Pre_WarmUP_EP

Warm Up Match - IBPS Clerical V Prelims 2015

Quantitative Aptitude
1. The sum of three consecutive natural
numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the
largest among them?
1) 25 2) 26

5. It is required to change a rupee coin into 2

paise and 5 paise coins with the total number of
coins equal to 26. Find the number of each type
of coins.
1) 10 and 16 2) 12 and 14
3) 10 and 20 4) 10 and 14

3) 27 4) 30

5) None of these

5) None of these

2. Which one of the following numbers will

completely divide (551+552+553+554+555)?

6. Five bells begin to toll together and toll at

intervals of 24, 40, 64, 72 and 120 s. After what
interval of time will they toll again together?

1) 7 2) 11

1) 42 min 2) 36 min

3) 9 4) 13

3) 48 min 4) 54 min

5) None of these

5) None of these

3. Simplify:

7. A camp of 3000 soldiers has provision for 60

days. After 15 days how many soldiers must
leave so that the provision may last for 75 days?
1) 1200 2) 1400
3) 1300 4) 1500

56

1) /9 2) /77
50

5) None of these

3) /77 4) 3 /9
5) None of these

4. What is the smallest number by which 1400

be divided to make it a perfect cube?
1) 130 2) 145
3) 160 4) 175
5) None of these

8. The age of father 10 years ago was thrice the

age of his son. Ten years hence, father's age will
be twice that of his son. The ratio of their
present ages is:
1) 8:3 2) 7:3
3) 11:2 4) 13:4
5) None of these

9. The average marks obtained by 80 students

in a certain examination are 28. If the average
marks of the students who have passed is 40

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and that of those who have failed is 25, how

many students failed the examination?

3) 16 4) 38

13. A person travels 340 km in 8 h. The first part

of the journey, he travels by car at the speed of
50 km/h and in the second part of the journey
he travels by train at the speed of 38 km/h. How
many km did he travel by train?

5) None of these

1) 120 km 2) 190 km

10. The price per kg of sugar decreases by 20%.

By what percentage should the consumption be
increased such that expenditure remains the
same?

3) 150 km 4) 210 km

1) 18% 2) 30%

14. 8 men and 10 women are working together

on a job and can complete it in 10 days. The
work done by each woman is four-fifth of the
work by each man. In how many days 10 men
alone complete the same work?

1) 64 2) 24

3) 20% 4) 25%
5) None of these

11. A reduction of 20% in the price of sugar

enables a person to buy 2 kg more for Rs. 30.
Find the reduced and the original price per kg of
sugar.

5) None of these

1) 20 days 2) 12 days
3) 15 days 4) 16 days
5) None of these

1) Rs. 4 per kg and Rs. 4 per kg

2) Rs. 3 per kg and Rs. 3 per kg
3) Rs. 2 per kg and Rs. 2 per kg
4) Rs. 3.5 per kg and Rs. 3 per kg

15. Two trains are moving in the same direction

at the rate of 80 km/hr and 50 km/hr. The fast
train crosses a man in the slower train in 27 sec,
find the length of the faster train?
1) 225 m 2) 275 m

5) None of these

3) 325 m 4) 256 m
12. A and B entered in to a partnership with
investments of Rs. 15000 and Rs. 40000
respectively. After 3 months A left from the
business, at the same time C joins with Rs.
30000, At the end of 9 months they got Rs. 7800
as profit. Find the share of B.

5) None of these

1) Rs. 4800 2) Rs. 600

16. A man borrows Rs. 2550 to be paid back

with compound interest at the rate of 4% per
annum by the end of 2 years in two equal yearly
installments. How much will each installment
be?

3) Rs.2400 4) Rs. 1200

1) Rs. 1275 2) Rs.1383

5) None of these

3) Rs.1352 4) Rs. 1287

5) None of these

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1) 3.65 km/h 2) 4.75 km/h

17. The least number of complete years in
which a sum of money put out at 20%
compound interest will be more than doubled
is:

3) 5.25 km/h 4) 6.50 km/h

1) 7 2) 4

Directions (Q. 22-24): What should come in

place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?

3) 5 4) 8
5) None of these

5) None of these

22. 945.341 1042.792 + 875.435 + 31.025 = ?

1) 408.004 2) 809.009 3) 905.009

18. In a simultaneous toss of two coins, find the

probability of two heads?

4) 712.009 5) 817.004

1) 2)
23. 23% of 1045 + 47% of 923 21% of 953 = ?

3) 4) 4/5

1) 465.03 2) 456.03 3) 446.03

5) None of these

4) 474.03 5) 487.03
19. A train 600m long passes a pole in 9 seconds.
What is the speed of the train in km/hr?

24. (7425 45 5) + (8585 85 5) = ?

1) 120 km/hr 2) 180 km/hr

1) 56.2 2) 63.2 3) 53.2

3) 240 km/hr 4) 60 km/hr

4) 76.2 5) 65.2

5) None of these

20. An amount of Rs. 735 was divided between

A, B and C. If each of them had received Rs. 25
less, their shares would have been in the ratio
of 1:3:2. The money received by C was:

Directions (Q. 25-27): What approximate value

should come in place of question mark (?) in the
following questions? (Note: You are not
expected to calculate the exact value.)
25. 37.0231 45.4501 142.732 + 4.5179 = ?
1) 1475 2) 1757 3) 1680 4) 1545 5) 1320

1) Rs. 198 2) Rs. 228

3) Rs. 225 4) Rs. 245

26. 250430.971 + 152730.282 98170.195

32.70 = ?

5) None of these

1) 312188 2) 304958 3) 311715

21. A man walks 7.5 km at a speed of 3 km/h. At
what speed would the man need to walk during
the next 2 h to have an average of 4 km/h for
the entire session.

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4) 325432 5) 328917

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27. (171.2)2 (89.5)2 = ?

1) 26433 2) 23877 3) 21299
4) 25122 5) 24155

Directions (Q. 28-30): What should come in

place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?

Company
A
B
C
D
E
F

Diesel : Petrol
9:8
11 : 7
3:4
8:5
7:9
3:2

31. What is the total number of petrol cars sold

by Company A, B and C together?

28. 80 85 ? 87 76 89
1) 78 2) 76 3) 74 4) 75 5) 72

1) 43200 2) 45400 3) 48700

4) 49300 5) 51500

29. 5 13 25 ? 61 85
1) 38 2) 39 3) 43 4) 42 5) 41

32. What is the difference between the total no.

of diesel cars and the total no. of petrol cars
sold by Company D?

30. ? 12 30 56 90 112

1) 4900 2) 5100 3) 5300

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5

4) 5500 5) 5700
Directions (Q. 31-35): The given pie-chart shows
the percentage distribution of total cars sold by
six different companies and the table shows the
ratio of diesel to petrol cars among the sold
cars. Answer the given questions based on the
pie-chart and the table.
(Total no. of cars sold by all six companies
together is 1.7 lakh.)

33. What is the ratio of the total no. of petrol

cars sold by Company E to that of diesel cars
sold by Company F?
1) 2 : 1 2) 3 : 2 3) 4 : 3
4) 5 : 4 5) None of these

34. The total number of diesel cars sold by

Company D is approximately what per cent of
the total no. of cars sold by Company F?
1) 60% 2) 75% 3) 80%
4) 120% 5) 125%
Total sale = 1.7 lakh

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35. What is the difference between the total

number of diesel cars sold by all companies

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together and total number of petrol cars sold by

all companies together?
1) 9600 2) 11400 3) 12700
4) 13200 5) 14800

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q. 36-43): Read the following

passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words/phrases are
printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Food inflation is a significant negative feature of
todays economic environment and more so in
respect of our country. It has a tremendous
impact on quality of life, as people struggle to
maintain nutritional standards that they had
previously achieved, or give up some other
forms of consumption so as to keep themselves
well-fed. For a country that legitimately believed
that it had effectively dealt with its vulnerability
to food shortages in the form of the Green
Revolution of the late 1960s and early 1970s, the
current situation comes as a rude reminder that
solutions are rarely permanent. To place the
current developments in context, it must be
pointed out that the world economy is itself
facing problems with food prices. Food as a
category has been following global trends in
commodity prices over the past couple of years.
There is a view that this is the outcome of the
larger trend towards financialisation of
commodities wherein large increases in global
liquidity as a response to the 2008 crisis feed
directly into higher asset prices, including
commodities. Be that as it may, the price
dynamics of individual food items suggest that
there are also some commodity-specific factors
at work which may either reinforce or counteract
the broader trend. Sugar, for example, shows

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fluctuations in response to current supply

conditions, while wheat reflects the effect of
persistent drought in some major cultivating
areas. Indias food inflation is certainly linked to
global trends, particularly in relatively heavily
traded commodities like sugar and oilseeds, but,
given the high degree of self-reliance in many
other commodities, domestic factors play a big
role. Although the drivers of inflation in recent
months have been energy prices and demand
pressures, as reflected in the non-food
manufactured products index, food prices
contributed significantly in the first half of 2010
and remain uncomfortably high. Apart from the
direct impact on the index, it is also likely to feed
through into the wider inflationary process
through higher wage demands, of which there is
some evidence. It is generally believed that food
prices are highly sensitive to monsoon
performance, but this belief has been tested
over the past few years. There is sufficient
evidence to suggest that food prices are being
driven not by transitory factors, such as rainfall,
but by more fundamental forces. Essentially, a
long period of relatively rapid growth has taken
large numbers of households across a threshold
at which they begin to look for nutritional
diversification. The predominance of cereals in
the typical household diet gives way to greater
balance and a consequent increase in the
demand for proteinspulses, milk, meat, fish
and eggs, vegetables and fruit. It is no surprise
that these items have been the primary causes
of food inflation in the recent period.

36. Why, according to the passage, does food

inflation affect peoples quality of life?
1) It is a fundamental requirement of every
individual.
2) Generally, people refrain from maintaining
their nutritional standards.

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3) People generally are averse to change their

form of consumption.
4) People like to keep themselves well-fed.

39. What, according to the passage, is definitely

the root cause of problems with global food
prices?
1) Shortage of commodities that constitute food
items

5) None of these

2) Financialisation of commodities
37. Which of the following statements
contradicts the general belief that our country
has achieved self-sufficiency in respect of food?
1) Food inflation is a significantly negative
feature of todays economic environment.
2) Our country legitimately believes having
mastered food deficiency.
3) Green Revolution of the late 1960s and early
70s has helped us conquer dependence on
others for food.
4) Our vulnerability to food shortages was
effectively dealt with by us in the late 1960s and
early 70s.
5) None of these

3) Food crisis faced globally in 2008

4) Increase in global liquidity
5) None of these

40. The example of sugar and wheat helps us to

conclude that
(A)Certain commodity-specific factors help
perpetuate a general tendency.
(B)Certain commodity-specific factors make the
trend go in reverse direction.
(C)The current supply conditions are insensitive
to the global trends.
1) All the three 2) Only B and C 3) Only A and C

38. Which of the following best explains the

phrase, solutions are rarely permanent as
used in the passage?
(A)Our strategies for overcoming food shortages
in a specific period have proved to be futile
subsequently.
(B)The current situation has been a rude
reminder of our self-reliance in a specific period
in the matter of food.
(C)The general tendency of people to keep
themselves well-fed leads to food inflation.
1) Only A and B 2) Only B and C 3) Only A
4) Only C 5) None of these

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4) Only A and B 5) None of these

41. Which of the following is/are crucial

factor(s) responsible for Indias food inflation in
the recent period?
(A)Escalating energy prices and rising demand
pressures
(B)Changing scenario all over the world that
influences food inflation
(C)Peoples
inclination
diversification

to

nutritional

1) All the three 2) Only B and C 3) Only A and C

4) Only A and B 5) None of these

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42. Which of the following statement/s is/are

definitely TRUE in the context of the passage?
(A)Past few years data show that food prices are
heavily dependent on monsoon performance.
(B)Increased food prices have exerted an impact
on the index and instigated higher wage
demands.
(C)In the typical Indian household, consumption
of food items with high protein-content is on a
higher side.
1) All the three 2) Only A and B 3) Only B and C
4) Only C 5) Only A and C

43. Which of the following best explains the

meaning of the two words fluctuations and
sensitive taken together in the context of the
passage?

(C) And, those who are genuinely tempted with

passion, for them quite often opportunities
smile at their door.
(D)Therefore, you should not mingle your
thoughts and decisions that it is an end after you
reached to a particular destination.
(E) But, before making another move it is
tremendously important to integrate all your
sources and foresee your workable projects
foresightedly and also their prospects to
continue your journey of success.
(F) Only destinations may keep on changing one
after another in the space of time.

44. Which of the following should be the FIRST

sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

1) Considerate to establish stability

45. Which of the following should be the
SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

2) Vulnerability to changes
3) High impact of change

1) B 2) C 3) D 4) F 5) E

4) Vulnerability leading to chaos

5) Susceptibility to security

46. Which of the following should be the LAST

sentence after rearrangement?

Directions (Q. 44-48): Rearrange the following

six sentences, (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the questions given
below.

1) C 2) D 3) E 4) F 5) A

(A)Consequently, after you achieve success, if

you further want to continue your journey of
success, you can discover another goal and
mission.

1) F 2) E 3) C 4) A 5) D

(B) As success is a continuous process or journey

and there is no end to this journey in life.

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47. Which of the following should be the THIRD

sentence after rearrangement?

48. Which of the following should be the FIFTH

sentence after rearrangement?
1) F 2) A 3) E 4) B 5) D

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Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following passage,

some of the words have been left out, each of
which is indicated by a number. Find the
suitable word from the options given against
each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph
meaningfully complete.

56. The new manager has strengthened the

_____ by bringing in several _____ players.

Normally, the police (49) a missing persons (50)

to the missing persons (51), which issues lookout
notices. The police search hospitals, mortuaries
and even their lock-ups for the missing people. If
anyone is (52), relatives are (53). According to
data available with the missing persons bureau
on an average 28 people (54) missing in Mumbai
every day.

4) team; promise

49. 1) forward 2) ask 3) call 4) approve 5) sign

2) stitch; conclusion

50. 1) letter 2) facts 3) complaint 4) story 5) tale

3) draws; final

51. 1) cell 2) bureau 3) team 4) post 5) court

4) put; terminal

52. 1) assumed 2) known 3) seen 4) found 5)

remembered

5) makes; end

53. 1) informed 2) referred 3) conveyed 4)

confirmed 5) accused
54. 1) come 2) go 3) went 4) are 5) reported

1) coach; youngest
2) players; young
3) match; youth

5) side; younger

57. The author _____ the different strands of

the plot together in the _____ chapter.
1) knits; late

58. I wanted to _____ in India on the way to

Australia.
1) steps 2) stop of
3) stop over 4) stop on

Directions (Q. No. 55-59): Each question below

has a blank/ two blanks, each blank indicating
that something has been omitted. Choose the
word/ set of words from the five options for
each blank that best fits the meaning of the
sentence as a whole.

5) stop out

59. I have lost my key and I haven't got a _____.

1) space 2) room

55. He suffered a _____ defeat in the election.

3) place 4) spare

1) thunder 2) applaud

5) scope

3) stunning 4) super
5) blast

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Directions (Q. No. 60-62): Read each sentence

to find out whether there is any grammatical
mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. Mark the number of

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that part with error as your answer. Mark (5) as

your answer, if there is 'No error'.
1. This chapter briefly survey (1)/ the current (2)/
state of (3)/ European politics. (4) No error (5)
2. We surveyed 3000 smokers (1)/ and find that
over (2)/ three quarters (3)/ would like to give
up. (4) No error (5)
3. The police officer (1)/ was suspended (2)/
while the complaint (3)/ was investigating. (4) No
error (5)

Directions (Q. No. 63-65): Which of the phrases

(1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence
should replace the phrase underlined in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If
there is no error mark (5) No correction
required as your answer.
63. This smart washing machine will dispense an
larger part of water for the load.

2) is significant 3) signifies
4) significantly
5) No correction required

REASONING ABILITY
Directions (Q. No. 66-75): In each question
below are given two statements followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read the following statements
and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
1) If only conclusion I follows.
2) If only conclusion II follows.
3) If either conclusion I or II follows.

1) great load

4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

2) maximum portion

5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

3) optimal amount
4) major part

66. Statements: No bird is a crow.

5) No correction required

Some crows are black.

64. How many countries have signing to the
Kyoto protocol on climate change?
1) sign for 2) signed up

Conclusions:
I. At least some birds are black.
II. Some black which are crows are definitely not
birds.

3) signed for 4) signed at

5) No correction required

67. Statements: No pastry is a cake.

65. This mark is signifying that the products
conform to an approved standard.
1) was signifying

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No cake is tasty.
Conclusions:
I. All pastries are tasty.

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II. Some pastries being tasty is a possibility.

I. Some books being pencils is a possibility.

II. At least some pens are books.

68. Statements: All towns are cities.

Some cities are urban.

73. Statements: All students are teachers.

Conclusions:

All teachers are readers.

I. At least some towns are urban.

Conclusions:

II. No town is urban.

I. All readers may be teachers.

II. Some readers can never beteachers.

69. Statements: All cars are black.

All blacks are beautiful.

74. Statements: No cup is a plate.

Conclusions:

No plate is a coin.

I. All cars are beautiful.

Conclusions:

II. At least some beautiful things are black.

I. No cup is a coin.
II. Some coins are cups.

70. Statements: Some parrots are green.

Some birds are parrots.

75. Statements: Some boys are honest.

Conclusions:

Some intelligent are boys.

I. At least some birds are green.

Conclusions:

II. All parrots being bird is a possibility.

I. All honest being intelligent is a possibility.

II. All boys are not intelligent.

71. Statements: Some cats are dogs.

All dogs are foxes.

76. If 'R' denotes ''; 'Q' denotes ''; 'W' denotes

''; and 'A' denotes '+', then

Conclusions:

42 W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 = ?

I. At least some cats are foxes.

II. All foxes being cats is a possibility.

1) 22 2) 168 3) 22
4) 28 5) None of these

72. Statements: All books are pens.

No pen is a pencil.
Conclusions:

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77. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South,

took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then
took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He

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again took a right turn and walked 15 metres.

How far is he from the starting point?

4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

1) 95 metres 2) 50 metres
3) 70 metres

82. How many such pairs of letters are there in

the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the
English alphabet?

4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

1) None 2) One 3) Two

78. What should come next in the following
letter series based on English alphabet? CEA IKG
OQM ?
1) STW 2) WUS 3) SWU

4) Three 5) More than three

83. In a certain code DOWN is written as '5@9#'

and NAME is written as '#6%3'. How is MODE
written in that code?

4) UWS 5) None of these

1) %653 2) %@63
79. The positions of how many digits in the
number 59164823 will remain unchanged after
the digits are rearranged in descending order
within the number?
1) None 2) One 3) Two

3) %5@3 4) %@53
5) None of these

84. How many meaningful English words can be

formed with the letters 'LGEU' using each letter
only once in each word?

4) Three 5) More than three

80. What should come next in the following

letter series?
PQRSTABCDEPQRSABCDEPQRSABC
DPQ
1) R 2) T 3) A
4) B 5) None of these

1) None 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) More than three

85. In a certain code THRIVES is written as

SIUHRDU. How is SOULFUL written in that
code?
1) VPTKKTE 2) VPTKETK

81. In a certain code language, 'how can you go'

is written as 'ja da ka pa', 'can you come here' is
written as 'na ka sa ja' and 'come and go' is
written as 'ra pa sa'. How is 'here' written in
that code language?
1) ja 2) na 3) pa

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3) TPVKKTE 4) TNRKMVG
5) None of these

Directions (Q. 86-90): Study the following

information carefully to answer the given
questions.

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Amongst five friends, M, N, O, P and Q, each got

a different percentage of marks in the class 10th
examination. P scored more than N but less than
Q. N scored 80% marks. The one who scored the
minimum marks, scored 75% marks, and the one
who scored the highest, scored 97% marks. O
scored more than only M.

86. Who scored the second lowest marks?

1) N 2) O 3) M 4) P 5) None of these

87. Who among the following is most likely to

have scored 85% marks?
1) O 2) P 3) Q
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these

88. Which of the following could possibly be Os

percentage?
1) 82% 2) 80% 3) 75%
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these

89. Which of the following is true with respect

to the given information?
1) Os percentage was definitely less than 65%.
2) Q scored the second highest percentage.
3) Only two people scored more than M.
4) The possible percentage obtained by P is 98%.
5) None of these

2) O scored 80% marks.

3) Q scored the highest percentage.
4) M scored the least percentage.
5) All are true

Directions (Q. 91-95): Study the following

information carefully to answer the given
questions.
Ten members of a family are sitting in a
restaurant in two parallel rows of chairs
containing five people each, in such a way that
there is equal distance between adjacent
persons. In row 1, M, N, O, P and Q are seated
and all of them are facing south. In row 2, A, B,
C, D and E are seated and all of them are facing
north. Each of them likes different flavours of ice
cream, viz Butterscotch, Vanilla, Strawberry,
Black Cherry, Chocobar, Mango Bar, Butter
Cluster, Tutti Frutti, Orange Sorbet and Kurly
Wurly but not necessarily in the same order. In
the given seating arrangement, each member
seated in a row faces another member of the
other row. D sits third to the left of the person
who likes Orange Sorbet. M, who likes Black
Cherry faces the immediate neighbour of D. O,
who likes Strawberry, sits second to the right of
M. Only one person sits between N and P, who
like Vanilla and Mango Bar respectively. B and E
are immediate neighbours of each other. E who
does not face M and N, likes Butterscotch. B does
not like Orange Sorbet. A sits second to the right
of the person who likes Choco Bar. C likes neither
Black Cherry nor Butter Cluster. The one who
likes Vanilla faces the one who likes Kurly Wurly.
Q does not like Black Cherry.
91. Who likes Black Cherry?

90. Which of the following is false with respect

to the given information?

1) Q 2) D 3) C 4) M 5) None of these

1) N scored more than only O and M.

92. Who sits third to the left of N?

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1) P 2) Q 3) M 4) O 5) None of these

93. Which of the following information is true in

respect of the given information?
1) D likes Tutti Frutti.
2) P likes Mango Bar and sits on the immediate
left of N.
3) A likes Black Cherry
4) E is the immediate neighbour of B and D.

97. Which of the following is the code for proud

to be india?
1) ge pe ko co 2) ge le no ze 3) le ge lo pe 4) ge le
ko co 5) None of these

98. Which of the following may be the code for

I love our country?
1) pe no lo ge 2) lo no pe to 3) me no pe lo 4) lo
no le pe 5) None of these

5) None of these
99. What is the code for day?
94. Who faces the one who likes Butter Cluster?
1) E 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) None of these

95. Which of the following combinations is false

in respect of the given information?
1) D Kurly Wurly 2) M Black Cherry 3) Q
Orange Sorbet

1) gm 2) fo 3) lo
4) Either gm or fo 5) None of these

100. If love is related to lo, proud is related

to ko, in the same way our is related to which
of the following?
1) no 2) to 3) le 4) ge 5) None of these

4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

If anybody discuss the answers in the website, we

will not be giving any answer key or solutions.
Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the following
information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language, no lo pe to means
we love our country, le pe no ze means India
is our country, ko pe ge co means proud to be
country, le ko means proud India, ge lo so
means love to all and fo le gm means India
independence day.

The standard is bit higher than expected. So you

should not worry about getting low or questions
being tough.
All The Best.
Answers & Solutions: 3rd December, 2015

96. What is the code for independence?

1) fo 2) gm 3) le 4) co 5) Cant be determined

12/2/2015

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