Saab 340 Systems Study Cards

Printable Flash Cards
Page 1 of 100
Term 1
Definition 1
What does the

OXYGEN light
on the CWP
indicate?
That O2 system pressure is below 800

psi (+/- 35)
Term 2
Definition 2
The O2 gauge in the cockpit

indicates ____________?
Fixed bottle pressure
Term 3
Definition 3
How is O2 made available to the

passengers?
The O2 pull knob must be ON (or

pulled UP)
Lift the pax O2 valve on the F/Os
aft side panel
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Page 2 of 100
Term 4
Definition 4
What is the normal charging

pressure in the O2 bottle?
1850 psi
Term 5
Definition 5
At what speed can the crew hatch be

opened?
160 knots max
Term 6
Definition 6
A reason to open the crew hatch

inflight is ______?
Smoke removal
Page 3 of 100
Term 7
Definition 7
Which doors are connected to the

warning system?
Crew hatch, Main cabin & Cargo door
Term 8
Definition 8
What doors can be opened

from the inside as well as
the outside?
All of them.
Term 9
Definition 9
What supplies the pnuematic system?
HIGH or LOW pressure bleed air,

alternately.
Page 4 of 100
Term 10
Definition 10
Pnuematic air operates which

systems?
Pressurization, air conditioning & boot

de-ice
Term 11
Definition 11
LP bleed air is the normal source for

pnuematics
True or False?
True
Term 12
Definition 12
When is the only time HP

bleed air is automatically
supplied?
When LP bleed air is insufficient.

(Ng is <80%)
Page 5 of 100
Term 13
Definition 13
What 5 things cause the HP bleed

valve to close?
Bleed air from precooler is too

hot (>288C)
HP switch selected OFF
Loss of Elec power
Ng is > 80%
Fire handle is pulled
Term 14
Definition 14
How do you open the HP valve after is

closes for an over temp when the duct
cools?
HP valve to RESET, then AUTO
Term 15
Definition 15
What does the amber L/R HP HIGH

light on the overhead panel mean?
The HP valve failed to close

after being given a signal to
close.
Page 6 of 100
Term 16
Definition 16
The overhead HP HIGH light

illuminates with what other
light?
AIR COND light on the CWP
Term 17
Definition 17
LP & HP bleed valve are electrically

actuated.
True or False?
False.
They are pnuematically operated.
Term 18
Definition 18
Bleed valve switch on the

A/C panel placed in AUTO
means _________?
Valve automatically
regulates air into the
manifold as a function of
altitude.
Term 19
What 6 things cause the LP bleed

valve to close?
Page 7 of 100
Definition 19
The pressure is too high

(>43.5psi)
The bleed air temperature is too
hot (>288C)
ACM discharge is too hot (>255C)
Fire handle is pulled
Bleed switch selected OFF
Term 20
Definition 20
What indicates that the bleed valve

failed to close after a signal was
given?
The BLD FAULT light and

the AIR COND light on the
CWP illuminate
Term 21
Definition 21
What indicates a bleed closed?
Overhead BLD CLOSED light plus AIR

COND on CWP
Term 22
BLD FAULT light may indicate:

________, ________, &_______
Page 8 of 100
Definition 22
The valve failed to close

The bleed pressure was too high
(illuminates, then goes out when
bleed valve closes)
The bleed air temp was too hot
(illuminates and remains on,
bleed valve closes)
Term 23
Definition 23
When does the BLD FAULT light

extinguish?
When the temperature is below limits
Term 24
Definition 24
The main function of the precooler?
The precooler (RAM air heat

exchanger) lowers the HP
bleed air temperature. A
separate flow through the
precooler accomplishes LP
bleed air cooling for use by
pneumatic deice systems.
Page 9 of 100
Term 25
Definition 25
If ELEC power to the LP

BLD valve fails, it fails to
the __________ position.
Open
(HP valve fails closed)
Term 26
Definition 26
How is it possible to
interconnect the two bleed
systems?
Via the cross valve (X VALVE) in the

manifold
Term 27
Definition 27
The X VALVE may be opened inflight

True or False?
False
It is only for ground operations
Term 28
Page 10 of 100
Definition 28
Set these switch positions:

What is required to open the X
VALVE?
X VALVE switch to OPEN

One bleed valve must be closed
Term 29
Definition 29
What indicates a hot bleed air leak?
Overhead BLD LEAK light

illuminates, plus the amber
AIR COND light on CWP
Term 30
Definition 30
Where is the hot air bleed

air leak detection loop
installed?
Between the engine nacelles and the X

VALVE
Page 11 of 100
Term 31
Definition 31
The overhead L/R DUCT OV TEMP

light means?
The ACM compressor outlet is too hot

(>225C)
or the duct temp is too hot (>82C)
Term 32
Definition 32
What 4 things cause the AIR

COND light on the CWP to
illuminate?
Bleed air temperature too hot

Bleed air leak
Bleed valve closed
LP/HP valve not closed after
given a signal to close
Term 33
Definition 33
Will a bleed air leak close the LP bleed

valve?
No.
(Bleeds should be closed. If BLD AIR
LEAK light fails to go out, an engine
shutdown may be necessary.)
Page 12 of 100
Term 34
Definition 34
The RECIRC FAN light indicates?
The fan is operating at <80%
Term 35
Definition 35
When will the RECIRC FAN light

extinguish?
Once the fan speed increases over

80%
Term 36
Definition 36
What cools the RECIRC FAN?
BLD AIR
Term 37
Page 13 of 100
Definition 37
During takeoff, up to acceleration

altitude.
When can the RECIRC FANs

operate without BLD AIR?
(If the fan is left running

without BLD AIR more than
10 min depending on OAT, a
thermal switch will shut off
the fan until the temp
decreases and switch
resets.)
Term 38
Definition 38
What is indicated by the AVIONICS

VENT FAN light?
The vent fan has failed.
Term 39
Definition 39
What does the CABIN

PRESS light on the CWP
means?
Cabin altitude above

10,000ft or differential
pressure exceeds 7.5 psi
Page 14 of 100
Term 40
Definition 40
The avionics vent fan draws air from

the _______?
Cabin
Term 41
Definition 41
The FAULT light on the

center consol cabin
pressure control panel
indicates?
A system failure
OR
ON for 3 seconds during system self
test
Term 42
Definition 42
AIR COND on the CWP

illuminates with any caution
light except?
L/R RECIRC FAN
Term 43
Page 15 of 100
Definition 43
AUTO PILOT & FLIGHT DIRECTOR

AUTO TRIM light on CWP indicates
_______ ?
Autopilot detects a failure in

the elevator or rudder trim
systems
Term 44
Definition 44
Will the auto pilot operate if

the Flight Director fails?
No.
Term 45
Definition 45
Will the auto pilot operate if

the Flight Director is turned
off?
Yes.
Page 16 of 100
Term 46
Definition 46
GO-Around displays a pitch

command of ___ degrees on
the ______ ?
6.4 degrees on the EADI
Term 47
Definition 47
When is half bank inhibited?
In approach mode after APPR

LOC/VOR capture
Term 48
Definition 48
1/2 bank limits?
Reduces bank from 27 to

13.5 degrees in HDG & NAV
mode
Page 17 of 100
Term 49
Definition 49
Which modes on the MSP

should not be selected in
icing conditions?
VS & Climb.
Use only IAS when climbing in icing
conditions.
Term 50
Definition 50
What turns the AP off?
Term 51
What turns the Yaw Damper off?
A/P disconnect on yoke

A/P switch on center console
operating pitch trim switches
Go Around buttons on power
lever
Definition 51
A/P disconnect on yoke

A/P disconnect on center
console
Go Around bottons on power
levers
Term 52
A flashing red box with the

letters FD on the EFIS
means?
Term 53
Page 18 of 100
Definition 52
A failure of the flight director.

(V bars also disappear)
Definition 53
A/P Not Authorized:
Auto pilot limitations?
Term 54
What will automatically disengage the

A/P?
During takeoff <500ft or

Acceleration Altitude
Speeds <1.3 stall in HDG mode
In severe icing conditions
Alt <50ft below MDA on nonprecision app OR <50ft below DH
on an uncoupled ILS
Alt <50ft AGL on coupled ILS in
VFR or better wx
Alt <69ft AGL on coupled ILS
wen wx is <VFR
Definition 54
Stall warning computer or AP/YD

failure detected
Term 55
Page 19 of 100
Definition 55
ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
What are the 4 separate parts of the

ELEC system?
Term 56
Two 28v DC engine driven

generators
115/26v AC inverter
Emergency DC power (lead acid
battery)
Two AC Wild frequency 115v
engine driven generators
Definition 56
The AC Wild 115v generatros are used

for ______ .
Powering Ice Protection systems
Term 57
What drives each respective AC Wild

generator?
Definition 57
They are driven by the prop gearbox.
Term 58
How are the DC generators cooled?
Page 20 of 100
Definition 58
Via a fan on the ground and ram air

when airborne
Term 59
Definition 59
An overhead GEN OV TEMP light

means?
The associated generator has

overheated (150C)
Term 60
Definition 60
What is indicated by the

illumination of the L/R MAIN
BUS light?
The associated MAIN BUS is not

powered.
Term 61
What AC power is lost when

the L MAIN BUS is not
powered?
Term 62
Page 21 of 100
Definition 61
Loss of the #1 or main 115/26v

INVERTER
(Rt bus powers #2 inverter)
Definition 62
During engine start when the L/R

GEN busses are not powered
(ESS & MAINS load shed)
When does the L/R main bus light
illuminate?
When MAIN BUS relay has

tripped due to a tripped GEN
Term 63
Definition 63
What is indicated by the L/R GEN

light?
The GEN relay is open.

The GEN is disconnected
from the GEN BUS and is
offline.
Term 64
The 2 starter generators are

rated at ____ volts each.
Term 65
Page 22 of 100
Definition 64
28v DC
Definition 65
One.
Provides engine electrical power only.
(ESS)
How many alternators are on each
engine?
Term 66
Definition 66
How many generators are on each

engine?
Two.
Starter/generator and AC wild
generator.
Term 67
What are the functions of the GCU?
Term 68
How does the GCU control & protect

the DC system?
Term 69
The starter generators are rated at

___ amps each.
Page 23 of 100
Definition 67
Excites field
Voltage regulation for control &
protection of the DC system
against faults
Controls engine start cycle
Definition 68
If generator parameters are not correct

OR if the fire handle is pulled, the GCU
cuts out the generator by opening the
relay which disconnects the generator
from the associated GEN BUS.
Definition 69
400
Term 70
Page 24 of 100
Definition 70
600 amps for 5 minutes, then 400

amps
What are the starter generator amp
limits?
Term 71
How is the GEN field relay reset?
Term 72
To connect a generator to
the GEN BUS, Ng must be
above ____ ?
Definition 71
The respective switch is set to RESET
Definition 72
55% Ng
(Starter cut out)
Term 73

illumination of the L/R ESS
BUS light?
Term 74

illumination of the L/R BAT
light?
Page 25 of 100
Definition 73
The associated bus is not powered.
Definition 74
The associated BAT relay is open
Term 75
Definition 75

illumination of the L/R BAT
lights?
The associated BAT relays are open

(Battery disconnected)
Term 76

illumination of the BAT HOT
light?
Term 77
Takeoff is prohibited with the BAT

HOT light on.
True or False?
Term 78
Takeoff is prohibited when

the BAT temp is 67C and
the BAT HOT light is not on.
True or False?
Page 26 of 100
Definition 76
The associated BAT temp is

excessive.
(>71C)
Definition 77
True.
Definition 78
True.
Takeoff is prohibited when BAT temp
exceeds 64C
Term 79
What is indicated by the NO BAT

START light?
Term 80
Takeoff is prohibited with a NO BAT

START light.
True or False?
Term 81
A BAT temp of >71C

automatically disconnects
the battery.
True or False?
Page 27 of 100
Definition 79
L or R BAT temp exceeds 57C
Definition 80
False.
(Unless the BAT temp exceeds 64C)
Definition 81
True
Term 82
Page 28 of 100
Definition 82
False.
To read external power, the
EXT PWR switch must be
ON.
True or False?
Voltage should be checked

via the volt meter before it
is aplied to the aircraft
Term 83
Definition 83
The blue EXT PWR AVAIL light

indicates?
Term 84
White EXT PWR ON light indicates?
External power is available

(At least 7v for light to illuminate)
Definition 84
Ext power is ON and the left battery

bus is powered.
(When EXT OWR is applied, it is the
only source of power to the aircraft.)
Page 29 of 100
Term 85
Definition 85
EMER PWR light on the DC elec panel

indicates?
The EMERG PWR bus is unpowered

OR
Lead acid BAT emergency power
<24v
Term 86
Definition 86
Can the 71C (BAT HOT)

thermal switch be
overriden?
Yes.
In an emergency, the BAT switch can
be placed to OVRD which assures
power to GEN bus.
Term 87
Definition 87
INVERTER light on the overhead AC

panel indicates?
The selected inverter has failed

OR
The switch is in the OFF position
Page 30 of 100
Term 88
Definition 88
L/R AC GEN light on the

overhead AC elec panel
indicates?
The associated AC GEN has failed or

dropped off line
Term 89
Definition 89
Will the CWP ELEC light

come on with a L/R AC GEN
light?
No.
The CWP ICE PROT light will
illuminate
Term 90
Definition 90
Three:
How many 24v batteries are on the
Saab 340?
One lead acid

Two NiCad
Term 91
Does the BAT automatically

disconnect with a BAT hot
light?
Page 31 of 100
Definition 91
Yes.
Term 92
Definition 92
What does the illumination

of the green BUS TIE light
mean?
The relay joining the left

and right GEN buses is
closed
Term 93
Definition 93
What are the 3 reasons the BUS TIE

closes?
To conect the two main batteries

To supply the L/R GEN BUS
when EXT PWR is ON
To supply 28v power to both L &
R GEN BUS from only one
generator during single engine
ops
(Anytime there is less than
1 GEN online, the BUS TIE
should be closed.)
Page 32 of 100
Term 94
Definition 94
What is the purpose of the

BUS TIE over current relay
protection?
Protects the main distribution system

in case of a short in the system
Term 95
Definition 95
The BUS TIE relay opens if

the over-current exceeds
_______ ?
Term 96
Is there any time the 800

amp over current relay can
be exceeded?
800 amps
Definition 96
Yes.
During engine start
Page 33 of 100
Term 97
Definition 97
Generators automatically
disconnect when EXT PWR
is applied.
True.
True or False?
Term 98
What 5 things can be powered by the

EMERG BAT?
Term 99
Definition 98
Master warning system

BUS TIE relay CONN function
Fire Detection
Tailpipe Hot detection
EMERG volatge indication
Definition 99
False.
During preflight, all the exterior lights
may be checked using BAT power.
Only the L fwd nav, R rear

nav & beacon function in
BAT power.
True or False?
Term 100
What is required to close the Utility

Bus relay?
Term 101
Is EXT PWR connected to

the R GEN bus via the BUS
TIE relay?
Term 102
How is the battery compartment

ventilated?
Page 34 of 100
Definition 100
At least two generators online

OR
External power
Definition 101
Yes
Definition 102
Via a fan on the ground and RAM air

inflight
Term 103
Page 35 of 100
Definition 103
Yes
Will external power de-energize the
BAT relays?
Term 104
When a GEN relay closes, which bus

is powered?
Term 105
(unless the BAT switches

are in OVRD, a maintenance
only function to charge
them)
Definition 104
The associated GEN bus.
Definition 105
1. EXT PWR relay open

2. Engine start complete
3. GEN field reset
Three conditions for a GEN relay to
close?
Term 106
Below ___ volts, EXT PWR

drops offline and the switch
spring loads to OFF.
Term 107
What is the lowest EXT

PWR voltage during engine
start?
Term 108
During engine start, if EXT

PWR drops off line will the
start continue?
Page 36 of 100
Definition 106
Approx 10 volts
Definition 107
Approx 7 volts
Definition 108
Yes, it will continue on batteries.
Term 109
The L BAT is connected to the ____

bus.
Term 110
What bus charges the batteries?
Term 111
The R BAT is connected to the _____

bus.
Page 37 of 100
Definition 109
The START BUS
Definition 110
Its respective GEN BUS with at east 1

GEN online.
Definition 111
The R GEN BUS
Page 38 of 100
Term 112
Definition 112
When does the EMERG BAT

begin to power the EMERG
BUS?
When the L BAT BUS drops below 24

volts
Term 113
Definition 113
The EMERG BUS
What powers the EMERG Avionics

Bus?
Term 114
What items are powered by

the EMER AVIONICS BUS?
(Powered via the L BAT

BUS when the ESS AVION
switch is ON. Otherwise it
will seek power via the led
acid battery)
Definition 114
VHF / COM 1
&
standby horizon
Term 115
Min prop rpm to keep the

AC Wild
generator online?
Term 116
On taxi out, why would you see an AC

gen light on?
Page 39 of 100
Definition 115
About 1,000 rpm
Definition 116
Prop rpm dips below 1,000 rpm
Term 117
Definition 117
Why is it a "Wild" frequency AC

system?
Frequency varies
460 - 640 Hz due to prop rpm
variations
Page 40 of 100
Term 118
Definition 118
How do you reset an AC

gen if prop rpm drops below
1,000 and gen drops
offline?
Resets are automatic when rpm

increases to 1,000
Term 119
Definition 119
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
What 6 items are powered
by the AC Wild GEN
busses
Term 120
Pitot tubes
AOA sensors
OAT probe
Prop De-Ice
Windshield heat
Galley hot jugs.......
(Yes, you need a prop
turning at 1,000 rpm to keep
the coffee hot even with the
hot jug warmer switch
"ON"!)
Definition 120
No.
Is the ENG intake anti-ice

powered by the AC Wild
GEN bus?
It gets its power directly off

its respective AC Wild GEN.
(That is why during a AC
GEN failure, intake heat
cannot be powered by the
opposite side.)
Term 121
What 3 conditions must be

met for a battery relay to
close?
Term 122
What is an indication of a
malfuntioning GEN?
Term 123
Page 41 of 100
Definition 121
1. BAT switches ON
2. EXT PWR OFF
3. BAT temp below 71C
Definition 122
Fluctuation, blinking or complete

loss of more than one EFIS
display.
WEU status light illumination
Low voltage can cause a loud
squeal from the audio system
REU.
Definition 123
No
When a GEN OV TEMP light
comes on, doesthe gen
automatically disconnect?
The affected GEN must be manually

taken offline.
(Look for BUS TIE relay closure)
Term 124
Page 42 of 100
Definition 124
FIRE PROTECTION
AVIONIC SMOKE on the CWP

indicates?
Smoke has been detected in the

Avionics Bay
Term 125
Definition 125
How long will the Avionic

(or Cargo or Lav) somke
light stay on?
Term 126
How long will the L/R ENG

FIRE light remain
illuminated?
As long as the smoke condition exists
Definition 126
As long as the fire exists
Term 127
L/R FIRE DET FAIL light on the CWP

indicates?
Term 128
Actions required to
discharge either engine fire
bottle?
Page 43 of 100
Definition 127
A short circuit is detecetd in the fire

loop on the related engine.
Light will remaim illuminated for as
long as the condition exists.
Definition 128
1. Fire handle pull

2. Fire Extingusher switch ON
Term 129
Definition 129
Overhead white CARGO EXTG light

indicates?
Low pressure is detected in the

respective bottle
Page 44 of 100
Term 130
Definition 130
What kind of fire protection is

available for the avionics rack?
A halon fire extinguisher in the cockpit

(Discharge into the Avionic rack port
behind Captain)
Term 131
Definition 131
What kind of fire protection is

available in the lav?
An automatically
discharged halon fire
extinguisher in the trash
bin.
(Halon discharged via a heat sensitive
blow out plug)
Term 132
What is the MIN time

between firing CARGO FIRE
EXTG #1 & #2?
Definition 132
2 minutes
(To prevent excessive pressure
buildup within the compartment and
risk blow out panel rupture, leaking
halon into the cabin)
Page 45 of 100
Term 133
Definition 133
25 minutes
What is the normal wait time before

firing CARGO FIRE EXTG #2?
Discharge of the 2nd bottle

within 25 minutes of the
first increases fire
suppresion time limit to 60
minutes over 40 minutes
from bottle #1 alone
Term 134
Definition 134
If the bottle is functioning normally, it

should not.
When a cargo fire extinguiisher is
activated, will the CARGO EXTG light
come on right away?
It can take 15 minutes for

the while EXTG light to
illuminate
Term 135
What happens when the fire handle is

pulled?
(6)
Definition 135
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Fuel valve closes

GEN relay opens
Bleeds close
Arms the squibs
Resets the WEU
Fire bell cancelled
Page 46 of 100
Term 136
Definition 136
Can the R engine fire bottle

be discharged into the L
engine nacelle?
Yes
Bottles are connected via a manifold
to allow selective discharge to either
engine.
Term 137
Definition 137
FUEL SYSTEM
Four:
How many fuel pumps are
on the Saab 340 and how
are they powered?
Term 138
What controls the elec standby

pumps?
Two engine driven driven main

pumps
Two elec driven standby pumps
Definition 138
Overhead switches
&
Automatic switches in the CLs
Term 139
Page 47 of 100
Definition 139
Three:
How many ways can fuel quanitity be

checked?
Term 140
What elec bus powers the refueling

panel?
Term 141

illumination of the L/R STBY
PRESS light?
Cockpit fuel gauges

Refuel panel gauges
Wing tank dripsticks
Definition 140
Hot Battery Bus
Definition 141
Pump senses positive

pressure is sensed in the
fuel line.
(Directly or via crossfeed)
Term 142

illumination of the L/R MAIN
PRESS light?
Page 48 of 100
Definition 142
The associated main pump

is pressure differential is
low
(<6 psid)
Term 143
What happens is a main

pump fails or has low
pressure?
Term 144
What supplies fuel to the engine

during start?
Definition 143
The associated STBY pump is

acutuated
(Providing the switch is in
the normal
AUTO position)
Definition 144
The Standby Pump
Page 49 of 100
Term 145
Definition 145
During engine shutdown when the

main pump pressure drops, a CL
actuated switch will inhibit the
standby pump auto starting feature.
True
True or False?
Term 146
Definition 146
What is indicated by the blue fueling

light?
Term 147
Fuel gauges are calibrated

to show actual fuel
remaining.
The fueling/defueling panel is

powered
OR
The fueling/defueling valve is

open
Definition 147
False
They show useable fuel remaining.

True or False?
Term 148
Page 50 of 100
Definition 148
Fuel filter blockage

What is indicated by the L/R FUEL
FILTER light?
Term 149
"X FEED ON" indicates

switch position or valve
position?
Term 150
"CONN VLV OPEN"

indicates switch position or
valve position?
Bypass impending
Definition 149
Valve posiiton
Definition 150
Valve position
Term 151
Page 51 of 100
Definition 151
By moving a CL to the start position

How to do test a STBY fuel pump?
Term 152
The L/R VALVE closed light

indicates?
Term 153
(The associated green light should

illuminate)
Definition 152
The associated fuel valve is closed.
Definition 153
One.
How many ways can you close a

Fuel Shutoff Valve?
(Shut off valves in the wing prior to the

engine nacelle are powered by their
respective BAT bus when the fire
handle is pulled.)
Page 52 of 100
Term 154
Definition 154
L/R LOW LEVEL light on the Fuel

Panel indicates?
The associated tank is below 300 lbs

(+/- 70lb)
Term 155
Definition 155
What lights on the overhead

fuel panel do not cause an
amber FUEL light on the
CWP?
Term 156
FEED ON
CONN VLV OPEN
L/R STBY PRESS
Definition 156
5,690 lbs
What is the useable fuel quantity?
Term 157
Where are the STBY fuel pumps

located?
Term 158
The fuel vent also serves as an

overflow.
Page 53 of 100
Definition 157
Inside each respective wing tank

hopper.
Definition 158
True
True or False?
Term 159
Can one STBY pump supply

enough fuel to operate both
engines?
Definition 159
Yes.
Page 54 of 100
Term 160
Definition 160
How is fuel transferred between

wings?
By gravity via the interconnect line.
Term 161
Definition 161
No
Does the green STBY PRESS light
indicate the respective pump is on?
Term 162
Only that positive pressure

is sensed at the pump inlet.
Definition 162
HYDRAULICS
Main reservior is too hot (>116C)
OR
What causes the CWP HYDR light to
illuminate?
Main or Emergency accumulator

pressure is low
(<1,850 psi)
Page 55 of 100
Term 163
Definition 163
Why might the hyd fluid get

too hot and trigger the CWP
HYDR light?
Continuous pump operation
Term 164
What aircraft systems use hydraulic

power?
Term 165
Definition 164
Landing gear
Flaps
Brakes
Nose Wheel Steering
Definition 165
Term 166
Page 56 of 100
Definition 166
True
The HYDR pump is electircally driven.
True or False?
Term 167
What systems can be

operated with the
emergency HYD hand
pump?
Term 168
L Main bus in AUTO and L BAT Bus* in

OVRD
(*on later modified a/c)
Definition 167
Flaps
Landing gear
Brakes
Definition 168
Landing gear operation

Main accumulator pressure
drops below 2100 psi
What triggers activation of the main
HYD pump?
(With pump switch in normal

AUTO mode)
Term 169
Page 57 of 100
Definition 169
4
How many HYD accumulators are
there?
(Main, EMERG, inboard brakes,

outboard brakes)
Term 170
Definition 170
What pressure is displayed on the

accumulators in the nose wheel well?
The sum of the nitrogen precharge

pressure plus pressure developed by
the HYD pump (if any).
Term 171
Definition 171
EMERG, inboard brake & outboard

brake
Which HYD accumulators have check
valves?
(All but the main as it

supplies gear, flaps, brakes,
steering)
Term 172
How does EMERG landing

gear extension use
hydraulics?
Term 173
What bus supplies power to

the HYD pump in AUTO?
Term 174
Page 58 of 100
Definition 172
HYD pressure disengages the

uplocks, allowing the gear to free fall
into position.
Definition 173
L MAIN BUS
Definition 174
No
Is there a circuit breaker for the HYD

pump?
(It is protected by a 200 amp fuse in

the
L Power Distribution Unit)
Page 59 of 100
Term 175
Definition 175
The main HYD reservoir is pressurized

by ____ ?
An internal spring backed up by

emergency uplock accumulator
pressure (to 35 psi in the reservior).
Term 176
Definition 176
The HYDR light on the CWP

indicates low fluid quantity.
False.
True or False?
(Only low main or emerg acc pressure

or high temp)
Term 177
Can the main hyd

accumulator be pressurized
by the hand pump?
Definition 177
Yes
Term 178
Can the emerg hyd

accumulator be pressurized
by the hand pump?
Term 179
Can the flaps be extended

and retracted by the hand
pump?
Term 180
Hydraulics are pressurized up to

_____ on OVRD.
Page 60 of 100
Definition 178
No
Definition 179
Yes
Definition 180
3,000 psi
Term 181
What systems are supplied with HYD

pressure from the emergency
accumulator?
Term 182
Fluid pumped with the hand

pump returns to the main
reservoir
Page 61 of 100
Definition 181
Landing gear uplock release

&
Main reservior pressure to assist
spring
Definition 182
True
True or False?
Term 183
Definition 183
Term 184
Page 62 of 100
Definition 184
ICE & RAIN PROTECTION
What ice protection systems use BLD

air?
Term 185
What is powered
automatically when the first
AC GEN comes online?
Term 186
What is indicated by the DE

ICE OV TEMP light on the
overhead Ice Protection
panel?
Boot de-ice
Engine splitter lip
Inlet guide vanes
Definition 185
L/R pitot heat

L/R Alpha vane / AOA
OAT probe
Definition 186
Bleed air to the boots is too hot

(>150C)
Term 187
What is indicated by the TIMER light

on the overhead ice protection panel?
Term 188
If the TIMER light is on, how do you

test to see if it resulted from a timer
malfunction?
Page 63 of 100
Definition 187
A pressure problem or a timer

malfunction
Definition 188
The TIMER light will

extinguish if the
W OUTBD button is pushed
and illuminates again when
released.
Term 189
Definition 189
What is the order of boot

inflation when one cycle is
selected?
Stabilizer, outboard wing, inboard

wing, stabilizer
Term 190
How is boot inflation monitored?
Term 191
In CONT mode, inflation boot cycles

repeat every ___________ .
Term 192
Page 64 of 100
Definition 190
Via the green indicator lights on the

overhhead
ice protection panel
(When the BOOT IND switch is on)
Definition 191
Every third minute
Definition 192
Yes
Will the boots inflate if LP &

HP bleed valves are closed?
Regulated, temperate air is

sent directly to the boot
distribution duct via a valve
in each engine nacelle.
Page 65 of 100
Term 193
Definition 193
Term 194
Definition 194
What does the

L/R AIR VALVE
light indicate?
Term 195
What ice protection

systems have a light on the
flight status panel?
The associated AIR VALVE is not

properly positioned in accordance
with the switch selection.
Definition 195
Engine Anti-Ice
&
Prop De-Ice
Page 66 of 100
Term 196
Definition 196

illumination of the L/R AC
GEN light?
The associated AC GEN has dropped

offline
Term 197
Definition 197
False
The R AC GEN can power the L intake
heat.
True or False?
Term 198
The blue PROP DE-ICE light

on the flight status panel
will go out in case
of a system failure.
Intake heat is the only thing

that cannot be powered by
the opposite side AC GEN.
Definition 198
True
True or False?
Term 199
What is the time cycle for the props in

NORM?
Page 67 of 100
Definition 199
ON for 11 seconds, OFF for 79

seconds
Term 200
Definition 200
What is the time cycle for the props in

MAX?
ON for 90 seconds, then OFF for 90

seconds
Term 201
Definition 201
The blue L/R ENG ANTI-ICE light on

the flight status panel will go out in
case of a system failure.
True or false?
False.
(Indicative of switch position.)
Page 68 of 100
Term 202
Definition 202
What is the only item on the ice

protection panel that is not powered
by the AC wild system?
The STBY PITOT heat

(24V)
Term 203
Definition 203
How long must the STBY PITOT heat

be on to reach full operating
temperature?
5 minutes
Term 204
Definition 204
How long must the window heat be on

to reach full operating temperature?
6 minutes
Page 69 of 100
Term 205
Definition 205
How many phases of the

115v AC wild GEN output
are required to power the
pitot, alpha & OAT?
One
Term 206
Definition 206
How many
phases of the
115v AC wild
GEN output are
required to power
the windshield
heat?
Two
Term 207
Definition 207
How many phases of the

115v AC wild GEN output
are required to power the
prop heat?
All three phases
Term 208
Page 70 of 100
Definition 208
A failure has occured in the

engine duct heating system.
illumination of the L/R
INTAKE light?
Term 209
(An intermittent
INTAKE light may
indicate
operation in
under heat or
over heat
condition)
Definition 209
LANDING GEAR
EMERG gear extension is

by free fall or use of hand
pump.
True
True or False?
Term 210
Definition 210
What does the anti-skid need to

function?
Anti-Skid switch ON, LDG gear handle

down plus
power levers below flight idle
OR
wheel speed in excess of 50 knots
Term 211
What is the touchdown brake

protection feature?
Page 71 of 100
Definition 211
Prevents brake application

until 3 seconds after main
gear compression
OR
Wheel speed exceeds 50 knots
Term 212
Definition 212
Anti-Skid system cuts out at

approximately ___ kts.
20 knots
Term 213
Definition 213
A-SKID INOP light on CWP indicates?
A system fault
OR
Gear is down with anti-skid switch
OFF
Page 72 of 100
Term 214
Definition 214
Which CWP light comes on

if the gear is not down
below 500ft RA?
CONFIG
Term 215
Definition 215
PARK BRK ON light on the CWP

indicates?
Brake handle is pulled with a psi of

>1700
Term 216
Definition 216
Is it possible to set the

brake without the CWP light
coming on?
Yes
(Brake will set with 1500 psi but light
will not illuminate until 1700 psi)
Page 73 of 100
Term 217
Definition 217
Where is the Anti-Skid switch located?
On the HYD panel, center console
Term 218
Definition 218
EMERG gear extension & nose wheel

steering are powered by what bus?
L & R BAT bus
Term 219
Definition 219
Nose wheel steering is ______

actuated
and ________ operated.
Electrically, Hydraulically
Page 74 of 100
Term 220
Definition 220
Which CWP light comes on

with > flaps 15 and gear
not down?
CONFIG
Term 221
Definition 221
What happens when you

pull the EMERG LDG GEAR
handle?
HYD pressure from the EMERG

accumulator releases the
uplocks
A path for HYD fluid is opened
for the fluid to drain to the
reservior
Explosive bolts detonate and
separate the main gear doors
from the gear, which extends and
locks via gravity, slipstream
force & springs.
Term 222
Definition 222
MISC
The EES powers "DINg"
What is powered by the EES?
DECU
Ignition exciters
Ng indication
Page 75 of 100
Term 223
What is powered by the DECU?
Definition 223
TRQ indication
ITT indication
Np indication
CTOT & APR functions
Bottom Governing
Auto-Ignition
1572 PRPM overspeed drain
valve
Term 224
Definition 224
Where does the EES get its power?
Engine driven alternator on the prop

gearbox.
Term 225
Definition 225
What are the 3 ways to feather the

propellers?
1. Condition levers
2. Autocoarsen
3. Manual feather
Term 226
What are the 4 levels of

prop
overspeed protection?
Term 227
What are the indications of a failed

DECU?
Page 76 of 100
Definition 226
Constant speed governor (set by

oil pressure)
Overspeed governor (dumps oil
to lower RPMs)
1572 rpm overspeed (temporary
DECU controlled flameout, with
auto relight)
110% Ng overspeed (HMU cuts
off fuel, with no auto relight)
Definition 227
Zero TRQ
Zero Np
ITT reads raw data
Term 228
Definition 228
In order to operate the APR function,

what other systems must be
functioning?
Autocoarsen and CTOT
Page 77 of 100
Term 229
Definition 229
What are the 4 fucntions of the HMU?
1. Metered fuel for base governing

2. Unmetered fuel for Engine AntiIce/Start Bleed Valve operation
3. 110% Ng overspeed protection
fuel cut off
4. Fuel cut off via the CLs
Term 230
Definition 230
When are you in bottom governing

range?
CLs are at MIN

PLs are below flight idle
830-1040 rpm
Term 231
Definition 231
What is the constant speed governor

range?
1150-1396 PRPM
Page 78 of 100
Term 232
Definition 232
Why can't the prop be

moved to unfeather when
the prop oil is below 25C?
Because the bottom governor won't

engage unless the seal in the HMU has
been warmed. Prop oil heats fuel, fuel
warms the seal on the torque motor
servo piston and it expands. During
the time the seal is leaking fuel, the
bottom governor will not engage.
Term 233
Definition 233
What happens if you lose

the oil pressure in the prop
control unit?
You get a fixed pitch prop
Term 234
Definition 234
What are the 6

amber lights on
the overhead that
are not
associated with
the CWP?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
NO BAT START
X VLV OPEN
X FEED
CONN VLV OPEN
L RECIRC
R RECIRC
(there are 7 if you count the F/A CALL

button too)
Page 79 of 100
Term 235
Definition 235
What indications will you

see if the FI stop knob is
inadvertantly pulled during
flight?
Both the amber & blue FI

stop lights on the flight
status panel will illuminate.
Term 236
Definition 236
What causes the cabin

emergency lighting system
to illuminate?
A loss of power to the R main bus
Term 237
Definition 237
Using a HP on the ground for cabin

cool down is prohibited between ____
and ____ degrees
0C - 15C
Page 80 of 100
Term 238
Definition 238
What voltage will kick off the GPU?
<10v or >31v
Term 239
Definition 239
Maximum time for starter

engagement?
Term 240
70 seconds, 30 of which may be

motoring.
Definition 240
940C ITT
Max Continuous power limitations?
TQ - Green arc
Ng - Red line
Np - Red Line
Page 81 of 100
Term 241
Definition 241
Max ITT for engine start?
965C
Term 242
Definition 242
940C ITT (for 5 minutes)

OR
950C ITT (for 2 minutes)
Limitations for takeoff power with
APR?
Term 243
TQ - Red line
Ng - Red line
Np - Red Line
Definition 243
917C (for 5 minutes)

OR
927C (for 2 minutes)
Takeoff power limitations?
TQ - Green arc
Ng - Green arc
Np - Red line
Page 82 of 100
Term 244
Definition 244
What is rough air penetration speed

for the Saab?
Va= 190kts up to FL210

Va= Vmo - 30kts above FL210
Term 245
Definition 245
Max airspeed for flaps 7 or 15?
175 knots
Term 246
Definition 246
Max airspeed for flaps 20?
165 knots
Page 83 of 100
Term 247
Definition 247
Max airspeed for flaps 35?
140 knots
Term 248
Definition 248
MTOW?
29,000 lbs
Term 249
Definition 249
Max Ramp Weight?
29,300 lbs
Page 84 of 100
Term 250
Definition 250
MLW?
28,500 lbs
Term 251
Definition 251
MZFW?
26,500 lbs
Term 252
Definition 252
On takeoff or landing an
pitch of _____ degrees will
cause a tail strike.
13 degrees
Page 85 of 100
Term 253
Definition 253
Max operating altitude?
25,000 feet
Term 254
Definition 254
Min takeoff and landing altitude?
-1,000 ft
Term 255
Definition 255
Max takeoff and landing altitude?
8,000 feet
Page 86 of 100
Term 256
Definition 256
Min temperature for take off?
-55C
Term 257
Definition 257
Max temperature for takeoff?
47C (-1,000 to 1,500 ft pressure alt)

33C (at 8,000 ft pressure alt)
Term 258
Definition 258
Runway slope limits for takeoff?
-2% to +1.5%
Page 87 of 100
Term 259
Definition 259
Runway slope limits for landing?
-2% to +2%
Term 260
Definition 260
Max tailwind?
10 knots
Term 261
Definition 261
Flaps UP load limit?
+2.75g to -1.0g
Page 88 of 100
Term 262
Definition 262
Flaps DOWN load limits?
+2.0g to 0g
Term 263
Definition 263
Vlor?
150 knots
Term 264
Definition 264
Vloe?
200 knots
Page 89 of 100
Term 265
Definition 265
Va?
180 knots
Term 266
Definition 266
Max operating KIAS:

Vmo?
Term 267
250 knots (up to 16,000 ft)

232 knots (at FL200)
210 knots (at FL250)
Definition 267
Minimum control speed in landing

configuration:
(flaps 20 or 35):
Vmcl?
103 knots (B+ model)
106 knots (B model)
Page 90 of 100
Term 268
Definition 268
Max Altitude for unpressurized flight?
10,000 feet
Term 269
Definition 269
Max cabin differential pressure?
7.5 psi
Term 270
Definition 270
Max cabin differential pressure in

AUTO mode?
7.1 psi
Page 91 of 100
Term 271
Definition 271
Max negative differential pressure?
-0.5 psi
Term 272
Definition 272
Max differential pressure for landing?
0.2 psi
Term 273
Definition 273
Max airspeed for windshield wipers on

HIGH?
160 knots
Page 92 of 100
Term 274
Definition 274
Max airspeed for windshield wipers on

LOW?
130 knots
Term 275
Definition 275
What a/c lights operate on the 5

minute timer?
Cargo & Entry
Term 276
Definition 276
How do you test the bus tie?
With both engines running

and both GENs online,
select a GEN switch to OFF.
Bus Tie should illuminate.
Page 93 of 100
Term 277
Definition 277
What part of the stall warning system

is inhibited when the L/R STALL FAIL
light cones on?
Stick pusher operation
Term 278
Definition 278
Are the trim tabs controlled

mechanically?
No
They are all electrically controlled
Term 279
Definition 279
When the trim switches on the yoke

are activated, which elevator trim tab
is actuated?
The Left geared servo tab.
Page 94 of 100
Term 280
Definition 280
Can you pump down the

flaps if no electrical power
is available?
No
The flap selector valve to direct HYD
fluid is electrically operated.
Term 281
Definition 281
What is the problem if there

is a loss of background
color on the EADI & ATT?
What should you do?
An AHRS failure.
Select XSIDE data.
Term 282
Definition 282
If both EFIS tubes on the

F/Os side go dark, what has
happened?
A DPU failure.
Select DRIVE XFER on the F/Os EFIS
switch
What do you do?
Page 95 of 100
Term 283
Definition 283
What items are on the

EMERGENCY AVIONICS BUS?
VHF COMM #1
&
STBY ADI
Term 284
Definition 284
A F R O G (115v)
What is powered by the 115v/26v AC

inverter?
ACARS
Flight data recorder
Radar Stabilization
Overhead Panel Lights
GPWS
plus VOR flags & RMI flags (26V)
Term 285
Definition 285
(Think "FEABLE RAT")
What items are powered by the HOT

BAT BUS?
Fire handle
Engine fire bottle
AHRS backup power
BAT vltage indication
Lights (dome, cargo, entry)
Extinguisher (cargo)
Refueling panel
ACARS back up power
Time (clocks)
Page 96 of 100
Term 286
Definition 286
(Think WEBALLS)
What things are powered from the

EMERGENCY BUS?
Term 287
Warning system back up power

Emergency voltage indication
Bus tie relay connect function
Audio system back up power
L/R engine fire detection
L/R engine tailpipe hot detection
Stanbyinstrument lighting
Definition 287
(think "RGAP")
What warnings are let
through during Takeoff
Inhibit mode?
Term 288
What do you need for the CTOT to

work?
Red lights
Gust lock
Autocoaren
Parking brake
Definition 288
DECU (sends signal to torque

motor)
Torque Motor (fuel injection to
CTOT valve beyond that selected
by PLs)
"ON" or "APR" selected
Power levers beyond 64 PLA (to
arm CTOT)
Term 289
What do you need for the APR to

work?
Page 97 of 100
Definition 289
DECU (regulates torque motor

ops)
Torque Motor (fuel injection for
CTOT/APR functions)
CTOT/APR switch to "APR"
Power levers above 64 PLA
(arms APR)
Autocoarsen ON (must be ON to
send the ENG fail signal and
activate APR)
Term 290
Definition 290
Ice formation on the engine scroll

vanes is prevented by heating from
________________?
Hollow scroll vanes are heated with

hot scavenge engine oil.
Term 291
Definition 291
The manually controlled part of the

pressurization system is completely
___________ .
Pnuematic
Page 98 of 100
Term 292
Definition 292
During flight if you experience a loss

of TRQ & PRPM gauge indications and
have raw data erratic temperature
indication, what has happened?
A DECU failure.
Term 293
Definition 293
Anti-Skid is inhibited below what

speed?
Below 20 knots
(So as not to interfere with braking
and turns.)
Term 294
Definition 294
What causes an autocoarsen event in

HIGH mode?
One engine TRQ is >50%, with

other <50%
A difference of 25% TRQ between
engines
P3 on bad engine <120 psi
with the power levers above 64 PLA
Term 295
What causes an autocoarsen event in

LOW mode?
Page 99 of 100
Definition 295
Ng >55% on good engine

Ng < 55% on bad engine
Starter/Gen rpm <60% on bad
engine
Term 296
Definition 296
What happens if the switch is turned

off after an autocoarsen event occurs?
Uncoarsening of the prop
Term 297
Definition 297
During flight if you experience a loss

of TRQ, Ng & PRPM gauge indications
and have raw data erratic temperature
indication, what has happened?
A failure of the EES

(Loss of DECU will also occurs as it
powers it)
Term 298
Page 100 of 100
Definition 298

Saab 340 Systems Study Cards

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Printable Flash Cards

What does the

That O2 system pressure is below 800

The O2 gauge in the cockpit

Fixed bottle pressure

How is O2 made available to the

The O2 pull knob must be ON (or

Printable Flash Cards

What is the normal charging

At what speed can the crew hatch be

160 knots max

A reason to open the crew hatch

Printable Flash Cards

Which doors are connected to the

Crew hatch, Main cabin & Cargo door

What doors can be opened

What supplies the pnuematic system?

HIGH or LOW pressure bleed air,

Printable Flash Cards

Pnuematic air operates which

Pressurization, air conditioning & boot

LP bleed air is the normal source for

When is the only time HP

When LP bleed air is insufficient.

Printable Flash Cards

What 5 things cause the HP bleed

Bleed air from precooler is too

How do you open the HP valve after is

HP valve to RESET, then AUTO

What does the amber L/R HP HIGH

The HP valve failed to close

Printable Flash Cards

The overhead HP HIGH light

AIR COND light on the CWP

LP & HP bleed valve are electrically

Bleed valve switch on the

Printable Flash Cards

What 6 things cause the LP bleed

The pressure is too high

What indicates that the bleed valve

The BLD FAULT light and

What indicates a bleed closed?

Overhead BLD CLOSED light plus AIR

Printable Flash Cards

BLD FAULT light may indicate:

The valve failed to close

When does the BLD FAULT light

When the temperature is below limits

The main function of the precooler?

The precooler (RAM air heat

Printable Flash Cards

If ELEC power to the LP

Via the cross valve (X VALVE) in the

The X VALVE may be opened inflight

Printable Flash Cards

Set these switch positions:

X VALVE switch to OPEN

What indicates a hot bleed air leak?

Overhead BLD LEAK light

Where is the hot air bleed

Between the engine nacelles and the X

Printable Flash Cards

The overhead L/R DUCT OV TEMP

The ACM compressor outlet is too hot