixed
Hart mechanism has how many links?
A.
4
B.
6
C.
8
D.
12
Peaucellier mechanism has how many links?

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A.
4
B.
5
C.
6
D.
8
A cam with a roller follower would constitute which type of
pair?
A.
Closed pair
B.
Higher pair
C.
Lower pair
D.
Open pair
Kinematics pairs are those pairs that have
A.
Elements of pairs not held together mechanically
B.
Point or line contact between the elements when in
motion
C.
Surface contact between the two elements when in
motion
D.
Two elements that allow relative motion
A pantograph is a mechanism having
A.
Higher pairs
B.
Lower pairs
C.
Rolling pairs
D.
Spherical pairs
The number of links of a pantograph is equal to
A.
3
B.
4
C.
5
D.
6
In elliptical trammels;
A.
All four pairs are turning
B.
One pair turning and three pairs sliding
C.
Three pairs turning and one pair sliding
D.
Two pairs and two pairs sliding
The Kleins method of construction for reciprocating engine
mechanism
A.
Enables determination of Coriolis component
B.
Is a simplified form of instantaneous center method
C.
Is based on acceleration diagram
D.
Utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of
mechanism for reciprocating engine
If a particle of a link has a velocity that changes both in
magnitude and direction of an any instant, then
A.
It must have only unidirectional acceleration
B.
It must have two components of acceleration e.g. ,
centripetal and tangential
C.
It must have three components of acceleration e.g. ,
centripetal, centrifugal and tangential
D.
It must have three components of acceleration e.g. ,
centripetal, centrifugal and gravitational
Select the one that has the higher pair
A.
Crosby indicator mechanism
B.
Harts straight line mechanism
C.
Thompson indicator mechanism
D.
Both gearing mechanism
A shaft revolving in a bearing forms
A.
Cylindrical pair
B.
Higher pair
C.
Lower pair
D.
Sliding pair
The total number of instantaneous center for a mechanism of
N links is equal to
A.
2N
B.
(N-1)(N+1)
C.
2N (N-1)
D.
N (N-1)/2
A kinematics chain needs a minimum of
A.
2 link and 2 turning pairs
B.
3 links and 3 turning pairs
C.
3 links and 2 turning pairs
D.
4 links and 4 turning pairs
For kinematics chains formed by lower pair, the relation
between the number of joint J is given by

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A.
L = 2/3 (J+2)
B.
L = 3/2 (J+2)
C.
L = 2/3 (L+2)
D.
J = 3/2 (L+2)
In case of an elliptical trammel,
A.
1 pair turns and 2 pairs slide
B.
2 pairs turn and 2 pairs slide
C.
2 pairs turn and 1 pair slide
D.
All 4 pairs turn
Coriolis component of acceleration is found in
A.
four bar mechanism
B.
Mechanism of steam engine
C.
Higher pair
D.
Whitworth-quick-return mechanism
It is one that is not appreciably deformed by the action of any
external force or load
A.
Rigid body
B.
Structure
C.
Frame
D.
Mechanism

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TEST 2: Stresses
At a given section of an I beam, the maximum bending stress
occurs at the
A.
Maximum shear stress area
B.
Neutral axis
C.
Web joint near the flange
D.
Outermost
The resultant of two or more forces is a
A.
Couple of forces
B.
Concurrent of forces
C.
Momentum
D.
Resolution of forces
Two or more forces acting together, could be replaced by a
single force with same effect in a mass called;
A.
Couple of forces
B.
Resolution of forces
C.
Resultant
D.
Concurrent of forces
The frictional forces defends on coefficient of friction and
A.
Torque
B.
Weights of object
C.
Normal of force
D.
Moment
Shear modulus is also known as;
A.
Shear elasticity
B.
Poissons ratio
C.
Modulus of elasticity
D.
Modulus of rigidity
the maximum stress induced in a material when intermittent
or repeated load without causing failure is called:
A.
Ultimate stress
B.
Endurance limit
C.
Ultimate strength
D.
Elastic limit
Internal stresses exerted by the fibers to resist the action of
outside force is called:
A.
Shearing stress
B.
Tensile stress
C.
Ultimate stress
D.
Compressive stress
Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will eventually fail
if the load/stress is above the endurance for the steel under
consideration. The endurance limit of the steel is therefore
A.
Equal to the allowable stress of the modulus of elasticity
B.
Equal to half of the ultimate strength
C.
Equal to module of elasticity
D.
Equal to 80% of the elastic limit

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Moment of inertia is called:


A.
Modulus of elasticity
B.
Weep strength
C.
Radius of gyration
D.
None of these
Deflection of a beam is
A.
Proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of
inertia
B.
Proportional to the load imposed and inversely to the
length squared
C.
Inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and
moment of inertia
D.
Inversely proportional to the weight imposed times the
length
Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less
than the yield point is called:
A.
Plasticity
B.
Elasticity
C.
Creep
D.
Ductility
It is the opposite direction of parallel forces
A.
Concurrent
B.
Coplanar
C.
Couple
D.
Non coplanar
The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross section of the
beam to the section modulus is
A.
Equal to the radius of gyration
B.
Equal to the area of the cross section
C.
Measure of a distance
D.
Dependent on modulus of elasticity of beam measure
The differential of the shear equation is which of the following
A.
Bending moment of the beam
B.
Tensile strength of the beam
C.
Slope of the elastic curve
D.
Load of the beam
Could be defined as simply push and pull is known as
A.
Work
B.
Force
C.
Inertia
D.
Power
The changes in shape or geometry of the body due to action
of a force on it is called deformation or
A.
Shearing stress
B.
Stresses
C.
Compressive stress
D.
Strains
Ability to resist deformation under stress is called
A.
Plasticity
B.
All of these
C.
Stiffness
D.
Toughness
The property of the material relates the lateral strain to
longitudinal strain is called
A.
Stress
B.
Strain
C.
Poissons ratio
D.
Endurance limit
The single force which produces the same effect upon a body
as two or more forces acting together is called
A.
Resultant force
B.
Co-planar force
C.
Couple
D.
Non co-planar force
The ability of metal to resist crushed is called
A.
Shearing strength
B.
Compressive stress
C.
Torsional strength
D.
Tensile strength
Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called
A.
Co-planar

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B.
Non co-planar forces
C.
Couple
D.
Composition of forces
In general, the design stress and factor of safety are related
as follows
A.
Design stress = ultimate stress times factor of safety
B.
Design stress = ultimate stress divide by factor of safety
C.
Factor of safety = design stress divided by ultimate
stress
D.
Ultimate stress = factor of safety divided by design
stress
Stresses that are independent to loads are known as
A.
Working stresses
B.
C.
Residual Stress
D.
Shear stresses
The ratio of unit lateral deformation to unit longitudinal
deformation is called
A.
Poissons ratio
B.
Willans line
C.
Modulus of elasticity
D.
Deformation
Separate forces, which can be so combined are called
A.
Non-concurrent forces
B.
Couple
C.
Combined forces
D.
Concurrent forces
Endurance strength is nearly proportional to the ultimate
strength but not with
A.
Yield strength
B.
Design stress
C.
Shear stress
D.
All of these
The three moment equation may be used to analyze a
A.
Tapered column
B.
Continuous beam
C.
Endurance limit
D.
Tensile stress
Poissons ratio is the ratio of
A.
Shear strain to compressive strain
B.
Elastic limit to compressive strain
C.
Lateral strain to longitudinal strain
D.
Elastic limit to proportional limit
The product of the resultant of all forces acting on a body and
the time that the resultant acts
A.
Angular impulse
B.
Angular momentum
C.
Linear impulse
D.
The systems of forces and opposite collinear forces are
added, which of the following if any is true?
A.
Equilibrium is destroyed
B.
Equilibrium is maintained
C.
None of these is true
D.
An unbalance of moment axis
What is the property of the material, which resist forces acting
to pull the material apart?
A.
Shear strength
B.
Tensile strength
C.
Torsional strength
D.
Compressive strength
What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces that
causes twisting?
A.
Torsional strength
B.
Modulus of elasticity
C.
Twisting moment
D.
Elasticity
The unit deformation is called
A.
Torsion
B.
Strain
C.
Stress

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D.
Shear
The total amount of permanent extension of the gage length
measured after specimen has fractured and is expressed as
percentage increase of the original length.
A.
Elongation
B.
Strain
C.
Stress
D.
Elastic limit
Strength of a material is that of a stress intensity determined
by considering the maximum test load to act the original area
of the test specimens called
A.
Yield point
B.
Ultimate strength
C.
Break strength
D.
Elastic limit
The maximum stress, which is reached during a tension test
is called
A.
Stress
B.
Elasticity
C.
Strain
D.
Tensile strength
Which of the following is the differential of the shear
equation?
A.
Bending moment
B.
Load on the beam
C.
Tensile strength of the beam
D.
Slope of the beam
The change in length per unit original length is
A.
Strain
B.
Stress
C.
Deformation
D.
Elastic modulus
The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed is
A.
Fatigue strength
B.
Bending strength
C.
Torsional strength
D.
Compressive strength
The ability of metals to withstand loads without breaking down
is termed as
A.
Strain
B.
Stress
C.
Elasticity
D.
Strength
The ability of a metal to withstand forces that causes a
member to twist
A.
Shear strength
B.
Tensile strength
C.
Bearing strength
D.
Torsional strength
The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic limit is called
A.
Creep
B.
Modulus of rigidity
C.
Modulus of elasticity
D.
Poissons ratio
The last point at which a material may be stretched and still
return to its un deformed condition upon release of the stress.
A.
Rupture limit
B.
Elastic limit
C.
Proportional limit
D.
Ultimate limit
The deformation that results from a stress and is expressed in
terms of the amount of deformation per inch.
A.
Elongation
B.
Strain
C.
Poissons ratio
D.
Elasticity
The internal resistance a materials offers to being deformed
and is measured in terms of applied load.
A.
Strain
B.
Elasticity
C.
Stress

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D.
Resilience
The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to
alternating or repeated loading without causing failure.
A.
Ultimate strength
B.
Yield strength
C.
Endurance strength
D.
Rupture strength
The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected
before failure occurs is called.
A.
Rupture strength
B.
Ultimate strength
C.
Yield strength
D.
Proportional limit
The total deformation measured in the direction of the line of
stress.
A.
Strain
B.
Elasticity
C.
Elongation
D.
Contraction
The total resistance that a material offers to an applied load is
called
A.
Friction torque
B.
Stress
C.
Rigidity
D.
Compressive force
The ability of metal to withstand forces thus following a
number of twist.
A.
Shear strength
B.
Bearing strength
C.
Endurance limit
D.
Deformation
Test 5
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in the


design of shaft and the limit should be in the range of
degrees/foot of length.
a.
0.004 to 0.006
b.
0.08 to 1
c.
0.006 to 0.008
d.
0.008 to 1
For universal joint shaft angle should be
degrees
maximum and much less if in high rotational speed.
a.
12
b.
16
c.
15
d.
14
It is a good design practice for steel line shafting to
consider a limit to the linear deflection of
inch/foot
length maximum.
a.
0.050
b.
0.010
c.
0.020
d.
0.060
It is a rotating machine member that transmits power.
a.
Cam
b.
Plate
c.
Shaft
d.
Flywheel
A stationary carrying pulleys, wheels and etc. that
transmit power called:
a.
Axle
b.
Propeller shaft
c.
Turbine shaft
d.
Machine shaft
A line shaft is also known as:
a.
Counter shaft
b.
Jack shaft
c.
Main shaft
d.
Head shaft

7.

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9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

Which of the following shaft intermediate between a line


shaft and a driven shaft?
a.
Counter shaft
b.
Jack shaft
c.
Head shaft
d.
All of the above
Short shaft on machines are called
a.
Core shafts
b.
Head shafts
c.
Medium shafts
d.
Spindles
For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum at
the neutral plane where the normal stress is
a.
Constant
b.
Maximum
c.
Minimum
d.
Zero
Criteria for the limiting torsional deflection vary from
0.08 per foot of length for machinery shafts to per foot
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
For transmission shafts the allowable deflection is one
degree in a length of diameters
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25
An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that the
deflection should not exceed
of length between
support
a.
0.01 in. per foot
b.
0.02 in. per foot
c.
0.03 in. per foot
d.
0.04 in. per foot
In general for machinery shafts, the permissible
deflection may be closer to
a.
0.02 in/ft
b.
0.01 in/ft
c.
0.002 in/ft
d.
0.030 in/ft
The speed at which the center of mass will equal the
deflecting forces on the shaft with its attached bodies
will then vibrate violently, since the centrifugal force
changes its direction as the shaft turns.
a.
Critical speed
b.
Geometrical speed
c.
Mean speed
d.
Unit speed
For shaft, minimum value of numerical combined shock
and fatigue factor be applied in every case to the
computed bending moment is
a.
1.0
b.
1.3
c.
1.5
d.
1.8
It is suggested that the design factor of yield strength be
about 1.5 for the smooth load, about 2 to 2.25 for minor
shock loads, and
when the loading reverses
during operation
a.
3.0
b.
4.0
c.
3.5
d.
4.5
A column is called short column when
a.
The length is more than 30 times the diameter
b.
Slenderness ratio is more than 120
c.
The length is less than 8 times the diameter
d.
The slenderness ratio is more than 32

18.

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20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of


shear stress
a.
Is uniform throughout
b.
Has maximum value at the axis
c.
Has maximum value at the surface
d.
Is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a
maximum value at the surface of the shaft
The compression members tend to buckle in the
direction of
a.
Axis of load
b.
Perpendicular to the axis of load
c.
Minimum cross-section
d.
Least radius of gyration
A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made
up of
a.
Clad material
b.
Composite material
c.
Homogenous material
d.
Heterogeneous material
The column splice is used for increasing
a.
Strength of the column
b.
Cross-section area of the column
c.
Length of the column
d.
All the above
A simply supported beam has a uniformly distributed
load on it, the bending moment is
a.
Triangle
b.
Parabola
c.
Semi-circle
d.
Rectangle
The power obtained by piston reaches flywheel through
the
a.
Countershafts
b.
Crank shafts
c.
Transmission shafts
d.
Line shafts
There are two types of crankshafts, namely
a.
Single piece and built up
b.
Forged and turned
c.
Rotary and stationary
Engine valves get open by means of
a.
Cam shaft
b.
Rocker shaft
c.
Crank shaft
d.
Valve guard
The value of allowable stresses which are generally
used in practice for main transmitting shafts is
a.
282 kg/cm3
b.
423 kg/cm3
c.
599 kg/cm3
d.
620 kg/cm3
The value of allowable stresses which are generally
used in practice for line shafts carrying pulleys is
a.
150 kg/cm3
b.
282 kg/cm3
c.
423 kg/cm3
d.
550 kg/cm3
The value of allowable stresses which are generally
used in practice for small short shafts, countershafts is
a.
282 kg/cm3
b.
599 kg/cm3
c.
650 kg/cm3
d.
750 kg/cm3
Torsional deformation in transmission shafts should be
limited to in 20 diameters
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
Lateral deflection caused by bending should not exceed
a.
0.001 in per foot of length

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

b.
0.005 in per foot of length
c.
0.01 in per foot of length
d.
0.05 in per foot of length
Front axle should be lived and
a.
Weak
b.
Dead
c.
Strong
d.
None of these
The steering is coupled to the two front wheels by
means of a
a.
Connecting rod
b.
Tie rod
c.
Push rod
d.
Spindle
In the overdrive transmission system the rotation speed
rest higher than that of engines speed
a.
Main shaft
b.
Crank shaft
c.
Propeller shaft
d.
Machine shaft
A slip joint the length of the propeller shaft
a.
Increase
b.
Decreases
c.
Keeps appropriate
d.
None of the above
The transmission system incorporates clutch, gear box,
and propeller shaft and
a.
Brake
b.
Differential
c.
Steering
d.
Main shafting
The lay shaft moves
the primary shaft
a.
Equal to
b.
More than
c.
Less than
d.
In the gear ratio
The main shaft is lifted the lay shaft
a.
Before
b.
After
c.
Parallel to
d.
Adjacent to
In the top gear, the rotational speeds of
remain
the same
a.
Primary and lay shafts
b.
Main and lay shafts
c.
Primary and main shafts
d.
Secondary and main shafts
The primary and lay shafts rotate in
direction
a.
In the same
b.
Different
c.
Reverse
d.
None of the above
It is an integral part of a machine
a.
Spindle
b.
Axle
c.
Counter shaft
d.
Machine shaft
Stresses in shafts are analyzed through
a.
Torsional
b.
Bending
c.
Axial
d.
All of these
What is the standard stock length?
a.
16 ft
b.
20 ft
c.
24 ft
d.
All of the above
Centrifugal separators that operate at speeds
also
employ these flexible shafts.
a.
1000 to 3000 rpm

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

b.
5000 to 10000 rpm
c.
15000 to 30000 rpm
d.
20000 to 50000 rpm
Which of the following materials used for shafting
a.
AISI 3240
b.
AISI 3150
c.
AISI 4063
d.
AISI 33000
The process of redistributing the mass attached to a
rotating body in order to reduce vibrations arising from a
centrifugal force
a.
Shaft coupling
b.
Shaft balancing
c.
Shaft hooper
d.
Stator balancing
In many cases the
of the shaft is an import design
feature
a.
Deflection
b.
Rigidity
c.
Size
d.
Strength
Commercial shafting is made of
a.
Low carbon steel
b.
Cast iron
c.
Brass
d.
Bronze
What is the most common material for shafting?
a.
Wrought iron
b.
Cast iron
c.
Mild steel
d.
Aluminum
Cold drawing produces a
shaft that hit rolling,
but with higher residual stresses.
a.
Weaker
b.
Stronger
c.
Harder
d.
None of the above
Allowable stresses in shear equal to
are common in design of a shaft
a.
3000 to 5000 psi
b.
4000 to 6000 psi
c.
5000 to 8000 psi
d.
6000 to 10000 psi

Test 6

1.A type of coupling that allows slight amount of torsional angular


flexibility due to introduction with some elastic material cylindrically
wrapped around the bolts in the flange.
a.
Simple bonding elastic coupling
b.
Elastic material bushed coupling
c.
Elastic material bounded coupling
d.
All of these
2.
Which of the following keys that is square or flat and
tapered with head?
a.
Pin key
b.
Saddle key
c.
Gib-head key
d.
None of the above
3.
What are considered as the most common keys?
a.
Flat keys
b.
Square keys
c.
Saddle keys
d.
A & B above
4.
A key may either straight or tapered. It is usually a drive
fit.
a.
Pin key
b.
Saddle key
c.
Gib-head key
d.
None of these

5.
A key with of the several patented methods of keyed
into a hole that is small enough to close the slit, assembled in radial
direction.
a.
Fit key
b.
Saddle key
c.
Roll pin
d.
Pin key
6.
Kennedy keys are also known as.
a.
Tangential keys
b.
Normal keys
c.
Saddle keys
d.
Roll pin
7.
A key shaft that allows the hub to move along the shaft
but prevents the rotation of the shaft.
a.
Woodruff key
b.
Feather key
c.
Gibbs key
d.
Square key
8.
Which of the following type of fits use for involute
splines?
a.
Close fit
b.
Press fit
c.
Sliding fit
d.
All of these
9.
Used for permanent fits and are similar to involute
splines except that the pressure angle is 14.5 deg.
a.
Separation load
b.
Stub serrations
c.
Spline shaft
d.
Involute serrations
10.
In the case of knuckle joint, the pin is most likely to fail
in
a.
Compression
b.
Shear
c.
Tension
d.
Double shear
11.
In case of sunk key,
a.
The key is cut in both shaft and hub
b.
The key way is cut in hub only
c.
The key way is cut in shaft only
d.
The key way is helical along the shaft
12.
Splined shafts are generally for
a.
Aircrafts
b.
Automobiles
c.
d.
13.
Splines are used when
a.
The power to be transmitted is low
b.
The power to be transmitted is high
c.
The torque is high
d.
Axial relative motion between shaft and hub is
necessary
14.
Which key normally used in wristwatches?
a.
Kennedy key
b.
Sunk key
c.
Tangent key
d.
None of the above
15.
If a square key and shaft are to be of the same material
and of equal strength the length of key would be equal to
a.
d
b.
0.75 d
c.
1.2 d
d.
1.5 d
16.
A type of key that is used in self-aligning machine key
made by a side milling cutter in the form of a segment of a disk.
a.
Kennedy key
b.
Saddle key
c.
Tangent key
d.
Woodruff key
17.
A female mating member that forms a groove in the
shaft to which the key fits.

a.
Key path
b.
Key way
c.
Key holder
d.
Key hole
18.
A square taper key fitted into a keyway of square
section and driven from opposite ends of the hub is known as.
a.
Barth key
b.
Feather key
c.
Kennedy key
d.
Saddle key
19.
A machine member employed at the interface of a pair
of mating male and female circular cross sectioned members to
prevent relative angular motion between these mating.
a.
Key way
b.
Key
c.
Constant key
d.
Variable key
20.
A feather key is one of the following types of
a.
Sunk
b.
Tapered
c.
Parallel
d.
Tangent
21.
Permanent keys made integral with the shaft and fitting
into key ways broached into the mating hub.
a.
square key
b.
splines
c.
woodruff keys
d.
kennedy keys
22.
A type of square key with bottom two corners beveled is
called
a.
Flat key
b.
Feather key
c.
Barth keys
d.
Woodruff keys
23.
The bearing load on feather keys should not exceed
a.
600 psi
b.
800 psi
c.
1000 psi
d.
1200 psi
24. The two keys are angularly spaced
a.
45
b.
60
c.
75
d.
90
25.
The three keys are angularly spaced
a.
60
b.
90
c.
120
d.
180
26.
The permissible crushing is about times the
permission shear stress.
a.
1.5
b.
1.7
c.
1.9
d.
1.10
27.
Practical considerations required that the hub length
should be at least
.
a.
1.2d
b.
1.5d
c.
1.7d
d.
1.9d
28.
For three keys, a
percent overload often is used.
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25
29.
A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a head on one end
and a radial through hole in the other end.
a.
Clavis pins
b.
Taper pins
c.
Dowel pins

d.
Taper pins
30.
Used for the attachment of levers, wheels and similar
devices onto shafts for light-duty service.
a.
Clevis pins
b.
Cotter pins
c.
Dowel pins
d.
Taper pins
31.
The key fits into mating grooves in the shaft and mating
member is called:
a.
Key way
b.
Key path
c.
Key hole
d.
None of these
32.
Used as couplings, or in addition to overload, where
there is danger of injury to machines or to materials in process.
a.
Flange couplings
b.
Involute couplings
c.
King pins
d.
Shear pins
33.
A coupling that transmits power via the frictional forces
induced by pulling the flanges toward each other over slotted
tapered sleeves is known as
a.
Flange coupling
b.
Flange compression coupling
c.
Ribbed compression coupling
d.
Rigid coupling
34.
What is used for absorbing some shock and vibrations
that may be appear on one shaft and of preventing the occurrence
of reversed stresses caused by the shaft deflecting at the coupling.
a.
Flange coupling
b.
Flexible coupling
c.
Rigid coupling
d.
None of these
35.
For a single Hookes coupling the shaft angle should not
be greater than.
a.
10
b.
12
c.
15
d.
30
36.
A universal coupling is
a.
A rigid coupling
b.
A type of flange coupling
c.
Used for collinear shafts
d.
Used for non-collinear shafts
37.
A flange coupling is

a.
Flexible
b.
Used for collinear shafts
c.
Used for non-collinear shafts
d.
Used only on small shafts rotating at low speed
38.
In flange coupling the weakest element should be the
a.
Bolts
b.
Flange
c.
Key
d.
Shaft
39.
In flange coupling the flange bolts are designed for
a.
Fatigue
b.
Shear forces
c.
Compression
d.
Tensile forces
40.
Which of the following mechanical devices is used for
uniting or connecting parts of a mechanical system?
a.
Coupling
b.
Keys
c.
Splines
d.
Flexible couplings
41.
A coupling that employs a fluid to provide angular
flexibility between the input and output shafts.
a.
Rigid coupling
b.
Flexible coupling
c.
Hydraulic coupling
d.
Oldham coupling
42.
Which of the following type of coupling is used with
collinear shafts?
a.
Collar coupling
b.
Rigid coupling
c.
Flexible coupling
d.
Hydraulic coupling
43.
Which of the following used to connect shafts that have
lateral misalignment?
a.
Compression coupling
b.
Collar coupling
c.
Chain coupling
d.
Oldham coupling
44.
A coupling that is composed of two slotted members,
which are connected by a continuous steel spring, and lies in the
slots.
a.
Ajax coupling
b.
Flak coupling
c.
Lord coupling
d.
Slip coupling

Test 7
1.

2.

3.

4.

Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw is


known as
a.
Pitch
b.
Top flank
c.
Top land
d.
Crest
Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical surface is a
a.
Thread series
b.
Thread shear
c.
Straight thread
d.
Taper thread
The conical surface at the starting end of the thread is
called
a.
Pitch cone
b.
Chamfer
c.
Crest
d.
Flute
The surface connecting the crest and roots of the screw
thread.
a.
Lead angle
b.
Length of engagement

5.

6.

7.

c.
Top land
d.
Flank
The theoretical profile of the thread for a length of one
pitch in the axial plane on which design forms of both
the external threads are based.
a.
Basic form of thread
b.
Effective thread
c.
Basic profile of thread
d.
Design form of external thread
The top and bottom-land for gears is similar formed as
to crest and
for screw thread.
a.
Flank
b.
Root
c.
Flank tooth
d.
Top land
Some experiments made at Cornell University showed
that experience mechanic could bread a
bolt due
to nut tightening.
a.
3/8 inch
b.
5/8 inch
c.
inch
d.
7/16 inch

45.
Shaft couplings are used in machinery for several
purposes. The most common purpose of shaft coupling is
a.
To provide for the connection of shaft of units that are
manufactured separately
b.
To provide for misalignment of the shafts
c.
To reduce the transmission of shock loads from one
shaft to another
d.
All of the above
46.
Typical hub length falls between
where D is the shaft
diameter.
a.
1.2D and 1.8D
b.
1.25D and 2.4D
c.
1.30D and 2.5D
d.
1.35D and 3.0D
47.
The diameter of the large end of the pin should be
the shaft diameter
a.

b.
1/3
c.

d.
3/2
48.
The most common type of sliding action fastener and is
widely used on doors is the
a.
Pawl fastener
b.
Magnetic fastener
c.
Sliding latch
d.
Screw fastener
49.
When the key is not fitted on all four sides experience
has shown that, the permissible crushing tress is about
times the permissible shear stress.
a.
1.3
b.
1.5
c.
1.7
d.
1.9
50.
The mechanical fasteni9ng that connects shafts
together for power transmission.
a.
Coupling
b.
Key
c.
Splines
d.
None of the above

8.

9.

10.

11.

The angle included between the sides of the thread


measured in an axial plane in a screw thread
a.
Angle of thread
b.
Angle between thread or 40 deg
c.
Helix angle thread
d.
Half angle thread
Length of contact between two mating parts in a screw
and nut threads measured axially is called
a.
Arc of contact
b.
Depth of engagement
c.
Length of engagement
d.
Axis of contact
Major and minor diameters are commonly used in
a.
Screw thread
b.
Bolt
c.
Gear
d.
All of these
Nominal diameter of bolts is the
a.
Major diameter
b.
Minor diameter
c.
Shear diameter
d.
Mean diameter

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

A
is a kind of thread in which the width of the
thread and the space between threads are
approximately equal
a.
Square thread
b.
Acme thread
c.
Buttress thread
d.
Whit worth thread
A kind of thread that is generally used
a.
UNEC
b.
UNC
c.
UNF
d.
UNEF
A type of bolt commonly used in the construction that is
threaded in both ends.
a.
Stud bolt
b.
Acme threaded bolt
c.
Square threaded bolt
d.
Hex bolt
A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts
a.
Shaver
b.
Tachometer
c.
Tensor
d.
Torque wrench
One of the following is not a tap used for cutting threads
in holes
a.
Tapping tap
b.
Plug tap
c.
Taper tap
d.
Bottoming tap
Type of bolt intended for used in bolting wooden parts
together or wood to metal. It has a short portion of
shank underneath around head, which is designed to
keep the bolt from turning in the wood when the nut is
tightened.
a.
U-bolt
b.
Carriage bolt
c.
Eye bolt
d.
Stud bolt
A cylindrical bar of steel with threads formed around it
and grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it,
intersecting with the threads to form cutting edges. It is
used to cut internal threads.
a.
Groove
b.
Lap
c.
Tap
d.
Flute
A kind of bolt, which has no head nut instead, has
threads on bolt ends.
a.
Stud bolt
b.
Acme threaded bolt
c.
Square bolt
d.
Hex bolt
Refers to the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that
bounds the crest of an external thread.
a.
Mean diameter
b.
Stress diameter
c.
Minor diameter
d.
Major diameter
The distance in inches a screw thread advances axially
in one turn.
a.
Lead
b.
Circular
c.
Pitch
d.
Mean pitch
Which of the following type of threads recommended for
general use?
a.
UNC
b.
UNEF
c.
UNF
d.
NC
It is frequently used in automotive and aircraft work.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

a.
UNC
b.
UNEF
c.
UNF
d.
NC
Which of the following type of threads are useful in
aeronautical equipment?
a.
UNC
b.
UNEF
c.
UNF
d.
NC
It is used on bolts for high pressure pipe flanges,
cylinder head studs etc.
a.
UNC
b.
UNEF
c.
UNF
d.
8UN
Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on it.
a.
Bolt
b.
Fastener
c.
Rivet
d.
None of these
Which one that has no nut and turns into threaded
hole?
a.
Rivet
b.
Screw
c.
Stud bolt
d.
U-bolt
Refers to an old name for an unfinished through bolt,
comes with a square.
a.
Coupling bolt
b.
Machine bolt
c.
Stud bolt
d.
Automobile bolt
Which type of bolt that finished all over, usually having
coarse threads?
a.
Coupling bolt
b.
Machine bolt
c.
Stud bolt
d.
Automobile bolt
A type of bolt distinguishes by a short portion of the
shank underneath the head being square or finned or
ribbed.
a.
Carriage bolt
b.
Coupling bolt
c.
Machine bolt
d.
Stud bolt
It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends than can be
used where a through bolt is impossible.
a.
Carriage bolt
b.
Coupling bolt
c.
Machine bolt
d.
Stud bolt
A cheap variety of bolt was made in small sizes.
a.
Stud bolt
b.
Carriage bolt
c.
Stove bolt
d.
Mini bolt
A large wood screw is used to fasten machinery and
equipment to a wooden base.
a.
Lag screw
b.
Log screw
c.
Wood screw
d.
None of these
The length of contact in a tapped hole should be a
minimum of about
for cast iron.
a.
D
b.
1.5D
c.
1.2D
d.
2D
When the location of bolt is such that it would normally
be shear, it is better practice to use a

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

a.
Dummy bolts
b.
Mid-pins
c.
Crank pins
d.
Dowel pins
A locking device used to maintain pressure between the
threads of the bolt and nut.
a.
Gasket
b.
Lock nuts
c.
Lock washer
d.
Lock out
The crest diameter of a screw thread is the same as
a.
Major diameter
b.
Pitch diameter
c.
Minor diameter
d.
None of the above
Turn buckle has
a.
Left hand threads on both ends
b.
Left hand threads on one end and right hand
threads on other end
c.
Right hand threads on both ends
d.
No threads
The diameter of a washer is generally
a.
Equal to the diameter of bolt
b.
Slightly more than the diameter of the bolt
c.
Slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
d.
Of any size that suits the application
The stress concentration is maximum at
in a
standard coarse thread.
a.
All over the surfaces
b.
Flank
c.
Root
d.
Top surface
Elastic nut is a locking device that has
a.
One small nut is tightened over main nut and
main nut tightened against smaller one loosening,
creating friction jamming
b.
A slot is cut partly in middle of tightening of screw
c.
Hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut
and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on
the bolt causing a tight grip
d.
Through slots are made at top and cotter pin is
passed through these and a hole in the bolt and
cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse direction at
other end
Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and
surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of
a least
times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
Foundation bolts should be at least
times
the diameter of the anchor bolt
a.
12
b.
14
c.
16
d.
18
No foundation bolt shall be less than
mm diameter.
a.
10
b.
12
c.
14
d.
16
Anchor bolts should be embedded in concrete at least
times the bolt diameter.
a.
10
b.
20
c.
30
d.
40
The screw thread commonly used for transmission of
motion is one of the following types of
threads.

47.

48.
Test 8
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

a.
Acme
b.
Vee
c.
Knuckle
d.
British association
The spindle bench vises sre usually provided with
a.
Buttress threads
b.
Square threads
c.
Acme threads
d.
V-threads
Any devices used to connect or joint more components.
Extra flexible hoisting rope application is
a.
6 x 27
b.
6 x 37
c.
6x9
d.
6 x 21
All items and abbreviations deal with wire rope
arrangement except this
which
deals with wire rope materials strength.
a.
Performed
b.
IWRC
c.
Mps
d.
Lang lay
One of the following materials is not mentioned for wire
rope pulley / sheave applications.
a.
Plastic
b.
Iron
c.
Paper
d.
Copper alloy
The factor of safety generally applied in wire rope
design starts at 3-4 for standing rope application, 5-12
for operating rope and
for hazard to life and
properly application like foundry operation.
a.
Higher value
b.
7 10
c.
8 10
d.
10 18
In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires
and standards are arranged in the following manner
.
a.
Twisted in same direction
b.
Twisted in any direction
c.
Twisted in opposite direction
d.
Twisted in along direction
A process of prestressing or ever stressing a hollow
cylindrical member beyond an elastic range by hydraulic
pressure.
a.
Presstage
b.
Stress relieving
c.
Auto frottage
d.
Countersinking
When two touching surfaces have a high contact
pressure and when these surfaces have minute relative
motion a phenomenon called
a.
Carving
b.
Friction
c.
Fretting
d.
Prestressing
Pipes subjected to high pressures are generally made
by
a.
Slush casting
b.
Pressure casting
c.
Extrusion
d.
Centrifugal casting
Hoop stress refers to
a.
Circumferential tensile stress
b.
Compressive stress
c.
Radial stress
Autfrettage is the method of
a.
Calculating stress in thick cylinders

49.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

a.
Bolt
b.
Screw
c.
Fastener
d.
None of the above
When the threads are opposite hand, the driven screw
moves rapidly is known as
a.
Bearing screw
b.
Compound screw
c.
Differential screw
d.
Set screw
b.
Increasing life of thick cylinders
c.
Prestressing thick cylinders
d.
Relieving thick cylinders
The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick
cylinder is
a.
Maximum at inner surface and decreases toward
outer surface
b.
Minimum at inner surface and increases towards
outer surface
c.
Minimum at inner and outer surfaces and
maximum in the middle
d.
Maximum at inner and outer surfaces and
minimum in the middle
Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at any point
in thethickness of the cylinder, the radial stress Sr and
hoop are related as
a.
Sr - Sh = constant
b.
Sr + Sh = constant
c.
Sr/Sh = constant
d.
Sr Sh/Sr = constant
Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness t when
subjected to internal pressure P, if Poisson ratio of
material is , the circumferential or hoop strain is
a.
Pd(1-2)/2tE
b.
Pd(1-2)/4tE
c.
Pd(1/2 - )/2tE
d.
Pd(1/2 - )/4tE
A cylinder in which the ratio of the wall thickness to the
inside diameter is
may be called a thin
cylinder.
a.
Less than 0.05
b.
Less than 0.07
c.
More than 0.05
d.
More than 0.07
External pressure tubes in boilers are designed with an
apparent factor of safety of
a.
1 to 3
b.
4 to 6
c.
5 to 7
d.
8 to 10
Refers to a hollow product of round or any other cross
section having a continuous periphery.
a.
Gear
b.
Flywheel
c.
Sphere
d.
Tube
The thickness should be multiplied by
to obtain
the nominal wall thickness
a.
5/8
b.
8/5
c.
7/8
d.
8/7
It is used in high pressure cylinders.
a.
Thin walled cylinders
b.
Thick walled cylinders
c.
Solid walled cylinders
d.
Hard walled cylinders
To obtained safe working pressure the critical pressure,
should be at least
times the working
pressure.
a.
3

50.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

The threaded length is about


the diameters.
a.
1.25
b.
1.5
c.
1.8
d.
2.0

times

b.
4
c.
5
d.
6
The radial pressure between the cylinders at the
surface of contact depends on the
of the
materials.
a.
Strength
b.
Hardness
c.
Modulus of elasticity
d.
Modulus of rigidity
In cross or regular lay ropes the
a.
Direction of twist in strands is opposite to the
direction of twist of strands
b.
Direction of twist of wires and strands are the
same
c.
Wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in
opposite direction
d.
Wires are not twisted
Which of the ropes will be most flexible?
a.
6 by 7
b.
6 by 19
c.
6 by 37
d.
8 by 19
A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in
opposite direction.
a.
Long lay
b.
Lang lay
c.
Regular lay
d.
Performed
A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in
same direction
a.
Long lay
b.
Lang lay
c.
Performed
d.
Non-performed
A type of rope used for haulages, rigging, and
guardrails.
a.
6 x 35 IWRC
b.
6 x 25 IWRC
c.
7 x 7 IWRC
d.
A rope used for general purposes
a.
6 x 15 IWRC
b.
6 x 21 IWRC
c.
6 x 19 IWRC
d.
7 x 28 IWRC
A type of rope used for lines, hawsers, overheated
cranes, hoists.
a.
6 x 34 IWRC
b.
6 x 35 IWRC
c.
6 x 37 IWRC
d.
6 x 45 IWRC
The regular material for wire rope are made of
a.
Cast steel
b.
Chromium
c.
Wrought iron
d.
High-carbon steel
The ultimate strength of improve Plow Steel is in the
range of
a.
200 and 400 ksi
b.
240 and 280 ksi

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

c.
230 and 260 ksi
d.
400 and 500 ksi
The minimum suggested design factor of
for ropes
miscellaneous hoisting equipment
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting
pressure for 6 x 19 ropes is
for cast iron.
a.
200 psi
b.
300 psi
c.
400 psi
d.
500 psi
To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting
pressure for 6 x 19 ropes is
for cast steel.
a.
700 psi
b.
900 psi
c.
1000 psi
d.
1200 psi
To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting
pressure for 6 x 19 rope is
for
manganese
steel.
a.
2000 psi
b.
2300 psi
c.
2500 psi
d.
3000 psi
Wire ropes are made from col-drawn wires that are first
wrapped into
a.
Layer
b.
Segment
c.
Strands
d.
None of these
The designation 6 by 7 indicates that the rope is made
of 6 strands each containing
a.
7 pieces
b.
7 diameters
c.
7 wires
d.
7 strands
Ropes are made of
a.
Aluminum alloys
b.
Copper
c.
Bronze
d.
All of the above
The ratio of the strength of all the inside wires to the
strength of all the wires in the rope is
a.
Excess strength
b.
Reserve strength
c.
Factor of safety
d.
Ratio of factor
The chief usage of wire ropes at the present time is
a.
Elevators
b.
Cranes
c.
Tramways
d.
All of the above
Tests and theoretical investigations by J. F. Howe
indicate that for steel ropes are the ordinary
constructions the value of modulus of elasticity is
a.
10,000,000 psi
b.
10,500,000 psi
c.
11,000,000 psi
d.
11,500,000 psi
Average mine hoists practice is to use drums
times the rope
diameters
a.
60 to 70
b.
60 to 80
c.
60 to 90
d.
60 to 100
What is the recommended sheave diameter for haulage
rope?

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

a.
70d
b.
71d
c.
72d
d.
73d
What is the recommended sheave diameter for
standard hoisting rope?
a.
40d
b.
45d
c.
50d
d.
55d
What is the recommended sheave diameter for extraflexible hoisting rope?
a.
30d
b.
31d
c.
32d
d.
33d
Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are
first wrapped into
a.
Pulp
b.
Strands
c.
Helices
d.
Hemp
The Roebling Handbook suggest minimum design
factor of guys is
a.
3.0
b.
3.5
c.
4.0
d.
5.0
The Roebling Handbook suggest minimum design
factor of miscellaneous hoisting equipment is
a.
3.0
b.
5.0
c.
7.0
d.
9.0
An extra flexible rope is
a.
6x7
b.
6 x 19
c.
6 x 37
d.
7x7
The strength of the rope is always the sum of the
strength of wires.
a.
Less than
b.
More than
c.
Equal
d.
The same
One of the most popular wire rope is
a.
6x7
b.
6 x 19
c.
6 x 37
d.
7x7
The minimum factor of safety of small hoist is
a.
3
b.
5
c.
7
d.
9

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

TEST 9
1.

2.

To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual stress in the


welding it is normally stress relieved of
A.
Quenching
B.
Normalizing
C.
Tempering
D.
Drawing
A of welding whereby a wire or powder from the nozzle
of a spray gun is fused by a gas flame, arc or plasma jet
and then molten particles are projected in a form of a
spray by means of compressed air or gas is known as
A.
Elector-slug building
B.

Electro-beam welding

12.

13.

C.
Plasma-arc welding
D.
Metal spray welding
Weld metal impact specimen shall be taken across the
weld with one face substantially parallel to and within
A.
3/4in
B.
1/32 in.
C.
in.
D.
1/16 in.
A joint between to overlapping members in whom the
overlapped edge of one member is welded with a fillet
weld is called
A.
A single welded lap joint
B.
Double welded lap joint
C.
Track weld
A weld place in groove between two butting members is
called
A.
Full-fillet weld
B.
Tack weld
C.
butt weld
D.
fillet weld
A weld of approximately triangular cross-section that
join two surfaces at approximately right angles as in lap
joint, tee joint, corner joint.
A.
Single welded lap joint
B.
Fillet weld
C.
Tack weld
D.
Butt weld
A fillet weld whose size is equal to the thickness of the
inner joint member is called
A.
Butt joint
B.
Butt weld
C.
Tack weld
D.
Full-fillet weld
A weld made to hold the parts of a weldment in proper
alignment until the final welds are made of
A.
Butt weld
B.
Tack weld
C.
Fillet weld
D.
Full fillet weld
Test is designed primarily for application to electricwelded tubing for detection of lack of penetration or
overlaps resulting from flash removal in the weld
A.
Butt weld
B.
Paste
C.
Lap weld
D.
Double butt weld
The internal stresses existing in a welded connection
are
A.
Relieved by x-ray analysis
B.
Maybe relieved when weld is penned
C.
Not relieved when the weld is penned
D.
Not relieved by heat treatment
A welding operation in which a non-ferrous fillet metal at
a temperature below that of the metal joined but is
heated above 450C
A.
Spot welding
B.
Gas welding
C.
Brazing
D.
Arc welding
Uniting two pieces of metal by means of a different
metal which is applied between the two in molten state
A.
Casting
B.
Welding
C.
Soldering
D.
Brazing
Joining metal by means of high current at low voltage.
During the passage of current, pressure by the
electrodes produces a forge weld:
A.
Spot welding
B.
Resistance welding
C.
Steam welding

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

D.
Gas welding
A fusion process in which the metal is heated together
into a solid joint.
A.
Electric arc welding
B.
Gas welding
C.
Spot welding
D.
Projection welding
As one example, the ASME code for riveted joints
permits the design surface compressive stress to be
about ________ higher than the design tensile stress.
A.
40%
B.
50%
C.
60%
D.
70%
In a pressure vessel, the ratio of minimum strength of
joint to the strength of solid joint is known as
A.
Efficiency
B.
Joint efficiency
C.
Performance factor
D.
Relative strength
In a pressure vessel, the usual factor of safety may be
taken as
A.
2
B.
3
C.
5
D.
5
Are resistance welds, usually round in the same form as
the electrodes that press the sheets together
A.
Edge joint
B.
MIG joint
C.
Spot joint
D.
TIG joint
Consists of short lengths (2 to 3 inches long) of welds
with space between as 6 inches on centers.
A.
Intermittent weld
B.
MIG weld
C.
Spot welds
D.
TIG welds
An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the members in
position for assembly purposes or for principal welding
A.
Edge weld
B.
Tack weld
C.
Back welds
D.
Half welds
A welding operation that uses hot flame and metal rod is
known as
A.
Gas welding
B.
Arc welding
C.
Resistance welding
D.
Automatic welding
The arc is covered with a welding composition and bare
electrode wire is fed automatically
A.
Resistance welding
B.
Submerged arc welding
C.
Induction welding
D.
Spot welding
Treating the weld as a line, the amount or inertia about
center of gravity of a circular weld or diameter d would b
A.

d2/36

B.

d2/6

C.

d3/36

D.

d3/4

For butt welding of two plates each of which is 25 mm


thick, the best process would be

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

A.
TIG welding
B.
MIG welding
C.
Gas welding
D.
Electro slag welding
What should be the maximum size of the fillet weld?
A.
2 mm
B.
3 mm
C.
5 mm
D.
7 mm
The maximum size of the fillet weld that can be made in
single pass is
A.
3 mm
B.
6 mm
C.
8 mm
D.
12 mm
Which diamond riveted joint can be adopted?
A.
Butt joint
B.
Lap joint
C.
Double riveted lap joint
D.
All types of joints
Wiping is the process of
A.
Applying flux during welding process
B.
Clearing the welded surface after the welding
operation is over
C.
Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy
D.
Low temperature welding
A collimated light beam is used for producing heat in
A.
Laser welding
B.
MIG welding
C.
Plasma welding
D.
TIG welding
During MIG welding the metal is transferred in the form
of
A.
A fine spray of metal
B.
Continuous flow of molten metal
C.
Electron beam
D.
Solution
If t is the thickness of sheet to be spot welded then
electrode tip diameter is equal to

A.

32.

33.

34.

35.

B.

1.5

C.

2.5

D.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

Weld spatter refers to


A.
Flux
B.
Filler material
C.
Welding defect
D.
Welding electrode
Which of the following metals can be suitably welded by
TIG welding?
A.
Aluminum
B.
Magnesium
C.
A and B above
D.
Stainless steel
Arc blow takes place in
A.
Arc welding when straight polarity is used
B.
Arc welding when reverse polarity is used
C.
Gas welding
D.
Welding stainless steel
Unlike matrials or materials of different thickness can be
butt welded by
A.
Adjusting initial gap
B.
Adjusting time duration of current
C.
Control of pressure and current

45.

46.

47.

48.

D.
All of the above
The phenomenon of weld decay takes place in
A.
Brass
B.
Bronze
C.
Cast iron
D.
Stainless steel
Laser welding is widely used in
A.
electronic industry
B.
Heavy industry
C.
Process industry
D.
Structural work
Up to what thickness of plate, edger preparation for
welding is not needed?
A.
2 mm
B.
4 mm
C.
8 mm
D.
12 mm
Grey cast iron is best welded by
A.
Arc
B.
MIG
C.
Oxy- acetylene
D.
TIG
In resistance welding, the pressure is release
A.
Just at the time of passing the current
B.
Aftr completion of currents
C.
After the weld cools
D.
During heating
Half corner weld is used
A.
Where severe loading is encountered and the
upper surfaces of both pieces must be in the
same plane
B.
Where efficiency of joint shold be 50%
C.
Where longitudinal shear is present
D.
None of the above
Projection welding is
A.
Continuous spot welding process
B.
Multi spot welding process
C.
Used to form frameworks
D.
All of the above
Reducing flame is obtained in oxy- acetylene welding
with
A.
Excess oxygen
B.
Excess of acetylene
C.
Equal parts of both gases
D.
Reduced acetylene
Brasses and bronzes are welded using
A.
Carburizing flame
B.
Neutral flame
C.
Oxidizing flame
D.
Reducing flame
One of the following function is not performed by
coating on the welding electrodes is to
A.
Increase the cooling rate
B.
Provide protective atmosphere
C.
Refuse oxidation
D.
Stabilize the arc
Welding defect called arc blow occurs in
A.
Arc welding using ac current
B.
Arc welding using dc current
C.
Gas welding
D.
MIG welding
The purpose of using flux in soldering is to
A.
Increase fluidity of solder material
B.
Full up gaps in bad joint
C.
Prevent oxide formation
D.
Lower the melting temperature of the solder
The parts are lapped and held in place under pressure
A.
Butt welding
B.
Spot welding
C.
Steam welding
D.
Projection welding

49.

50.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

The parts are brought together lightly with current


flowing and then separated slightly
A.
Mash weld
B.
Steam welding
C.
Flush welding
D.
Percussion welding
Which of the following produced a series of spot welds
made by circular or wheel type electrodes?
A.
Steam welding
B.
Mash welding
C.
Spot welding
D.
Steam welding
TEST 10
The soldering material commonly applied for automobile
radiator cores and roofing seams.
A.
15/85 % tin and lead
B.
50/50% tin and lead
C.
45/55% tin and lead
D.
20/80% tin and lead
The flux that should be provided in soldering electrical
connection or commutator wires as its tends to corrode
the connectors called
A.
Sal ammoniac
B.
Zinc chloride
C.
Stearin
D.
Acid fluxes
A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint.
A.
Stronger than
B.
The same strength as
C.
Three times as strong as
D.
Weaker than
Brazing requires
A.
Hard solder
B.
Soft solder
C.
More heat
D.
Choices A and C
What is the reason why lead is used in solders?
A.
It has a high melting point.
B.
It has a low melting point.
C.
It is cheap
D.
Choices B and C
The higher the melting pint of the solder, the
A.
Harder the solder joint
B.
Softer the solder joint
C.
Stronger the solder joint
D.
Weaker the solder joint
Special solders used for aluminum usually require
A.
less heat
B.
More heat
C.
The same heat as copper wire
D.
The same heat as sheet metal
The flux usually used for hard solder is
A.
Alum
B.
Barium
C.
Borax
D.
Rosin
Soft solder melts at approximately
A.

250

B.

350

C.

D.
10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

450

550

Soft solder is made of


A.
Copper and zinc

22.

B.
Tin and copper
C.
Tin and lead
D.
Tin and zinc
Prepared soldered paste flux is most popular but if you
did not have any, you could use _____ as substitute
A.
Hydrochloric acid
B.
Nitric acid
C.
Sulfuric acid
D.
Any of the above
Hard solder is made of
A.
Copper and zinc
B.
Tin and copper
C.
Tin and lead
D.
Tin and zinc
Soldered will not unite with a metal surface that has
A.
Dirt on it
B.
Grease on it
C.
Oxidation on it
D.
Any of the above
If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the soldered area must
be cleaned thoroughly afterwards to prevent
A.
Anyone touching it from getting burned
B.
Remaining acid form eating the metal
C.
The acid form evaporating and the solder
disintegrating
D.
None of the above
Sweating is the process of
A.
Soldering two different kinds of metal
B.
Separating two pieces of metal that have been
soldered together
C.
Tinning two surfaces, applying flux them, holding
the two together and heating
D.
None of the above
A surface to be soldered should be prepared by
A.
Acid cleaning the surfaces
B.
Filing the surfaces
C.
Scraping the surfaces
D.
Any of the above
One fo the most important factors that is often
overlooked when soldering is the fact that
A.
The surfaces to be soldered must be clean
B.
The two metals to be soldered must not be the
same
C.
The two metals to be soldered must be the same
D.
All surfaces should be dipped in acid first
When soldering, flux is used for
A.
Keeping the metal from getting too ot
B.
Keeping the solder from running off the metal
C.
Keeping the tip of the soldering iron and clean
D.
Remove and prevent oxidation of the metals
Soldering is the process of
A.
Holding two metals together by heating
B.
Joining two metals by a third soft metal that is
applied in a molten state
C.
Holding two different kinds of metals together by
heating
D.
All of the above
Brazing is used for joining
A.
Tow ferrous material
B.
One ferrous and non-ferrous material
C.
Two non-ferrous metal
D.
Two non-metals
What is the most commonly used flux for brazing?
A.
Zinc chloride
B.
Zinc and tin
C.
Zinc and copper
D.
Zinc and lead
Multi spot welding process is also reffered as
_____welding
A.
Tack
B.
Fillet

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

C.
TIG
D.
Projection
The maximum temperature developed for oxy-hydrogen
welding is
A.

1755

B.

1965

C.

2565

D.

3440

The maximum temperature developed for oxy-acetylene


welding is
A.

1965

B.

2565

C.

3440

D.

4565

A mixture of aluminum powder and a metal oxide


powder is ignited by a special powder in a crucible.
A.
Thermit welding
B.
Stud welding
C.
Resistance welding
D.
Gas welding
A welding where an arc is struck between two tungsten
electrodes into which a jet of hydrogen is directed
A.
Atomic hydrogen welding
B.
Electron beam welding
C.
Electro slug welding
D.
Flash welding
A common rule is to make the rivet hole diameter from
________ for rivets in single or double shear.
A.
1.2 t to 1.4 t
B.

1.2 t

to

1.4 t

C.

1.3 t

to

1.6 t

D.

1.4 t

to

1.8 t

Fusion welding is the name frequently given to


processes not requiring pressure. It is sometimes called
A.
Flash welding
B.
Seam welding
C.
Spot welding
D.
Thermit welding
The ratio of the load that will produce the allowable
stress in any part of the joint to the load that will
produce the allowable tension stress in the unpunched
plate.
A.
Efficiency of the welded
B.
Efficiency of the jont
C.
Performance factor
D.
Load factor
Thicker plates usually require excessive rivet sizes and
for practical reasons the rivet diameter is made
approxiamately
A. 1.2t
B.

1.2

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

C.

2t

D.

The process of joining metals by means by heating to a


temperature above the recrystallization temperature or
to fusion with or without the application or pressure
A.
Brazing
B.
Soldering
C.
Welding
D.
Seaming
The process of bonding two or more pieces of metal
together by means of another metal whose melting
point is below 800F
A.
Brazing
B.
Seaming
C.
Soldering
D.
Welding
The process of joining metal parts by means of a non
ferrous fitter or alloy that melts at a temperature above
800F.
A.
Brazing
B.
Seaming
C.
Soldering
D.
Welding
The process of joining metals in which the two parts are
joined by heating them electrically to a temperature
above the recrystallization temperature.
A.
Flash welding
B.
Projection welding
C.
Thermit welding
D.
Resistance welding
A fusion welding process in which the welding heat is
obtained from an electric arc set up either between the
base metal and one electrode or between to electrodes.
A.
Arc welding
B.
Gas welding
C.
Fusion welding
D.
Spot welding
Refers to the capacity of a metal to be joined by welding
in a satisfactory manner.
A.
Flame plating
B.
Metal spraying
C.
Metalizing
D.
Weldability
A surfacing method of blasting particles of tungsten
carbide onto the surface of a piece of metal.
A.
Flame plating
B.
Metal spraying
C.
Metalizing
D.
Powder pouring
For fusion welding, efficiency shall be taken as equal to
A.
80%
B.
60%
C.
90%
D.
95%
When the tensile strength of steel shell plates is not
known it shall be taken as
A.
379. 31 N/mm2
B.
565.71 N/mm2
C.
556.17 N/mm2
D.
671.55 N/mm2
Minimum thickness for boiler plate shall be
A.
3.56 mm
B.
5.36 mm
C.
6. 26 mm
D.
6. 56 mm
The strength of iron rivets in single shear in
A.
262 N/mm2
B.
303 N/mm2

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

1.

2.

C.
524 N/mm2
D.
607 N/mm2
The strength of steel rivets in single shear is
A.
262 N/mm2
B.
303 N/mm2
C.
524 N/mm2
D.
607 N/mm2
When the longitudinal seams are of lap riveted
construction the minimum factor of safety is
A.
5
B.
6
C.
7
D.
8
The maximum allowable working pressure of a noncode steel or wrought iron heating boiler of welded
construction shall not exceed.
A.
0.5 bar
B.
1.0 bar
C.
1.5 bar
D.
2.0 bar
The ASME Boiler Code requires that the edge distance
must be not less than
a.
1.5d
b.
2.0d
c.
2.5d
d.
3.0d
A method of resistance welding in which the heating
and the pressure are localized at specified points by
providing embossed or coined projections on the pieces
to be joined.
A.
Projection welding
B.
Flash welding
C.
Seam welding
D.
Resistance welding
An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the members in
position for assembly purposes or for the principal
welding.
A.
Spot weld
B.
Tack weld
C.
Butt weld
D.
Fillet weld
What type of welding that the hot flame and a metal rod
are used?
A.
Seam welding
B.
Gas welding
C.
Spot welding
D.
Resistance welding
It used for joining members of approximately equal in
cross-section
A.
Mash welding
B.
Butt welding
C.
Upset welding
D.
Choices B and C
The melting point of the filler material in brazing is
approximately or above.
A.
420F
B.
600F
C.
800F
D.
1000F
Test 11
The rule of thumb in journal bearing design, the
clearance ratio/clearance should be
A.
0.01001
B.
0.0101
C.
0.0110
D.
0.0010
Also called eccentrically loaded bearing
A.
Full bearing
B.
Offset bearing
C.
Partial bearing

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

D.
Fitted bearing
Wahta type of bearing which totally encloses the shaft?
A.
Offset bearing
B.
Central bearing
C.
Babbitt bearing
D.
Full bearing
All are functions of lubricating oil except
A.
Adhesion
B.
Corrosion prevention
C.
Act as coolant
D.
To tighten the load
It is considered semi-solid lubricant
A.
Lube oil
B.
Graphite
C.
Grease
D.
All of these
Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in itself
A.
Zinc
B.
Antimony
C.
Babbit
D.
Lead
Which of the following materials is unsuitable as a
bearing?
A.
Teflon
B.
Low carbon steel
C.
Cast iron
D.
Nylon
Aerostatic bearing is one in which
A.
The lube oil is supplied under pressure
B.
Lube oil is not pressurized
C.
There is no lube oil
D.
Bearing is lightly loaded
At the same thermal and minimum film, thickness
limitation as sleeve
A.
Ball bearing
B.
Roller bearing
C.
Thrust bearing
D.
Full bearing
The desired between two surfaces having relatively
sliding motion is known
A.
Lube oil
B.
Graphite
C.
Packing
D.
Lubrication
What bearing composed of two principal parts, namely
the
A.
Bearing and journal
B.
Clearance and fitted
C.
Bolt and Babbitt
D.
Bolt and cylinder
When the line of action of the load bisects the arc of
partial bearing it is said to be:
A.
Eccentrically loaded
B.
Fit loaded
C.
Centrally loaded
D.
Surface loaded
It is the difference in the radii of the bearing and the
journal
A.
Even clearance
B.
Clearance ratio
C.
Fit clearance
D.
Radii clearance
It is one in which the radii of the journal and the bearing
are the same
A.
Clearance bearing
B.
Fitted bearing
C.
Full bearing
D.
Partial bearing
The line that passes through centers of the bearing and
the journal is called the
A.
Line of action

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

B.
Line of centers
C.
Line of tangent
D.
Under cut
Length-diameter ration was a good compromise for the
general case of hydrodynamic bearings. It is
approximately equal to
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
Operating temperature of oil film ranges
_____________ or less
A.
120 F to 190 F
B.
130 F to 160 F
C.
140 F to 150 F
D.
140 F to 160 F
At higher temperature, the oil oxidizes more rapidly
above
A.
120F
B.
140F
C.
160F
D.
200F
A conclusion repeatedly verified by experiments is
_____ that the smoother the surface.
A.
Constant
B.
The greater the load capacity of the bearing
C.
None of these
D.
Variable
Which of the following is considered an advantage for
bearing materials?
A.
Conformability
B.
Embeddability
C.
Compatibility
D.
All of these
For thrust bearing the speed at moderate operating
conditions is
A.
50<Vm>200 fpm
B.
50<Vm>220 fpm
C.
50<Vm>250 fpm
D.
50<Vm> 290 fpm
The 200 series bearing is called
A.
Heavy
B.
Light
C.
Medium
D.
None of these
The 300 series bearing is called
A.
Heavy
B.
Light
C.
Medium
D.
None of these
A type of roller bearing in which the balls are assembled
by the eccentric displacement of the inner ring.
A.
Shallow-groove ball bearing
B.
Self-aligning ball bearing
C.
Filling-slot ball bearing
D.
Deep-groove ball bearing
Which of the following is not a type of ball bearing?
A.
Shallow-groove ball bearing
B.
Self-aligning ball bearing
C.
Fillet-slot ball bearing
D.
Deep-groove ball bearing
Steel ball for ball bearing are manufactured by
A.
Casting
B.
Cold headling
C.
Rolling
D.
Turning
In hydrodynamic bearings
A.
The oil film pressure is generated only by the
rotation of the journal
B.
The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under
pressure

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

C.
Do not need external supply of lubricant
D.
Grease is used for lubrication
If P = bearing pressure on projected bearing area, Z=
absolute viscosity of lubricant, and N = speed of journal,
then the bearing characteristic number is given by
A.
ZN/P
B.
Z/ PN
C.
ZP/ N
D.
P/ZN
The rated life of a bearing changes
A.
Directly as load
B.
Inversely as fourth power of load
C.
Inversely as cube of load
D.
Inversely as square of load
In oiless bearing
A.
The oil film pressure is produced only by the
rotation of the journal
B.
The oil film I maintained by supplying oil under
pressure
C.
Do not need external supply of lubricant
D.
Grease is needed to be applied after some
intervals
A shaft rotating in anticlockwise direction at slow speed
inside a bearing will be
A.
At bottom most of bearing
B.
Towards left side of bearing and making metal to
metal contact
C.
Towards left side of bearing and making no metal
to metal contact
D.
Towards right side of bearing and making no
metal to metal contact
A machine part that supports another part, which
rotates, slides or oscillateds in or on it
A.
Journal
B.
Bearing
C.
Roller
D.
Casing
The part of a shaft or crank which is supported by and
turns in bearing.
A.
Casing
B.
Bushing
C.
Roller
D.
Journal
It is also called anti-friction bearing.
A.
Rolling bearing
B.
Thrust bearing
C.
Tapered bearing
D.
Single row bearing
Which of the following is a bearing material?
A.
Babbitt
B.
Bronze
C.
Plastics
D.
All of the above
It acts toward the center of the bearing along a radius.
A.
Thrust load
B.
Tangential load
C.
Radial load
D.
Peripheral load
Conrad bearing is also known as
A.
Needle bearing
B.
Ball bearing
C.
Roller bearing
D.
Tapered bearing
The combined effect of many of the variables involved
in the operation of a bearing under hydrodynamic
lubrication can be characterized by the dimensionless
number called:
A.
Reynolds Number
B.
Prandtl Number
C.
Grashof Number
D.
Sommerfeld Number

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

It exits primarily to guide the motion of a machine


member without specific regard to the direction of load
application.
A.
radial bearing
B.
Journal bearing
C.
Thrust bearing
D.
Guide bearing
It carries a load collinear to the axis of possible rotation
of the supported member.
A.
Guide bearing
B.
Journal bearing
C.
Thrust bearing
D.
Radial bearing
The 400 series bearing is called:
A.
Light
B.
Medium
C.
Heavy
D.
Extra heavy
The product of length and diameter of the bearing is
called:
A.
Shearing area
B.
Compressive area
C.
Projected area
D.
Cross-sectional area
If the length over diameter of the bearing is unity, it is
also known as
A.
Long bearing
B.
Short bearing
C.
Medium bearing
D.
Square bearing
A bearing in which the length ratio Length/diameter is
greater than 1.
A.
Short bearings
B.
Long bearings
C.
Square bearings
D.
Medium bearings
The product of absolute viscosity and rotational speed
divided by the unit loading.
A.
Section modulus
B.
Bearing modulus
C.
Shear modulus
D.
All of the above
From the line of radial loading on the bearing to the
position of the minimum oil-film thickness.
A.
Attitude angle
B.
Latitude angle
C.
Longitude angle
D.
Altitude angle
The radial distance between the center of the bearing
and the displaced center of the journal is called.
A.
Concentricity
B.
Eccentricity
C.
Embeddability
D.
None of the above
Which of the following is an example of solid lubricant?
A.
Molybdenum disulfide
B.
Graphite
C.
Tungsten disulfide
D.
All of the above
The length ratio L/D typically varies between
A.
0.1 to 0.5
B.
0.2 to 0.6
C.
0.2 to 0.8
D.
0.25 to 1.0
The operating temperature of the Babbitt is limited to
A.
200F
B.
300F
C.
400F
D.
500F
Test 12

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

A heavy rotating body which serves as a reservoir for


absorbing and redistributing kinetic energy.
A.
Gear
B.
Brakes
C.
Flywheel
D.
Fan
Which of the following is not a use of spring?
A.
Absorbs energy
B.
Measure weight
C.
Source of energy in clocks
D.
Measure the thickness
The ratio of mean diameter of coil to the coil diameter
A.
Wahl factor
B.
Diameter ratio
C.
Spring index
D.
Lead angle
The overall length of the spring when it is compressed
until all adjacent coils touched.
A.
Compressed length
B.
Free length
C.
Solid length
D.
None of these
The length of coil sprig under no load.
A.
Compressed length
B.
Free length
C.
Solid height
D.
None of these
In general, steel spring are made of relatively high
carbon steel usually
A.
More than 0.5%
B.
5%
C.
Less than 0.5%
D.
10%
When heat treated wire is coiled cold, it should be
stress relieved for bending stresses after cooling by
being heated at some at what temperature?
A.
400F
B.
500F
C.
600F
D.
700F
A low cost spring material, suitable where service is not
severe and dimensional precision is not needed.
A.
Hard drawn wire spring
B.
Helical spring
C.
Stainless steel
D.
Helical tension spring wire
A hard drawn also 80% reduction but it is made of highgrade steel
A.
Music wire
B.
Oil tempered wire
C.
Song wire
D.
Chromium- silicon
A spring wire with good quality for impact loads at
moderately high temperature
A.
Hard drawn wire spring
B.
Helical spring wire
C.
Chromium-silicon
D.
Helical tension spring wire
A type of coil where the helical coil is wrapped into a
circle forming an annular ring
A.
Volute spring
B.
Motor spring
C.
Hair spring
D.
Garter spring
A type of spring where thin flat strip wound up on itself
as a plane spiral, usually anchored at the inside
A.
Volute spring
B.
Motor spring
C.
Hair spring
D.
Garter spring
A type of spring made in the form of dished washer

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

A.
Volute spring
B.
Motor spring
C.
Hair spring
D.
Believille spring
In laminated spring the strips are provided in different
lengths for
A.
Economy
B.
Reduction in weight
C.
Improved appearance
D.
Space consideration of the utility stage
An elastic stored energy machine element that when
released, will recover its basic form
A.
Flywheel
B.
Clutch
C.
Brakes
D.
Spring
When a spring is made of ductile material, the curvature
factor would be
A.
Zero
B.
Constant
C.
Unity
D.
Positive
The solid length plus the clearance plus the maximum
deflection.
A.
Free length
B.
Height
C.
Distance
D.
Original length
The majority of coils springs are made of coil tempered
carbon steel wire containing______________ carbon.
A.
0.30 to 0.40%
B.
0.40 to 0.50%
C.
0.50 to 0.60%
D.
0.60 to 0.70%
Experimental results indicate that the actual frequency
of the spring is from
A.
5 to 10%
B.
10 to 15%
C.
15 to 20%
D.
20 to 25%
According to W.M. Griffirth, the critical frequency of the
spring should behold at least ________ times the
frequency of application of a periodic load.
A.
5
B.
10
C.
15
D.
20
The actual number of coil is _________ in a squared
and ground ends.
A.
n
B.
n+2
C.
nd
D.
( n + 1) d
The solid length of squared ends is
A.
(n+3)d
B.
(n+1)d
C.
np
D.
n+2
The free length of ground ends is
A.
np + 3d
B.
np + 2d
C.
np + d
D.
np
the shortest length for the spring during normal
operation
A.
compressed length
B.
operating length
C.
solid length
D.
free length
the relationship between the force exerted by a spring
and its deflection is called

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

A.
spring index
B.
spring rate
C.
wahls factor
D.
Spring angle
The ration of the mean diameter of the spring to the
wire diameter is called
A.
Spring index
B.
Spring ratio
C.
Spring rate
D.
Spring constant
Refers to the axial distance from a point on one coil to
the corresponding point on the next adjacent coil.
A.
Lead
B.
Spring distance
C.
Pitch
D.
Spring deflection
The spring index for general industrial uses should be
A.
5 to 7
B.
6 to 8
C.
7 to 9
D.
8 to 10
What is the spring index of valve and clutch?
A.
3
B.
5
C.
7
D.
9
Refers to the space between adjacent coils when the
spring is compressed to its operating length
A.
Coil allowance
B.
Coil tolerance
C.
Coil clearance
D.
None of these
The most practical spring designs produce a pitch angle
is less than
A.
12
B.
15
C.
20
D.
25
Engine valves get shut by means of
A.
Valve lock
B.
Tappet
C.
Valve spring
D.
Adjusting screw
Which of the following materials is used for leaf and coil
spring?
A.
AISI 3140
B.
AISI 3150
C.
AISI 3240
D.
AISI 4063
The circumference of a coil spring times the effective
number of coils is called
A.
Active length
B.
Solid length
C.
Compressed length
D.
Operating length
For spring subjected to light service, the factor of safety
__________ is suggested
A.
1.5
B.
2.0
C.
2.5
D.
3.0
Refers to a flat or curved made of thin superimposed
plates and formin a cantilever or beam of uniform
strength.
A.
Laminated spring
B.
Graduated spring
C.
Full spring
D.
Conical spring
Cross wire grooves are types which
A.
Decrease the danger of skidding
B.
Absorb shocks because of road unevenness

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

C.
Provide good faction
D.
Provide better load carrying capacity
The _____ of parallel connection of spring is always
constant
A.
Elongation
B.
Load
C.
Thermal conductivity
D.
Resistance
Speedometer drive is generally taken from
A.
Dynamo
B.
Flywheel
C.
Gear
D.
Front wheel
The device for smoothing out the power impulses from
the engine is known as
A.
Clutch
B.
Flywheel
C.
Gearbox
D.
Differential
Typical hub length falls between
A.
1.25D to 2.4D
B.
1.25D to 5D
C.
1.3 D to 3.4D
D.
D to 7D
The recommended coefficient of fluctuation of flywheels
for punching, shearing, and pressing machine is
A.
0.05 to 0.10
B.
0.03 to 0.05

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

C.
0.002 to 0.005
D.
0.01 to 0.02
Attached to the rear end of the crankshaft is the
A.
Vibration damper
B.
Flywheel
C.
Drive pulley
D.
Timing gear
Flywheel is also known as
A.
Steering wheel
B.
Front wheel
C.
Balance wheel
D.
Rear wheel
What energy is stored in flywheels?
A.
Kinetic energy
B.
Internal energy
C.
Potential energy
D.
Rest energy
What is the function of the flywheel?
A.
To keep the speed fluctuation within the desired
limits
B.
To limit the momentary rise or fall in speed during
sudden changes of load
C.
To keep the angular advance or retardation within
prescribed limit as compared with a perfectly
uniform angular speed
D.
All of the above
In many flywheel designs, about how many percent of
the weight is concentrated in the hub and arms

48.

49.

50.

A.
20
B.
30
C.
35
D.
45
A large rotary machine part whose function is to store
energy and to produce uniform angular velocity of the
shaft or reciprocating engine.
A.
Cam
B.
Idler
C.
Flywheel
D.
Chuck
A massive wheel, which by its inertia assists in securing
uniform motion of machinery by resisting sudden
changes of speed.
A.
Linkage
B.
Crank
C.
Planetary gears
D.
Flywheel
The function of a flywheel is to
A.
Complete the unusual stroke
B.
Operated the engines
C.
Keep the engines weight light
D.
None of theses