Ch.

17
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1.

Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic

testing of serum?
A. mycology
B. hematology
C. serology
D. histology
E. virology

8.

This test is the confirming test for people who initially

tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test:
A. Ouchterlony double diffusion
B. Western blot
C. immunelectrophoresis
D. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
E. the Quellung test

2.

The property of a test to detect even small amounts of

antibodies or antigens that are test targets is:
A. cross-reactions
B. agglutination
C. precipitation
D. specificity
E. sensitivity

9.

Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular

polysaccharide is performed in:
A. Ouchterlony double diffusion
B. Western blot
C. immunelectrophoresis
D. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
E. the Quellung test

3.

The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or

antigen, and not to react with any others, is:
A. cross-reactions
B. agglutination
C. precipitation
D. specificity
E. sensitivity

10.

Which of the following is not an agglutination test?

A. counter-immunoelectrophoresis
B. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
C. Weil-Felix reaction
D. viral hemagglutination
E. Widal test

11.

4.

Whole antigens are detected in this type of test:

A. cross-reactions
B. agglutination
C. precipitation
D. specificity
E. sensitivity

5.

Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test:

A. cross-reactions
B. agglutination
C. precipitation
D. specificity
E. sensitivity

The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine:

A. can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence
tests
B. emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation
C. are observed in the fluorescent microscope
D. are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis,
Legionnaires' disease, and others
E. all of the choices are correct

12.

Each of the following are phenotypic methods of

identification except:
A. morphology
B. Gram stain reaction
C. acid-fast reaction
D. G+C composition
E. endospores

13.

Biochemical tests include:

A. Gram stain reaction
B. acid-fast reaction
C. sensitivity to antibiotics
D. G+C composition
E. all of the choices are correct

14.

The primary advantage of genotypic methods of

identification is
A. it is easier than any other method
B. it is less expensive than other methods
C. it is widely available
D. culturing of the organism is not required
E. all of the choices are correct

6.

7.

When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis

and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are
placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for
each protein, the test is called:
A. Ouchterlony double diffusion
B. Western blot
C. immunelectrophoresis
D. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
E. the Quellung test
This test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or
antigens in order to detect minute amounts of
corresponding antigen or antibody:
A. Ouchterlony double diffusion
B. Western blot
C. immunelectrophoresis
D. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
E. the Quellung test

15.

Specimen collection
A. is always done by a medical professional
B. must be done under sterile conditions
C. must utilize aseptic techniques
D. does not require special handling
E. all of the choices are correct

23.

Syphilis can be diagnosed by the

A. Weil-Felix reaction
B. rapid plasma reagin test
C. Widal test
D. latex agglutination test
E. none of the choices are correct

16.

Each of the following can be used for specimen collection

except
A. saliva
B. skin
C. spinal fluid
D. hair
E. throat

24.

The Widal test is determinant for

A. syphilis
B. rickettsia
C. salmonella
D. Candida
E. none of the choices are correct

25.

17.

A positive serological test for tuberculosis indicates that

A. the patient has active tuberculosis
B. the patient is an asymptomatic carrier of tuberculosis
C. the patient has been exposed to tuberculosis
D. all of the choices are correct

The VRDL test detects

A. syphilis
B. rickettsia
C. salmonella
D. Candida
E. none of the choices are correct

18.

Urine and fecal specimens require

A. sterile collection conditions
B. incubation in differential media
C. incubation in selective media
D. both sterile collection conditions and incubation in
differential media
E. both incubation in differential media and incubation in
selective media

26.

T/F
Immune serum can give years of protection
against a specific infectious disease.

27.

T/F
Specific immune globulin is obtained from the
serum of convalescing patients.

28.

T/F
The Widal test is used for diagnosing
salmonellosis.

29.

T/F
When antibodies or other substances in
serum cross-react with the test reagents, a
false positive result can occur.

30.

T/F
Serological testing always involves reactions
between specific antibody and antigen.

31.

T/F
ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to
trace antigen-antibody reactions.

32.

T/F
Serological tests should have low sensitivity
and specificity.

33.

T/F
The tuberculin test is an example of an in vivo
serological test.

34.

precipitation
reaction

Matching
Quellong reaction

35.

t cells

Matching
Rosette formation

36.

PPD

Matching
Tuberculin test

37.

tube
agglutination

Matching
Widal test

19.

20.

21.

22.

Phage typing is useful in identifying

A. Treponema pallidum
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Streptococcus
D. Salmonella
E. Clostridium
Animals are required for the cultivation of
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Pseudomonas
C. Streptococcus
D. Salmonella
E. Clostridium
Titer is the amount of
A. antigen in serum
B. antibody in serum
C. WBC in serum
D. complement in serum
E. none of the choices are correct
Serological testing relies upon
A. the specificity of the Fc region of antibodies
B. the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies
C. a patient who is not immunocompromised
D. very high viral or bacterial load in the patient
E. none of the choices are correct

38.

M. pneumoniae

Matching
Cold-agglutinin

39.

syphilis

Matching
VDRL

40.

MS agar

Matching
Differential media