1.

2.

3.

a.

What are drawing equipments

b.

State four drawing equipment

c.

What is designing

d.

State five elements of design

a.

What is pictorial drawing?

b.

state three methods of pictorial drawing

c.

What are solid figures.

d.

State the differences between solid figures

Copy and complete the table below

Element

Natural element
(one)

Dot
Line
shape

4.

Draw the figure in Isometric

Man-made (1)

SECTION A

1. The trade name for Odum is

A. Obeche
B. Oroko
C. Obede
D. Oroya

8. The basic material for making metals is

A. sand B. stones
C. oral
D. ore

2. Trade name for wawa is

A. Obeche
B. Oroko
C. Obede
D. Oroya

9. The tool below is

3. A short statement describing what a

designer want to do to solve a problem
is
A. brief
B. analysis
C. situation
D. investigation
4. A statement describing a problem a
designer want to solve is
A. brief
B. analysis
C. situation
D. investigation
5. Which of the following is a plane
figure.
A. shape
B. cuboid
C. triangle
D. texture
6. The tool for drawing horizontal lines is
A. set square
B. compass
C. drawing clip
D. tee-square
7. Which of the following is an abrasive
A. rubber paper
B. book paper
C. grass paper
D. glass paper

A. gauge rod
B. gauge box
C. straight edge
D. spirit level
10. A metal that contain iron can
A. not rust
B. rust
C. not melt
D. melt
11. The process of making the surface of a
metal soft is
A. case hardening
B. prove hardening
C. black hardening
D. white hardening
12. Which of the following is an adhesive?
A. PVC
B. PVA
C. PVB
D. PVD
13. The basic material for making
Aluminium is
A . Granite
B. sandnite
C. stonenite
D. bauxite

Use the tool below to answer questions 14

and 15

14. The tool is

A. tee-square
B. L-square
C. carpenters square
D. builders square
15. The tool is used for
A. measuring wall
B. drawing wall
C. checking the squareness of a wall
D. checking the squareness of a car
16. The exhibition of only tools fall under
which type of exhibition
A. specialised exhibition
B. fair
C. general exhibition
D. bazaar
17. In planning an exhibition one should
consider
A. specialised exhibition
B. buyer
C. bazaar
D. publicity
18. When mounting on exhibition, one
should consider all the following
except
A. security
B. the artist
C. visitors book
D. size, weight, height

19. Which of the following is a popular

method of preserving food in Ghana?
A. Salting
B. Canning
C. Drying
D. Freezing
20. The process of working with people to
ensure that all the activities of a
business are well carried out is called
A. supervising B. managing
C. accounting
D. planning
21. The person who is responsible for the
operation of an enterprise is the
A. manager
B. chief
C. overseer
D. organizer
22. A stitch which can be used to make a
table cloth look beautiful is
A. back stitch
B. chain stitch
C. over casting stitches
D. hemming
23. A raw edge can be neatened by using
one of the following stitches
A. Basting
B. Chain
C. Blanket
D. Tacking
24. The inability of the blood to clot may
be due to the absence of
A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin B
25. In order to have strong bones and teeth,
one must eat food containing
A. Vitamins
B. Calcium
C. Protein D. Carbohydrate

26. Basic Design and Technology is an

integration of knowledge is PreTechnical Skills, Home Economics and
A. Block work
B. Catering
C. Visual
D. Woodwork
27 A collar most suitable for a childs
dress is
A. peter-pan collar
B. mandarin collar
C. shirt collar
D. shawl collar
28. The most important measurement
needed when making a mans shirt is
A. waist
B. bust
C. wrist
D. chest
29. What is the position of the fork in
relation to the plat when setting a table.
A. table
B. right
C. top
D. bottom
30. An example of a cotton fabric is
A. Calico
B. Satin
C. Spentex
D. Crimplene

1. a.
b.
c.
d.

e.

SECTION B
PART I (Compulsory)
Make a sketch of the cross section of timber
Label four parts
What is colour?
State two examples of each of the following;
i.
Primary colours
ii.
secondary colours
State the main nutrients in the following food items
Food
Main nutrient
Liver
Kontonmire
Carrots
Bone
Beef
Palm fruits

PART II (Answer any two)

2. a. What are non-ferrous alloys?
b. State two examples of non-ferrous alloys
c. Explain the following terms
i.
Annealing
ii.
hardening
iii.
case hardening
d. State one differences between a shovel and a spade.
3. a. i.
ii.
b. i.
ii.
iii.
4. a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.

What is a concrete?
State two uses of concrete.
What are aggregates?
State two types of aggregates
What is the difference between a dot pounch and a centre pounch

Make a sketch of a builders square.

State the differences between ferrous metal and non-ferrous metals
Explain the ratio 1:3:6
State two properties of cast iron
State two uses of cast iron
State three types of lines.

SECTION A

1. Freezer, sink, cooker, et are classified

as
A. large equipment
B. mechanical equipment
C. small equipment
D. manual equipment
2. What are used to protect the middle
finger while hand sewing?
A. glove
B. cloth
C. cushion
D. thimbles
3. These foods provide materials for
building tissues and growth
A. protective foods
B. body building foods
C. calcium foods
D. energy giving foods
4. Fruits go ______ whilst vegetables rot
A. sour
B. mound
C. putrefy D. rancid
5. Substances found in food for growth,
energy and protection of diseases is
termed as _______.
A. nutrition
B. balanced diet
C. carbohydrate
D. nutrients
6. A diet includes enough of each of the
food nutrients is referred to as
A. nutrition
B. carbohydrate
C. nutrients
D. balance diet
7. _______ is the treatment to enable food
to stay fresh and longer
A. Food spoilage

B. Food nutrients
C. Food preservation
D. diet
8. When the handle of a sauce pan with
oil on fire is accidentally pushed, its
content can cause
A. bruises
B. cuts
C. scalds
D. burns
9. The part of the sewing machine whose
function is to control the movement of
the winding thread onto the bobbin is
A. spool pin
B. thread guide
C. feed dog
D. balanced wheel
10. Which of the following sewing tools is
used to hold pins?
A. Pin cushion
B. Thimble
C. Side tray
D. Chop box

Use the table below to answer Question 11

13.
11. Citrus juicer
12. perforated spoon
Tools
13. filleting knife
A. for removing
B. for squeezing juice
from citrus fruits
C. for separating liquid
Uses
from solids
D. for draining oil
during deep frying

14. Linen is made from

A. cocoon
B. flax plant
C. chemicals
D. sugar cane plant
15. Natural fibres are obtained from two
sources namely
A. woollen and silk
B. natural and man-made
C. animal and plant
D. synthetic and regenerated
16. Which of the following is not an
abrasive?
A. Emercy cloth
B. Peper cloth
C. Grass cloth
D. Rubber cloth
17. Which of the following is a binding
material
A. sand glue
B. stone glue
C. contact glue
D. contract glue

B. inside calliper
C. outside calliper
D. even leg calliper
21. The hardest part of a timber in cross
section is
A. medullar rays
B. bark
C. growth rings
D. cambium layer
22. The colour Red symbolises what in the
Ghanaian society
A. love
B. happiness
C. danger
D. joy
23. The basic materials form making all
metals is
A. oral
B. ore
C. ohem
D. clay
24. When water is added to grinded clay
and chalk it becomes
A. clinker
B. slurry
C. cement
D. powder
Use the tool below to answer questions 25
to 27

18. The basic material for making copper

is
A. pinker
B. pyramite
C. pyrinte
D. paint
19. The trade name for wawa is
A. Iroko
B. Obeche
C. Iroba
D. Obeba
20. The tool use for drawing parallel lines
on metal plates is
A. odd leg calliper

25. The name of the tool is

A. builders square
B. try square
C. tee square
D. set square
26. The part labelled X is

A. blade
C. hand

B. stock
D. leg

27. The part labelled Y is

A. blade
B. stock
C. hand
D. leg

28. The tool use to remove nails from

wood is
A. brace bit
B. crowbar
C. pliers
D. screw driver
29. Texture, colour and shape in a design
are referred to as
A. elements
B. ideas
C. objects
D. principles
30. When a problem is described with in
any environment it is termed as
A. brief
B. situation
C. solution
D. specification

1. a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.

SECTION B
PART I (Compulsory)
List the three primary colours of light.
Explain what primary colours are
Explain what a design brief is
State two functions of protein.
List two ways by which patching can be done.
List two ways of preserving
i.
tomato
ii.
onion

PART II (Answer any two)

2. a. What are laying tools?
b. State four examples of laying tools
c. Make a sketch of a trowel and label two parts.
d. State one use of the trowel.
e. Explain the ratio of the concrete mix ration 1: 4:5
3. a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.

What is a plastic?
State the two types of plastics.
State two examples of each.
What is termination.
State the methods of termination.
What are adhesives?
State two types of adhesives.

4. Draw the front view, plan and develop surface of the cylinder below.
a.

b. List one tool that can be used to cut a metallic cylindrical object.
c. Make a sketch of an odd leg calliper.
d. State the standard dimensions.

SECTION A
Answer all Questions
Each question is followed by four options lettered A to D. find out the correct option for
each question and shade in pencil on your answer sheet.

1. On which day did God create nothing?

A. First day
B. Second day
C. Sixth day
D. Seventh day
2. Which creation of God is used in the
measurement of growth?
A. Moon
B. Day and Night
C. Sky
D. Sun
3. According to Christian teachings, God
created man and woman on the
A. first day
B. second day
C. third day
D. sixth day
4. All the religions in Ghana believe in
A. Jesus Christ
B. the Prophet Mohammed
C. the Supreme God
D. the Ram God
5. Christians, Muslims and Traditional
worshipers believe that the world was
created by
A. man
B. an angel
C. the Holy Spirit
D. God
6. Which religion believes that God
moved away from the earth because of
the activities of humankind?
A. Traditional
B. Islam

C. Christianity
D. Buddhism
7. Which of the following attributes of
God shows that He has the whole
world in His hands?
A. Omnipotence
B. Omnipresence
C. Faithfulness
D. Love
8. A religions leader in Islam is
A. Sheikh
B. Khalifah
C. Alhaji
D. Mallam

called

9. How many types of families do we

have?
A. 3
B. 2 C. 6 D. 7
10. The payment of school fees and other
bills is mainly the responsibility of the
A. grandfather B. mother
C. uncle
D. father
11. One of the advantages of the extended
family system is that
A. the children are cared for by the
members of the family.
B. the old people are sent to old
peoples home
C. girls become maidservants of their
aunties
12. One way of helping to protect the
environment is to
A. near more animals
B. encourage small scale mining
C. plant more trees
D. grow more food crops

13. One of the characteristics of the

African Traditional Religion is that it
A. regards God and Jesus at the centre
of worship.
B. was established by powerful
African.
C. has common beliefs and practices
with Islam.
D. Has no written scriptures
14. God is Omnipresent. This means that
God
A. is all powerful
B. knows everything
C. is everywhere
D. is all forgiving
15. God blessed and made the Sabbath
holy because it was the day
A. the Israelites fought their wars.
B. for settling all disputes
C. set aside for the Passover feast
D. that God rested from creation
16. All the three main religions in Ghana
believes strongly in
A. Angels
B. Ancestors
C. Destiny
D. Righteousness
17. On the fifth day of creation God
commanded
A. light to appear in the sky.
B. water and air to be filled with many
kinds of living creatures.
C. water to come together in one place
so that the land will appear.

D. the water under the firmament to

separate from that above the
firmament.
18. The extended family system consists of
A. children and other relations
B. children and grandchildren
C. grandchildren and parents
D. parents, children and other
relations.
19. Eve is to Christianity as Hawa is to
A. Traditional
B. Islam
C. Buddhism
D. Hinduism
20. According to Islam, Adam was the first
man Allah created.
A. True
B. False
C. True and False
D. None of these
21. How do the Akans call God?
A. Mawu
B. Onyame
C. Nyonmo
D. Naawuni
22. Which people hold the belief, that God
created all things in a definite order or
cycle?
A. Gas
B. Akans
C. Dagombas
D. Ewes
23. One of the following is not an Islamic
attributes of God
A. Haiyal-Kayum
B. Al-Samad
C. Binnamdanaa
D. Al-Alim
24. All the following are lessons learnt
from creation except.

A. Human being is different from

animals
B. There is a special relationship
between humankind and God.
C. Human beings are the
representatives of God on earth.
D. Human beings are to kill their
fellow human beings.
25. Where did Adam and Eve live?
A. Garden of Heaven
B. Garden of Eden
C. Botanical Gardens
D. Aburi Gardens
26. The Ewe attribute Togbe means
A. The Great God
B. The Blessed and Trinity
C. Grandfather
D. The Supreme God
27. Humankind are the centre of creation.
A. False
B. True
C. None
28. Which of the following serve as
intermediary to God according to
Traditional Religion?
A. Lesser gods
B. Diviners
C. Herbalists
D. Dwarfs
29. God created the sky on the
A. First day
B. Second day
C. Third day
D. Fourth day

30. By creating Adam and Eve, God was

establishing the institution of
A. Comportment
B. Brotherliness
C. Friendship
D. Marriage
31. It is the responsibility of the child to
A. do his household chores
B. invite his friends to his house
C. request his parents to organize
D. wake his parents for the family
32. In the book of Genesis, the world was
created in
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 6 days
D. 7 days
33. All religions teach mankind to be
stewards of the earth and to
A. Farm on it
B. Build on it
C. Care for it
D. Make it fertile
34. God commanded the earth to produce
plants on the
A. Second day
B. Fourth day
C. Third day
D. Fifth day
35. The Omniscience of God portrays Him
as
A. All forgiving
B. Ever present
C. Very gracious
D. All knowing

36. According to the Bible, the first thing

created was
A. Darkness
B. Light
C. Plant
D. Land
37. The Akans call God Tweduampon
because He is
A. Everlasting
B. Dependable
C. Omnipresent
D. Forgiving
38. How many types of creations do we
have?
A. 1
B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
39. The act of bringing things into being is
referred to as
A. Creation
B. Pollution
C. Christianity
D. Artificial
40. Which of the following is a natural
thing?
A. Cars
B. Books
C. Houses
D. Sun
SECTION B
Answer all questions
Each question carry equal marks (20
marks)
1. a. Narrate the story of creation
in the Bible.
b. Mention five attributes of God.
2. a. Explain the two main
family system in Ghana.

b. Mention two duties of the head of

the extended family.
3. a. State six roles that mother
performs at home.
b. State four roles that pupils perform
at school.

SECTION A
Answer all questions

1. All the religions in Ghana believes in

A. The Bible
B. The rain God
C. The Prophet Mohammed
D. The Supreme God
2. People normally save money in order
to
A. use their income wisely
B. help the government to generate
revenue
C. prepare for the future
D. avoid envious friends
3. It is bad habit to use ones leisure time
in
A. Reading a story book
B. Learning a new skill
C. Playing games
D. Gossiping about friends
4. Hard work is most often crowned with
A. success
B. jealousy
C. hatred
D. failure
5. One of the childs responsibility in the
home is to
A. sweep the compound
B. provide his clothing
C. pay the school fees
D. pay the hospital fees
6. Which of the following is not the
reason for contributing money in
church?
A. Providing school building.
B. Pay the priest.
C. Making the elders rich.
D. Helping the poor and the needy.

7. One of the basic rights of the child is

the right
A. to work on his plot
B. to education
C. to sweep the classroom
D. to attend school regularly
8. Which of the following is not a
patriarch?
A. Abraham
B. Isaac
C. Jacob
D. Noah
9. The first book of the Bible is called
A. Deuteronomy B. Genesis
C. Revelation
D. Exodus
10. The payment of school fees and other
bills is mainly the responsibility of the
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Father
D. Grandfather
11. Human right include all the following
except
A. the right to live
B. freedom of association
C. freedom of worship
D. administering instant justice
12. Giving out money or gift to somebody
to seek a favour shows that one is
A. unpatriotic
B. corrupt
C. deceitful
D. unfaithful
13. The first Arc to save Gods people
from the flood was built by
A. David
B. Abraham
C. Noah
D. Moses

14. As a child of the state, you have the

right to
A. vote
B . education
C. work
D. worship
15. As pupils, we should use our leisure
time to
A. play games
B. do our homework
C. do household chores
D. go to church
16. The expression work and happiness
means
A. when one work one become happy
B. enjoying the fruits of ones labour
C. singing whilst working
D. always working
17. A happy and prosperous life depends
on
A. obedience
B. respect
C. courage
D. hard work
18. Which of the following is the best way
of handling money?
A. Keeping it under the breast.
B. Tying in a handkerchief.
C. Crumpling in into a saving box.
D. Folding it neatly into the pocket.
19. The Calph Abu Bakr was referred to as
Siddiq by Mohammed due to his
A. courage
B. tolerance
C. truthfulness
D. generosity

20. All those who took custody of prophet

Mohammed were happy with him
because he
A. had a unique character
B. was a hard working young man
C. was an orphan at a tender age
D. was prayerful
21. The popular saying that all work and
no play make jack a dull boy means
jack must
A. play a lot after work
B. must work very hard
C. have leisure hours
D. work while playing
22. Teenage pregnancy mostly occurs
between the ages of
A. 6 8 years
B. 8 10 years
C. 13 19 years
D. 20 24 years
23. The best way to become a committed
Christian is to
A. repent and accept Christ as saviour
B. attend all church activities
C. co-operate with other believers
D. take the holy communion
24. The importance of work is the help us
to
A. be honest in our daily activities
B. plan our duties at all times
C. be reliable in the society
D. keep health and active minds
25. The patriarch described as a great man
of faith was

A. Jacob
C. Moses

B. David
D. Abraham

26. Joseph was hated by his brothers

because
A. Jacob promised him of inheritance
B. he loved his father very much
C. of his prophetic dreams
D. he was gentle and handsome
27. Money offered to influence a public
officer over an important issue is
A. bribery
B. scandal
C. corruption
D. cheating
28. The prophet Mohammed is described
as Al-Amin because he was
A. wealthy
B. generous
C. honest
D. brave
29. Leisure time is used for
A. playing games
B. congregational worship
C. doing house chores
D. weeding the house
30. Work help us to become
A. reliable
B. sincere
C. healthy
D. courteous
31. Greetings are very important in
A. identifying a good speaker
B. opening up conversations
C. showing ones intelligence
D. knowing ones background
32. Who was the wife of prophet
Mohammed?
A. Khadijah
B. Amina
C. Hawa
D. Alimatu

33. The tribes of Israel derived their names

from the sons of
A. Abraham
B. Joseph
C.
Jacob
D. Isaac
34. Which of the following is not a
peaceful way to ask for your right
A. petition
B. kidnapping
C. silent protest
D. lobbying
35. The term idleness in Religious and
Moral Education means
A. having fun
B. enjoying siesta
C. wasting time
D. playing games
36. In which way can money help spread
germs?
A. Keeping it in a purse for long a
period.
B. Handling it with wet hands
C. Crumpling it in ones pocket
D. Keeping it in ones brassiere
37. The statement time is money implies
that time is
A. precious
B. limited
C. life
D. everything
38. The second caliph of Islam was
A. Ali
B. Umar
C. Abubakr
D. Uthman
39. Israel come out of slavery in Egypt
under the leadership of

A. Joshua B. Joseph
C. Abraham
D. Moses
40. Who was the founder of Islamic
Religion?
A. Jesus Christ
B. Mohammed
C. Abraham
D. Ibrahim
SECTION B
Answer three questions from this section.
1. a. Explain five importance of
work. (10 marks)
b. State five positive attributes toward
work. (10 marks)
2. a. What is leisure time?
(5 marks)
b. Write five reason why there is the
need for leisure time. (15 marks)
3. a. Give five responsibilities of
a child to their parents.
(10
marks)
b. State five examples of Human
Rights.
(10 marks)
4. a. What is money?
(5 marks)
b. Give five importance of money to
the community.
(15 marks)

SECTION A
Each question is followed by four options lettered A to D. find out the correct option for
each question and shade in pencil on your answer sheet.

1. Which religion believes that God

created man and woman on the sixth
day?
A. Traditional religion
B. Islamic religion
C. Hindu religion
D. Christian religion
2. What is the essence of Muslims to fast
in Ramadan?
A. To save food
B. To make one become used to
hunger
C. To guard against evil
D. To honour the poor and the needy
3. God gave Noah and his people at that
time rainbow to remember
A. The flood that destroyed the world
B. The disobedience of man
C. The building of the ark
D. That God will not destroy the world
with water
4. The daily Muslim prayer observed
between Asr and Ishai is
A. Zhur
B. Maghrib
C. Jumuah
D. Idd

A. To give the gods meat

B. To establish relationship with the
object they worship
C. To punish their enemies
D. To live long
7. Satan was cursed by Allah after the
creation of man because he
A. was made from fire
B. influenced Adam and Eve to fall
C. was a leader of the angels
D. refuse to bow down before Adam
8. Which of the following attributes of
God shows that He has the whole
world in His hands?
A. Omnipresent
B. Kindness
C. Omnipotent
D. Faithfulness
9. Traditional religion is practiced in
order to
A. instil discipline
B. worship idols
C. preserve African
D. disregard other religions

5. One importance of traditional religions

songs is
A. praise the gods and to invoke the
spirit of a god
B. to be truthful and do good
C. to cherish virtues in traditional
religion
D. to have bounty harvest

10. Akwasidae according to the Akans

calendar is
A. day that marks the beginning of a
month
B. the first Sunday that marks the
beginning of the month
C. the Sunday that marks the 42nd day
on the month
D. a day when rituals are performed

6. Why does the traditional believer offer

sacrifice?

11. A person cannot qualify to be an

ancestor if he

A.
B.
C.
D.

commit suicide
had many children
had many wives
was very unpopular

12. A person who announces the time of

prayer in Islam is called
A. Wada
B. Adhar
C. Imam
D. Hayya
13. Palm Sunday is observed by Christians
to remember the
A. birth of Christ
B. resurrection and appearance of
Christ
C. the last supper
D. Christ triumphant entry into
Jerusalem
14. It is a bad habit to use ones leisure
time in
A. reading a storybook
B. learning a new skills
C. playing games
D. gossiping about friends
15. The communication between
humankind and the Supreme Being, the
lesser gods are the ancestors is termed
A. Sacrifice
B. Libation
C. Traditional prayer
D. Sunna
16. A naming ceremony gives the newborn bay
A. a position in the family
B. identify in the family
C. a home to stay
D. re-union with the community

17. Christians believe in Jesus Christ

because
A. He had a virgin birth
B. He came to save Humankind from
their sins
C. He overcome death on the holy
cross
D. He could perform many miracles
18. Substance that tend to relax the nerves
and reduce streets are
A. Sedatives
B. Stimulants
C. Hard drugs
D. Common drugs
19. Which of the following rites is
performed to usher the individual into
adulthood?
A. baptism
B. marriage
C. puberty
D. naming
20. The paying of school fees and the other
bills is mainly the responsibility of the
A. grandfather B. mother
C. uncle
D. father
21. The Akans call the head of the
extended family as
A. Abusuapanin
B. Abusuapapa
C. Abusuabaa
D. Abusuahene
22. In order to promote good relationship
with other persons, we should put up
the following except
A. patience
B. goodness
C. cheating
D. gratitude

23. Muslims call their pilgrimage to

Makkahh
A. Salat
B. Zakat
C. Sawn
D. Hajj
24. Islamic made of dressing which covers
the whole body of a woman with the
exception of her face and hands is
called
A. Hajj
B. Hijab
C. Hajia
D. Hijrah
25. Christians pray to God through
A. Paul
B. John the Baptist
C. Jesus Christ
D. Peter
26. Prayer of intercession by Christians is
one in which the one praying
A. address his/her needs to God
B. thanks God for something He has
done for him/her
C. pleads for another person
D. confesses his/her sins to God
27. Sacrifice offered to prevent or ward off
an impending misfortune or trouble is
called
A. Votive sacrifice
B. Foundation sacrifice
C. Preventive sacrifice
D. Substitution sacrifice
28. The following are types of worship in
Traditional Religion except
A. Washing
B. Libation
C. Sacrifice
D. Prayer

29. Which of the following is not a good

manner
A. respectfulness
B. obedience
C. humility
D. gossiping
30. A person who greets is considered to
be
A. uncivilised
B. impolite
C. well-mannered
D. proud
31. The expression of displeasure and
hostility towards somebody for wrong
deeds or bad act is
A. sadness
B. thanksgiving
C. anger
D. happiness
32. Money offered to influence a public
officer cover an important issue is
A. scandal B. bribery
C. cheating D. corruption
33. During naming ceremonies, the baby is
given drops of water and wine to
signify that he should be
A. patient
B. obedient
C. truthful
D. brave
34. Fishermen all over the country do not
go to sea on
A. Fridays
B. Saturdays
C. Sundays
D. Tuesdays
35. In Islam, the first act of worship when
one rises from sleep early at dawn is

A. Asr
C. Maghrib

B. Fajr
D. Isha

36. Jesus Christ was born in

A. Jerusalem
B. Galilee
C. Bethlehem
D. Nazareth
37. Christians use the Holy Bible as
Muslims use the
A. Rosary
B. Holy Quran
C. Avesta
D. Talisman
38. The Holy Communion reminds
Christians of Jesus
A. Resurrection
B. Last supper
C. Crucifixion
D. Baptism
39. Teenage pregnancy mostly occur
between the ages of
A. 6 8 years
B. 8 10 years
C. 13 19 years
D. 20 24 years
40. The patriarch described as a great man
of faith was
A. Jacob
B. David
C. Moses
D. Abraham

SECTION B
Answer three questions only, choosing one question from each section. All questions carry
equal marks.
SECTION A RELIGION
1. a. Explain Jesus teaching on True Happiness (15 marks)
b. What are its implications or our lives?
(5 marks)
2. a. Explain the Ten Commandments.
(5 marks)
b. Mention five things that can fulfil the fifth commandment and explain them.
marks)

(15

3. a. Explain five types of libation. (10 marks)

b. Identify five occasions at which libation is offered. (10 marks)
SECTION B MORAL LIFE
4. a. Explain any four types of reward available to those who put up good
behaviour.
(12 marks)
b. Identify any four acts which are considered to be bad deeds. (8 marks)
5. a. Highlight any five habits which constitute good manners in the
community. (10 marks)
b. Explain any four benefits of showing good manners in the community.
marks)
6. a. Explain prostitution. (5 marks)
b. State and explain five reasons why children engage in prostitution.
(15 marks)
SECTION C SOCIAL LIFE
7. a. What are Human rights?
(5 marks)
b. State and explain five ways in which one can demand his or her rights.
(15 marks)
8. a. What is money?
(5 marks)
b. State five ways in which the church can raise money.
(5 marks)
c. Identify five importance of church contributions. (10 marks)

(10

SECTION A
Answer all questions

1. Find the missing number in the

sequence; 4, 8, 12, 48.
A. 14, 16, 22
B. 14, 18, 22
C. 16, 18, 12
D. 16, 20, 24
2. Simplify +
A.

B.

C.

D.

3. If Y = 595 and Z 7071. Find the sum

of Y and Z
A. 6466
B. 7566
C. 7666
D. 12,021
4. Write the numeral for six hundred and
three million, three thousand and sixty
three
A. 63,063,063
B. 603,036,036
C. 603,603,603
D. 603,063,063
5. Find the highest common factor (HCF)
of 42, 105 and 210
A. 6
B. 15
C. 21
D. 53
6. Subtract 9,268 from 275,403 and round
the answer to the nearest thousand.
A. 267000
B. 266000
C. 265000
D. 264000
7. Which of the following is equivalent to

A.

B.

C.

D.

8. Evaluate 13 + (5)
A. 18
B. 8
C. 8
D. 18
9. Find 127 7
A. 120
C. 789

B. 889
D. 899

10. Find the time 2 hours before 11:20pm

A. 4:50pm
B. 9:20pm
C. 11:20pm
D. 10:20pm
11. Simplify
A.

B.

C. 1

D. 6

12. Which of the following is the set of

prime factors of 12?
A. {1, 3}
B. {2, 3}
C. {2, 4, 6, 12}
D. {2, 3, 4, 6}
13. Which of the following is a subset of
every set?
A. equivalent set
B. empty set
C. equal set
D. disjoint set
14. Which of the following is equivalent to
?
A

B.

C.

D.

15. Write two hundred thousand and fifty

seven in figure
A. 20057

B. 200057
C. 2000057
D. 20000057
16. P = {0, 2, 4, 6} and
Q = {1, 2, 4, 5} find P Q.
A. {0, 6}
B. {2, 4}
C. {0, 25}
D. {0, 2, 6}

D. 16, 18, 12
23. What is the value of 4 in the number;
4,647,503
A. forty
B. four hundred
C. four thousand
D. forty thousand

17. Which of the following is not a prime

number?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 21
D. 19

24. Simplify

18. Find the least common multiple of 7,

14 and 18.
A. 71418
B. 1764
C.
252
D. 126

25. What are the set of prime factors of 12?

A. {3}
B. {2, 3}
C. {3, 4}
D. {2, 6}

19. What is the product of 143 and 14?

A. 6439
B. 2002
C. 2200
D. 2020
20. What is the sum of 7341 and 6493?
A. 13834
B. 43831
C. 31834
D. 81334
21. A boy left home at 4:35 am and arrived
in school at 6:18am. How long did he
take to arrive in school?
A. 1 hr 23 min
B. 1 hr 43 mins
C. 2 hrs 43 mins
D. 10 hrs 53 mins
22. Find the missing number in the
sequence; 4, 8, 12, ___ 28.
A. 14, 16, 22
B. 14, 18, 22
C. 16, 20, 24

A.

B.

C.

D.

26. Round 64,753 to the nearest thousand.

A. 64,750
B. 64,753
C. 64,800
D. 65,000
27. If B = {1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20, 25, 50, 100}.
Which of these sets are subset of B?
A. A = {2, 5}
B. X = {1, 2, 3}
C. Y = {25, 50, 75, 100}
D. Z = {7, 10, 15, 20}
28. Simplify the fraction
A.

B.

C.

D.

29. Find the common factor for 12 and 24.

A. 1, 3, 6, 12
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12
C. 6, 12
D. 1, 2, 3, 6, 12
30. If n2 + 1 = 50. Find n

A. 7
C. 25

B. 24.5
D. 49

31. Which of the following numbers is the

next prime number greater than 23?
A. 17
B. 24
C. 25
D. 29
32. What is the value of 4 in the number
2043507.
A. forty
B. four hundred
C. four thousand
D. forty thousand
33. Which of the following is not a factor
of 18?
A. 3
B. 4 C. 6
D. 9
34. If P = {7, 11, 13} and
Q = {9, 11, 13}, find P Q.
A. {7}
B. {9}
C. {7, 9}
D. {7, 9, 11, 13}
35. U = {0, 1}. How may subset has U.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
36. P = {prime numbers less than 20}
Q = {odd numbers less than 10}. Find
P Q.
A. {1, 2, 3}
B. {1, 3, 5, 7, 11}
C. {3, 5, 7, 9}
D. {3, 5, 7}
37. Simplify +

A.

B.

B.

D.

38. Write the improper fraction of 3

A.

B.

C.

D.

39. Simplify 2
A.

B.

C.

D.

40. Simplify 14 2

+ 5

A. 6

B. 7

C. 17

D. 17

SECTION B
Answer all questions
1. a. Write the following numerals in words
i.
76107304
ii.
695100456
b. Find the least common multiples (LCM) of
i.
4, 8 and 12
ii.
25 and 30
c. Find the greatest (highest) common factor of
i.
12, 18 and 24
ii.
18, 42 and 900
(2 marks each)
2. a. Write five equivalent fraction for each of the following fractions.
i.

ii.

iii

iv

b. Find 6240 5

(10 marks)

3. a. If A = {1, 3, 7, 11}, B = {3, 5, 7, 9} and C = {3, 7, 11}. List the elements of the
following sets.
i.
A B.
ii.
AC
iii.
BC
iv.
AB
v.
AC
vi.
BC
(20 marks each)
b. Verify that A (B C) = (A B) C what property is this.
(4 marks)
c. Find

4. a. Evaluate (2
b. Find

(4 marks)

+ 4 ) 8
+
(5 marks each)

SECTION A
Answer all questions

10. Arrange the following fractions

1. Express
A. 0.35
C. 0.5

as a decimal fraction
B. 0.57
D. 0.75

2. Express 24 as a product of its prime

factors
A. 2 3
B. 23 3
C. 2 32
D. 23 33
3. Write 78910 to the nearest thousand
A. 7000
B. 8000
C. 9000
D. 79000
4. How many edges has a cube?
A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 5
5. The set of all the prime factors of 128
is a _______
A. finite set
B. unit set
C. infinite set
D. null set
6. Subtract 125.47 from 203.90
A. 78.57
B. 78.57
C. 78.43
D. 78.34
7. Find the solution set of
5x 8 2x + 4
A. x 4
B. x 4
C. x 12
D. x 4
8. Express 30% as a decimal
A. 0.3
B. 0.03
C. 0.0003
D. 0.003
9. Given that 1 = 2 m, find m
A. m = 3
B. m = 1
C. m = 1
D. m = 3

in ascending order.

A.

B.

C.

D.

11. If p = {7, 11, 13} and Q = {9, 111, 13},

find P Q.
A. {7, 11, 13}
B. {11, 13}
C. {9, 11, 13}
D. {7, 9, 10, 13}
12. What is the image of 3 in the mapping
x 3x + 7
A. 9
B. 13
C. 16
D. 24
13. Solve for h in the equation
15 2h = 6
A. 4.5
B. 10.5
C. 4.5
D. 9.0
14. Write the rule for the mapping
x 1
2
3 4


y 1
3
5 7
A. x 2x + 1
B. x 2x 1
C. x 2(x + 1)
D. x 2 (x 1)
15. Evaluate 0.25 0.06, correct to three
decimal places
A. 0.001
B. 0.015
C. 0.375
D. 0.750
16. Which of the following is not a
quadrilateral?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A. Circle
C. Rectangle

Square
Rectangle
Triangle
Rhombus

17. Which of the following is not a type of

set?
A. Empty set
B. Finite set
C. Equal set
D. Simple set
18. Find the Highest Common Factor
(HCF) of 20, 18 and 28.
A. 4
B. 2 C. 12 D. 8
The table below gives the ages of members
of a juvenile club. Use it to answer
questions 19 to 21.
Ages in
8
9
10
11
years
Frequency 5
6
9
10
19. How many people are in the club?
A 38
B. 20
C. 30
D. 15
20. What is the modal age?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 8
21. If a people is chosen at random form
the club, what is the probability that
he/she is 10 years or below?
A.

B.

C.

D.

23. Simplify 13 (3) + (10)

A. 20
B. 26
C. 10
D. 6
24. Simplify 39 33
A. 327
C. 36

B. 96
D. 312

25. Find the mean of the following, 3, 1, 4,

6
A. 14
B. 3.5
C. 3
D. 4
26. Express 3.75 as a mixed fraction.
A. 3

B. 3

C. 3

D. 3

27. Given the point S(5, 2) and P(3, 2),

calculate the gradient of the line SP.
A. 2

B.

C. 2

D.

28. Which of the following is not a rational

number?
A.

B. 4

C.

D.

29. In a stem-and-leaf plot, what is the leaf

in the numeral 284.
A. 2
B. 28
C. 84
D.
30. Simplify 48

22. Which of the following is geometric

figures on the plane shape of a cube?

B. Triangle
D. Square

A. 4
C. 2

B. 12
D. 0

C. 72
31. Express 4 as a percentage of 5
A. 125%
B. 80%
20%
D. 25%

C.

D. 46

Use the diagram to answer question 38 to

40.
C

32. Which of the following set is well

defined?
A. {Man, Kofi, Red, 14}
B. {Ink, mango, Green, Nail}
C. {Seth, Mary, Jacob, Joycelyn}
D. {car, road, Glass, Book}
33. What is the value of 7 in the number
832713?
A. seventy
B. seven thousand
C. seventh hundred
D. seven
34. Correct 0.02751 to three decimal
places
A. 0.028
B. 275
C. 0.275
D. 0.027
35. Write 3560 in standard form
A. 3.56 104
B. 3.56 103
C. 3.56 103
D. 3.56 104
36. What property of addition is defined by
(a + b) + c = a + (b + c)?
A. Distributive
B. Associative
C. Commutative
D. Inverse
37. Find the sum of all the even numbers
between 20 and 28.
A. 100
B. 120

A
B

38. Name the area labelled B.

A. segment
B. chord
C. tangent
D. sector
39. Name the lien labelled A.
A. radius
B. diameter
C. circumference D. chord
40. Letter C is ________
A. chord
B. segment
C. radius
D. diameter

SECTION B
Answer any three questions from this section
1. Solve the equation x +
b.
x

Use the gradient method to determine the rule of the following mapping
1 2
3

2 4
6

c. Simplify the following

2

2. Thirty six men were asked about how they travel to work. Their results were as follows
How they travel
Frequency
Walk
14
Bus
8
Train
10
Car
4
i. Draw a pie chart to illustrate the information.
ii. What fraction travel by the bus and car?
iii. What percentage of the people travel by train?
3. There marks obtained by some students are 24, 36, 16, 15, 15, 10.
a. How many students took the test?
b. What is the modal mark?
c. What is the mean mark, correct to one decimal place.
d. Find the median mark.
4. a. Draw stem-and-leaf plot of the following.
23.5, 24.3, 24.1, 25.67, 27.91, 25.7, 26.85, 23.45, 28.0, 25.9, 26.4
b. Find the inverse of the following x 3x + 2
c. Copy and complete the table below with the relation y =
x
y

0
3

+3
2

SECTION A

1. If A = {5, 10, 15, 20, 225, 125} and B

= {5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 625}, list the
element of A B.
A. {5, 25}
B. {10, 20, 125, 625}
C. {5, 15, 25, 125, 625}
D. {5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 125, 625}
2. Express 1.25 as a percentage.
A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 125%
D. 175%
3. Arrange the following in ascending
order of magnitude: 0.301, 0.3, 0.33,
0.03.
A. 0.003, 0.3, 0.301, 0.33
B. 0.03, 0.301, 0.3, 0.33
C. 0.33, 0.3, 0.301, 0.03
D. 0.33, 0.301, 0.3, 0.03
4. Evaluate 53 (7) + (15)
A. 31
B. 45
C. 61
D. 75
5. Given than A = {d, e, i, o, u} and B =
{r, s, t}, how many elements are in A
B?
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
6. Convert 2114 five to a base ten numeral.
A. 194
B. 280
C. 284
D. 300
7. Simplify

A.

B.

C.

D.

8. A car uses 150 litres of petrol in 45

mins. How many litres of petrol will it
use in 1 hour?
A. 375 litres
B. 230 litres
C. 225 litres
D. 200 litres

9. Simplify
A.
C.

B.

D.

10. Find the rule of the mapping:

1 2 3 4 5 x

5 8 11 14 17 y
A. x + 2
B. x + 4
C. 2x + 3
D. 3x + 2
11. Given that 1 = 2 m, find m
A. 3
B. 1 C. 1 D. 3
12. The perimeter of a rectangle is 48 cm.
if the length is 14 cm, find its width
A. 24cm
B. 20cm
C. 10 cm
D. 3.4cm
13. Make d the subject of the relation n =
2d + 3.
B. d =

A. d =
C. d =

D. d =

14. Calculate the gradient of the straight

line joining the point A(3, 5) and B(2,
3).
A.

B.

C.

D.

Use the diagram below to answer question

15 and 16.

50

NOT DRAWN TO SCALE

15. Find The angle marked a.

A. 70
B. 50
C. 40
D. 30
16. Find the angle marked b.
A. 150
B. 140
C. 110
D. 100

21. Maame Esi rides her bicycle to school

and back everyday. If the distance from
her home to the school is 2345m, how
many kilometres does she cover
everyday?
A. 4.98 km
B. 4.69 km
C. 3.96 km
D. 3.68 km
22. The length of a rectangular fence is
25m. The ratio of the length of the
width is 5:3. Find the width of the
rectangular fence.
A. 9m
B. 13m
C. 15m
D. 16m
23. Evaluate

17. If S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}, find

the probability that a number selected
at random from S is odd
A.

B.

C.

D.

18. Find the vector which translate the

point (4, 5) to (3, 2).
A.

B.

C.

D.

b=1
A. 1

B.

C.

D. 1

24. How many 15Gp Christmas cards can

be bought with GH 18.00?
A. 120
B. 150
C. 180
D. 270
25. If u =

19. Factorize completely the expression

2xy 6y + 7x 21.
A. (x 3)(2y + 7)
B. (x + 3)(2y 7)
C. (y 3)(2x + 7)
D. (y + 3)(2x 7)
20. The area of a circle is 154 cm2. Find
the diameter. (take =
A. 7 cm
C. 21 cm

B. 14 cm
D. 49 cm

b, if a = 30 and

and v =

find u + v.
A.

B.

C.

D.

26. If 4956 25 = 123,900, evaluate 495.6

2.5 leaving the answer in standard
form.
A. 1.239 102
B. 1.239 103
C. 1.239 104

D. 1.239 105
27. Which of the following expressions is
illustrated on the number line.

A. x 2
C. x 2

B. x < 2
D. x > 2

28. If 180 oranges were shared among

Kwame and Ama in the ration 7:5,
respective, how many oranges did Ama
receive?
A. 45
B. 60
C. 75
D. 90
29. Calculate the simple interest on
GH450.00 for 2 years at 12% per
annum.
A. GH191.00
B. GH108.00
C. GH54.00
D. GH27.00
30. If 15% of the length of a robe is 75 cm,
find half of the length of the robe.
A. 500 cm
B. 250 cm
C. 150 cm
D. 100 cm
31. In an office, of the telephone bill is
paid by Tom, by Azumah and the
remaining by Tina. What fraction is
paid by Tina?
A.
B.
C.
32.

D.

Which of the following best describes

the construction?
A. Constructing a perpendicular at P
B. Constructing a bisector of line PQ
C. Constructing an angle of 30 at P
D. Constructing an angle of 45 at P
33. Express 0.055 as a common fraction.
A.
B.
C.

D.

The table below shows the distribution of

workers in some trades.
Trade
Number of
workers
Shoe making
300,000
Mining
25,000
Road transport
160,000
Agriculture
225,000
Manufacturing
165,000
goods
Use this information to answer question 34
and 35.
34. Which trade employed the most
number of workers?
A. Agriculture
B. Manufacturing goods
C. Show making
D. Road transport
35. How many people are employed under
all the trades?
A. 325, 000
B. 485,000
C. 650,000
D. 875,000
36. Aba bought a carton of fish at
GH80.00 and sold it a profit of
GH13.60. Find the selling price.
A. GH66.40
B. GH93.60
C. GH103.60
D. GH144.00

37.

If the two figures ABCD and PQRS are

similar, find the value of b.
A. 60 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 33 cm
D. 30 cm
38. A man shared an amount of money
between his two children, Esi and Ato
in the ratio of 2:3 respectively. If Ato
received GH45.00, what was the total
amount shared?
A. GH18.00
B. GH27.50
C. GH75.00
D. GH112.50
39. How many edges has a cuboid?
A. 16
B. 12
C. 8
D. 4
40. Two sets whose intersection is an
empty set are
A. disjoint sets
B. equivalent sets
C. finite sets
D. empty sets

SECTION B
Answer four questions in all. All questions carry equal marks.
1.

a.
Fifty students in a class took an examination in French and Mathematics. If 14
of them passed French only, 23 passed both French and Mathematics and 5 of them
failed in both subject, find
i. the number of students who passed French,
ii. the probability of selection a student who passed in
Mathematics.
b. Solve the inequality
2x 1 5x 6 .

3
2. a. Simplify:
b. A man had GH50.00, seven GH20.00 and five GH10.00 notes in his pocket. If he
bought a bicycle for GH150.00 and two mobile phones at GH80.00 each, how many
GH20.00 and GH10.00 notes did he have left?
3. a. Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only,
i. construct a triangle XYZ with length XY = 7cm, length YZ = 5cm and angle XYZ
= 45.
ii. Measure and write down the length of XZ.
b. Given that the circumference of a circle is 44cm, find
i. the radius of the circle,
ii. the area of the circle
[take = ]
4. The table shows the distribution of marks of students in a class test.
Mark
1
Frequency 5

2
6

3
5

4
3

5
4

6
2

a. Using a graph sheet, draw a bar chart for the distribution.

b. Calculate the mean mark of the distribution correct to the nearest whole number
5. a. Simplify 6 3
1 .
b. Copy and complete the magic square so that the sum of the numbers in each row or
column or diagonal is 18.
4
7 8
c. Find the sum of all the factors of 24.

d. Given that m =

,n=

and r =

, find m + n + r

6. a. copy and complete the table for the relation y = 2x + 5.

x
y
b. i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

3 2 1 0
5
1 1

4
13

Using a scale of 2cm to 2 units on both axes, draw two

perpendicular axes Ox and Oy on a graph sheet.
Mark the x-axis from 6 to 10 and y-axis from 6 to 14.
Using the table, plot all the points of the relation y = 2x + 5 on
the graph.
Draw a straight line through the points.

c. Use the graph to find

i.
y when x = 1.6
ii.
x when y = 10

SECTION A
OBJECTIVES TEST

Answer all questions

1. Which of the following economic
activities does not cause deforestation
in Ghana?
A. Lumbering
B. Fishing
C. Crop growing
D. Mining
2. Which of the following is a bad effect
of heavy rainfall?
A. Provision of portable water
B. Provision of water for irrigation
C. Increasing the volume of streams
D. Causing erosion of soil.

B. shortage of water
C. sewage disposal
D. afforestation
7. Water pollution is caused by all the
following except
A. oil spillage
B. sewage disposal
C. recycling of waste
D. alluvial mining
8. The most economical way to dispose
domestic and industrial waste is
A. sieving B. burning
C. recycling
D. dumping

3. Which of the following cannot be

considered an environmental hazard?
A. Desertification
B. Bush fire
C. Afforestation
D. Soil erosion

9. A major source of air pollution in the

cities of Ghana is
A. Fumes from cars
B. Burning of rubbish
C. Use of pesticides
D. Odour from gutters.

4. Our environment is made up of

A. Plant and animals
B. roads and rivers
C. natural and man-made things

10. Indiscriminate felling of trees causes

the following except
A. soil erosion
B. afforestation
C. water pollution
D. desertification
11. Desertification is caused by
A. afforestation
B. excessive rainfall
C. overgrazing
D. irrigation

5. Protection of the environment in Ghana

is the responsibility of
A. The Government
B. The Environmental Protection
Agency
C. The Forestry Department
D. The Department of Game and
Wildlife
6. Which of the following prevents
desertification
A. overgrazing

12. Environmental pollution is caused by

all the following except
A. smoking of cigarette
B. making of loud noise
C. dumping of refuse

D. watering of flowers
13. Bush fires occur very often during the
A.
B.
C.
D.

rainy season
harvesting season
cold season
harmattan season

20. The first teacher training college was

introduced in the year
A. 1943
B. 1843
C. 1748
D. 1874
21. Which year did the construction of
railway started?
A. 1898
B. 2001
C. 1998
D. 1874

14. Colonization means to ________

A. control a countrys people
B. obtain resources from a country
C. right on behalf of a nation
D. trade with a country.

22. Which year was Ashanti declared a

protectorate?
A. 1909
B. 1802
C. 1903
D. 1902

15. Ashanti came under British colonial

through _________
A. agreement
B. treaty conquest
C. military obligation
D. persuasion

23. The first secondary school was

established in Ghana is _______
A. Achimota school
B. Saint Augustines college
C. Mfantsipim school
D. Adisadel college

16. The British first came to gold coast as

A. tourists
B. teachers
C. engineers
D. traders
17. The Takoradi harbour was completed
which year?
A. 1975
B. 1929
C. 1928
D. 1930

24. The primary reason for the arrival of

British to the Gold Coast was to
________
A. trade in spices
B. trade in gold
C. rule in people
D. evangelize

18. The first export of diamonds was in the

year______
A. 1920
B. 1828
C. 1919
D. 1921

25. The first castle was built in Ghana in

1482 at
A. Cape Coast
B. Anomabo
C. Accra
D. Elmina

19. The judicial system was established in

Ghana in the year
A. 1834
B. 1930
C. 1831
D. 1931

26. The Trans-Atlantic trade was

discredited with the sale of ______
A. gold
B. slaves

C. textile

D. muskets

27. The arrangement of building, hospitals

and schools in a place is called a
A. settlement
B. layout
C. slum
D. residence
28. Which of the following settlement in
Ghana is not a slum?
A. Tema
B. Nima
C. Sodom and Gomorrah
D. Chorkor
29. Land in Ghana is used, except for
A. houses
B. wars
C. farms
D. industries
30. A settlement in which buildings are far
from each other is known as a
A. nucleated settlement
B. compact settlement
C. dispersed settlement
D. linear settlement
31. One of the following cannot be
controlled by man?
A. Earthquakes B. Slums
C. Settlement
D. Layouts
32. Areas with educational facilities should
be sited
A. near highways
B. close to the bus stations
C. on the outskirts of a town
D. behind factories
33. The importance of a good layout of a
settlement includes all the following
except

A.
B.
C.
D.

beauty
easier movement
good sanitation
overcrowding

34. Industrial areas are sited outside

residential estates because
A. of easier access to labour
B. of environment pollution
C. land acquisition is easier
D. cost of production is cheaper
35. One of the advantages of a good or
planned layout is that
A. it allows for tall buildings
B. floods are controlled
C. streets are made durable
D. hygiene is assured
36. Badly laid out settlements can be
prevented by ______
A. monitoring construction activities
B. enforcing building regulation
C. demolishing unauthorised
structures
D. fining owners of poorly sited
structures
37. Which of the following may not be
considered in finding ones directions
home, when ones is lost in the forest.
A. Prominent landscape
B. Direction of the sun
C. Shouting for help
D. Direction of the wind
38. Floods in our communities can best be
controlled through
A. harvesting rain water
B. planned layout

C. tarring or roads
D. construction of boreholes
39. A good layout prevents ______
A. future disaster
B. permanent disaster
C. natural disaster
D. ozone layer
40. A good layout make settlement
________
A. clean
B. beautiful
C. neat
D. extra ordinary

SECTION B
Answer one questions from the following
THE ENVIRONMENT
1. a. What is environmental degradation?
b. State three types of environmental degradation.
c. Mention three causes of environmental degradation.
2. a. Define the term environment?
b. State four ways in which the environment may be destroyed.
c. Suggest four ways for protecting the environment from degradation.
GOVERNMENT, POLITICS AND STABILITY
3. a. Define the colonization
b. State four reasons why the Europeans colonized the Gold Coast.
4. a. State four negative effects of colonization on Africa.
b. State five (5) positive effects of colonization in Africa.
SOCIAL AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT
5. a. What is layout?
b. State four advantages of a good layout.
6. a. What is Zoning?
b. Mention any five uses of land in your community.

SECTION A
Answer all questions

1. Which of the following do people

belonging to the same ethnic group in
Ghana have in common?
A. clothes
B. name
C. language
D. occupation
2. All the following cultural practices are
out of date and cruel except?
A. Christian wedding
B. widowhood rites
C. trokosi
D. female genital mutilation

D. respect individual human rights

7. The use of orthodox and traditional
medicine for the treatment of the same
disease is an example of _______
A. outmoded culture
B. parallel culture
C. cultural log
D. cultural change
8. Which of the following festivals is
associated with fire display?
A. Kundum
B. Aboakyir
C. Bugum
D. Ohum

3. One example of an outmoded cultural

practice in Ghana is
A. circumcision of male children
B. circumcision of female children
C. customary marriage
D. outdooring of new-born babies

9. Fetu Afahye is celebrated by the people

of
A. Anomabu
B. Cape Coast
C. Elmina
D. Winneba

4. The shared values which will promote

unity among Ghanaians is
A. loyalty
B. hospitality
C. humility
D. tolerance

10. Which of the following ethnic groups

celebrates the Kundum festival?
A. The Asante
B. The Ga
C. The Ewe
D. The Nzema

5. The belief in witchcraft is based on

A. logic
B. research
C. science
D. superstition

11. Kobine is a festival celebrated at

A. Yendi
B. Wa
C. Lawra
D. Bolgatanga

6. The adoption of modern cultural

practices enables a society to ______
A. develop economically
B. lead good moral lives
C. abandon its traditional values

12. Festivals are important in Ghana

because they enable people to
A. remember important past events
B. show their wealth

C. appoint traditional priest for the

shrine
D. determine the number of people in
the community
13. One moral value that is stressed during
an outdooring and naming ceremony of
a child is ________
A. truthfulness
B. love
C. hard work
D. respect
14. The purpose of naming ceremonies in
traditional Ghanaian homes is to
_______
A. give the child an identity
B. offer gifts to the parents by friends
C. make parents popular
D. let the child taste alcohol for the 1st
time
15. Bugum is a festival of
A. Dagomba
B. Mamprusi
C. Nanumba
D. Sisala
16. A set of rules that protects the lives of
the people and show how a nation
should be governed is known as
A. convention
B. constitution
C. rule
D. regulation
17. The constitution of a country is
endorsed by the people through a/an
A. census
B. bye-election

C. acclamation
D. referendum
18. Laws for the country are made by the
A. president
B. supreme court
C. parliament
D. district assembly
19. The main function of the executive
organ of government is _______
A. law making
B. implementation of law
C. interpretation of law
D. impeachment of the president
20. Who presides over debates in the
parliament of Ghana? The
A. clerk
B. chief chip
C. majority leader
D. speaker
21. The principles of separation of powers
prevent
A. ethnic conflicts
B. coalition government
C. dictatorial government
D. political associations
22. Which of the following institutions of
government protects the liberty and
right of the people? The
A. legislature
B. police
C. executive
D. judiciary

23. The organ of government that initiates

policies to be passed into law is the
________.
A. media
B. parliament
C. judiciary
D. executive
24. A set of rules by which a country is
governed is called
A. international law
B. constitution
C. bye-laws
D. manifesto
25. Who is the head of judiciary in Ghana?
A. The speaker of parliament
B. The President
C. The Chief Justice
D. The Attorney-General
26. People are elected into parliament
through
A. voting
B. presidential election
C. referendum
D. appointment
27. General pardon for offences against the
state is
A. amnesty
B. freedom
C. grant
D. libel
28. Laws for the country are made by
A. the President
B. supreme court
C. parliament
D. district assembly

29. The president of Ghana is sworn into

office by the
A. Attorney general
B. Speaker of Par lament
C. Chief Justice
D. Chief of Defence Staff
30. Foreigners in Ghana enjoy all the
following rights except that of
A. expression
B. worship
C. voting
D. association
31. The Supreme Court of Ghana mainly
A. runs courses for judges and
magistrates
B. remands criminals in prison
custody
C. interprets the constitution and law
for the country
D. makes and implements laws in the
country
32. The interpretation of the constitution of
Ghana is a function of the
A. legislature
B. executive
C. judiciary
D. cabinet
33. The efficiency of labour can be
increased if one __________
A. reports to work early
B. has a good supervisors
C. uses appropriate technology
D works for longer hours
34. Efficiency of the labour force is
achieved through
A. poor work attitude
B. sacrificial work

C. moral education
D. training and retraining
35. Productivity in the public service is
low because of ______
A. poor work attitude
B. aged workers
C. abundant production
D. effective supervision
36. Productivity in Ghana can be increased
through the use of
A. more labour force
B. modern technology
C. more storage facilities
D. force by supervision
37. Productivity in agriculture can be
increased in Ghana through
A. changes in the land tenure system
B. the employment of more labourers
C. application of modern technology
D. relying on foreign experts
38. Productivity in the mining section can
be increased in Ghana through
________
A. improvement in the land tenure
system
B. the employment of more labourers
C. the application of modern
technology
D. the use of locally manufactured
tools
39. Adolescent chastity means _______
A. having early sex
B. denying the father of a pregnancy
C. adolescent motherhood
D. abstaining from early sex

40. The tem adolescence means

A. growing into maturity
B. giving birth
C. thinking like old men
D. becoming physically strong

1. a.
b.
2. a.
b.
c.

SECTION B
Answer only one question from each section.
THE ENVIRONMENT
What is cultural change?
Mention and explain four factors responsible for cultural change in Ghana.
What is superstition?
Identify four (4) sources of superstition.
Give four effects of superstition
GOVERNMENT, POLITICS, AND STABILITY

5. a. Name the three arms of Government

b. State two functions of each of the three arms of Government.
c. Mention four (4) sources of revenue for the district assemblies in Ghana.
4. State four
i. rights
ii. obligations
iv. freedom under the 1992 constitution of Ghana.
SOCIAL AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

5. a. What is productivity?

b. In which four ways can productivity be increased in Ghana?

6. a. Define the term technology.
b. Outline four ways in which technology is important to workplaces in Ghana.

SECTION A
Answer all questions

1. The high dependency problem of some

families can be solved by
A. practicing family planning
B. sending children to school
C. sharing the responsibilities with
relatives
D. encouraging parents to feed their
children properly.
2. Which of the following factors
encourages rural-urban migration in
Ghana?
I. Fewer job opportunities in rural
areas
II. Fertile soil in rural areas
III. High prices of farm produce
IV. Higher education institutions in
urban centres
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I and IV only
3. The rapid increase in the population is
due to one of the following
A. high birth rate
B. high children
C. low birth rate
D. low children
4. Democracy in our nation could be
sustained by ________
A. teaching the people information
technology
B. operating one party system of
government
C. holding general elections every
decade
D. giving the people political
education.

5. The first republic of Ghana covered a

period of
A. 1957 to 1960
B. 1966 to 1969
C. 1960 to 1966
D. 1969 to 1972
6. Democracy refers to the government of
A. the rich citizens
B. few wise people
C. traditional rulers
D. the people
7. The practice of multi-party democracy
in Ghana tends to promote
A. sufficiency
B. ethnicity
C. stability
D. dependency
8. Government of the people by the
people and for the people is referred to
as
A. socialism
B. monarchy
C. democracy
D. apartheid
9. The head of government of the second
republic of Ghana was the ________
A. Attorney general
B. Head of state
C. Prime minster
D. Chief Justice
10. Which of the officials are not elected
through general elections in Ghana?
A. Members of parliament
B. President of Ghana

C. Assembly members
D. Ministers of state
11. The most economical way to dispose of
domestic and industrial waste is
A. sieving
B. recycling
C. burning
D. dumping
12. A major source of air pollution in the
cities of Ghana is __________
A. fumes from cars
B. burning of rubbish
C. use of pesticides
D. odours form gutters
13. Indiscriminate felling of trees cause the
following except
A. soil erosion
B. afforestation
D. water pollution
D. desertification
14. Desertification is caused by
A. afforestation
B. excessive rainfall
C. overgrazing
D. irrigation
15. Bush fires occur very often during the
A. rainy season
B. cold season
C. harvesting season
D. harmattan season
16. The Akans originally settled in the
basin of river
A. Pra
B. Akobra
C. Densu
D. Volta

17. The migration routes of the Guans are

traced to the area around.
A. Pra basin
B. Ofin basin
C. Volta basin
D. Ankroba basin
18. The original hone of the Ewe was
A. Ho
B. Keta
C. Ketu
D. Kpando
19. Otumfuo Opoku Ware I ruled the
Asante Kingdom after the death of
A. Obiri Yeboah
B. Osei Kwadwo
C. Agyemang Prempeh I
D. Osei Tutu I
20. People from various ethnic groups are
found in the cities of Ghana because of
A. tourism
B. religious protection
C. conflict
D. good neighbours
21. The Sagrenti War of 1974 was fought
between the
A. Fantes and Asantes
B. British and FAntes
C. Akyems and Asantes
D. British and Asantes
22. The first secondary school to be
established in Ghana is
A. Achimota School
B. Saint Augustines College C.
Mfantsipim school
D. Adisadel

23. The head of state of Ghana from 1957

to 1960 was
A. Kwame Nkrumah
B. Queen of Britain
C. C.K.A Busia
D. Gordon Guggisberg

30. Foreigners in Ghana enjoy all the

following except that of
A. expressions
B. worship
C. voting
D. association

24. The Watson Commision was set up in

A. 1919
B. 1925
C. 1930
D. 1948

31. Which of the following is not a natural

source?
A. Roads
B. Forests
C.
Minerals D. Soils

25. Ghana became a republic within the

Commonwealth of Nations in
A. 1948
B. 1954
C. 1957
D. 1960
26. The most common way of becoming a
citizen of a country is by ______
A. registration B. birth
C.
adoption D. marriage

32. Land in Ghana provides the following

A. animals
B. export crops
C. vehicles
D. metals
33. Which of the following towns is well
noted for Manganese mining?
A. Obuasi
B. Nsuta
C. Yinahin
D. Akwatia

27. If a person suspected of being a thief is

beaten up by a mob, he is denied the
right to
A. speech
B. fair trial
C. work
D. life

34. Harvested food crops are best

preserved in
A. silos
B. barns
C. sacks
D. farms

28. Which of the following constitute

human right abuse?
A. Child labour
B. Sex trade
C. Truancy
D. Favouritism

35. Which of the following is not a

primary industry?
A. Weaving
B. Fishing
C. Farming
D. Lumbering

29. An individual whose rights have been

infringed upon seeks justice from the
A. court
B. police
C. president
D. military

36. All the following are primary products

excepts
A. God
B. Cocoa beans
C. coffee bens
D. logs

37. Which of the following does not

constitute currency
A. coins
B. notes
C. cowries
D. cheques
38. We can save our money in all these
areas except:
A. Banks
B. Susu box
C. Post offices D. Ground
39. The conventional sign
on a
topographical sheet represents a
A. school
B. church
C. bridge
D. settlement
40. The convectional sign, on the
topographical map represents a
A. castle
B. market
C. church
D. mosque

SECTION B
Answer one question from each section
THE ENVIRONMENT
1. a. Define the term population growth?
b. Discuss any four effects of population growth on the family or country.
2. a. State four causes of high birth rate in Ghana.
b. In what four ways can high birth rate be reduced in Ghana.

GOVERNANCE, POLITICS AND STABILITY

a. Mention four actions that can affect the practice of democracy in
Ghana.
b. State four factors that promote democracy

4. a. Describe four ways in which Ghana benefit from democracy.

b. Outline four ways in which political conflicts can be prevented in Ghana.
SOCIAL AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT
5. a. The term primary production
b. State four contributions of primary industries to the economy of Ghana.
6. a. Mention four examples of tertiary industry in Ghana.
b. State four contributions of the tertiary industry in Ghana.

SECTION A
From the options lettered A D, choose the most suitable and shade the answer on the
answer sheet

1. Michael Jackson est ______ grand

chateur.
A. Un
B. Une
C. Des
D. du
2. Kofi est comment? Kofi est
_________.
A. grand
B. grande
C. grands
D. grandes
3. Comment a va? a va _______ merci.
A. viens
B. biens
C. bien
D. bilan
4. Il porte ________ pantalon rouge
A. Un
B. Des
C. Une
D. La
5. Qui ______ la porte?
A. est
B. es
C. et
D. tes
6. ______ ge as tu?
A. Quel
B. Quelle
C. Quels
D. Quelles
7. ________ police chez Salamatou.
A. La
B. Le
C. Les
D. L
8. __________ sommes en retard.
A. Nous
B. Vous
C. Ils
D. Elles
9. Cest un ______ home.
A. beau
B. belle
C. bel
D. beaux
10. Il porte un pantalon ________
A. vert
B. verte
C. verts
D. vertes

11. _____ table est ronde.

A. La
B. Le
C. L
D. Les
12. ________ hotel est vraiment beau.
A. Ce
B. C
C. Cet
D. Cette
13. Tu ne _______ pa faire le devoir.
A. peut
B. Peux
C. pouvez
D. peuvent
14. Qui est l? _______
A. personne
B. je
C. il
D. me
15. Kwame va _________ ville
A. aux
B. au
C. en
D.
16. Ama alume ______ feu
A. l
B. le
C. la
D. de
17. O est la gomme? _______ voil
A. le
B. la
C. lui
D. Elle
18. Les enfants chantent _______ sont
contents
A. ils
B. nous
C. elles
D. vous
19. Je ______ la television
A. coute
B. parle
C. regarde
D. mange
20. Ton sac est plein ________ fruits
A. de
B. des

C. du

D. d

21. Nous sommes _______

A. riche
B. riches
C. rich
D. riche

A. nous
C. de la

B. de
D. vous

31. Fatou met une jupe ______

A. bleu
B. rouge
C. noir
D. noirs

22. Kofi enface le tableau avec ______

chiffon.
A. la
B. le
C. une
D. de

32. __________ fleur me plait.

A. cet
B. cette
C. ces
D. ce

23. Mon frre crit avec ______ stylo

A. un
B. une
C. la
D. les

33. Papa travaille ______ Ghana

A. au
B. en
C. aux
D. dans

24. Elle donne ______ cahier Kofi.

A. sa
B. ses
C. son
D. mes

34. Lananas est une ______

A. fruit
B. oisseau
C. poisson
D. poison

25. Ill est meut, Il ne ______ pas

A. danse
B. voit
C. parle
D. mange

35. Le bb boit ________ lait.

A. du
B. de
C. de la
D. des

26. ________ heure est-il, Kobina?

A. Quelle
B. Quels
C. Quel
D. Quelles

36. Pauline travelle _______ laeroport.

A. en
B. au
C.
D. la

27. Madam Mensah est trs ________

A. gentille
B. gentil
C. gentiles
D. gentils

37. Nous ______ du fufu chaque jour.

A. manges
B. mangeons
C. mangez
D. mangent

28. Les homes ________ des pantaloons.

A. portent
B. portez
C. porte
D. portes

38. Elle est comment? Elle est

A. petite
B. petit
C. petites
D. petits

29. Il est meut, Il ne ________ pas

A. danse
B. voit
C. parle
D. mange

39. Il est l? Oui, il ________ l

A. es
B. est
C. et
D. tes

30. Taisez _______ mes lves.

40. O est _______ foulard?

A. le
C. les

B. la
D. des

SECTION B
(Composition)
Describe your best friend. Use the
guideliens below to write your essay
should be btween 60 and 80 words long.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.

Comment sappelle ton ami(e)?

Quel ge a-til/elle?
Il/elle est n (e) o?
Il/elle habite o?
Il/elle va quelle cole?
Il/elle est comment? Grand(e) ou
petit(e).
g. Quest-ce quil/elle porte?
h. Des quelle coleurs sont de vtements?
i. Pourquoi tu laimes ton ami(e).

SECTION A
From the option lettered A D. Choose the most suitable answer and shade the answer on
your shading sheet.

1. _______ panier est sur la table.

A. La
B. L
C. Les
D. Le

11. Nous _______ de la chance

A. ayons
B. avons
C. avez
D. sommes

2. ________ garcon nest pas malade.

A. Le
B. La
C. Les
D. L

12. Deux et cinq font

A. trois
B. six
C. cinq
D. sept

3. Papa lit ___________ journal.

A. le
B. la
C. les
D. l

13. Vas cheveux sont trop longs: il faut les

A. laver
B. couper
C. essuyer
D. peigner

4. Elle donne ______ cahier Kofi

A. au
B. la
C. dans
D. en

14. Cette file est avegeule, elle ______ pas

A. ne marche
B. nentend
C. ne parle
D. ne voit

5. Le soleil se couche _______

A. lest
B. au nord
C. louest
D. au sud

15. Le frre et la sour dAmalia ________

franais.
A. parle
B. parlent
C. parler
D. parlons

6. La chambrre est sal. Allez _____

A. balayer
B. chercher
C. coucher
D. dormer
7. Il est mdecin, donc il ______ les
maladies
A. soigne
B. faim
C. sommeil
D. chaud

16. Alice va lecole parce quelle est

______ .
A. gentille
B. malade
C. pauvre
D. petite
17. Le riz coute ________ ici.
A. cher
B. chre
C. chers
D. cheres

8. Nous ________ de mange.

A. allons
B. entrons
C. venons
D. sortons
9. Comment va-tu? Je _____ bien, merci.
A. vois
B. parle
C.
suis
D. sens

18. Les __________ son vieilles

A. vendeur
B. vendeurs
C. vendeuse
D. vendeuses

10. ______ jolie fleur!

A. Quel
B. Quels
C. Quelle
D. Quelles

19. O est la robe de ______ souer?

A. mon
B. ma
C. son
D. ses

20. Lenfant ________ lecole de bonne

heure
A. arrive
B. arrivent
C. arrives
D. arrive

30. Il va ________ la plage.

A. a
B.
C. au en
B. en

21. Papa construit une ______ maison

A. bel
B. belle
C. beaux
D. belles

31. _______ professeur est content

A. Ma
B. Mes
C. Mon
D. Ses

22. Monsieur Salangre ______ docteur.

A. es
B. est
C. sont
D. ont

32. ________ home arrive!

A. Une
B. Une
C. De
Des

23. Madame Salamatou _____ a Tafo

A. habite
B. habiter
C. habites
D. habitez

33. Le voleur _______ intelligent.

A. est
B. suis
C. entre
D. es

24. Ces ______ des rideaux.

A. ont
B. sont
C. etes
D. es

34. Le zebra est un animal ________

A. domestique B. sauvage
C. oiseau
D. aquatique

25. Il nous pose ________ questions

A. plusiers
B. beaucoup
C. assez
D. peu

35. _______ quoi il travaille?

A. Avec
B. Qui
C. Quand
D. Comment

26. Elles _______ le crayon

A. voit
D. voyez
C. voient
D. vois

36. Maman a _______ beau bb.

A. un
B. une
C. les
D. de

27. Nous cultivons du riz au ________

A. salon
B. rfectoire
C. champ
D. cuisine

37. Cest pharmacien. Il vend des

________
A. fruits
B. medicaments
C. boissons
D. maladies

28. Kofi a faim, il _______ du riz.

A. joue
B. mange
C. chante
D. parle
29. La robe est jolie. Je vai ______ acheter.
A. les
B. l
C. le
D. la

38. Kofi es malade donc il ______

lhpital.
A. va
B. vais
C. allons
D. allez

39. Titi ________ des choix

A. fait
B. fais
C. font
D. faire
40. Madame Bawa _______ marchande
A. sont
B. est
C. es
D. suis

SECTION B
ESSAY
Write a composition of about 60 80
words long about your mother. The
guidelines / questions below will help you.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k.

Ma Mre
Quell est le nom de ta mre?
Elle est marie/devorce ou veuve?
Comment sappelle son mari?
Elle a combine denfants?
Do vient ta mere?
O est-ce quelle habite?
Comment est-elle? Grande ou petite?
Quelle est sa profession?
Quest-ce que elle aime faire la
maison?
Quelle langue parle-t-elle souvent la
maison?
Tu aimes ta mere et pourquoi?

SECTION A
From the options lettered A D, choose the most suitable answer and shade the letter you
have chosen on the shading sheet.

1. La voiture est un _______, je vais la

rparer.
A. ordre
B. vieille
C. vieux
D. panne

9. Les automobilistes conduisent droit

______ Ghana.
A. le
B. en
C. au
D.

2. Ce monsieur, nest pas du tout mince,

Au contraire, ill est ________
A. gros
B. laid
C. beau
D. mince

10. Le march principal se trouve _______

ville.
A.
B. en
C. sur
d. dans

3. Lhomme a acht. Un ______ allerreutour avant de monter dan lavion.

A. passeport
B. billet
C. carnet
D. extrait

11. Quest-ce que vous _______ l bas?

A. fais
B. fait
C. fonts
d. faites

4. Petit petit loiseau fait son ______

A. nerf
B. nid
C. mil
D. nef
5. Un ______ vend surtout de provisions
A. proviseur
B. commissariat
C. boucher
D. picier
6. Beaucoup _______ Franais aiment la
danse
A. de la
B. du
C. des
D. de
7. Les taxi dici son ______
A. belles
B. bel
C. beaux
D. beau
8. Chez moi on va la ferme tous les
jours ________ le jeudi
A. sauf
b. dans
C. sans
D. et

12. Nous ________ la maison

demain soir.
A. irons
B. allons
C. irions
D. allions

tard

13. Moussa na pas? _______ chocolat

A. du
B. de la
C. de
D. dun
14. Lhpital o cette _______ travaille est
loin de la ville.
A. infirmire
B. marchande
C. avocate
D. directrice
15. Kobina coute ______ pour avoir des
informations.
A. la montre
B. le livre
C. la radio
D. le monteurs
16. Le mouton est un _______ domestique.
A. animal
B. oiseau
C. instrument
D. appareil

17. Pendant la _______ les lves jouvent

au football.
A. recreation
B. leon
B. discussioin
D. lecture
18. Harouna est ______ , il parle bien
Franais et anglais
A. enseignant
B. bavard
C. scrtaire
D. bilingue
19. Le _______ de ce taxi est trs gentil.
A. directeur
B. chasseur
C. chauffeur
D. cultivateur
20. La fille ________ avec un style rouge
A. crire
B. crit
C. cris
D. crivain
21. Michael Jackson est ________ grand
chanteur
A. une
B. de
C. du
D. un
22. Comment vas-tu? Je ______ bien
merci.
A. vais
B. vas
C. parle
D. suivre
23. Deux et cinq font _______
A. trois
B. cinq
C. six
D. sept
24. Elle fait des etudes ________ France
A. la
B. au
C. en
D. du

25. ______ jolies fleurs.

A. Quel
B. Quels
C. Quelle
D. Quelles
26. Quelle _______ est-il?
A. heure
B. est
c. elle
D. helles
27. Kofi va gare, Il ______ va
A. y
B. Il ya
C. yest
D. ai
28. Le garcon _______ a reussi
lexamen.
A. heureux
B. souriant
C. travailleur
D. gentil
29. La chaise est casse. Apelle-moi le
_______.
A. menuisier
B. tailleur
C. maon
D. mcanicien
30. Je _______ Kofi et toi?
A. mappelle
B. tappelles
C. nous nous appelons
D. vous vous appelez

Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follows by shading on your
answer sheets the letter which corresponds with the answer you have chosen.
Madame Nsiah est cultivatrice. Elle travaille la champagne. La terre quelle cultive se
trouve prs dune revire dans la brousse.
Madame Nsiah et sa famille habitant en banlieue. Elle a trois enfats; des jumeaux et une fille.
On vient denterrer son mari qui est mort cause dun accident dautomobile. Chaque jour
Madame Nsiah se lve de bonne heurs pour faire le mnage. Elle quitte la maison six heures
moins le quart pour aller au travail.

31. Quelle est la profession de Madame

Nsiah?
A. commerante
B. couturier
C. marchande
D. fermire
32. O est-ce quell travaille? Elle travaille
________
A. avec la champagne
B. au champ
C. la mer
D. sur le trottoir
33. Sa terre est prs ______
A. dun robinet
B. dun fleuve
C. dun puits
D. dun rivet
34. Madame Nsiah et sa famile habitant
A. dans la capital
B. en ville
C. lion de la ville
D. dans la cite
35. Il y a _______ garons dans la famille?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2
36. Qui est mort cause dun accident
dautomobile?
A. Lpoux de Madame Nsiah
B. Le beau-pre de Madame Nisah
C. Lponge de Madame Nsiah
D. Son pouse
37. Madam Nsiah est maintenant ______
A. heureuse
B. veuve
C. ougueilleuse D. fire

38. Chaue jour Madam Nsiah se lve

_______.
A. sur lheure
B. tard
C. tt
D. toute heure
39. Quest-ce que Madame Nsiah fait
quand elle se lve?
A. Elle fait des traveux domestique
B. Elle soigne les maladies
C. Elle achte des mdicamenets
D. Elle mange
40. Elle quitte la maison quell heure?
A. 6:15
B. 5:45
C. 6:45
D. 5:15

SECTION B
ESSAY
Write a composition in French describing
your hometown / village. The outline
below will guide you.
a. Comment sappelle votre/ta ville natale
b. O se trouve votre ville natale?
c. Il y a combine dhabitants dan votre
ville natale?
d. Les maisons sont en quoi?
e. Les occupations, majeures des
habitants?
f. Le plat prfer des habitants
g. Que font les gens pendant le jour de
march?
h. Quest-ce que les gens font pour
samuser.
i. Que font les enfants pendant la nuit?
j. Quelle est la religion de habitants?
k. Vous aimez votre / ta ville Natalie.
Pourquoi?

}FA I
Bua ns[mmisa yi nyinaa
1. As[m no y[ nobr[ ______
A. turodoo
B. b]k]]
C. br[oo
D. b[t[[
E. nyaa

8. Kwame M[nsa de akok] no ahy[

k[nt[n no ______
A. soro
B. anim
C. atifi
D. ase
D. so

2. S[ woany[ no ______ a, m[k] agya wo

A. denden
B. br[br[
C.
nt[mnt[m D. basabasa
E. nyaanyaa

9. }hemma taa tena ]hene ____

A. ase
B. mu
C. mfinimfini
D. apampam
E. nky[n

3. ______ biara ]prapra fie h] f[f[[f[.

10. }kraman tuntum no di ne wura ______

A. soro
B. mu
C. anim
D. mfinimfini
E. ase

A. }kyena
C. Nnora
E. An]pa

B. {nn[
D. Nnaano

4. Adwumay[fo] no y[ adwuma no
_______
A. gyigyagyigya
B. nyinyanyinya
C. basabasa
D. b[t[b[t[
E. furafura
5. }kyeame nim dwam kawa ______
A. hann
B. papaapa
C. dendeenden
D. posoposo
6. Ab]fra no te ankaa no _______ rete bi
adi
A. so
B. mu
C. nky[n
D. mu
E. fam
7. Yaa Amp]nsa wuraa [dan no ______
A. ase
B. anim
C. nky[n
D. mu
E. so

Hwehw[ as[mfua a [ne de[ w]asane ase[

no asekyer[ y[ p[
11. Kof Ata b[duru ha ]kyena
A. b[da
B. b[ba
C. b[dware
D. b[wura
E. b[dwane
12. Kwame Apea bisaa nadamfo no kwan
so
A. amanne[
B. nk]mm]
C. as[m
D. kasa
E. akyire
13. Agya Kofi Asante w] kokoofuo k[se[
bi.
A. petee
B. tenten
C. kokuroko
D. karaka
E. bebree
14. Tikyani no duruu h] p[ na obira y[[
dinn.
A. komm
B. b]]
C. hann
D. yee
E. bagyabagya

15. Kube no mu nsuo y[ d[

A. nwununwuni
B. nsunsu
C. tayoo
D. ak]nn]
E. fenemfenem
Fa ns[mfua [fata hy[ faako a w]agya no
16. W]mfa _______
A. nsa benkum nhyea
B. tiri nkyea
C. nsa mmienu nkyea
D. ano nkyea
D. ano ne nsa nkyea
17. S[ ]baa nyins[n a _______
A. ]ny[ ne ho aduro
B. ]nnoa aduane
C. w]ny[ ne ho ade[
D. ]ne barima nna
E. ]nnware
18. S[ worek] dua so anaa baabi so a
_______
A. wonsere
B. wonkyea
C. wonnidi
D. wonna
E. wonhy[ mpaboa
19. Wo yere nuabarima y[ ______
A. wo y]nko
B. wo nua
C. wo nua
D. wakonta
E. wagya
20. Me papa ne papa y[ me _______
A. nua
B. sewaa
C. nanabarima D. agya
E. w]fa
21. Me kunu ba y[ ______.
A. me nana

B.
C.
D.
E.

me sewaa
mabanomma
me w]faase
me ba

22. Me maame nuabarima y[ me _____

A. w]fa
B. nua
C. papa
D. akonta
E. nana
23. Edin a y[de ma ab]fra a wamm[to ne
papa ne _______.
A. kont]
B. Anto
C. kaakyire
D. Dufie
E. Afriyie
24. Asantehene y[ ______
A. }yokoni
B. Aduanani
C. Biretuni
D. Asonani
E. {ko]nanie
25. Aduanafo] akraboa ne ______
A. Odwan
B. }kraman
C. Apan
D. Anene
E. Ako
26. Asonafo] akraboa ne _____
A. k]k]sakyi
B. ]kraman
C. kwaakwaadabi D. ako
E. apan
27. K]k]sakyi y[ _______ akraboa
A. Asakyirifo]
B. Asonafo]
C. Bretuofo]
D. }yokofo]
E. Aduanafo]
28. ______ y[ Biretuofo] akraboa
A. Apan
B. Etwie
C. Akor]ma
D. {ko]
E. }kraman

29. Akor]ma y[ [hefo] akraboa?

A. }yoko
B. Asona
C. Biretuo
D. Asona
E. Aduana
30. Mamp]nhene y[ ______
A. }yokoni
B. Biretuni
C. Aduanani
D. Asonani
E. {ko]nani
{hefo] na w]hy[ saa fa yi?
31. Ad[[k[se[ _____________
32. Kundum _____________
33. H]m]w] ______________
34. Odwira ______________
35. Hogbetsotso ___________
36. Ohum _____________
37. Aboakyere _____________

}FA II
COMPREHENSION
Kenkan abas[m/ay[s[m yin a bua [ho ns[mmisa no nyinaa
Da bi Osikani be tenaa ase, na ]w] nfuo bebree. Daa gye s[ ]b] paa ma nkurof] d] ma no.
Asus] tue twaa mu no, mfuo no ase fui[. Osikani no de mfuo no be b]] ]panin bi paa.
Ber[ a ]paani no red] afuo no ase no, ]hunuu s[ sikak]k]] hy[ asaase no fa baabi. Na ]nim
yie s[ na Osikani no nnim s[ sika hy[ afuom h]. Yei into ]too sikani no brad[ s[ ]b[t] afuo
no. Na Osikani no redwen ]kwan a ]paani no b[fa so atua afuo no ka no. Nanso ]paani no
hy[[ no ara se ]nt]n mma no.
Akyire yi ]dii asaase no ano. }paani no k]b]] bosea betuae[. Yei akyiri no, ]paani no k]tuu
sika no.
Ns[mmisa
a. Na Osikani no y[ d[n na ]d] ne nfuo no ase?
b. Ber[ asus] no tue twaa mu no, mufo no ase y[[ d[n?
c. Kyer[ saa kasakoa yi ase: ]too sikani no brad[
d. Wogye di s[ ]paani no de sika a ]tui[ no b[y[ d[n?
e. Fa ns[fua [mmoro nson to abas[m yi din.
}FA III
Yi de[ [didi so] yi baako p[ na fa ns[mfua b[y[ 150 twer[ ho as[m.
a. Twer[ w oho as[m.
b. Twer[ wadamfo pa ara ho as[m
}FA IV
Lexis and Structure
Fa ns[mfua [fata bua ns[mmisa yi nyinaa
a. Adamfo] dodo] kabea y[ _______
b. As[mfua a [ne tiatia b] abira y[ ________
c. Y[ gye di ________ onyame ne hene.
d. Na menim s[ ]w] fie ____ na ]nni h].
e. Ama ______ gya noaa aduane.
f. Tikya _______ yen din guu ne nwoma mu
g. Y[n tikya din _______ Owura M[nsa
h. Akok] to ________ bebree
i. Ama rek] ayaresabea ______ ]yare
j. Asikyire ne [wo] y[ _____