Uttarakhand ME Papers

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Paper-I
1.
The [110] direction in a cubic unit cell is parallel to the following :

(a) Face diagonal of unit cell
(b) Edge of the cube
(c) Body diagonal of the cube
(d) None of the above
2.
When mechanical properties of a material remain same in all directions at each point, such
a material is called
(a) Isotropic
(b) Homogenious
(c) Orthotropic
(d) Anisotropic
3.
German silver is an alloy of

(a) Silver and Tin
(b) Silver and Gold
(c) Nickel and Copper
(d) Nickel, Copper and Zinc
4.
Iron is Face Centered Cubic (FCC) at which one of the following temperatures ?
(a) Room temperature
(b) 1400 C
(c) 910 C
5.
Babbit metal is an alloy of which one of the following ?

(a) Lead and Tin
(b) Lead and Magnesium
(c) Tin and Bismuth
6.
Griffith theory of failure is suitable for

(a) Mild Steel
(b) Low Carbon Steel
(c) Alloy Steel
(d) Glass
Series-A
SES-05
--I
1.
[110] :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
2.
,

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
3.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) ,
4.
(FCC) ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1400 C
910 C
5.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
Series-A
7.
Mild Steel is an example of

(a) Substitution solid solution
(b) Interstitial solid solution
(c) Inter metallic compound
8.
Bronze contains
(a) 70% Cu and 30% Zn
(b) 90% Cu and 10% Zn
(c) 75% Cu and 25% Zn
9.
The processes, used to make the steel magnetically softer, are

(a) Annealing and Decarburization
(b) Decarburization and Quenching
(c) Annealing, Grain growth and Decarburization
(d) Grain growth and Quenching
10.
The ductile-brittle transition temperature

(a) depends on size and shape of material, rate of loading, presence of notches,
impurities and operating temperature
(b) depends on size but does not depend on shape of material
(c) does not depend on size of material
(d) does not depend on rate of loading but depends on presence of impurities
11.
Match the items in List 1 to that of the List 2 and choose the correct alternative.
List 1
List 2
A. Alnico V
1.
Metallic Magnet
B. Ferrexodur
2.
Ceramic Magnet
C. Nickel Oxide
3.
Anti ferromagnetic
D. Ferrites
4.
Compounds containing trivalent iron
5.
Ferrimagnetic
6.
Soft magnetic
Alternatives :
A B
C
D
(a) 1
2
3
4
(b) 6
2
3
4
(c) 4
6
1
2
(d) 2
1
6
1
12.
Choose the correct statement from the following :

(a) Ceremic compounds involve simple coordination than their corresponding
components.
(b) Ceremic compounds are more ductile.
(c) Ceramic compounds are more stable with respect to thermal and chemical
environments than their components.
(d) Ceramic compounds have less resistance to slip.
Series-A
SES-05
7.

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
8.

(a) 70% 30%
(b) 90% 10%
(c) 75% 25%
(d)
9.

(a)
(b)
(c) ,
(d)
10.
-
, , ,

(b) ,
(c)
(d) ,
(a)
11.
1 2
1
2
A.
1.

B.
2.

C. 3.
-
4.

D.
5.
6.

:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
12.
A
1
6
4
2
B
2
2
6
1
C
3
3
1
6
D
4
4
2
1
:
(a)
(b)
(c)

(d)
SES-05
Series-A
13.
14.
Note : Q. No. 13 to 16 :
Choose the alternative from the code given below which explains the correct relationship
between the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Metallic Magnets cannot be used in high frequency circuits.
Reason (R)
: The low resistivity of metallic magnets permits heating from induced
currents.
Code :
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) correctly.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) correctly.
Assertion (A)
Reason (R)
Little energy is required to break materials such as glass, polystyrene

and some cast irons. Conversely, rubber and many steels absorb
considerable energy in the fracture process.
The service limit in many engineering products is not the yield or
ultimate strength, rather may be the energy associated with fracture
propagation.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) correctly.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A) correctly.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
15.
Assertion (A)
Reason (R)
:
:
In general, materials deform more readily at elevated temperature.

Plastic deformation commonly arises from dislocation movements
that involve a continual displacement of atoms to new neighbours at
elevated temperature.
Code :
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) correctly.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) correctly.
16.
Assertion (A)
Soft magnets are the obvious choice for ac or high frequency

applications.
They must be magnetised and demagnetized many times per second.
Reason (R)
:
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) correctly.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A) correctly.
Series-A
SES-05
13.
14.
13 16 :
(A) (R)
:
(A) :
(R) :
:
(a) (A) , (R)
(b) (A) , (R)
(c) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(d) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(A)
(R)
15.
(a)
(A) (R) (R), (A)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A) (R) , (R), (A)

(A) , (R)
(A) , (R)
(A)
(R)
:
:
,
, ,

16.
(a)
(b)
(A) , (R)
(A) , (R)
(c)
(d)
(A) (R) (R), (A)

(A) (R) , (R), (A)
(A)
(R)
:
:
:
(..)

(a)
(A) (R) , (R), (A)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A) (R) (R), (A)

(A) , (R)
(A) , (R)
SES-05
Series-A
17.
Dielectric strength can be reduced by

(a) removing cracks
(c) absence of flaws
(b)
(d)
absence of imperfections
impurities, cracks and pores
18.
Select the correct answer out of the following alternatives about Cyclic Stresses.
(a) That a material can tolerate are much greater than stresses produced under static
loading.
(b) Can lead to fatigue if the stress level is above the endurance limit.
(c) Can lead to fatigue if the stress level is below the endurance limit.
(d) Are not introduced in the axle of a running train.
19.
Dislocation in material is called

(a) Point defect
(c) Plane defect
(b)
(d)
Line defect
Volumetric defect
20.
Match the items in List 1 to the corresponding items in the List 2.

List 1
List 2
(Heat Treatment)
(Effect on Properties)
A. Annealing
1.
Refine grain structures
B. Nitriding
2.
Improves the hardness of the whole mass
C. Martempering 3.
Improves surface hardness
D. Normalising
4.
Improves ductility
Choose the correct from the following :
A B
C
D
(a) 3
1
4
2
(b) 3
1
2
4
(c) 1
3
4
2
(d) 1
3
2
4
21.
The crystal structure of -iron is

(a) Simple cubic
(c) Body centred cubic
22.
23.
(b)
(d)
Select the proper sequence for the following :

1.
Proportional limit
2.
3.
Yield point
4.
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b)
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d)
Face centred cubic

Close-packed Hexagonal
Elastic limit
Fracture/failure point
2134
2143
The macro-structure of a material is generally examined by

(a) X-ray techniques
(b) Spectroscopic techniques
(c) Optical microscope
(d) Metallurgical microscope
Series-A
SES-05
17.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) ,
18.
:
(a) , , ,
(b) , ,
(c) , ,
(d) ,
19.

(a)
(c)
20.
22.
A
3
3
1
1
B
1
1
3
3
C
4
2
4
2
D
2
4
2
4
-
(a)
(c)
:
1.

3.

(a)
(c)
23.
1 2
1
2
( )
( )
A.
1.

B.
2.

C.
3.

D.
4.

:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21.
(b)
(d)
1234
1243
(b)
(d)
2.
4.
(b)
(d)

/
2134
2143
-
(a) -
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
Series-A
24.
Gradual time dependent deformation under constant load or self weight is called
(a) Erosion
(b) Decay
(c) Tension
(d) Creep
25.
Which ingredient is responsible for corrosion resistant capability in Stainless Steel ?

(a) Iron
(b) Chromium
(c) Zinc
(d) Sulphur
26.
The property of material, which enables it to withstand bending without fracture, is known
as
(a) Mechanical strength
(b) Stiffness
(c) Flexural rigidity
(d) Ductility
27.
The material commonly used for making machine tool bed is

(a) Mild Steel
(b) Aluminium
(c) Brass
(d) Cast Iron
28.
Which one of the following is the ferrous material ?

(a) Zinc
(b) Iron
(c) Silicon Carbide
(d) Copper
29.
Babbit materials are used for

(a) Gears
(c) Bolts
(b)
(d)
Bearings
Clutch liners
30.
The ultimate tensile strength of low Carbon Steel by working at high strain rate will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain constant
(d) first increase, then decrease
31.
Pure iron is the structure of

(a) Ferrite
(c) Austenite
(b)
(d)
Pearlite
Cementite
An example of amorphous material is

(a) Zinc
(c) Glass
(b)
(d)
Lead
Sulphur
32.
33.
34.
Binding material in cemented carbide tool is

(a) Graphite
(b)
(c) Carbon
(d)
Lead
Cobalt
Which of the following are the reasons for reduction of tool life in a machining
operation ?
1.
Temperature rise of cutting edge.
2.
Chipping of tool edge due to mechanical impact.
3.
Gradual wear at tool point.
4.
Increase in feed of cut at constant cutting force
Select the answer from the following :
(a) 1, 2 & 4
(b) 1, 2 & 3
(c) 1, 3 & 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Series-A
10
SES-05
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
: , : ,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
, , :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
: :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
- ?
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
:
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
30.

(b)
(a)
(c)
(d) ,
31.

(a)
(c)
32.
33.
34.
(b)
(d)
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
?
1.

2.

3.
-
4.

:
(a) 1, 2 4
(b) 1, 2 3
(c) 1, 3 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 4
SES-05
11
Series-A
35.
Choose the alternative, which explains the correct relationship between the given
statements, (A) & (R) from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : In ECM, the shape of the cavity is the mirror image of the tool, but
unlike EDM, the tool wear in ECM is a cathode.
Reason (R)
: The tool in ECM is a Cathode.
Code :
(a) Both (A) & (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) & (R) are true. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
36.
An orthogonal cutting operation is being carried out under the following conditions :
Cutting Speed = 2 m/sec, Depth of cut = 0.5 mm, Chip thickness = 0.6 mm.
What is the chip velocity ?
(a) 2 m/sec
(b) 2.4 m/sec
(c) 1 m/sec
(d) 1.66 m/sec
37.
The rake angle of a cutting tool is 15, the shear angle is 45 and the cutting velocity is
35 mpm. What is the velocity of chip along the tool face ?
(a) 28.5 mpm
(b) 27.3 mpm
(c) 25.3 mpm
(d) 23.5 mpm
38.
In EDM, metal removal rate is proportional to

(a) Frequency of charging
(b)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d)
Energy delivered in each spark

None of the above
39.
Which of the following is not true in case of jigs and fixtures ?

(a) Consistency in dimension
(b) Fast production speed is not possible
(c) Auto-location control
40.
The upper and lower control limits in case of R-chart are given by
(a) A2R & A3R

(b) D3R & D4R
(c)
41.
R D3R
(d)
R A2R
A cutting tool is turning a work piece of 40 mm diameter, revolving at 300 rpm. If tool
life is 120 min, find the value of constant C as per the Taylors tool life equation,
Assuming n = 1/7.
(a) 85
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 75
Series-A
12
SES-05
35.
(A) (R)
:
(A) : ... , ...

(R)
: ...
:
(a) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(b) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(c) (A) , (R)
(d) (A) , (R)
36.
:
= 2 m/s,
= 0.5 mm,
= 0.6 mm.
?
(a)
(c)
37.
2 m/s
1 m/s
(b)
(d)
2.4 m/s
1.66 m/s
15 , 45 35 . ,
?
(a)
(c)
28.5 mpm
25.3 mpm
(b)
(d)
27.3 mpm
23.5 mpm
38.
... :
(b)
(a)
(d)
(c) (a) (b)
39.
?
(a)
(b)
(c) :
(d)
40.
R- :
(a) A2R & A3R

(b) D3R & D4R
(c) R D3R
(d) R A2R
41.
, 40 , 300
120 , n = 1/7 C
(a)
(c)
SES-05
85
70
(b)
(d)
13
80
75
Series-A
42.
Which of the following should be more to reduce wear of a tool ?

(a) Weight
(b) Density
(c) Hardness
(d) (b) & (c) both
43.
Which of the following instruments is used to measure smoothness of a metallic surface ?

(a) Talysurf
(b) Coordinate Measuring Machine
(c) Profile Projector
44.
Life of a single point cutting tool is influenced by which of the following factors ?
(a) Cutting speed
(b) Feed rate
(c) Depth of cut
(d) All the above
45.
The Plug gauge is used to

(a) Check the size and shape of holes
(b) Measure the diameter of holes
(c) Measure the diameter of shafts
(d) Measure the diameters of shafts & holes
46.
The relationship between the shear angle (), friction angle (), cutting rake angle ()and
the machining constant (C) for the work material is
(a) 2 + = C
(b) 2 + + = C
(c) 2 + = C
(d) 2 + + = C
47.
Explosive forming is not used for the following :

(a) Making very small complex parts.
(b) For large parts typical of aerospace industry.
(c) Both (a) & (b) above are correct.
(d) None of the above is correct.
48.
In Electro-Discharge-Machining (EDM), the tool is made of

(a) High Speed Steel
(b) Copper
(c) Cast Iron
(d) Glass
49.
The process in which the material removal rate is governed by Faradays law is ?
(a) ECM
(b) EDM
(c) AJM
(d) LBM
50.
In USM, the tool is vibrated with the frequency of

(a) 5 kHz
(b) 10 kHz
(c) 15 kHz
(d) 20 kHz
51.
Continuous chips will be formed when machining speed is

(a) low
(b) medium
(c) high
(d) independent of speed
52.
Profile of a gear tooth can be checked by

(a) Optical projector
(c) Bench micrometer
Series-A
(b)
(d)
14
Optical pyrometer
Sine bar.
SES-05
42.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) (b) (c)
43.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
44.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
45.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
46.
(), (), () (C)

(a)
(c)
47.
48.
2 + = C
2 + = C
(b)
(d)
:
(a)
(b) ,
(c) (a) (b)
(d)
- ,

(a)
(c)
49.
2 + + = C
2 + + = C
(b)
(d)
?
...
(b) ...
...
(d) ...
(a)
(c)
50.
?
(a)
(c)
51.
52.
5 kHz
15 kHz
(b)
(d)
10 kHz
20 kHz

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
15
Series-A
53.
For TIG welding, which of the following gases are used ?

(a) Hydrogen and Carbon-di-oxide
(b) Argon and Helium
(c) Argon and Neon
(d) Hydrogen and Oxygen
54.
Which of the following materials require the largest shrinkage allowance while making a
pattern for casting ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Brass
(c) Cast Iron
(d) Duralumin
55.
Which of the following values of index n is associated with carbide tools when Taylors
tool life equation VTn = constant is applied ?
(a) 0.65 to 0.90
(b) 0.45 to 0.60
(c) 0.20 to 0.40
(d) 0.10 to 0.15
56.
In an orthogonal cutting experiment, with a tool of rake angle = 75 and shear angle
= 22.8, then friction angle will be
(a) 41.9
(b) 51.4
(c) 61.2
57.
Which of the following operation does not use a jig ?

(a) Tapping
(b) Reaming
(c) Drilling
(d) Turning
58.
Which of the following are the quality control limits for p-charts ?
(a) p 3 p (1p)
(b) p p (1p)
p (1p)
(d) p 3 np (1p)
n
Which is the false statement about electro discharge machining ?
(a) It can machine very hard material.
(b) Very good surface finish is obtained.
(c) Section to be machined should be thick.
(d) Metal removal rate is very slow.
(c)
59.
60.
Choose the false statement from the following :

(a) Control chart indicate whether the process is in control or not.
(b) X and R charts are used to evaluate dispersion of measurements.

(c) P-chart is a control chart for percentage defective.
(d) C-charts are prepared for large and complex components.
61.
The following is not the characteristics of explosive forming :

(a) Low capital cost of the set up.
(b) Very large components can be formed.
(c) Only a simple die is required.
(d) The tooling material is very expensive.
Series-A
16
SES-05
53.
TIG ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
54.
?
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
55.
VTn = ,
n ?
(a) 0.65 0.90
(b) 0.45 0.60
(d) 0.10 0.15
(c) 0.20 0.40
56.

= 22.8 , ?
(a)
(c)
41.9
61.2
(b)
(d)
?
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
58.
p- ?
(a) p 3 p (1p)
(b) p p (1p)
p
p (1p)
n
(d)
p 3 np (1p)
59.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
60.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
61.
51.4
57.
(c)
= 75
X R
P-
C-
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
17
Series-A
62.
The following is not true for ECM :

(a) It can machine highly complicated shapes in a single pass.
(b) Tool life is very high.
(c) Machinability of the work material is independent of its physical and mechanical
properties.
(d) Kerosene is use as electrolyte.
63.
Electro-discharge machining uses the following dielectric fluid :

(a) Kerosene
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Water
(d) Aqueous salt solution
64.
A good machinability rating would indicate

(a) long tool life, high power requirement and less machining time.
(b) long tool life, low power requirement and a good surface finish.
(c) short tool life and a good surface finish.
(d) long tool life, high power requirement and a good surface finish.
65.
In EDM process, the workpiece is connected to

(a) Cathode
(b)
(c) Earth
(d)
Anode
None of the above
66.
A hole of 1 mm is to be drilled in glass. It could be best done by

(a) Laser drilling
(b) Plasma drilling
(c) Ultrasonic drilling
(d) Electron beam drilling
67.
A comparator for its working depends on

(a) comparison with standard such as slip gauges
(b) accurately caliberated scale
(c) optical device
(d) limit gauge
68.
TMU means
(a) Time Motion Unit
(c) Time Measurement Unit
69.
(b)
(d)
Time Method Unit

Time Movement Unit
Choose the Correct relationship between the given statements of Assertion (A) and
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In case of control charts for variables, if some points fall outside the
control limits, it is concluded that process is not under control.
Reason (R)
: It was experimentally proved by Shewart that averages of four or
more consecutive readings from a universe (population) or from a
process, when plotted, will form a normal distribution curve.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is in correct.
(d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Series-A
18
SES-05
62.
ECM :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
63.

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
64.

(a) , ,
(b) , ,
(c)
(d) ,
65.
EDM :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
66.
1 . ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
67.
:
(b) -
(a)
(c)
(d)
68.
TMU
(a)
(c)
69.
(b)
(d)
(A) (R)
(A)
: , ,

(R)
:
,

:
(a) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(b) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(c) (A) , (R)
(d) (A) , (R)
SES-05
19
Series-A
70.
Which one of the following is most important parameter for EDM ?

(a) Thermal capacity
(b) Hardness
(c) Strength
(d) Geometry
71.
Which of the following is not the characteristics of work sampling ?

(a) Any interruption during study will not affect the results.
(b) The study causes less fatigue.
(c) Uneconomical for short cycle jobs.
(d) A stop watch is needed.
72.
Which one of the followings statements is not correct regarding simplex method of linear
programming ?
(a) It is an iterative procedure.
(b) It has a trial basic feasible solution to constraints.
(c) The collection of feasible solution does not constitute a convex set.
(d) It improves the first trial solution by a set of rules.
73.
The following is not true for linear programming problems :

(a) Objective function is expressed as a linear function of variables.
(b) Resources are not limited.
(c) Some alternative course of actions are also available.
(d) Decision variables are inter related.
74.
Which of the following are said to be the benefits of assembly line balancing ?
1.
It mimises the in-process inventory.
2.
It reduces the work content.
3.
It smoothens the production flow.
4.
It maintains the required rate of output.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Code :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
75.
Value Engineering is concerned with the saving of

(a) Un-necessary costs
(b) Administrative difficulties
(c) Overhead costs
(d) Time
Series-A
20
SES-05
70.
(EDM) ?
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
71.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
72.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) ,
73.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
74.
?
1.

2.

3.

4.

:
:
(a) 1, 2 3
(b) 2, 3 4
(c) 1, 3 4
(d) 1, 2 4
75.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
21
Series-A
Note Q. Nos. 76-77 : Choose the correct relationship between the given statements of
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
76.
Assertion (A)
Reason (R)
Value analysis is superior to other conventional cost reduction

techniques.
In conventional cost reduction techniques, value is increased by
widening tolerance bands.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
77.
Assertion (A)
Reason (R)
Vogels approximation method yields the best initial basic feasible

solution of a transportation problem.
Vogels method give allocations to the lowest cost elements of the
whole matrix.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
78.
The following is the general policy for A class items in ABC analysis :
1.
Very strict control
2.
Frequent review of their consumption
3.
Safety stock kept
Which of these statement/s is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79.
In the EOQ model, if the unit ordering cost gets doubled, then the EOQ will be
(a) reduced to half
(b) doubled
(c) increased 1.414 times
(d) decreased 1.414 times
80.
Value engineering is necessary to be used when the following symptoms are indicated
1.
New product designs are to be introduced.
2.
The firm is unable to meet delivery date.
3.
Rate of return on investment goes down.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 2 & 3 only
81.
The leaving basic variable in simplex method is the basic variable that
(a) has the lowest value.
(b) has the largest coefficient in the key row.
(c) goes to zero first, as the entering basic variable is increased.
(d) has the smallest coefficient in the key row.
Series-A
22
SES-05
76.
77.
78.
79.
: . . 76-77 : (A) (R) :
(A) :
(R)
:

:
(a) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(b) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(c) (A) , (R)
(d) (A) , (R)
(A)
(R)
:
:
(a) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(b) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(c) (A) , (R)
(d) (A) , (R)
... A :
1.

2.

3.
?
(a) 1
(b) 1 2
(d) 1, 2 3
(c) 2
EOQ , EOQ ?
(b)
(a)
(d) 1.414
(c) 1.414
80.
:
1.

2.

3.

?
(a) 1, 2 3
(b) 2
(c) 1 3
(d) 2 3
81.
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
23
Series-A
82.
ABC analysis is used in

(a) Job analysis
(c) Inventory Control
(b)
(d)
Production Schedule
Simulation
83.
In ABC analysis, A items are responsible to share approximately the following

percentage of cost :
(a) 80
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 20
84.
BEP indicates the recovery of

(a) variable costs only
(b) both fixed and variable costs
(c) fixed cost only
(d) both fixed and variable costs along with margin of profit
85.
Which of the following is true about the initial basic feasible solution in simplex method ?
(a) It is an optimal solution.
(b) All basic variables are zero.
(c) Solution is not possible.
(d) Any one basic variable in zero
86.
The probability law used for calculating the control limits of P chart is
(a) Binomial
(b) Poisson
(c) Normal
(d) Exponential
87.
If P = % activity and A = limit of accuracy in work sampling. The number of observations

at a confidence level of 95% is given by
(1 P)
2(1 P)
(a)
(b)
2
AP
A2P
3(1 P)
4(1 P)
(d)
(c)
2
A2P
AP
88.
When order quantity increases, the ordering cost will

(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remains same
89.
Which type of layout is preferred in order to avoid excessive multiplication of facilities ?

(a) Process layout
(b) Product layout
(c) Fixed position layout
(d) Cellular manufacturing
90.
An assembly activity is represented in an operation process chart by the symbol

(a)
(b) A
(c) D
(d)
91.
In an m n transportation problem, the maximum number of basic variables is

(a) m + n
(b) m n
(c) m + n 1
(d) m + n + 1
Series-A
24
SES-05
82.
83.
... :
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

()
... A :
(a)
(c)
80
40
(b)
(d)
60
20
84.
... : ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
85.
?
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
86.
, P
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c) ()
87.
P = A = , 95%

(a)
(c)
88.
(1 P)
A2P
3(1 P)
A2P
(b)
(d)
,
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
2(1 P)
A2P
4(1 P)
A2P
89.
- ?
(a) -
(b) -
(c) -
(d)
90.

(a)
(c)
91.
(b)
(d)
m n
(a)
(c)
SES-05
m+n
m+n1
(b)
(d)
25
mn
m+n+1
Series-A
92.
In the model M/M/I : /FCFS with utilization factor , the expected line length is equal to
1
(a) 1
(b)
1
2
(d)
(c)
1
1
93.
Group C items constitute the following percentage of items in ABC analysis :

(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 70
94.
In linear programming problem, the shadow price is

(a) the value assigned to one unit capacity
(b) the maximum cost per unit item
(c) the lowest sale price
95.
Annual demand for a product, costing ` 100 per piece, is 900. Ordering cost per order is
` 100 and the holding cost is ` 2 per unit per year.
The economic order quantity is
(a) 200
(b) 300
(c) 400
(d) 500
96.
The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources of a company in
the optimum manner is known as
(a) Value analysis
(b) Network analysis
(c) Linear programming
(d) Queuing theory
97.
Which of the following charts indicates variability of variability within the collected
samples ?
(a) X chart
(b) chart
(c) c chart
(d) u chart
98.
Which statement is wrong about diamagnetic materials ?

(a) Their susceptibility is positive.
(b) Their permeability is less than one.
(c) Super-conductors are diamagnetic. (d) They repel the external magnetic flux.
99.
Super conductivity is that state of a material at which it electrical resistance

(a) becomes zero.
(b) becomes infinite.
(c) starts showing a change.
(d) stops being affected by temperature change.
100. The difference between Graphite and Diamond is that

(a) Diamond is transparent while Graphite is opaque.
(b) Diamond is insulator while Graphite is conductor.
(c) Diamond has all primary bonds while Graphite has three primary and one secondary
bonds.
(d) All the above
Series-A
26
SES-05
92.
M/M/I : /FCFS ,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1
1
2
1
93.
ABC C :
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
(d) 70
94.

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
95.
` 100 900 ` 100

` 2 ,
(a) 200
(b) 300
(c) 400
(d) 500
96.

(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
97.
(a) X
(b)
(c) c
(d) u
98.
?
(a)
(b)
(c) -
(d)
99.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
100.

,
,
,

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
27
Series-A
101. Identify the pair which has same dimensions :

(a) Force and power
(b)
(c) Momentum and energy
(d)
Energy and work

Impulse and momentum
102. In the following figure, the tension in the rope AC is
(a)
(c)
17.32 N
169.90 N
(b)
(d)
56.60 N
113.20 N
103. The maximum frictional force, which comes into play, when a body just begins to slide
over the surface of the other body, is known as
(a) Limiting friction
(b) Static friction
(c) Dynamic friction
(d) Coefficient of friction
104. A body subjected to coplanar non-concurrent forces will remain in a state of equilibrium if
(b) Fy = 0
(a) Fx = 0
(c)
M = 0
(d)
All the above three
105. A rigid body is subjected to non-coplanar concurrent force system. If the body is to remain
in a state of equilibrium, then
(a) Fx = Fy = Fz = 0
(b) Mx = My = 0
(c)
My = Mz = 0
(d)
None of the above
106. One end of an uniform ladder, of length L and weight W, rests against a rough vertical
wall and the other end rests on rough horizontal ground. The coefficient of friction f is
same at each end. The inclination of ladder when it is on the point of slipping is
1 f 2
1 + f 2
(a) tan1 2f
(b) tan1 2f
2f
2f
(c) tan1
(d) tan1
2
1
+
f
1 f 2
107. In the analysis of truss, the force system acting at each pin
(a) is concurrent but not coplanar.
(b) is coplanar and concurrent.
(c) is coplanar and non-concurrent.
(d) does not satisfy rotational equilibrium.
Series-A
28
SES-05
101.
102.
,
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
56.60 N
113.20 N
, AC :
(a)
(c)
17.32 N
169.90 N
103.

:
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
104.
105.
106.
(a)
Fx = 0
(b)
Fy = 0
(c)
M = 0
(d)
, ,
(a)
Fx = Fy = Fz = 0
(b)
Mx = My = 0
(c)
My = Mz = 0
(d)
L W
f ,
,
(a)
(c)
107.
1 f 2
tan1 2f
2f
tan1
1 + f 2
(b)
(d)
,
(a)
(c)
SES-05
(b)
(d)
29
1 + f 2
tan1 2f
2f
tan1
1 f 2

Series-A
108. For truss as shown below, the forces in the member AB and AC are
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Tensile in each
Compressive in each
Compressive and Tensile respectively
Tensile and Compressive respectively
109. Two equal and mutually perpendicular forces of magnitude P, are acting at a point. Their
resultant force will be
(a) P 2, at an angle of 30 with the line of action of any one force.
(b) P 2, at an angle of 45 with the line of action of each force.
(c) 2P 2, at an angle of 45 with the line of action of each force.
(d) Zero
110. The relationship, between number of joints (J), and the number of members (m), in a
perfect truss, is given by
(a) m = 3j 2
(b) m = 2j 3
(c) m = j 2
(d) m = 2j 1
111. Four forces P, 2P, 3 P & 4P act along the sides of a square, taken in order. The resultant
force is
(a) zero
(b)
5P
(c) 2 2P
(d) 2P
112. According to the Newtons law of gravitation, the force of attraction, between the bodies
of masses m1 and m2 situated at a distance d apart, is given by
(a)
(c)
F=G
F=G
m1m22
d2
m21m22
d2
113. Varignons theorem is related to

(a) Principle of moments
(c) Principle of force
Series-A
30
m21m2
(b)
F=G
(d)
F=G
(b)
(d)
Principle of momentum
Principle of inertia
d2
m1 m2
d2
SES-05
108.
AB AC
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
109.
, P ,
(a) P 2, 30
(b) P 2, 45
(c) 2P 2, 45
(d)
110.
(j)
(a)
(c)
111.
m = 2j 3
m = 2j 1
2 2P
(d)
2P
m1 m2 , d ,
:
(a)
(c)
113.
(b)
(d)
P, 2P, 3 P 4P , ?
(a)
(b)
5P
(c)
112.
m = 3j 2
m=j2
(m)
F=G
F=G
m1m22
d2
m21m22
d2
:
(a)
(c)
SES-05
(b)
F=G
(d)
F=G
(b)
(d)
31
m21m2
d2
m1 m2
d2
Series-A
114. Choose the correct relationship between the given statements of Assertion (A) and Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Only axial forces act in members of roof trusses.
Reason (R)
: Truss members are welded together.
Code :
(a) Both (A) & (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) & (R) are correct. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
115. If a force of 30 N is required to move a mass of 35 kg on a flat surface horizontally at a
constant velocity, what will be the coefficient of friction ?
(a) 0.067
(b) 0.087
(c) 0.098
(d) 0.092
116. A train crosses a tunnel in 30 seconds time. The speed of the train at entry and at exit from
the tunnel are 36 and 54 km/hour respectively. If acceleration remains constant, the length
of the tunnel is
(a) 350 m
(b) 360 m
(c) 375 m
(d) 400 m
117. If T1 and T2 are the initial and final tensions of an elastic string and x1 and x2 are the
corresponding extensions, then the work done is
(a) (T2 + T1) (x2 x1)
(b) (T2 T1) (x2 + x1)
(c)
(T2 T1) (x2 + x1)

2
(d)
(T2 + T1) (x2 x1)

2
118. The escape velocity on the surface of the earth is

(a) 11.2 km/s
(b) 8.2 km/s
(c) 3.2 km/s
(d) 1.2 km/s
119. A motor boat whose speed in still water is 15 km/hr goes 30 km downstream and comes
back in a total time of four and half hours. The stream has a speed of
(a) 3 km/hr
(b) 4 km/hr
(c) 5 km/hr
(d) 6 km/hr
120. If the period of oscillation is to become double, then
(a) the length of simple pendulum should be doubled.
(b) the length of simple pendulum should be quadrupled.
(c) the mass of the pendulum should be doubled.
(d) the length and mass should be doubled.
Series-A
32
SES-05
114.
(A) (R) :
(A) :
(R)
:
:
(a) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(b) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(c) (A) , (R)
(d) (A) , (R)
115.
35 30 N
, ?
(a)
(c)
116.
118.
350 m
375 m
(b)
(d)
360 m
400 m
(a)
(T2 + T1) (x2 x1)
(b)
(T2 T1) (x2 + x1)
(c)
(T2 T1) (x2 + x1)

2
(d)
(T2 + T1) (x2 x1)

2
(b)
(d)
8.2 km/s
1.2 km/s

11.2 km/s
3.2 km/s
15 km/hr , 30 km
, ,
(a)
(c)
120.
0.087
0.092
T1 T2 x1 x2 : ,

(a)
(c)
119.
(b)
(d)
30
: 36 km/hr 54 km/hr ,
(a)
(c)
117.
0.067
0.098
3 km/hr
5 km/hr
(b)
(d)
4 km/hr
6 km/hr
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
33
Series-A
121. Choose the correct relationship between the given statements of Assertion (A) and
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A dynamically system of multiple rotors on a shaft can rotate
smoothly at the critical speeds of the system.
Reason (R)
: Dynamic balancing eliminates all the unbalanced forces and couples
from the system.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
122. A spring scale reads 20 N as it pulls a 5.0 kg mass across a table. what is the magnitude of
the force exerted by the mass on the spring scale ?
(a) 4.0 N
(b) 5.0 N
(c) 20.0 N
(d) 49.0 N
123. A thin circular ring of mass 100 kg and radius 2 m resting on a smooth surface is
subjected to a sudden application of a tangential force of 300 N at a point on its periphery.
The angular acceleration of the ring will be
(a) 1.0 rad/sec2
(b) 1.5 rad/sec2
(c) 2.0 rad/sec2
(d) 2.5 rad/sec2
124. The loss of kinetic energy, during inelastic impact of two bodies having masses m1 and
m2, which are moving with velocity 1 and 2 respectively, is given by
m1 m2
2(m1 + m2)
(a) 2(m + m ) (1 2)2
(b)
(1 2)2
m
m
1
2
1 2
m1 m2
2(m1 + m2)
(c)
(2 22)
(d)
(12 22)
2(m1 + m2) 1
m1 m2
125. The unit of energy in S.I unit is
(a) Dyne
(c) Newton
(b)
(d)
Watt
Joule
126. Polar moment of inertia of an equilateral triangle of side x is given by

x4
x4
(a) 16
(b)
16 3
4
x
x4
(c) 32
(d) 64
127. Poisons ratio is the ratio of
(a) Lateral stress to longitudinal stress
(b) Lateral stress to longitudinal strains
(c) Lateral strain to longitudinal strain
(d) Shear stress to shear strain
Series-A
34
SES-05
121.
(A) (R)
(A) : , ,

(R)
: ,
:
(a) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(b) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(c) (A) (R)
(d) (A) (R)
122.
5 kg 20
?
(a)
(c)
4.0 N
20.0 N
(b)
(d)
5.0 N
49.0 N
123.
, 100 2 ,
300 ,
:
(a) 1.0 2
(b) 1.5 2
(c) 2.0 2
(d) 2.5 2
124.
m1 m2 1 2
:
(a)
m1 m2
( 2)2
2(m1 + m2) 1
(b)
2(m1 + m2)
(1 2)2
m1 + m2
(c)
m1 m2
2
2
2(m1 + m2) (1 2)
(d)
2(m1 + m2)
2
2
m1m2 (1 2)
(b)
(d)
125. S.I.
(a)
(c)
126.
127.
x :
(a)
x4
16
(b)
(c)
x4
32
(d)
x4
16 3
x4
64

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
35
Series-A
128. If the sum of all the forces acting on a moving object is zero, the object will
(a) continue moving with constant velocity
(b) accelerate uniformly
(c) change the direction of motion
(d) slow down and stop
129. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
(a) less
(b) same
(c) more
130. When a body is thrown up at an angle of 45 with a velocity of 100 m/sec, it describes a
parabola. Its velocity on point of return down will be
(a) zero
(b) 50 m/sec
(c) 100/ 2 m/s
(d) 100 2 m/sec
131. A projectile on a level ground will have maximum range if the angle of projection is
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 75
132. Which one of the following is not an example of plane motion ?
(a) Motion of a duster on a black board.
(b) Motion of ball point of pen on the paper.
(c) Motion of a cursor on the computer screen.
(d) Motion of a nut on a threaded bolt.
133. Which one of the following is a scalar quantity ?
(a) Force
(b) Displacement
(c) Speed
(d) Velocity
134. A 44 N block is thrust up a 30 inclined plane with an initial speed of 5 m/sec. It travels a
distance of 1.5 m before it comes to rest. The frictional force acting upon it would be
(a) 18.3 N
(b) 15.3 N
(c) 12.3 N
(d) 9.3 N
135. A body is moving with a velocity 1 m/s and a force F is needed to stop it within a certain
distance. If the speed of the body becomes three times, the force needed to stop it within
the same distance would be
(a) 1.5 F
(b) 3.0 F
(c) 6.0 F
(d) 9.0 F
dm
136. In a loaded beam, the term dx represents
(a) Deflection at a section
(b) Slope at a section
(c) Intensity of loading at a section
(d) Shear force at a section
137. A beam is of rectangular section. The distribution of shearing stress across a section is
(a) Parabolic
(b) Rectangular
(c) Triangular
Series-A
36
SES-05
128.
,
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
129.

(a)
(c)
130.
45 100 ,
:
(a)
(b) 50 m/sec
(c)
131.
(b)
(d)
100/ 2 m/s
(d)
100 2 m/sec
,
(a)
(c)
30
60
(b)
(d)
45
75
132.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
133.
?
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
134.
44 30 5 .
1.5 :
(b) 15.3
(a) 18.3
(c) 12.3
(d) 9.3
135.
1 . F
,

(a)
(c)
1.5 F
6.0 F
(b)
(d)
3.0 F
9.0 F
dm
136.
dx :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
137.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
37
Series-A
138. In a stressed field, the change in angle between two initially perpendicular lines is called
(a) Normal strain
(b) Shear strain
(c) Principal strain
(d) Poissons ratio
139. A metallic cube is subjected to equal pressure (P) on its all the six faces. If v is
P
volumetric strain produced, the ratio
is called
v
(a)
(c)
Elastic modulus
Bulk modulus
(b)
(d)
Shear modulus
Strain-Energy per unit volume
140. To express stress-strain relations for a linearly elastic, homogeneous, isotropic material,
minimum number of material constants needed are
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
141. A tension member with a cross-sectional area of 30 mm2 resists a load of 60 kN. What is
the normal stress induced on the plane of maximum shear stress ?
(a) 2 kN/mm2
(b) 1 kN/mm2
(c) 4 kN/mm2
(d) 3 kN/mm2
142. If the Mohrs circle for a state of stress becomes a point, the state of stress is
(a) Pure shear state of stress
(b) Uniaxial state of stress
(c) Identical principal stresses
143. Torsional rigidity of a solid cylindrical shaft of diameter d is proportional to
(a) d
(b) d2
1
(c) d4
(d)
d2
144. In theory of simple bending of beams, which one of the following assumptions is
incorrect ?
(a) Elastic modulus in tension and compression are same for the beam materials.
(b) Plane sections remain plane before and after bending.
(c) Beam is initially straight.
(d) Beam material should not be brittle.
145. A cylindrical shell of diameter 200 mm and wall thickness 5 mm is subjected to internal
fluid pressure of 10 N/mm2. Maximum shearing stress induced in the shell in N/mm2, is
(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 200
Series-A
38
SES-05
138.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
139.
(P) v
P
:
v
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
140.
,
?
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
141.
30 mm2 , 60 kN

(a)
(c)
2 kN/mm2
4 kN/mm2
(b)
(d)
1 kN/mm2
3 kN/mm2
142.
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
143.
, d
(a)
(b)
(c)
d4
(d)
d2
1
d2
144.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
145.
, 200 5 , 10 .
. :
(a)
(c)
SES-05
50
100
(b)
(d)
39
75
200
Series-A
146. Consider the following statements :

1.
An I.C. engine transforms chemical energy into mechanical energy.
2.
A compressed spring possess potential energy.
3.
A football rolling on the ground performs plane motion.
4.
Strain gauges are used to measure torque.
Following are the correct statements :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
147. In a static tension tests of a low carbon steel sample, the gauge length affects
(a) yield stress
(b) ultimate tensile stress
(c) percentage elongation
(d) percentage reduction in cross-sectional area
148. One end of a metallic rod is fixed rigidly and its temperature is raised. It will experience
(a) zero stress
(b) tensile stress
(c) compressive stress
149. Two cantilever steel beams of identical length and of rectangular section are subjected to
same point load at their free end. In one beam, the longer side of section is vertical, while
in the other, it is horizontal. Beams defect at free end :
(a) equally irrespective of their disposition.
(b) more in case of longer side vertical.
(c) less in case of longer side horizontal.
(d) less in case of longer side vertical.
150. A long column of length (l) with both ends hinged, is to be subjected to axial load. For the
calculation of Eulers buckling load, its equivalent length is
(a) l/2
(b) l/ 2
(c) l
(d) 2l
151. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists.
List I
List II
(Characteristic)
(Member)
A. Kernel of section
1.
Helical spring
B. Tie and Strut
2.
Bending of beams
C. Section modulus
3.
Eccentric loading of short column
D. Stiffness
4.
Roof truss
Code :
A B
C
D
(a) 1
2
3
4
(b) 3
4
2
1
(c) 4
1
2
3
(d) 2
3
1
4
Series-A
40
SES-05
146.
:
1.

2.

3.
4.

:
(a) 1 2
(b) 2 3
(c) 3 4
(d) 1, 2 4
147.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
148.

:
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
149.
/
,
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
150.
(l) ,

(a)
(c)
151.
(b)
(d)
l/2
l
l/ 2
2l
I II :
I
II
(
()
()
A.
1.

B.
2.

C.
3.

D.
4.

:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
A
1
3
4
2
B
2
4
1
3
C
3
2
2
1
D
4
1
3
4
41
Series-A
152. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam AB of length L is shown
below :
M
2
Sagging moment : positive
Hugging moment : negative
What is the load acting on beam AB ?
M
(a) An upward concentrated load 2 at C.
M
(b) A downward concentrated load
at C.
2
(c) An anticlockwise moment M at C
(d) A clockwise moment M at C.
CD1 = CD2 =
153. Two simply supported beams of equal lengths, cross sectional areas, and section moduli,
are subjected to the same concentrated load at its mid-length. One beam is made of steel
and other is made of Aluminium. The maximum bending stress induced will be in
(a) Steel beam
(b) Aluminium beam
(c) Both beams of equal magnitude
(d) The beams according to their Elastic Moduli magnitude.
154. Two strips of equal lengths and widths are joined together by two rivets, one at each end.
One strip is of copper and the other of steel. Now, the temperature of this assembly is
lowered, the rivets will undergo.
(a) Bending
(b) Single shear
(c) Double shear
(d) Both (a) & (b) above
155. A uniform metal bar of weight W, length l, cross-sectional area A is hung vertically
with its top end rigidly fixed. Which section of the bar will experience maximum shear
stress ?
(a) Top-section
(b) Mid-section
(c) Bottom-section
(d) l/3 from top
Series-A
42
SES-05
152.
(L) AB :
CD1 = CD2 =
M
2
:
:
AB ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
M
C 2
M
C 2
C , M
C , M
153.
,

:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
154.
,
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) (a) (b)
155.
, W, l A ,

?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05

l/3
43
Series-A
156. Which one of the following will result into a constant strength beam ?
(a) The bending moment at every section of the beam is constant.
(b) Shear force at every section is same.
(c) The beam is of uniform section over its whole length.
(d) The ratio of bending moment to the section modulus for every section along the
length is same.
157. A beam of Z-section is called a
(a) doubly symmetric section beam
(c) a-symmetric section beam
(b)
(d)
singly symmetric section beam

none of the above
158. The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice its inside diameter. The ratio of its torque
carrying capacity to that of a solid shaft of the same material and the same outside
diameter is
(a) 15/16
(b) 3/4
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/16
159. Choose the correct relationship in the given statements of Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A plane state of stress does not necessarily result into a plane state of
strain.
Reason (R)
: Normal stresses acting along X and Y directions will also result into
strain along the Z-direction.
Code :
(a) Both (A) & (R) are correct. (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) & (R) are correct. (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
160. A body is subjected to two unequal like direct stresses 1 and 2 in two mutually
perpendicular planes along with simple shear stress q
Which among the following is then a wrong statement ?

(a) The principal stresses at a point are
1 22
1 + 2
+ q2
P1, P2 = 2
(b) The position of principal planes with the plane of stress 1, are
1
2q
1 = 2 tan1
; = 1 + 45
1 2 2
(c)
(d)
Series-A
1 22
Maximum shear stress is (t)max =

+q
2
Planes of maximum shear are inclined at 45 to the principal planes.

44
SES-05
156.
?

Z-
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c) -
,
? ,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
157.
158.
(a)
(c)
15/16
1/2
(b)
(d)
3/4
1/16
159.
(A) (R)
(A) :
(R)
: X Y Z-
:
(a) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(b) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(c) (A) , (R)
(d) (A) , (R)
160.
1 2
, q
?
(a) :
1 + 2
P1, P2 = 2
(b)
:
1
1 = 2 tan1
(c)
SES-05
2q
; = 1 + 45
1 2 2
:
(t)max =
(d)
1 22
+ q2
2
1 22
+ q2
2
45
45
Series-A
161. Slenderness ratio has dimension of

(a) cm
(c) cm2
(b)
(d)
cm1
None
162. When a body is subjected to direct tensile stresses (x and y) in two mutually
perpendicular directions, accompanied by a simple shear stress xy, then in Mohrs circle
method, the circle radius is taken as
x y
x + y
(a)
+ xy
(b)
+ xy
2
2
1
1
(x y)2 + 4x2y
(d)
(x + y)2 + 4xy2
(c)
2
2
163. The ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal stress in thin walled cylinders is
(a) 1
(b) 1/2
(c) 2
(d) 1/4
164. The theory applicable for the analysis of thick cylinders, is
(a) Lames theory
(b) Rankines theory
(c) Poissons theory
(d) Caurbons theory
165. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of
(a) stress, strain and pressure
(b) stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
(c) stress, force and modulus of rigidity
(d) stress, force and pressure
166. The relation among the elastic constants E, G and K is
KG
9KG
(a) E = 9K + G
(b) E = K + G
9KG
9KG
(c) E =
(d) E =
K + 3G
3K + G
167. Which of the following has no unit ?
(a) Kinematic viscosity
(c) Surface Tension
(b)
(d)
Strain
Bulk Modulus
168. What does the elasticity of material enables it to do ?

(a) Regain the original shape after the removal of applied force.
(b) Draw into wires by the application of force.
(c) Resist fracture due to high impact.
(d) Retain deformation produced under load permanently.
169. Which of the following brakes is commonly used in motor cars ?
(a) Band Brake
(b) Shoe Brake
(c) Internal expanding Shoe Brake
(d) All the above
170. Which one of the following is not an example of higher pair ?
(a) Disc Cam and roller follower
(b) Spur Gear meshing teeth
(c) Ball Bearing
(d) Bush Bearing
Series-A
46
SES-05
161.

(a)
(c)
162.
(c)
cm1
x y
+ xy
2
1
(x y)2 + 4x2y
2
(b)
(d)
x + y
+ xy
2
1
(x + y)2 + 4xy2
2

(a)
(c)
164.
(b)
(d)
(x y)
xy, , , :
(a)
163.
cm
cm2
1
2
(b)
(d)
1/2
1/4
:

(b)

(d)
(a)
(c)
165.
:
(a) ,
(b) ,
(d) ,
(c) ,
166.
E, G, K :
(a)
(c)
167.
KG
9K + G
9KG
E = K + 3G
E=
?
(a)
(c)
(b)
9KG
E=K+G
(d)
9KG
E = 3K + G
(b)
(d)
168.
?
(a) ,
(b)
(c)
(d)
169.
: ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
170.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
47
Series-A
171. The minimum number of teeth which can be cut for standard tooth for a given pressure
angle the following
(a) sin2 /2
(b) 2/sin2
2
(c) 2 sin2
(d)
sin 2
172. When there is no slip, the power transmitted by belts is proportional to
(a) (T1 T2) V
(b) (T1 + T2) V
(T1 T2)
(c) (T1 / T2) V
(d)
V
173. When two gear teeth are in mesh, then pure rolling occurs at the
(a) root of tooth
(b) tip of tooth
(c) pitch point
(d) flank
174. In a governor, if the equilibrium speed is constant for all radii of rotation of balls, the
governor is said to be
(a) stable governor
(b) unstable governor
(c) inertia governor
(d) isochronous governor
175. The instantaneous centre of rotation of a circular disc rolling on a straight path is at
(a) the centre of the disc
(b) their point of contact
(c) the centre of gravity of the disc
(d) infinity
176. For a safe design, a friction clutch is designed assuming
(a) uniform wear
(b) uniform pressure
(c) any one of the above
177. In a simple gear train, there is odd number of idlers. The direction of rotation of the driver
and the driven gears will be
(a) same
(b) opposite
(c) depends upon the number of teeth of the gears
(d) depends upon the diameter of idlers used
178. In free vibrations, the acceleration vector leads the displacement vector by
(a) /3
(b) /2
(c) 2/3
(d)
179. At a certain speed, revolving shafts tend to vibrate violently in transverse directions, this
speed is known as
(a) whirling speed
(b) critical speed
(c) whipping speed
(d) All the above
180. If the speed of the engine varies between 390 and 410 rpm in a cycle of operation, the
coefficient of fluctuation of speed will be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.03
(c) 0.05
(d) 0.07
181. When teeth formed on the cones are straight, the gears are known as
(a) worm gear
(b) helical gear
(c) straight bevel
(d) spiral bevel
Series-A
48
SES-05
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
, ,
:
(a)
sin2 /2
(b)
(c)
2 sin2
(d)
,
(a)
(T1 T2) V
(b)
(c)
(T1 / T2) V
(d)
180.
/3
2/3
(b)
(d)
/2

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
390 410 ,

(a)
(c)
181.
(T1 + T2) V
(T1 T2)
V
, :
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
, , ,
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
,
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
,
(a)
(c)
179.
2/sin2
2
sin 2
0.01
0.05
(b)
(d)
0.03
0.07
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
49
Series-A
182. Creep in belts occurs due to which one of the following :

(a) Belt and pulley surfaces are smooth
(b) Belt is thick
(c) Due to unequal tensions on the two sides of the pulley
(d) The pulley diameters are large
183. The point on the Cam with maximum pressure angle is known as the
(a) Cam centre
(b) Pitch point
(c) Trace point
(d) Prime point
184. Static balancing involves balancing of
(a) forces
(c) masses
(b)
(d)
couples
All the above
185. The motion of a nut on a threaded bolt is

(a) Helical
(c) Spherical
(b)
(d)
Plane
None of the above
186. Spur gears have/are

(a) straight teeth perpendicular to the axis.
(b) curved teeth perpendicular to the axis.
(c) not subjected to axial thrust due to tooth load.
(d) subjected to axial thrust due to tooth load.
187. Coriolis component of acceleration occurs in
(a) quick return mechanism
(b) four bar mechanism
(c) slider crank mechanism
(d) none of the above
188. Identify the wrong statement :
(a) A mechanism is an assemblage of four or more links.
(b) A slider crank chain consists of two sliding pairs and two turning pairs.
(c) A kinematic chain requires at least four links and four turning pairs.
(d) Open pairs are those whose elements are not held together mechanically.
189. Any distributed mass can be replaced by two point masses to have the same dynamical
properties, if
(a) The sum of the two masses is equal to the total mass.
(b) The combined centre of mass coincides with that of the rod.
(c) The moment of inertia of two point masses about perpendicular axis through their
combined centre of mass is equal to that of the rod.
(d) All the above.
190. For steady state forced vibrations, the phase lag at resonance condition is
(a) 0
(b) 45
(c) 80
(d) 90
191. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack having square threads and friction angle of 30
will be
(a) 11 %
(b) 20 %
(c) 30 %
(d) 33 %
192. If the damping factor for a vibrating system is unity, then the system is
(a) critically damped
(b) under damped
(c) over damped
(d) zero damped
Series-A
50
SES-05
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
?
(a)
(b) -
(c)
(d)
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c) (d)

(a)
(b)
(c) -
(d)
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) ,
,
(a)
(b)
(c) ,

(d)
:
(a)
(c)
191.
192.
0
80
(b)
(d)
45
90
30 :
(a) 11
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 33
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-05
51
Series-A
193. A gear train, in which at least one of the gear axes is in motion relative to the frame, is
known as
(a) reverted gear train
(b) non-reverted gear train
(c) epicyclic gear train
194. In a mechanism having six links, the number of instantaneous centres of rotation present
are
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) 6
195. A flywheel in an I.C. engine :
(a) controls the supply of fuel to the engine
(b) controls the cyclic fluctuation of speed
(c) controls the speed variation due to load
(d) All the above
196. In a slotted lever and crank quick return mechanism used in shapers, the beginning and
end of cutting stroke occurs when
(a) cranked lever are in line with each other
(b) crank is perpendicular to lever
(c) crank is horizontal
(d) lever is horizontal
197. Stress and Strain are tensor of
(a) zero-order
(b) first order
(c) second order
198. x + y = x' + y' = 1 + 2
The above relation is called
(a) independency of normal stresses
(b) constancy of normal stresses
(c) first invariant of stress
(d) all the above three
199. In a slider-crank mechanism, the piston velocity is maximum, when :
(a) Crank is perpendicular to line of stroke.
(b) Crank and connecting rod are collinear.
(c) Crank is perpendicular to connecting rod.
(d) None of the above.
200. A body of weight w is supported by two springs as shown below. The equivalent spring
constant is :
(a)
(c)
Series-A
1
1
K1 + K2
K1 K2
52
(b)
K1 + K2
(d)
K1 K2
SES-05
193.
194.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6
(a)
(c)
195.
196.
197.
15
9
(b)
(d)
12
6

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
,
,
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)

(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
198. x + y = x' + y' = 1 + 2
199.
200.

(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
- ,
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
w , ,
:
(a)
(c)
SES-05
1
1
+
K1 K2
K1 K2
53
(b)
K1 + K2
(d)
K1 K2
Series-A
Space For Rough Work /
Series-A
54
SES-05
SES-05
55
Series-A
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Paper-II
1.
An inventor claims to have developed an engine that takes in 105 MJ at a temperature of

400 K, rejects 42 MJ at a temperature of 200 K and delivers 15 kWh of mechanical work.
Is this engine feasible ?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) The information given is not sufficient to find answer.
(d) May be or may not be depends upon several factors.
2.
In a reversible adiabatic process the ratio (T1/T2) is equal to

(a)
(c)
(P1/P2)
(V1 V2)
1
2
(b)
(V1/V2)
(d)
(V2/V1)
Where is ratio of specific heats ?

3.
A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if the exhaust temperature is
(a) equal to its input temperature
(b) less than its input temperature
(c) 0 oC
(d) 0 K
4.
The thermal efficiency of a theoretical Otto cycle

(a) increases with increase in compression ratio
(b) increases with increase in isentropic index
(c) does not depend on the pressure ratio
(d) follows all the above
5.
Which of the following constituents of a fuel does not contribute to its calorific value on
combustion ?
(a) Carbon
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Sulphur
(d) Nitrogen
6.
Which of the following is an irreversible process ?

(a) An isothermal process
(b) An isentropic process
(c) An isobaric process
(d) An isenthalpic process
7.
The work in a closed system undergoing an isentropic process is given by

1
(a)
mR (T1 T2)
(b)
mR (T1 T2)
1
1
1
(c)
mR (T1 T2)
(d)
m (T1 T2)
1
1
(Notations used have usual meaning)
Series-A
SES-06
-II
1.
105 MJ, 400 K

42 MJ, 200 K 15 kWh ?
(a)
(b)
(c) ,
(d) ,
2.
T1/T2
(a)
(P1/P2)
1
2
(c)
3.
(V1 V2)
(b)
(V1/V2)
(d)
(V2/V1)
100%
(a)
(b)
(c)
0 oC
(d)
0K
4.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
5.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
6.
?
(a)
(c)
7.
(b)
(d)

(a)
(c)
mR (T1 T2)
1
1
mR (T1 T2)
1
(b)
(d)
1
mR (T1 T2)
1
m (T1 T2)
1
( )
SES-06
Series-A
8.
The Clausius equation for a reversible cycle is

Q
(a) o
<0
(b)
T
Q
(c) o
>0
(d)
T
(Notations used have usual meaning.)
o Q = 0
T
o Q < 0
T
9.
At the critical point, any substance

(a) will exist in all the three phases simultaneously
(b) will change directly from solid to vapour
(c) will lose phase distinction between liquid and vapour
(d) will behave as an ideal gas
10.
Vander Waals equation may be written as

a
(a) (p + V ) (V b) = RT
(b)
a
(c) (p + 2 ) (V2 b) = RT
(d)
V
a
) (V b) = RT
V2
a
(p + 2 ) (V2 b) = RT2
V
(p +
11.
An engine receives 15152 J/s of heat and produces 5 kW of power. The efficiency of the
engine is
(a) 25%
(b) 27.5%
(c) 30%
(d) 33%
12.
Air is compressed isothermally by performing work equal to 16 kJ upon it. The change in
internal energy is
(a) 16 kJ
(b) Zero
(c) 16 kJ
(d) 32 kJ
13.
A mixture of gases expands from 0.03 m3 to 0.06 m3 at constant pressure of 1MPa and
absorbs 84 kJ of heat during the process. The change in internal energy of the mixture is
(a) 30 kJ
(b) 54 kJ
(c) 84 kJ
(d) 114 kJ
14.
The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5 and index = 1.4
is
(a) 60%
(b) 50%
(c) 47.47%
(d) 40%
15.
Steam coming out of the whistle of a pressure cooker is

(a) dry saturated vapour
(b) wet vapour
(c) super heated vapour
(d) ideal gas
16.
The latent heat of steam with increase in pressure

(a) does not change
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) remains unpredictable
Series-A
SES-06
8.

(a)
(c)
o Q < 0
T
o Q > 0
T
(b)
(d)
o Q = 0
T
o Q < 0
T
( )
9.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10.

(a)
(c)
a
V ) (V b) = RT
a
(p + 2 ) (V2 b) = RT
V
(p +
(b)
(d)
a
) (V b) = RT
V2
a
(p + 2 ) (V2 b) = RT2
V
(p +
( )
11.
15152 J/s 5 kW
(a)
(c)
25%
30%
(b)
(d)
27.5%
33%
12.
16 kJ ,
(a) 16 kJ
(b)
(c) 16 kJ
(d) 32 kJ
13.
1MPa 0.03 m3 0.06 m3 ,

84 kJ ,
(a) 30 kJ
(b) 54 kJ
(c) 84 kJ
(d) 114 kJ
14.
, 5 = 1.4
(a)
(c)
15.
16.
(b)
(d)
50%
40%

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
SES-06
60%
47.47%
Series-A
17.
A system is taken from state A to state B along two different paths 1 and 2. The heat
absorbed and work done by the system along these paths are Q1 and Q2 and W1 and W2
respectively, then
(a) Q1 = Q2
(b) W1 + Q1 = Q2 + W2
(c) W1 = W2
(d) Q1 W1 = Q2 W2
18.
Steam flows through an adiabatic steady flow turbine from state 1 to state 2. with respect
to a base temperature T0, the unavailable energy is
(a) T0 (I1 I2)
(b) T0 (S1 S2)
(c) (I1 I2) T0 (S1 S2)
(d) I2 + I0 (S1 S2)
19.
The value of compressibility factor for a vander Waals gas is equal to

(a) 1.0
(b) 0.375
(c) 0.2 to 0.3
(d) 0.35
20.
The slope of an isobar on the h s coordinates is equal to the

(a) Gibbs function
(b) Helmholtz function
(c) Pressure
(d) Absolute saturation temperature at that pressure
21.
A carnot heat pump absorbs heat from atmosphere at 10 oC and supplies it to a room
maintained at 25 oC. A temperature difference of 5 oC exists between working fluid and
atmosphere on one hand, and the required room temperature on the other hand. If the heat
pump consumes 1 kW power, the heat delivered to the room will be
(a) 12.1 kW
(b) 14.9 kW
(c) 1.67 kW
(d) 19.9 kW
22.
For the same compression ratio and same heat rejection, the efficiency of Otto cycle is
(a) same as that of Diesel Cycle
(b) not comparable to that of Diesel Cycle
(c) less than that of Diesel Cycle
(d) more than that of Diesel Cycle
23.
Choose the correct altenative :

1.
First law for a closed system undergoing a cycle Q W = E
2.
Two reversible adiabatic paths can not intersect each other.
3.
If two fluids are mixed, the entropy of universe remains unchanged.
4.
Clausius statement Heat can flow from low to high temperature body without the
aid of external work.
5.
The efficiency of a reversible heat engine is independent of nature of working
substance undergoing a cycle.
(a) All statements are true.
(b) Statements 2 and 5 are true.
(c) Statements 1, 3, 4 and 5 are true.
(d) Statements 1, 3 and 5 are true.
Series-A
SES-06
17.
A B 1 2
: Q1 Q2 W1 W2
(a)
(c)
18.
(b)
(d)
W1 + Q1 = Q2 + W2
Q1 W1 = Q2 W2
-1 -2 T0
:
(a)
(c)
19.
Q1 = Q2
W1 = W2
T0 (I1 I2)
(I1 I2) T0 (S1 S2)
(b)
(d)
T0 (S1 S2)
I2 + I0 (S1 S2)
(b)
(d)
0.375
0.35

(a)
(c)
1.0
0.2 0.3
20.
h s
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
21.
10 C 25 C
, , ,
, : 5 C 1 kW

(a)
(c)
12.1 kW
1.67 kW
(b)
(d)
14.9 kW
19.9 kW
22.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
23.
:
1.
: Q W = E
2.

3.

4.
-

5.

(a)
(b) 2 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 5
(d) 1, 3 5
SES-06
Series-A
24.
The unit of work is

(a) kW
(c) kW/h
(b)
(d)
kWh
kJ/s
25.
For complete burning of 1 kg of carbon, the air required will be about

(a) 2.67 kg
(b) 11.6 kg
(c) 12.7 kg
(d) 14.5 kg
26.
The efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine depends on

(a) working substance
(b) the temperature of the source only
(c) the temperature of the sink only
(d) the temperature of both source and sink.
27.
Kelvin Plancks law deals with

(a) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of mass
(b)
(d)
conservation of heat
conversion of heat into work
The gas constant R is equal to the

(a) sum of two specific heats.
(c) product of two specific heats.
(b)
(d)
difference of two specific heats.

ratio of two specific heats.
28.
29.
The main cause of the irreversibility is

(a) Mechanical and Fluid Friction
(b) Unrestricted expansion
(c) Heat transfer with a finite temperature difference
(d) All of the above
30.
Which of the following is not a property of thermodynamic system ?

(a) Pressure
(b) Energy
(c) Heat
(d) Volume
31.
Parsons reaction turbine has

(a) fixed blades only
(b) moving blades only
(c) identical fixed and moving blades
(d) fixed and moving blades of different shapes.
32.
The change in entropy is zero during

(a) Hyperbolic process
(c) Reversible adiabatic process
(b)
(d)
Constant pressure process

Polytropic process
Fuel injector is used in

(a) steam engines
(c) spark ignition engines
(b)
(d)
gas engines
compression ignition engines
33.
34.
Carnot cycle is not considered as a practical cycle because

(a) its p V diagram is narrow
(b) its thermal efficiency is low
(c) heat addition takes place at high pressure
(d) heat rejection takes place at high temperature
Series-A
SES-06
24.

(a)
(c)
25.
27.
28.
29.
30.
(b)
(d)
kWh
kJ/s
:
(a)
(c)
26.
kW
kW/h
2.67 kg
12.7 kg
(b)
(d)
11.6 kg
14.5 kg

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
R
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
?
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
31.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) -
32.
:
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
:
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
33.
34.

(b)
(a) p V
(c) -
(d)
SES-06
Series-A
35.
The property of a working substance which increases or decreases as the heat is supplied
or removed in a reversible manner is known as
(a) Enthalpy
(b) Entropy
(c) Internal energy
(d) External Energy
36.
The second law of thermodynamics defines

(a) Heat
(b)
(c) Internal Energy
(d)
Enthalpy
Entropy
In an irreversible process there is a

(a) loss of heat
(c) gain of heat
(b)
(d)
no loss of heat
no gain of heat
The most practical vapour power cycle is

(a) Carnot
(c) Rankine
(b)
(d)
Joule
Binary
37.
38.
39.
Which pair of the following alternatives is correctly matched ?

List I
List II
(a) Heat
Point function
(b) Energy
Path function
(c) Entropy
Second law of thermodynamics
(d) Gibbs function Path function
40.
In an Otto cycle, the heat addition and heat rejection take place at
(a) constant volume and at constant pressure respectively
(b) constant volume and at constant volume respectively
(c) constant pressure and at constant volume respectively
(d) constant pressure and at constant pressure respectively
41.
Application of Bernoullis equation requires that

(a) the duct is two dimensional
(b) the flow is laminar
(c) the duct is frictionless
(d) the fluid is inviscid and imcompressible
42.
A fully developed pipe flow implies that the

(a) flow should be laminar
(b) flow should be turbulent
(c) velocity profile should be uniform
(d) velocity profile should not change in the direction of flow.
43.
The type of flow in which the velocity at any given time does not change with respect to
space is called
(a) Steady flow
(b) Compressible flow
(c) Uniform flow
(d) Rotational flow
44.
The concept of stream function which is based on the principle of continuity is applicable to
(a) irrotational flow only
(b) two dimensional flow only
(c) three dimensional flow only
(d) uniform flow only
35.
, ,
Series-A
10
SES-06
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
36.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
37.

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
38.
39.
?
II
I
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

40.
: :
(a) :
(b) :
(c) :
(d) :
41.

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
42.
43.

,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
44.
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-06
11
Series-A
45.
A pitot tube is used for measuring

(a) velocity of flow
(c) flow rate
(b)
(d)
pressure of flow
total energy
46.
Mach number is defined as the square root of the ratio of the

(a) inertia force to the pressure force
(b) inertia force to the surface tension force
(c) inertia force to the elastic force
47.
A streamlined body is defined as a body about which

(a) the drag is zero
(b) the flow is laminar
(c) the flow is along streamlines
(d) the flow separation is suppressed
48.
Which is the flow measuring device through which fluid does not flow ?
(a) Orifice plate
(b) Venturimeter
(c) Pitot tube
(d) Elbow meter
49.
Rayleighs method of dimensional analysis is used for determining the expression for a
variable which depends on maximum following number of variables.
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 6
50.
u 3 y 2 1
The velocity profile is approximated by a cubic parabola U = 2 2
displacement thickness for the profile is

3
(a) 8
(b) 5/8
(c) 11/8
51.
For the viscous flow the coefficient of friction is given by

(a) f = 8/Re
(b) f = 16/Re
(c) f = 32/Re
(d) f = 60/Re
52.
The mathematical expression for lift force is given by

(a)
FL = CL . AU
53.
54.
(d)
U2
FL = CL . 2 . A
None of the above
(b)
(d)
non uniformity of flow

irrotational nature of flow
(b)
(c) FL = CL . U2 .A
Local acceleration in fluid is due to
(a) unsteady nature of flow
(c) turbulence in flow
y 3
, where the
An oil of kinematic viscosity 0.5 stokes flows through a pipe of 5 cm diameter. The flow
is critical at a velocity of about
(a) 0.2 m/s
(b) 2 m/s
(c) 2.5 m/s
(d) 4 m/s
Series-A
12
SES-06
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
?
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
,

(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 6
:
u 3 y 2 1
U = 2 2
3
(a) 8
(c) 11/8
51.
f = 8/Re
f = 32/Re
FL = CL . AU
(c) FL = CL . U2 .A
( )
54.
5/8
(d)
(b)
(d)
f = 16/Re
f = 60/Re
(b)
U2
FL = CL . 2 . A
(d)
:
(a)
53.
(b)
, :
(a)
(c)
52.
y 3
,

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
0.5 , 5 cm
,
(a) 0.2 m/s
(b) 2 m/s
(c) 2.5 m/s
(d) 4 m/s
SES-06
13
Series-A
55.
At a distance x from the leading edge of a plate, the thickness of laminar boundary layer varies as
(a) 1/ x
(b) x 4/5
(c) x 1/2
(d) x2
56.
Using Blasius Equation, the friction factor for turbulent flow through pipes varies as
(a) 1/Re
(b) 1/Re0.5
(c) 1/Re 0.33
(d) 1/Re 0.25
57.
For irrotational and incompressible flow, the velocity potential and stream function are
given by and respectively. Which one of the following sets is correct ?
(a) 2 = 0 , 2 = 0
(b) 2 0 , 2 = 0
2
2
(c) = 0 , 0
(d) 2 0 , 2 0
58.
For the laminar flow through a circular pipe the ratio of maximum velocity and the
average velocity is
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.0
(c) 2.5
59.
The separation of boundary layer takes place in case of

(a) negative pressure gradient
(b) positive pressure gradient
(c) zero pressure gradient
60.
Froude number is defined as the ratio of

(a) inertia force to viscous force
(c) inertia force to elastic force
(b)
(d)
inertia force to gravity force

inertia force to pressure force
Hammer blow in pipes occurs due to

(a) sudden sharp bends
(c) sudden stoppage of flow
(b)
(d)
sudden contraction
sudden release of fluid from pipe
61.
62.
A metal piece having density exactly equal to the density of a fluid is placed in the liquid.
The metal piece will
(a) sink to the bottom
(b) float on the surface
(c) will be partly immersed
(d) will be wholly immersed
63.
Which of the following head loss is significant in a pipe flow ?

(a) Loss of head due to gradual contraction
(b) Loss of head due to friction
(c) Loss of head due to sudden enlargement
(d) Loss of head due to sudden contraction
64.
The resultant force on a floating body will act

(a) vertically upwards through centre of buoyancy
(b) vertically downwards through centre of buoyancy
(c) vertically upwards through meta centre
(d) vertically downwards through meta centre
Series-A
14
SES-06
55.
x
(a)
(c)
56.
60.
61.
1/Re
1/Re 0.33
(b)
(d)
1/Re0.5
1/Re 0.25
2 = 0 , 2 = 0
2 = 0 , 2 0
(b)
(d)
2 0 , 2 = 0
2 0 , 2 0

(a)
(c)
59.
x 4/5
x2
:
?
(a)
(c)
58.
(b)
(d)

(a)
(c)
57.
1/ x
x 1/2
1.5
2.5
(b)
(d)
2.0

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
,
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
62.

(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
63.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
64.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-06
15
Series-A
65.
Which of the following is a Mechanical Gauge ?

(a) Diaphragm gauge
(b) Dead weight pressure gauge
(c) Bourdon tube pressure gauge
(d) All the above
66.
A box of rectangular base 2m 3m contains gasoline (Sp. Gravity 0.7) upto a height of 5m.
The force on the base and two vertical surfaces, 2m 5m and 3m 5m respectively.
(a) 206 kN, 258 kN and 172 kN
(b) 21 kN, 17.5 kN and 26.3 kN
(c) 258 kN, 172 kN and 206 kN
(d) 206 kN, 172 kN and 258 kN
67.
Match the following and choose the correct alternatives :

List I
List II
A. Froude number
1.
p/U2
B. Mach number
2.
U/(gd)
C. Webber number
3.
U/ gd
D. Euler number
4.
LU2/
p
5.
2U2
6.
U/c
(c = velocity of sound)
Codes :
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
6
3
5
(b) 3
6
4
1
(c) 2
4
5
2
(d) 2
6
1
5
68.
The continuity equation in fluid mechanics is a mathematical statement embodying the

principle of
(a) conservation of energy
(b) conservation of mass
(c) conservation of momentum
(d) none of above
69.
Reynolds number is defined as the ratio of inertia force to

(a) gravity force
(b) pressure force
(c) elastic force
(d) viscous force
70.
An ideal fluid is defined as the fluid which

(a) is compressible
(b) is incompressible
(c) is incompressible and inviscid
(d) has negligible surface tension
71.
The velocity distribution in laminar flow through a circular pipe follows the
(a) Linear law
(b) Parabolic law
(c) Logarithmic law
Series-A
16
SES-06
65.
?
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
66.
5m ( 0.7)
2m 5m 3m 5m :
(a) 206 kN, 258 kN 172 kN
(b) 21 kN, 17.5 kN 26.3 kN
(c) 258 kN, 172 kN 206 kN
(d) 206 kN, 172 kN 258 kN
67.
:
I
II
A. 1.
p/U2
2.
U(gd)
B.
C.
3.
U/ gd
D.
LU2/
4.
2m 3m
5.
2U2
U/c
6.
(c = )
( )
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
6
3
5
(b) 3
6
4
1
(c) 2
4
5
2
(d) 2
6
1
5
68.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
69.
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
70.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
71.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-06
17
Series-A
72.
Kinematic similarity between model and prototype means the similarity of

(a) forces
(b) shape
(c) motions
(d) discharge
73.
The Darcy-Weisbach friction factor which is a direct measure of resistance to flow in

pipes is dependent on
(a) Roughness height, diameter and velocity
(b) Relative roughness, diameter and viscosity
(c) Relative roughness, velocity and viscosity
(d) Roughness height, diameter, velocity and kinematic viscosity
74.
The velocity distribution in turbulent flow is a function of the distance y measured from
the boundary surface and the friction velocity V*, and follows a
(a) parabolic law
(b) logarithmic law
(c) hyperbolic law
(d) linear law
75.
The parameters which determine the friction factor for turbulent flow in a rough pipe are
(a) Froude number and relative roughness
(b) Froude number and Mach number
(c) Reynolds number and relative roughness
(d) Mach number and relative roughness
76.
Head loss in sudden expansion is given by

V12 V22
(b)
(a)
2g
(V1 V2)2
(c)
(d)
2g
(Notations used have usual meanings)
(V1 V2)3
2g
2(V12 V2)2
g
77.
In order to have a continuous flow through a siphon, no portion of the pipe be higher than
_____ measured above the hydraulic grade line :
(a) 10m
(b) 10.33m
(c) 5.5m
(d) 7.75m
78.
Boundary layer on a flat plate is called laminar boundary layer if Reynolds number is less
than
(a) 2000
(b) 4000
5
(c) 5 10
79.
Surface tension is a phenomenon due to

(a) Cohesion only
(b) Viscous forces only
(c) Adhesion between liquid and solid molecules
(d) Difference in magnitude between the forces due to adhesion and cohesion
80.
A container carrying water is moved in a horizontal direction with an acceleration of

2.45 m/s2. The angle of inclination of free water surface to the horizontal is
(a) 14.03o
(b) 67.8o
o
(c) 45
(d) 0o
Series-A
18
SES-06
72.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
73.
,
(a) ,
(b) ,
(c) ,
(d) , ,
74.
y V*

(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
75.

(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
76.

(a)
(c)
V12 V22
2g
(V1 V2)2
2g
(b)
(d)
(V1 V2)3
2g
2(V12 V2)2
( )
77.
______

(a)
(c)
10m
5.5m
(b)
(d)
10.33m
7.75m
78.
,
(a) 2,000
(b) 4,000
5
(c) 5 10
(d)
79.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
80.
2.45 m/s2

(a)
(c)
SES-06
14.03o
45o
(b)
(d)
19
67.8o
0o
Series-A
81.
The rate of heat transfer through a hollow cylinder of inner and outer radii r1 and r2,
respectively, depends on
(a) difference of radii, (r2 r1)
(b) sum of radii, (r2 + r1)
r2
(c) product of radii, (r1 r2)
(d) ratio of radii,
r1
82.
The rate of heat transfer from a solid surface to a fluid is obtained from
(a) Newtons law of cooling
(b) Fouriers law
(c) Kirchhoffs law
(d) Stefans law
83.
If one radiation shield is placed between two infinite parallel radiating plane surfaces, then
the amount of heat radiated becomes
(a) one third
(b) one fourth
(c) half
84. Which pair, out of the following alternatives, is not correctly matched ?
List I
List II
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Fouriers law
Newtons law of cooling
Stephan-Boltzman law
Kirchoffs law
Conduction
Convection
Radiation
Radiation +
Convection
85.
If k = thermal conductivity and h = heat transfer coefficient then the critical thickness of
insulation for a cylinder, which will maximise the heat transfer is equal to
(a) k/h
(b) h/k
(c) 2k/h
(d) h/2k
86.
If T i and T e are the temperature

heat exchanger, then LMTD is equal
Ti Te
(a)
ln Ti/ Te
ln(Ti Te)
(c)
Ti/Te
87.
If Q = actual rate of heat transfer and Qmax = maximum possible rate of heat transfer then,
heat exchanger effectiveness is equal to
(a) Qmax Q
(b) Q/Qmax
Qmax + Q
(c) Qmax/Q
(d)
2
88.
If V = volume, A = surface area, h = surface film conductance, p = density and C =

specific heat, then the time constant of a thermocouple is equal to
VC
V
(a)
(b)
Ah
CAh
Ah
VC
(c) VC
(d) Ah
Series-A
20
differences at inlet and at exit of the

to
Ti Te
(b) ln
l Ti/Te
Ti Te
(d) ln (T + T )/2
i
e
SES-06
81.
: r1 r2
(b) (r2 + r1)
(a) (r2 r1)
(c)
(r1
r2)
r2
(d)
82.

(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
83.

(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
84.
?
I
II
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
+
85.
k = h =

(a) k/h
(b) h/k
(c) 2k/h
(d) h/2k
86.
Ti Te LMTD
(a)
(c)
87.
(b)
Q =

(a) Qmax Q
(c)
88.
Ti Te
ln Ti / Te
ln( Ti Te)
Ti / Te
(d)
Qmax =
(b)
Qmax/Q
(d)
Ti Te
lnl T / T
i
e
Ti Te
ln (Ti + Te)/2

Q/Qmax
Qmax + Q
2
V = , A = , h = , = C =

(a)
(c)
SES-06
VC
Ah
Ah
VC
(b)
(d)
21
V
CAh
VC
Ah
Series-A
89.
During the process of boiling and condensation only a phase change takes place, and one
fluid remains at constant temperature throughout the heat exchanger. In terms of number
of transfer units (NTU), the effectiveness of such heat exchanger would be
NTU
(a)
1 + NTU
(b) 1 exp (NTU)
1 exp (2NTU)
(c)
2
(d) cannot be worked out as heat capacities are unknown
90.
A cross flow type air heater has an area of 50 cm2. The overall heat transfer coefficient is
100 W/m2K and heat capacity of both hot and cold streams are 1000 W/K. The value of
NTU is
(a) 1000
(b) 500
(c) 5
(d) 0.2
91.
For an opaque plane surface, the irradiation, radiocity and emissive power are 20,12 and
10 W/m2 respectively. The emissivity of the surface is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.8
(d) 1.0
92.
The Prandtl number will be the lowest for

(a) water
(c) Aqueous solution
(b)
(d)
liquid metal
lube oil
93.
Two walls of same thickness and cross sectional area have thermal conductivities in the
ratio of 1 : 2 . If the same temperature difference is maintained across the wall faces, the
ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 will be
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
94.
The critical thickness of insulation for spheres is given by

(a) k/h
(b) k/4h
(c) h/2k
(d) 2k/h
95.
What is the equivalent emissivity for radiant heat exchange between a small body
(emissivity = 0.4) in a very large enclosure (emissivity = 0.5) ?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.2
(d) 0.1
96.
In the lumped parameter model, the temperature variation with time is

(a) linear
(b) cubic
(c) exponential
(d) sinusoidal
97.
What is the value of shape factor for two infinite parallel surfaces separated by a distance x ?
(a) 0
(b)
(c) 1
(d) x
Series-A
22
SES-06
89.

(NTU) ,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
90.
93.
95.
(b)
(d)
0.2
0.8

(a)
(c)
500
0.2
(b)
(d)
0.4
1.0
(b)
(d)
1:2
Q1/Q2
(a)
(c)
94.
1000
5
: 20, 12 10 W/m2

(a)
(c)
92.
50 cm2 100 W/m2K

1000 W/K NTU
(a)
(c)
91.
NTU
1 + NTU
1 exp (NTU)
1 exp (2NTU)
2
1/2
2

(a) k/h
(c) h/2k
(b)
(d)
1
4
(b)
(d)
k/4h
2k/h
( = 0.4) : ( = 0.5) ,

(a)
(c)
0.5
0.2
(b)
(d)
0.4
0.1
96.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
97.
x ,
(a)
(c)
SES-06
0
1
(b)
(d)
23
Series-A
98.
The Nusselt number in natural convection heat transfer is a function of fluid Prandtl
number and
(a) Stanton Number
(b) Biot Number
(c) Grashoff Number
(d) Reynolds Number
99.
The value of Prandtl Number of air is about

(a) 0.1
(b)
(c) 0.7
(d)
0.4
1.1
100. The radiant heat transfer per unit area (W/m2) between two plane parallel gray surfaces
(emissivity = 0.9) maintained at 400 K and 300 K is
(a) 992
(b) 893
(c) 464
(d) 567
101. The ratio of thickness of thermal boundary layer to thickness of hydrodynamic boundary
layer is equal to (Pr)n where n is
(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 1
(d) 1
102. _____ will radiate heat to a large extent.
(a) Black polished surface
(c) White polished surface
(b)
(d)
White rough surface

Black rough surface
hA
kP is
greater than 1
greater than 1 but less than 2
103. Addition of fin to the surface increases the heat transfer if

(a) equal to 1
(c) less than 1
(b)
(d)
104. Choose correct order of metals for increasing conductivity :

(a) Cu, Al, Fe, Ag
(b) Fe, Al, Cu, Ag
(c) Al, Fe, Cu, Ag
(d) Cu, Ag, Al, Fe
105. For a given heat flow and for the same thickness, the temperature drop across the material
will be maximum for
(a) Copper
(b) Steel
(c) Glass wool
(d) Refractory brick
106. Reynolds analogy states that (St is the stanton number and Cfx is the skin friction
coefficient)
Cfx
Cfx
(a) St = 4
(b) St = 2
(d) St = 2 Cfx
(c) St = Cfx
107. Two walls of thickness d and 2d called A and B are made of materials such that their
thermal conductivities are KA = 2 KB. If the difference of temperature on two sides is
proportional to thickness, the ratio of heat transfer through A to that through B is
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
Series-A
24
SES-06
98.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
99.

(a)
(c)
100.
(b)
(d)
0.4
1.1
( = 0.9)

(a)
(c)
101.
0.1
0.7
992
464
(b)
(d)
400 K
300 K
893
567
(Pr)n , n
(a)
(c)
1/3
1
102. _____
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
2/3
1
(b)
(d)
hA
kP
(b) 1
(d) 1 2
103.
,
(a) 1
(c) 1
( )
104.
:
(a)
(c)
Cu, Al, Fe, Ag

Al, Fe, Cu, Ag
(b)
(d)
Fe, Al, Cu, Ag

Cu, Ag, Al, Fe
105.
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
106.
(st Cfx )
(a)
(c)
Cfx
St = 4
St = Cfx
(b)
(d)
Cfx
St = 2
St = 2 Cfx
107. d 2d
KA = 2 KB
, A B
(a)
(c)
SES-06
6
2
(b)
(d)
25
4
1
Series-A
108. The radial heat transfer rate through hollow cylinder increases as the ratio of outer radius
to inner radius :
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) constant
109. Metals are good thermal conductors since
(a) they have free electrons.
(c) their surfaces reflect.
(b)
(d)
their atoms are relatively closer.

their atoms are of larger size.
110. In forced convection, Nusselt number is a function of

(a) Reynolds number and dynamic viscosity
(b) dynamic viscosity and Prandtl number
(c) Prandtl number and Reynolds number
(d) Reynolds number and thickness of boundary layer
111. Stefan-Boltzmann law is expressed as
(a) Q = AT4
(c) Q = AT2
(b)
(d)
Q = A2T4
Q = AT4
112. The shape factor for radiation heat transfer of a long cylinder of radius r1 enclosed by
another concentric long cylinder of radius r2 is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.50
(c) 0.75
(d) 1.0
113. Heat transfer rate
(a) will be higher in turbulent flow
(b) will be lower in turbulent flow
(c) will depend only on the fluid
(d) will depend only on viscosity
114. A thermal transparent body is characterised by
(a) absorptivity = 1
(b)
(c) absorptivity = reflectivity =0
(d)
reflectivity =1
none of the above
115. The time constant of the thermocouple is the time required by a thermocouple to reach the
following value of initial temperature differences :
(a) 63.2%
(b) 65%
(c) 68%
(d) 70.2%
116. In a long cylindrical rod of radius R and for a surface heat flux of 90, the uniform internal
heat generation rate is
(a) 290/R
(b) 290
(c) 90/2 R
(d) 90/R2
117. Heat transfer in liquids and gases is essentially due to
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) Conduction and Radiation
Series-A
26
SES-06
108.

(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
109.

(a)
(c)
110.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
111.

(a) Q = AT4
(c) Q = AT2
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
Q = A2T4
Q = AT4
112. r2 , r1
113.
114.
115.

(a) 0.25
(c) 0.75
(b)
(d)
0.50
1.0

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

(a) = 1
(c) = =0
(b)
(d)
=1

(a)
(c)
63.2%
68%
(b)
(d)
65%
70.2%
116. R 90 ,
(a) 290/R
(b) 290
(c) 90/2 R
(d) 90/R2
117.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-06
27
Series-A
118. The transition Reynolds number for flow over a flat plate is 5 105. What is the distance
from the leading edge at which transition will occur for flow of water with uniform
velocity of 1 m/s ? (For water = 0.858 106 m2/s)
(a) 1 m
(b) 0.43 m
(c) 43 m
(d) 103 m
119. In a certain heat exchanger, both the fluids have identical mass flow rate and specific heat
product. The hot fluid enters at 76 oC and leaves at 47 oC and cold fluid enters at 26 oC
and leaves at 55 oC. The effectiveness of the heat exchanger is
(a) 0.16
(b) 0.58
(c) 0.72
(d) 1.0
120. A 0.5 m thick plane wall has its two surfaces kept at 300 oC and 200 oC. Thermal
conductivity of the wall varies linearly with temperature and its value at 300 oC and
200 oC are 25 W/mK and 15 W/mK respectively. Then steady heat flux through the wall is
(a) 8 kW/m2
(b) 5 kW/m2
(c) 4 kW/m2
(d) 3 kW/m2
121. For practical purposes one Ton of refrigeration means
(a) 3.48 kW
(b) 34.8 kW
(c) 348 kW
(d) None of these
122. In a refrigeration system the refrigerant gains heat at
(a) Compressor
(b) Condenser
(c) Expansion valve
(d) Evaporator
123. In summer air conditioning system fresh air is introduced into the recirculated air to
(a) reduce load on equipment
(b) exercise easy control over equipment
(c) improve air quality by diluting odour and contaminants
(d) reduce quantity of supply air
124. Temperature recorded by a thermometer which is not affected by moisture is
(a) dry bulb temperature
(b) wet bulb temperature
(c) dew point temperature
(d) adiabatic saturation temperature
125. Effects of heat pump and refrigeration respectively are obtained at
(a) compressor and condenser
(b) evaporator and condenser
(c) condenser and evaporator
(d) compressor and evaporator
126. On a psychrometric chart what does a vertical downward line represent ?
(a) Adiabatic saturation
(b) Sensible cooling
(c) Dehumdification
(d) Humidification
127. A refrigerator working on a reversed carnot cycle has a COP of 4. If it works as heat pump
and consumes 1kW, the heating effect will be
(a) 1kW
(b) 4kW
(c) 5kW
(d) 6kW
Series-A
28
SES-06
118.
5 105 1 m/s
? ( = 0.858 106 m2/s)
(a)
(c)
1m
43 m
(b)
(d)
0.43 m
103 m
119.
76 oC
47 oC 26 oC 55 oC

(a) 0.16
(b) 0.58
(d) 1.0
(c) 0.72
120.
0.5 m 300 oC 200 oC

300 oC 200 oC : 25 W/mK 15 W/mK

(a) 8 kW/m2
(b) 5 kW/m2
(c) 4 kW/m2
(d) 3 kW/m2
121.

(a)
(c)
122.
3.48 kW
348 kW

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
34.8 kW
(b)
(d)
123.
:
(a)
(b)
(c) ,
(d)
124.

(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
125.
:
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
126.
?
(b)
(a)
(c)
(d)
127.
COP 4
1 kW ,
(a)
(c)
SES-06
1kW
5kW
(b)
(d)
29
4kW
6Kw
Series-A
128. The Bell-Coleman refrigeration cycle uses _______ as the working fluid.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Air
(d) Any inert gas
129. The throttling operation in a refrigeration cycle is carried out in
(a) Evaporator
(b) Discharge valve
(c) Capillary tube
(d) Expansion valve
130. The chemical formula of Freon 12 is
(a) CClF2
(c) CCl2F2
(b)
(d)
CCl2F3
CClF
131. Dry ice is

(a) solidified carbon dioxide
(b) ice free from dissolved air and gases
(c) ice free from impurities
(d) ice made from transparent distilled water.
132. Lithium bromide in vapour absorption refrigeration system is used as
(a) refrigerant
(b) cooling substance
(c) auxiliary refrigerant
(d) absorbent
133. A simple saturated refrigeration cycle has the following state points. Enthalpy after
compression = 425 kJ / kg ; enthaly after throttling = 125 kJ/kg ; enthalpy before
compression = 375 kJ / kg. The COP of refrigeration is
(a) 5
(b) 3.5
(c) 6
(d) not possible to find with this data
134. Vapour absorption system
(a) gives noisy operation
(b) gives quiet operation
(c) requires little power consumption
(d) cools below 0 oC
135. In mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the maximum temperature
(a) before expansion valve
(b) between compressor and condenser
(c) between condenser and evaporator
(d) between compressor and evaporator
136. If moist air is passed over chemicals like silica gel, the process which takes place is
(a) humidification
(b) dehumidification
(c) cooling and dehumidification
(d) heating and dehumidification
Series-A
30
SES-06
128.
_______
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
129.

(a)
(c)
130.
(b)
(d)
12
(a)
CCl F2
(b)
CCl2 F3
(c)
CCl2 F2
(d)
CCl F
131.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
132.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
133.
= 425 kJ / kg ;
= 125 kJ/kg ; = 375 kJ / kg COP
(a)
(c)
134.
5
6

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
3.5
(b)
:
0 oC
(d)
135.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
136.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-06
31
Series-A
137. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicate

(a) relative humidity
(b) specific humidity
(c) dry bulb temperature
(d) wet bulb temperature
138. In the absorption refrigeration cycle, the compressor of vapour compression refrigeration
cycle is replaced by
(a) Liquid pump
(b) Generator
(c) Absorber and generator
(d) Absorber, liquid pump and generator
139. What is the storage temperature for milk ?
(a) 4 oC
(b)
o
(d)
(c) 2 C
7 oC
0.5 oC
140. The design condition of temperature for winter air conditioning is

o
(a) 25 +
(b) 27 oC
1 C
(c)
21 oC
(d)
none of the above
141. Which pair, out of following alternatives, is correctly matched. Normal boiling points of
different refrigerants (List-I) are given in List-II.
List I
List II
(a) R 12
29.8 oC
(b) NH3
33.35 oC
(c) R 134 a
24.15 oC
(d) R 22
40.8 oC
142. Pressure drop in capillary tube (used in refrigeration systems) takes place due to
(a) friction
(b) change in momentum
(c) both (a) & (b) above
143. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the refrigeration temperature is 15 oC and
the generator temperature is 110 oC. If sink temperature is 55 oC, the maximum COP of
the system will be
(a) 1.00
(b) 3.69
(c) 0.34
(d) 0.90
144. In case of ejectorcompression system the power input is in the form of
(a) electric power
(b) heat
(c) mechanical work
(d) steam power
145. Due to suction vapour superheating in vapour compression cycle the COP increases in
case of the following refrigerant :
(a) R 22
(b) NH3
(c) R 12
Series-A
32
SES-06
137.

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
138.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) ,
139.
?
(a)
(c)
140.
141.
142.
143.
145.
(b)
(d)
7 oC
0.5 oC

(a)
o
25 +
1 C
(b)
27 oC
(c)
21 oC
(d)
? (-I) ,
(-II)
I
II
(a)
(b)
R 12
NH3
29.8 oC
33.35 oC
(c)
(d)
R 134 a
R 22
24.15 oC
40.8 oC
( )
(a)
(c) (a) (b)
(b)
(d)
15 oC 110 oC
55 oC COP
(a)
(c)
144.
4 oC
2 oC
1.00
0.34
-
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
3.69
0.90
(b)
(d)
COP
(a) R 22
(b) NH3
(c) R 12
(d)
SES-06
33
Series-A
146. Go through the following statements and choose the correct alternative :
1.
Wet compression increases COP of ammonia vapour compression system.
2.
Use of liquid-vapour heat exchanger in vapour compression system decreases COP
in case of ammonia refrigerant.
3.
For good performance, a refrifgerant must have high critical pressure and low
critical temperature.
4.
Refrigerants that are not miscible with oils, presents many problems.
5.
In flooded evaporators, the liquid refrigerant covers the entire heat transfer surface.
(a) Statements 1, 2 and 5 are true
(b) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are true
(c) Statements 3, 4 and 5 are true
(d) Statements 2, 4 and 5 are true
147. The function of solenoid valve in a refrigeration system is to
(a) control the flow of refrigerant in suction line
(b) control the flow of refrigerant through expansion valve
(c) stop the flow of refrigerant when there is no load on the evaporator
(d) stop the flow of refrigerant in liquid line when compressor stops
148. In cooling and dehumidifying apparatus, the effect of the by pass factor is to
(a) lower the ADP of the cooling coil
(b) decrease the COP of the system
(c) both (a) & (b) above
(d) increase the ADP of the cooling coil and to improve the COP of the system
149. In case of air conditioning of auditoriums, the cooling load which is predominant is
(a) lighting load
(b) occupancy load
(c) load due to fans
(d) load due to electronic equipments
150. When air is at saturated state, which pair, out of the given alternatives is not correctly matched ?
List I
List II
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Relative humidity
DBT
Degree of saturation
Specific humidity
100%
WBT
1
0.01 kg w.v/kg d.a
151. The refrigerant commonly used for commertial ice plants is

(a) Freon - 12
(b) NH3
(c) CO2
(d) Air
152. The brine is an aqueous solution of _______ in water.
(a) Calcium chloride
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Calcium carbonate
(d) Sodium carbonate
Series-A
34
SES-06
146.
:
1. , COP
2. , - , COP
3.
4. ,
5.
(a) 1, 2 5
(b) 1, 2 3
(c) 3, 4 5
(d) 2, 4 5
147.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
148.

(a) ADP
(b) COP
(c) (a) (b)
(d) ADP COP
149.
, ,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
150.
, ?
I
II
100%
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
151.
WBT
1
0.01 kg w.v/kg d.a

(a)
(c)
152.
DBT
Freon - 12
CO2
_______
(a)
(c)
SES-06
35
(b)
(d)
NH3
(b)
(d)
Series-A
153. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity equals
(a) zero
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
154. Two reversible refrigerators are arranged in series and their COP are 4 and 5 respectively.
The COP of the composite refrigeration system would be
(a) 1.5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.5
155. An ideal refrigerator is operating between a condenser temperature of 37 oC and an evaporator
temperature of 3 oC. If the machine is functioning as a heat pump, its COP will be
(a) 6
(b) 6.75
(c) 7
(d) 7.75
156. Which refrigerant would you choose for 800 TR air conditioning plant using centrifugal
compressor ?
(a) NH3
(b) CO2
(c) CFC 11
(d) CFC 114
157. Finned evaporators are used on air conditioning application to
(a) equalize air flow over the cooling coil surface
(b) prevent moisture carry over
(c) extend the effective area of the cooling surface
(d) increase the dehumidifying capacity
158. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of a good refrigerant ?
(a) low specific heat
(b) high specific volume of vapour
(c) large latent heat at evaporator pressure
(d) high critical temperature
159. Dew point is the temperature at which the condensation begins when the air is cooled at constant
(a) volume
(b) entropy
(c) pressure
(d) enthalpy
160. In a one ton capacity water cooler, water enters at 30 oC at the rate of 200 lit/hour. Taking
specific heat of water as 4.16 kJ/kg K, the outlet temperature of water will be
(a) 3.5 oC
(b) 6.3 oC
(c) 23.7 oC
(d) 15 oC
161. Performance of an air compressor at high altitudes as compared to that at sea level is
(a) better
(b) inferior
(c) same
(d) depends on type of compressor
162. A water turbine is usually designed for the given values of
(a) N, T and Q
(b) P, T and Q
(c) P, H and Q
(d) P, H and N
Series-A
36
SES-06
153.

(a)
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
154.
COP : 4 5
COP
(a)
(c)
155.
(b)
(d)
2
4.5
37 oC 3 oC
COP
(a)
(c)
156.
1.5
3
6
7
(b)
(d)
6.75
7.75
, 800 TR ?
(a)
(c)
NH3
CFC 11
(b)
(d)
CO2
CFC 114
157.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
158.
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
159.

(b)
(a)
(d)
(c)
160.
30 oC 200 lit/hour
4.16 kJ/kg K
(a)
(c)
3.5 oC
23.7 oC
(b)
(d)
6.3 oC
15 oC
161.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
162.

(a) N, T Q
(c) P, H Q
SES-06
(b)
(d)
37
P, T Q
P, H N
Series-A
163. The cetane number of automotive diesel fuel used in India lies in which of the following
ranges ?
(a) 30 40
(b) 41 50
(c) 51 60
(d) 61 70
164. In a variable speed S.I. engine, the maximum torque occurs at the maximum
(a) speed
(b) brakepower
(c) indicated power
(d) volumetric efficiency
165. The knocking tendency in C.I. engines increases with
(a) decrease of compression ratio
(b) increase of compression ratio
(c) increasing the temperature of inlet air
(d) increasing cooling water temperature
166. The ignition quality of fuels for S.I. engines is determined by
(a) Cetane number
(b) Octane number
(c) Calorific value
(d) Volatility of the fuel
167. In a 4 cylinder petrol engine, the standard firing order is
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 3 4 2
168. The ratio of brake power to indicated power of an I.C. engine is called
(a) mechanical efficiency
(b) thermal efficiency
(c) volumetric efficiency
(d) relative efficiency
169. A centrifugal pump lifts water through a height h and delivers it at a velocity Vd. The loss
of heat through piping is hf. The gross lift is
2
(a)
h + hf
(c)
Vd
h + hf + 2g
(b)
Vd
hf + 2g
(d)
Vd
h + 2g
170. The process of supercharging is meant for

(a) raising exhaust pressure
(b) increasing density of intake air
(c) increasing quantity of fuel going into cylinder
(d) providing air for cooling
171. Which of the following is not a high pressure boiler ?
(a) Lancashire boiler
(b) La-mont boiler
(c) Benson boiler
(d) Loeffler boiler
Series-A
38
SES-06
163.

(a) 30 40
(b) 41 50
(c) 51 60
(d) 61 70
164.
..
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
165.
..
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
166.
..
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
167.
:
(a)
(c)
1234
1324
(b)
(d)
14 32
1342
168.
..
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
169.
h Vd hf

(a)
h + hf
(b)
(c)
Vd2
h + hf + 2g
(d)
Vd2
hf + 2g
Vd2
h + 2g
170.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
171.
?
(a)
(b) -
(c)
(d)
SES-06
39
Series-A
172. For a reaction turbine, specific flow is given by following expression :

2
(a)
Q/D1 H
(c)
Q/D1 H3/2
(b)
Q/D1 H
(d)
Q/D1 H
173. Mean diameter of runner of a pelton turbine is 200mm and least diameter of jet is 1 cm.
Calculate the jet ratio and number of buckets.
(a) 20, 25
(b) 200, 115
(c) 20, 40
(d) 20, 45
174. Open type impeller centrifugal pump is used to handle
(a) water
(b) mixture of water, sand, pebbles and clay
(c) sewage
(d) liquids lighter than water
175. The specific speed of a turbine is expressed as
N P
(a)
(b)
H5/4
N P
(c)
(d)
H5/4
N H5/4
P
N P
(gH)5/4
176. Iso-octane content in a fuel for S.I. Engines

(a) retards auto-ignition
(b)
(c) does not affect auto ignition
(d)
accelerates auto-ignition
none of the above
177. The specific fuel consumption of a diesel engine as compared to that for petrol engine is
(a) lower
(b) higher
(c) same for same output
178. In an internal combustion engine, firing order depends upon
(a) crank shaft design
(b) arrangement of cylinder
(c) number of cylinders
179. Williams law gives a straight line graph between the rate of steam consumption and
(a) pressure of steam
(b) temperature of steam
(c) volume of steam
(d) indicated horse power
180. Work done by prime mover to run the compressor is minimum if the compression is
(a) isothermal
(b) adiabatic
(c) isentropic
(d) polytropic
181. In centrifugal blowers/compressors, the ratio of outlet whirl velocity to the blade velocity
is known as
(a) work factor
(b) slip factor
(c) degree of reaction
(d) pressure coefficient
Series-A
40
SES-06
172.
173.
:
2
(a)
Q/D1 H
(b)
Q/D1 H
(c)
2
Q/D1
(d)
Q/D1 H
H3/2
200 mm 1 cm

(a)
(c)
20, 25
20, 40
(b)
(d)
200, 115
20, 45
174.

(a)
(b) , , ,
(c)
(d)
175.

(a)
(c)
176.
N P
H5/4
N P
H5/4
(b)
(d)
..
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
N H5/4
P
N P
(gH)5/4
177.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
178.
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
179.
, ,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
180.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
181.
/
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-06
41
Series-A
182. When an impeller has backward curved vanes in a centrifugal blower, then with an
increase in flow rate, Euler head H
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
183. Work ratio is a guide in the determination of
(a) the size of the gas turbine
(b) overall efficiency of the turbine
(c) mechanical efficiency of the turbine
(d) compressor efficiency
184. for high boiler efficiency the feed water is heated by
(a) recuperator
(b) convective heater
(c) super heater
(d) economiser
185. In parsons steam turbine, steam expands in
(a) nozzles only
(b)
(c) partly in nozzles and partly in blades (d)
blades only
none of the above
186. Piston rings are generally made of following material.

(a) cast iron
(b) mild steel
(c) aluminium
(d) carbon steel
187. The degree of reaction for a turbomachinary in which heat drop in moving blades is 8
kJ/kg and in fixed blades 12 kJ/kg, would be
(a) 66.6%
(b) 150%
(c) 40%
(d) 166.6%
188. Specific speed of a turbine is defined as the speed of the turbine which
(a) produces unit power at unit discharge
(b) produces unit power at unit head
(c) delivers unit discharge at unit head
(d) delivers unit discharge at unit power
189. For a single stage impulse turbine having nozzle angle , maximum blade efficiency under
ideal conditions is given by
(a) cos /2
(b) cos2/2
(c) cos
(d) cos2
190. Bleeding in turbine means :
(a) leakage of steam
(b) steam doing no useful work
(c) removal of condensed steam
(d) extracting steam for preheating feed water
191. Why intercooling in multistage compressors is done ?
(a) To minimize the work of compression
(b) To cool the air delivery
(c) To cool the air during compression
(d) None of these
Series-A
42
SES-06
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
, , H
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8 kJ/kg 12 kJ/kg ,
(b) 150%
(a) 66.6%
(c) 40%
(d) 166.6%
,
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
,
(a) cos /2
(b) cos2 /2
(d) cos2
(c) cos

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-06
43
Series-A
192. Cavitation depends upon

(a) vapour pressure which is function of temperature
(b) absolute pressure or barometric pressure
(c) suction pressure (Hs) which is height of runner outlet above tail race level.
(d) all the above
193. The compression ratio for a practical diesel engine usually lies in the range.
(a) 3 5
(b) 6 8
(c) 10 15
(d) 16 22
194. If maximum surface temperature of sea is 30 oC and temperature in depth is 4 oC, how
much can be the maximum thermal efficiency of Ocean Thermal Conversion (OTEC)
system ?
(a) 8.58%
(b) 13.3%
(c) 86.7%
195. De-Laval turbine is
(a) pressure compounded impulse turbine
(b) simple single wheel impulse turbine
(c) velocity compounded impulse turbine
(d) simple single wheel reaction turbine
196. Francis turbine is a
(a) tangential flow reaction turbine
(c) radial flow reaction turbine
(b)
(d)
axial flow reaction turbine

mixed flow reaction turbine
197. Which of the following statements is not true for gas turbines ?
(a) Low full load thermal efficiency
(b) Costly machines
(c) Self starting unit
(d) Slow in its response to acceleration
198. Which of the following statements is not correct about MHD power generation ?
(a) Lesser thermal pollution
(b) No moving parts
(c) High operation efficiency
(d) No direct conversion of heat into electrical energy
199. Turbine gives best performance (i.e. work at peak efficiency) when they are operated at
full or design load. The performance of many turbines deteriorate considerably at part
loads. Which of the following turbines is best suited for operation at part loads. ?
(a) Pelton Turbine
(b) Francis Turbine
(c) Propeller Turbine
(d) Kaplan Turbine
200. If a draft tube is used with a Francis turbine (installed above tail race level), the pressure at
the runner outlet
(a) is equal to atmospheric pressure
(b) is above atmospheric pressure
(c) is below atmosphere pressure
(d) depends upon turbine speed
Series-A
44
SES-06
192.

(a)
(b)
(c) (Hs)
(d)
193.

(a) 3 5
(b) 6 8
(d) 16 22
(c) 10 15
194.
30 oC 4 oC
(OTEC) ?
(a)
(c)
195.
196.
8.58%
86.7%
(b)
(d)
13.3%
-
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)

(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
197.
?
(b)
(a)
(c) :
(d)
198.
MHD ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
199.

?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
200.
( ) ,

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
SES-06
45
Series-A
Series-A
46
SES-06
SES-06
47
Series-A

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MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

The [110] direction in a cubic unit cell is parallel to the following :

German silver is an alloy of

Babbit metal is an alloy of which one of the following ?

Griffith theory of failure is suitable for

Mild Steel is an example of

The processes, used to make the steel magnetically softer, are

The ductile-brittle transition temperature

Choose the correct statement from the following :

Little energy is required to break materials such as glass, polystyrene

In general, materials deform more readily at elevated temperature.

Soft magnets are the obvious choice for ac or high frequency

(A) (R) (R), (A)

(A) (R) , (R), (A)

(A) (R) (R), (A)

(A) (R) , (R), (A)

(A) (R) (R), (A)

Dielectric strength can be reduced by

Dislocation in material is called

Match the items in List 1 to the corresponding items in the List 2.

The crystal structure of -iron is

Select the proper sequence for the following :

Face centred cubic

The macro-structure of a material is generally examined by

Which ingredient is responsible for corrosion resistant capability in Stainless Steel ?

The material commonly used for making machine tool bed is

Which one of the following is the ferrous material ?

Babbit materials are used for

Pure iron is the structure of

An example of amorphous material is

Binding material in cemented carbide tool is

In EDM, metal removal rate is proportional to

Energy delivered in each spark

Which of the following is not true in case of jigs and fixtures ?

(a) A2R & A3R

(A) : ... , ...

(a) A2R & A3R

Which of the following should be more to reduce wear of a tool ?

Which of the following instruments is used to measure smoothness of a metallic surface ?

The Plug gauge is used to

Explosive forming is not used for the following :

In Electro-Discharge-Machining (EDM), the tool is made of

In USM, the tool is vibrated with the frequency of

Continuous chips will be formed when machining speed is

Profile of a gear tooth can be checked by

(), (), () (C)

For TIG welding, which of the following gases are used ?

Which of the following operation does not use a jig ?

Choose the false statement from the following :

(b) X and R charts are used to evaluate dispersion of measurements.

The following is not the characteristics of explosive forming :

The following is not true for ECM :

Electro-discharge machining uses the following dielectric fluid :

A good machinability rating would indicate

In EDM process, the workpiece is connected to

A hole of 1 mm is to be drilled in glass. It could be best done by

A comparator for its working depends on

Time Method Unit

Which one of the following is most important parameter for EDM ?

Which of the following is not the characteristics of work sampling ?

The following is not true for linear programming problems :

Value Engineering is concerned with the saving of

Value analysis is superior to other conventional cost reduction

Vogels approximation method yields the best initial basic feasible