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New offences
This new Act has expressly recognised certain acts as offences which were dealt under related
laws. These new offences like, acid attack, sexual harassment, voyeurism, stalking have been
incorporated into the Indian Penal Code:
Section
Offence
Punishment
Notes
Acid attack
Gender neutral
Attempt to
Acid attack
Gender neutral
liable to fine
Only protects women. Provisions are:
i.
Rigorous imprisonment up to
three years, or with fine, or with
354A
Sexual
harassment
favours; or
iii.
iv.
cases
v.
to disrobe a
woman
Voyeurism
a second or subsequent
conviction, with imprisonment of
either description for a term
which shall not be less than three
years, but which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be
liable to fine.
354D
Stalking
liable to fine
Section 370 of Indian Penal Code (IPC) has been substituted with new sections, 370 and 370A
which deals with trafficking of person for exploitation. If a person (a) recruits, (b) transports, (c)
harbours, (d) transfers, or (e) receives, a person, by using threats, or force, or coercion,
or abduction, or fraud, or deception, or by abuse of power, or inducementfor exploitation
including prostitution, slavery, forced organ removal, etc. will be punished with imprisonment
ranging from at least 7 years to imprisonment for the remainder of that persons natural life
depending on the number or category of persons trafficked. [16] Employment of a trafficked person
will attract penal provision as well.[16]
The most important change that has been made is the change in definition of rape under IPC.
Although the Ordinance sought to change the word rape to sexual assault, in the Act the word
'rape' has been retained in Section 375, and was extended to include acts in addition to vaginal
penetration. The definition is broadly worded with acts like penetration of penis, or any object or
any part of body to any extent, into the vagina, mouth, urethra or anus of another person or
making another person do so, apply of mouth ortouching private parts constitutes the offence of
sexual assault. The section has also clarified that penetration means "penetration to any extent",
and lack of physical resistance is immaterial for constituting an offence. Except in certain
aggravated situations the punishment will be imprisonment not less than seven years but which
may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine. In aggravated situations,
punishment will be rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but
which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine.
A new section, 376A has been added which states that if a person committing the offence of
sexual assault, "inflicts an injury which causes the death of the person or causes the person to
be in a persistent vegetative state, shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which
shall not be less than twenty years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life, which shall
mean the remainder of that persons natural life, or with death." [17] In case of "gang rape", persons
involved regardless of their gender shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term
which shall not be less than twenty years, but which may extend to life and shall pay
compensation to the victim which shall be reasonable to meet the medical expenses and
rehabilitation of the victim. The age of consent in India has been increased to 18 years, which
means any sexual activity irrespective of presence of consent with a woman below the age of 18
will constitute statutory rape.
Certain changes has been introduced in the CrPC and Evidence Act, like the process of
recording the statement of the victim has been made more victim friendly and easy but the two
critical changes are: 1. the 'character of the victim' is now rendered totally irrelevant, and 2. there
is now a presumption of 'no consent' in a case where sexual intercourse is proved and the victim
states in the court that she did not consent.
The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 19 March 2013, and by the Rajya Sabha on 21 March
2013, making certain changes from the provisions in the Ordinance. [1][2][3] The Bill received
Presidential assent on 2 April 2013 and came into force from 3 April 2013. The changes made in
the Act incomparison with the Ordinance is listed as follows:
Offence
Acid attack
Changes
Fine shall be just and reasonable to meet medical expenses for treatment of victim,
while in the Ordinance it was fine up to Rupees 10 lakhs.
"Clause (v) any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual
Sexual
nature" has been removed. Punishment for offence under clause (i) and (ii) has
harassment
been reduced from five years of imprisonment to three years. The offence is no
longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a woman.
Voyeurism
The offence is no longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a
woman.
The offence is no longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a
woman. The definition has been reworded and broken down into clauses, The
exclusion clause and the following sentence has been removed "or watches or
spies on a person in a manner that results in a fear of violence or serious alarm or
Stalking
distress in the mind of such person, or interferes with the mental peace of such
person, commits the offence of stalking". Punishment for the offence has been
changed; A man committing the offence of stalking would be liable for
imprisonment up to three years for the first offence, and shall also be liable to fine
and for any subsequent conviction would be liable for imprisonment up to five years
and with fine.
Trafficking of
person
offences which
Schedule
Schedule
Section
Section
can be
first
second
320
compounded are
of
Cr.
of
Cr.
of
Cr.
321
of
:
Cr.
provided
P.
P.
P.
P.
under
C.
C.
C.
C.
(C)
6. In which case, it was held that at the time of framing charge or taking cognizance,
accused
has
no
right
to
produce
any
material
?
(A)
Anil
Royal
v.
State
of
Bihar
(B)
State
of
Orissa
v.
Debendra
Nath
Padhi
(C)
Bani
Singh
v.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(D)
Pratap
Singh
v.
State
of
Jharkhand
Ans
:
(B)
7. In which sections of Cr. P. C., the procedure for trial before a court of Sessions is
provided
?
(A)
260
to
265
(B)
238
to
250
(C)
251
to
259
(D)
225
to
237
Ans
:
(D)
8. Investigation includes all the proceedings conducted by a police officer
(A)
For
the
collection
of
evidence
(B)
For
enquiry
than
a
trial
(C)
For
trial
(D)
All
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
9. If the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the case, the
magistrate may, in his discretion, discharge the accused in certain circumstances.
In which one of the following circumstances the accused cannot be discharged ?
(A)
When
the
charge
has
been
framed
(B)
When
the
offence
is
compoundable
(C)
When
the
offence
is
noncognizable
(D)
When
the
proceeding
has
been
instituted
on
complaint
Ans
:
(A)
10. A warrant of arrest and a proclamation under section 82 of Cr. P. C. were issued
simultaneously and later a consequential order of attachment under section 83 was
also
issued.
What
is
the
legality
of
these
orders
?
(A)
All
the
orders
are
perfectly
legal
(B) The order under section 82 is legal but order under section 83 is illegal
(C) The order under section 82 is illegal and improper vitiating the consequential
order
of
attachment
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(C)
11. An offence is committed by a British citizen on an aircraft registered in India. The
offender may be dealt with under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973
?
(A)
Section
188
(B)
Section
183
(C)
Section
182
(D)
Section
186
Ans
(A)
12. In which of the following cases it was held that the accused cannot use the case
diary ? Neither the accused nor his counsel can requisition the case diary and they
cannot
claim
to
go
through
it
?
(A)
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
v.
Harish
Chandra
Singh
(B)
Madhu
Limaye
v.
Union
of
India
(C)
Mukund
Lal
v.
Union
of
India
(D)
J.
M.
Desai
v.
State
of
Bombay
Ans
:
(C)
13. Which section of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the power of
Sessions
Judge
to
transfer
cases
and
appeals
?
(A)
Section
409
(B)
Section
408
(C)
Section
407
(D)
Section
406
Ans
:
(B)
14.
Consider
the
following
statements
1.
Illegal
arrest
does
not
vitiate
the
trial.
2.
A
confession
is
not
invalidated
by
the
illegal
arrest.
3. Mere keeping a person in police station or restricting his movement within the
precincts
of
a
police
station
amounts
to
arrest.
4. Arrest need not be by handcuffing a person, but could be complete by spoken
words.
Select
the
correct
answer
using
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A)
Only
1
and
2
are
correct
(B)
Only
1
and
4
are
correct
(C)
Only
1,
2
and
4
are
correct
(D)
1,
2,
3
and
4
all
are
correct
Ans
:
(C)
15. Under section 77 of Cr. P. C., a warrant of arrest may be executed
(A)
Within
the
local
jurisdiction
of
court
issuing
warrant
(B)
At
any
place
within
the
state
(C)
At
any
place
in
India
(D)
Within
the
jurisdiction
of
District
court
Ans
:
(C)
16. Summons case means a case relating to an offence, punishable with
(A)
Imprisonment
for
life
(B)
Imprisonment
for
a
term
of
10
years
(C)
Imprisonment
for
a
term
exceeding
two
years
(D)
Imprisonment
for
a
term
not
exceeding
two
years
Ans
:
(D)
17. Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life under Cr. P. C. ?
(A)
Appropriate
Government
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
The
The
The
President
Governor
Home
Minister
:
of
of
India
State
State
(A)
the
the
of
18.
In
a
cognizable
offence
a
police
officer
(A)
cannot
arrest
an
accused
without
warrant
(B) can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
(C) is not required to produce the accused before a magistrate
(D)
may
arrest
an
accused
without
warrant
Ans
:
(D)
19.
The
objective
of
the
Police
Act
1949
is
(A) To reorganise the police and to make it a more efficient instrument for the
prevention
and
detection
of
crime
(B) To amend the law relating to the regulation of police force
(C) To provide for the constitution of a general police district embracing two or more
Union Territories and for the establishment of a police force therefore
(D) To give more powers to the Inspector General and Director General of Police
Ans
:
(C)
20.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Police
Any
21.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
For
Civil
Armed
Mounted
Village
22. The
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Public
Diary
Case
General
General
of
:
patrolling
police
police
police
Chaukidar
the
of
shall
shall
shall
shall
roads
be
be
be
be
:
Prosecutor
should inspect
A
Two
Three
A
:
the
Malkhana
is
Diary
Diary
Register
above
(A)
ordinarily
employed
employed
employed
employed
(A)
once
is
month
months
months
fortnight
(A)
23.
Which
of
the
following
is not correct
?
(A)
The
police
may
control
and
regulate
the
processions
(B) The police has power to forbid or issue order banning the procession in public
interest
(C) Those who convene a public assembly, may be required to obtain a licence from
the
Police
Superintendent
(D) The police may lay down conditions for the conduct of the public assembly or
procession
Ans
Village
In
(C)
Chaukidars
Gram
charge
of
Superintendent
District
are
appointed
the
Police
of
by
Pradhan
Station
Police
Magistrate
(D)
26. Shall it be lawful for a police officer to take into custody a person who throws or
lays down any dirt, filth, rubbish or any stones on any road or street, which causes
inconvenience
or
annoyance
to
public
?
(A)
Yes,
even
without
warrant
(B)
Yes,
only
under
a
warrant
of
arrest
(C)
No,
because
it
is
not
an
offence
(D)
No,
because
the
police
officer
is
not
empowered
Ans
:
(A)
27. Particulars of which of the following organised gangs should not be entered in
the
gang
register
of
a
police
station
of
the
district
?
(A)
Gang
of
Dacoits
(B)
Gang
of
cattle
thieves
(C)
Gang
to
burglars
(D)
Gang
of
railway
goods
wagon
thieves
Ans
:
(B)
28. Is the Investigation Officer bound to reduce in writing any statement made to him
in the course of examination under section 161 of the code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A)
Yes
(B)
No
(C)
Only
when
directed
by
the
court
to
do
so
(D)
Only
in
cases
of
cognizable
offences
Ans
:
(B)
29. Which of the following is not required to be recorded in the General Diary ?
(A)
Details
contained
in
a
First
Information
Report
(B) Departure and return of police officers on and from duty
(C)
Receipt
and
disbursement
of
cash
(D)
Arrests
made
at
the
police
station
Ans
:
(A)
30.
Which
of
the
following
is not a
duty
of
the
police
officer
(A) To obey and execute all orders and warrants issued to him by any competent
authority
(B) To collect and communicate intelligence affecting the public peace
(C) To prevent the commission of offences and public nuisances
(D) To take charge of all unclaimed property and dispose the same as the
circumstances
demand
Ans
:
(D)
31. History-sheet of class A, that is for dacoits, burglars, cattle thieves, railway goods
wagon thieves and abettors thereof, may be discontinued with the sanction of
(A)
Superintendent
of
Police
(B)
District
Magistrate
(C)
Deputy
Inspector
General
of
Police
(D)
Inspector
General
of
Police
Ans
:
(A)
32. Which of the following entries is not made in the village crime Note-Book Part-I ?
(A)
Main
Castes
and
Tribals
(B)
Specialities
of
the
Population
(C)
Entries
of
offences
against
the
State
(D)
The
village
choukidar
Ans
:
(C)
33. No warrant of arrest in a noncognizable offence shall for any reason be kept by
the
police
for
more
than
(A)
One
month
(B)
Two
months
(C)
Six
weeks
(D)
Fifteen
days
Ans
:
(C)
34. In every Statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown from the
language
of
the
Statute.
This
view
was
expressed
in
(A)
Sherras
Vs.
De
Rutzen
(B)
R.
Vs.
Dudley
and
Stephen
(C)
Queen
Vs.
Tolson
(D)
R.
Vs.
Arnold
Ans
:
(A)
35. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the borders and a person within
the Indian border is killed. The relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the
Pakistani to border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian courts try the accused for
murder
?
(A)
No,
Indian
courts
have
no
jurisdiction
(B)
Yes
(C) He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial in Pakistan
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Who
among
Chief
Chairman
of
Surveyor
Employee
the
following
Minister
the
Central
of
an
of
a
:
is not a
public
servant
?
of
a
State
Board
of
Film
Censors
Insurance
Company
Nationalized
Bank
(C)
37. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the
codes
given
below
the
Lists
List-I
(a)
Kehar
Singh
Vs.
Delhi
Administration
(b)
Nawab
Ali
Vs.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(c)
Vishwanath
Vs.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(d)
Mehboob
Shah
Vs.
Emperor
List-II
1.
Right
of
private
defence
2.
Criminal
Conspiracy
3.
Common
Intention
4.
Common
Object
5.
Mistake
of
fact
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
4
1
3
(B)
3
1
5
2
(C)
3
4
1
2
(D)
2
1
5
3
Ans
:
(A)
38. A makes an attempt to steal jewels by breaking open box, and finds after so
opening the box, that there was no jewel in it. What offence A has committed ?
(A)
Attempt
to
theft
(B)
Theft
(C)
Criminal
breach
of
trust
(D)
All
of
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
39. A sought to appear in LL.B. examination on the basis of forged marks-sheet of
B.A., but forged marks-sheet was detected before the commencement of
examination
(A)
A
is
not
guilty
of
cheating
(B)
A
is
guilty
of
attempt
to
cheat
(C)
A
is
guilty
of
cheating
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(C)
40.
Which
of
the
following
is not correct
?
(A) A person made non compos mentis by illness is exempted from criminal liability, if
the act was committed under the influence of his mental disorder
(B) The intoxication, in order to be available as defence must be of that degree and
extent
as
renders
the
accused
practically
an
automation
(C)
Voluntary
drunkenness
is
an
excuse
for
knowledge
(D) Except murder and offences punishable with death, compulsion is an excusable
defence, if the act is done under the fear of instant death
Ans
:
(C)
41. Which of the following is not a meaning of the expression common intention
under
section
34
of
the
Indian
Penal
Code
?
(A) A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the
persons
constituting
the
group
(B) A desire to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the consequence
(C) The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed
(D) Evil intent to necessarily commit the same offence which is committed
Ans
:
(B)
42. In which of the following cases necessity under section 81 of Indian Penal Code
cannot
be
pleaded
as
a
defence
?
(A)
Self-defence
and
prevention
of
violence
(B) Prevention of harm to the accused at the expense of an innocent person
(C)
Self-preservation
is
an
absolute
necessity
(D)
Choice
of
evils
affecting
person
other
than
the
accused
Ans
:
(C)
43. In which section of Indian Penal Code the maxim ignorantia juris non excusat is
incorporated
?
(A)
Section
78
(B)
Section
76
(C)
Section
79
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
44. A, a child of exact seven years of age commits an offence. A will
(A)
not
be
guilty
under
section
82
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(B)
be
guilty
if
he
is
of
sufficient
maturity
(C) not be covered by section 82 and 83 of Indian Penal Code
(D)
be
guilty
under
section
83
of
Indian
Penal
Code
Ans
:
(C)
45. A holds Z down, and fraudulently takes Zs money and jewels from Zs clothes,
without
Zs
consent.
A
is
guilty
of
committing
(A)
Theft
(B)
Extortion
(C)
Robbery
(D)
Dacoity
Ans
:
(C)
46. Distinction between Section 34 and 149 of IPC has been authoritatively
expounded
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
(A)
State
of
Maharashtra
v.
M.
H.
George
(B)
Guru
Deo
Singh
v.
State
of
Punjab
(C)
Ram
Kumar
v.
State
of
Haryana
(D)
Ans
Nanak
Chand
v.
:
State
of
Punjab
(D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Criminal
Criminal
Criminal
:
Abetment
assault
force
intimidation
(D)
52. A, with the intention of murdering Z, instigates B, a child below seven years at
age, to do an act which causes Zs death. B, in consequence of instigation, did the
act in the absence of A, thereby causes Zs death. What offence has been
committed
by
A
?
(A) No offence, because A was not present at the time of murder
(B)
Committed
simple
offence
of
causing
hurt
(C)
Committed
offence
of
attempt
to
murder
(D)
Committed
murder
Ans
:
(D)
53. The
of
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Supreme Court of India has upheld the constitutional validity of section 497
Indian
Penal
Code
(Adultery)
in
Smt.
Sowmithri
Vishnu
Vs.
Union
of
India
K.
M.
Nanawati
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
Priya
Bala
Ghosh
Vs.
Suresh
Chandra
Ghosh
Sukhbeer
Singh
Vs.
State
of
Haryana
:
(A)
54.
In
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Point
theft
Dishonest
intention
Dishonest
intention
Dishonest
intention
Dishonest
intention
55.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
out
there
to
take
to
take
to
take
to
take
:
correct
response
must
be
any
kind
of
property
any
valuable
security
any
movable
property
only
immovable
property
(C)
56. A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells Z that they will
fire
at
Z
if
Z
attempts
to
leave
the
building
(A)
A
wrongfully
restrains
Z
(B)
A
wrongfully
obstructs
Z
(C)
A
wrongfully
confines
Z
(D)
A
wrongfully
orders
Z
Ans
:
(C)
57. Which one of the following is an illustration of criminal attempt ?
(A)
A
tries
to
kill
B
by
witchcraft
(B) A administers a poisonous drug to a woman B with an intention to cause
miscarriage,
but
the
woman
was
not
pregnant
(C) A takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else
(D) A goes to Kolkata to buy dyes to make counterfeit currency notes
Ans
:
(B)
58. A has knocked down four teeth of B. A has committed the offence of
(A)
Attempt
to
cause
hurt
(B)
Causing
hurt
(C)
Causing
grievous
hurt
(D)
Attempt
to
murder
Ans
:
(C)
59. Which one of the following is not punishable under the Indian Penal Code ?
(A)
Preparation
to
commit
murder
(B)
Preparation
to
commit
dacoity
(C)
Preparation
to
wage
war
against
the
state
(D) Preparation to commit depredation on the territory of a friendly power
Ans
:
(A)
60. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her fathers house with Rs. 10,000 and
accompanied Z to various places. All the traveling as well as Hotel charges were
paid out of the said amount as Z had no money. During the course of their journey
Z had sexual intercourse with her thrice with her consent. Here Z is liable under
section
(A)
363
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(B)
366
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(C)
366-A
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(D)
376
of
Indian
Penal
Code
Ans
:
(D)
61. Assertion (A) : Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being.
Reason
(R)
: Homicide
is
always
unlawful.
Select the correct answer with the help of codes given below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(C)
62. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
below
the
List-I
(a)
Act
of
Judge
when
(b)
Accident
in
doing
a
(c)
Act
of
a
child
under
seven
(d)
Act
of
a
person
of
List-II
1.
Section
82
2.
Section
84
I.P.C.
I.P.C.
3.
4.
Codes
(a)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Section
Section
77
80
of
of
(b)
I.P.C.
I.P.C.
:
(d)
3
2
4
1
(B)
(c)
4
3
1
2
1
4
2
3
:
2
1
3
4
Which
one
of
the
following
Criminal
is
an
inchoate-crime
?
Riot
attempt
(C)
(D)
Ans
Unlawful
Public
:
assembly
nuisance
(B)
Who
amongst
the
following
A
A
A
is
not
bribe
an
accomplice
?
giver
detective
prostitute
(D)
Ans
person
receiving
:
stolen
property
(B)
74.
The
English
doctrine
of
Res
Gestae
(A)
has
no
place
in
India
(B)
has
place
in
India
(C) has place in India and has been incorporated under Section 6 of the Indian
Evidence
Act,
1872
(D) has been incorporated under section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Ans
:
(C)
75. Assertion (A) : An admission can be used against a co-defendant.
Reason (R) : An admission binds the maker of it. It may be used in his favour as
well.
Select
the
correct
answer
from
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(B)
76. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding admission under
section
17
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
?
(A)
Admission
operates
as
waiver
of
proof
(B)
Admission
is
a
statement
which
is
necessarily
against
ones
own
interest
(C) A statement which suggests some inference as to fact-in-issue or relevant fact,
may
be
admission
(D) It is generally irrelevant as to whom an admission is made
Ans
:
(D)
77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below
the
Lists
List-I
(a)
Section
46
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(b)
Section
47
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(c)
Section
47A
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(d)
Section
48
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
List-II
1.
Opinion
as
to
digital
signature
2. Opinion as to existence of right or custom, when relevant
3.
Facts
bearing
upon
opinion
of
experts
4.
Opinion
as
to
handwriting
when
relevant
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
4
3
2
1
(B)
1
2
3
4
(C)
2
1
4
3
(D)
3
4
1
2
Ans
(D)
78. When can a person prove his own statement constituting admission, or it may be
proved
on
his
behalf
?
(A)
When
it
is
relevant
as
dying
declaration
(B)
When
it
is
relevant
as
admission
(C)
When
it
is
relevant
as
confession
(D) When it is only an oral admission as to content of electronic record
Ans
:
(A)
79. Assertion (A) : A confession always goes against the maker of it, provided it has
been
made
freely
and
voluntarily.
Reason (R) : A confession is inadmissible against a coaccused.
Choose
the
correct
answer
using
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(C)
80. A statement before the police officer in the course of investigation was that the
design was carried out according to plan; but no reference was made to persons
who were involved in murder or to the maker of statement himself
(A) Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this statement, being hit by section 25
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(B) Prosecution may prove this statement. It is not hit by section 25 of Indian
Evidence
Act
(C) Only that part of the statement may be proved which leads to discovery of a fact
in
consequence
of
information
received
(D)
None
of
the
above
is
correct
Ans
:
(C)
81.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Admissions
Conclusive
Not
None
are
proof
proof
estoppel
correct
(B)
Conclusive
of
Not
the
above
is
Relevancy
and
admissibility
under
Indian
Evidence
Act
are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Neither
Synonymous
synonymous
and
:
nor
co-extensive
Synonymous
coextensive
Co-extensive
both
(B)
84. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act defines Leading Question ?
(A)
Section
140
(B)
Section
141
(C)
Section
142
(D)
Section
143
Ans
:
(B)
85. The case of Sarat Chander Dey v. Gopal Chander Laha, (1891) 19 I.A. 203 is
related to which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(A)
Section
6
(B)
Section
115
(C)
Section
124
(D)
Section
45
Ans
:
(B)
86. In which year the electronic evidence was incorporated in the Indian evidence
Act
as
a
part
of
documentary
Evidence
?
(A)
2001
(B)
2002
(C)
2000
(D)
1999
Ans
:
(C)
87.
Which
of
the
following
is not a
public
document
?
(A)
Records
of
a
nationalized
Bank
(B)
A
post-mortem
report
(C) A private waqf deed, recorded in the office of subregistrar
(D) Entries made by a police officer in the site inspection map and site memo
Ans
:
(B)
88. Where a married woman, dying of burns was a person of unsound mind and the
medical certificate vouchsafed her physical fitness for a statement and not the state
of mind at the crucial moment; in which of the following cases the court said that the
statement
could
not
be
relied
upon
?
(A)
Ravi
Chander
Vs.
State
of
Punjab
(B)
Shripatrao
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
(C)
Uka
Ram
Vs.
State
of
Rajasthan
(D)
Baldev
Raj
Vs.
State
of
Himachal
Pradesh
Ans
:
(A)
89.
(A)
(B)
(C)
The
principle
of
Promissory
Estoppel
found
As
an
exception
to
the
doctrine
of
As a rule of future consideration in the law
As a rule of past consideration in the law
its
root
consideration
of contract
of contract
(D)
Ans
None
of
:
the
above
(B)
90. Under which section of Evidence Act, a tenant of immovable property is estopped
from
denying
a
title
of
the
landlord
to
that
property
?
(A)
Section
115
(B)
Section
116
(C)
Section
117
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
91. The
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
case
of
Pakala
Narain Swamy
Res
Dying
:
v.
Emperor
relates
to
gestae
declaration
Accomplice
Co-accused
(B)
92. An accused charged under section 302 and 304 B of the Indian Penal Code is
acquitted of the offence under section 302 of Indian Penal Code. The presumption
under
section
113
B
of
the
Evidence
Act
is
(A)
Automatically
refuted
(B)
Not
refuted
(C)
Not
relevant
(D)
Irrelevant
and
otiose
Ans
:
(B)
93. Assertion (A) : B writes to his wife C a letter, which contains defamatory
matters about D. C cannot be compelled to disclose this communication.
Reason (R) : Any communication made during subsistence of marriage by a
husband to his wife or vice-versa is protected as privileged communication.
Select
the
correct
answer
from
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(A)
94. Any condition imposed by a Magistrate when releasing any person on
(A) Can be set aside or modified only by the Supreme
(B)
Cannot
be
modified
by
any
(C)
Can
be
modified
by
Sessions
Court
or
High
(D)
Can
be
set
aside
only
by
Sessions
Ans
:
bail
Court
court
Court
Court
(C)
(C) After the investigation officer obtains permission of his Superintendent of Police
(D) With the consent of such woman victim or of any person competent to give such
consent
on
her
behalf
Ans
:
(D)
96. The main characteristic of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is
(A)
The
separation
of
the
judiciary
from
the
executive
(B)
The
separation
of
the
legislature
from
the
executive
(C)
The
separation
of
the
revenue
work
from
the
executive
(D)
To
provide
judicial
powers
to
the
executive
magistrates
Ans
:
(A)
97. Which of the following is not correct regarding provisions of bail in case of nonbailable
offences
?
(A) Bail may be granted, if the court concerned comes to the conclusion that
prosecution
has
failed
to
establish
a
prima-facie
case
(B) Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in spite of existence of a primafacie case there is need to release such person on bail in view of facts and
circumstances
of
case
(C) Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may be required for being identified by
witness
during
investigation
(D) If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for
7 years or more, no person can be released on bail without giving an opportunity of
hearing
to
the
public
prosecutor
Ans
:
(D)
98. Under which section of code of Criminal Procedure, security is taken of good
behaviour
from
habitual
offenders
?
(A)
Section
109
(B)
Section
110
(C)
Section
111
(D)
Section
112
Ans
:
(B)
99. Which of the following is not a duty of the Magistrate while recording confession
under
section
164
Cr.
P.
C.
?
(A) Duty to explain to the person making the confession that he is not bound to make
confession
(B) Duty to work that if he makes a confession, it may be used as evidence against
him
(C) Duty to record the confessional statement in the form of questions and answers
(D) Duty to be satisfied and have reason to believe the confession was voluntary
Ans
:
(C)
100. Which one of the following is a case relating to anticipatory bail ?
(A)
D.
K.
Ganesh
Babu
Vs.
P.
T.
Manokaran
(B)
Tama
Vs.
State
of
West
Bengal
(C)
Dinesh
Dalmia
Vs.
C.
B.
I.
(D)
Dimple
Gupta
Vs.
Rajiv
Gupta
Ans : (A)
13. Procedure for summary trail is provided in which section of Cr. P.C.? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Section 251 to Section 260 (b) Section 238 to Section 250
(c) Section 260 to Section 265 (d) Section 255 to Section 265 (Ans : c)
14. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provide for trial before a Court of Session?
(U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Section 225 to Section 237 (b) Section 238 to Section 243
(c) Section 251 to Section 259 (d) Section 260 to Section 265 (Ans : a)
15. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. an accused person can himself be a competent witness? (Utch.
C.J.)
(a) Section 315 (b) Section 300 (c) Section 313 (d) Section 317 (Ans : a)
16. When accused does not have sufficient means to engage pleader, the Session Court may assign
pleader for defence at expense of the state, it is insured by which section of Cr. P.C.? (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Section 301 (b) Section 304 (c) Section 306 (d) Section 305 (Ans : b)
17. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that public prosecutor inchagre of a
case may with consent of court at any time before judgment is pronounced withdraw from prosecution
of any person in respect of any offence for which he is tried? (U.P.P.C.J.)
(a) Section 304 (b) Section 306 (c) Section 321 (d) Section 313 (Ans : c)
18. When a person who would otherwise be competent, to compound an offence under section 320 of
Cr. P.C. is dead, then? (U.P.P.C.S.J.)
(a) Offence cannot be compounded (b) Offence can be compounded by an eye witness
(c) Offence can be compounded by legal representative of such person without consent of the Court
(d) Legal representative of such person can compound offence with consent of the Court (Ans : d)
19. Three years period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance of offence punishable with
imprisonment for a term not exceeding (Chatt.J.S.)
(a) One year (b) Three years (c) Five years (d) Seven years (Ans : b)
20. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under section 389(3) of Cr. P.C. after
conviction? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) Where accused is on bail, and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
(b) Where accused is on bail, and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
(c) Where accused is on bail, and imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years
(d) Where offence is exclusively bailable whether accused is on bail or not (Ans : a)
1. Point out incorrect response under Cr. P.C. (Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) Inquiry is conducted by the Court (b) Inquiry is conducted after framing of charge
(c) Inquiry is conducted prior of framing of charge (d) Inquiry is conducted by the Magistrate
(Ans : b)
2. In a cognizable offence a police officer (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Cannot arrest an accused without warrant
(b) May arrest an accused without warrant
(c) Can keep accused in police custody without a remand order
(d) In not required to produce accused before Magistrate (Ans : b)
3. Which of the following sentence may be passed by a Magistrate of second class? (Utch.
C.J.)
(a) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years (b) Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding one years
(c) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months (d) Only a fine not exceeding five
thousand rupees (Ans : b)
4. The Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 7 years (b) Sentence for life imprisonment
(c) Death sentence (d) Sentence of imprisonment exceeding seven years (Ans : a)
5. A private person may arrest any person who (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Is reported to be a criminal (b) In his presence commits a non-cognizable offence
(c) In his presence commits a bailable offence (d) In his presence commits a cognizable and
non-bailable offence (Ans : d)
6. A person arrested by a police officer may be kept in custody for (M.P.C.J.)
(a) Two days (b) Three days (c) Twenty four hours (d) One week (Ans : c)
7. How are summons served? (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) By a police officer (b) By an officer in Court (c) By an authorized public servant (d) By
any of above (Ans : d)
8. To set aside forfeiture under section 96 of Criminal Procedure Code application may be
given to(M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Session Court (b) The High Court (c) Supreme Court (d) The any of these (Ans : b)
9. In which case the supreme Court held that section 125 Cr. P.C. was applicable to all
irrespective of their religion?
(a) Mohd. Umar Khan Vs. Gulshan Begum (b) Mohd. Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum
(c) Mst. Zohara Khattoon Vs. Modh. Ibrahim (d) Noor Saba Khatoon Vs. Mohd. Quasim
(Ans : b)
10. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband under section 125 of
Cr. P.C. if (U.P.P.C.S.J.)
(a) She has obtained a divorce from her husband and has not remarried (b) She is unable to
maintain herself
(c) She refused to live with her husband on ground that keeps a mistress (d) She is living in
adultery (Ans : d)
11. Which section of Cr. P.C. provides that no statement made by any person to police officer
in course of an investigation shall, if reduced to writing be signed by person making
it? (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Section 164 (b) Section 163 (c) Section 162 (d) Section 161 (Ans : c)
12. Point out incorrect answer (U.P.A.P.O.)
First Information Report means
(a) Report about cognizable offence (b) Information given to police officer
(c) Information first in point of time (d) It must always be given in writing (Ans : d)
13. Under section 198 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the court can take cognizance of
any offence laid down under section 497 and 498 to the Indian Penal Code on complaint
of (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Husband of woman (b) Father of woman (c) Mother of woman (d) Any of these (Ans : d)
14. Which one of the following orders can be passed after trail of a case is over? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Only an order of acquittal (b) Only an order of conviction
(c) Order of discharge (d) Either an order of acquittal or conviction (Ans : d)
15. Who can withdraw a case from the prosecution under Section 321, Cr. P.C.? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) The State Government (b) Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case with permission of court
(c) Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case even without permission of court (d) All of these
(Ans : b)
16. The Court can record demeanour of a witness person can himself be competent
witness? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Section 280 (b) Section 279 (c) Section 278 (d) Section 281 (Ans : a)
17. Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion after hearing evidence for the prosecution and
accused that accused is guilty and that he ought to receive a severe punishment then such
Magistrate is empowered to inflict, the Magistrate may forward case to? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) The Session Judge (b) The Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) The District Magistrate (d) Concerned police station (Ans : b)
18. Which of the following offence is not compoundable? (U.P.P.C.J.)
(a) Offence under section 323 I.P.C. (b) Offence under section 334 I.P.C.
(c) Offence under section 448 I.P.C. (d) Offence under section 307 I.P.C. (Ans : d)
19. There shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of first class passes
only a Sentence of fine, not exceeding? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) One hundred rupees (b) Two hundred rupees
(c) Three hundred rupees (d) Two hundred and fifty rupees (Ans : a)
20. In one trial A is awarded with sentence, which is notappealable, whereas sentence against
B is appealable, whether A can file an appeal against his sentence (M.P.C.J.)
(a) No (b) Only with special leave (c) Yes (d) There is no such provision (Ans : c)
1. An offence punishable with the imprisonment for a term exceeding two years relates to (Utch. C.J.
Exam)
(a) Summon case (b) Warrant case (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (Ans : b)
2. Object of investigation is (Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) To attest accused (b) To punish accused (c) To collect evidence against accused (d) None of these
(Ans : c)
3. Which one of the following proceeding is known as judicial proceeding? (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Investigation (b) Inquiry and investigation (c) Inquiry and trail (d) Trail and investigation (Ans : c)
4. Warrant case means a case (Chhat. J.S.)
(a) In which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(b) In which the court in first instance shall issue a warrant of arrest against accused
(c) Relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years
(d) Relating to an offence punishable with death or for life imprisonment or for a term exceeding two
years (Ans : d)
5. Under which section of Cr. P.C., a police officer can arrest a person without an order from a
Magistrate and without warrant? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Section 42 (b) Section 40 (c) Section 51 (d) Section 41 (Ans : d)
6. Who can Commute sentence of imprisonment for life under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Appropriate Government (b) President of India
(c) Governor of State (d) Central Government (Ans : a)
7. Point out incorrect answer (U.P.A.P.O.)
Requisites of a valid warrant are
(a) It shall be n writing (b) It shall be signed by presiding officer of Court
(c) It shall bear seal of Court (d) It must state name of accused but address is not necessary (Ans :d)
8. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure a proclamation for the person absconding
may be issued? (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Section 83 (b) Section 82 (c) Section 81 (d) Section 80 (Ans : b)
9. Now under section 125 of Criminal procedure Code what payments per month can be ordered for
maintenance? (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) 50% on basis of salary of person (b) Upto Rs. 500
(c) Upto Rs. 3,000 (d) As Magistrate deems necessary in circumstances (Ans : d)
10. Which of the following cannot claim maintenance under section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code?
(M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Wife who cannot maintain herself (b) Mother or father who cannot maintain herself or himself
(c) Major married daughter who cannot maintain herself (d) Minor illegitimate daughter who cannot
maintain herself (Ans : c)
11. First information report (Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) Relates to cognizable or non-cognizable offence (b) Is given to a Magistrate or Police Officer
(c) Relates prima facie to cognizable offence (d) May by given to District Magistrate (Ans : c)
12. Who among the following is authorized to record confessional statement under section 164 Cr.
P.C.? (Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) A Police Officer (b) An Executive Magistrate (c) A Judicial Magistrate
(d) Neither an Executive Magistrate nor a Judicial Magistrate (Ans : c)
13. What is true about, Court of Session ? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) It can take cognizance without commitment
(b) It cannot take cognizance without commitment
(c) It can take cognizance on recommendation of District Magistrate
(d) It can take cognizance if challan is put up by Superintendent of Police (Ans : b)
14. A was traveling from Bhopal to Jabalpur by Rajkot Jabalpur Express Train. At Itarsi A casued
grievous hurt to B, who was resident of Jabalpur, where will case be tried? (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) At Bhopal, from where A started his journey (b) At Jabalpur, of where B was resident
(c) At Itarsi, where A caused grievous hurt to B (d) At place, where M.P. High Court decides (Ans : c)
15. Which section of Cr. P.C. provides that a person once convicted or acquitted cannot be tried again
for same offence? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Section 304 (b) Section 300 (c) Section 321 (d) Section 302 (Ans : b)
16. Section 304, Cr. P.C. deals with
(a) Protection to accused against double prosecution for the same offence (b) Legal aid to accused at
state expanses
(c) Withdrawal from prosecution (d) Order to release on probation of good conduct (Ans : b)
17. At any time before judgement is pronounced, prosecution of any person may be withdrawn with
consent of the court by (M.P.C.J.)
(a) On whose instance the first information report was recorded (b) Investigating officer of case
(c) Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor Incharge of case (d) Person aggrieved by offence
(Ans : c)
18. Whether an accused may be a competent witness in his defence? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) If he applies in writing on his own request (b) No
(c) With leave of Court of Session (d) With leave of High Court (Ans : a)
19. Power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals from one High Court to another High
Court can be exercised on a application by which one of following (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Registrar of concerned High Court (b) Attorney General of India
(c) Chairperson of Bar Council of India (d) Solicitor General of India (Ans : b)
20. The Magistrate by whom case is heard may award such compensation not exceeding (M.P.C.J.)
(a) One hundred (b) Five hundred (c) Three hundred (d) One thousand (Ans : a)
1. Which one of the following is not essential for an offence? (MP. APO.)
(A) Intention (B) Motive (C) Prohibited act (D) Punishment for act (Ans : B)
2. In which of the following mens rea has been considered to be an essential element of an offence?
(MP. APO.)
(A) Srinivasmal Barolia Vs. Emperor (B) R. Vs. Tolsen
(C) Nathulal Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh (D) All of the above (Ans : D)
1. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a
Mitakshara Coparcenary property by
(A) Will
(B) Gift
(C) Sale
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
2. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act,
1956 is a
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
Ans : (C)
3. Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a
(A) Per capita rule
(B) Per stirpes
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule
(D) Rule of exclusion
Ans : (A)
4. A decree may be executed by
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Ans : (D)
5. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of Res Judicata is based ?
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(C) Respondent superior
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
Ans : (D)
proceedings to
(A) Either party
(B) To plaintiff only
(C) To defendant only
(D) To only one defendant, if there are more than one defendant
Ans : (A)
9. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the Mesne Profit ?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(14)
(C) Section 2(6)
(D) Section 2(12)
Ans : (D)
10. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with
(A) Appeal to Supreme Court
(B) Appeal by indigent person
(C) Appeal against orders
(D) Appeal from appellate decrees
Ans : (D)
11. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit
(A) For partition
(B) For partnership
(C) For possession and mesne profit
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
12. Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, every suit shall be instituted in
(A) District Court
(B) The court of lower grade
(C) The court of higher grade
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)
13. Pleading has been defined in
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : (A)
14. Which Provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on
behalf of all in same interest ?
(A) Order 1, Rule 1
(B) Order 2, Rule 2
(C) Order 1, Rule 8
(D) Order 1, Rule 9
Ans : (C)
15. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of
Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
Ans : (C)
37. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code has been declared unconstitutional
as violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Section 301
(B) Section 303
(C) Section 306
(D) Section 314
Ans : (B)
38. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for abetment
to commit suicide ?
(A) Section 306
(B) Section 307
(C) Section 308
(D) Section 309
Ans : (A)
39. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched ?
(A) McNaughtens caseSection 84 of I.P.C.
(B) D.P.P. V. BeardSection 84 of I.P.C.
(C) Basudeo V. StateSection 86 of I.P.C.
(D) Bhawoo Jiwaji V. Mooljee Dayal Section 79 of I.P.C.
Ans : (B)
40. How many kinds of hurts are included under grevious hurt under Section 320 of the Indian Penal
Code ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (D)
41. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment for cheating
?
(A) Section 415
(B) Section 417
(C) Section 416
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
42. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code makes water pollution punishable ?
(A) Section 277
(B) Section 278
(C) Section 279
(D) Section 280
Ans : (A)
43. In which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, preparation of the offence is
punishable ?
(A) Murder
(B) Dowry death
(C) Waging war against Government of India
(D) Theft
Ans : (C)
44. Adultery is an offence committed
(A) With the consent of a married woman
(B) With the consent of a woman
(C) Without the consent of a woman but with the consent of her husband
(D) With the consent of a minor girl
Ans : (A)
45. How many exceptions have been provided for the offence of defamation under Section 499 of the
Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
46. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs. State related to
(A) Section 366-A of I.P.C.
(B) Section 364-A of I.P.C.
(C) Section 363 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
47. Which one of the following cases relates to right of private defence ?
(A) Jaidev Vs. State
(B) Ram Rattan Vs. State
(C) Guljar Singh Vs. State
(D) Rajesh Kumar Vs. Dharamveer
Ans : (A)
48. A enters Z house through a window. Here A commits
(A) Trespass
(B) House trespass
(C) House breaking
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)
49. Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea ?
(A) R. Vs. Prince
(B) Queen Vs. Tolson
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(D) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
Ans : (D)
50. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with those conditions, when consent is said to be,
not free consent ?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 90
(C) Section 92
(D) Section 89
Ans : (B)
51. Point out incorrect response. The following are modes of abetment
(A) Instigation
(B) Engaging in conspiracy
(C) Aiding
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
52. In which of the following cases the principles relating to the defence of intoxication were laid
down ?
(A) Mc Naughten Case
(B) Director of Public Prosecution Vs. Beard
(C) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
(D) R. Vs. Prince
Ans : (B)
53. A administers poisonous drug to a woman B to cause miscarriage. It is found that B was not
pregnant. In this case
(A) A is not guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(B) A is guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(C) A is guilty of murder
(D) A is guilty of no offence
Ans : (B)
54. Which is the secondary source of Muslim Law under the following ?
(A) Custom
(B) Ijmaa
(C) Qiyas
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
55. Which of the following modifies the application of Muslim Law ?
(A) Shariat Act, 1937
(B) Muslim Marriage Dissolution Act, 1939
(C) Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
56. Which of the following Muslim Laws applies in India ?
(A) Muslim Penal Law
(B) Muslim Law of Evidence
(C) Muslim Law of Sales of goods
(D) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
Ans : (D)
57. Who applied Qiyas for the first time as source of Muslim Law ?
(A) Imam Abu Hanifa
(B) Imam Yusuf
(C) Imam Jafer
(D) Imam Ahmad
Ans : (A)
58. Under Muslim Law, marriage is
(C) Irregular
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Ans : (C)
66. In Sunni-te Law, the guardian of the minors property is
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Mothers mother
(D) Fathers father
Ans : (B)
67. After divorce a Muslim woman
(A) Can not remarry
(B) Can remarry immediately
(C) Can marry only after completion of Iddat period
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
68. How many witnesses are necessary in Shia Muslim marriage ?
(A) Two males
(B) One male and two females
(C) No witness is required
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (C)
69. In Shia School of Muslim Law the amount of Mehar is
(A) Not legally fixed
(B) 10 dirhams
(C) 100 dirhams
(D) 500 dirhams
Ans : (A)
70. Doctrine of cy-pres is related with
(A) Marriage
(B) Dower
(C) Gift
(D) Wakfs
Ans : (D)
71. The term Musha under Muslim Law means
(A) Divided property
(B) Joint property
(C) Separate property
(D) Undivided share in property
Ans : (D)
72. A Sunni Muslim performs marriage during the period of Iddat, the marriage is
(A) Void
(B) Valid
(C) Irregular
(D) Voidable
Ans : (C)
73. A Muslim mother is entitled to the custody of her female child until she attains
(A) The age of 7 years
(B) Puberty
(C) Age of 11 years
(D) Age of 15 years
Ans : (B)
74. Dissolution of Muslim marriage by agreement is known as
(A) Talaq in ahsan
(B) Illa
(C) Zihar
(D) Khula
Ans : (D)
75. Which Wasiyat is invalid in Muslim Law ?
(A) Wasiyat made in favour of religious school
(B) Wasiyat made to the killer of legator
(C) Wasiyat made for charity
(D) Wasiyat made to a nonmuslim
Ans : (B)
76. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act,
1939 ?
(A) Absence of husband for four years or more
(B) Imprisonment of husband for two years
(C) Failure of husband to maintain his wife
(D) Impotency of husband
Ans : (B)
77. Which of the following statement is not correct with regard to Muslim Law ?
(A) Nephew gets twice the share of niece
(B) Son gets twice the share of a daughter
(C) Brother gets twice the share of a sister
(D) Widower gets twice the share of a widow
Ans : (A)
78. What is right of Pre-emption ?
(A) A right to seek eviction of tenant and get vacant possession
(B) A right to purchase property in preference to other person
(C) A right to presume adversely
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
79. Rule against perpetuity will not be applicable in
(A) Perpetual transfer for gift
(B) Personal contracts
(C) Vested interest
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
80. Under the Provisions of Transfer of Property Act, the unborn child acquires vested interest
(A) Upon his birth
(B) 7 days after his birth
(D) Section 58
Ans : (D)
110. Section 113-B, presumption as to dowry death was added to the Indian Evidence Act in
(A) 1986
(B) 1983
(C) 1961
(D) 1962
Ans : (A)
111. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Child witness : Section 118
(B) Dumb witness : Section 120
(C) Hostile witness : Section 154
(D) Expert witness : Section 45
Ans : (B)
112. The illustration that, A and B are jointly tried for the murder of C. It is proved that A said, B and I
murdered C, relates
(A) Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (A)
113. Identification parade is relevant under
(A) Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)
114. Which of the following Sections was amended by the Indian Technology Act, 2000 ?
(A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 17 of the Indian Evidence act
(C) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)
115. Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act was added in
(A) Year 1982
(B) Year 1983
(C) Year 1988
(D) Year 1980
Ans : (B)
116. The Indian Evidence Act deals with
(A) presumptio juris only
(B) presumptio huminis only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
(D) Section 29
Ans : (B)
125. Under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, privilege is available to
(A) Judges
(B) Advocates
(C) Magistrates
(D) Husband and Wife
Ans : (D)
126. In which of the following cases hearsay evidence is not admissible ?
(A) Statement of experts expressed in treaties, if the author is dead or cannot be found
(B) Where eye-witness told the facts to another person, statement of that person
(C) If the statement is of a deceased person, when it related to cause of his death
(D) If the statement is part of the transaction-in-issue
Ans : (B)
127. Which one of the following is not a document under the Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) An inscription on a stone of a building
(B) A photograph
(C) A printout of a message sent through mobile or computer
(D) A knife recovered by police from the possession of an accused and produced in the court
Ans : (D)
128. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that contents of the document must be proved
by primary evidence ?
(A) Section 61
(B) Section 62
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 64
Ans : (D)
129. A Hindu couple having the decree of judicial separation wants to live together
(A) They can live together
(B) They cannot live together
(C) They can live together after re-marriage
(D) They can live together only after the permission of the court
Ans : (A)
130. A, a Hindu male, having undivided interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property dies leaving
behind two sons and one daughter. The daughter is entitled to the following share in the property
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/9
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
131. Hindu law does not apply to a person who is a Hindu by
(A) Birth
(B) Conversion
(C) Re-conversion
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
(B) Mother
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
Ans : (A)
147. Under Mitakshara School Coparcenary interest devolves by
(A) Representation
(B) Survivorship
(C) Obstructed heritage
(D) Unobstructed heritage
Ans : (B)
148. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following is not entitled to
adopt ?
(A) An unmarried person
(B) Husband with the consent of wife
(C) Wife who is divorced
(D) Husband without the consent of wife
Ans : (D)
149. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the provision relating to registration of
marriage is given ?
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 5
Ans : (A)
150. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, husband and wife may file a petition of
divorce by mutual consent ?
(A) Section 13A
(B) Section 13B
(C) Section 14
(D) Section 9
Ans : (B)
2.
An
order
of
discharge
(A)
is
not
a
judgement
(B) is not a defence against fresh proceedings without fresh facts and better evidence
(C)
takes
place
after
formal
framing
of
charges
(D)
establishes
innocence
of
accused
Ans
:
(A)
3. Section 50 of Cr. P. C. provides that every person arrested without warrant shall be informed of
grounds of arrest and of right to bail, if the arrest is made for a bailable offence. What is the effect of
non-compliance
of
these
provisions
?
(A) It shall not render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal
(B) Even if the provisions of this section are overlooked, error may be corrected later
(C) It shall render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal and shall enable the person
arrested
move
for
habeas-corpus
to
obtain
his
release
(D) It is simply a procedural error and the provisions of this section are not very material
Ans
:
(C)
4. In sub-section (1) of section 24 of the Cr. P. C.,
inserted
(A)
One
or
more
(B)
Two
or
more
(C)
At
least
five
(D)
None
of
Ans
:
5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
compounded
are
of
Cr.
of
Cr.
of
Cr.
of
Cr.
The
offences
Schedule
Schedule
Section
Section
which
can
first
second
320
321
be
provided
P.
P.
P.
P.
under
C.
C.
C.
C.
(C)
6. In which case, it was held that at the time of framing charge or taking cognizance, accused has no
right
to
produce
any
material
?
(A)
Anil
Royal
v.
State
of
Bihar
(B)
State
of
Orissa
v.
Debendra
Nath
Padhi
(C)
Bani
Singh
v.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(D)
Pratap
Singh
v.
State
of
Jharkhand
Ans
:
(B)
7. In which sections of Cr. P. C., the procedure for trial before a court of Sessions is provided ?
(A)
260
to
265
(B)
238
to
250
(C)
251
to
259
(D)
225
to
237
Ans
:
(D)
8. Investigation includes
(A)
For
(B)
For
(C)
(D)
Ans
all
by
police
of
a
officer
evidence
trial
trial
above
(A)
9. If the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the case, the magistrate may, in his
discretion,
discharge
the
accused
in
certain
circumstances.
In which one of the following circumstances the accused cannot be discharged ?
(A)
When
the
charge
has
been
framed
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
When
When
When
the
the
the
proceeding
offence
offence
has
been
:
is
is
instituted
compoundable
noncognizable
on
complaint
(A)
10. A warrant of arrest and a proclamation under section 82 of Cr. P. C. were issued simultaneously
and later a consequential order of attachment under section 83 was also issued. What is the legality
of
these
orders
?
(A)
All
the
orders
are
perfectly
legal
(B) The order under section 82 is legal but order under section 83 is illegal
(C) The order under section 82 is illegal and improper vitiating the consequential order of attachment
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(C)
11. An offence is committed by a British citizen on an aircraft registered in India. The offender may be
dealt with under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
(A)
Section
188
(B)
Section
183
(C)
Section
182
(D)
Section
186
Ans
:
(A)
12. In which of the following cases it was held that the accused cannot use the case diary ? Neither
the accused nor his counsel can requisition the case diary and they cannot claim to go through it ?
(A)
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
v.
Harish
Chandra
Singh
(B)
Madhu
Limaye
v.
Union
of
India
(C)
Mukund
Lal
v.
Union
of
India
(D)
J.
M.
Desai
v.
State
of
Bombay
Ans
:
(C)
13. Which section of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the power of Sessions Judge to
transfer
cases
and
appeals
?
(A)
Section
409
(B)
Section
408
(C)
Section
407
(D)
Section
406
Ans
:
(B)
14.
Consider
the
following
statements
1.
Illegal
arrest
does
not
vitiate
the
trial.
2.
A
confession
is
not
invalidated
by
the
illegal
arrest.
3. Mere keeping a person in police station or restricting his movement within the precincts of a police
station
amounts
to
arrest.
4. Arrest need not be by handcuffing a person, but could be complete by spoken words.
Select
the
correct
answer
using
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A)
Only
1
and
2
are
correct
(B)
Only
1
and
4
are
correct
(C)
Only
1,
2
and
4
are
correct
(D)
1,
2,
3
and
4
all
are
correct
Ans
:
(C)
15. Under section 77
(A)
Within
the
(B)
At
(C)
At
(D)
Within
Ans
16.
Summons
case
of
case
relating
to
an
may be
issuing
the
in
District
offence,
executed
warrant
state
India
court
(C)
punishable
with
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
17. Who
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
18.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Imprisonment
for
for
a
for
a
Imprisonment
Imprisonment
Imprisonment
can
commute
The
The
The
for
a
term
of
exceeding
exceeding
term
term
:
not
the
sentence of imprisonment
Appropriate
President
Governor
of
Home
Minister
:
for
life
under
of
the
of
life
years
years
years
(D)
10
two
two
the
Cr.
P. C. ?
Government
India
State
State
(A)
In
a
cognizable
offence
a
police
officer
cannot
arrest
an
accused
without
warrant
can
keep
the
accused
in
police
custody
without
a
remand
order
is
not
required
to
produce
the
accused
before
a
magistrate
may
arrest
an
accused
without
warrant
:
(D)
19.
The
objective
of
the
Police
Act
1949
is
(A) To reorganise the police and to make it a more efficient instrument for the prevention and
detection
of
crime
(B)
To
amend
the
law
relating
to
the
regulation
of
police
force
(C) To provide for the constitution of a general police district embracing two or more Union Territories
and
for
the
establishment
of
a
police
force
therefore
(D) To give more powers to the Inspector General and Director General of Police
Ans
:
(C)
20.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Police
Any
21.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
22.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
For
Civil
Armed
Mounted
Village
Diary
Case
General
General
of
:
patrolling
police
police
police
Chaukidar
the
of
shall
shall
shall
shall
roads
be
be
be
be
:
The
Public
Prosecutor
should
A
Two
Three
A
:
is
Diary
Diary
Register
above
(A)
inspect
the
Malkhana
ordinarily
employed
employed
employed
employed
(A)
once
is
month
months
months
fortnight
(A)
23.
Which
of
the
following
is not correct
?
(A)
The
police
may
control
and
regulate
the
processions
(B) The police has power to forbid or issue order banning the procession in public interest
(C) Those who convene a public assembly, may be required to obtain a licence from the Police
Superintendent
(D) The police may lay down conditions for the conduct of the public assembly or procession
Ans
:
(C)
24. Special police officers may be appointed under section 17 of the Uttar Pradesh Police Act, 1861
by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
25.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Inspector
Any
Magistrate
on
Senior
Village
In
General
Magistrate
application
Superintendent
:
Chaukidars
Gram
charge
of
Superintendent
District
of
suo
Police
of
of
are
appointed
the
Police
of
Police
motu
Inspector
Police
(C)
by
Pradhan
Station
Police
Magistrate
(D)
26. Shall it be lawful for a police officer to take into custody a person who throws or lays down any
dirt, filth, rubbish or any stones on any road or street, which causes inconvenience or annoyance to
public
?
(A)
Yes,
even
without
warrant
(B)
Yes,
only
under
a
warrant
of
arrest
(C)
No,
because
it
is
not
an
offence
(D)
No,
because
the
police
officer
is
not
empowered
Ans
:
(A)
27. Particulars of which of the following organised gangs should not be entered in the gang
of
a
police
station
of
the
district
(A)
Gang
of
(B)
Gang
of
cattle
(C)
Gang
to
(D)
Gang
of
railway
goods
wagon
Ans
:
28. Is the Investigation Officer bound to reduce in writing
examination
under
section
161
of
the
(A)
(B)
(C)
Only
when
directed
by
(D)
Only
in
cases
Ans
:
register
?
Dacoits
thieves
burglars
thieves
(B)
29. Which of the following is not required to be recorded in the General Diary ?
(A)
Details
contained
in
a
First
Information
Report
(B)
Departure
and
return
of
police
officers
on
and
from
duty
(C)
Receipt
and
disbursement
of
cash
(D)
Arrests
made
at
the
police
station
Ans
:
(A)
30.
Which
of
the
following
is not a
duty
of
the
police
officer
?
(A) To obey and execute all orders and warrants issued to him by any competent authority
(B)
To
collect
and
communicate
intelligence
affecting
the
public
peace
(C)
To
prevent
the
commission
of
offences
and
public
nuisances
(D) To take charge of all unclaimed property and dispose the same as the circumstances demand
Ans
:
(D)
31. History-sheet of class A, that is for dacoits, burglars, cattle thieves, railway goods wagon thieves
and
abettors
thereof,
may
be
discontinued
with
the
sanction
of
(A)
Superintendent
of
Police
(B)
District
Magistrate
(C)
Deputy
Inspector
General
of
Police
(D)
Inspector
General
of
Police
Ans
:
(A)
32. Which of the following entries is not made in the village crime Note-Book Part-I ?
(A)
Main
Castes
and
Tribals
(B)
Specialities
of
the
Population
(C)
Entries
of
offences
against
the
State
(D)
The
village
choukidar
Ans
:
(C)
33. No warrant of arrest in a noncognizable offence shall for any reason be kept by the police for more
than
(A)
One
month
(B)
Two
months
(C)
Six
weeks
(D)
Fifteen
days
Ans
:
(C)
34. In every Statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown from the language of the
Statute.
This
view
was
expressed
in
(A)
Sherras
Vs.
De
Rutzen
(B)
R.
Vs.
Dudley
and
Stephen
(C)
Queen
Vs.
Tolson
(D)
R.
Vs.
Arnold
Ans
:
(A)
35. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the borders and a person within the Indian
border is killed. The relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani to border Indian
Police
Station.
Can
the
Indian
courts
try
the
accused
for
murder
?
(A)
No,
Indian
courts
have
no
jurisdiction
(B)
Yes
(C) He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial in Pakistan
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Who
among
Chief
Chairman
of
Surveyor
Employee
the
following
Minister
the
Central
of
an
of
a
:
is not a
of
Board
public
servant
?
a
State
of
Film
Censors
Insurance
Company
Nationalized
Bank
(C)
37. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below
the
Lists
List-I
(a)
Kehar
Singh
Vs.
Delhi
Administration
(b)
Nawab
Ali
Vs.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(c)
Vishwanath
Vs.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(d)
Mehboob
Shah
Vs.
Emperor
List-II
1.
Right
of
private
defence
2.
Criminal
Conspiracy
3.
Common
Intention
4.
Common
Object
5.
Mistake
of
fact
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
4
1
3
(B)
3
1
5
2
(C)
3
4
1
2
(D)
2
1
5
3
Ans
:
(A)
38. A makes an attempt to steal jewels by breaking open box, and finds after so opening the box, that
there
was
no
jewel
in
it.
What
offence
A
has
committed
?
(A)
Attempt
to
theft
(B)
Theft
(C)
Criminal
breach
of
trust
(D)
All
of
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
39. A sought to appear in LL.B. examination on the basis of forged marks-sheet of B.A., but forged
marks-sheet
was
detected
before
the
commencement
of
examination
(A)
A
is
not
guilty
of
cheating
(B)
A
is
guilty
of
attempt
to
cheat
(C)
A
is
guilty
of
cheating
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(C)
40.
Which
of
the
following
is not correct
?
(A) A person made non compos mentis by illness is exempted from criminal liability, if the act was
committed
under
the
influence
of
his
mental
disorder
(B) The intoxication, in order to be available as defence must be of that degree and extent as renders
the
accused
practically
an
automation
(C)
Voluntary
drunkenness
is
an
excuse
for
knowledge
(D) Except murder and offences punishable with death, compulsion is an excusable defence, if the act
is
done
under
the
fear
of
instant
death
Ans
:
(C)
41. Which of the following is not a meaning of the expression common intention under section 34 of
the
Indian
Penal
Code
?
(A) A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the persons
constituting
the
group
(B) A desire to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the consequence
(C) The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed
(D) Evil intent to necessarily commit the same offence which is committed
Ans
:
(B)
42. In which of the following cases necessity under section 81 of Indian Penal Code cannot be
pleaded
as
a
defence
?
(A)
Self-defence
and
prevention
of
violence
(B) Prevention of harm to the accused at the expense of an innocent person
(C)
Self-preservation
is
an
absolute
necessity
(D)
Choice
of
evils
affecting
person
other
than
the
accused
Ans
:
(C)
43. In which section of Indian Penal Code the maxim ignorantia juris non excusat is incorporated ?
(A)
Section
78
(B)
Section
76
(C)
Section
79
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
44. A, a child of exact seven years of age
(A)
not
be
guilty
under
section
82
(B)
be
guilty
if
he
is
(C)
not
be
covered
by
section
82
and
(D)
be
guilty
under
section
83
Ans
:
45. A holds Z down, and fraudulently takes Zs money and jewels from Zs clothes, without Zs
consent.
A
is
guilty
of
committing
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Theft
Extortion
Robbery
Dacoity
(C)
46. Distinction between Section 34 and 149 of IPC has been authoritatively expounded by the
Supreme
Court
in
(A)
State
of
Maharashtra
v.
M.
H.
George
(B)
Guru
Deo
Singh
v.
State
of
Punjab
(C)
Ram
Kumar
v.
State
of
Haryana
(D)
Nanak
Chand
v.
State
of
Punjab
Ans
:
(D)
47. Which of the following is not necessary to constitute abetment by conspiracy ?
(A)
A
conspiracy
between
two
or
more
persons
(B) An act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of that conspiracy
(C) Such an act or illegal omission must also take place in order to do the thing conspired
(D) The abettor should concert the offence with the person who commits it
Ans
:
(D)
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
(a)
Tukaram
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
(b)
State
Vs.
Nalini
(c)
Barendra
Kumar
Ghosh
Vs.
Emperor
(d)
State
of
Maharashtra
Vs.
Sukh
Deo
Singh
List-II
1.
General
A.S.
Vaidya
case
2.
Mathura
rape
case
3.
Post-master
murder
case
4.
Rajeev
Gandhi
murder
case
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
4
3
1
(B)
1
2
3
4
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
3
1
2
4
Ans
:
(A)
49. If in a trial for causing death by negligence it is established that the accused had been at fault
though
victim
had
also
been
equally
at
fault
(A) The fact that the actual injury was brought about by carelessness or contribution of the victim also,
will
be
no
defence
(B)
Contributory
negligence
would
be
a
good
defence
(C) The degree of culpability as to the amount of negligence on his part shall be deciding factor
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
50.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Which
one
of
the
following
Bitter
criticism
of
the
Inducing
people
to
cease
to
A
publicist
attack
on
the
An
attempt
to
remove
:
is
punishable
government
to
obey
law
and
policies
of
the
Ministers
as
sedition
?
overthrow
it
lawful
authority
the
government
from
power
(B)
51. A, for the purpose of inducing B to desist from prosecuting a civil suit, threatens to burn Bs
house.
What
offence
was
committed
by
A
in
this
case
?
(A)
Abetment
(B)
Criminal
assault
(C)
(D)
Ans
Criminal
Criminal
:
force
intimidation
(D)
52. A, with the intention of murdering Z, instigates B, a child below seven years at age, to do an act
which causes Zs death. B, in consequence of instigation, did the act in the absence of A, thereby
causes
Zs
death.
What
offence
has
been
committed
by
A
?
(A)
No
offence,
because
A
was
not
present
at
the
time
of
murder
(B)
Committed
simple
offence
of
causing
hurt
(C)
Committed
offence
of
attempt
to
murder
(D)
Committed
murder
Ans
:
(D)
53. The Supreme Court of India has upheld the constitutional validity of section 497 of Indian Penal
Code
(Adultery)
in
(A)
Smt.
Sowmithri
Vishnu
Vs.
Union
of
India
(B)
K.
M.
Nanawati
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
(C)
Priya
Bala
Ghosh
Vs.
Suresh
Chandra
Ghosh
(D)
Sukhbeer
Singh
Vs.
State
of
Haryana
Ans
:
(A)
54.
In
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
55.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Point
theft
Dishonest
Dishonest
Dishonest
Dishonest
out
there
to
take
to
take
to
take
to
take
:
intention
intention
intention
intention
correct
must
any
kind
of
any
valuable
any
movable
only
immovable
response
be
property
security
property
property
(C)
Which
of
the
following
is
not
an
illustration
of
assault
?
A
takes
up
a
stick
saying
to
B,
I
will
beat
you
A
threatens
B
to
see
him
later
on
A
medically
examines
a
woman
B
without
her
consent
A
throws
brickbats
into
the
house
of
B
:
(B)
56. A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells Z that they will fire at Z if Z
attempts
to
leave
the
building
(A)
A
wrongfully
restrains
Z
(B)
A
wrongfully
obstructs
Z
(C)
A
wrongfully
confines
Z
(D)
A
wrongfully
orders
Z
Ans
:
(C)
57.
Which
one
of
the
following
is
an
illustration
of
criminal
attempt
?
(A)
A
tries
to
kill
B
by
witchcraft
(B) A administers a poisonous drug to a woman B with an intention to cause miscarriage, but the
woman
was
not
pregnant
(C) A takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else
(D) A goes to Kolkata to buy dyes to make counterfeit currency notes
Ans
:
(B)
58. A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
59.
has
knocked down
Attempt
Which one
four
teeth
of B.
to
Causing
Causing
Attempt
has
committed
cause
the
grievous
to
:
of
the
following
is
not
punishable
under
the
Indian
offence
of
hurt
hurt
hurt
murder
(C)
Penal Code
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Preparation
Preparation
Preparation
to
Preparation to commit
to
to
wage
depredation
on
war
the
commit
commit
against
territory of
the
friendly
murder
dacoity
state
power
(A)
60. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her fathers house with Rs. 10,000 and accompanied Z to
various places. All the traveling as well as Hotel charges were paid out of the said amount as Z had
no money. During the course of their journey Z had sexual intercourse with her thrice with her
consent.
Here
Z
is
liable
under
section
(A)
363
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(B)
366
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(C)
366-A
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(D)
376
of
Indian
Penal
Code
Ans
:
(D)
61. Assertion (A) : Homicide is the killing of a human
Reason
(R)
: Homicide
is
Select
the
correct
answer
with
the
help
of
Codes
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
Ans
:
62. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
(a)
Act
of
Judge
when
acting
judicially
(b)
Accident
in
doing
a
lawful
act
(c)
Act
of
a
child
under
seven
years
of
age
(d)
Act
of
a
person
of
unsound
mind
List-II
1.
Section
82
of
I.P.C.
2.
Section
84
of
I.P.C.
3.
Section
77
of
I.P.C.
4.
Section
80
of
I.P.C.
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
4
1
2
3
(B)
3
4
1
2
(C)
1
2
3
4
(D)
2
3
4
1
Ans
:
(B)
63. X and Y agreed to commit murder of Z by poisoning and Y was to procure poison, but he did
not
procure
it.
X
and
Y
are
guilty
of
(A)
Abetment
of
murder
by
conspiracy
(B) Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 of Indian Penal Code
(C)
No
offence
(D)
Criminal
conspiracy
to
murder
Z
Ans
:
(D)
64.
Which
of
the
following
statements
is
correct
?
(A) The right of private defence under Indian Penal Code is available even against an act which is not
offence
under
the
code
(B) The right of private defence can be exercised to repeal unlawful aggression and also to retaliate
(C) The right of private defence is available to defend only ones own person and property
(D) The right of private defence extends to the causing of death when the assault is made with the
intention
of
wrongfully
confining
a
person
Ans
(D)
65. A shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe
that
A
is
about
to
strike
Z.
A
has
committed
(A)
Use
of
force
(B)
Use
of
criminal
force
(C)
Assault
(D)
Use
of
force
and
assault
both
Ans
:
(C)
66. A sent through the post office, a packet containing seditious publications, with a covering letter
requesting the addressee to circulate it to others. It was intercepted and never reached the
addressee.
A
(A)
Committed
the
offence
of
sedition
(B)
Did
not
commit
any
offence
(C)
Is
guilty
of
inciting
communal
riot
(D)
Is
guilty
of
an
attempt
to
commit
sedition
Ans
:
(D)
67.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Which
one
of
the
following
is
an
inchoate-crime
?
Riot
attempt
assembly
nuisance
(B)
Criminal
Unlawful
Public
:
68. Assault
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
in
order
to
outrage
Section
Section
Section
Section
the
modesty
of
woman
350
351
353
354
is
punishable
under
I.P.C.
I.P.C.
I.P.C.
I.P.C.
(D)
69. Which of the following would not be relevant in evidence under section 8 of Indian Evidence Act ?
(A)
Evidence
of
the
existence
of
a
motive
for
the
crime
charged
(B)
Evidence
of
a
statement
which
accompanies
some
conduct
(C) Evidence of a statement which influences and affects the conduct of a person, whose conduct is
otherwise
relevant
(D) Evidence of a statement of the act of robbery without making any complaint
Ans
:
(D)
70. In a case where a doctor commits rape on a woman of 30 years of age under his treatment and
the
woman
says
that
she
did
not
consent,
the
court
(A)
will
need
proof
(B)
shall
presume
that
she
did
not
consent
(C)
may
need
corroboration
(D)
may
presume
or
may
not
presume
her
consent
Ans
:
(B)
71.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Which
one
of
the
following
is
a
judgement-in-personam
?
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
divorce
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
restitution
of
conjugal
rights
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
insolvency
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
admiralty
matters
:
(B)
72. Which of the following is not correct for relevancy of evidence to prove conspiracy ?
(A) There must be reasonable ground to believe that two or more persons have entered into a
conspiracy
(B) The act in question must have been done after the time when the intention to conspire was first
entertained
by
any
of
them
(C) The act must have been done in reference to their common intention
(D) It can also be used in favour of the other party or for the purpose of showing that such a person
was
not
a
party
to
the
conspiracy
Ans
:
(D)
73.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Who
amongst
the
following
is
not
bribe
an
A
A
A
person
receiving
:
stolen
accomplice
?
giver
detective
prostitute
property
(B)
74.
The
English
doctrine
of
Res
Gestae
(A)
has
no
place
in
India
(B)
has
place
in
India
(C) has place in India and has been incorporated under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(D) has been incorporated under section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Ans
:
(C)
75. Assertion
(A)
: An
admission
can
be
used
against
a
co-defendant.
Reason (R) : An admission binds the maker of it. It may be used in his favour as well.
Select
the
correct
answer
from
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(B)
76. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding admission under section 17 of Indian
Evidence
Act
?
(A)
Admission
operates
as
waiver
of
proof
(B)
Admission
is
a
statement
which
is
necessarily
against
ones
own
interest
(C) A statement which suggests some inference as to fact-in-issue or relevant fact, may be admission
(D)
It
is
generally
irrelevant
as
to
whom
an
admission
is
made
Ans
:
(D)
77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
(a)
Section
46
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(b)
Section
47
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(c)
Section
47A
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(d)
Section
48
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
List-II
1.
Opinion
as
to
digital
signature
2.
Opinion
as
to
existence
of
right
or
custom,
when
relevant
3.
Facts
bearing
upon
opinion
of
experts
4.
Opinion
as
to
handwriting
when
relevant
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
4
3
2
1
(B)
1
2
3
4
(C)
2
1
4
3
(D)
3
4
1
2
Ans
:
(D)
78. When can a person prove his own statement constituting admission, or it may be proved on his
behalf
(A)
When
(B)
When
(C)
When
(D) When it is
Ans
it
only
is
it
it
an
oral
relevant
is
is
admission
:
?
as
dying
declaration
relevant
as
admission
relevant
as
confession
as to content of electronic record
(A)
79. Assertion (A) : A confession always goes against the maker of it, provided it has been made
freely
and
voluntarily.
Reason
(R)
:A
confession
is
inadmissible
against
a
coaccused.
Choose
the
correct
answer
using
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(C)
80. A statement before the police officer in the course of investigation was that the design was carried
out according to plan; but no reference was made to persons who were involved in murder or to the
maker
of
statement
himself
(A) Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this statement, being hit by section 25 of Indian
Evidence
Act
(B) Prosecution may prove this statement. It is not hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(C) Only that part of the statement may be proved which leads to discovery of a fact in consequence
of
information
received
(D)
None
of
the
above
is
correct
Ans
:
(C)
81.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Admissions
Conclusive
Not
None
Conclusive
Not
the
of
above
is
are
proof
proof
estoppel
correct
(B)
82. What is the evidentiary value of the confession of a co-accused implicating himself as well as his
other
non-confessing
coaccused
?
(A)
Such
a
confession
is
relevant
against
all
the
co-accused
(B)
It
shall
not
be
relevant
against
non-confessing
coaccused
(C)
Such
a
confession
amounts
to
proof
of
guilt
of
all
the
coaccused
(D) If the confessing co-accused is acquitted of the main offence, his confession shall cease to be
admissible
Ans
:
(A)
83.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
84.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
Relevancy
and
admissibility
Neither
section
of
Indian
synonymous
Synonymous
Which
under
the
nor
and
:
Indian
Evidence
Section
Section
Section
Section
:
Evidence
co-extensive
Act
defines
Leading
Act
are
Synonymous
coextensive
Co-extensive
both
(B)
Question
?
140
141
142
143
(B)
85. The case of Sarat Chander Dey v. Gopal Chander Laha, (1891) 19 I.A. 203 is related to which of
the
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
following
section
of
Indian
Section
Section
Section
Section
:
Evidence
Act,
1872
?
6
115
124
45
(B)
86. In which year the electronic evidence was incorporated in the Indian evidence Act as a part of
documentary
Evidence
?
(A)
2001
(B)
2002
(C)
2000
(D)
1999
Ans
:
(C)
87.
Which
of
the
following
is not a
public
document
?
(A)
Records
of
a
nationalized
Bank
(B)
A
post-mortem
report
(C)
A
private
waqf
deed,
recorded
in
the
office
of
subregistrar
(D) Entries made by a police officer in the site inspection map and site memo
Ans
:
(B)
88. Where a married woman, dying of burns was a person of unsound mind and the medical
certificate vouchsafed her physical fitness for a statement and not the state of mind at the crucial
moment; in which of the following cases the court said that the statement could not be relied upon ?
(A)
Ravi
Chander
Vs.
State
of
Punjab
(B)
Shripatrao
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
(C)
Uka
Ram
Vs.
State
of
Rajasthan
(D)
Baldev
Raj
Vs.
State
of
Himachal
Pradesh
Ans
:
(A)
89.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
The
As
As
a
As
a
principle
of
Promissory
Estoppel
found
an
exception
to
the
doctrine
of
rule
of
future
consideration
in
the
law
rule
of
past
consideration
in
the
law
None
of
the
:
its
root
consideration
of
contract
of
contract
above
(B)
90. Under which section of Evidence Act, a tenant of immovable property is estopped from denying a
title
of
the
landlord
to
that
property
?
(A)
Section
115
(B)
Section
116
(C)
Section
117
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
91.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
The
case
of
Pakala
Narain
Res
Dying
:
Swamy
v.
Emperor
relates
to
gestae
declaration
Accomplice
Co-accused
(B)
92. An accused charged under section 302 and 304 B of the Indian Penal Code is acquitted of the
offence under section 302 of Indian Penal Code. The presumption under section 113 B of the
Evidence
Act
is
(A)
Automatically
refuted
(B)
Not
refuted
(C)
Not
relevant
(D)
Irrelevant
and
otiose
Ans
(B)
93. Assertion (A) : B writes to his wife C a letter, which contains defamatory matters about D. C
cannot
be
compelled
to
disclose
this
communication.
Reason (R) : Any communication made during subsistence of marriage by a husband to his wife or
vice-versa
is
protected
as
privileged
communication.
Select
the
correct
answer
from
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(A)
94. Any condition imposed by
(A)
Can
be
set
aside
(B)
Cannot
be
(C)
Can
be
modified
(D)
Can
be
set
Ans
bail
Court
court
Court
Court
(C)
95. During investigation of an offence of committing rape, medical examination of the alleged victim
may
be
done
(A)
Only
on
the
order
of
a
Magistrate
(B) Necessarily on the request of concerned investigation officer, if he deems it fit
(C) After the investigation officer obtains permission of his Superintendent of Police
(D) With the consent of such woman victim or of any person competent to give such consent on her
behalf
Ans
:
(D)
96.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
1973 is
executive
executive
executive
magistrates
(A)
97. Which of the following is not correct regarding provisions of bail in case of non-bailable offences ?
(A) Bail may be granted, if the court concerned comes to the conclusion that prosecution has failed to
establish
a
prima-facie
case
(B) Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in spite of existence of a prima-facie case there is
need to release such person on bail in view of facts and circumstances of case
(C) Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may be required for being identified by witness during
investigation
(D) If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for 7 years or more,
no person can be released on bail without giving an opportunity of hearing to the public prosecutor
Ans
:
(D)
98. Under which section of code of Criminal Procedure, security is taken of good behaviour from
habitual
offenders
?
(A)
Section
109
(B)
Section
110
(C)
Section
111
(D)
Section
112
Ans
:
(B)
99. Which of the following is not a duty of the Magistrate while recording confession under section
164
Cr.
P.
C.
?
(A) Duty to explain to the person making the confession that he is not bound to make confession
(B) Duty to work that if he makes a confession, it may be used as evidence against him
(C) Duty to record the confessional statement in the form of questions and answers
(D) Duty to be satisfied and have reason to believe the confession was voluntary
Ans
:
(C)
100. Which one of
(A)
D.
K.
(B)
Tama
(C)
Dinesh
(D)
Dimple
Ans : (A)
2. Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principles of law. Who said it ?
(A) Allen
(B) Bentham
(C) Holland
(D) Dias
Ans : (A)
4. An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth was the purpose of punishment according to the
(A) Deterrent theory
(B) Preventive theory
(C) Retributive theory
(D) Reformative theory
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following jurist distinguished between Lex Aeterma, Lex Naturalis, Lex Divina and Lex
Humana ?
(A) Cicero
(B) Justinian
(C) St. Thomas Acquinas
(D) Plato
Ans : (C)
7. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists
List-I
(a) Jurisprudence is Lawyers extra version.
(b) Source of Law is Volkgeist.
(c) Law is a union of primary and secondary rules.
(d) Legal system is a pyramidal structure of norms.
List-II
1. Hart
2. Kelsen
3. Julius stone
4. Savigny
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (C)
9. Which of the following Jurists has explained legal rights and duties in terms of Jural correlations
and jural opposites ?
(A) Hohfeld
(B) Mansfield
(C) Holland
(D) Holmes
Ans : (A)
10. According to Sir Henry Maine, the movement of progressive societies has been a movement from
11. The purpose of law is to bring pleasure and avoid pain. Who said it ?
(A) Bentham
(B) Salmond
(C) Kelsen
(D) Hobbes
Ans : (A)
14. Who among the following said that legislation is formal utterance (statement) of legislative organs
of the society ?
(A) Dias
(B) Allen
(C) Gray
(D) Black stone
Ans : (C)
15. THe celebrated essay Determining Ratio Decendi of case was written by
(A) Goodhart
(B) Winfield
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Julius stone
Ans : (A)
16. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists
List-I
(a) Historical School
(b) Vienna School
(c) Natural Law School
(d) Sociological School
List-II
1. Duguit 2. Stammler
3. Kelsen 4. Puchta
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (B)
17. The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty, said by
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Ihering
(C) Ehrlich
(D) Duguit
Ans : (D)
18. Law grows with a nation, increases with it and dies at its dissolution and is a characteristic of it.
This is the view of
(A) Natural Law School
(B) Historical School
(C) Analytical School
(D) Sociological School
Ans : (B)
20. Dealing with sources of law who from amongst the following says that The courts put life into the
dead words of statutes ?
(A) Holland
(B) Gray
(C) Salmond
(D) Austin
Ans : (B)
21. Analytical, Historical and Ethical Jurisprudence are three different parts of the Jurisprudence,
according to
(A) Salmond
(B) Ihering
(C) Hart
(D) Immanuel Kant
Ans : (A)
22. Even though Emergency is proclaimed, the enforcement of following rights through courts cannot
be suspended
(A) Art. 14, 19 and 21
(B) Art. 20, 21 and 22
(C) Art. 19 and 21
(D) Art. 20 and 21
Ans : (D)
23. Powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members are provided under
(A) Article105
(B) Article106
(C) Article107
(D) Article194
Ans : (A)
24. In which of the following cases Supreme Court has condemned cruelty or torture during Police
custody as being violative of Art 21 ?
(A) Francis Coralie Vs. Union of Territory of Delhi
(B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(C) P. Rethiram Vs. Union of India
(D) Olga Tellis Vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation
Ans : (A)
25. Which Article of the Constitution provides that an advice tendered by Ministers to the President
Shall not be inquired into in any court ?
(A) Article74(1)
(B) Article74(2)
(C) Article75
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
26. In order to prevent defection of Members of Parliament, Clause (2) in Article 102 and Schedule X
were added
(A) By Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
(B) By Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978
(C) By Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
28. The State shall endeavour to promote international peace and security. is provided in
(A) Article-48A
(B) Article-49
(C) Article-50
(D) Article-51
Ans : (D)
31. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists
List-I
(a) The Constitution (52th Amendment)
(b) The Constitution (86th Amendment)
(c) The Constitution (1st Amendment)
(d) The Constitution (93rd Amendment)
List-II
1. Reservation in election
2. Ninth Schedule
3. Tenth Schedule
4. Right to Education
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (B)
32. The Indian Constitution provides a Unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than
Federal State with subsidiary Unitary features. This statement is of
(A) Sir Ivor Jennings
(B) K. C. Wheare
(C) A. V. Dicey
(D) S.A. de Smith
Ans : (B)
34. Which Provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the Government
of the State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution ?
(A) Article-352
(B) Article-355
(C) Article-356
(D) Article-360
Ans : (B)
38. To whom the Speaker of Lok Sabha should address his letter of resignation ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)
39. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities ?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Ans : (C)
41. Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters is stated in Article.
(A) 131
(B) 132
(C) 136
(D) 134
Ans : (D)
42. The President of India has power to grant pardon under which Article ?
(A) 172
(B) 74
(C) 72
(D) 92
Ans : (C)
43. According to which decision of the Supreme Court, the state cannot impose its reservation policy
upon any unaided private professional educational institution ?
(A) M. Nagaraj Vs. Union of India
(B) P. A. Inamdar Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) TMA Pai foundation Vs.State of Karnataka
(D) Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India
Ans : (B)
44. Establishment of Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States is provided under
(A) Article316
(B) Article319
(C) Article315
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
46. How many States signed the charter of United Nations at San Francisco in 1945 ?
(A) 41
(B) 15
(C) 51
(D) 52
Ans : (C)
48. Who formulated the theory of Pacta Sunt Sirvanda to explain the basis of international law ?
(A) By Kelsen
(B) By Oppenheim
(C) By Starke
(D) By Anzilotti
Ans : (D)
49. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter, the Security Council may use armed force against a State
?
(A) 42
(B) 45
(C) 41
(D) 51
Ans : (A)
50. Who said A State is and becomes an international person through recognition only exclusively ?
(A) Holland
(B) Hall
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Starke
Ans : (C)
53. Who said that usage represents the initial stage of custom; custom begins when usage ends ?
(A) Starke
(B) Brierly
(C) Hall
(D) Grotius
Ans : (A)
54. The Second World Conference on Human Rights, 1993 was held in
(A) Vienna
(B) Paris
(C) Geneva
(D) New Delhi
Ans : (A)
55. The Selection blockade of Cuba by the United states of America was done in
(A) October, 1962
(B) December, 1960
(C) September, 1962
(D) October, 1963
Ans : (D)
57. Though there is no specific provision reagrading withdrawal from membership of the U.N. Charter,
yet one of the following withdrew from it
(A) India
(B) Iran
(C) Iraq
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
58. Assertion (A) : The United Nations is based on the sovereign equality of States.
Reason (R) : Permanent members of the Security Council have veto power.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)
59. Which from amongst the following is primary source of International Law ?
(A) Judicial Decisions
(B) Writings of International Jurists
(C) International Usages
(D) International Customs
Ans : (D)
60. Which one of the following organs of the U.N. has the power to suspend or expel a member of
United Nations ?
61. How many principles of the U.N. are laid down for organic observance by the United Nations ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Two
(D) Seven
Ans : (D)
62. The International Court of Justice may decide a case ex aequo et bono if
(A) The court deems it necessary
(B) The President of the court desires so
(C) The General Assembly requests the court
(D) The parties concerned agree for it
Ans : (D)
63. The view that international law is not law but international positive morality was held by
(A) Oppenheim
(B) Starke
(C) Holland
(D) Austin
Ans : (D)
64. Which judge is considered pioneer in the growth of the principle of absolute liability in tort ?
(A) Blackburn J.
(B) Lord Denning M.R.
(C) Lord Halsbury
(D) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
Ans : (D)
65. There is no distinction between Sovereign functions and Non- Sovereign functions of State in
regard to liability of State in tort is said in the case of
(A) Kasturi Lal Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Nagraj Rao & Co. Vs. State of A.P.
(C) State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidhyawati
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)
66. Who among the following has propounded the Pigeon Hole Theory related to law of torts ?
(A) Winfield
(B) Underhill
(C) Salmond
(D) Flemming
Ans : (C)
67. In which of the following case relating to contributory negligence, the principle first applied by the
Court came to be known as the Last opportunity rule ?
(A) Butterfield Vs. Forrester
(B) Davies Vs. Mann
(C) Admiralty Commissioner V.S.S. Volute
68. A master is liable for the tort committed by his servant the servant acts
(A) For the benefit of his master
(B) During his duty hours
(C) In the course of his employment
(D) To the detriment of the plaintiff
Ans : (C)
70. If it was a lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it. This
observation was made by the court in one of the following cases
(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles
(B) Ashby Vs. White
(C) Christei Vs. Davey
(D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet
Ans : (A)
71. As a legislative sequal to the Oleum Gas leak case, the Indian Parliament enacted a law. Which of
the following was that legislation ?
(A) National Environment Tribunal Act
(B) Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Act
(C) Public Liability Insurance Act
(D) Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act
Ans : (C)
74. Which of the following requirements from an essential element of the defence of fair comment in
the tort of defamation ?
1. The matter commented on must be of public interest.
2. It must be an assertion of fact.
3. It must be an expression of opinion.
4. The comment must be fair
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
76. There is a childrens school by the side of a highway. While classes are going on, two children of
the school stray on the highway. A truck is moving on the highway at narmal speed. While trying to
avoid hitting the children, the truck collides with a bullock-cart. One person is injured, the bullocks die
and the truck is also damaged. Which one of the following propositions correctly describes the
liability ?
(A) The school administration would be liable because they were negligent
(B) The truck driver shall be liable because he did not take care
(C) The bullock-cart puller would be liable because he has not taken due care
(D) The children would be liable as they have contributed to the accident
Ans : (A)
78. Youssonpoff Vs. M.G.M. Pictures Ltd., is a leading case on which of the following ?
(A) Defamation
(B) Negligence
(C) Contributory Negligence
(D) Strict liability
Ans : (A)
79. Assertion (A) : Tort liability and criminal liability are similar in some respects only.
Reason (R) : Because both are based on a duty primarily fixed by law and the duty is towards
persons generally.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)
80. Which one of the following limitations to the rule of Volenti non fit injuria is not correct?
(A) The consent should be free
(B) Consent to illegal act is no consent
(C) Consent in rescue cases is no consent
81. A sings obscene songs near the gate of Girls Degree College, what offence he has committed ?
(A) Assault
(B) Outraging the modesty of a women
(C) Criminal intimidation
(D) Obscenity
Ans : (D)
84. For a sexual intercourse by the husband against the will of his wife, to be a rape the age of the
wife should be
(A) Below 17 years
(B) Below 15 years
(C) Below 16 years
(D) Below 18 years
Ans : (B)
85. Assertion (A) : To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted
should be committed.
Reason (R) : Because an abetment of an offence itself is an offence.
Codes :
(A) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Ans : (C)
86. X and Y agree to commit theft in Zs house but no theft is actually committed, they are guilty of
(A) No offence
(B) Abetment by conspiracy
(C) Abetment by instigation
(D) Criminal conspiracy
Ans : (D)
87. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists
List-I
(a) Insanity as a defence
88. A instigates B to burn Zs house. B sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of
property there. In this case
(A) A is guilty of theft by setting fire to the house
(B) A, though guilty of abetting the burning of the house, is not guilty of abetting the theft
(C) A is guilty of abetting the burning of the house as well as abetting the offence of theft
(D) A is neither guilty of abetting the burning of the house nor of theft
Ans : (B)
89. Some militants are hiding in a house occupied by an individual. Militants are engaged in an attack
on the police party by firing from the house. The police persons, to defend themselves, fire towards
the house and an innocent person in the house is hit by the bullet and dies as a result thereof. The
police persons are guilty of
(A) No offence as they can claim the right of private defence
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Murder
(D) Death by rash or negligent act
Ans : (A)
90. A amd B were going on a boat. Suddenly the boat began to sink. A pushed B in the river and
saved himself. B was drowned
(A) A is justified in pushing B as it was an act of necessity
(B) No necessity except private defence is justifiable in killing a man
(C) It was done under compulsion
(D) All of the above are incorrect
Ans : (D)
91. The general exception based on the maxim de minimum non curat lex is
(A) Triviality
(B) Accident
(C) Consent
(D) Self-defence
Ans : (A)
92. The Supreme Court decision State Vs. Mayor Hans George AIR 1965 SC 722 is famous for
(A) Strict interpretation of the socio-economic offence statutes
(B) Condition of implied exclusion of a mens rea.
(C) Non-exclusion of mens rea unless the statute expressly requires so
93. In which of the following case, The Supreme Court held that Persistent demand of dowry is
cruelty against wife ?
(A) Hafizunissan Vs. Mohamad Yasin Khan
(B) Mohammed Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano
(C) Anuradha Vs. Dr. Srikant
(D) Nijhawan Vs. Nijhawan
Ans : (C)
94. In every statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown. This view was expressed in
96. What is the minimum of persons required to further the common object ?
(A) 2 or more than 2 persons
(B) 4 persons
(C) 5 or more than 5 persons
(D) Number of persons is not certain
Ans : (C)
97. A occasionally has sexual intercourse with the wife of C without his consent. Under which
Section of IPC C can seek remedy ?
(A) 494
(B) 495
(C) 496
(D) 497
Ans : (D)
98. The father and mother-in-law of a woman subject her to cruelty for dowry. Which of the following
Section of IPC provides punishment ?
(A) Sec. 323
(B) Sec. 350
(C) Sec. 349
(D) Sec. 498 A
Ans : (D)
99. Against which of the following offences right of private defence of body does not extend to the
causing of death ?
(A) Rape
(B) Gratifying unnatural offence
(C) Causing miscarriage
(D) Kidnapping
Ans : (C)
100. The provision of India Penal Code have come into operation from the date ?
(A) November 30, 1861
(B) January 1, 1862
(C) July 1, 1862
(D) December 31, 1862
Ans : (B)
103. A promises to paint a picture for B. B afterwards forbids him to do so. A is no longer bound to
perform to promise under which of the following Section ?
(A) Section63
(B) Section62
(C) Section64
(D) Section65
Ans : (A)
104. Assertion (A) : A party to the contract excuses himself from performing his part of contract, on
the ground that he is left with no money or property to pay.
Reason (R) : An agreement to do an impossible act in itself is void and both parties are discharged
from future performance.
Make the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (D)
105. A knows that his horse had a damaged hoof which he filled up in such a way as to defy detection
and sold it to B. This defect was subsequently discovered by B. The act of A will amount to
(A) A false suggestion
(B) Active concealment of fact
(C) Misrepresentation
(D) Mistake
Ans : (B)
106. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct by using the codes given below the list
ListI
107. A promises B to pay C Rs. 10,000 A does not pay the amount to C. A can be forced to make
payment by
(A) B only
(B) C only
(C) B and C together
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
109. A promises to pay a sum of Rs. 50,000 to B, a judge to decide the case in his favour. It is
(A) A valid contract
(B) A voidable contract
(C) A void contract
(D) An illegal agreement
Ans : (C)
Ans : (B)
112. A, B and C enter into an agreement for the division among them of gains to be acquired by them
by fraud
(A) The agreement is void
(B) The agreement is valid
(C) The agreement is voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
113. A is indebted to B, but the debt is barred by Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay Rs.
10,000 to B on account of the debt. This agreement is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
117. A minor mortgaged his house in favour of a money lender to secure a loan of Rs. 20,000 taken
for his education. Money lender secures payment but minor refuses to pay for. Point out the correct
legal position
(A) Minor is not liable to pay loan as the contract is void
(B) Money lender can recover the rent from the estate of the minor
(C) Minor is personally liable to pay the loan.
(D) Minor will be bound by the mortgage, but not by the loan
Ans : (B)
119. Public policy is a unruly horse, and when once you get astride it, you never know where it will
carry you. This quotation is related to
(A) Gherulal Vs. Mahadeodas
(B) Richardson Vs. Mellish
(C) Fender Vs. John Mildmay
(D) Egerton Vs. Brownlaw
Ans : (B)
120. A is trading with several types of oils. A agrees to sell to B a hundred tons of oil the
agreement is void, because
(A) It is uncertain
(B) There is no consideration
(C) There is no free consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
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