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1.

The course called "Outdoor Emergency Care" was created by the National Ski Patrol to:
a.
create a standard of care for ski patrollers and others involved in outdoor emergency care.
b.
provide a standard of training for OEC Technicians and others involved in outdoor recreation.
c.
respond to a request from Minnie Dole to develop training for patrollers working at ski resorts.
d.
create a worldwide standard of care for anyone providing outdoor emergency care.

2.

Which of the following goals best describes a key goal of an emergency care system?
a.
To have trained personnel respond and provide emergency care on the scene
b.
To identify and modify illness and injury risks
c.
To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and to "do no harm"
d.
To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of emergency medical care

3.

The structure that regulates body temperature is the:


a.
brain stem.
b.
hypothalamus.
c.
medulla.
d.
cerebellum.

4.

A multiple-casualty incident (MCI) is defined as:


a.
any event that places an excessive demand on rescue personnel and equipment.
b.
any event in which the number of patients requiring care is greater than 10.
c.
any event that requires the medical director to leave the hospital and direct activities on scene.
d.
any event in which five or more people are injured and require transport to different hospitals.

5.

The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health reports that ________ of all workplace
injuries are back related.
a.
20 percent
b.
50 percent
c.
70 percent
d.
90 percent

6.

The person who first organized a volunteer "ski patrol" and then was asked to organize a
national patrol was:
a.
Roger Langely.
b.
Roland Palmedo.
c.
Minnie Dole.
d.
Warren Bowman.

7.

A network of specially trained personnel, equipment, facilities, and other resources that respond to
medical emergenciesregardless of cause, location, or the patient's ability to paybest describes:
a.
a community wellness program.
b.
a health care system.
c.
an emergency care system.
d.
a public health system.

8.

Metabolism:
a.
always involves insulin from the pancreas.
b.
involves only glucose and enzymes.
c.
is the same as the digestive process.
d.
is defined as the chemical processes occurring within a living cell or organism

9.

The National Incident Management System (NIMS) is beneficial in an emergency response to a


disaster or a terrorism attack because it provides for:
a.
specific codes and terms to enhance communications among EMS, fire, and law enforcement
personnel.
b.
increased funding and reimbursement for any EMS agency involved in the response.
c.
a consistent approach to managing a disaster when the response involves many different responders
and agencies.
d.
federal control of any disaster scene regardless of location.

10.

National EMS organizations estimate that as many as ___ percent of workers have sustained back
injuries.
a.
5
b.
10
c.
50
d.
80

11.

Although the National Ski Patrol was originally a subcommittee of the National Ski Association, the
NSP became an independent organization in:
a.
1953.
b.
1980.
c.
1962.
d.
1975.

12.

Which of the following attributes is not one of the 14 attributes of an effective emergency care system?
a.
Integration of health services
b.
System finance
c.
Public access
d.
Public acceptance

13.

When the body's core temperature drops, the body:


a.
starts shivering.
b.
sends a signal to the heart to speed up.
c.
constricts blood vessels to increase blood pressure.
d.
increases breathing to raise the oxygen level.

14.

Which one of the following statements about the Incident Command System is true?
a.
Each EMS agency can use its own codes and terms.
b.
There is a separate commander for EMS, fire, and law enforcement personnel.
c.
Each individual responder is accountable to two supervisors.
d.
Common terminology is used for all communications.

15.

To maintain proper alignment when moving or lifting a heavy object, the weight of the object must
be:
a.
offset using shoulder and chest strength.
b.
distributed to the lower back.
c.
evenly transferred to the legs.
d.
transferred to the forearms and biceps.

16.

The National Ski Patrol is one of a few organizations that have received a federal charter from the
U.S. government. Because of this, each year the NSP must:
a.
ensure that all patrollers refresh their training.
b.
report to Congress.
c.
submit names of all patrollers to the IRS.
d.
submit a tax return to the IRS.

17.

Which of the following levels of training emphasizes the provision of immediate life-saving
treatment and stabilization to critically ill or injured patients while waiting for additional emergency
response?
a.
EMT
b.
Emergency medical responder
c.
AEMT
d.
Critical care responder

18.

Conduction is the transfer of heat:


a.
when the skin is in contact with air or water.
b.
through radiation.
c.
through respirations.
d.
from a warm object to a cold object through direct contact.

19.

While responding to an MCI drill involving an explosion, you recognize that the dozen ambulances
sitting in a parking lot three blocks away from the incident constitute the:
a.
transport unit.
b.
staging unit.
c.
treatment unit.
d.
triage area.

20.

To lessen one's chances of injury while lifting and moving a patient, one should:
a.
roll the patient.
b.
combine good lifting and moving techniques.
c.
use a long-axis drag to avoid lifting.
d.
avoid manual moves and instead use mechanical devices.

21.

The creed of the National Ski Patrol is:


a.
"Skiing and Safety."
b.
"First Aid and Service."
c.
"Snowsports and Safety."
d.
"Service and Safety."

22.

An OEC Technician meets or exceeds the NHTSA national training requirements of:
a.
an Emergency Medical Technician.
b.
an advanced Emergency Medical Technician.
c.
a Paramedic.
d.
an Emergency Medical Responder.

23.

The direction of heat transfer:


a.
is always from a colder object to a warmer object.
b.
cannot be from an object to a human.
c.
is sometimes random.
d.
is always from a warmer object to a colder object.

24.

You correctly identify the primary benefit of triage when you say:
a.
"Triage is a process by which the number of patients is quickly estimated so the appropriate
resources can be summoned."
b.
"Triage is a system that can be used to determine the number of patients who will most likely die."
c.
"Triage is a system used to assign the order of care when an incident contains more than 10 patients."
d.
"Triage is used to prioritize patients for treatment and transportation based on their clinical signs and
symptoms."

25.

When a person exhibits good body mechanics and lifts properly, the spine is:
a.
slightly bent in the upper thoracic region.
b.
straight at the thoracic region and bent in the lumbar region.
c.
bent at no more than 15 degrees.
d.
straight and in an anatomical position.

26.

The 10th Mountain Division was founded:


a.
through a request from the U.S. president to Minnie Dole.
b.
after Minnie Dole convinced the U.S. Army that a winter warfare unit would be valuable.
c.
by members of the 87th Mountain Infantry Regiment, many of whom were skiers.
d.
through the Norwegian Army, which had a cold-weather unit during World War I.

27.

Most emergency care systems deploy personnel to emergencies using a stratified approach
based on the patient's condition or anticipated needs. Which of the following lists presents the
normal order of deployment of responders?
a.
EMT, AEMT, EMR, Paramedic
b.
EMR, AEMT, Paramedic, EMT
c.
EMR, EMT, AEMT, Paramedic
d.
AEMT, Paramedic, EMT, EMR

28.

During a stress response, the release of epinephrine results in:


a.
an increase in heart rate.
b.
a decrease in the force of the heart's contraction.
c.
smooth muscle contraction.
d.
a reduction in respiratory depth and rate.

29.

Approximately 15 trucks and cars have been involved in a "chain-reaction" collision. You are the
first person on scene and begin going from vehicle to vehicle to determine the severity of each
injury and to prioritize patients for treatment. Your actions are an example of:
a.
secondary triage.
b.
emergency triage.
c.
primary triage.
d.
tertiary triage.

30.

Which of the following questions is not of concern when preparing to move or lift a heavy object?
a.
How heavy is the object?
b.
How long will it take to make the move?
c.
What type of terrain is involved?
d.
Which carrying device will work best?

31.

The first emergency responder textbook created exclusively for ski patrollers was titled:
Winter Emergency Care.
a.
Outdoor Emergency Care.
b.
Ski Safety and First Aid.
c.
Safety on the Snow.
d.

32.

Which of the following choices is not an example of direct medical oversight?


a.
Telephone communication
b.
Physical presence of a physician
c.
Written protocols
d.
Video conferencing

33.

The "fight or flight" response diverts blood flow away from the internal organs, which results in:

a.
b.
c.
d.

excessive saliva production.


increasing blood flow to the extremities
constipation.
leg cramps.

34.

At a multiple-casualty incident, you are brought a patient with a red tag tied to his wrist. You
should recognize which one of the following?
a.
immediate care and transport of the patient are necessary.
b.
delayed care and transport of the patient are permissible.
c.
the patient has a minor wrist injury.
d.
the patient is deceased.

35.

Which of the following pieces of equipment do OEC Technicians use most to move, lift, and carry
a patient?
a.
Long spine board (LSB)
b.
Orthopedic stretcher
c.
Portable stretcher
d.
Basket stretcher

36.

Dr. Warren Bowman is considered the father of Outdoor Emergency Care because he:
a.
was the first program director for the National Ski Patrol.
b.
co-authored the first ski patrol manual with the American Red Cross.
c.
founded the National Ski Patrol as a separate entity.
d.
created the concept of "intermediate" medical care for ski patrollers.

37.

Which of the following characteristics is not a characteristic of indirect medical control?


a.
Communication by radio
b.
Use for expediting patient care
c.
Common use for "pre-authorizing" routine and life-saving procedures
d.
Provision through the use of protocols

38.

The primary fuel source for muscles is(are):


a.
proteins.
b.
oxygen.
c.
carbohydrates.
d.
sodium.

39.

Which one of the following triage tags indicates the lowest priority for care for a patient at a
multiple-casualty incident?
a.
A yellow tag
b.
A red tag
c.
A black tag
d.
A green tag

40.

When used correctly, the power grip maximizes the force of the hands, which are placed:
a.
palms down and 8 inches apart.
b.
palms up and 10 inches apart.
c.
palms up and 5 inches apart.
d.
palms down and 18 inches apart.

41.

The 5th Edition of Outdoor Emergency Care:


a.
must be learned in its entirety before taking the OEC Technician evaluation.
b.
contains the baseline knowledge and skills identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation
curriculum for EMTs in all settings.
c.
exceeds the knowledge and skills identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation for
Emergency Medical Responder.
d.
can only be taught in the winter so that students can practice the skills taught in the course.

42.

Guidelines developed at the local level by emergency personnel familiar with an area's medical
needs, available resources, system capabilities, and local standard of care are:
a.
protocols.
b.
policies.
c.
advanced procedures.
d.
medical attributes.

43.

You are transporting a patient at a multiple-casualty incident. The patient has a yellow triage tag.
You understand this tag to mean:
a.
treatment of the patient could be delayed for up to 4 hours.
b.
the patient has minor injuries.
c.
the patient should be with the "walking wounded."
d.
the patient has a head injury.

44.

When using the power grip, the hands are:


a.
placed underneath the lifting device and held loosely.
b.
placed underneath the lifting device and held firmly.
c.
placed on the side of the lifting device and held firmly.
d.
held on the side of the device at a 45-degree angle.

45.

Most teaching systems have found that the most effective way to master technical skills is by:
a.
personally practicing the skills.
b.
observing others doing the skills.
c.
memorizing the skill guides in a book.
d.
teaching the skills to a class.

46.

The reason it is important that OEC Technicians participate in quality improvement programs in
services in which they work or volunteer is:
a.
to guarantee that the public receives quality emergency medical care.
b.
to identify problems in care delivery and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence.
c.
to ensure that individuals making false calls for help are prosecuted.
d.
to identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan for them.

47.

Leukocytes are the workhorses of the immune system and are produced in the:
a.
pancreas.
b.
liver.
c.
intestines.
d.
bone marrow.

48.

In the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system for triaging patients, what should you
include in your assessment to determine the order in which patients will receive emergency care?
a.
Chief complaint, respiratory rate, pulse, medications the patient is using
b.
Respiratory rate, pulse, mental status, ability to walk
c.
Level of consciousness, pulse, past medical history, medications the patient is using
d.
Chief complaint, ability to walk, pulse, past medical history

49.

Which of the following instructions is most important for combining optimal anatomic position with
good body mechanics in a power lift?
a.
Maintain a wide stance (at least 24 inches).
b.
Keep your back muscles loose and your head bent forward.
c.
Straighten your legs to lift.
d.
Squat down and keep your knees outward at a 45-degree angle.

50.

Which of the following statements about OEC 5th Edition is false?


a.
It contains the most recent information about prehospital care at the time of its publication.
b.
It is a resource text for the NSP OEC course.
c.
It is to be used by instructors to teach students the basic concepts of care.
d.
It supersedes local medical direction and management directives.

51.

Which of the following is not a role of OEC Technicians in the quality improvement process?
a.
Participating in training
b.
Being receptive to on-scene instructions given by another rescuer
c.
Blaming their partner for a mistake in care
d.
Participating in case reviews

52.

An autoimmune disorder is a self-destruction process in the body that can result in:
a.
acid reflux.
b.
diabetes.
c.
appendicitis.
d.
myocardial infarction.

53.

You are at a college football game when a bleacher collapses. Several injured people are walking
around with various injuries. Which of the following instructions is most appropriate for these
ambulatory patients?
a.
"Go outside and wait by the red fire truck in the parking lot."
b.
"Sit down here so I can do a quick assessment on you."
c.
"Put this yellow tag on your wrist and go outside to the red fire truck in the parking lot."
d.
"Leave the football stadium and go to the hospital. Others are hurt more seriously than you."

54.

Extremity lifts may not be tolerated by:


a.
obese and young patients.
b.
elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.
c.
patients with visual impairments.
d.
patients with ankle injuries.

55.

In order to become an "on the hill" Alpine patroller, you need to do all of the following except:
a.
complete the OEC course.
b.
successfully complete a written exam and a practical exam.
c.
demonstrate a level of skiing/boarding and toboggan handling proficiency.
d.
successfully complete a three-month candidacy program at your mountain.

56.

All of the following are types of quality improvement except:


a.
recurrent
b.
concurrent
c.
retrospective
d.
prospective

57.

The best strategy for wearing clothing in the winter months is to wear:
a.
one layer of multiple-purpose outerwear.
b.
two layers consisting of a base and an outer layer.
c.
three layers referred as a base and middle and outer layers.
d.
four layers referred as dermis, base, intermediate, and outer layers.

58.

There is a fight involving approximately 20 bar patrons. Weapons were used, and there are
varying degrees and types of injuries. The first person on scene has started assessing a person
lying on the floor with blood covering his shirt. Quick assessment reveals him to be breathing at 2
4 times per minute. Which of the following actions should be done next?
a.
Assist ventilation with a BVM.
b.
Check for a radial pulse.
c.
Attend to the next patient.
d.
Place a yellow tag on his wrist.

59.

Like a direct ground lift, a ________ lift is used to raise patients who are lying on their back.
a.
LEAN
b.
BEAN
c.
MEAN
d.
SEAN

60.

In order to maintain OEC certification, you must:


a.
complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year.
b.
complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every year.
c.
complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every three years.
d.
demonstrate CPR and AED skills every two years.

61.

Which of the following is not an attribute of an emergency care system?


a.
Equipment
b.
Public access
c.
Human resources
d.
Research

62.

The best natural material used in winter clothing is:


a.
cotton.
b.
wool.
c.
silk.
d.
polyester.

63.

A natural gas explosion has destroyed an apartment building. At least five occupants have been
killed and another 12 injured. You are in charge of triage and are presented with a young woman
who is breathing at a rate of 40 breaths per minute. Using the Simple Triage and Rapid
Transport (START) system for triaging, you should immediately:
a.
place a red tag on the patient and move on to the next patient.
b.
start assisting ventilation with a BVM.
c.
apply oxygen with a nonrebreather face mask.
d.
check for a radial pulse.

64.

With a BEAM lift, the patient is:


a.
assisted to a standing position.
b.
rolled onto a long board.
c.
lifted onto a short board.
d.
lifted and carried a short distance.

65.

Which of the following is not an ethical principle that OEC Technicians should follow?
a.
Do not provide an intervention that could cause further harm.
b.
Promote the health and well-being of others.
c.
Treat others as you would wish to be treated.
d.
Protect others and never let them refuse care.

66.

Which of the following is most effective for reducing the incidence of injury or illness in skiing or
other outdoor activities?
a.
Clinical care
b.
Public access
c.
Prevention
d.
Emergency personnel

67.

PPE (personal protective equipment) and durable goods should be disinfected per:
a.
the manufacturer's recommendations.
b.
the medical control protocol.
c.
the NSP protocol.
d.
your local ski patrol protocol.

68.

At the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, you are presented with a patient who is not breathing.
According to the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system, which of the following
actions should you take next?
a.
Place a red tag on the patient.
b.
Start assisting ventilation with a BVM.
c.
Open the airway.
d.
Place a black tag on the patient.

69.

Commercially produced products are favored for draw sheet lifts because they generally have:
a.
waterproof qualities.
b.
handles.
c.
stitched edges.
d.
insulating qualities.

70.

Good Samaritan laws generally:


a.
protect a ski patroller from being sued in every circumstance.
b.
apply to people who do not receive compensation for helping people.
c.
are the same in every state.
d.
provide enough protection so that you need not to know whether your mountain has insurance.

71.

Which of the following is not one of the four nationally recognized prehospital emergency care
provider levels?
a.
Emergency Medical Technician
b.
Advanced Emergency Medical Technician
c.
Outdoor Emergency Care Technician
d.
Emergency Medical Responder

72.

Which of the following SPF ratings would provide the greatest level of protection?
a.
6
b.
15
c.
30
d.
50

73.

You are triaging using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system and you find a
patient who is breathing 18 times per minute and has a radial pulse. Which one of the following
actions should you take next?
a.
Check the patient's mental status.
b.
Check the patient's blood pressure.
c.
Move the patient to the treatment area.
d.
Place a yellow tag on the patient.

74.

Of the four lift techniques OEC Technicians use, the draw sheet method:
a.
has the lowest risk of back injury to rescuers.
b.
requires the fewest rescuers to use.
c.
has the lowest rate of dropped patient incidents.
d.
is the safest for the patient.

75.

The failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person with similar training would
exercise in a similar circumstance is known as:
a.
negligence.
b.
assault.
c.
gross negligence.
d.
standard of care breach.

76.

Which of the following methods is the best method for ensuring that the treatment rendered by OEC
Technicians meets or exceeds customer expectations and national education standards for emergency
medical personnel?
a.
Public education
b.
Prevention training
c.
Continuity of care
d.
Quality improvement

77.

Each day the body loses ____ liter(s) of water through respiration, perspiration, and urination.
a.
1.0
b.
1.5
c.
2.0
d.
2.5

78.

In using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system of triage, which one of the
following patients should have a yellow tag applied before being moved to the treatment area?
a.
A male with a respiratory rate of 8, no radial pulse, and unresponsive mental status
b.
A female with a respiratory rate of 22 and a palpable radial pulse who squeezes your fingers when
instructed to do so
c.
A female with agonal respirations, no radial pulse, and unresponsive mental status
d.
A male with a respiratory rate of 40 and a palpable radial pulse who squeezes your fingers when
instructed to do so

79.

During transport, the patient must be properly positioned for comfort and to do no further harm.
The Semi-Fowler position places the patient in a:
a.
supine position with the legs raised 15 degrees.
b.
sitting position with the head raised 90 degrees.
c.
sitting position with the head raised 45 degrees.
d.
supine position with the legs raised 45 degrees.

80.

While you are alone and caring for an injured skier in the aid room, a fellow patroller calls and
tells you that your own young child was just injured in the terrain park. Concerned for your child,
you leave the patient's care unfinished and run to the terrain park. Your action could be viewed as:
a.
a breach of ethics.
b.
your duty to act.
c.
denial of care.
d.
abandonment.

81.

The seamless delivery of high-quality emergency medical care as a patient transitions from initial
contact with an EMT through definitive treatment best describes:

a.
b.
c.
d.

medical direction.
continuity of care.
integration of health services.
online medical control.

82.

Some vector-borne illnesses are transmitted to humans via:


a.
eating partially cooked foods.
b.
deer ticks.
c.
contact with human feces.
d.
sneezing and coughing.

83.

A teen involved in a multiple-casualty incident is found lying on the ground with an obvious
deformity to his left thigh. Using the START system for triage, you note that he is not breathing.
Which one of the following should you do next?
a.
Tag the patient as black, and then move on to the next patient.
b.
Provide the patient 30 seconds of assisted ventilation.
c.
Open the patient's airway and then check for a radial pulse.
d.
Give the patient a red tag and then move him to the treatment area.

84.

The high-Fowler position, in which the patient is seated with the head at 90 degrees, is typically
used for patients with:
a.
a fractured collar bone.
b.
abdominal injuries.
c.
eye injuries.
d.
severe respiratory problems.

85.

You arrive at the scene of an accident where a 22-year-old female skier has hit a tree and has a
large bleeding cut on her head. When you ask her if she needs help, she refuses care and says
she just needs to sit for a while. Noticing the amount of bleeding, you calmly express your
concern for her, but she continues to say she doesn't want help. You hesitate to touch her
because you are concerned that if you do, she could accuse you of:
a.
assault.
b.
battery.
c.
breach of duty.
d.
duty to act.

86.

The attribute of an effective emergency care system that focuses on assessing the effectiveness
of all 14 attributes of the emergency care system is:
a.
evaluation.
b.
medical direction.
c.
integration of health services.
d.
continuity of care.

87.

Influenza viruses can survive up to ______ on a hard surface.


a.
2 days
b.
12 hours
c.
24 hours
d.
4 days

88.

While in charge of triage at a scene involving 30 patients exposed to carbon monoxide, you find a
young female who is not breathing. After you open her airway and find that breathing does not
return, you should:
a.
provide her 15 seconds of assisted ventilation.
b.
place a black tag on her and move on to the next patient.
c.
provide her 15 seconds of CPR and recheck for a radial pulse.
d.
apply oxygen and check her mental status.

89.

Patients with chest pain due to a suspected heart attack are generally transported in ________
position.
a.
a supine
b.
a prone
c.
the Rothberg
d.
the semi-Fowler

90.

You have just finished your shift, and while driving home still wearing your patrol jacket you come
upon a car collision in which people appear to be injured. You recognize that if you approach the
collision wearing your patrol jacket, members of the public may have a reasonable expectation
that you will provide care. This expectation is known as:
a.
the absence of negligence.
b.
professional ethics.
c.
moral obligation.
d.
the doctrine of public reliance.

91.

Many emergency care systems deploy personnel to emergencies using a tiered approach. OEC
Technicians are most likely deployed in which tier?
a.
Tier 1
b.
Tier 2
c.
Tier 3
d.
Tier 4

92.

The practice of protecting yourself from disease transmission through exposure to blood and other
body fluids is referred to as:
a.
standard precautions.
b.
exposure control.
c.
personal protective equipment.
d.
body fluid precautions.

93.

When you are placed in charge of the treatment unit at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident,
which of the following four patients will you treat first?
a.
A confused 69-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 40 and a rapid and weak radial pulse
b.
An elderly female patient with a femur fracture and a yellow tag on her wrist
c.
A 21-year-old male who goes into cardiac arrest
d.
A 13-year-old boy who walked to the treatment area complaining of a severe headache

94.

The first step in packaging a patient is:


a.
deciding how to get the patient and equipment off the hill.
b.
Typically placing the patient's injury uphill.
c.
deciding the fastest route of transport.
d.
deciding who will be in the handles of the toboggan during transport.

95.

While in the aid room treating a patient with a fractured wrist, the patient tells you that he was
skiing on a slope that was too difficult for him, and that he started going too fast and got out of
control. You recognize that this information must be documented on the accident report because it
provides evidence of:
a.
gross negligence.
b.
assumption of risk.
c.
contributory negligence.
d.
willful negligence.

96.

Critical care providers who bring advanced life support equipment, therapies, and interventions to
the scene are typically deployed in what tier?
a.
Tier 1
b.
Tier 2
c.
Tier 3
d.
Tier 4

97.

A communicable disease is:


a.
any of a number of diseases that is deadly once contracted.
b.
a disease that can be spread from one person to another.
c.
a disease that is caused and spread by coughing only.
d.
a disease for which no immunization or treatment exists.

98.

In most EMS systems, a multiple-casualty incident involves:


a.
2 or more patients.
b.
10 or more patients.
c.
20 or more patients.
d.
50 or more patients.

99.

The uphill positioning principle has exceptions. For patients with breathing difficulty the patient
should be placed either seated or uphill depending on other injuries. The uphill concept allows
easier breathing because:
a.
the ribs have greater flexibility of movement in the uphill position.
b.
air flows more easily through a patient's nose compared to a head-downhill position.
c.
it calms patients by enabling them to see where they are going during transport.
d.
of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.

100.

Which of the following statements concerning "standard of training" is true?


a.
Acting within the "standard of training" is fundamental to reducing an OEC Technician's legal risk.
b.
"Standard of training" is the same thing as "standard of care."
c.
"Standard of training" includes the mountain area's protocols.
d.
"Standard of training" includes your state's laws and procedures.

101.

Which of the following is the umbrella under which every facet of health care is sheltered?
a.
Community wellness programs
b.
Research
c.
The emergency care system
d.
Public health

102.

Which one of the following techniques is the single best technique that OEC Technicians can use to
prevent the spread of infection?
a.
Disinfecting their equipment
b.
Wearing gloves
c.
Washing their hands
d.
Getting immunizations

103.

Which of the following statements reflects a proper understanding of an OEC Technician's role at
the scene of a multiple-casualty incident?
a.
The OEC Technician will be in charge of providing direct medical care.
b.
The role of the OEC Technician will be to transport patients.
c.
The OEC Technician will be in charge of triage and the transport of patients.
d.
The role of the OEC Technician will vary depending on the exact situation.

104.

Shock patients who are not having difficulty breathing are placed head downhill because doing so:
a.
increases perfusion to vital organs.
b.
increases the heart rate.
c.
increases blood pressure.
d.
decreases blood pressure.

105.

Although not required in OEC 5th Edition, your local mountain protocol states that any time you use
a backboard you should always treat the patient as having a neck/back injury and apply a cervical
collar. You recognize that this mountain-specific requirement is called a:
a.
standard of training.
b.
standard of care.
c.
medical standard.
d.
duty to act.

106.

Written instructions that indicate what should be done in a given situation are best described as:
a.
regulations.
b.
protocols.
c.
indirect medical oversight.
d.
direct medical oversight.

107.

Which of the following tasks is the first component of a scene size-up?


a.
Identify the number of patients involved.
b.
Determine the MOI.
c.
Determine whether additional resources are needed.
d.
Scene safety.

108.

Of the five functional areas within the ICS structure, the first to be established should be:
a.
the operations section.
b.
incident command.
c.
the planning section.
d.
the logistics section.

109.

A woman who is six months pregnant and experiencing back pain should be placed on a
backboard and then placed in a toboggan in which of the following positions?
a.
In a supine position
b.
Positioned on her left side
c.
With her head uphill
d.
With her head downhill

110.

Which of the following is not considered a form of patient consent?


a.
Informed consent
b.
Minor consent
c.
Implied consent
d.
Absolute consent

111.

Which of the following tips is not a part of common radio etiquette?


a.
Speak directly into the microphone.
b.
Hold the transmit key in for 12 seconds before speaking.
c.
Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds.
d.
Do not use the patient's name.

112.

Which of the following actions is not a method for ensuring scene safety?
a.
Conducting a scene size-up
b.
Calling for risk management personnel
c.
Placing skis in an "X" uphill of the scene
d.
Having a bystander stand uphill of the incident site

113.

The primary function of the Incident Commander is to:


a.
provide overall leadership and direction.
b.
investigate and document the cause of the incident.
c.
obtain supplies needed to care for all patients.
d.
ensure that radio communications are established.

114.

Transporting a patient using a basket litter:


a.
requires four to six rescuers.
b.
involves towing it behind a motorized vehicle.
c.
requires one patroller at the front and one patroller on the tail rope.
d.
can be achieved using a chairlift.

115.

When you approach an injured skier and ask, "May I help you?" and she replies "Yes," you interpret
this "expressed consent" to mean that:
a.
you can examine and treat the patient.
b.
you can examine, treat, and transport the patient.
c.
you can only examine the patient.
d.
you can only ask the patient to provide a history.

116.

When speaking to another person over the airwaves, the use of radio codes:
a.
decreases confusion in communication.
b.
is preferred so that the public cannot understand your transmission.
c.
is discouraged because the codes are not universal to all public safety agencies.
d.
is required when everyone on your patrol is trained.

117.

A common MOI (mechanism of injury) that OEC Technicians will encounter is:
a.
a respiratory problem.
b.
a cardiac problem.
c.
altered mental status.
d.
blunt force.

118.

The Incident Commander has assigned you to be the Operations Section Chief. In this role you are
responsible for all of the following except:
a.
reducing immediate hazards.
b.
determining incident resource needs.
c.
participating in the planning process.
d.
determining incident objectives and strategy.

119.

A basket stretcher is the best method for transporting a patient:


a.
out of the back country.
b.
on an LSB in any terrain.
c.
with a fractured femur.
d.
who is extremely heavy.

120.

Upon finding an unconscious patient at the scene of a bad accident, your next step should be to:
a.
assume "implied consent" and begin to examine and treat the patient.
b.
delay your examination and ask other patrollers to respond as witnesses.
c.
delay your examination until you can locate a spouse or a friend of the patient.
d.
begin your assessment but not provide any treatment until another patroller arrives.

121.

What is 3:35 p.m. in military time?


a.
0335
b.
1535
c.
1335
d.
1735

122.

Who is in charge of a crime scene at your ski area?


a.
The area's operation manager
b.
The area's patrol director
c.
The area's risk manager
d.
The responding law enforcement officer

123.

In the Incident Command System, which of the following sections is responsible for maintaining all
incident reports except for financials?
a.
Logistics section
b.
Operations section
c.
Records section
d.
Planning section

124.

A device best used to transport a patient in a tight space is known as:


a.
a wheeled stretcher.
b.
a short board.
c.
a Kendrick extrication device.
d.
an evacuation chair.

125.

It is a busy Friday night in the aid room when a child arrives complaining of abdominal pain. The
child states that her parents dropped her off and that they are at the movies. You are
concerned because the child is a minor with no adult to give consent for treatment. You would:
a.
recognize that you need the parents' consent and try to reach them by phone.
b.
recognize that the child needs to be assessed and that there is implied consent to treat.
c.
recognize that you must have some adult's permission and try to locate an aunt or an uncle.
d.
do as much of an assessment as possible without touching the child to determine if a life-threatening
emergency exists.

126.

What time is 6:43 a.m. in military time?


a.
1843
b.
0643
c.
1243
d.
2343

127.

Some hazardous products can cause health problems if ingested or inhaled. Long-term inhalation
of asbestos can cause:
a.
kidney tumors.
b.
lung cancer.
c.
pancreatic cancer.
d.
colon cancer.

128.

The person responsible for maintaining equipment and ensuring that facilities meet specified
needs is the:
a.
Operations Chief.
b.
Logistics Chief.
c.
Maintenance Chief.
d.
Planning Chief.

129.

An appropriate landing zone (LZ) for safely landing a helicopter is an open area that is
approximately:
a.
75 feet x 100 feet.
b.
100 feet x 100 feet.
c.
100 feet x 200 feet.
d.
200 feet x 200 feet.

130.

You are skiing down your favorite slope and notice a small group gathered around a middle-aged
man sitting on the ground. You note that the boarder is holding his wrist and appears in pain.
He agrees to have you examine him but then refuses any more help. You explain the possible
consequences of not splinting the wrist and of the boarder trying to get down the mountain without
help. This explanation of the risk of refusing care is provided in order to:
a.
demonstrate that you know how to treat a wrist injury.
b.
diminish your risk of being accused of abandonment.
c.
reduce your risk of an accusation of battery.
d.
help the patient understand why you are about to put the splint on anyway.

131.

What do you say using the NATO Phonetic Alphabet to ensure that the letters SMD are
understood?
a.
"Saltine Mary Diamond"
b.
"Saltine Mike Delta"
c.
"Sierra Mike Delta"
d.
"Sierra Mary Diamond"

132.

After scene safety is established in a trauma situation, what is the next important thing to
determine?
a.
MOI
b.
NOI
c.
SAMPLE
d.
ABCDs

133.

Which of the following is not a key characteristic of facilities utilized in an Incident Command System?
a.
They should be situated in public view so that they are easily located.
b.
They must grow be able to grow in size as needed.
c.
They must be accessible to incident personnel.
d.
They must be located in a secure, safe area.

134.

Ideally an LZ should be flat (horizontal) or have a slope that is less than or equal to:
a.
a 4-degree pitch.
b.
a 6-degree pitch.
c.
an 8-degree pitch.
d.
a 12-degree pitch.

135.

The type of consent that is based on an appreciation and understanding of the facts, implications,
and possible future consequences of an action is known as:
a.
implied consent.
b.
educated consent.
c.
expressed consent.
d.
informed consent.

136.

There is generally at least a two-week period before one experiences the early flu-like symptoms
of rabies. Effective medical treatment for rabies should occur within:
a.
24 hours.
b.
1 year.
c.
10 days.
d.
1 month.

137.

In the Incident Command System, the section responsible for maintaining injury, death, and
damage documentation as well as maintaining reimbursement records is the:
a.
planning section.
b.
operations section.
c.
logistics section.
d.
finance/administration section.

138.

During helicopter landing or takeoff, only the _______ is(are) allowed in the LZ.
a.
OEC Technician and the patient
b.
landing coordinator
c.
patrol director
d.
risk manager

139.

Which of the following descriptions is the best example of expressed consent?


a.
A 37-year-old man who is found unresponsive
b.
A 52-year-old skier who comes to the aid room and asks for help
c.
A 19-year-old male who appears to be intoxicated and lets you examine him
d.
A man who asks you to help his unresponsive 29-year-old diabetic wife

140.

Cross contamination occurs when:


a.
you touch multiple patients without changing your gloves.
b.
patients do not wash their hands after using a restroom.
c.
you touch a second patient after changing your gloves.
d.
patients inject themselves with a needle they have used before.

141.

A formal, organized method for managing an incident, regardless of its cause, size, scope, or
complexity, is called:
a.
a multi-agency coordination system.
b.
a federal incident management system.
c.
an incident command system.
d.
an emergency strike team.

142.

After a landing helicopter is safely on the ground, one may approach the aircraft only when
signaled by the:
a.
pilot or crew chief.
b.
landing coordinator.
c.
Fire Department chief.
d.
senior police officer on the scene.

143.

What type of consent would apply for an unresponsive 28-year-old male victim of a motorcycle
collision?
a.
Expressed consent
b.
Implied consent
c.
Informed consent
d.
Assumed consent

144.

Adisinfection involves the use of:


a.
a bleach solution consisting of cup of bleach to 1 gallon of water.
b.
a bleach solution consisting of 2.5 tbs. of bleach to 1 gallon of water.
c.
1 quart of a solution with a pH of 7.
d.
an EPA-registered sterilizing chemical or a 1:100 solution of household bleach

145.

In the Incident Command System, the operations section is responsible for:


a.
collecting, assessing, and distributing incident-related data.
b.
executing the strategy of the Incident Action Plan.
c.
providing financial management.
d.
providing support for all functional areas.

146.

When approaching a helicopter, whether it is running or not, always do so from the:


a.
front.
b.
back.
c.
left side.
d.
right side.

147.

A situation in which an OEC Technician leaves a patient before the patient's care is transferred to
another qualified individual is considered:
a.
negligence.
b.
breach of duty.
c.
abandonment.
d.
assault.

148.

In the acronym "START," the letter "S" stands for:


a.
selective.
b.
safe.
c.
simple.
d.
sophisticated.

149.

Which of the following instructions for approaching a running rescue helicopter is not correct?
a.
Remain in an upright position and move slowly.
b.
Remain low.
c.
Remove any loose clothing.
d.
Remain in sight of the pilot at all times.

150.

Although regulations may differ from state to state, the general laws that may protect OEC
Technicians from liability while providing emergency care to a patient are known as:
a.
emergency rescue protection laws.
b.
Good Samaritan laws.
c.
volunteer rescue liability laws.
d.
first rescuer liability laws.

151.

When handling a mass-casualty incident, you use triage to:


a.
do the most good for the most people.
b.
work on all injured parties.
c.
minimize the cost of responding to the incident.
d.
do the most good for a limited number of people.

152.

An urgent move is required when:


a.
a patient is in severe pain.
b.
the rescuer and the patient must move to a safer location.
c.
a crowd of people has formed around you and the patient.
d.
the patient complains of being cold on a 10-degree day.

153.

When properly trained in the START system, an OEC Technician should be able to complete a
patient assessment in no more than:
a.
90 seconds.
b.
45 seconds.
c.
60 seconds.
d.
30 seconds.

154.

In most instances, an urgent move is performed:


a.
only after additional help has arrived.
b.
only when Medical Control orders it.
c.
before any assessment has been performed.
d.
after the primary and secondary assessments have been completed.

155.

Which of the following tasks is not a responsibility of the Incident Commander?


a.
Triaging the injured patients
b.
Establishing the Incident Command Post
c.
Determining the incident strategy
d.
Providing overall management of the incident

156.

The greatest risk posed by an urgent move is:


a.
not getting the patient's name and address.
b.
changing the position of the patient and causing a risk-management investigation.
c.
delaying interventions for life-threatening conditions.
d.
incurring a lawsuit by the patient.

157.

All of the following are functional areas of the Incident Command Structure except:
a.
Planning
b.
Operations
c.
Transportation
d.
Finance

158.

To use an urgent move called the shoulder drag, you should:


a.
grab one arm at the shoulder and drag the patient to a safe position.
b.
stand behind the patient and grab the patient's belt while their shoulders are against your chest.
c.
stand upright behind the patient, bend over, and then grab the patient under the armpits and drag.
d.
grab the patient's clothing at the shoulders, support the head, and then bend your knees and drag the
patient.

159.

The most widely used triage categorization system in the world is "ID-ME." This acronym
represents the four specific triage categories used by NATO forces, National Disaster Life Support,
public safety agencies, and search and rescue groups. The ID-ME triage categories are:
a.
immediate, delayed, maximum, and exceptional.
b.
immediate, delayed, minimal, and expectant.
c.
immediate, detain, minimal, and expectant.
d.
immediate, delayed, minimal, and exceptional.

160.

For a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the least desirable urgent move for OEC Technicians
to use is the:
a.
feet drag.
b.
blanket drag.
c.
shoulder drag.
d.
underarm-wrist drag.

161.

The best non-urgent move for OEC Technicians to use when alone is the:
a.
human crutch.
b.
chair carry.
c.
fore and aft carry.
d.
back carry.