Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 87

The Criminal Law (Amendment) Ordinance, 2013

New offences
This new Act has expressly recognised certain acts as offences which were dealt under related
laws. These new offences like, acid attack, sexual harassment, voyeurism, stalking have been
incorporated into the Indian Penal Code:

Section

Offence

Punishment

Notes

Imprisonment not less than ten


years but which may extend to
imprisonment for life and with
326A

Acid attack

fine which shall be just and

Gender neutral

reasonable to meet the medical


expenses and it shall be paid to
the victim

Imprisonment not less than five


326B

Attempt to

years but which may extend to

Acid attack

seven years, and shall also be

Gender neutral

liable to fine
Only protects women. Provisions are:
i.

physical contact and advances


involving unwelcome and

Rigorous imprisonment up to
three years, or with fine, or with
354A

Sexual
harassment

explicit sexual overtures; or


ii.

favours; or

both in case of offence described


in clauses (i), (ii) or (iii)

iii.

making sexually coloured


remarks; or

Imprisonment up to one year, or


with fine, or with both in other

a demand or request for sexual

iv.

cases

forcibly showing pornography;


or

v.

any other unwelcome physical,


verbal or non-verbal conduct of
sexual nature.

Only protects women against anyone


Act with intent Imprisonment not less than three who "Assaults or uses criminal force to
354B

to disrobe a

years but which may extend to

any woman or abets such act with the

woman

seven years and with fine.

intention of disrobing or compelling her


to be naked."
Only protects women. By implication,

In case of first conviction,


imprisonment not less than one
year, but which may extend to
three years, and shall also be
liable to fine, and be punished on
354C

Voyeurism

a second or subsequent
conviction, with imprisonment of
either description for a term
which shall not be less than three
years, but which may extend to
seven years, and shall also be
liable to fine.

women may prey voyeuristically upon


men with impunity. The prohibited
action is defines thus: "Watching or
capturing a woman in private act,
which includes an act of watching
carried out in a place which, in the
circumstances, would reasonably be
expected to provide privacy, and where
the victim's genitals, buttocks or
breasts are exposed or covered only in
underwear; or the victim is using a
lavatory; or the person is doing a
sexual act that is not of a kind ordinarily
done in public."
Only protects women from being
stalked by men. By implication, women
may stalk men with impunity. The
prohibited action is defined thus: "To
follow a woman and contact, or attempt
to contact such woman to foster

354D

Stalking

Imprisonment not less than one

personal interaction repeatedly despite

year but which may extend to

a clear indication of disinterest by such

three years, and shall also be

woman; or monitor the use by a woman

liable to fine

of the internet, email or any other form


of electronic communication. There are
exceptions to this section which include
such act being in course of preventing
or detecting a crime authorised by
State or in compliance of certain law or
was reasonable and justified."

Section 370 of Indian Penal Code (IPC) has been substituted with new sections, 370 and 370A
which deals with trafficking of person for exploitation. If a person (a) recruits, (b) transports, (c)

harbours, (d) transfers, or (e) receives, a person, by using threats, or force, or coercion,
or abduction, or fraud, or deception, or by abuse of power, or inducementfor exploitation
including prostitution, slavery, forced organ removal, etc. will be punished with imprisonment
ranging from at least 7 years to imprisonment for the remainder of that persons natural life
depending on the number or category of persons trafficked. [16] Employment of a trafficked person
will attract penal provision as well.[16]
The most important change that has been made is the change in definition of rape under IPC.
Although the Ordinance sought to change the word rape to sexual assault, in the Act the word
'rape' has been retained in Section 375, and was extended to include acts in addition to vaginal
penetration. The definition is broadly worded with acts like penetration of penis, or any object or
any part of body to any extent, into the vagina, mouth, urethra or anus of another person or
making another person do so, apply of mouth ortouching private parts constitutes the offence of
sexual assault. The section has also clarified that penetration means "penetration to any extent",
and lack of physical resistance is immaterial for constituting an offence. Except in certain
aggravated situations the punishment will be imprisonment not less than seven years but which
may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine. In aggravated situations,
punishment will be rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but
which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine.
A new section, 376A has been added which states that if a person committing the offence of
sexual assault, "inflicts an injury which causes the death of the person or causes the person to
be in a persistent vegetative state, shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which
shall not be less than twenty years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life, which shall
mean the remainder of that persons natural life, or with death." [17] In case of "gang rape", persons
involved regardless of their gender shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term
which shall not be less than twenty years, but which may extend to life and shall pay
compensation to the victim which shall be reasonable to meet the medical expenses and
rehabilitation of the victim. The age of consent in India has been increased to 18 years, which
means any sexual activity irrespective of presence of consent with a woman below the age of 18
will constitute statutory rape.
Certain changes has been introduced in the CrPC and Evidence Act, like the process of
recording the statement of the victim has been made more victim friendly and easy but the two
critical changes are: 1. the 'character of the victim' is now rendered totally irrelevant, and 2. there
is now a presumption of 'no consent' in a case where sexual intercourse is proved and the victim
states in the court that she did not consent.

The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013[edit]

The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 19 March 2013, and by the Rajya Sabha on 21 March
2013, making certain changes from the provisions in the Ordinance. [1][2][3] The Bill received
Presidential assent on 2 April 2013 and came into force from 3 April 2013. The changes made in
the Act incomparison with the Ordinance is listed as follows:
Offence

Acid attack

Changes

Fine shall be just and reasonable to meet medical expenses for treatment of victim,
while in the Ordinance it was fine up to Rupees 10 lakhs.

"Clause (v) any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual
Sexual

nature" has been removed. Punishment for offence under clause (i) and (ii) has

harassment

been reduced from five years of imprisonment to three years. The offence is no
longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a woman.

Voyeurism

The offence is no longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a
woman.

The offence is no longer gender-neutral, only a man can commit the offence on a
woman. The definition has been reworded and broken down into clauses, The
exclusion clause and the following sentence has been removed "or watches or
spies on a person in a manner that results in a fear of violence or serious alarm or
Stalking

distress in the mind of such person, or interferes with the mental peace of such
person, commits the offence of stalking". Punishment for the offence has been
changed; A man committing the offence of stalking would be liable for
imprisonment up to three years for the first offence, and shall also be liable to fine
and for any subsequent conviction would be liable for imprisonment up to five years
and with fine.

Trafficking of
person

"Prostitution" has been removed from the explanation clause

Uttar Pradesh Assistant Prosecution Officers (Pre.) Exam., 2007


(Held on 14-6-2009)

Law : Solved Paper


1.
Point
out
wrong
answer
An order maintenance may be passed under section 125 of Cr. P. C. where a person
neglects
or
refuses
to
maintain
(A)
his
wife
even
if
living
separately
by
mutual
consent
(B)
his
legitimate
or
illegitimate
minor
child
(C) his legitimate or illegitimate child who is by reason of any physical or mental
abnormality
or
injury,
unable
to
maintain
itself
(D)
his
father
or
mother
Ans
:
(A)
2.
An
order
of
discharge
(A)
is
not
a
judgement
(B) is not a defence against fresh proceedings without fresh facts and better
evidence
(C)
takes
place
after
formal
framing
of
charges
(D)
establishes
innocence
of
accused
Ans
:
(A)
3. Section 50 of Cr. P. C. provides that every person arrested without warrant shall
be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail, if the arrest is made for a
bailable offence. What is the effect of non-compliance of these provisions ?
(A) It shall not render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal
(B) Even if the provisions of this section are overlooked, error may be corrected later
(C) It shall render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal and shall
enable the person arrested move for habeas-corpus to obtain his release
(D) It is simply a procedural error and the provisions of this section are not very
material
Ans
:
(C)
4. In sub-section (1) of section 24 of the Cr. P. C., after the words Public Prosecutor,
the
words
inserted
are
(A)
One
or
more
additional
public
prosecutors
(B)
Two
or
more
additional
public
prosecutors
(C)
At
least
five
additional
public
prosecutors
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
5. The
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

offences which
Schedule
Schedule
Section
Section

can be
first
second
320

compounded are
of
Cr.
of
Cr.
of
Cr.

321

of
:

Cr.

provided
P.
P.
P.
P.

under
C.
C.
C.
C.
(C)

6. In which case, it was held that at the time of framing charge or taking cognizance,
accused
has
no
right
to
produce
any
material
?
(A)
Anil
Royal
v.
State
of
Bihar
(B)
State
of
Orissa
v.
Debendra
Nath
Padhi
(C)
Bani
Singh
v.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(D)
Pratap
Singh
v.
State
of
Jharkhand
Ans
:
(B)
7. In which sections of Cr. P. C., the procedure for trial before a court of Sessions is
provided
?
(A)
260
to
265
(B)
238
to
250
(C)
251
to
259
(D)
225
to
237
Ans
:
(D)
8. Investigation includes all the proceedings conducted by a police officer
(A)
For
the
collection
of
evidence
(B)
For
enquiry
than
a
trial
(C)
For
trial
(D)
All
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
9. If the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the case, the
magistrate may, in his discretion, discharge the accused in certain circumstances.
In which one of the following circumstances the accused cannot be discharged ?
(A)
When
the
charge
has
been
framed
(B)
When
the
offence
is
compoundable
(C)
When
the
offence
is
noncognizable
(D)
When
the
proceeding
has
been
instituted
on
complaint
Ans
:
(A)
10. A warrant of arrest and a proclamation under section 82 of Cr. P. C. were issued
simultaneously and later a consequential order of attachment under section 83 was
also
issued.
What
is
the
legality
of
these
orders
?
(A)
All
the
orders
are
perfectly
legal
(B) The order under section 82 is legal but order under section 83 is illegal
(C) The order under section 82 is illegal and improper vitiating the consequential
order
of
attachment
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(C)
11. An offence is committed by a British citizen on an aircraft registered in India. The
offender may be dealt with under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973
?
(A)
Section
188
(B)
Section
183
(C)
Section
182
(D)
Section
186

Ans

(A)

12. In which of the following cases it was held that the accused cannot use the case
diary ? Neither the accused nor his counsel can requisition the case diary and they
cannot
claim
to
go
through
it
?
(A)
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
v.
Harish
Chandra
Singh
(B)
Madhu
Limaye
v.
Union
of
India
(C)
Mukund
Lal
v.
Union
of
India
(D)
J.
M.
Desai
v.
State
of
Bombay
Ans
:
(C)
13. Which section of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the power of
Sessions
Judge
to
transfer
cases
and
appeals
?
(A)
Section
409
(B)
Section
408
(C)
Section
407
(D)
Section
406
Ans
:
(B)
14.
Consider
the
following
statements
1.
Illegal
arrest
does
not
vitiate
the
trial.
2.
A
confession
is
not
invalidated
by
the
illegal
arrest.
3. Mere keeping a person in police station or restricting his movement within the
precincts
of
a
police
station
amounts
to
arrest.
4. Arrest need not be by handcuffing a person, but could be complete by spoken
words.
Select
the
correct
answer
using
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A)
Only
1
and
2
are
correct
(B)
Only
1
and
4
are
correct
(C)
Only
1,
2
and
4
are
correct
(D)
1,
2,
3
and
4
all
are
correct
Ans
:
(C)
15. Under section 77 of Cr. P. C., a warrant of arrest may be executed
(A)
Within
the
local
jurisdiction
of
court
issuing
warrant
(B)
At
any
place
within
the
state
(C)
At
any
place
in
India
(D)
Within
the
jurisdiction
of
District
court
Ans
:
(C)
16. Summons case means a case relating to an offence, punishable with
(A)
Imprisonment
for
life
(B)
Imprisonment
for
a
term
of
10
years
(C)
Imprisonment
for
a
term
exceeding
two
years
(D)
Imprisonment
for
a
term
not
exceeding
two
years
Ans
:
(D)
17. Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life under Cr. P. C. ?
(A)
Appropriate
Government

(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

The
The
The

President
Governor
Home
Minister
:

of
of

India
State
State
(A)

the
the

of

18.
In
a
cognizable
offence
a
police
officer
(A)
cannot
arrest
an
accused
without
warrant
(B) can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
(C) is not required to produce the accused before a magistrate
(D)
may
arrest
an
accused
without
warrant
Ans
:
(D)
19.
The
objective
of
the
Police
Act
1949
is
(A) To reorganise the police and to make it a more efficient instrument for the
prevention
and
detection
of
crime
(B) To amend the law relating to the regulation of police force
(C) To provide for the constitution of a general police district embracing two or more
Union Territories and for the establishment of a police force therefore
(D) To give more powers to the Inspector General and Director General of Police
Ans
:
(C)
20.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Police

Any

21.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

For
Civil
Armed
Mounted
Village

22. The
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Public

Diary
Case
General
General
of
:

patrolling
police
police
police
Chaukidar

the
of
shall
shall
shall
shall

roads
be
be
be
be

:
Prosecutor

should inspect
A
Two
Three
A
:

the

Malkhana

is
Diary
Diary
Register
above
(A)
ordinarily
employed
employed
employed
employed
(A)
once

is
month
months
months
fortnight
(A)

23.
Which
of
the
following
is not correct
?
(A)
The
police
may
control
and
regulate
the
processions
(B) The police has power to forbid or issue order banning the procession in public
interest
(C) Those who convene a public assembly, may be required to obtain a licence from
the
Police
Superintendent
(D) The police may lay down conditions for the conduct of the public assembly or
procession

Ans

24. Special police officers may be


Police
Act,
(A)
Inspector
(B)
Any
(C)
Magistrate
on
(D)
Senior
Ans
25.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Village
In

(C)

appointed under section 17 of the Uttar Pradesh


1861
by
General
of
Police
Magistrate
suo
motu
application
of
Police
Inspector
Superintendent
of
Police
:
(C)

Chaukidars
Gram
charge
of
Superintendent
District

are

appointed

the

Police
of

by
Pradhan
Station
Police
Magistrate
(D)

26. Shall it be lawful for a police officer to take into custody a person who throws or
lays down any dirt, filth, rubbish or any stones on any road or street, which causes
inconvenience
or
annoyance
to
public
?
(A)
Yes,
even
without
warrant
(B)
Yes,
only
under
a
warrant
of
arrest
(C)
No,
because
it
is
not
an
offence
(D)
No,
because
the
police
officer
is
not
empowered
Ans
:
(A)
27. Particulars of which of the following organised gangs should not be entered in
the
gang
register
of
a
police
station
of
the
district
?
(A)
Gang
of
Dacoits
(B)
Gang
of
cattle
thieves
(C)
Gang
to
burglars
(D)
Gang
of
railway
goods
wagon
thieves
Ans
:
(B)
28. Is the Investigation Officer bound to reduce in writing any statement made to him
in the course of examination under section 161 of the code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A)
Yes
(B)
No
(C)
Only
when
directed
by
the
court
to
do
so
(D)
Only
in
cases
of
cognizable
offences
Ans
:
(B)
29. Which of the following is not required to be recorded in the General Diary ?
(A)
Details
contained
in
a
First
Information
Report
(B) Departure and return of police officers on and from duty
(C)
Receipt
and
disbursement
of
cash
(D)
Arrests
made
at
the
police
station
Ans
:
(A)
30.

Which

of

the

following

is not a

duty

of

the

police

officer

(A) To obey and execute all orders and warrants issued to him by any competent
authority
(B) To collect and communicate intelligence affecting the public peace
(C) To prevent the commission of offences and public nuisances
(D) To take charge of all unclaimed property and dispose the same as the
circumstances
demand
Ans
:
(D)
31. History-sheet of class A, that is for dacoits, burglars, cattle thieves, railway goods
wagon thieves and abettors thereof, may be discontinued with the sanction of
(A)
Superintendent
of
Police
(B)
District
Magistrate
(C)
Deputy
Inspector
General
of
Police
(D)
Inspector
General
of
Police
Ans
:
(A)
32. Which of the following entries is not made in the village crime Note-Book Part-I ?
(A)
Main
Castes
and
Tribals
(B)
Specialities
of
the
Population
(C)
Entries
of
offences
against
the
State
(D)
The
village
choukidar
Ans
:
(C)
33. No warrant of arrest in a noncognizable offence shall for any reason be kept by
the
police
for
more
than
(A)
One
month
(B)
Two
months
(C)
Six
weeks
(D)
Fifteen
days
Ans
:
(C)
34. In every Statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown from the
language
of
the
Statute.
This
view
was
expressed
in
(A)
Sherras
Vs.
De
Rutzen
(B)
R.
Vs.
Dudley
and
Stephen
(C)
Queen
Vs.
Tolson
(D)
R.
Vs.
Arnold
Ans
:
(A)
35. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the borders and a person within
the Indian border is killed. The relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the
Pakistani to border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian courts try the accused for
murder
?
(A)
No,
Indian
courts
have
no
jurisdiction
(B)
Yes
(C) He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial in Pakistan
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)

36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Who

among
Chief
Chairman
of
Surveyor
Employee

the

following
Minister
the
Central
of
an
of
a
:

is not a
public
servant
?
of
a
State
Board
of
Film
Censors
Insurance
Company
Nationalized
Bank
(C)

37. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the
codes
given
below
the
Lists
List-I
(a)
Kehar
Singh
Vs.
Delhi
Administration
(b)
Nawab
Ali
Vs.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(c)
Vishwanath
Vs.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(d)
Mehboob
Shah
Vs.
Emperor
List-II
1.
Right
of
private
defence
2.
Criminal
Conspiracy
3.
Common
Intention
4.
Common
Object
5.
Mistake
of
fact
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
4
1
3
(B)
3
1
5
2
(C)
3
4
1
2
(D)
2
1
5
3
Ans
:
(A)
38. A makes an attempt to steal jewels by breaking open box, and finds after so
opening the box, that there was no jewel in it. What offence A has committed ?
(A)
Attempt
to
theft
(B)
Theft
(C)
Criminal
breach
of
trust
(D)
All
of
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
39. A sought to appear in LL.B. examination on the basis of forged marks-sheet of
B.A., but forged marks-sheet was detected before the commencement of
examination
(A)
A
is
not
guilty
of
cheating
(B)
A
is
guilty
of
attempt
to
cheat
(C)
A
is
guilty
of
cheating
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(C)
40.
Which
of
the
following
is not correct
?
(A) A person made non compos mentis by illness is exempted from criminal liability, if
the act was committed under the influence of his mental disorder
(B) The intoxication, in order to be available as defence must be of that degree and
extent
as
renders
the
accused
practically
an
automation

(C)
Voluntary
drunkenness
is
an
excuse
for
knowledge
(D) Except murder and offences punishable with death, compulsion is an excusable
defence, if the act is done under the fear of instant death
Ans
:
(C)
41. Which of the following is not a meaning of the expression common intention
under
section
34
of
the
Indian
Penal
Code
?
(A) A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the
persons
constituting
the
group
(B) A desire to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the consequence
(C) The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed
(D) Evil intent to necessarily commit the same offence which is committed
Ans
:
(B)
42. In which of the following cases necessity under section 81 of Indian Penal Code
cannot
be
pleaded
as
a
defence
?
(A)
Self-defence
and
prevention
of
violence
(B) Prevention of harm to the accused at the expense of an innocent person
(C)
Self-preservation
is
an
absolute
necessity
(D)
Choice
of
evils
affecting
person
other
than
the
accused
Ans
:
(C)
43. In which section of Indian Penal Code the maxim ignorantia juris non excusat is
incorporated
?
(A)
Section
78
(B)
Section
76
(C)
Section
79
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
44. A, a child of exact seven years of age commits an offence. A will
(A)
not
be
guilty
under
section
82
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(B)
be
guilty
if
he
is
of
sufficient
maturity
(C) not be covered by section 82 and 83 of Indian Penal Code
(D)
be
guilty
under
section
83
of
Indian
Penal
Code
Ans
:
(C)
45. A holds Z down, and fraudulently takes Zs money and jewels from Zs clothes,
without
Zs
consent.
A
is
guilty
of
committing
(A)
Theft
(B)
Extortion
(C)
Robbery
(D)
Dacoity
Ans
:
(C)
46. Distinction between Section 34 and 149 of IPC has been authoritatively
expounded
by
the
Supreme
Court
in
(A)
State
of
Maharashtra
v.
M.
H.
George
(B)
Guru
Deo
Singh
v.
State
of
Punjab
(C)
Ram
Kumar
v.
State
of
Haryana

(D)
Ans

Nanak

Chand

v.
:

State

of

Punjab
(D)

47. Which of the following is not necessary to constitute abetment by conspiracy ?


(A)
A
conspiracy
between
two
or
more
persons
(B) An act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of that conspiracy
(C) Such an act or illegal omission must also take place in order to do the thing
conspired
(D) The abettor should concert the offence with the person who commits it
Ans
:
(D)
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below
the
Lists
List-I
(a)
Tukaram
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
(b)
State
Vs.
Nalini
(c)
Barendra
Kumar
Ghosh
Vs.
Emperor
(d)
State
of
Maharashtra
Vs.
Sukh
Deo
Singh
List-II
1.
General
A.S.
Vaidya
case
2.
Mathura
rape
case
3.
Post-master
murder
case
4.
Rajeev
Gandhi
murder
case
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
4
3
1
(B)
1
2
3
4
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
3
1
2
4
Ans
:
(A)
49. If in a trial for causing death by negligence it is established that the accused had
been at fault though victim had also been equally at fault
(A) The fact that the actual injury was brought about by carelessness or contribution
of
the
victim
also,
will
be
no
defence
(B)
Contributory
negligence
would
be
a
good
defence
(C) The degree of culpability as to the amount of negligence on his part shall be
deciding
factor
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
50. Which one
of the
following
is
punishable
as
sedition
?
(A)
Bitter
criticism
of
the
government
to
overthrow
it
(B) Inducing people to cease to obey law and lawful authority
(C)
A
publicist
attack
on
the
policies
of
the
government
(D)
An
attempt
to
remove
the
Ministers
from
power
Ans
:
(B)
51. A, for the purpose of inducing B to desist from prosecuting a civil suit, threatens
to burn Bs house. What offence was committed by A in this case ?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Criminal
Criminal
Criminal
:

Abetment
assault
force
intimidation
(D)

52. A, with the intention of murdering Z, instigates B, a child below seven years at
age, to do an act which causes Zs death. B, in consequence of instigation, did the
act in the absence of A, thereby causes Zs death. What offence has been
committed
by
A
?
(A) No offence, because A was not present at the time of murder
(B)
Committed
simple
offence
of
causing
hurt
(C)
Committed
offence
of
attempt
to
murder
(D)
Committed
murder
Ans
:
(D)
53. The
of
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Supreme Court of India has upheld the constitutional validity of section 497
Indian
Penal
Code
(Adultery)
in
Smt.
Sowmithri
Vishnu
Vs.
Union
of
India
K.
M.
Nanawati
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
Priya
Bala
Ghosh
Vs.
Suresh
Chandra
Ghosh
Sukhbeer
Singh
Vs.
State
of
Haryana
:
(A)

54.
In
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Point
theft
Dishonest
intention
Dishonest
intention
Dishonest
intention
Dishonest
intention

55.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

out
there
to
take
to
take
to
take
to
take
:

correct
response
must
be
any
kind
of
property
any
valuable
security
any
movable
property
only
immovable
property
(C)

Which of the following is not an illustration of assault ?


A takes
up
a
stick
saying
to
B,
I
will
beat
you
A
threatens
B
to
see
him
later
on
A medically
examines
a
woman
B without
her
consent
A
throws
brickbats
into
the
house
of
B
:
(B)

56. A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells Z that they will
fire
at
Z
if
Z
attempts
to
leave
the
building
(A)
A
wrongfully
restrains
Z
(B)
A
wrongfully
obstructs
Z
(C)
A
wrongfully
confines
Z
(D)
A
wrongfully
orders
Z
Ans
:
(C)
57. Which one of the following is an illustration of criminal attempt ?
(A)
A
tries
to
kill
B
by
witchcraft
(B) A administers a poisonous drug to a woman B with an intention to cause

miscarriage,
but
the
woman
was
not
pregnant
(C) A takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else
(D) A goes to Kolkata to buy dyes to make counterfeit currency notes
Ans
:
(B)
58. A has knocked down four teeth of B. A has committed the offence of
(A)
Attempt
to
cause
hurt
(B)
Causing
hurt
(C)
Causing
grievous
hurt
(D)
Attempt
to
murder
Ans
:
(C)
59. Which one of the following is not punishable under the Indian Penal Code ?
(A)
Preparation
to
commit
murder
(B)
Preparation
to
commit
dacoity
(C)
Preparation
to
wage
war
against
the
state
(D) Preparation to commit depredation on the territory of a friendly power
Ans
:
(A)
60. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her fathers house with Rs. 10,000 and
accompanied Z to various places. All the traveling as well as Hotel charges were
paid out of the said amount as Z had no money. During the course of their journey
Z had sexual intercourse with her thrice with her consent. Here Z is liable under
section
(A)
363
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(B)
366
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(C)
366-A
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(D)
376
of
Indian
Penal
Code
Ans
:
(D)
61. Assertion (A) : Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being.
Reason
(R)
: Homicide
is
always
unlawful.
Select the correct answer with the help of codes given below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(C)
62. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
below
the
List-I
(a)
Act
of
Judge
when
(b)
Accident
in
doing
a
(c)
Act
of
a
child
under
seven
(d)
Act
of
a
person
of
List-II
1.
Section
82
2.
Section
84

using the codes given


Lists
acting
judicially
lawful
act
years
of
age
unsound
mind
of
of

I.P.C.
I.P.C.

3.
4.
Codes
(a)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Section
Section

77
80

of
of

(b)

I.P.C.
I.P.C.
:
(d)
3
2
4
1
(B)

(c)

4
3
1
2

1
4
2
3
:

2
1
3
4

63. X and Y agreed to commit murder of Z by poisoning and Y was to procure


poison, but he did not procure it. X and Y are guilty of
(A)
Abetment
of
murder
by
conspiracy
(B) Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 of Indian Penal Code
(C)
No
offence
(D)
Criminal
conspiracy
to
murder
Z
Ans
:
(D)
64.
Which
of
the
following
statements
is
correct
?
(A) The right of private defence under Indian Penal Code is available even against
an
act
which
is
not
offence
under
the
code
(B) The right of private defence can be exercised to repeal unlawful aggression and
also
to
retaliate
(C) The right of private defence is available to defend only ones own person and
property
(D) The right of private defence extends to the causing of death when the assault is
made
with
the
intention
of
wrongfully
confining
a
person
Ans
:
(D)
65. A shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby
cause
Z
to
believe
that
A
is
about
to
strike
Z.
A
has
committed
(A)
Use
of
force
(B)
Use
of
criminal
force
(C)
Assault
(D)
Use
of
force
and
assault
both
Ans
:
(C)
66. A sent through the post office, a packet containing seditious publications, with a
covering letter requesting the addressee to circulate it to others. It was intercepted
and
never
reached
the
addressee.
A
(A)
Committed
the
offence
of
sedition
(B)
Did
not
commit
any
offence
(C)
Is
guilty
of
inciting
communal
riot
(D)
Is
guilty
of
an
attempt
to
commit
sedition
Ans
:
(D)
67.
(A)
(B)

Which

one

of

the

following
Criminal

is

an

inchoate-crime

?
Riot
attempt

(C)
(D)
Ans

Unlawful
Public
:

assembly
nuisance
(B)

68. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable under


(A)
Section
350
I.P.C.
(B)
Section
351
I.P.C.
(C)
Section
353
I.P.C.
(D)
Section
354
I.P.C.
Ans
:
(D)
69. Which of the following would not be relevant in evidence under section 8 of
Indian
Evidence
Act
?
(A) Evidence of the existence of a motive for the crime charged
(B) Evidence
of a statement which
accompanies some conduct
(C) Evidence of a statement which influences and affects the conduct of a person,
whose
conduct
is
otherwise
relevant
(D) Evidence of a statement of the act of robbery without making any complaint
Ans
:
(D)
70. In a case where a doctor commits rape on a woman of 30 years of age under his
treatment and the woman says that she did not consent, the court
(A)
will
need
proof
(B)
shall
presume
that
she
did
not
consent
(C)
may
need
corroboration
(D)
may
presume
or
may
not
presume
her
consent
Ans
:
(B)
71. Which one of the following is a judgement-in-personam ?
(A)
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
divorce
(B) A final judgement in a suit for restitution of conjugal rights
(C)
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
insolvency
(D)
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
admiralty
matters
Ans
:
(B)
72. Which of the following is not correct for relevancy of evidence to prove
conspiracy
?
(A) There must be reasonable ground to believe that two or more persons have
entered
into
a
conspiracy
(B) The act in question must have been done after the time when the intention to
conspire
was
first
entertained
by
any
of
them
(C) The act must have been done in reference to their common intention
(D) It can also be used in favour of the other party or for the purpose of showing that
such
a
person
was
not
a
party
to
the
conspiracy
Ans
:
(D)
73.
(A)
(B)
(C)

Who

amongst

the

following

A
A
A

is

not
bribe

an

accomplice

?
giver
detective
prostitute

(D)
Ans

person

receiving
:

stolen

property
(B)

74.
The
English
doctrine
of
Res
Gestae
(A)
has
no
place
in
India
(B)
has
place
in
India
(C) has place in India and has been incorporated under Section 6 of the Indian
Evidence
Act,
1872
(D) has been incorporated under section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Ans
:
(C)
75. Assertion (A) : An admission can be used against a co-defendant.
Reason (R) : An admission binds the maker of it. It may be used in his favour as
well.
Select
the
correct
answer
from
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(B)
76. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding admission under
section
17
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
?
(A)
Admission
operates
as
waiver
of
proof
(B)
Admission
is
a
statement
which
is
necessarily
against
ones
own
interest
(C) A statement which suggests some inference as to fact-in-issue or relevant fact,
may
be
admission
(D) It is generally irrelevant as to whom an admission is made
Ans
:
(D)
77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below
the
Lists
List-I
(a)
Section
46
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(b)
Section
47
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(c)
Section
47A
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(d)
Section
48
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
List-II
1.
Opinion
as
to
digital
signature
2. Opinion as to existence of right or custom, when relevant
3.
Facts
bearing
upon
opinion
of
experts
4.
Opinion
as
to
handwriting
when
relevant
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
4
3
2
1
(B)
1
2
3
4
(C)
2
1
4
3
(D)
3
4
1
2

Ans

(D)

78. When can a person prove his own statement constituting admission, or it may be
proved
on
his
behalf
?
(A)
When
it
is
relevant
as
dying
declaration
(B)
When
it
is
relevant
as
admission
(C)
When
it
is
relevant
as
confession
(D) When it is only an oral admission as to content of electronic record
Ans
:
(A)
79. Assertion (A) : A confession always goes against the maker of it, provided it has
been
made
freely
and
voluntarily.
Reason (R) : A confession is inadmissible against a coaccused.
Choose
the
correct
answer
using
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(C)
80. A statement before the police officer in the course of investigation was that the
design was carried out according to plan; but no reference was made to persons
who were involved in murder or to the maker of statement himself
(A) Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this statement, being hit by section 25
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(B) Prosecution may prove this statement. It is not hit by section 25 of Indian
Evidence
Act
(C) Only that part of the statement may be proved which leads to discovery of a fact
in
consequence
of
information
received
(D)
None
of
the
above
is
correct
Ans
:
(C)
81.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Admissions
Conclusive
Not
None

are
proof
proof
estoppel
correct
(B)

Conclusive
of

Not
the

above

is

82. What is the evidentiary value of the confession of a co-accused implicating


himself
as
well
as
his
other
non-confessing
coaccused
?
(A)
Such
a
confession
is
relevant
against
all
the
co-accused
(B)
It
shall
not
be
relevant
against
non-confessing
coaccused
(C) Such a confession amounts to proof of guilt of all the coaccused
(D) If the confessing co-accused is acquitted of the main offence, his confession
shall
cease
to
be
admissible
Ans
:
(A)
83.

Relevancy

and

admissibility

under

Indian

Evidence

Act

are

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Neither
Synonymous

synonymous
and
:

nor
co-extensive

Synonymous
coextensive
Co-extensive
both
(B)

84. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act defines Leading Question ?
(A)
Section
140
(B)
Section
141
(C)
Section
142
(D)
Section
143
Ans
:
(B)
85. The case of Sarat Chander Dey v. Gopal Chander Laha, (1891) 19 I.A. 203 is
related to which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(A)
Section
6
(B)
Section
115
(C)
Section
124
(D)
Section
45
Ans
:
(B)
86. In which year the electronic evidence was incorporated in the Indian evidence
Act
as
a
part
of
documentary
Evidence
?
(A)
2001
(B)
2002
(C)
2000
(D)
1999
Ans
:
(C)
87.
Which
of
the
following
is not a
public
document
?
(A)
Records
of
a
nationalized
Bank
(B)
A
post-mortem
report
(C) A private waqf deed, recorded in the office of subregistrar
(D) Entries made by a police officer in the site inspection map and site memo
Ans
:
(B)
88. Where a married woman, dying of burns was a person of unsound mind and the
medical certificate vouchsafed her physical fitness for a statement and not the state
of mind at the crucial moment; in which of the following cases the court said that the
statement
could
not
be
relied
upon
?
(A)
Ravi
Chander
Vs.
State
of
Punjab
(B)
Shripatrao
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
(C)
Uka
Ram
Vs.
State
of
Rajasthan
(D)
Baldev
Raj
Vs.
State
of
Himachal
Pradesh
Ans
:
(A)
89.
(A)
(B)
(C)

The
principle
of
Promissory
Estoppel
found
As
an
exception
to
the
doctrine
of
As a rule of future consideration in the law
As a rule of past consideration in the law

its
root
consideration
of contract
of contract

(D)
Ans

None

of
:

the

above
(B)

90. Under which section of Evidence Act, a tenant of immovable property is estopped
from
denying
a
title
of
the
landlord
to
that
property
?
(A)
Section
115
(B)
Section
116
(C)
Section
117
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
91. The
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

case

of

Pakala

Narain Swamy
Res
Dying
:

v.

Emperor

relates

to
gestae
declaration
Accomplice
Co-accused
(B)

92. An accused charged under section 302 and 304 B of the Indian Penal Code is
acquitted of the offence under section 302 of Indian Penal Code. The presumption
under
section
113
B
of
the
Evidence
Act
is
(A)
Automatically
refuted
(B)
Not
refuted
(C)
Not
relevant
(D)
Irrelevant
and
otiose
Ans
:
(B)
93. Assertion (A) : B writes to his wife C a letter, which contains defamatory
matters about D. C cannot be compelled to disclose this communication.
Reason (R) : Any communication made during subsistence of marriage by a
husband to his wife or vice-versa is protected as privileged communication.
Select
the
correct
answer
from
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(A)
94. Any condition imposed by a Magistrate when releasing any person on
(A) Can be set aside or modified only by the Supreme
(B)
Cannot
be
modified
by
any
(C)
Can
be
modified
by
Sessions
Court
or
High
(D)
Can
be
set
aside
only
by
Sessions
Ans
:

bail
Court
court
Court
Court
(C)

95. During investigation of an offence of committing rape, medical examination of the


alleged
victim
may
be
done
(A)
Only
on
the
order
of
a
Magistrate
(B) Necessarily on the request of concerned investigation officer, if he deems it fit

(C) After the investigation officer obtains permission of his Superintendent of Police
(D) With the consent of such woman victim or of any person competent to give such
consent
on
her
behalf
Ans
:
(D)
96. The main characteristic of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is
(A)
The
separation
of
the
judiciary
from
the
executive
(B)
The
separation
of
the
legislature
from
the
executive
(C)
The
separation
of
the
revenue
work
from
the
executive
(D)
To
provide
judicial
powers
to
the
executive
magistrates
Ans
:
(A)
97. Which of the following is not correct regarding provisions of bail in case of nonbailable
offences
?
(A) Bail may be granted, if the court concerned comes to the conclusion that
prosecution
has
failed
to
establish
a
prima-facie
case
(B) Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in spite of existence of a primafacie case there is need to release such person on bail in view of facts and
circumstances
of
case
(C) Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may be required for being identified by
witness
during
investigation
(D) If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for
7 years or more, no person can be released on bail without giving an opportunity of
hearing
to
the
public
prosecutor
Ans
:
(D)
98. Under which section of code of Criminal Procedure, security is taken of good
behaviour
from
habitual
offenders
?
(A)
Section
109
(B)
Section
110
(C)
Section
111
(D)
Section
112
Ans
:
(B)
99. Which of the following is not a duty of the Magistrate while recording confession
under
section
164
Cr.
P.
C.
?
(A) Duty to explain to the person making the confession that he is not bound to make
confession
(B) Duty to work that if he makes a confession, it may be used as evidence against
him
(C) Duty to record the confessional statement in the form of questions and answers
(D) Duty to be satisfied and have reason to believe the confession was voluntary
Ans
:
(C)
100. Which one of the following is a case relating to anticipatory bail ?
(A)
D.
K.
Ganesh
Babu
Vs.
P.
T.
Manokaran
(B)
Tama
Vs.
State
of
West
Bengal
(C)
Dinesh
Dalmia
Vs.
C.
B.
I.
(D)
Dimple
Gupta
Vs.
Rajiv
Gupta
Ans : (A)

1. Main characteristic of the Code of Criminal Procedure is (U.P.A.P.O.)


(a) Empowerment of executive Magistrate with judicial power (b) Separation of legislature from
executive
(c) Separation of executive from judiciary (d) Separation of revenue work from executive (Ans : c)
2. Object of investigation is (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) To punish accused (b) To acquit accused (c) To collect evidence (d) To convict accused (Ans : c)
3. An order of life imprisonment may be passed by (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) A Chief Judicial Magistrate (b) A Sessions Judge
(c) A Metropolitan Magistrate (d) Any Magistrate of first class (Ans : b)
4. A sentence of imprisonment for a term of ten years may be passed by which one of the following?
(U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) The Court of a Magistrate of Ist class (b) The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) Assistant Sessions Judge (d) The Court of the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate (Ans : c)
5. Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an
accused without warrant? (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Section 37 (b) Section 40 (c) Section 42 (d) Section 41 (Ans : d)
6. Point out the incorrect statement (U.P.P.C.S.J.)
(a) In a cognizable offence any police officer may without any order from a Magistrate and without a
warrant arrest any person
(b) A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence
(c) An Executive Magistrate may arrest offender when any offence is committed in his presence and
within his jurisdiction
(d) None of the above is correct (Ans : d)
7. In proceeding under section 107 of the Code of Criminal Procedure an Executive Magistrate may
require to execute a bond for keeping peace for such period not exceedingas Magistrate thinks fit.
(M.P.C.J.)
(a) One year (b) Two years (c) Three years (d) Six months (Ans : a)
8. Under section 106 of the code of Criminal Procedure, Code which of the following Courts has
power to release offender on security for keeping peace and good behaviour (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) The Sessions Court (b) Magistrate Ist class (c) Appellate or Revisional Court (d) All of the above
(Ans : d)
9. Any dispute relating to possession of immovable property is decided by (Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) Judicial Magistrate (b) Executive Magistrate
(c) Either by Judicial or Executive Magistrate (d) Neither by Judicial or Executive Magistrate (Ans : b)
10. A conditional order for removal of public nuisance under section 133 Cr. P.C. may be passed by
(Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) The District Magistrate only (b) The Sub-Divisional Magistrate only
(c) The Executive Magistrate only (d) Any of above Magistrates (Ans : d)
11. In reference of information relating to commission of cognizable offence which of following
statement is not correct? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) It may be given orally to officer incharge of police station
(b) It is reduced to writing by or under direction of officer incharge of police station
(c) Information reduced to writing is to be signed by person giving it
(d) Copy of information cannot be given free of cost to informant (Ans : d)
12. In a first information an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable, whole case shall be
deemed to be (M.P.C.J.)
(a) Cognizable (b) Non-cognizable (c) It is to be seen whether (d) None of these (Ans : a)

13. Procedure for summary trail is provided in which section of Cr. P.C.? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Section 251 to Section 260 (b) Section 238 to Section 250
(c) Section 260 to Section 265 (d) Section 255 to Section 265 (Ans : c)
14. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provide for trial before a Court of Session?
(U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Section 225 to Section 237 (b) Section 238 to Section 243
(c) Section 251 to Section 259 (d) Section 260 to Section 265 (Ans : a)
15. Under which Section of Cr. P.C. an accused person can himself be a competent witness? (Utch.
C.J.)
(a) Section 315 (b) Section 300 (c) Section 313 (d) Section 317 (Ans : a)
16. When accused does not have sufficient means to engage pleader, the Session Court may assign
pleader for defence at expense of the state, it is insured by which section of Cr. P.C.? (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Section 301 (b) Section 304 (c) Section 306 (d) Section 305 (Ans : b)
17. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that public prosecutor inchagre of a
case may with consent of court at any time before judgment is pronounced withdraw from prosecution
of any person in respect of any offence for which he is tried? (U.P.P.C.J.)
(a) Section 304 (b) Section 306 (c) Section 321 (d) Section 313 (Ans : c)
18. When a person who would otherwise be competent, to compound an offence under section 320 of
Cr. P.C. is dead, then? (U.P.P.C.S.J.)
(a) Offence cannot be compounded (b) Offence can be compounded by an eye witness
(c) Offence can be compounded by legal representative of such person without consent of the Court
(d) Legal representative of such person can compound offence with consent of the Court (Ans : d)
19. Three years period of limitation is prescribed for taking cognizance of offence punishable with
imprisonment for a term not exceeding (Chatt.J.S.)
(a) One year (b) Three years (c) Five years (d) Seven years (Ans : b)
20. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under section 389(3) of Cr. P.C. after
conviction? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) Where accused is on bail, and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
(b) Where accused is on bail, and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
(c) Where accused is on bail, and imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years
(d) Where offence is exclusively bailable whether accused is on bail or not (Ans : a)

1. Point out incorrect response under Cr. P.C. (Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) Inquiry is conducted by the Court (b) Inquiry is conducted after framing of charge
(c) Inquiry is conducted prior of framing of charge (d) Inquiry is conducted by the Magistrate
(Ans : b)
2. In a cognizable offence a police officer (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Cannot arrest an accused without warrant
(b) May arrest an accused without warrant
(c) Can keep accused in police custody without a remand order
(d) In not required to produce accused before Magistrate (Ans : b)
3. Which of the following sentence may be passed by a Magistrate of second class? (Utch.
C.J.)
(a) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years (b) Imprisonment for a term not
exceeding one years
(c) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months (d) Only a fine not exceeding five
thousand rupees (Ans : b)
4. The Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 7 years (b) Sentence for life imprisonment
(c) Death sentence (d) Sentence of imprisonment exceeding seven years (Ans : a)
5. A private person may arrest any person who (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Is reported to be a criminal (b) In his presence commits a non-cognizable offence
(c) In his presence commits a bailable offence (d) In his presence commits a cognizable and
non-bailable offence (Ans : d)
6. A person arrested by a police officer may be kept in custody for (M.P.C.J.)
(a) Two days (b) Three days (c) Twenty four hours (d) One week (Ans : c)
7. How are summons served? (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) By a police officer (b) By an officer in Court (c) By an authorized public servant (d) By
any of above (Ans : d)
8. To set aside forfeiture under section 96 of Criminal Procedure Code application may be
given to(M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Session Court (b) The High Court (c) Supreme Court (d) The any of these (Ans : b)
9. In which case the supreme Court held that section 125 Cr. P.C. was applicable to all
irrespective of their religion?
(a) Mohd. Umar Khan Vs. Gulshan Begum (b) Mohd. Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum
(c) Mst. Zohara Khattoon Vs. Modh. Ibrahim (d) Noor Saba Khatoon Vs. Mohd. Quasim
(Ans : b)
10. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband under section 125 of
Cr. P.C. if (U.P.P.C.S.J.)
(a) She has obtained a divorce from her husband and has not remarried (b) She is unable to
maintain herself

(c) She refused to live with her husband on ground that keeps a mistress (d) She is living in
adultery (Ans : d)
11. Which section of Cr. P.C. provides that no statement made by any person to police officer
in course of an investigation shall, if reduced to writing be signed by person making
it? (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Section 164 (b) Section 163 (c) Section 162 (d) Section 161 (Ans : c)
12. Point out incorrect answer (U.P.A.P.O.)
First Information Report means
(a) Report about cognizable offence (b) Information given to police officer
(c) Information first in point of time (d) It must always be given in writing (Ans : d)
13. Under section 198 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the court can take cognizance of
any offence laid down under section 497 and 498 to the Indian Penal Code on complaint
of (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Husband of woman (b) Father of woman (c) Mother of woman (d) Any of these (Ans : d)
14. Which one of the following orders can be passed after trail of a case is over? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Only an order of acquittal (b) Only an order of conviction
(c) Order of discharge (d) Either an order of acquittal or conviction (Ans : d)
15. Who can withdraw a case from the prosecution under Section 321, Cr. P.C.? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) The State Government (b) Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case with permission of court
(c) Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case even without permission of court (d) All of these
(Ans : b)
16. The Court can record demeanour of a witness person can himself be competent
witness? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Section 280 (b) Section 279 (c) Section 278 (d) Section 281 (Ans : a)
17. Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion after hearing evidence for the prosecution and
accused that accused is guilty and that he ought to receive a severe punishment then such
Magistrate is empowered to inflict, the Magistrate may forward case to? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) The Session Judge (b) The Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) The District Magistrate (d) Concerned police station (Ans : b)
18. Which of the following offence is not compoundable? (U.P.P.C.J.)
(a) Offence under section 323 I.P.C. (b) Offence under section 334 I.P.C.
(c) Offence under section 448 I.P.C. (d) Offence under section 307 I.P.C. (Ans : d)
19. There shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of first class passes
only a Sentence of fine, not exceeding? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) One hundred rupees (b) Two hundred rupees
(c) Three hundred rupees (d) Two hundred and fifty rupees (Ans : a)
20. In one trial A is awarded with sentence, which is notappealable, whereas sentence against
B is appealable, whether A can file an appeal against his sentence (M.P.C.J.)
(a) No (b) Only with special leave (c) Yes (d) There is no such provision (Ans : c)

1. An offence punishable with the imprisonment for a term exceeding two years relates to (Utch. C.J.
Exam)
(a) Summon case (b) Warrant case (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (Ans : b)
2. Object of investigation is (Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) To attest accused (b) To punish accused (c) To collect evidence against accused (d) None of these
(Ans : c)
3. Which one of the following proceeding is known as judicial proceeding? (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Investigation (b) Inquiry and investigation (c) Inquiry and trail (d) Trail and investigation (Ans : c)
4. Warrant case means a case (Chhat. J.S.)
(a) In which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(b) In which the court in first instance shall issue a warrant of arrest against accused
(c) Relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years
(d) Relating to an offence punishable with death or for life imprisonment or for a term exceeding two
years (Ans : d)
5. Under which section of Cr. P.C., a police officer can arrest a person without an order from a
Magistrate and without warrant? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Section 42 (b) Section 40 (c) Section 51 (d) Section 41 (Ans : d)
6. Who can Commute sentence of imprisonment for life under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Appropriate Government (b) President of India
(c) Governor of State (d) Central Government (Ans : a)
7. Point out incorrect answer (U.P.A.P.O.)
Requisites of a valid warrant are
(a) It shall be n writing (b) It shall be signed by presiding officer of Court
(c) It shall bear seal of Court (d) It must state name of accused but address is not necessary (Ans :d)
8. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure a proclamation for the person absconding
may be issued? (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Section 83 (b) Section 82 (c) Section 81 (d) Section 80 (Ans : b)
9. Now under section 125 of Criminal procedure Code what payments per month can be ordered for
maintenance? (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) 50% on basis of salary of person (b) Upto Rs. 500
(c) Upto Rs. 3,000 (d) As Magistrate deems necessary in circumstances (Ans : d)
10. Which of the following cannot claim maintenance under section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code?
(M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Wife who cannot maintain herself (b) Mother or father who cannot maintain herself or himself
(c) Major married daughter who cannot maintain herself (d) Minor illegitimate daughter who cannot
maintain herself (Ans : c)
11. First information report (Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) Relates to cognizable or non-cognizable offence (b) Is given to a Magistrate or Police Officer
(c) Relates prima facie to cognizable offence (d) May by given to District Magistrate (Ans : c)

12. Who among the following is authorized to record confessional statement under section 164 Cr.
P.C.? (Utch. C.J. Exam)
(a) A Police Officer (b) An Executive Magistrate (c) A Judicial Magistrate
(d) Neither an Executive Magistrate nor a Judicial Magistrate (Ans : c)
13. What is true about, Court of Session ? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) It can take cognizance without commitment
(b) It cannot take cognizance without commitment
(c) It can take cognizance on recommendation of District Magistrate
(d) It can take cognizance if challan is put up by Superintendent of Police (Ans : b)
14. A was traveling from Bhopal to Jabalpur by Rajkot Jabalpur Express Train. At Itarsi A casued
grievous hurt to B, who was resident of Jabalpur, where will case be tried? (M.P.A.P.O.)
(a) At Bhopal, from where A started his journey (b) At Jabalpur, of where B was resident
(c) At Itarsi, where A caused grievous hurt to B (d) At place, where M.P. High Court decides (Ans : c)
15. Which section of Cr. P.C. provides that a person once convicted or acquitted cannot be tried again
for same offence? (Utch. C.J.)
(a) Section 304 (b) Section 300 (c) Section 321 (d) Section 302 (Ans : b)
16. Section 304, Cr. P.C. deals with
(a) Protection to accused against double prosecution for the same offence (b) Legal aid to accused at
state expanses
(c) Withdrawal from prosecution (d) Order to release on probation of good conduct (Ans : b)
17. At any time before judgement is pronounced, prosecution of any person may be withdrawn with
consent of the court by (M.P.C.J.)
(a) On whose instance the first information report was recorded (b) Investigating officer of case
(c) Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor Incharge of case (d) Person aggrieved by offence
(Ans : c)
18. Whether an accused may be a competent witness in his defence? (M.P.C.J.)
(a) If he applies in writing on his own request (b) No
(c) With leave of Court of Session (d) With leave of High Court (Ans : a)
19. Power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeals from one High Court to another High
Court can be exercised on a application by which one of following (U.P.A.P.O.)
(a) Registrar of concerned High Court (b) Attorney General of India
(c) Chairperson of Bar Council of India (d) Solicitor General of India (Ans : b)
20. The Magistrate by whom case is heard may award such compensation not exceeding (M.P.C.J.)
(a) One hundred (b) Five hundred (c) Three hundred (d) One thousand (Ans : a)

1. Which one of the following is not essential for an offence? (MP. APO.)
(A) Intention (B) Motive (C) Prohibited act (D) Punishment for act (Ans : B)
2. In which of the following mens rea has been considered to be an essential element of an offence?
(MP. APO.)
(A) Srinivasmal Barolia Vs. Emperor (B) R. Vs. Tolsen
(C) Nathulal Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh (D) All of the above (Ans : D)

3. Which one of the following is not a valuable security?


(A) A postal receipt for an insured parcel (B) A rent note
(C) A promissory note (D) Added of divoree (Ans : D)
4. Common Intention means (U.P.A.P.O.)
(A) Similar intention (B) Same intention
(C) Sharing of intention by all persons (D) Common plans (Ans : C)
5. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child of (Chhat. J.S. Exam)
(A) Eight years (B) Ten years (C) Seven years (D) Twelve years (Ans : C)
6. What punishment may be awarded to the person, whose act is covered under general exceptions?
(Chhat. J. S.)
(A) No punishment (B) Half of the punishment prescribed for that offence
(C) One-fourth the of the punishment prescribed for offence (D) Depends upon discretion of court
(Ans : A)
7. Insanity is
(A) Lack of free will (B) Incapacity produced due to drunkenness
(C) Incapable of knowing nature of act committed (D) Diseased mind (Ans : D)
8. A instigates B to give false evidence here if B does not give false evidence what offence A has
committed? (M.P.C.J.)
(A) A is guilty of no offence (B) Attempt to give false evidence
(C) Offence punishable with the imprisonment of any description provided for that offence for a term
which may extend to one-fourth part of longest term provided for that offence and with fine
(D) None of above (Ans : C)
9. Minimum number of persons required to commit an affray is (M.P.C.J.)
(A) Five (B) Two (C) Ten (D) Eleven (Ans : B)
10. A puts his hand in pocket of B for stealing money but pocket was empty. A is guilty of
(A) Theft (B) Not guilty of theft (C) Guilty of attempt to commit theft (D) Not guilty of any offence
(Ans : C)
11. Any hurt is grievous if it causes sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinary
pursuits during space of (Chhat. J.S.)
(A) Fifteen days (B) Twenty days (C) Twenty five days (D) Thirty days (Ans : B)
12. Sexual intercourse by a man with a woman even with her consent is a rape if she is below age of
(U.P.A.P.O.)
(A) 17 years (B) 16 years (C) 19 years (D) 18 years (Ans : B)
13. For abduction abducted person should be
(A) Below 16 years of age (B) Below 18 years of age (C) insane person (D) Of any age (Ans : D)
14. A does sexual intercourse with a widow below 16 years of age with her consent (M.P.A.P.O.)
(A) A has not committed Rape (B) A has committed Adultery
(C) A has committed Rape with B (D) Nothing above is correct (Ans : C)
15. Making preparation to commit dacoity is punishable in the Indian Penal Code 1860 under
(U.P.A.P.O.)
(A) Section 393 (B) Section 395(C) Section 398 (D) Section 399 (Ans : D)

16. There is no offence of adultery if it is committed, with consent of


(A) Woman (B) Husband of woman (C) Member of family of woman (D) Wife of adulterer (Ans : b)
17. A cheats by pretending to be B, a person who is deceased. A commits
(A) Cheating (B) Cheating by presentation (C) Extortion (D) Dacoity (Ans : B)
18. A commits house trespass by entering Zs house through a window it is
(A) Mischief (B) House-breaking (C) Extortion (D) None of the above (Ans : B)
19. A finds a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs he afterwards discovers that it belongs
to B and appropriates to his own use. A is guilty of (U.P.A.P.O.)
(A) Theft (B) Criminal Misappropriation (C) Criminal Breach of Trust (D) Cheating (Ans : B)
20. A makes an attempt to pick pocket of B by thrusting his hand into Bs pocket. A fails in attempt in
consequence of Bs having nothing in his pocket. A is guilty of (M.P.C.J.)
(A) No offence (B) Theft (C) Attempt of theft (D) Using Criminal Force (Ans : c)

Objective and Practice Questions for Law


1. Finance Commission of India submits its report to
(A) President of India (B) Chief justice of India
(C) Prime Minister (D) Vice President
Ans : (A)
2. What is the nature of Finance Commission
(A) Advisory (B) Binding
(C) Appellate (D) Executive
Ans : (A)
3. What kind of body is Election Commission
(A) Permanent and independent body (B) Permanently dependent on Executive
(C) Independent body (D) Depends on Parliament
Ans : (A)
4. Why Election Commission is an all India Body as it Iis
(A) Common to both central and state Govt (B) Common for more than one state
(C) Only for Central Govt (D) Only for State Govt
Ans : (A)
5. Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to same salary & facilities as are provided to
(A) Judge of SC (B) Judge of HC
(C) Member Parliament (D) Member of Legislative Assembly
Ans : (A)
6. Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by
(A) Prime Minister (B) Parliament
(C) President (D) Vice President
Ans : (C)

7. The word Socialist was added by the________ Constitutional Amendment


(A) 44 th (B) 42nd
(C) 25th (D) 24th
Ans : ( B)
8. Consolidated Fund of India and States is mentioned in which Article of the Constitution
(A) Art 215 (B) Art 234
(C) Art 226 (D) Art 227
Ans : (C)
9. The Railway Budget was separated from the General Budget in the year
(A) 1925 (B) 1923
(C) 1921 (D) 1924
Ans : (D)
10. The Indian Federal system is modeled on the federal system of
(A) USA (B) UK
(C) Canada (D) France
Ans : (C)
11. The Government of India can borrow from outside on the security of its consolidated
fund, it is mentioned in
(A) Art 233 (B) Art 294
(C) Art 287 (D) Art 292
Ans : (D)
12. Which Court is regarded as the Guardian of the Fundamental Rights of the people
(A) Privy Council (B) Federal Court
(C) High Court (D) Supreme Court
Ans : (D)
13. Right to Property is a legal Right mentioned in which Article of the Indian Constitution
(A) 332 (B) 339 A
(C) 230 D (D) 330A
Ans : (D)
14 Emergency Provisions of Constitution of India are borrowed from
(A) German Reich (B) USA
(C) USSR (D) UK
Ans : (A)
15 Presidential Form of Government has been borrowed from
(A) USA (B) USSR
(C) UK (D) France
Ans : (A)
16 Directive Principles of state Policy are taken from
(A) UK Constitution (B) French Constitution
(C) USSR constitution (D) Irish Constitution
Ans : (D)

17 Which Regulating Act introduced the process of Centralisation


(A) Regulation Act 1617 (B) Regulating Act 1773
(C) Regulating Act 1569 (D) Regulating Act 1680
Ans : (B)
18 The First Indian High Courts Act came into existence in
(A) 1867 (B) 1861
(C) 1864 (D) 1865
Ans : (B)
19 When was the Advocates Act came into existence
(A) 1962 (B) 1963
(C) 1961 (D) 1968
Ans : (C)
20. Name the newly created democracy of the world
(A) Nepal (B) Bhutan
(C) Myanmar (D) Bangladesh
Ans : (B)
21 Who has been conferred King Charles II Medal by Royal Society for his contribution to
the promotion of science and science in society in India
(A) Pratibha Patel (B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Sonia Gandhi (D) APJ Abdul Kalam
Ans (D)
21. Which act empowered the Governor-General to alter the local limits of the jurisdiction of
the HC
(A) High Courts Act 1864 (B) High Courts Act 1856
(C) High Courts Act 1865 (D) High Courts Act 1863
Ans : (C )
22. Which Indian State was the first to be formed on Linguistic basis
(A) Arunanchal Pradesh (B) Haryana
(C) Punjab (D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (D)
23. Andhra Pradesh was created by taking Telugu speaking areas of
(A) Madras, Kerala, Bombay (B) Kerala, Bombay, Gujrat
(C) Gujrat, Central Province, Kerala, Madras (D) Madras, Bombay, Central Province
Ans : (D)
24. When was Pondicherry handed over by French to India and added as UT
(A) 1956 (B) 1923
(C) 1954 (D) 1955
Ans : (C)

1. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a
Mitakshara Coparcenary property by
(A) Will
(B) Gift
(C) Sale
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
2. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act,
1956 is a
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
Ans : (C)
3. Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a
(A) Per capita rule
(B) Per stirpes
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule
(D) Rule of exclusion
Ans : (A)
4. A decree may be executed by
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Ans : (D)
5. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of Res Judicata is based ?
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(C) Respondent superior
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
Ans : (D)

6. Right to lodge a caveat has been provided under


(A) Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) Section 148-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) Section 148-B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) Section 147 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Ans : (B)
7. Arrest of a person in execution of a decree has been provided
(A) Under Section 53 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Under Section 54 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Under Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Under Section 55 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : (D)
8. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court can allow to alter or amend the

proceedings to
(A) Either party
(B) To plaintiff only
(C) To defendant only
(D) To only one defendant, if there are more than one defendant
Ans : (A)
9. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the Mesne Profit ?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(14)
(C) Section 2(6)
(D) Section 2(12)
Ans : (D)
10. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with
(A) Appeal to Supreme Court
(B) Appeal by indigent person
(C) Appeal against orders
(D) Appeal from appellate decrees
Ans : (D)
11. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit
(A) For partition
(B) For partnership
(C) For possession and mesne profit
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
12. Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, every suit shall be instituted in
(A) District Court
(B) The court of lower grade
(C) The court of higher grade
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)
13. Pleading has been defined in
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : (A)
14. Which Provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on
behalf of all in same interest ?
(A) Order 1, Rule 1
(B) Order 2, Rule 2
(C) Order 1, Rule 8
(D) Order 1, Rule 9
Ans : (C)
15. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of
Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(B) Metropolitan Magistrate


(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
(D) 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate
Ans : (D)
16. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with Revision ?
(A) Section 110
(B) Order VI, Rule 13
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 120
Ans : (C)
17. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides a protection to the members of Armed
Forces from arrest ?
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 45
(C) Section 46
(D) Section 50
Ans : (B)
18. In a summary trial the maximum period of imprisonment is
(A) Not exceeding three months
(B) Not exceeding six months
(C) Not exceeding one year
(D) Not exceeding two years
Ans : (A)
19. Which of the following are liable under Section 125(1)(d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for
payment of maintenance to their parents, who are unable to maintain themselves ?
(A) Sons only
(B) Daughters only
(C) Sons and daughters both
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
20. Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines
(A) Bailable offence
(B) Non-bailable offence
(C) Cognizable offence
(D) Non-cognizable offence
Ans : (C)
21. Who can tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate only
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate only
(C) Magistrate of the First Class only
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
22. The procedure of trials held before the Court of Sessions is provided in the Code of Criminal
Procedure under
(A) Sections 204 to 210
(B) Sections 220 to 224

(C) Sections 225 to 237


(D) Sections 238 to 245
Ans : (C)
23. On being submitted the sentence of death by Court of Sessions, the High Court may
(A) Confirm the sentence
(B) Annul the conviction
(C) May pass any other sentence warranted by law
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
24. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure defines the term
(A) Investigation
(B) Charge
(C) Inquiry
(D) Offence
Ans : (A)
25. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for prosecution for offences against
marriage ?
(A) Section 196
(B) Section 197
(C) Section 198
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
26. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that no statement made by any
person to a police officer if reduced to writing, be signed by the person making it ?
(A) Section 161
(B) Section 162
(C) Section 163
(D) Section 164
Ans : (B)
27. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment
(A) Not exceeding seven years
(B) Exceeding seven years
(C) For life
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
28. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for anticipatory
bail ?
(A) Section 436
(B) Section 438
(C) Section 439
(D) Section 437
Ans : (B)
29. In which of the following cases some important principles regarding the defence of unsoundness
of mind were propounded ?
(A) McNaughten Case
(B) R. V. Prince

(C) R. V. Dudley and Stephen


(D) Reg V. Govinda
Ans : (A)
30. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code defines affray ?
(A) Section 159
(B) Section 160
(C) Section 161
(D) Section 148
Ans : (A)
31. A attempts to pick the pocket of Z by thrusting his hand into Zs pocket. A fails in his attempt as
Z had nothing in his pocket. What offence A has committed ?
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
(C) Mischief
(D) No offence
Ans : (B)
32. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code relates to vicarious liability ?
(A) Section 120A
(B) Section 121
(C) Section 154
(D) Section 159
Ans : (C)
33. Which one of the following cases is a case relating to Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) K. M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra
(B) Niharendu Dutta Vs. King Emperor
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperor
(D) Kedar Nath Vs. State of West Bengal
Ans : (C)
34. Which one of the following Provisions of the Indian Penal Code defiens Unlawful Assembly ?
(A) Section 141
(B) Section 142
(C) Section 146
(D) Section 149
Ans : (A)
35. The maxim Ignorantia facit excusat relates to
(A) Section 75 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
36. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code says, nothing is an offence which is done by
accident ?
(A) Section 79 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 78 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 80 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)
37. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code has been declared unconstitutional
as violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Section 301
(B) Section 303
(C) Section 306
(D) Section 314
Ans : (B)
38. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for abetment
to commit suicide ?
(A) Section 306
(B) Section 307
(C) Section 308
(D) Section 309
Ans : (A)
39. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched ?
(A) McNaughtens caseSection 84 of I.P.C.
(B) D.P.P. V. BeardSection 84 of I.P.C.
(C) Basudeo V. StateSection 86 of I.P.C.
(D) Bhawoo Jiwaji V. Mooljee Dayal Section 79 of I.P.C.
Ans : (B)
40. How many kinds of hurts are included under grevious hurt under Section 320 of the Indian Penal
Code ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (D)
41. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment for cheating
?
(A) Section 415
(B) Section 417
(C) Section 416
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
42. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code makes water pollution punishable ?
(A) Section 277
(B) Section 278
(C) Section 279
(D) Section 280
Ans : (A)
43. In which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, preparation of the offence is
punishable ?
(A) Murder
(B) Dowry death
(C) Waging war against Government of India

(D) Theft
Ans : (C)
44. Adultery is an offence committed
(A) With the consent of a married woman
(B) With the consent of a woman
(C) Without the consent of a woman but with the consent of her husband
(D) With the consent of a minor girl
Ans : (A)
45. How many exceptions have been provided for the offence of defamation under Section 499 of the
Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 9
Ans : (B)
46. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs. State related to
(A) Section 366-A of I.P.C.
(B) Section 364-A of I.P.C.
(C) Section 363 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
47. Which one of the following cases relates to right of private defence ?
(A) Jaidev Vs. State
(B) Ram Rattan Vs. State
(C) Guljar Singh Vs. State
(D) Rajesh Kumar Vs. Dharamveer
Ans : (A)
48. A enters Z house through a window. Here A commits
(A) Trespass
(B) House trespass
(C) House breaking
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)
49. Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea ?
(A) R. Vs. Prince
(B) Queen Vs. Tolson
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(D) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
Ans : (D)
50. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with those conditions, when consent is said to be,
not free consent ?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 90
(C) Section 92
(D) Section 89
Ans : (B)

51. Point out incorrect response. The following are modes of abetment
(A) Instigation
(B) Engaging in conspiracy
(C) Aiding
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
52. In which of the following cases the principles relating to the defence of intoxication were laid
down ?
(A) Mc Naughten Case
(B) Director of Public Prosecution Vs. Beard
(C) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
(D) R. Vs. Prince
Ans : (B)
53. A administers poisonous drug to a woman B to cause miscarriage. It is found that B was not
pregnant. In this case
(A) A is not guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(B) A is guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(C) A is guilty of murder
(D) A is guilty of no offence
Ans : (B)
54. Which is the secondary source of Muslim Law under the following ?
(A) Custom
(B) Ijmaa
(C) Qiyas
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
55. Which of the following modifies the application of Muslim Law ?
(A) Shariat Act, 1937
(B) Muslim Marriage Dissolution Act, 1939
(C) Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
56. Which of the following Muslim Laws applies in India ?
(A) Muslim Penal Law
(B) Muslim Law of Evidence
(C) Muslim Law of Sales of goods
(D) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
Ans : (D)
57. Who applied Qiyas for the first time as source of Muslim Law ?
(A) Imam Abu Hanifa
(B) Imam Yusuf
(C) Imam Jafer
(D) Imam Ahmad
Ans : (A)
58. Under Muslim Law, marriage is

(A) An institution legalising male and female conjugal relations


(B) A civil contract
(C) Sunnet
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
59. Who can be a guardian in minors marriage in Sunni Law ?
(A) Mother in the presence of father
(B) Grand-mother in the presence of mother
(C) Maternal uncle in the presence of real uncle
(D) Father
Ans : (D)
60. Under the following which is absolute incapacity for marriage?
(A) Consanguinity
(B) Affinity
(C) Fosterage
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
61. Which is a relative incapacity for marriage ?
(A) Marriage with wifes sister when wife is alive
(B) Marriage with fifth woman in the presence of four wives
(C) Absence of required number of witnesses at the time of marriage
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
62. Mahar-e-Misl determined on what ground ?
(A) Personal characteristics of wife such as age, extraordinary beauty
(B) Her fathers family social status
(C) Dower paid to women in her husbands family
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
63. What are the wifes rights when husband does not pay the dower ?
(A) Refuse consummation
(B) File suit for recovery of dower
(C) Keep possession over dead husbands property
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
64. In the absence of mother, which of the following females has the first priority to have the custody
of a Muslim child ?
(A) Fathers mother
(B) Mothers mother
(C) Sisters
(D) Maternal aunt
Ans : (B)
65. A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding four, if a Muslim marries a fifth wife such
a marriage shall be
(A) Valid
(B) Void

(C) Irregular
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Ans : (C)
66. In Sunni-te Law, the guardian of the minors property is
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Mothers mother
(D) Fathers father
Ans : (B)
67. After divorce a Muslim woman
(A) Can not remarry
(B) Can remarry immediately
(C) Can marry only after completion of Iddat period
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
68. How many witnesses are necessary in Shia Muslim marriage ?
(A) Two males
(B) One male and two females
(C) No witness is required
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (C)
69. In Shia School of Muslim Law the amount of Mehar is
(A) Not legally fixed
(B) 10 dirhams
(C) 100 dirhams
(D) 500 dirhams
Ans : (A)
70. Doctrine of cy-pres is related with
(A) Marriage
(B) Dower
(C) Gift
(D) Wakfs
Ans : (D)
71. The term Musha under Muslim Law means
(A) Divided property
(B) Joint property
(C) Separate property
(D) Undivided share in property
Ans : (D)
72. A Sunni Muslim performs marriage during the period of Iddat, the marriage is
(A) Void
(B) Valid
(C) Irregular
(D) Voidable
Ans : (C)

73. A Muslim mother is entitled to the custody of her female child until she attains
(A) The age of 7 years
(B) Puberty
(C) Age of 11 years
(D) Age of 15 years
Ans : (B)
74. Dissolution of Muslim marriage by agreement is known as
(A) Talaq in ahsan
(B) Illa
(C) Zihar
(D) Khula
Ans : (D)
75. Which Wasiyat is invalid in Muslim Law ?
(A) Wasiyat made in favour of religious school
(B) Wasiyat made to the killer of legator
(C) Wasiyat made for charity
(D) Wasiyat made to a nonmuslim
Ans : (B)
76. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act,
1939 ?
(A) Absence of husband for four years or more
(B) Imprisonment of husband for two years
(C) Failure of husband to maintain his wife
(D) Impotency of husband
Ans : (B)
77. Which of the following statement is not correct with regard to Muslim Law ?
(A) Nephew gets twice the share of niece
(B) Son gets twice the share of a daughter
(C) Brother gets twice the share of a sister
(D) Widower gets twice the share of a widow
Ans : (A)
78. What is right of Pre-emption ?
(A) A right to seek eviction of tenant and get vacant possession
(B) A right to purchase property in preference to other person
(C) A right to presume adversely
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
79. Rule against perpetuity will not be applicable in
(A) Perpetual transfer for gift
(B) Personal contracts
(C) Vested interest
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
80. Under the Provisions of Transfer of Property Act, the unborn child acquires vested interest
(A) Upon his birth
(B) 7 days after his birth

(C) 12 days after his birth


(D) 18 years after his birth
Ans : (A)
81. Which one of the following Sections of the Transfer of Property Act defines Transfer of Property ?
(A) Section 3
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 5
(D) Section 6
Ans : (C)
82. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, defines Notice ?
(A) Section 2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 5
(D) Explanation II of Section 3
Ans : (B)
83. The Privy Council decision in Tilakdhari Lal V. Khedan Lal relates to
(A) Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act
(B) Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act
(C) Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act
(D) Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act
Ans : (A)
84. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Oral transferSection 9 of the Transfer of Property Act
(B) Rule against perpetuitySection 14 of the Transfer of Property Act
(C) Doctrine of electionSection 35 of the Transfer of Property Act
(D) Transfer by Ostensible OwnerSection 40 of the Transfer of Property Act
Ans : (D)
85. Which one of the following Provisions of the Transfer of Property Act relates to usufructuary
mortgage ?
(A) Section 58 (a)
(B) Section 58 (b)
(C) Section 58 (d)
(D) Section 58 (e)
Ans : (C)
86. Which one of the following cases does not pertain to the doctrine of part performance ?
(A) Arrif Vs. Jadu Nath
(B) Prabodh Kumar Vs. Dantmara Tea Co.
(C) Sardar Govind Rao Mahadik Vs. Devi Sahai
(D) Ram Baran Prasad Vs. Ram Mohit Hazra
Ans : (D)
87. Which Provisions of the Transfer of Property Act defines lease ?
(A) Section 105
(B) Section 106
(C) Section 107
(D) Section 108
Ans : (A)

88. The provision of fraudulent transfer is given in


(A) Section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(B) Section 50 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(C) Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(D) Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Ans : (D)
89. The gift of future property is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) Conditionally void
Ans : (A)
90. Which Section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 was amended in the year 2002 ?
(A) Section 106
(B) Section 100
(C) Section 108
(D) Section 110
Ans : (A)
91. The rule of lis pendens applies when
(A) The suit or proceeding in which right to immovable property is indirectly in question
(B) A suit or proceeding in which right to immovable property is pending between two persons and one
of them sells the property
(C) The suit or proceeding is pending in a court which does not have jurisdiction
(D) Litigation is not bonafide but collusive
Ans : (B)
92. Transfer of Property Act came into force on
(A) July 01, 1882
(B) August 01, 1882
(C) September 01, 1882
(D) October 01, 1882
Ans : (A)
93. In the Transfer of property Act, immovable property does not include
(A) Building
(B) Land
(C) Pond
(D) Standing timber
Ans : (D)
94. Which of the following properties cannot be transferred ?
(A) Share in copyright
(B) Interest in mortgaged property
(C) Right to future maintenance
(D) Immovable property
Ans : (C)
95. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act deals with effect of holding over a
lease ?

(A) Section 114 A


(B0 Section 115
(C) Section 115 A
(D) Section 116
Ans : (D)
96. In which of the following conditions the lease can be terminated ?
(A) Efflux of time
(B) On termination of lessors interest or power
(C) On merger
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
97. The doctrine of lis pendens is explained in famous case of
(A) Bellamy Vs. Sabine
(B) Musahur Sahu Vs. Hakim Lal
(C) Muhammad Shafi Vs. Muhammad Sayed
(D) Tulk V. Moxhay
Ans : (A)
98. Transfer of a right to enjoy the immovable property for a certain time is
(A) Mortgage
(B) Agreement to lease
(C) Licence
(D) Lease
Ans : (D)
99. In case of gift, the donee dies before acceptance, then
(A) Gift is voidable
(B) Gift is valid
(C) Gift is void
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
100. The mortgagors right to redeem the mortgaged property accrues
(A) At any time after the mortgage
(B) At any time after the mortgage money has become due
(C) At any time when the mortgagor wants
(D) At any time mortgagee demands the money
Ans : (B)
101. Which one of the following mortgages does not require writing and registration ?
(A) Usufructuary mortgage
(B) Simple mortgage
(C) English mortgage
(D) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
Ans : (D)
102. Which of the following is included in the term living person under Section 5 of the Transfer of
Property Act ?
(A) A company
(B) An association
(C) Body of individuals

(D) All of the above


Ans : (D)
103. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act will be applicable only when the interest transferred in
the property is
(A) Limited
(B) Absolute
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
104. Which statement is not correct ?
(A) Some facts are relevant but not admissible
(B) Some facts are admissible but not relevant
(C) All relevant facts are admissible
(D) All admissible facts are not relevant
Ans : (C)
105. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with Doctrine of confirmation by subsequent
facts ?
(A) Section 27
(B) Section 115
(C) Section 102
(D) Section 165
Ans : (A)
106. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is not on shifting of burden of proof ?
(A) Section 101
(B) Section 102
(C) Section 105
(D) Section 108
Ans : (A)
107. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is related with doctrine of Res ipsa loquitor ?
(A) Section 102
(B) Section 104
(C) Section 106
(D) Section 108
Ans : (C)
108. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides for admissibility of
secondary evidence ?
(A) Section 60
(B) Section 61
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 65
Ans : (D)
109. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act says facts admitted need not be
proved ?
(A) Section 18
(B) Section 21
(C) Section 55

(D) Section 58
Ans : (D)
110. Section 113-B, presumption as to dowry death was added to the Indian Evidence Act in
(A) 1986
(B) 1983
(C) 1961
(D) 1962
Ans : (A)
111. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Child witness : Section 118
(B) Dumb witness : Section 120
(C) Hostile witness : Section 154
(D) Expert witness : Section 45
Ans : (B)
112. The illustration that, A and B are jointly tried for the murder of C. It is proved that A said, B and I
murdered C, relates
(A) Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (A)
113. Identification parade is relevant under
(A) Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)
114. Which of the following Sections was amended by the Indian Technology Act, 2000 ?
(A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 17 of the Indian Evidence act
(C) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)
115. Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act was added in
(A) Year 1982
(B) Year 1983
(C) Year 1988
(D) Year 1980
Ans : (B)
116. The Indian Evidence Act deals with
(A) presumptio juris only
(B) presumptio huminis only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

117. Indian Evidence Act deals privilege


(A) As a right only
(B) As a duty only
(C) As a right and duty both
(D) Neither as a right nor as a duty
Ans : (C)
118. Facts supporting or rebutting the opinion of the experts are relevant under
(A) Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 51 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)
119. Which one of the following cases does not relate to dying declaration ?
(A) Queen Emperess V s . Abdullah
(B) Pakala Narayan Swamy Vs. King Emperor
(C) Zafar Vs. State of U.P.
(D) Ratangond Vs. State of Bihar
Ans : (C)
120. Case of Pakala Narayan Swami Vs. King Emperor is related with
(A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 21(1) of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (C)
121. Who amongst the following is an expert under the Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) Hand-writing expert
(B) Finger print expert
(C) Ballistics expert
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
122. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the principle of Res Gestae is given ?
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 2
(D) Section 15
Ans : (B)
123. Under Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act, the admission is
(A) Written only
(B) Oral only
(C) Both written or oral
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
124. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act relates to accomplice ?
(A) Section 30
(B) Section 133
(C) Section 134

(D) Section 29
Ans : (B)
125. Under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, privilege is available to
(A) Judges
(B) Advocates
(C) Magistrates
(D) Husband and Wife
Ans : (D)
126. In which of the following cases hearsay evidence is not admissible ?
(A) Statement of experts expressed in treaties, if the author is dead or cannot be found
(B) Where eye-witness told the facts to another person, statement of that person
(C) If the statement is of a deceased person, when it related to cause of his death
(D) If the statement is part of the transaction-in-issue
Ans : (B)
127. Which one of the following is not a document under the Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) An inscription on a stone of a building
(B) A photograph
(C) A printout of a message sent through mobile or computer
(D) A knife recovered by police from the possession of an accused and produced in the court
Ans : (D)
128. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that contents of the document must be proved
by primary evidence ?
(A) Section 61
(B) Section 62
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 64
Ans : (D)
129. A Hindu couple having the decree of judicial separation wants to live together
(A) They can live together
(B) They cannot live together
(C) They can live together after re-marriage
(D) They can live together only after the permission of the court
Ans : (A)
130. A, a Hindu male, having undivided interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property dies leaving
behind two sons and one daughter. The daughter is entitled to the following share in the property
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/9
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
131. Hindu law does not apply to a person who is a Hindu by
(A) Birth
(B) Conversion
(C) Re-conversion
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

132. Who is a Hindu among following ?


(A) A legitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female
(B) An illegitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female
(C) An illegitimate child of Hindu male and Parsi female and who was brought up as a Hindu
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
133. Dayabhaga is authored by
(A) Vijnaneshwara
(B) Yagyavalkya
(C) Jimutavahana
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
134. Vijnaneshwara is a famous commentator of
(A) Manu Smriti
(B) Narad Smriti
(C) Yagyavalkya Smriti
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
135. In regard to a Hindu marriage, Sapinda relationship of any person is counted upto
(A) Fifth generation in the line of ascent through father only
(B) Third generation in the line of ascent through mother only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
136. Pre-martial relation of a spouse is a statutory ground for
(A) Judicial separation
(B) Divorce
(C) Nullity of marriage
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
137. A Hindu male of 28 years of age adopts a female child of 13 years of age. The adoption is
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Illegal
(D) Void
Ans : (D)
138. Order of succession under the Hindu Succession Act of a male Hindu dying intestate is as
follows
(A) Agnates, Cognates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
(B) Cognates, Agnates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
(C) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Agnates, Cognates
(D) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Cognates, Agnates
Ans : (C)
139. Provisions of Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 corresponds to
(A) Section 36 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954

(B) Section 36 of the Indian Divorce Act, 1869


(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
140. Consent theory of divorce was introduced in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in the year
(A) 1979
(B) 1976
(C) 1964
(D) 1956
Ans : (B)
141. A person is not disqualified from succeeding to any property on the ground of any disease,
defect or deformity is provided under
(A) Section 28 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(B) Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(C) Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
142. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with Restitution of
Conjugal Rights ?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 9
(C) Section 10
(D) Section 11
Ans : (B)
143. If parties to a Hindu marriage are sapinda to each other, the marriage is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
144. A Hindu married woman of 32 years of age adopts a male child of 8 years with the consent of her
husband. The adoption is
(A) Valid
(B) Not valid
(C) Voidable at the option of husband
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
145. A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind two sons, one daughter and widow. His property shall
devolve to
(A) Sons only
(B) Sons and daughter only
(C) Widow only
(D) Sons, daughter and widow all
Ans : (D)
146. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956, who amongst the following is not in Class I heir ?
(A) Father

(B) Mother
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
Ans : (A)
147. Under Mitakshara School Coparcenary interest devolves by
(A) Representation
(B) Survivorship
(C) Obstructed heritage
(D) Unobstructed heritage
Ans : (B)
148. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following is not entitled to
adopt ?
(A) An unmarried person
(B) Husband with the consent of wife
(C) Wife who is divorced
(D) Husband without the consent of wife
Ans : (D)
149. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the provision relating to registration of
marriage is given ?
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 5
Ans : (A)

150. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, husband and wife may file a petition of
divorce by mutual consent ?
(A) Section 13A
(B) Section 13B
(C) Section 14
(D) Section 9
Ans : (B)

Uttar Pradesh Assistant Prosecution Officers (Pre.) Exam., 2007


(Held on 14-6-2009)

Law : Solved Paper


1.
Point
out
wrong
answer
An order maintenance may be passed under section 125 of Cr. P. C. where a person neglects or
refuses
to
maintain
(A)
his
wife
even
if
living
separately
by
mutual
consent
(B)
his
legitimate
or
illegitimate
minor
child
(C) his legitimate or illegitimate child who is by reason of any physical or mental abnormality or injury,
unable
to
maintain
itself
(D)
his
father
or
mother
Ans
:
(A)

2.
An
order
of
discharge
(A)
is
not
a
judgement
(B) is not a defence against fresh proceedings without fresh facts and better evidence
(C)
takes
place
after
formal
framing
of
charges
(D)
establishes
innocence
of
accused
Ans
:
(A)
3. Section 50 of Cr. P. C. provides that every person arrested without warrant shall be informed of
grounds of arrest and of right to bail, if the arrest is made for a bailable offence. What is the effect of
non-compliance
of
these
provisions
?
(A) It shall not render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal
(B) Even if the provisions of this section are overlooked, error may be corrected later
(C) It shall render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal and shall enable the person
arrested
move
for
habeas-corpus
to
obtain
his
release
(D) It is simply a procedural error and the provisions of this section are not very material
Ans
:
(C)
4. In sub-section (1) of section 24 of the Cr. P. C.,
inserted
(A)
One
or
more
(B)
Two
or
more
(C)
At
least
five
(D)
None
of
Ans
:

after the words Public Prosecutor, the words


are
additional
public
prosecutors
additional
public
prosecutors
additional
public
prosecutors
the
above
(A)

5.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

compounded
are
of
Cr.
of
Cr.
of
Cr.
of
Cr.

The

offences
Schedule
Schedule
Section
Section

which

can
first
second
320
321

be

provided
P.
P.
P.
P.

under
C.
C.
C.
C.
(C)

6. In which case, it was held that at the time of framing charge or taking cognizance, accused has no
right
to
produce
any
material
?
(A)
Anil
Royal
v.
State
of
Bihar
(B)
State
of
Orissa
v.
Debendra
Nath
Padhi
(C)
Bani
Singh
v.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(D)
Pratap
Singh
v.
State
of
Jharkhand
Ans
:
(B)
7. In which sections of Cr. P. C., the procedure for trial before a court of Sessions is provided ?
(A)
260
to
265
(B)
238
to
250
(C)
251
to
259
(D)
225
to
237
Ans
:
(D)
8. Investigation includes
(A)
For
(B)
For
(C)
(D)
Ans

all

the proceedings conducted


the
collection
enquiry
than
For
All
the
:

by

police

of
a

officer
evidence
trial
trial
above
(A)

9. If the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the case, the magistrate may, in his
discretion,
discharge
the
accused
in
certain
circumstances.
In which one of the following circumstances the accused cannot be discharged ?
(A)
When
the
charge
has
been
framed

(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

When
When
When
the

the
the
proceeding

offence
offence
has
been
:

is
is
instituted

compoundable
noncognizable
on
complaint
(A)

10. A warrant of arrest and a proclamation under section 82 of Cr. P. C. were issued simultaneously
and later a consequential order of attachment under section 83 was also issued. What is the legality
of
these
orders
?
(A)
All
the
orders
are
perfectly
legal
(B) The order under section 82 is legal but order under section 83 is illegal
(C) The order under section 82 is illegal and improper vitiating the consequential order of attachment
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(C)
11. An offence is committed by a British citizen on an aircraft registered in India. The offender may be
dealt with under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
(A)
Section
188
(B)
Section
183
(C)
Section
182
(D)
Section
186
Ans
:
(A)
12. In which of the following cases it was held that the accused cannot use the case diary ? Neither
the accused nor his counsel can requisition the case diary and they cannot claim to go through it ?
(A)
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
v.
Harish
Chandra
Singh
(B)
Madhu
Limaye
v.
Union
of
India
(C)
Mukund
Lal
v.
Union
of
India
(D)
J.
M.
Desai
v.
State
of
Bombay
Ans
:
(C)
13. Which section of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the power of Sessions Judge to
transfer
cases
and
appeals
?
(A)
Section
409
(B)
Section
408
(C)
Section
407
(D)
Section
406
Ans
:
(B)
14.
Consider
the
following
statements
1.
Illegal
arrest
does
not
vitiate
the
trial.
2.
A
confession
is
not
invalidated
by
the
illegal
arrest.
3. Mere keeping a person in police station or restricting his movement within the precincts of a police
station
amounts
to
arrest.
4. Arrest need not be by handcuffing a person, but could be complete by spoken words.
Select
the
correct
answer
using
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A)
Only
1
and
2
are
correct
(B)
Only
1
and
4
are
correct
(C)
Only
1,
2
and
4
are
correct
(D)
1,
2,
3
and
4
all
are
correct
Ans
:
(C)
15. Under section 77
(A)
Within
the
(B)
At
(C)
At
(D)
Within
Ans
16.

Summons

case

of

Cr. P. C., a warrant of arrest


local
jurisdiction
of
court
any
place
within
any
place
the
jurisdiction
of
:
means

case

relating

to

an

may be
issuing
the
in
District

offence,

executed
warrant
state
India
court
(C)

punishable

with

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

17. Who
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
18.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Imprisonment
for
for
a
for
a

Imprisonment
Imprisonment
Imprisonment
can

commute
The

The
The

for
a

term

of
exceeding
exceeding

term
term
:

not

the

sentence of imprisonment
Appropriate
President
Governor
of
Home
Minister
:

for

life

under

of
the
of

life
years
years
years
(D)

10
two
two

the

Cr.

P. C. ?
Government
India
State
State
(A)

In
a
cognizable
offence
a
police
officer
cannot
arrest
an
accused
without
warrant
can
keep
the
accused
in
police
custody
without
a
remand
order
is
not
required
to
produce
the
accused
before
a
magistrate
may
arrest
an
accused
without
warrant
:
(D)

19.
The
objective
of
the
Police
Act
1949
is
(A) To reorganise the police and to make it a more efficient instrument for the prevention and
detection
of
crime
(B)
To
amend
the
law
relating
to
the
regulation
of
police
force
(C) To provide for the constitution of a general police district embracing two or more Union Territories
and
for
the
establishment
of
a
police
force
therefore
(D) To give more powers to the Inspector General and Director General of Police
Ans
:
(C)
20.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Police

Any

21.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
22.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

For
Civil
Armed
Mounted
Village

Diary
Case
General
General
of
:

patrolling
police
police
police
Chaukidar

the
of
shall
shall
shall
shall

roads
be
be
be
be

:
The

Public

Prosecutor

should
A
Two
Three
A
:

is
Diary
Diary
Register
above
(A)

inspect

the

Malkhana

ordinarily
employed
employed
employed
employed
(A)
once

is
month
months
months
fortnight
(A)

23.
Which
of
the
following
is not correct
?
(A)
The
police
may
control
and
regulate
the
processions
(B) The police has power to forbid or issue order banning the procession in public interest
(C) Those who convene a public assembly, may be required to obtain a licence from the Police
Superintendent
(D) The police may lay down conditions for the conduct of the public assembly or procession
Ans
:
(C)
24. Special police officers may be appointed under section 17 of the Uttar Pradesh Police Act, 1861
by

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
25.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Inspector
Any
Magistrate
on
Senior
Village
In

General
Magistrate
application
Superintendent
:

Chaukidars
Gram
charge
of
Superintendent
District

of
suo
Police
of

of

are

appointed

the

Police
of

Police
motu
Inspector
Police
(C)
by
Pradhan
Station
Police
Magistrate
(D)

26. Shall it be lawful for a police officer to take into custody a person who throws or lays down any
dirt, filth, rubbish or any stones on any road or street, which causes inconvenience or annoyance to
public
?
(A)
Yes,
even
without
warrant
(B)
Yes,
only
under
a
warrant
of
arrest
(C)
No,
because
it
is
not
an
offence
(D)
No,
because
the
police
officer
is
not
empowered
Ans
:
(A)
27. Particulars of which of the following organised gangs should not be entered in the gang
of
a
police
station
of
the
district
(A)
Gang
of
(B)
Gang
of
cattle
(C)
Gang
to
(D)
Gang
of
railway
goods
wagon
Ans
:
28. Is the Investigation Officer bound to reduce in writing
examination
under
section
161
of
the
(A)
(B)
(C)
Only
when
directed
by
(D)
Only
in
cases
Ans
:

register
?
Dacoits
thieves
burglars
thieves
(B)

any statement made to him in the course of


code
of
Criminal
Procedure
?
Yes
No
the
court
to
do
so
of
cognizable
offences
(B)

29. Which of the following is not required to be recorded in the General Diary ?
(A)
Details
contained
in
a
First
Information
Report
(B)
Departure
and
return
of
police
officers
on
and
from
duty
(C)
Receipt
and
disbursement
of
cash
(D)
Arrests
made
at
the
police
station
Ans
:
(A)
30.
Which
of
the
following
is not a
duty
of
the
police
officer
?
(A) To obey and execute all orders and warrants issued to him by any competent authority
(B)
To
collect
and
communicate
intelligence
affecting
the
public
peace
(C)
To
prevent
the
commission
of
offences
and
public
nuisances
(D) To take charge of all unclaimed property and dispose the same as the circumstances demand
Ans
:
(D)
31. History-sheet of class A, that is for dacoits, burglars, cattle thieves, railway goods wagon thieves
and
abettors
thereof,
may
be
discontinued
with
the
sanction
of
(A)
Superintendent
of
Police
(B)
District
Magistrate
(C)
Deputy
Inspector
General
of
Police
(D)
Inspector
General
of
Police
Ans
:
(A)

32. Which of the following entries is not made in the village crime Note-Book Part-I ?
(A)
Main
Castes
and
Tribals
(B)
Specialities
of
the
Population
(C)
Entries
of
offences
against
the
State
(D)
The
village
choukidar
Ans
:
(C)
33. No warrant of arrest in a noncognizable offence shall for any reason be kept by the police for more
than
(A)
One
month
(B)
Two
months
(C)
Six
weeks
(D)
Fifteen
days
Ans
:
(C)
34. In every Statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown from the language of the
Statute.
This
view
was
expressed
in
(A)
Sherras
Vs.
De
Rutzen
(B)
R.
Vs.
Dudley
and
Stephen
(C)
Queen
Vs.
Tolson
(D)
R.
Vs.
Arnold
Ans
:
(A)
35. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the borders and a person within the Indian
border is killed. The relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani to border Indian
Police
Station.
Can
the
Indian
courts
try
the
accused
for
murder
?
(A)
No,
Indian
courts
have
no
jurisdiction
(B)
Yes
(C) He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial in Pakistan
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
36.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Who

among
Chief
Chairman
of
Surveyor
Employee

the

following
Minister
the
Central
of
an
of
a
:

is not a
of
Board

public
servant
?
a
State
of
Film
Censors
Insurance
Company
Nationalized
Bank
(C)

37. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below
the
Lists
List-I
(a)
Kehar
Singh
Vs.
Delhi
Administration
(b)
Nawab
Ali
Vs.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(c)
Vishwanath
Vs.
State
of
Uttar
Pradesh
(d)
Mehboob
Shah
Vs.
Emperor
List-II
1.
Right
of
private
defence
2.
Criminal
Conspiracy
3.
Common
Intention
4.
Common
Object
5.
Mistake
of
fact
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
4
1
3
(B)
3
1
5
2
(C)
3
4
1
2
(D)
2
1
5
3
Ans
:
(A)

38. A makes an attempt to steal jewels by breaking open box, and finds after so opening the box, that
there
was
no
jewel
in
it.
What
offence
A
has
committed
?
(A)
Attempt
to
theft
(B)
Theft
(C)
Criminal
breach
of
trust
(D)
All
of
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
39. A sought to appear in LL.B. examination on the basis of forged marks-sheet of B.A., but forged
marks-sheet
was
detected
before
the
commencement
of
examination
(A)
A
is
not
guilty
of
cheating
(B)
A
is
guilty
of
attempt
to
cheat
(C)
A
is
guilty
of
cheating
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(C)
40.
Which
of
the
following
is not correct
?
(A) A person made non compos mentis by illness is exempted from criminal liability, if the act was
committed
under
the
influence
of
his
mental
disorder
(B) The intoxication, in order to be available as defence must be of that degree and extent as renders
the
accused
practically
an
automation
(C)
Voluntary
drunkenness
is
an
excuse
for
knowledge
(D) Except murder and offences punishable with death, compulsion is an excusable defence, if the act
is
done
under
the
fear
of
instant
death
Ans
:
(C)
41. Which of the following is not a meaning of the expression common intention under section 34 of
the
Indian
Penal
Code
?
(A) A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the persons
constituting
the
group
(B) A desire to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the consequence
(C) The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed
(D) Evil intent to necessarily commit the same offence which is committed
Ans
:
(B)
42. In which of the following cases necessity under section 81 of Indian Penal Code cannot be
pleaded
as
a
defence
?
(A)
Self-defence
and
prevention
of
violence
(B) Prevention of harm to the accused at the expense of an innocent person
(C)
Self-preservation
is
an
absolute
necessity
(D)
Choice
of
evils
affecting
person
other
than
the
accused
Ans
:
(C)
43. In which section of Indian Penal Code the maxim ignorantia juris non excusat is incorporated ?
(A)
Section
78
(B)
Section
76
(C)
Section
79
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
44. A, a child of exact seven years of age
(A)
not
be
guilty
under
section
82
(B)
be
guilty
if
he
is
(C)
not
be
covered
by
section
82
and
(D)
be
guilty
under
section
83
Ans
:

commits an offence. A will


of
Indian
Penal
Code
of
sufficient
maturity
83
of
Indian
Penal
Code
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(C)

45. A holds Z down, and fraudulently takes Zs money and jewels from Zs clothes, without Zs
consent.
A
is
guilty
of
committing

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Theft
Extortion
Robbery
Dacoity
(C)

46. Distinction between Section 34 and 149 of IPC has been authoritatively expounded by the
Supreme
Court
in
(A)
State
of
Maharashtra
v.
M.
H.
George
(B)
Guru
Deo
Singh
v.
State
of
Punjab
(C)
Ram
Kumar
v.
State
of
Haryana
(D)
Nanak
Chand
v.
State
of
Punjab
Ans
:
(D)
47. Which of the following is not necessary to constitute abetment by conspiracy ?
(A)
A
conspiracy
between
two
or
more
persons
(B) An act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of that conspiracy
(C) Such an act or illegal omission must also take place in order to do the thing conspired
(D) The abettor should concert the offence with the person who commits it
Ans
:
(D)
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
(a)
Tukaram
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
(b)
State
Vs.
Nalini
(c)
Barendra
Kumar
Ghosh
Vs.
Emperor
(d)
State
of
Maharashtra
Vs.
Sukh
Deo
Singh
List-II
1.
General
A.S.
Vaidya
case
2.
Mathura
rape
case
3.
Post-master
murder
case
4.
Rajeev
Gandhi
murder
case
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
2
4
3
1
(B)
1
2
3
4
(C)
4
3
2
1
(D)
3
1
2
4
Ans
:
(A)
49. If in a trial for causing death by negligence it is established that the accused had been at fault
though
victim
had
also
been
equally
at
fault
(A) The fact that the actual injury was brought about by carelessness or contribution of the victim also,
will
be
no
defence
(B)
Contributory
negligence
would
be
a
good
defence
(C) The degree of culpability as to the amount of negligence on his part shall be deciding factor
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(A)
50.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Which
one
of
the
following
Bitter
criticism
of
the
Inducing
people
to
cease
to
A
publicist
attack
on
the
An
attempt
to
remove
:

is
punishable
government
to
obey
law
and
policies
of
the
Ministers

as

sedition
?
overthrow
it
lawful
authority
the
government
from
power
(B)

51. A, for the purpose of inducing B to desist from prosecuting a civil suit, threatens to burn Bs
house.
What
offence
was
committed
by
A
in
this
case
?
(A)
Abetment
(B)
Criminal
assault

(C)
(D)
Ans

Criminal
Criminal
:

force
intimidation
(D)

52. A, with the intention of murdering Z, instigates B, a child below seven years at age, to do an act
which causes Zs death. B, in consequence of instigation, did the act in the absence of A, thereby
causes
Zs
death.
What
offence
has
been
committed
by
A
?
(A)
No
offence,
because
A
was
not
present
at
the
time
of
murder
(B)
Committed
simple
offence
of
causing
hurt
(C)
Committed
offence
of
attempt
to
murder
(D)
Committed
murder
Ans
:
(D)
53. The Supreme Court of India has upheld the constitutional validity of section 497 of Indian Penal
Code
(Adultery)
in
(A)
Smt.
Sowmithri
Vishnu
Vs.
Union
of
India
(B)
K.
M.
Nanawati
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
(C)
Priya
Bala
Ghosh
Vs.
Suresh
Chandra
Ghosh
(D)
Sukhbeer
Singh
Vs.
State
of
Haryana
Ans
:
(A)
54.
In
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
55.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Point
theft
Dishonest
Dishonest
Dishonest
Dishonest

out
there
to
take
to
take
to
take
to
take
:

intention
intention
intention
intention

correct
must
any
kind
of
any
valuable
any
movable
only
immovable

response
be
property
security
property
property
(C)

Which
of
the
following
is
not
an
illustration
of
assault
?
A
takes
up
a
stick
saying
to
B,
I
will
beat
you
A
threatens
B
to
see
him
later
on
A
medically
examines
a
woman
B
without
her
consent
A
throws
brickbats
into
the
house
of
B
:
(B)

56. A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells Z that they will fire at Z if Z
attempts
to
leave
the
building
(A)
A
wrongfully
restrains
Z
(B)
A
wrongfully
obstructs
Z
(C)
A
wrongfully
confines
Z
(D)
A
wrongfully
orders
Z
Ans
:
(C)
57.
Which
one
of
the
following
is
an
illustration
of
criminal
attempt
?
(A)
A
tries
to
kill
B
by
witchcraft
(B) A administers a poisonous drug to a woman B with an intention to cause miscarriage, but the
woman
was
not
pregnant
(C) A takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else
(D) A goes to Kolkata to buy dyes to make counterfeit currency notes
Ans
:
(B)
58. A
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
59.

has

knocked down
Attempt

Which one

four

teeth

of B.
to
Causing

Causing
Attempt

has

committed
cause

the

grievous
to
:

of

the

following

is

not

punishable

under

the

Indian

offence

of
hurt
hurt
hurt
murder
(C)

Penal Code

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Preparation
Preparation
Preparation
to
Preparation to commit

to
to
wage
depredation

on

war
the

commit
commit
against
territory of

the
friendly

murder
dacoity
state
power
(A)

60. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her fathers house with Rs. 10,000 and accompanied Z to
various places. All the traveling as well as Hotel charges were paid out of the said amount as Z had
no money. During the course of their journey Z had sexual intercourse with her thrice with her
consent.
Here
Z
is
liable
under
section
(A)
363
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(B)
366
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(C)
366-A
of
Indian
Penal
Code
(D)
376
of
Indian
Penal
Code
Ans
:
(D)
61. Assertion (A) : Homicide is the killing of a human
Reason
(R)
: Homicide
is
Select
the
correct
answer
with
the
help
of
Codes
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
Ans
:

being by a human being.


always
unlawful.
codes
given
below
:
correct explanation of (A)
correct explanation of (A)
(R)
is
false
(R)
is
true
(C)

62. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
(a)
Act
of
Judge
when
acting
judicially
(b)
Accident
in
doing
a
lawful
act
(c)
Act
of
a
child
under
seven
years
of
age
(d)
Act
of
a
person
of
unsound
mind
List-II
1.
Section
82
of
I.P.C.
2.
Section
84
of
I.P.C.
3.
Section
77
of
I.P.C.
4.
Section
80
of
I.P.C.
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
4
1
2
3
(B)
3
4
1
2
(C)
1
2
3
4
(D)
2
3
4
1
Ans
:
(B)
63. X and Y agreed to commit murder of Z by poisoning and Y was to procure poison, but he did
not
procure
it.
X
and
Y
are
guilty
of
(A)
Abetment
of
murder
by
conspiracy
(B) Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 of Indian Penal Code
(C)
No
offence
(D)
Criminal
conspiracy
to
murder
Z
Ans
:
(D)
64.
Which
of
the
following
statements
is
correct
?
(A) The right of private defence under Indian Penal Code is available even against an act which is not
offence
under
the
code
(B) The right of private defence can be exercised to repeal unlawful aggression and also to retaliate
(C) The right of private defence is available to defend only ones own person and property
(D) The right of private defence extends to the causing of death when the assault is made with the
intention
of
wrongfully
confining
a
person

Ans

(D)

65. A shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe
that
A
is
about
to
strike
Z.
A
has
committed
(A)
Use
of
force
(B)
Use
of
criminal
force
(C)
Assault
(D)
Use
of
force
and
assault
both
Ans
:
(C)
66. A sent through the post office, a packet containing seditious publications, with a covering letter
requesting the addressee to circulate it to others. It was intercepted and never reached the
addressee.
A
(A)
Committed
the
offence
of
sedition
(B)
Did
not
commit
any
offence
(C)
Is
guilty
of
inciting
communal
riot
(D)
Is
guilty
of
an
attempt
to
commit
sedition
Ans
:
(D)
67.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Which

one

of

the

following

is

an

inchoate-crime

?
Riot
attempt
assembly
nuisance
(B)

Criminal
Unlawful
Public
:

68. Assault
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

in

order

to

outrage
Section
Section
Section
Section

the

modesty

of

woman
350
351
353
354

is

punishable

under
I.P.C.
I.P.C.
I.P.C.
I.P.C.
(D)

69. Which of the following would not be relevant in evidence under section 8 of Indian Evidence Act ?
(A)
Evidence
of
the
existence
of
a
motive
for
the
crime
charged
(B)
Evidence
of
a
statement
which
accompanies
some
conduct
(C) Evidence of a statement which influences and affects the conduct of a person, whose conduct is
otherwise
relevant
(D) Evidence of a statement of the act of robbery without making any complaint
Ans
:
(D)
70. In a case where a doctor commits rape on a woman of 30 years of age under his treatment and
the
woman
says
that
she
did
not
consent,
the
court
(A)
will
need
proof
(B)
shall
presume
that
she
did
not
consent
(C)
may
need
corroboration
(D)
may
presume
or
may
not
presume
her
consent
Ans
:
(B)
71.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Which
one
of
the
following
is
a
judgement-in-personam
?
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
divorce
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
restitution
of
conjugal
rights
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
insolvency
A
final
judgement
in
a
suit
for
admiralty
matters
:
(B)

72. Which of the following is not correct for relevancy of evidence to prove conspiracy ?
(A) There must be reasonable ground to believe that two or more persons have entered into a
conspiracy

(B) The act in question must have been done after the time when the intention to conspire was first
entertained
by
any
of
them
(C) The act must have been done in reference to their common intention
(D) It can also be used in favour of the other party or for the purpose of showing that such a person
was
not
a
party
to
the
conspiracy
Ans
:
(D)
73.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Who

amongst

the

following

is

not
bribe

an

A
A
A

person

receiving
:

stolen

accomplice

?
giver
detective
prostitute
property
(B)

74.
The
English
doctrine
of
Res
Gestae
(A)
has
no
place
in
India
(B)
has
place
in
India
(C) has place in India and has been incorporated under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(D) has been incorporated under section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Ans
:
(C)
75. Assertion
(A)
: An
admission
can
be
used
against
a
co-defendant.
Reason (R) : An admission binds the maker of it. It may be used in his favour as well.
Select
the
correct
answer
from
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(B)
76. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding admission under section 17 of Indian
Evidence
Act
?
(A)
Admission
operates
as
waiver
of
proof
(B)
Admission
is
a
statement
which
is
necessarily
against
ones
own
interest
(C) A statement which suggests some inference as to fact-in-issue or relevant fact, may be admission
(D)
It
is
generally
irrelevant
as
to
whom
an
admission
is
made
Ans
:
(D)
77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
List-I
(a)
Section
46
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(b)
Section
47
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(c)
Section
47A
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
(d)
Section
48
of
Indian
Evidence
Act
List-II
1.
Opinion
as
to
digital
signature
2.
Opinion
as
to
existence
of
right
or
custom,
when
relevant
3.
Facts
bearing
upon
opinion
of
experts
4.
Opinion
as
to
handwriting
when
relevant
Codes
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A)
4
3
2
1
(B)
1
2
3
4
(C)
2
1
4
3
(D)
3
4
1
2
Ans
:
(D)
78. When can a person prove his own statement constituting admission, or it may be proved on his

behalf
(A)
When
(B)
When
(C)
When
(D) When it is
Ans

it
only

is
it
it
an

oral

relevant
is
is
admission
:

?
as
dying
declaration
relevant
as
admission
relevant
as
confession
as to content of electronic record
(A)

79. Assertion (A) : A confession always goes against the maker of it, provided it has been made
freely
and
voluntarily.
Reason
(R)
:A
confession
is
inadmissible
against
a
coaccused.
Choose
the
correct
answer
using
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(C)
80. A statement before the police officer in the course of investigation was that the design was carried
out according to plan; but no reference was made to persons who were involved in murder or to the
maker
of
statement
himself
(A) Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this statement, being hit by section 25 of Indian
Evidence
Act
(B) Prosecution may prove this statement. It is not hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(C) Only that part of the statement may be proved which leads to discovery of a fact in consequence
of
information
received
(D)
None
of
the
above
is
correct
Ans
:
(C)
81.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Admissions
Conclusive
Not
None

Conclusive
Not
the

of

above

is

are
proof
proof
estoppel
correct
(B)

82. What is the evidentiary value of the confession of a co-accused implicating himself as well as his
other
non-confessing
coaccused
?
(A)
Such
a
confession
is
relevant
against
all
the
co-accused
(B)
It
shall
not
be
relevant
against
non-confessing
coaccused
(C)
Such
a
confession
amounts
to
proof
of
guilt
of
all
the
coaccused
(D) If the confessing co-accused is acquitted of the main offence, his confession shall cease to be
admissible
Ans
:
(A)
83.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans
84.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

Relevancy

and

admissibility

Neither

section

of

Indian

synonymous

Synonymous
Which

under

the

nor

and
:
Indian

Evidence
Section
Section
Section
Section
:

Evidence

co-extensive
Act

defines

Leading

Act
are
Synonymous
coextensive
Co-extensive
both
(B)
Question

?
140
141
142
143
(B)

85. The case of Sarat Chander Dey v. Gopal Chander Laha, (1891) 19 I.A. 203 is related to which of

the
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

following

section

of

Indian
Section
Section
Section
Section
:

Evidence

Act,

1872

?
6
115
124
45
(B)

86. In which year the electronic evidence was incorporated in the Indian evidence Act as a part of
documentary
Evidence
?
(A)
2001
(B)
2002
(C)
2000
(D)
1999
Ans
:
(C)
87.
Which
of
the
following
is not a
public
document
?
(A)
Records
of
a
nationalized
Bank
(B)
A
post-mortem
report
(C)
A
private
waqf
deed,
recorded
in
the
office
of
subregistrar
(D) Entries made by a police officer in the site inspection map and site memo
Ans
:
(B)
88. Where a married woman, dying of burns was a person of unsound mind and the medical
certificate vouchsafed her physical fitness for a statement and not the state of mind at the crucial
moment; in which of the following cases the court said that the statement could not be relied upon ?
(A)
Ravi
Chander
Vs.
State
of
Punjab
(B)
Shripatrao
Vs.
State
of
Maharashtra
(C)
Uka
Ram
Vs.
State
of
Rajasthan
(D)
Baldev
Raj
Vs.
State
of
Himachal
Pradesh
Ans
:
(A)
89.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

The
As
As
a
As
a

principle
of
Promissory
Estoppel
found
an
exception
to
the
doctrine
of
rule
of
future
consideration
in
the
law
rule
of
past
consideration
in
the
law
None
of
the
:

its
root
consideration
of
contract
of
contract
above
(B)

90. Under which section of Evidence Act, a tenant of immovable property is estopped from denying a
title
of
the
landlord
to
that
property
?
(A)
Section
115
(B)
Section
116
(C)
Section
117
(D)
None
of
the
above
Ans
:
(B)
91.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

The

case

of

Pakala

Narain
Res
Dying
:

Swamy

v.

Emperor

relates

to
gestae
declaration
Accomplice
Co-accused
(B)

92. An accused charged under section 302 and 304 B of the Indian Penal Code is acquitted of the
offence under section 302 of Indian Penal Code. The presumption under section 113 B of the
Evidence
Act
is
(A)
Automatically
refuted
(B)
Not
refuted
(C)
Not
relevant
(D)
Irrelevant
and
otiose

Ans

(B)

93. Assertion (A) : B writes to his wife C a letter, which contains defamatory matters about D. C
cannot
be
compelled
to
disclose
this
communication.
Reason (R) : Any communication made during subsistence of marriage by a husband to his wife or
vice-versa
is
protected
as
privileged
communication.
Select
the
correct
answer
from
the
codes
given
below
Codes
:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)
(A)
is
true
but
(R)
is
false
(D)
(A)
is
false
but
(R)
is
true
Ans
:
(A)
94. Any condition imposed by
(A)
Can
be
set
aside
(B)
Cannot
be
(C)
Can
be
modified
(D)
Can
be
set
Ans

a Magistrate when releasing any person on


or
modified
only
by
the
Supreme
modified
by
any
by
Sessions
Court
or
High
aside
only
by
Sessions
:

bail
Court
court
Court
Court
(C)

95. During investigation of an offence of committing rape, medical examination of the alleged victim
may
be
done
(A)
Only
on
the
order
of
a
Magistrate
(B) Necessarily on the request of concerned investigation officer, if he deems it fit
(C) After the investigation officer obtains permission of his Superintendent of Police
(D) With the consent of such woman victim or of any person competent to give such consent on her
behalf
Ans
:
(D)
96.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Ans

The main characteristic of the code of Criminal Procedure,


The
separation
of
the
judiciary
from
the
The
separation
of
the
legislature
from
the
The
separation
of
the
revenue
work
from
the
To
provide
judicial
powers
to
the
executive
:

1973 is
executive
executive
executive
magistrates
(A)

97. Which of the following is not correct regarding provisions of bail in case of non-bailable offences ?
(A) Bail may be granted, if the court concerned comes to the conclusion that prosecution has failed to
establish
a
prima-facie
case
(B) Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in spite of existence of a prima-facie case there is
need to release such person on bail in view of facts and circumstances of case
(C) Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may be required for being identified by witness during
investigation
(D) If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for 7 years or more,
no person can be released on bail without giving an opportunity of hearing to the public prosecutor
Ans
:
(D)
98. Under which section of code of Criminal Procedure, security is taken of good behaviour from
habitual
offenders
?
(A)
Section
109
(B)
Section
110
(C)
Section
111
(D)
Section
112
Ans
:
(B)
99. Which of the following is not a duty of the Magistrate while recording confession under section
164
Cr.
P.
C.
?
(A) Duty to explain to the person making the confession that he is not bound to make confession
(B) Duty to work that if he makes a confession, it may be used as evidence against him

(C) Duty to record the confessional statement in the form of questions and answers
(D) Duty to be satisfied and have reason to believe the confession was voluntary
Ans
:
(C)
100. Which one of
(A)
D.
K.
(B)
Tama
(C)
Dinesh
(D)
Dimple
Ans : (A)

the following is a case relating to anticipatory bail ?


Ganesh
Babu
Vs.
P.
T.
Manokaran
Vs.
State
of
West
Bengal
Dalmia
Vs.
C.
B.
I.
Gupta
Vs.
Rajiv
Gupta

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2006

Law : Solved Paper


(Held on 9-3-2008)
1. Jurisprudence is the Philosophy of positive law. It is said by
(A) Austin
(B) Paton
(C) Keeton
(D) Dias
Ans : (A)

2. Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principles of law. Who said it ?
(A) Allen
(B) Bentham
(C) Holland
(D) Dias
Ans : (A)

3. The subject of Hart-Fuller debate in Harvard Law Review is


(A) Law and Society
(B) Law and Morality
(C) Law and Liability
(D) Law and Justice
Ans : (B)

4. An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth was the purpose of punishment according to the
(A) Deterrent theory
(B) Preventive theory
(C) Retributive theory
(D) Reformative theory
Ans : (C)

5. An interest protected against the world at large is called


(A) Right in strict sense
(B) Right in repropria
(C) Right in rem
(D) Right in personam
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following jurist distinguished between Lex Aeterma, Lex Naturalis, Lex Divina and Lex
Humana ?
(A) Cicero

(B) Justinian
(C) St. Thomas Acquinas
(D) Plato
Ans : (C)

7. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists
List-I
(a) Jurisprudence is Lawyers extra version.
(b) Source of Law is Volkgeist.
(c) Law is a union of primary and secondary rules.
(d) Legal system is a pyramidal structure of norms.
List-II
1. Hart
2. Kelsen
3. Julius stone
4. Savigny
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (C)

8. Ownership is a plenary control over an object. This definition is given by


(A) Paton
(B) Pollock
(C) Holland
(D) Kelson
Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following Jurists has explained legal rights and duties in terms of Jural correlations
and jural opposites ?
(A) Hohfeld
(B) Mansfield
(C) Holland
(D) Holmes
Ans : (A)

10. According to Sir Henry Maine, the movement of progressive societies has been a movement from

(A) Status to social contract


(B) Natural law to positive law
(C) Custom to legislation
(D) Status to contract
Ans : (D)

11. The purpose of law is to bring pleasure and avoid pain. Who said it ?
(A) Bentham
(B) Salmond
(C) Kelsen
(D) Hobbes
Ans : (A)

12. The exponent of theory of Social Engineering is


(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Comte
(C) Duguit
(D) Ihering
Ans : (A)

13. Who is the author of the book Concept of Law ?


(A) H.L.A. Hart
(B) Austin
(C) Bentham
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

14. Who among the following said that legislation is formal utterance (statement) of legislative organs
of the society ?
(A) Dias
(B) Allen
(C) Gray
(D) Black stone
Ans : (C)

15. THe celebrated essay Determining Ratio Decendi of case was written by
(A) Goodhart
(B) Winfield
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Julius stone
Ans : (A)

16. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists
List-I
(a) Historical School
(b) Vienna School
(c) Natural Law School
(d) Sociological School
List-II
1. Duguit 2. Stammler
3. Kelsen 4. Puchta
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (B)

17. The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty, said by
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Ihering
(C) Ehrlich
(D) Duguit
Ans : (D)

18. Law grows with a nation, increases with it and dies at its dissolution and is a characteristic of it.
This is the view of
(A) Natural Law School
(B) Historical School
(C) Analytical School
(D) Sociological School
Ans : (B)

19. The main purpose of the Corporate Sole is to


(A) Make the property easily inheritable
(B) Make the property easily transferable
(C) Maintain countinuity of an office
(D) Protect the property of State
Ans : (C)

20. Dealing with sources of law who from amongst the following says that The courts put life into the
dead words of statutes ?
(A) Holland
(B) Gray
(C) Salmond
(D) Austin
Ans : (B)

21. Analytical, Historical and Ethical Jurisprudence are three different parts of the Jurisprudence,
according to
(A) Salmond
(B) Ihering
(C) Hart
(D) Immanuel Kant
Ans : (A)

22. Even though Emergency is proclaimed, the enforcement of following rights through courts cannot
be suspended
(A) Art. 14, 19 and 21
(B) Art. 20, 21 and 22
(C) Art. 19 and 21
(D) Art. 20 and 21
Ans : (D)

23. Powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members are provided under
(A) Article105
(B) Article106
(C) Article107
(D) Article194
Ans : (A)

24. In which of the following cases Supreme Court has condemned cruelty or torture during Police
custody as being violative of Art 21 ?
(A) Francis Coralie Vs. Union of Territory of Delhi
(B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(C) P. Rethiram Vs. Union of India
(D) Olga Tellis Vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation
Ans : (A)

25. Which Article of the Constitution provides that an advice tendered by Ministers to the President
Shall not be inquired into in any court ?
(A) Article74(1)
(B) Article74(2)
(C) Article75
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

26. In order to prevent defection of Members of Parliament, Clause (2) in Article 102 and Schedule X
were added
(A) By Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
(B) By Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978
(C) By Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

27. Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can be enlarged


(A) By Chief Justice of India
(B) By President of India
(C) By Parliament by Law
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

28. The State shall endeavour to promote international peace and security. is provided in
(A) Article-48A
(B) Article-49
(C) Article-50
(D) Article-51
Ans : (D)

29. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation is applied where


(A) Legislature acts within its Jurisdiction
(B) Legislature acts beyond its Jurisdiction
(C) Legislature acts apparently within its jurisdiction but actually acts beyond its Jurisdiction
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

30. The case of S. R. Bommai Vs. Union of India (1994) is related to


(A) Parliamentary Privileges
(B) Freedom of Press
(C) Imposition of Presidents Rule
(D) Right to Equality
Ans : (C)

31. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists
List-I
(a) The Constitution (52th Amendment)
(b) The Constitution (86th Amendment)
(c) The Constitution (1st Amendment)
(d) The Constitution (93rd Amendment)
List-II
1. Reservation in election

2. Ninth Schedule
3. Tenth Schedule
4. Right to Education
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (B)

32. The Indian Constitution provides a Unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than
Federal State with subsidiary Unitary features. This statement is of
(A) Sir Ivor Jennings
(B) K. C. Wheare
(C) A. V. Dicey
(D) S.A. de Smith
Ans : (B)

33. The case of A. R. Antulay Vs. R. S. Nayak (1988) is related to


(A) Article-12
(B) Preamble of the Constitution
(C) Article-311
(D) Article-368
Ans : (A)

34. Which Provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the Government
of the State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution ?
(A) Article-352
(B) Article-355
(C) Article-356
(D) Article-360
Ans : (B)

35. Doctrine of Pleasure applies to


(A) Article-15(4)
(B) Article-16(4)
(C) Article-356
(D) Article-310
Ans : (D)

36. Preamble of the Constitution declares India to be a


(A) Secular Socialist Sovereign Democratic Republic
(B) Socialist Secular Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
(D) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Ans : (D)

37. The appointment of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is provided under


(A) Article-48
(B) Article-147
(C) Article-149
(D) Article-148
Ans : (D)

38. To whom the Speaker of Lok Sabha should address his letter of resignation ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)

39. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities ?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Ans : (C)

40. Who elects the Vice President of India ?


(A) Members of Rajya Sabha only
(B) Members of Lok Sabha only
(C) Members of both the Houses of Parliament
(D) Members of all State Legislatures
Ans : (C)

41. Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters is stated in Article.
(A) 131
(B) 132
(C) 136
(D) 134
Ans : (D)

42. The President of India has power to grant pardon under which Article ?
(A) 172
(B) 74
(C) 72
(D) 92
Ans : (C)

43. According to which decision of the Supreme Court, the state cannot impose its reservation policy
upon any unaided private professional educational institution ?
(A) M. Nagaraj Vs. Union of India
(B) P. A. Inamdar Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) TMA Pai foundation Vs.State of Karnataka
(D) Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India
Ans : (B)

44. Establishment of Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States is provided under
(A) Article316
(B) Article319
(C) Article315
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

45. Who among the following is Sovereign in India ?


(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India

(C) Council of Ministers


(D) We the people of India
Ans : (D)

46. How many States signed the charter of United Nations at San Francisco in 1945 ?
(A) 41
(B) 15
(C) 51
(D) 52
Ans : (C)

47. The first Woman judge of International Court of Justice is


(A) Rosalyn Higgins
(B) Rosa E. Otumbiyeva
(C) Gertrude Mongella
(D) Sadako Ogata
Ans : (A)

48. Who formulated the theory of Pacta Sunt Sirvanda to explain the basis of international law ?
(A) By Kelsen
(B) By Oppenheim
(C) By Starke
(D) By Anzilotti
Ans : (D)

49. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter, the Security Council may use armed force against a State
?
(A) 42
(B) 45
(C) 41
(D) 51
Ans : (A)

50. Who said A State is and becomes an international person through recognition only exclusively ?
(A) Holland
(B) Hall
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Starke
Ans : (C)

51. On which date United Nations Day is celebrated ?


(A) June 26
(B) December 10
(C) July 11
(D) October 24
Ans : (D)

52. A Judge of the International Court of Justice can be removed by


(A) A resolution of the Security Council
(B) A resolution of the General Assembly
(C) The Secretary General
(D) The unanimous opinion of remaining judges
Ans : (D)

53. Who said that usage represents the initial stage of custom; custom begins when usage ends ?
(A) Starke
(B) Brierly
(C) Hall
(D) Grotius
Ans : (A)

54. The Second World Conference on Human Rights, 1993 was held in
(A) Vienna
(B) Paris
(C) Geneva
(D) New Delhi
Ans : (A)

55. The Selection blockade of Cuba by the United states of America was done in
(A) October, 1962
(B) December, 1960
(C) September, 1962
(D) October, 1963
Ans : (D)

56. The Estrada doctrine is concerned with


(A) Intervention
(B) State Succession
(C) Custom
(D) Recognition
Ans : (D)

57. Though there is no specific provision reagrading withdrawal from membership of the U.N. Charter,
yet one of the following withdrew from it
(A) India
(B) Iran
(C) Iraq
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

58. Assertion (A) : The United Nations is based on the sovereign equality of States.
Reason (R) : Permanent members of the Security Council have veto power.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

59. Which from amongst the following is primary source of International Law ?
(A) Judicial Decisions
(B) Writings of International Jurists
(C) International Usages
(D) International Customs
Ans : (D)

60. Which one of the following organs of the U.N. has the power to suspend or expel a member of
United Nations ?

(A) Economic and Social Council


(B) Security Council
(C) International Court of Justice
(D) General Assembly on the recommendation of Security Council
Ans : (D)

61. How many principles of the U.N. are laid down for organic observance by the United Nations ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Two
(D) Seven
Ans : (D)

62. The International Court of Justice may decide a case ex aequo et bono if
(A) The court deems it necessary
(B) The President of the court desires so
(C) The General Assembly requests the court
(D) The parties concerned agree for it
Ans : (D)

63. The view that international law is not law but international positive morality was held by
(A) Oppenheim
(B) Starke
(C) Holland
(D) Austin
Ans : (D)

64. Which judge is considered pioneer in the growth of the principle of absolute liability in tort ?
(A) Blackburn J.
(B) Lord Denning M.R.
(C) Lord Halsbury
(D) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
Ans : (D)

65. There is no distinction between Sovereign functions and Non- Sovereign functions of State in
regard to liability of State in tort is said in the case of
(A) Kasturi Lal Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Nagraj Rao & Co. Vs. State of A.P.
(C) State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidhyawati
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

66. Who among the following has propounded the Pigeon Hole Theory related to law of torts ?
(A) Winfield
(B) Underhill
(C) Salmond
(D) Flemming
Ans : (C)

67. In which of the following case relating to contributory negligence, the principle first applied by the
Court came to be known as the Last opportunity rule ?
(A) Butterfield Vs. Forrester
(B) Davies Vs. Mann
(C) Admiralty Commissioner V.S.S. Volute

(D) British Colombia Electric Railway Vs. Loach


Ans : (B)

68. A master is liable for the tort committed by his servant the servant acts
(A) For the benefit of his master
(B) During his duty hours
(C) In the course of his employment
(D) To the detriment of the plaintiff
Ans : (C)

69. Tort is infringement of a


(A) Right in personam
(B) Right in rem
(C) Both right in personam and right in rem
(D) Neither right in personam nor right in rem
Ans : (B)

70. If it was a lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it. This
observation was made by the court in one of the following cases
(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles
(B) Ashby Vs. White
(C) Christei Vs. Davey
(D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet
Ans : (A)

71. As a legislative sequal to the Oleum Gas leak case, the Indian Parliament enacted a law. Which of
the following was that legislation ?
(A) National Environment Tribunal Act
(B) Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Act
(C) Public Liability Insurance Act
(D) Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act
Ans : (C)

72. Torts Actionable perse are those torts


(A) In which the plaintiff will have to prove special damage
(B) In which liability arises without intention or negligence
(C) In which some public right is infringed coupled with particular damage
(D) In which the plaintiff can sue even though he has suffered no actual loss
Ans : (D)

73. The exception of Act of God was attached to


(A) The Rule of strict liability
(B) The Rule of absolute liability
(C) The Rule of contribution
(D) Joint tort feasors
Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following requirements from an essential element of the defence of fair comment in
the tort of defamation ?
1. The matter commented on must be of public interest.
2. It must be an assertion of fact.
3. It must be an expression of opinion.
4. The comment must be fair
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

75. An appropriate remedy for tort is an action for


(A) Injunction
(B) Prosecution
(C) Unliquidated damages
(D) All are correct
Ans : (C)

76. There is a childrens school by the side of a highway. While classes are going on, two children of
the school stray on the highway. A truck is moving on the highway at narmal speed. While trying to
avoid hitting the children, the truck collides with a bullock-cart. One person is injured, the bullocks die
and the truck is also damaged. Which one of the following propositions correctly describes the
liability ?
(A) The school administration would be liable because they were negligent
(B) The truck driver shall be liable because he did not take care
(C) The bullock-cart puller would be liable because he has not taken due care
(D) The children would be liable as they have contributed to the accident
Ans : (A)

77. Strict liability under law of torts means


(A) Liability that is very severe
(B) Liability for any dangerous activity
(C) Liability without the need to establish fault
(D) Liability for mass torts
Ans : (C)

78. Youssonpoff Vs. M.G.M. Pictures Ltd., is a leading case on which of the following ?
(A) Defamation
(B) Negligence
(C) Contributory Negligence
(D) Strict liability
Ans : (A)

79. Assertion (A) : Tort liability and criminal liability are similar in some respects only.
Reason (R) : Because both are based on a duty primarily fixed by law and the duty is towards
persons generally.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

80. Which one of the following limitations to the rule of Volenti non fit injuria is not correct?
(A) The consent should be free
(B) Consent to illegal act is no consent
(C) Consent in rescue cases is no consent

(D) More knowledge of the rist is not assumption to the risk


Ans : (D)

81. A sings obscene songs near the gate of Girls Degree College, what offence he has committed ?
(A) Assault
(B) Outraging the modesty of a women
(C) Criminal intimidation
(D) Obscenity
Ans : (D)

82. The principal of criminal liability


Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit reawas developed by
(A) Equity courts
(B) Comon law courts
(C) Courts of star chamber
(D) Curia Regis
Ans : (B)

83. Gorachand Gopee Vs. R is a leading case on


(A) Insanity
(B) Common intention
(C) Common object
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

84. For a sexual intercourse by the husband against the will of his wife, to be a rape the age of the
wife should be
(A) Below 17 years
(B) Below 15 years
(C) Below 16 years
(D) Below 18 years
Ans : (B)

85. Assertion (A) : To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted
should be committed.
Reason (R) : Because an abetment of an offence itself is an offence.
Codes :
(A) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Ans : (C)

86. X and Y agree to commit theft in Zs house but no theft is actually committed, they are guilty of

(A) No offence
(B) Abetment by conspiracy
(C) Abetment by instigation
(D) Criminal conspiracy
Ans : (D)

87. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists
List-I
(a) Insanity as a defence

(b) Common intention


(c) Necessity
(d) Mistake as a defence
List-II
1. Emperor Vs. Barendra Kumar Ghosh
2. R. Vs. Mcnaughten
3. Bhavojivaji Vs. Mulji Dayal
4. R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)

88. A instigates B to burn Zs house. B sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of
property there. In this case
(A) A is guilty of theft by setting fire to the house
(B) A, though guilty of abetting the burning of the house, is not guilty of abetting the theft
(C) A is guilty of abetting the burning of the house as well as abetting the offence of theft
(D) A is neither guilty of abetting the burning of the house nor of theft
Ans : (B)

89. Some militants are hiding in a house occupied by an individual. Militants are engaged in an attack
on the police party by firing from the house. The police persons, to defend themselves, fire towards
the house and an innocent person in the house is hit by the bullet and dies as a result thereof. The
police persons are guilty of
(A) No offence as they can claim the right of private defence
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Murder
(D) Death by rash or negligent act
Ans : (A)

90. A amd B were going on a boat. Suddenly the boat began to sink. A pushed B in the river and
saved himself. B was drowned
(A) A is justified in pushing B as it was an act of necessity
(B) No necessity except private defence is justifiable in killing a man
(C) It was done under compulsion
(D) All of the above are incorrect
Ans : (D)

91. The general exception based on the maxim de minimum non curat lex is
(A) Triviality
(B) Accident
(C) Consent
(D) Self-defence
Ans : (A)

92. The Supreme Court decision State Vs. Mayor Hans George AIR 1965 SC 722 is famous for
(A) Strict interpretation of the socio-economic offence statutes
(B) Condition of implied exclusion of a mens rea.
(C) Non-exclusion of mens rea unless the statute expressly requires so

(D) None of the above


Ans : (C)

93. In which of the following case, The Supreme Court held that Persistent demand of dowry is
cruelty against wife ?
(A) Hafizunissan Vs. Mohamad Yasin Khan
(B) Mohammed Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano
(C) Anuradha Vs. Dr. Srikant
(D) Nijhawan Vs. Nijhawan
Ans : (C)

94. In every statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown. This view was expressed in

(A) Harding Vs. Price


(B) R. Vs. Dudley
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(D) R. Vs. Lipman
Ans : (C)

95. A instigates B to murder C. B refuses to do so. In this case A is liable to


(A) Guilty of no offence
(B) Guilty of obetting B to commit murder
(C) Guilty of murder
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

96. What is the minimum of persons required to further the common object ?
(A) 2 or more than 2 persons
(B) 4 persons
(C) 5 or more than 5 persons
(D) Number of persons is not certain
Ans : (C)

97. A occasionally has sexual intercourse with the wife of C without his consent. Under which
Section of IPC C can seek remedy ?
(A) 494
(B) 495
(C) 496
(D) 497
Ans : (D)

98. The father and mother-in-law of a woman subject her to cruelty for dowry. Which of the following
Section of IPC provides punishment ?
(A) Sec. 323
(B) Sec. 350
(C) Sec. 349
(D) Sec. 498 A
Ans : (D)

99. Against which of the following offences right of private defence of body does not extend to the
causing of death ?
(A) Rape
(B) Gratifying unnatural offence
(C) Causing miscarriage

(D) Kidnapping
Ans : (C)

100. The provision of India Penal Code have come into operation from the date ?
(A) November 30, 1861
(B) January 1, 1862
(C) July 1, 1862
(D) December 31, 1862
Ans : (B)

101. Which of the following is not an essential element of fraud ?


(A) It must be committed with an intention to deceive another party
(B) The person making false statement knows that it is false
(C) It must be committed by a party to the contract
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

102. Which one of the following cases is related to frustration of contract ?


(A) Carlill Vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(B) Hadley Vs. Baxendale
(C) Derry Vs. Peek
(D) Raja Dhruvdeo Chand Vs. Harmohinder Singh & others
Ans : (D)

103. A promises to paint a picture for B. B afterwards forbids him to do so. A is no longer bound to
perform to promise under which of the following Section ?
(A) Section63
(B) Section62
(C) Section64
(D) Section65
Ans : (A)

104. Assertion (A) : A party to the contract excuses himself from performing his part of contract, on
the ground that he is left with no money or property to pay.
Reason (R) : An agreement to do an impossible act in itself is void and both parties are discharged
from future performance.
Make the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (D)

105. A knows that his horse had a damaged hoof which he filled up in such a way as to defy detection
and sold it to B. This defect was subsequently discovered by B. The act of A will amount to
(A) A false suggestion
(B) Active concealment of fact
(C) Misrepresentation
(D) Mistake
Ans : (B)

106. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct by using the codes given below the list
ListI

(a) Ramsgate Victoria Hotel Co.


Vs. Montefiore
(b) Tinn Vs. Hoffmann
(c) Household Fire Insurance Co. Vs. Grant
(d) Fitch Vs. Snedaker
List-II
1. Acceptance complete when letter of acceptance posted.
2. Cross offers do not create contract.
3. Communication of offer cannot be waived.
4. Unreasonable delay in accepting offer causes it to lapse.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans : (B)

107. A promises B to pay C Rs. 10,000 A does not pay the amount to C. A can be forced to make
payment by
(A) B only
(B) C only
(C) B and C together
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

108. An agreement in restraint of trade is void, if it imposes


(A) An absoulte restraint
(B) A partial restraint
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

109. A promises to pay a sum of Rs. 50,000 to B, a judge to decide the case in his favour. It is
(A) A valid contract
(B) A voidable contract
(C) A void contract
(D) An illegal agreement
Ans : (C)

110. Which of the following statement is not correct ?


(A) Illegal agreements affect-colateral transactions
(B) An agreement without consideration is void
(C) Consideration must be given by the promisee alone
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

111. No one will be allowed to enrich himself at the cost of another.


This principle is known as
(A) Nudum pactum
(B) Quasi-contract
(C) Quantum-Merit
(D) Quantum-Valebat

Ans : (B)

112. A, B and C enter into an agreement for the division among them of gains to be acquired by them
by fraud
(A) The agreement is void
(B) The agreement is valid
(C) The agreement is voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

113. A is indebted to B, but the debt is barred by Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay Rs.
10,000 to B on account of the debt. This agreement is
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

114. Which of the following is not a person of unsound mind ?


(A) Insane
(B) Idiot
(C) A person under the influence of liquor
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

115. Goods kept in show-case of a shop indicating price is


(A) Offer
(B) Acceptance for offer
(C) Invitation to offer
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

116. Which of the following is required for an effective mistake of fact ?


(A) It must be a mistake of both the parties
(B) Fact must be essential to the agreement
(C) Mistake must be about existing fact
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

117. A minor mortgaged his house in favour of a money lender to secure a loan of Rs. 20,000 taken
for his education. Money lender secures payment but minor refuses to pay for. Point out the correct
legal position
(A) Minor is not liable to pay loan as the contract is void
(B) Money lender can recover the rent from the estate of the minor
(C) Minor is personally liable to pay the loan.
(D) Minor will be bound by the mortgage, but not by the loan
Ans : (B)

118. When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud or


misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was
so caused under which one of the following section ?
(A) Section 19
(B) Section 19 A
(C) Section 19 and 19 A

(D) None of the above section


Ans : (C)

119. Public policy is a unruly horse, and when once you get astride it, you never know where it will
carry you. This quotation is related to
(A) Gherulal Vs. Mahadeodas
(B) Richardson Vs. Mellish
(C) Fender Vs. John Mildmay
(D) Egerton Vs. Brownlaw
Ans : (B)

120. A is trading with several types of oils. A agrees to sell to B a hundred tons of oil the
agreement is void, because
(A) It is uncertain
(B) There is no consideration
(C) There is no free consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

Capitals, Governors and Chief Ministers of Indian States


States

Capitals

Governors

Chief Ministers

Andhra Pradesh Hyderabad

Mr. E. S. L. Narasimhan

Mr. N. Chandrababu
Naidu

Arunachal
Pradesh

Itanagar

J. P. Rakkhowa

Mr. Nabam Tuki

Assam

Dispur

Bihar
Chhattisgarh

Patna
Raipur

Mr. P. B. Acharya (Additional


charge)
Mr. Ram Nath Kovind
Mr. Balram Das Tandon

Goa

Panaji

Ms. Mridula Sinha

Gujarat

Gandhinagar

Mr. Om Prakash Kohli

Haryana

Chandigarh

Mr. Kaptan Singh Solanki

Shimla

Mr. Acharya Dev Vrat

Himachal
Pradesh
Jammu and
Kashmir
Jharkhand
Karnataka
Kerala

Srinagar (Summer) Jammu


(Winter)
Ranchi
Bengaluru
Thiruvananthapuram

Mr. Narinder Nath Vohra


Draupadi Murmu
Mr. Vajubhai Rudabhai Vala
Mr. P Sathasivam

Madhya Pradesh Bhopal

Mr. Ram Naresh Yadav

Maharashtra

Mr. Kateekal
Sankaranarayanan

Mumbai

Mr. Tarun Gogoi


Mr. Nitish Kumar
Dr. Raman Singh
Mr. Laxmikant
Parsekar
Ms. Anandiben Patel
Mr. Manohar Lal
Khattar
Mr. Virbhadra Singh
Mr. Mufti Mohammad
Sayeed
Mr. Raghuvar Das
Mr. K. Siddaramaiah
Shri. Oommen Chandy
Mr. Shivraj Singh
Chauhan
Mr. Devendra
Fadnavis

Manipur
Meghalaya
Mizoram

Imphal
Shillong
Aizawl

Nagaland

Kohima

Odisha

Bhubaneswar

Dr. Syed Ahmed


V. Purushothaman
Lt Gen (retd) Nirbhay Sharma
Mr. E. S. L. Narasimhan
(Additional charge)
Mr. S. C. Jamir

Punjab

Chandigarh

Mr. Shivraj V. Patil

Rajasthan
Sikkim
Tamil Nadu
Tripura

Jaipur
Gangtok
Chennai
Agartala

Mr. Kalyan Singh


Mr. Shriniwas D. Patil
Mr. K Rosaiah
Mr. Tathagata Roy

Telangana

Hyderabad

Mr. E. S. L. Narasimhan

Uttarakhand
Uttar Pradesh
West Bengal

Dehradun
Lucknow
Kolkata

Dr. Aziz Qureshi


Mr. Ram Naik
Mr. Keshari Nath Tripathi

Mr. Okram Ibobi Singh


Mr. Mukul A. Sangma
Mr. Lal Thanhawla
Mr. Neiphiu Rio
Mr. Naveen Patnaik
Mr. Parkash Singh
Badal
Smt. Vasundhara Raje
Mr. Pawan Chamling
Ms. Jayalalithaa
Mr. Manik Sarkar
Mr. K. Chandrasekhar
Rao
Mr. Harish Rawat
Mr. Akhilesh Yadav
Ms. Mamata Banerjee

Vous aimerez peut-être aussi