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A. vagus nerve
C. hypoglossal nerve
B. spinal accessory nerve
D. glossopharyngeal nerve
P 791 24. In doing cricothyroidotomy, hemorrhage can occur from accidental injury to branches
of:
A. thyroidea ima artery
C. superior thyroid artery
B. superficial cervical artery
D. external laryngeal artery
P 795 25. In doing stellate ganglion block, the needle of the anesthetic syringe is inserted through
the skin over the carotid tubercle; this carotid tubercle is a part of:
A. cricoid cartilage
B. 1st rib
C. hyoid bone
D. 6th cervical vertebra
P 805 26. Due to the close proximity of their drainages in the nasal cavity, frontal sinusitis nearly
always involves this sinus:
A. maxillary
C. anterior ethmoidal
B. posterior ethmoidal
D. sphenoidal
P 664 27. The trigeminal nerve provides sensory innervation to the face except for a small area
which is supplied by the:
A. zygomaticotemporal nerve
C. great auricular nerve
B. lesser occipital nerve
D. auriculotemporal nerve
P 675 28. On its way to the tongue, the chorda tympani:
A. passes through the mastoid wall of the tympanic cavity
B. enters the infratemporal fossa through the petrotympanic fissure
C. join a branch of the posterior division of mandibular nerve
D. all of the above are correct
P 691 29. In the living subject, the foramen lacerum of the cranial fossa is closed inferiorly by
cartilage and fibrous tissue; above this closed inferior opening, foramen lacerum
receives the:
A. carotid canal
C. foramen cecum
B. condylar canal
D. inferior orbital fissure
P 705 30. The artery supplying the leg area of the cerebral cortex:
A. is the biggest branch of the internal carotid artery
B. passes in the longitudinal fissure of the cerebrum
C. is a component of the circulus arteriosus
D. all of the above are correct
P 665 32. The sensory nerve supplying the tip of the nose is the distal continuation of the:
A. infraorbital nerve
C. anterior ethmoidal nerve
B. long sphenopalatine nerve
D. buccal nerve
P 713 33. The following extraocular muscle is supplied by the most slender cranial nerve:
A. superior oblique
B. superior rectus C. lateral rectus D. none
P 724 34. The retina extends anteriorly as far as the:
A. ora serrata
B. ciliary processes
C. iris
D. limbus
P 727 35. True regarding the walls of the middle ear:
A. the inferior wall transmits a branch from glossopharyngeal nerve
B. the roof separates the middle ear from the temporal lobe of cerebrum
C. the posterior wall contains the origin of stapedius
D. all of the above are correct
P 805 37. Epistaxis usually occur upon rupture of the anastomosing branches of:
A. greater palatine and sphenopalatine arteries
B. sphenopalatine and superior labial arteries
C. greater palatine and maxillary arteries
D. facial and superior labial arteries
P 747 38. The vestibular ligaments of the larynx represent the inferior margin of the:
A. fibroelastic membrane of the larynx
C. quadrangular membrane
B. cricothyroid ligament
D. false vocal cords
P 796 40. Freys syndrome is due to damage to the following nerves:
A. auriculotemporal and zygomaticotemporal
B. zygomaticotemporal and zygomaticofacial
C. great auricular and auriculotemporal
D. chorda tympani and buccal branch of facial nerve
P 236 41. In the pelvic cavity, the ureter turns medially to enter the urinary bladder at the level of:
A. greater sciatic foramen
C. ischial spine
B. sacral promontory
D. upper border of symphysis pubis
P 306 42. In the Caldwell-Moloy pelvic classification, a transversely wide pelvis is:
A. gynecoid
B.platypelloid
C. android
D. anthropoid
P 317 43. Components of anorectal ring, except:
A. internal anal sphincter
C. puborectalis
B. external anal sphincter (deep part)
D. valves of Houston
P 298 44. The following branches of internal iliac artery pass through the greater sciatic foramen,
except:
A. superior gluteal
B. inferior gluteal C. internal pudendal
D. obturator
45. In the pelvic cavity, this structure lies at the apex of the V-shaped root of the sigmoid
mesocolon:
A. left ureter
C. superior rectal artery
B. origin of the internal iliac artery
D. sacral promontory
P 286 46. Boundaries of pelvic inlet, except:
A. sacral promontory
B. symphysis pubis
C. ischial spine D. arcuate line
P 323 49. Voluntary control of micturition is done at the level of:
A. internal urethral meatus
C. fossa navicularis
B. urogenital diaphragm
D. apex of the urinary bladder
P 363 50. The pudendal nerve:
A. has 3 major branches in the perineum
B. passes out from the pelvic cavity via the lesser sciatic foramen
C. enters the perineum via the greater sciatic foramen
D. none of the above is correct
51. Which of the following components of the respiratory tract wall increase/s in amount from
trachea to alveoli:
A. cilia
B. elastic fibers C. smooth muscle
D. cartilage
52. The presence of iron deposits in the cytoplasm of which of the following lung cell type is a
diagnostic feature of congestive heart failure:
A. Goblet cell
C. dust cell
B. pneumocyte Type II
D. Clara cell
53. In hypersensitivity reactions, this cell functions as an antigen-presenting cell in the skin:
A. keratinocyte B. Langerhans cell
C. melanocytes D. Merkels cell
54. Which of the following cell types comprises the visceral layer of Bowmanns capsule affected
in glomerular filtration disorders:
A. endothelial cell
C. mesangial cell
B. juxtaglomerular cell
D. podocyte
55. Which of the following hormone is most likely affected in hypothalamic tumors:
A. ADH
B. ACTH
C. FSH
D. TSH
A. aorta
C. thoracic duct
B. medium sized artery
D. vena cava
57. Diarrhea may result if which of the following organs fails to carry out its primary role in
absorbing water from the feces:
A. anal canal
B. colon
C. jejenum
D. ileum
58. Increase aqueous humor of the eye is due to the secretion by:
A. ciliary epithelium
C. Schlemms canal
B. choriocapillary layer
D. corneal endothelium
P 504 59. Contraction of the muscles of the forearm that commonly follows fractures of the distal
end of the humerus or fractures of the radius and ulna:
A. compartment syndrome of the forearm
B. Dupuytrens contracture
C. Volkmanns ischemic contracture
D. Bontonniera deformity
P 501 60. Fracture of the distal end of the radius which occurs from a fall on the back of the hand:
A. Colles fracture
C. Monteggias fracture
B. Smiths fracture
D. Bennetts fracture
P 495 61. A young boy sustained a superficial laceration in front of his right wrist which was
bleeding profusely. He had sensory loss over the palmar aspect of the medial 1
fingers but normal sensation on the back of these fingers over the middle and proximal
phalanges. Which of the following statements about the patient is true:
A. the radial artery was cut in front of the flexor retinaculum
B. the loss of skin sensation was caused by the injury to the ulnar nerve as it crossed
infront of the flexor retinaculum
C. there was no sensory loss in the palm of the hand because the palmar cutaneous branch
of the ulnar nerve was cut
D. this will lead to carpal tunnel syndrome
P 412 62. Which of the following is not part of the rotator cuff muscles:
A. infraspinatus B. subscapularis C. supraspinatus D. teres major
63. Tennis elbow is characterized by pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of the
humerus. It is caused by:
A. repeated friction between the anconeus and abductor pollicis longus
B. partial tearing of the extensor muscles from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
C. supracondylar fracture of the humerus
D. dislocation of the elbow joint
P 489 64. Klumpkes palsy is characterized by:
A. upper lesion of the brachial plexus
C. Waiters tip position
B. lower lesions of the brachial plexus
D. excessive traction or tearing of C5 & C6
P 485 65. Which blood vessel passes along the deltopectoral groove:
A. axillary artery
C. cephalic vein
B. suprascapular artery
D. basilica vein
P 561 66. Nerve supply of the anterior fascial compartment of the leg:
A. deep peroneal nerve
C. posterior tibial nerve
B. superficial peroneal nerve
D. sciatic nerve
P 622 68. A 17 year old boy was crossing a busy street when he was bumped by a car on the lateral part of his right
knee. X-ray showed a fracture of the head of the fibula. The patient was seen to be dragging his right foot and
catches his toes on the ground as he walks. Which of the following explains this:
A. the patient injured his common peroneal nerve
B. the medial meniscus was injured
C. skin sensation on the posterior leg is lost
D. the patient will not be able to plantarflex his right foot
P 581 69. The dostalis pedis artery lies between the tendons of extensor hallucis longus and:
A. peroneus tertius
C. extensor digitorum brevis
B. extensor digitorum longus
D. extensor hallucis brevis
P 595 70. Arch of the foot which consists of the bases of the metatarsal bones and the cuboid and the 3 cuneiform
bones:
A. medial longitudinal arch
C. transverse arch
B. lateral longitudinal arch
D. posterior arch
P 129 75. Pain in myocardial infarction is referred to the areas of distribution of the following spinal nerves:
A. C2 C4
B. C5 C6
C. T1 T4
D. T5 T9
P 111 76. In what division of the mediastinum is thoracic duct to the duct to the left side of the vertebral column:
A. superior
B. inferior
C. middle
D. posterior
P 130 78. A patient with cancer of esophagus develops hoarseness. This is suggestive of direct invasion of the
following structures:
A. larynx
C. left recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. nasal cords
D. bronchus
P 106 81. Sound of closure of the cardiac valve is heard best over the sternal end of right 4th intercostal space:
A. aortic
B. pulmonic
C. ventral
D. tricuspid
P 106 82. Apex beat has the some auscultation area as the following heart valve:
A. aortic
B. mitral
C. pulmonic
D. tricuspid
P 86 83. Composed the medial and lateral bronchopulmonary segments:
A. superior lobar
C. middle lobar
B. apical bronchopulmonary segment
D. inferior lobar
P 65 84. The cardiac area of dullness extends as far left as the:
A. midclavicular line
C. anterior axillary line
B. parasternal line
D. midaxillary line
P 64 85. At what reference line in the thorax would you find the lower border of the lung and its
visceral pleura at the lower border of the 8th rib:
A. midclavicular B. anterior axillary
C. mid axillary
D. scapular line
P 66 86. The base of an adult female breast extends up to the following:
A. lower border of clavicle
C. 2nd rib
st
B. 1 rib
D. 3rd rib
P 64 87. A stab wound in an the anterior chest wall just to the right of sternum at 4th ICS would most likely injure
the following structure:
A. superior vena cava
C. right ventricle
B. right atrium
D. inferior vena cava
P 800 89. A 48 year old female teacher was admitted to the hospital and diagnosed on a CT scan to have a
thrombosis of pontine vessels supplying the medial left sector of caudal pons. Expected
neurologic findings of the patient would be:
A. ipsilateral hemiplegia
C. inability to close the right eye
B. inability of the left eye to look laterally D. dysphagia
CLINICAL NEUROANATOMY for MEDICAL STUDENTS
By SNELL 5th edition
P 175 90. Initial manifestation of syringomyelia at the level of C6 T1 involves:
A. flaccid paralysis at the level of injury
B. positive Babinski reflex on the ipsilateral side
C. bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the upper extremities
D. bilateral proprioceptive loss
P 170 92. Upper motor neuron lesions involving the spinal cord can be produced by the damage to the:
A. spinothalamic tract
D. spinocerebellar tract
B. posterior columns
E. Lissauers tract
C. corticospinal tract
CLINICAL NEUROANATOMY for MEDICAL STUDENTS
By SNELL 5th edition
P 287 94. Stimulation of the middle frontal cortex (area *) of the cerebral cortex would most likely
produce:
A. contraction of the muscles of the contralateral leg
B. visual agnosis
C. auditory hallucination
D. conjugate eye movements
CLINICAL ANATOMY for MEDICAL STUDENTS
By SNELL 6th edition
P 322 95. The inferior angle of the trigone of the urinary bladder has opening/s for:
A. urethra
B. ureters
C. renal papilla D. ejaculatory ducts
P 375 96. Attached to the central tendon of perineum:
A. bulbospongiosus
C. superficial transverse perineal muscle
B. external anal sphincter
D. A,B,C
P363 98. The pudendal nerve and/or its branches have the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
A. traverse the pudendal (Alcocks) canal
B. enter the perineum through the lesser sciatic foramen
C. give origin to the posterior scrotal nerves
D. supply the ischiocavernosus muscle
E. arise from S1, 2 and 3 spinal nerves
P 335 100. The broad ligament contains all of the following , EXCEPT the:
A. round ligament of the ovary
D. uterine tubes
B. uterine artery
E. ureters
C. round ligament of the uterus
Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved
Application
1. A 60 year old man consults at your clinic with the complain of occasional deep-seated retrosternal discomfort
radiating to the left shoulder, 2 months duration, associated with exertion. Upon auscultation, you take note of
bradycardia and dysrthmia. By incidence, the slowly occluding vessel would be the:
A. Coronary sinus
B. Right Coronary artery
C. Circumflex artery
D. Anterior Descending artery
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 117, Clinical scenario Application)
2. A 70 year old chronic hypertensive patient consults with you regarding difficulty of swallowing solid food, 3
months duration. You proceed to request for a chest X-ray and note of a 0.7 cardio-thoracic ratio. As far as the
heart is concerned, the best explanation you can give the patient regarding her swallowing difficulty is:
A. Impingement of the vagus nerve by an overriding ascending aorta
B. Compression of the thoracis esophagus by an enlarged left atrium
C. Compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve underneath the aorta
D. Overly stretched pericardiophrenic and pericardiosternal ligaments, compromising swallowing
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 113, Clinical scenario Application)
3. In the emergency evacuation of a massive hemopericardium compromising cardiac and systemic circulation, the
best and safest area to make your access incision en route to the pericardial cavity is via:
A. 5th left ICS immediately lateral to the sternum
B. 7th left ICS immediately lateral to the sternum
C. 6th left ICS 10 cm from the midsternal line
D. Immediately subxiphoidal
Answer D. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 107, Clinical scenario Application)
Recall
1. A 70 year old male suffered massive myocardial infarction involving the right coronary artery. With your recent
knowledge, want part/s of the heart does the right coronary artery supplies?
A. SA node
D. right ventricle
B. AV node
E. All of the above
C. right atrium
Answer E. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 117, Clinical scenario Recall)
2. Which of the following nerve will most likely to be injured in surgical repair of a patent ductus arteriosus?
A. right phrenic
C. left phrenic
B. right recurrent laryngeal
D. left recurrent laryngeal
Answer D. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 117, Clinical scenario Recall)
3. If blood regurgitates back in the right atrium during systole. Which of the following valve is most likely to be
damaged?
A. Mitral
C. aortic
B. Tricuspid
D. pulmonic
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 117, Clinical scenario Recall)
Identify anatomic landmarks used in Physical examination
Recall
1. In the auscultation of heart valves, what valve is heard best behind the right half of the sternum opposite
the 4th intercostal space?
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Mitral valve
C. Pulmonary valve
D. Aortic valve
Answer: A (page 122)
2.
The Celiac artery arises from the abdominal aorta approximately at the level of:
A. T6
B. T8
C. T10
D. T12
Answer: D (Page 261)
Application
1.
A 25 year old female was hit on her left side by a car and thrown about 10 feet. Aside from multiple
fractures, the patient was diagnosed to have internal bleeding upon initial physical exam. What organ was
most likely injured?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Intestines
D. Spleen
Answer: D (Page294)
Given a laboratory finding/ radiographic finding, identify the structure involved
Application
1. Swallowed gas within the proximal GIT will almost always collect in this region, as appreciated on anteroposterior X-ray views of the abdomen:
A. Esophageal hiatus
C. cardia
B. Fundus
D. pylorus
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 234, X-ray findings Application)
Identify anatomic landmarks used in Physical examination
Recall
1. What part of the posterior cranial fossa occupies the central area of the floor and transmits the Medulla
oblongata?
A. Cerebellar fossa
B. Tentorium cerebelli
C. Foramen magnum
D. Foramen rotundum
Answer: C (Page 799)
Application
1. A 20-year old male was involved in a riot and was allegedly hit by a baseball bat at the back of the head.
What injury would the patient sustain?
A. Rupture of the Middle meningeal artery
B. A large tear in the Circle of Willis
C. Tearing of the Superior cerebral veins
D. Rupture of the Lenticulostriate artery
Answer: C (807)
2.
A 15-year old girl consulted because of a growing abscess on the side of her nose. The following
statements are true, Except:
A. The blood in the facial vein is unable to spread upward because of the presence of valves.
B. The danger area is drained by the facial vein
C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis can occur by the spread of infection by the venous blood
D. The facial vein communicates with the cavernous sinus via the superior and inferior ophthalmic
veins
Answer: A (Page 820)
Given a laboratory finding/ radiographic finding, identify the structure involved
Application
1. Ischemia due to thrombosis in the anterior spinal artery would affect the following sensory modalities of that
particular spinal segment, EXCEPT:
A. pain
C. temperature
B. light touch
D. proprioception
Answer D. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 945, Clinical notes)
Given a patient problem, identify errors in development (germ cell, cell division, genetic disorders)
Application
1. What congenital anomaly results from the failure of development of the spines and arches of one or more
vertebra?
A. Scoliosis
B. Anencephaly
C. Spina bifida
D. Lordosis
Answer: C (Page 953)
Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved
Recall
1. Bone will be able to heal properly as long as which of the following structures remains intact?
A. epiphysis
C. medullary cavity
B. endosteum
D. periosteum
Answer D. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 37, Clinical notes)
2. The muscle that initiates the first 15 degrees of shoulder abduction is the:
A. trapezius
C. subscapularis
B. supraspinatus
D. deltoid
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 490, Clinical notes)
3. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a loss of the median nerve function?
A. Dupuytrens contracture
B. Carpal Tunnel syndrome
C. Fracture of the spiral groove of the humerus
D. Fracture of the anatomical neck of the humerus
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.538 , Clinical scenario Recall)
4. Femoral neck fractures may disrupt which of the following vessels?
A. femoral artery
C. circumflex femoral artery
B. deep femoral artery
D. artery to the head of the femur
Answer C. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.628 , Clinical scenario Recall)
2. If the medial border of the cubital fossa is severed by a knife, which of the following structure most likely suffers
damage?
A. radial nerve
C. pronator teres
B. brachioradialis
D. ulnar nerve
Answer C. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.521 , Clinical scenario Application)
3. To maintain balance and prevent the hips from tilting and sagging in the unsupported side of the pelvis while
walking, the muscle involved is the:
A. gluteus maximus
C. piriformis
B. gluteus medius
D. quadratus femoris
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.609 , Clinical scenario Application)
Identify anatomic landmarks used in Physical examination
Recall
1. The bony protruberance on the dorsal aspect of the wrist is part of what bone?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Phalanges
D. Metacarpals
Answer: B (Page 468)
Application
1. A patient suffering from Wrist drop is most likely caused by injury to the:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Lateral cutaneous nerve
Answer: C (Page482)
2.
A patient suffering from Claw hand is most likely caused by injury to the:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Lateral cutaneous nerve
Answer: B (Page482)
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 72, 98, Clinical notes)
2. The driver of a van involved in a vehicular accident comes in with contusions in his anterior chest wall. On X-ray,
you check for rib fractures. The most likely portion of the rib to be fractured is the:
A. neck
C. anterior to the costal angle
B. attachments to its costal cartilages
D. posterior to the costal angle
Answer C. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 60, Clinical notes)
Identify anatomic landmarks used in Physical examination
Recall
1. The costal margin is the lower boundary of the thorax. It is formed by the cartilages of the:
A. 8th and 9th rib only
B. 9th and 10th rib only
C. 8th, 9th and 10th rib only
D. 8th, 9th,10th rib and the ends of the 11th and 12th rib
Answer: D (Page 67)
2.
The trachea extends from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage in the neck to approximately the level
of the:
A. 10th thoracic vertebra
B. Sternal angle
C. Xiphisternal joint
D. Suprasternal notch
Answer: B (Page 71)
A culdocentesis was performed on a 27-year old female suspected to have a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
She had a 10 week history of amenorrhea and presented with severe hypogastric pain. In culdocentesis,
blood pools in the area of the rectouterine pouch because:
A. It is the most dependent part of the entire peritoneal cavity
10
B.
Answer: C
posterior lobe
7. The thyroid gland synthesizes the following hormones, EXCEPT for the:
A. T3
C. calcitonin
B. T4
D. melatonin
Answer: D
Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved
Application
1. You are manipulating the external ear canal of a 6 year old boy, attempting to remove an insect using a cotton
bud. All of a sudden, the boy starts coughing continuously and the mother begins to show concern. You should
assure her that this is merely due to:
A. The insect beginning to enter the middle ear space
B. Stimulation of branches of the vagus nerve
C. Beginning effusion within the middle ear cavity due to the presence of the insect
D. None of the above
Answer B. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p.834 , Clinical scenario Application)
Recall
1. In chronic otitis media, the part of the ossicular chain that is usually first to undergo necrosis due to its poor
blood supply is the:
A. lenticular process of the incus
B. stapes footplate
C. capitulum of the stapes
D. manubrium of the malleus
Answer A. (Clinical Anatomy, 7th ed. R. Snell, p. 839, Clinical scenario Recall)
Identify anatomic landmarks used in Physical examination
Recall
1. The optic nerve enters the orbit passing through the optic canal is accompanied by the:
A. Ophthalmic artery
B. Suspensory ligaments of the eye
C. Ophthalmic vein
D. Trochlear nerve
Answer: A (Page 828)
2.
What structure in the middle ear separates the tympanic cavity from the meninges and temporal lobe of
the brain?
A. Floor of the middle ear
B. Anterior wall of the middle ear
C. Tegmen tympani
D. Mastoid antrum
Answer: C (Page 834)
Application
1. Inadequate treatment of otitis media can result in acute mastoiditis due to spread via what structure?
A. Semicircular ducts
B. Mastoid antrum
C. Petrous bone
D. Tegmen tympani
Answer: B (Page 842)
Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved
Histology
1. In an asthmatic person, you expect the peripheral blood smear to have higher than normal amount of:
A. Basophils
C. Lymphocytes
B. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophils
Answer: B
2. In a person with multiple abscess formation due to bacterial infection, you expect the peripheral blood smear to
show higher than normal values of:
A. Basophils
C. Lymphocytes
B. Eosinophils
D. Neutrophils
Answer: D
Given a clinical scenario, identify the structure involved
Histology
1. On surfaces constantly exposed to abrasion, such as the skin and esophagus, the most suitable epithelium that
can afford protection is:
11
A. simple squamous
B. transitional
Answer: C
C. stratified squamous
D. pseudostratified
Chest radiograph taken during the inspiratory phase of respiration will show a vertically elongated cardiac
shadow because :
a. the heart is compressed by the expanded lungs
b. the fibrous pericardium is adherent to the mediastinal pleura
c. parietal pericardium is fused to the central tendon of the diaphragm
d. of increased intrathoraic pressure
Chapter 3 Page 105
3.
Surfactant production is a function of which of the following cells of the pulmonary system?
a. pneumocytes type I
c. endothelium
b. pneumocytes type II
d. Clara cells
Chapter 3 Page 100
5.
The following are features of the right primary bronchus, EXCEPT that:
a. It is shorter
c. it is more vertical
b. It is narrower
d. It has 3 branches
Chapter 3 Page 90
6.
c. thoraic aorta
d. bronchial artery
7.
A blood clot detached from the right ventricular wall will likely cause obstruction to the blood vessel that
supply the following organ:
a. lungs
c. brain
b. kidney
d. liver
Chapter 3 Page 112
8.
Deoxygenated blood from the fetus is brough back to the maternal circulation through the following
blood vessels
a. ductus venosus
c. umbilical artery
b. umbilical vein
d. vitteline vein
Chapter 3 Page 111
9.
12
13
c. bulbourethral glands
d. seminal vesicles
14
36. Which of the following parts of the male reproductive system is supplied by a branch of the abdominal
aorta?
a. epididymis
c. seminal vesicles
b. vas deferens
d. prostate gland
Chapter 4 Page 179
37. The narrowest part of the male urethra is the:
a. Prostatic
b. membranous
Chapter 8 Page 436
c. spongy
d. external orifice
38. When doing hysterctomy one should be careful in cutting the following ligaments because it contains the
ovarian artery and veins and may cause bleeding if anadvertently cut
a. broad ligaments
c. round ligaments
b. suspensory ligaments
d. ovarian ligaments
Chapter 4 Page 397
39. This uterine ligament extends from the utherus to the labia majora
a. transverse cervical ligament
c. round ligament
b. uterosacral ligament
d. broad ligament
Chapter 7 Page 394
c. fibroblast
d. adipose cell
42. The type of specialized connective tissue which has a rigid consistency due to disposition of inorganic
salts:
a. cartilage
c. myeloid
b. bone
d. blood
Chapter Page
BACK
43. The spinal cord is anchored vertically to the coccyx by the:
a. denticulate ligament
b. cauda equina
Chapter 12 Page 143
c. filum terminale
d. ligamentum flavum
15
48. The fiber tract that coordinates the functions of cranial nevers II, IV and VI:
a. medial lemniscus
c. medial longitudal fasciculus
b. fasciculus gracilis
d. lateral lemniscus
Chapter Page
49. The efferent nucleus of the pupillary light reflex is:
a. lateral geniculate body
b. oculomotor nucleus
Chapter Page
c. Edinger-Westpal
d. trouchlear nucleus
50. CSF flows from the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle via:
a. Formina of Monro
c. cerebral aqueduct
b. Foramina of Magendie
d. Foramina of Luschka
Chapter 12 Page 947
51. Pain and temperature sensation from the head is received in the brainstrem by the:
a. mesencphalic nucleus of V
c. motor nucleus of V
b. trigeminal spinal nucleus
d. nucleus ambigous
Chapter Page
Source: Clinical Anatomy
Richard S. Snell 7th Edition (Lippincott Williams & Wilkins)
7. Postoperative hoarseness after thyroidectomy results if one of the recurrent nerves is accidentally cut while
ligating which of the following vessels?
A. superior thyroid artery
C. superior thyroid vein
B. inferior thyroid artery
D. middle thyroid vein
Page 746
9. Which of the following nerves is the largest branch of the lumbar plexus and supplies all the muscles of the
anterior fascial compartment of the thigh?
A. femoral
B. sciatic
C. obturator
D. deep peroneal
Page 621
10. A 50 year old male patient sustains an injury to the lateral aspect of the right knee. Due to the heavy impact on
the injured area the nerve most likely to be injured is likely to produce:
A. plantar flexion
C. dorsiflexion
B. knee flexion
D. foot enversion
Page 653, 655-660
11. The safest area to administer intramuscular medications in the gluteal area is at the
A. upper inner quadrant
C. lower inner quadrant
B. upper outer quadrant
D. lower outer quadrant
Page 608
12. The medial umbilical fold in the posterior surface of the anterior abdominal wall covers the
A. internal epigastric vessels
C. obliterated umbilical artery
B. remnant of the urachus
D. linea alba
Page 352
13. Which of the following is an example of a saddle joint?
A. carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
B. metacarpophalangeal joint of the index finger
C. shoulder joint
D. wrist joint
Page 17
16
15. All of the following statements about the adrenal gland are correct EXCEPT:
A. They are retroperitoneal organs.
B. Both adrenal veins drain into the inferior vena cava.
C. The superior adrenal arteries are branches of the inferior phrenic arteries.
D. They are innervated predominantly by preganglionic sympathetic fibers.
Page 290-291
16. Which is an INCORRECT statement about an intervertebral disc?
A. during aging, fluid within the nucleus pulposus is replaced by fibrocartilage
B. atlanto-axial joint possesses no disc
C. nucleus pulposus is most likely to herniate in an anterolateral direction
D. disc are thickest in the lumbar region
Page 929-932
17. After extensive surgical dissection in the posterior cervical triangle, drooping of the skin in the neck was noted
postoperatively. This is due to injury of what nerve?
A. trigeminal
C. spinal accessory
B. hypoglossal
D. facial
Page 771-773
18. Not found in the CNS
A. astrocytes
B. Schwann cell
C. bipolar cells
D. oligodendrocytes
24. Which of the following structures does not form the anterior surface of the heart?
A. right ventricle
B. right atrium
C. left ventricle
D. left atrium
Page 110
17
C. glossopharyngeal nerve
D. facial
Page 904
30. When a patient attempts protrusion of the tongue,the tongue deviates to the right. This would indicate
damage to which of the following nerves?
A. right glossopharyngeal
B. left accessory
C. right hypoglossal
D. left hypoglossal
Page 910
31. If a patient presented with a permanently dilated pupil, which one of the following nerves could be assumed to
be involved?
A. optic
B. sympathetic trunk
C. ophthalmic
D. occulomotor
Page 903
41. This histologic structure of the duodenum that neutralizes the highly acidic content of the stomach:
A. crypts of Leiberkuhns
C. Brunners gland
B. microvilli
D. glycocalyx
Page 633-635 Bloom and Fawcet
42. Extensor compartment of the leg
A. anterior compartment
B. lateral compartement
C. peroneal compartment
D. posterior compartment
18
Page 660
43. The thoracic duct passes through the diaphragm through the
A. aortic hiatus
C. caval foramen
B. esophageal hiatus
D. sternocostal hiatus
Page 62-64
44. Posterior to the neck of the pancreas this vessel is formed
A. inferior vena cava
C. portal vein
B. celiac trunk
D. thoracic duct
Page 262-263
45. The sternal angle is a useful landmark in counting the intercostal space and it corresponds to the level of
A. 1st costal cartilage
C. 3rd costal cartilage
nd
th
B. 2 costal cartilage
D. 4 costal cartilage
Page 67
47. Damage to the anterior division of the middle meningeal artery may results into what type of intracranial
hemorrhage
A. extradural hemorrhage
C. subdural hemorrhage
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. cerebral hemorrhage
Page 897
48. Granular leukocytes EXCEPT:
A. neutrophil
B. basophil
C. monocyte
D. eosinophil
50. Clinical findings of epistaxis, cerebrospinal rhinorrhea or exophthalmos is due to fracture of the
A. anterior cranial fossa
C. posterior cranial fossa
B. middle cranial fossa
D. none of the above
Page 798 802
51. The structure that serves as a landmark in doing pudendal block anesthesia through a transvaginal approach is
the:
A. iliac crest
C. ischial spine
B. ischial tuberosity
D. sacral promontory
Page 339 423
53. To what vein does the left ovarian vein drain into?
A. renal
C. portal
B. IVC
D. iliac vein
Page386
55. In doing thoracentesis, which of the following layers is not penetrated by the needle?
A. intercostal muscles
C. superficial fascia
B. endothoracic
D. visceral pleura
Page 61
59. The powerful extension of the thigh required when one is standing from the sitting position is the function of
the
A. gluteus maximus muscle
B. psoas major muscle
C. piriformis muscle
D. iliacus muscle
19
Page 603
60. The osseous labyrinth of the internal ear consists of the
A. vestibule
B. sacculus
C. semicircular duct
D. utriculus
Page 842
63. The main venous drainage of the heart is the
A. great cardiac vein
B. coronary sinus
C. azygos vein
D. inferior vena cava
Page 121
65. A patient with an isolated injury to the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve would present with
A. atrophy of the temporalis muscle on the affected side
B. flattened nasao-labial fold on the affected side
C. numbness of the cheek on the affected side
D. A and C only
Page 768
66. For a soccer player to have a strong kick he must develop his
A. hamstring muscles
C. quadriceps femoris
B. pes anserinus muscles
D. gluteal muscles
Page 624
68. A massive infarction of the heart involving the septum, apex, ventricle (left) is likely due to obstruction of the:
A. right coronary artery
C. L-ant. descending artery
B. circumflex artery
D. right interventricular\
Page 119-120
70. Fate of the Graafian follicle immediately after ovulation
A. corpus luteum
B. atretic follicle
C. corpus albicans
D. none of the above
Page 825-826 Bloom and Fawcett
71. Following a hard blow to the anterior shoulder, a weakness of the flexion of the arm at the shoulder joint
would suggest damage to which of the following muscles?
A. rhomboid major
B. supraspinatus
C. pectoralis minor
D. biceps brachii
Page 500 505
72. Loss of function of the muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg and the sole of the foot is associated
with paralysis of
A. tibial nerve
B. common fibular nerve
C. deep fibular nerve
D. superficial fibular nerve
Page 662
73. All of the following forms the boundary of the perineum, EXCEPT:
A. pubic symphysis
C. coccyx
B. ischial tuberosities
D. sacrospinous ligaments
Page 416
20
76. Which of the following muscles will be paralyzed if there is a lesion of the ulnar nerve?
A. medial two lumbricals and opponens pollicis
B. palmar interossei and adductor pollicis
C. dorsal interossei & lateral two lumbricals
D. medial and lateral lumbricals
Page 546
77. In males, the mucus-secreting glands found within the deep perineal pouch are the:
A. seminal cuneatus
C. Cowper's glands
B. Skene's glands
D. prostate glands
Page 435
79. The following is a subdivision of the posterior triangle of the neck
A. Digastric
C. Subclavian
B. Submental
D. Carotid
Page 730
81. The gastrohepatic ligament attaches to this part of the stomach
A. fundus
C. lesser curvature
B. greater curvature
D. none of the above
Page 219
82. The following are sources of blood supply of the stomach; EXCEPT:
A. right gastric artery
C. hepatic proper artery
B. left gastric artery
D splenic artery
Page 237
83. Lateral wall of middle ear:
A. tympanic membrane
B. tegmen tympani
C. carotid wall
D. ventricular wall
Page 834
84. Paranasal sinus that communicates with the nasal cavity through its opening in the superior meatus:
A. posterior ethmoidal
C. frontal
B. anterior ethmoidal
D. sphenoid
Page 863-864
85. This bone forms part of the nasal septum:
A. sphenoid
B. nasal bone
C. ethmoid
D. frontal
Page 790
21
C. VIII
D. X
Page 771-772
Page 477
98. The junction between the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue is marked by the
A. circumvallate
C. palatopharyngeal fold
B. sulcus terminalis
D. glossoepiglottic fold
Page 846
100. In the cardiac silhouette of a radiograph the right border of the heart is formed by:
A. right ventricle
C. left atrium
B. right atrium
D. pulmonary trunk
Reference:
A
Transection of the costocervical artery will disrupt blood flow to this artery
A. 2nd posterior intercostal
B. 3rd posterior intercostal
C. 2nd anterior intercostal
D. 3rd anterior intercostal
MPL:0.25
56
70
Penetrating stab wound at the root of the neck will likely injure the
A. arch of aorta
B. apex of lung
C. azygous vein
D. trachea
MPL:0.5
74
97
22
Embolus that forms in the left ventricle will may enter the ff: structure EXCEPT 121
A. arch of aorta
B. brachiocephalic artery
C. left pulmonary artery
D. right subclavian artery
MPL:1
Injury or disruption of the moderator band will also disrupt this part of the
conducting system
A. atrio-ventricular node
B. right bundle branch
C. left bundle branch
D. D. Purkinje fibers
MPL:0.5
116
116
10
13Rectus sheath hematoma sustained from trauma to the abdomen results from injury
to this vessel
A. inferior epigastric artery
B. deep circumflex iliac vein
C. superficial epigastric artery
D. superficial epigastric vein
MPL:0.33
164
14
172
15
An indirect inguinal hernia passes thru deep inguinal ring lateral to this structure
A. superficial epigastric artery
B. deep circumflex iliac artery
C. rectus abdominis
D. inferior epigastric artery
MPL:.0.5
194
16
18
Blunt trauma to the anterior abdominal wall will most likely injure this part of the
duodenum
A. first part ( superior)
B. third part (horizontal)
C. second part ( descending)
D. 4th part ( ascending)
MPL:0.25
133
624
243
23
19
This structure can be traced towards the base of the appendix and be used as
a guide for looking for the appendix
A. haustra
B. appendices epiplocae
C. taenia coli
D. mesoappendix
MPL:0.5
246
20The presence of mesocolon in this segment of large intestine also makes it prone 251
to volvulus
A. ascending colon
B. cecum
C. descending colon
D. sigmoid colon
MPL:0.5
21
22
23
268
24
268
25
275
26
281
27
28
This nerve accompanies the lumbosacral trunk as it descends into the pelvis
A. sciatic nerve
B. obturator nerve
C. pudendal nerve
259
265
351
350
24
29
Part of the urinary bladder that lie behind the upper border of the symphysis
pubis
A. Apex
B. base
C. neck
D. lateral surface
MPL:0.5
383
30
378
31
397
32
33
735
34
The pulsation felt anterior to the crus of the helix of the ear is
A. maxillary artery
B. facial artery
C. posterior auricular artery
D. superficial temporal artery
MPL:0.33
737
36
Branch of the maxillary division of trigeminal that supplies the skin of cheek
and nose
A. infratrochlear
B. external nasal
C. infraorbital
D. mental nerve
MPL:0.5
766
37
775
38
783
41
807
403
25
A. subarachnoid space
B. epidural space
C. subdural space
D. intracerebral
MPL:0.5
A
42
668
46
47
48
The thoracodorsal nerve is derived from this part of the brachial plexus
A. superior trunk
B. posterior cord
C. roots of plexus
D. medial cord
MPL:0.25
49
52
The cell that secretes Calcitonin which lowers blood Calcium level by inhibiting 315
the rate of decalcification of bone is:
A. Follicular
B. Principal
C. Parafollicular
D. Oxyphil
MPL:0.5
54
The phase of the Menstrual cycle that coincides with the functional activity
of the corpus luteum and primarily influenced by progesterone secretion:
A. Menstrual
B. Luteal
C. Proliferative
D. Secretory
MPL:0.5
55
The properties of motility and ability to fertilize an oocyte are acquired by mature
sperm cell in what portion of Male reproductive system?
A. Ductus deferens
B. Seminiferous tubules
C. Epididymis
D. Ejaculatory duct
MPL:0.5
56
620
477
480
824
746
703
297
26
C. Ependymal cells
D. Schwann cells
MPL:0.5
A
57
What cell forms part of the Blood Testis barrier performing protective and
Nutritive functions for the developing sperm cells?
A. Sertoli
B. Principal
C. Leydig
D. Spermatogonium
MPL:0.5
334
58
59
The part of the Adrenal gland which secretes Aldosterone that functions in the 665
control of blood pressure is:
A. Adrenal medulla
B. Zona Fasciculata
C. Zona Reticularis
D. Zona Glomerulosa
MPL :0.33
60
61
62
In cases of nerve fiber injury, what structure in the perikaryon will be decreased
in number?
A. Mitochondria
B. Nissl body
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Ribosome
MPL:0.25
314
63
742
64
798
735
27
66
832
67
709
68
Destruction of these cells in the Pancreas leads to increase blood glucose levels 557
And presence of glucose in the urine, a condition known as Diabetes Mellitus.
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Delta
D. Sigma
MPL:1
69
Retinal detachment involves separation of the neural retina from what structure?
A. Pigment epithelium
B. Descemets membrane
C. Bruchs membrane
D. Corneal epithelium
MPL:0.25
70
The smallest of the neuroglial cells that forms part of the Mononuclear phagocytic
System is:
A. Astrocyte
B. Oligodendrocyte
C. Ependyma
D. Microglia
MPL:1
71
Melatonin which regulates daily body rhythms and day /night cycle is secreted by 655
What endocrine gland?
A. Pituitary
B. Thyroid
C. Pineal
D. Adrenal
MPL:0.5
72
763
74
In Graves disease, these cells are stimulated and increased in number and size
leading to abnormal secretions of Thyroid hormones:
A. Parafollicular
B. Oxyphil
C. Follicular
D. Chief
MPL:0.5
659
75
The secretions of this endocrine gland prepares the body for fight or flight
response:
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Anterior Pituitary
D. Posterior Pituitary
MPL:0.5
665
799
297
28
93
309
95
255
96
99
100
344
50
39
3.
An intern would like to auscultate the aortic valve. He should put his stethoscope at which of the following
areas?
A. right 2nd ICS, sternal margin
C. right 5th ICS, sternal margin
B. left 2nd ICS, sternal margin
D. 5th ICS, left midclavicular line
Answer: A, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p122
4.
Which of the following veins drain directly into the right atrium?
A. great cardiac
C. smallest cardiac
B. small cardiac
D. posterior cardiac
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p121
The baroreceptor within the wall of the internal carotid artery is the?
A. aortic body
C. carotid sinus
B. carotid body
D. glomus
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p738
29
Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p225
9.
Injury to which of the following layers of the arterial wall would initiate plaque formation in
atherosclerosis?
A. basement membrane
C. tunica adventitia
B. smooth muscles of tunica media
D. tunica intima
Answer: D, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p223
10.
During fetal circulation, blood from the pulmonary trunk goes to the aorta via the:
A. ductus arteriosus
C. foramen ovale
B. ductus venosus
D. umbilical vein
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p131
13. What structure passes through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm?
A. azygos vein
C. phrenic nerve
B. thoracic duct
D. vagus nerve
Answer: D, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p62
14. The blood vessel that bridges above the hilum of the RIGHT lung is the:
A. aortic arch
C. pulmonary artery
B. azygos arch
D. superior vena cava
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p94
15. Chest X-ray finding of a patient having difficulty of breathing showed blunting of the costodiaphragmatic
angle. If the patient will undergo thoracentesis to evacuate pleural fluid, the physician should insert the
needle at the midaxillary line:
A. 6th ICS, midclavicular line, superior border of the lower rib
B. 7th ICS, posterior axillary line, superior border of the lower rib
C. 7th ICS, midaxillary line, inferior border of the upper rib
D. 8th ICS, posterior to midaxillary line, inferior border of the upper rib
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p61
16. Bronchopulmonary segments are named after their corresponding:
A. secondary bronchus
C. pulmonary artery
B. tertiary bronchus
D. pulmonary vein
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p97
17. What structure does NOT pass through the diaphragmatic opening at T12 level?
A. aorta
C. esophagus
B. azygous vein
D. thoracic duct
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p62
18. The horizontal fissure of the right lung meets the oblique fissure on which line of
orientation ?
A. anterior axillary line
C. midclavicular line
B. midaxillary line
D. right parasternal line
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p96
19. On deep inspiration, the tracheal bifurcation descends to which of the following
vertebral levels?
A. T2
C. T6
B. T4
D. T8
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p90
20. A drunken man, sitting upright, aspirates a peanut. Into which of the following bronchopulmonary segments
would it likely lodge?
A. left inferior lingular
C. right posterior basal
B. left anteromedial basal
D. right medial
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p93
21. Blood from the pulmonary arteries is eventually drained from the lungs primarily through the:
A. azygos vein
C. lymphatic system
B. bronchial vein
D. pulmonary vein
Answer: D, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p100
30
24. An intern is trying to elicit the presence of corneal blink reflex on a patient. Which of the following cranial
nerves is the afferent arm of this reflex?
A. II
C. V
B. III
D. VII
Answer: C, Clinical Neuroanatomy, Richard S. Snell, 5th Ed., p337
26. A patient with tertiary syphilis has impairment of his sense of orientation and
position in space. This is indicative of a damage to the:
A. pyramidal tract
C. antero-lateral spinothalamic tract
B. dorsal column pathway
D. corticospinal tract
Answer: B, Clinical Neuroanatomy, Richard S. Snell, 5th Ed., p150
27. Special somatic afferent fibers are found in which of the following cranial nerves?
A. II
C. VIII
B. VI
D IX
Answer: A, Clinical Neuroanatomy, Richard S. Snell, 5th Ed., p332
30. A blind-folded woman was made to guess the letter written on her palm. The secondorder neuron of the involved sensory pathway is located at the:
A. dorsal horn
C. nucleus cuneatus
B. fasciculus cuneatus
D. nucleus gracilis
Answer: C, Clinical Neuroanatomy, Richard S. Snell, 5th Ed., p150-152
35. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about the ileum?
A. It has fewer plicae circulares.
B. It has fewer mesenteric arterial arcades.
C. It has more fat.
D. It has shorter vasa recta.
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p243-244
36. Which of the following best describes the inguinal canal?
A. It is located parallel and above the lacunar ligament.
B. It transmits the iliohypogastric nerve.
C. The deep inguinal ring is located lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
D. The superficial inguinal ring is a defect in the parietal peritoneum.
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p172-174
37. The duodenum is identified histologically by the presence of:
A. Brunners glands
C. Paneth cells
B. Goblet cells
D. Peyers patches
Answer: A, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p318
38. Choose the CORRECT statement about the Hesselbachs triangle.
A. It is the site of indirect inguinal hernia.
B. The lateral boundary is formed by the inferior epigastric vessels.
C. It transmits the spermatic cord.
D. It is found below the inguinal ligament.
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p194-196
Atlas of Human Anatomy, Frank Netter, plate 243
39. Which of the following arteries may be eroded in a patient with perforated ulcer on
the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum?
A. right gastric
C. gastroduodenal
B. right gastroepiploic
D. splenic
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p243
41. Which of the following best describes the esophagus?
A. It is lined by simple columnar epithelium.
B. It is entirely made up of skeletal muscle.
C. Mucus secreting glands are found in the lamina propria and submucosa.
D. The abdominal portion is covered by adventitia.
Answer: C, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10 th Ed., p299
42. The superior mesenteric and splenic veins unite at the region of the head of the pancreas to form the:
A. hepatic vein
C. portal vein
B. azygos vein
D. inferior vena cava
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p262-263
31
43. The superior mesenteric artery was inadvertently cut and ligated. Which of the following structures would
NOT be devascularized?
A. ascending colon
C. descending colon
B. jejunum
D. appendix
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p261
44. At the outpatient clinic, a patient came in with an anal mass. On further examination,
bilateral inguinal lymph nodes were palpated. This mass probably originates from
which of the following structures?
A. rectum
C. lower anal canal
B. upper anal canal
D. sigmoid colon
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p420
45. While examining a patient with suspected appendicitis, there was tenderness noted on the right lower
quadrant. This tenderness is due to irritation of which of the following structures?
A. parietal peritoneum
C. mesocolon
B. visceral peritoneum
D. A & C are correct
Answer: A, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p251
46. Which of the following structures arise from the midgut?
A. pancreas
C. duodenum
B. liver
D. stomach
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p253-257
47. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the sartorius?
A. It roofs over the femoral triangle.
B. It crosses both the hip and knee joints.
C. It flexes the thigh but not the leg.
D. It forms part of the triceps surae muscles.
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p621
48. Which tendon of the following muscles is tapped to illicit the knee-jerk reflex?
A. quadriceps femoris
C. sartorius
B. tibialis anterior
D. popliteus
Answer: A, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p624
49. A laboratory technician not aware of the gluteal anatomy gave his friend a flu shot at the lower aspect of the
right gluteus. Afterwards, his friend noted decreased sensation over the anterolateral aspect of the right leg
and foot. Also his right foot was noted to drop and drag to the floor. Which of the nerves was probably
injured?
A. common peroneal nerve
C. sciatic nerve
B. tibial nerve
D. obturator nerve
Answer: A, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p711
50. Which of the following veins is often harvested as grafts for coronary arterial bypass
procedures?
A. cephalic
C. lesser saphenous
B. basilic
D. great saphenous
Answer: D, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p618
51. A 20 year old patient sustains a deep cut on the volar surface of right wrist. Median nerve injury would affect
which of the following muscles?
A. medial lumbricals
C. thenar
B. dorsal interossei
D. palmar interossei
Answer : C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p482
52. Which of the following ligaments is traversed by the needle in performing a lumbar tap?
A. posterior longitudinal
C. cruciate
B. anterior longitudinal
D. ligamentum flavum
Answer: D, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p948
53. When a persons neck and trunk are flexed, as in preparation for a spinal tap, the spinous process of C7
becomes visible and it is for this reason that it is called:
A. spina bifida
C. vertebra prominens
B. atlas
D. intervertebral disc herniation
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p927
54. In patient with fracture of the middle humerus ; the following muscles will be denervated EXCEPT:
A. triceps brachii
C. extensior digitorum communis
32
67. For the fight, fright, flight response which of the following cells would secrete epinephrine?
A. ganglion cells of the medulla
C. chromaffin
B. follicular cells of the thyroid
D. pinealocytes
Answer: C, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10 th Ed., p418-419
69. Which structure/s would most likely be injured if the doctor incorrectly incised the superior half of the
tympanic membrane?
A. promontory
C. cone of light
B. ossicles
D. All of the above
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p834-835
70. Which of the following extraocular muscles are weak if a patient has difficulty looking straight down?
A. superior oblique - inferior rectus
B. medial rectus superior oblique
C. superior inferior oblique
D. lateral rectus inferior oblique
Answer: A, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p829
71. Optic nerves are formed by axons of neurons found in the ___ layer of the retina.
A. ganglion
C. inner nuclear
B. outer nuclear
D. photoreceptor
Answer: A, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., p476
73. Which of the following structures forms part of the vascular coat of the eyeball?
A. choroid
C. retina
B. conjunctiva
D. sclera
Answer: A, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10th Ed., pp470-472
74. Which of the following nerves subserve/s taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue?
A. Vagus
C. Glossopharyngeal
B. Facial
D. All of the above
Answer: C, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p847
76. Which of the following diameters is the narrowest A-P diameter of the true pelvis?
A. obstetric conjugate
C. oblique
B. interspinous
D. posterior sagittal
Answer: A, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S. Snell, 7th Ed., p334-337
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77. Which of the following muscles is NOT incised during a median episiotomy done during vaginal delivery?
A. Bulbocavernosus
C. superficial transverse perineal
B. external anal sphincter
D. ischiocavernosus
Answer: D, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S. Snell, 7th Ed., p438
79. Which of the following structures DOES NOT form the urogenital diaphragm?
A. sphincter urethrae muscle
B. perineal membrane
C. deep transverse perineal muscle
D. Colles fascia
Answer: D, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p435, p439
85. The modified smooth muscle cells in the tunica media of the afferent arteriole are
called:
A. macula densa
C. juxtaglomerular cells
B. mesangial cells
D. juxtaglomerular apparatus
Answer: C, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10 th Ed., p394
88. During dissection, M.C. noticed a dilated portion of the spongy urethra. This is the:
A. external meatus
C. urethral crest
B. fossa navicularis
D. veromontanum
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p436
89. Which of the following is related to the LEFT kidney anteriorly?
A. duodenum
C. 12th rib
B. spleen
D. ascending colon
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., pp281-283
90. Choose the CORRECT statement regarding the autonomic supply to the bladder.
A. Sympathetic fibers come from S2, S3 & S4.
B. Parasympathetic innervation promote emptying of the bladder.
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
Answer: B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p375
91. Referred pain secondary to stones in the lower two-thirds of the ureter is LEAST likely to be felt in which
area?
A. Flank
C. Thigh
B. Anterior abdominal wall
D. Groin
Answer; B, Clinical Anatomy, Richard S, Snell. 7th Ed., p286
92. Gerotas fascia(renal fascia) is an effective anatomic barrier which tends to confine pathological processes in
the kidney except on which area?
A. Superiorly
C. Laterally
B. Inferiorly
D. Medially
Answer: B, Atlas of Human Anatomy, Frank Netter, plate 328
95. Azurophilic granules are only produced in what stage of granulopoiesis?
A. myeloblast
C. myelocyte
B. promyelocyte
D. metamyelocyte
Answer: B, Basic Histology: Text and Atlas, Junqueira and Carneiro. 10 th Ed., pp256-257
1.
A high velocity bullet penetrates the posterior aspect of the shoulder and severely injures the origin of
the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Each of the following nerves might possible be affected EXCEPT the
A.
upper subscapular
B.
thoracodorsal
C.
radial
D.
medial pectoral
Page 477-480
34
2.
A patient was noted to have atrophy of the temporalis and masseter muscles on one side of the face.
His corneal reflex on the affected side was normal and he had no sensory deficit in the cheek area. This
patient most probably has a lesion involving the
A.
mandibular division of CN V
B.
maxillary division of CN V
C.
ophthalmic division of CN V
D.
Page 766-768
3. The following secretions are correctly paired with their cells of origin in every pair EXCEPT
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
Page 394
(A)1. Neurologic examination of a 37-year old alcoholic man with clumsiness of his right hand
dorsiflexion of the hand at the wrist. He most likely injured his:
A. median nerve
B. brachioradialis nerve
C. musculocutaneous nerve
D. radial nerve
(A)4. Which of the following statement is true regarding transection of the optic nerve?
A. direct pupillary light reflex would be unaffected
B. the affected eye will be blind
C. there would be bitemporal hemianopsia
D. consensual light reflex would be lost on the affected eye
5. Which of the following reflexes is a monosynaptic reflex?
A. Achilles reflex
B. pupillary light reflex
C. corneal reflex
D. extensor plantar reflex
revealed poor
(I)7. Which of the following blood vessels would be most likely involved in patient showing homonymous
hemianopsia with macular sparing?
A. internal carotid artery
B. posterior cerebral artery
C. middle cerebral artery
D. anterior cerebral artery
35
36
B. appendices epiploicae
C. lymph node
D. spleen
41. Which of the following cells are responsible for antibody production?
A. lymphocyte
B. macrophage
C. monocyte
D.plasma cell
44. The Hassals corpuscles of the thymus consist of
A. densely packed T-lymphocytes
B. concentric layers of epitheloid reticular cells
C. clusters of multinucleated macrophages
D. immature blood cells
(I)45. The most active mobile leukocyte of the body
A. basophil
B. eosinophil
C. neutrophil
D. macrophage
47. The epithelial lining of the pulmonary alveoli
A. simple squamous
B. simple columnar
C. stratrified squamous non-keratinized
D. pseudostratified columnar ciliated
53. The motor nerve supply of the diaphragm is derived from
A. vagus nerve
B. long thoracic nerve
C. thoracodorsal nerve
D. phrenic nerve
(A)57. The midgut loop normally herniates through the primitive umbilical ring into the extraembryonic coelom
during week 6 of development. Failure of the intestinal loops to return to the abdominal cavity by week 11 results
in the formation of
A. omphalocoele
B. anal agenesis
C. ileal diverticulum
D. intestinal stenosis
59. The pharynx joins with the esophagus at the level of
A. C3
B. C4
C. C5
D. C6
60. The valves of Houston are found in the
A. ileocecal junction
B. rectum
C. pylorus
D. ascending colon
(A)61. A 40 year old male sustained from a motor vehicular accident resulting to fracture of the 9th to the 11th ribs
left posterior. He is in hypovolemic shock.The most likely organ injured is the
A. stomach
B. liver
C. spleen
D. pancreas
(A)63. A 30 year old female with history of 2 weeks fever developed peritonitis and was diagnosed as
Typhoid
Fever with perforation. The organ involved is the
A. stomach
B. duodenum
C. jejunum
D. ileum
(I)65. The esophagus is related to which portion of the heart?
A. right atrium
B. left atrium
C. right ventricle
D. left ventricle
66. The vein of Mayo is the anatomical landmark demarcating the
A. esophagus and stomach
B. stomach and duodenum
C. duodenum and jejunum
D. sigmoid and rectum
67. The external hemorrhoidal plexus drains into the
37
A. pudendal vein
B. internal iliac vein
C. middle rectal vein
D. superior rectal vein
68. Which is closely related to the fundus of the stomach?
A. jejunum
B. ileum
C. sigmoid
D. spleen
69. The gastro-duodenal artery is a branch of the
A. right gastro-epiploic
B. hepatic
C. superior mesenteric
D. splenic
71. As one proceeds outward from the renal medulla, the three separate functional layers of the
cortex, in correct order, are
A. zona reticularis, zona fasciculata then zona glomerulosa
B. zona fasciculata, zona reticularis then zona glomerulosa
C. zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata then zona reticularis
D. zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis then zona fasciculate
72. The normal kidney of an average-sized adult man weighs approximately
A. 150 gms
B. 300 gms
C. 600 gms
D. 1,200 gms
73. The location of the narrowest portion of the ureter
A. ureteropelvic junction
B. across the iliac vessels
C. ureterovessical junction
D. upper third
75. The main blood supply of the prostate gland is the
A. uperior prostatic artery
B. median vesical artery
C. inferior vesical artery
D. superior vesical artery
(A)76. A 28 year old man sustained a pelvic fracture due to a motorcycle accident. Which portion of the
was most likely injured?
A. prostatic urethra
B. membranous urethra
C. bulbous urethra
D. penile urethra
77. The motor nerves supplying the urinary bladder come mostly from
A. parasympathetic nerves
B. pelvic nerves
C. pudendal nerves
D. sympathetic nerves
79. The Dartos layer beneath the skin of the penis is continuous with the superficial layer of the
abdominal wall fascia called the
A. fascia lata
B. campers fascia
C. bucks fascia
D. scarpas fascia
80. The dull whitish connective tissue covering of the ovary is called
A. tunica albuginea
B. theca externa
C. zona pellucida
D. corona radiata
82. The right ovarian vein drains into the
A. right renal vein
B. hypogastric vein
C. inferior vena cava
D. common iliac vein
83. Lymphatics from the vulva drain into the
A. hypogastric nodes
B. inguinal nodes
C. para-aortic nodes
D. common iliac nodes
85. The layer of endometrium that remains to regenerate after menstruation
A. compact layer
adrenal
urethra
anterior
38
B. spongy layer
C. functional layer
D. basal layer
88. The male homologue of the Gartners duct of females
A. epididymis
B. inguinal ligament
C. gubernaculum testis
D. vas deferens
(I)89. Which of the following statements concerning the development of the reproductive system in the
is correct?
A. the clitoris is analogous to the penis
B. the urethral folds fail to fuse
C. the urethral folds form the labia minora
D. All of the above
92. Fructose, a source of energy for the spermatozoa, is primarily present in the secretions of
A. seminal vesicle
B. epididymis
C. bulbourethral gland
D. vas deferens
97. In which bone is the inner ear located?
A. sphenoid
B. temporal
C. parietal
D. occipital
98. Regarding the tympanic cavity, which of the following statements is/are true?
A. an airfilled space in the petrous portion of the temporal bone
B. communicates with the pharynx via the eustachian tube
C. houses the incus, malleus and stapes
D. All of the above
99. All are supplied by the oculomotor nerve, EXCEPT
A. superior rectus
B. medial rectus
C. inferior oblique
D. lateral rectus
100. The inability to focus horizontally or vertically is a problem inherent to the
A. cornea
B. lens
C. vitreous humor
D. retina
female
39