redoctoberQuestionaireFinalCoaching PDF

RED OCTOBER EDUCATIONAL AND TRAINING CENTER, INC.
Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission
Manila
Real Estate Broker
KORONADAL CITY
Final Coaching #02
FEBRUARY 26&27, 2016
1. When personal property is recorded in the Registry of Property as a security for the performance of an
obligation it is called
a. Real estate mortgage
b. Chattel mortgage
c. Pledge
d. Registration
2. A contract where the creditor acquires the right to receive the fruits of the property with obligation to apply
them to payment of interest and principal
a. Mortgage
b. Antichresis
c. Dacion en pago
d. Usufruct
3. The mortgagor may redeem his property which has been foreclosed extrajudicial within a period of
a. 1 year from date of foreclosure sale
b. 1 year from registration of foreclosure sale
c. 3 months
d. 1 year from date of notice of foreclosure
4. The creditor prohibited the mortgagor from selling the mortgaged property during the life of the loan which s
void and is called
a. Pactum non-sale
b. Pactum non aliendo
c. Pactum commissorium
d. Pactum selium
5. A subdivision scheme where the resulting blocks are more or less rectangular in shape.
a. gridiron subdivision
b. complex subdivision
c. simple subdivision
d. open-market subdivision
6. A document issued by the DENR Secretary or the Regional Executive Director certifying that the proposed
project or undertaking will not cause significant negative environmental impacts.
a. environmental impact statement
b. environmental positive certificate
c. environmental compliance certificate
d. environmental ecological approval
7. A duly accredited natural person who performs service for, and in behalf of a real estate broker who is
registered and licensed by the Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service for or in expectation of
a share in the commission, professional fee, compensation or other valuable consideration is referred to as
a. real estate salesperson
b. real estate broker
c. real estate appraiser
d. real estate consultant
8. The enactment of the Real Estate Service Act created a body that will regulate the real estate service
practice. This regulatory body is named
a. Professional Regulatory Commission
b. Professional Board of Real Property Practitioners
c. Professional Board of Real Estate Service
d. Professional Regulatory Board for Appraisers
9. This term refers to an official in the local government unit, who performs appraisal and assessment of real
properties, including plants, equipment, and machineries, essentially for taxation purposes.
a. Appraiser
b. Assessor
c. Consultant
d. Broker
10. A duly registered and licensed natural person who works in a local government unit and performs appraisal
and assessment of real properties, including plants, equipment, and machineries, essentially for taxation
purposes is referred to as
a. real estate appraiser
b. real estate broker
c. real estate consultant
d. real estate assessor
11. This term refers to a person who conducts valuation/appraisal; specifically, one who possesses the
necessary qualifications, license, ability and experience to execute or direct the valuation/appraisal of real
property.
a. Appraiser
b. Broker
c. Assessor
d. Consultant
12. The ownership of real estate is called
a. bundle of rights.
b. real property.
c. fee simple.
d. freehold.
13. Defined as the physical land and those human-made items, which attach to the land.
a. Real property
b. Real estate
c. Personal property
d. Asset
14. A duly registered and licensed natural person who, for a professional fee, compensation or other valuable
consideration, offers or renders professional advice and judgment on: (i) the acquisition, enhancement,
preservation, utilization or disposition of lands or improvements thereon; and (ii) the conception, planning,
management and development of real estate projects.
a. Real estate broker
b. Real estate appraiser
c. Real estate consultant
d. Real estate developer
15. A stipulation of authority to sell that entitles the broker to commission even beyond the
period of his authority if he had registered his buyer to his principal before the expiry date of his authority.
a. open, non-exclusive listing
b. hold over clause
c. exclusive agency agreement
d. first come first served basis
16. If a person died leaving a will, what is the special court proceedings that must be instituted to determine the
validity of the testamentary disposition of the deceased?
a. Probate proceedings
b. Reconstitution of land title
c. Petition for partition of property
d. Petition to quiet title
17. Husband and Wife executed a marriage settlement specifying that the regime of separation of property
shall govern their property relations during marriage. They are married in proper ceremonies on
December 1, 1988. Under the Family Code, which of the following systems shall govern their property
relations during the marriage?
a. Absolute community property
b. Conjugal partnership of gains
c. Separation of property
d. Exclusive property
18. A written authorization to develop or use certain areas of any parcel of land based on approved land use
plan or zoning ordinance or in the absence of such ordinance, could be based on HLURB planning
standards & guidelines.
a. Location clearance
b. Situational clearance
c. Zoning clearance
d. Ordinance clearance
19. Law for Magna Carta for Homeowners and Homeowners Associations
a. P.D. 9094
b. P.D. 9904
c. R.A. 9094
d. R.A. 9904
20. Under RA 6657,Transferability of Awarded Lands shall not be sold, transferred or conveyed for a period of?
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 12 years
d. 15 years
21. Upon application and payment of the required fees for the approval of the Commission the Board may
issue a special/temporary permit to a real estate service practitioner from the foreign countries, provided that
a. He becomes a dual citizen
b. There is a foreign reciprocity, between his country and the Philippines
c. He is a resident of the Philippines
d. He has taken the examination for licensing
22. The ownership of real estate is called
b. real property.
c. fee simple.
d. freehold.
23. In general, a mortgagor who mortgaged his real property and later was foreclosed extrajudicial and sold at
public auction may redeem the property within the period of
A. Ninety (90) days from date of auction sale
B. One (1) year from registration of certificate of sale
C. One (1) year from date of auction sale
D. 30 days from the date of auction sale
24. To be able to sell and buy real property a person must already be legal age, or also referred to as the age
of emancipation. What is the legal age for a person to have capacity to enter into a contract of sale
A. 16 years old
B. 18 years old
C. 18 years old but with legal guardian
D. 21 18 years old
25. Where the buildings are spread apart, the kind of settlement according to shape
A. Radial
B. Dispersed
C. Nucleated
D. Central
26. The thin film on the surface of the earth in which all life exists is called
A. Geosphere
B. Biosphere
C. Hydrosphere
D. Frame
27. The 2 criteria for CARP coverage is suitability of the land for agriculture and
A. Its possibility of acquisition
B. Its right of way
C. Its classification
D. Time
28. A passageway with only one outlet. A blind alley.
A. Key lot
B. Chaplan
C. Cul-de-sac
D. Corner
29. The transfer tax on the sale of real property shall be paid to the local government, under the local
government code, within a period of:
A. Within 30 days from date of sale
B. Within 60 days from date- of-sale
C. Withhin 30 days from date of notarization of sale
D. Within 90 days from date of sale
30. Mr. Ernest inherited a piece of land when he was still single. Then he got married on October 1, 2000
without a marriage settlement. What is the nature of the property now that he is married?
A. Exclusive property
B. Community property
C. Conjugal property
D. Capital Property
31. A term used for the amount asked, offered, or paid for a good or service.
a. Cost
b. Value
c. Price
d. Replacement cost
32. The price paid for goods or services or the amount required to create or produce the good or service.
a. Value
b. Price
c. Cost
d. Selling price
33. An economic concept referring to the price most likely to be concluded by the buyers and sellers.
a. Cost
b. Value
c. Price
d. Market
34. a lot adjoining a corner lot and fronting an intersecting street.
A. Key lot
B. Chaplan
C. Cul-de-sac
D. Corner
35. It is a general term used for a permanent or temporary community in which people live, without being
specific as to size, population or importance.
A. Settlement
B. Barangay
C. Housing
D. Socialized
36. In markets characterised by extreme volatility or severe disequilibrium between supply and demand, the
highest and best use of a property may be a / an
a. holding for future use.
b. interim use.
c. existing use.
d. commercial utility
37. Where land use and zoning are in a state of change, the immediate highest and best use of a property may
be a / an
a. interim use.
b. present use.
c. residential use.
d. commercial use.
38. The laws on land ownership by Filipinos overseas that stipulates guidelines on land ownership by former
Filipinos for purposes of establishing residence.
a. B.P. 185
b .R.A. 185
c. P.D. 185
d. E.O. 185
39. Juridical persons may apply for registration of leased agricultural and disposable lands not exceeding
1,000 hectares in area for a period of?
a. 20 YRS AND RENEWABLE FOR NOT MORE THAN 25 YEARS
b. 25 YRS AND RENEWABLE FOR NOT MORE THAN 20 YEARS
c. 25 YRS AND RENEWABLE FOR NOT MORE THAN 25 YEARS
d. 15 YRS AND RENEWABLE FOR NOT MORE THAN 25 YEARS
40. PROPERTY REGISTRATION DECREE. LAW RELATIVE TO REGISTRATION OF PROPERTY AND
FOR OTHER PURPOSES.
a. P.D. 1529
b. P.D. 1259
c. R.A. 1529
d. R.A. 1259
41. Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree which regulate sale of subdivision lots and
condominiums units to buyers, defines sale to be covered by registration, defines duties and
responsibilities of owner/developer (o/d) of condominium and subdivision projects and defines rights of
condominium/subdivision units/lot buyers
a. P.D. 957
b. B.P. 220
c. E.O. 648
d. R.A. 386
42. LAW THAT DEFINE THE ARCHIPELAGIC BASELINE OF THE PHILIPPINES AND FOR OTHER
PURPOSES
a. P.D. 9255
b. P.D. 9522
c. R.A. 9255
d. R.A. 9522
43. Which section refers to the Supervision of Real Estate Salespersons under the RESA IRR?
a. SECTION 33
b. SECTION 32
c. SECTION 30
d,. SECTION 31
44. The Condominium Act law is an act to define condominium, establish requirements for its creation, and
govern its incidents.
A.
P.D. 4276
B.
R.A. 4726
C.
P.D. 4726
D.
R.A. 4276
45. As long as the unit is occupied by the same lessee, the rent of any residential unit covered by Rent Control
Act shall not be increased by?
A.
MORE THAN 6% ANNUALLY
B.
C.
D.
46. Section number of : Issuance of Title under PD 957
A.
Section 25
B.
Section 26
C.
Section 27
D.
Section 28
47. Former natural born citizens can purchase/own a maximum area of commercial purpose under RA 8179?
A.
5,000 SQ.M. OF URBAN LAND OR 5 HECTARE OF RURAL LAND
B.
C.
D.
NONE OF THE ABOVE
48. The standard color scheme for residential use:
A.
YELLOW
B.
RED
C.
VIOLET
D.
BLUE
49. The standard color scheme for institutional land use:
A.
ORANGE
B.
VIOLET
C.
BLUE
D.
GRAY
50. Section number of : Donations of open space to LGU under PD 957
A.
Section 34
B.
Section 33
C.
Section 32
D.
Section 31
51. The COMPREHENSIVE AGRARIAN REFORM LAW which implements a comprehensive agrarian reform
with the intention that any conversion of private land to non-agricultural uses should first be cleared before
hand by the Department of Agrarian Reform.
A.
P.D. 6557
B.
R.A. 6557
C.
P.D. 6657
D.
R.A. 6657
52. AN ACT AMENDING THE NATIONAL INTERNAL REVENUE CODE, AS AMENDED, AND FOR OTHER
PURPOSES which promote sustainable economic growth through the rationalization of the Philippine
internal revenue tax system.
A.
R.A. 8424
B.
R.A. 8244
C.
P.D. 8424
D.
P.D. 8244
53. Law of "The Corporation Code of the Philippines."
A.
B.P. 68
B.
B.P. 185
C.
B.P. 86
D.
None of the above
54. Which Section or provision of the P.D. 957 the Non-Forfeiture of payments when the buyer, after due
notice to the developer, desists from further payment due to the failure of the developer to develop the
condominium or subdivision project according to the approved plans?
A. SECTION 26
B. SECTION 25
C. SECTION 24
D. SECTION 23
55. The standard color scheme for commercial land use:
A. RED
B. ORANGE
C. BLUE
D. VIOLET
56. The standard color scheme for parks and open spaces:
A. ORANGE
B. GREEN
C. YELLOW ORANGE
D. YELLOW GREEN
57. Real property includes all the rights, interests, and benefits related to the ownership of real estate.
b. real property.
c. fee simple
d. freehold.
58. Which section refers to the Prohibition Against the Unauthorized Practice of Real Estate Service
under the RESA IRR?
A.
SECTION 29
B.
SECTION 30
C.
SECTION 31
D.
SECTION 32
59. The Comprehensive Land Use Plan covers a minimum "PLANNING PERIOD and REVIEWED" every?
A.
10 YEARS PLANNING PERIOD AND 3 YEARS REVIEW
B.
C.
D.
NONE OF THE ABOVE
60. Which law refers to the Revocation or Suspension of the Certificate of Registration and the Professional
Identification Card or Cancellation of Special Temporary Permit under the RESA IRR?
A.
SECTION 18
B.
SECTION 19
C.
SECTION 20
D.
SECTION 21
61. The acquisition of land in advance of actual need based on present value for future planned development
is referred to under the Urban Land Reform Law as?
A.
Urban Renewal
B.
Land Assembly
C.
Land Banking
D.
New Settlement
62. The Lina Law or the Urban Development & Housing Act of 1992, is AN ACT TO PROVIDE FOR A
COMPREHENSIVE AND CONTINUING URBAN DEVELOPMENT AND HOUSING PROGRAM, ESTABLISH
THE MECHANISM FOR ITS IMPLEMENTATION, AND FOR OTHER PURPOSES
A.
P.D. 7279
B.
R.A. 7279
C.
P.D. 7729
D.
R.A. 7729
63. A natural-born Filipino, became a naturalized citizen of another state opts not to re-acquire Filipino
citizenship can own a commercial and business land but limited to?
A.
UP TO 5,000 SQ.M. OF URBAN LAND AND UP TO 3 HECTARES OF RURAL LAND
B.
C.
D.
64. A center in the primate region of the country that operates in accordance with RA 7279 otherwise known as
the Urban Development and Housing Act of 1992 and Executive Order no. 184 covering its implementing
rules and regulation for this operational function.
A.
Socialized house on per capita
B.
Socialized Housing One-Stop Processing Center
C.
Social Housing One Processing Center
D.
Socialized House One-Stop Process Center
65. Former natural born citizens can purchase/own a maximum area of residential purpose under BP 185?
A.
B.
C.
D.
NONE OF THE ABOVE
66. In the Lands of Public Domain, a Filipino citizens may acquire alienable lands by lease of not more than
how many hectares?
A.
50 HECTARES
B.
500 HECTARES
C.
5,000 SQ.M.
D.
5 HECTARES
67. "National Building Code of the Philippines" in which its purpose is to provide for all buildings and structures,
a framework of minimum standards and requirements to regulate and control their location, site, design quality
of materials, construction, use, occupancy, and maintenance.
A.
P.D. 1529
B.
P.D. 1096
C.
P.D. 1185
D.
None of the above
68. In R.A. 6732, Reconstitution of Title is allowed if the total number of titles loss in the possession of the
office of Register of Deeds is at least?
A.
12 %
B.
20 %
C.
15 %
D.
10 %
69. The standard color scheme for industrial land use:
A.
VIOLET
B.
BLUE
C.
YELLOW GREEN
D.
RED
70. Which section refers to the Registration Without Examination under the RESA IRR:
A.
SECTION 20
B.
SECTION 21
C.
SECTION 22
D.
SECTION 23
71. Division of community into function zones based on present and potential use of properties to regulate use
and growth of properties per comprehensive plan.
A.
Code
B.
Decree
C.
Zoning
D.
Ordinance
72. Section number of : Time of Completion in developing a subdivision or condominium projects
under PD 957
A.
Section 20
B.
Section 21
C.
Section 22
D.
Section 23
73. Section number of :Realty Taxes Payment under PD 957
A.
Section 25
B.
Section 26
C.
Section 27
D.
Section 28
74. In the Lands of Public Domain, a Filipino citizens may acquire alienable lands by purchase, homestead or
patent of not more than how many hectares?
A.
15 HECTARES
B.
5 HECTARES
C.
10 HECTARES
D.
12 HECTARES
75. Provides for implementing guidelines and role of HLURB in the devolution of a approval of subdivision
plans to the LGUs.
A.
E.O. 71
B.
P.D. 71
C.
R.A. 71
D.
B.P. 71
76. The condominium project has not been rebuilt or repaired substantially after damage or destruction, how
many years before one or more unit owners may bring an action for partition by sale of entire project after
damage or destruction?
A.
1 YEAR
B.
2 YEARS
C.
3 YEARS
D.
NONE OF THE ABOVE
77. Which section refers to the Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Program under the RESA IRR?
A.
Sec 33
B.
Sec 34
C.
Sec 35
D.
Sec 36
78. Statute of Frauds can be applied to deeds, mortgages and other real estate contracts for?
A.
LEASES FOR PERIODS SHORTER THAN 1 YEAR
B.
LEASES FOR PERIODS SHORTER THAN 2 YEAR
C.
LEASES FOR PERIODS SHORTER THAN 6 MONTHS
D.
NONE OF THE ABOVE
79. FIRE CODE OF THE PHILIPPINES LAW?
A.
P.D. 1185
B.
P.D. 1151
C.
P.D. 1815
D.
None of the above
80. Law that proclaims certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and within the scope of
the requirements of PD 1586.
A.
Proclamation No. 2146
B.
C.
D.
81. Which section refers to the Accreditation and Integration of Real Estate Service Associations under the
RESA IRR?
A.
SECTION 34
B.
SECTION 43
C.
SECTION 35
D.
SECTION 45
82. Which law refers to the Foreign Reciprocity under the RESA IRR?
A.
SECTION 24
B.
SECTION 25
C.
SECTION 26
D.
SECTION 27
83. The act of authorizing the change of the current use of a piece of agricultural land into non-agricultural use;
such permit is proper only upon issuance of a clearance from the Department of Agrarian Reform.
A.
Transformation
B.
Translation
C.
Conversion
D.
Equivalence
84. Refers to the Resolution of Implementing Rules and Regulations of R.A. 9646
A.
RESOLUTION NO. 2 SERIES OF 2009
B.
C.
D.
None of the above
85. Total monthly rent of all residential units in the provinces ranges from?
A.
P1.00 TO P5,000.00
B.
P1.00 TO P5,500.00
C.
P1.00 TO P6,000.00
D.
P1.00 To P10,000.00
86. Section number of :HLURB License to sell issuances under PD 957
A.
Section 1
B.
Section 2
C.
Section 3
D.
Section 5
87. The purchaser of a house a lot which is being rented may eject the lessee in the following instance
a. Expiration of the contract of lease
b. If indicated in the deed of sale
c. If registered with the Register of Deeds
d. If the buyer knows the property is being leased
88. Jun rented out an apartment from the owner but no written agreement was executed by the owner on the
lease. The lease contract is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Non existent
89. If the unit of the owner is covered by the Rent Control Act of 2009, the owner may increase the rent for the
same tenant not to exceed
a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 8%
d. 10%
90. The following is not a ground for judicial ejectment of the tenant leasing a studio condo in Marikina City for
P 9,5000.00 per month
a. Arrears in payment of rentals for a total of 3 months
b. Need of Lessor for use of immediate family
c. Nonpayment of wireless landline
d. Expiration of the period of the lease
91. Under the Rent Control Act of 2009, a ground for judicial ejectment is arrears in rentals of the lessee for a
total of
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 3 months
d. 5 months
92. A duly registered and licensed natural person who, for a professional fee, commission or other valuable
consideration, acts as an agent of a party in a real estate transaction to offer, advertise, solicit, list,
promote, mediate, negotiate or effect the meeting of the minds on the sale, purchase, exchange, mortgage,
lease or joint venture, or other similar transactions on real estate or any interest therein.
a. Real estate appraiser
b. Real estate salesperson
c. Real estate broker
d. Real estate developer
93. The lessee who rented the house in Alabang for P90,000 per month paid in advance for 1 year cannot do
the following without the written consent of the owner
a. Sublease part of the house
b. Pay in postdated monthly checks
c. Assign the contract of lease
d. Hire a gardener to take care of the garden
94. If n owner is residential house will enter into a lease contract with the lease to renew the lease, it is owners
obligation to
a. Pay for the expenses of the purpose
b. Make it suitable for the purpose
c. Repair broken fixtures due to the tenant
d. Make a contract in writing
95. In case a buyer fails to pay after making 96 monthly installment on a 10 year term purchase of a lot, the
percentage refund shall be
a. 50%
b. 65%
c. 100%
d. 50% + 5% of the installment for the years beyond 5 years
96. The formula to be used in computing the cash surrender value of a buyer under the Maceda law is
a. Monthly amortization x no. of years paid
b. Total payments made x percentage refund
c. Monthly amortization paid x percentage refund
d. Total payments made- expenses of sale
97. Under the Realty Installment Buyers Act the buyer of the lot will be entitled to how many percent additional
per year after 5 years of payment
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 15%
98. In case Wilma fails to pay her monthly installments after paying 20 months installments, her right under the
Maceda law shall be
a. Grace period of 30 days to pay
b. Refund of 50% of payments made
c. 60 days grace period
d. Grace period of 1 month to update payments
99. The following sale on financing of property is covered by the Maceda law
a. Commercial lot
b. Sales to tenants under RA 384
c. Residential lot
d. Industrial lots
100. Franco entered into a pacto de retro sale but wac actually a mortgage as he just needed to borrow money
and he continued to live in the house, In such case, it may be considered as
a. Contract of Sale
b. Equitable mortgage
c. Voluntary mortgage
d. Conditional sale
101. The most important difference between a contract to sell and a contract of sale is that in a contract of sale
a. Notarization of the contract of sale
b. Transfer of ownership
c. Payment of the price in full
d. Execution of the contract
102. A lot was bought by Nestor and only indicated in the sale price the amount of P 2,000,000.00 consisting of
2,000 square meters but which turned out to be only 1,900. What is a right of Nestor?
a. Right to refund of excess
b. Right to cancel the contract
c. No right to rescind the contract
d. No right reduction in price
103. The following person cannot acquire by purchase the property because of fiduciary relationship
a. Purchase by the aunt of the property of the minor
b. Purchase by the husband under separation of property
c. An agent under whose administrator the property is entrusted
d. An assessor who will buy his neighbors property
104. A contract defined as, where one of the parties obligates himself to transfer the ownership of and to
deliver a determinate thing, and the other to pay therefore a price certain in money or its equivalent
a. Contract to sell
b. Contract of sale
c. Contract of conditional sale
d. Contract of lease
105. Two people entered into a contract and to be valid, it is essential that
a. It is in writing
b. There is a meeting of minds
c. It is in writing and duly notarized
d. It must have two witnesses and in writing
106. . As a real estate broker, it is ethical to do the following acts. Which one however is not ethical
a. Share professional fees as agreed with the other broker
b. Engage the services of the salesperson of another broker without informing the broker concerned
c. Publish a listing of another broker only with his consent
d. Not give rebates or split commission with an unlicensed real estate broker
107. As to the following acts of a real estate broker, which one can be considered within the bounds of the
code of ethics?
a. Delay the submission of an offer of another buyer
b. Encouraging the seller to undervalue the sale price
c. Willingly share his experience with new brokers
d. Criticize publicly another broker for his manner of selling
108. In case a real estate broker is also a real estate appraiser, he or she may not appraise the property of his
client if
a. He will not paid a professional fee
b. He will also sell the property after appraising it
c. He is new real estate appraiser
d. The owner wants a predetermined price of the property
109. If a broker is a member of an organization, the real estate broker should not engage in the following
a. Be an officer and serve if elected
b. Electioneering during annual election
c. Support the programs or the organization
d. Pay on time the dues of the organization
110. The following is considered unethical for the real estate broker should not engage in the following
a. To have the house cleaned before bringing the buyer
b. To tell the buyer there are many buyers interested although there are only a few interested
buyers
c. To open the windows of the house before bringing the buyer
d. To pass through a better road instead of the road with squatters
111. Several offers for the purchase of the property were submitted by the real estate broker to the owner and
then another offer to purchase was received by the real estate broker. What should the real estate broker do?
a. Wait for the owner to decide first before giving the latest offer
b. Tell the purchaser that his offer will have to wait till owner decides
c. The latest offer should be presented to the owner for his decision
d. The real estate broker should tell the buyer to revise his offer
112. A 2 story house and lot was being rented out by the owner and listed it through several brokers. A broker
who also obtained the listing can place his for rent sign if authorized by the owner and only if
a. It does not exceed two signs for rent
b. It is placed not less than 2 meters away from the other sign
c. His sign is not more than 2 meters by 2 meters in size
d. There is no sign placed on the property
113. Which of the following acts can be considered to be unethical for a real estate broker
a. The broker should cooperate with other brokers on property listed
b. The broker should share the commission on an agreed basis
c. The broker should seek no unfair advantage over his fellow brokers
d. The broker can use the services of the salesman of another broker provided he pays the
salesperson a commission
114. Broker Y has a complaint against Broker P who belonged to the same real estate service organization.
Broker Y must therefore
a. File the case in court
b. Exhaust remedies within their organization
c. File an administrative case with PRC
d. Tell other members openly about his complaint
115. So that no controversy or misunderstanding arises between the two brokers dealing on the sale of the lot,
the code of ethics requires
a. The two brokers assume that sharing will be 50-50
b. Discuss and clear the commission arrangement beforehand
c. Discuss the sharing only when the professional fee is received
d. The broker who transferred the title to the buyer should get more
116. A newly passed broker was dealing with a broker already 10 years in the profession. The more
experienced real estate broker should
a. Share his experienced on the transaction
b. Try to put one over the new broker
c. Use the advantage of his experience over the new broker
d. Keep quiet when asked for advice by the new broker
117. Real estate broker X accepted a listing from another broker Y. The agency of the broker Y who offers the
listing should be respected until it has expired and
a. Broker X is able to contact the owner
b. Come to the attention of broker X from a different source
c. Broker Y does not answer his text messages
d. Broker X solicits the listing from the owner
118. The real estate broker should not solicit a listing which is currently listed exclusively with another broker
unless the listing agreement has expired and
a. The broker knows the contact no. of the owner
b. The broker already met the owner
c. Solicits the same from the owner
d. The owner offers to list the same to the new broker
119. If the real estate broker already saw another sign for sale of another broker, under the code of ethics the
broker must
a. Remove the sign before putting his sign
b. No longer put his or her sign for sale
c. Put the sign at least 3 meters away
d. Cover the sign of the other broker
120. For one to put up a for sale sign on the lot of the owner, the real estate broker must
a. Put a decent sign
b. Use only a tarpaulin signage
c. Make sure the sign is very visible
d. Be authorized by the owner
121. Considered unethical for a real estate broker, with regards to his professional fee is to obtain the same
from both parties unless
a. The buyer was informed ahead of time
b. The owner did not know he will get a free from the buyer
c. The owner and seller knows and both agreed
d. The parties were not informed by the broker
122. In accepting an appointment or authority to act for and in behalf of a client or customer the broker should
pledge himself with utmost fidelity and good faith to protect and promote the interest of his client which means
a. Loyalty to the client
b. Be loyal to the client at all costs
c. Be only working to the advantage of the client
d. Be unfair to the buyer in favor of the seller
123. Funds which come into the hands of real estate broker from the client should be, under the Code of Ethics
a. Placed in a separate bank account
b. Deposited in the brokers account
c. Just put in the wallet of the broker
d. Returned after using the money
124. If the owner wants to undervalue the sale price, the real estate broker is expected to tell the owner
a. To undervalue not lower than zonal value
b. To get a contact with the BIR
c. To have 2 deeds of sale
d. The true basis of capital gains tax
125. The practitioner must display the following in their place of business as provided in the Code of Ethics
a. AIPO Receipt
b. Surety bond
c. Professional Identification Card
d. Certificate of registration
126.If one participated in the undervaluation of the sale, the broker is deemed to have violated his relation to
the
a. Client
b. Public
c. Government
d. Organization he belongs
127. The owner requested the broker on how to reduce the capital gains tax to be paid. It is unethical for the
broker to recommend the following
a. To undervalue the sale price
b. To pay the capital gains on time
c. To pay transfer tax to the city treasurer
d. To pay in managers check to the bank
128. The following act should not be done by the broker and is unethical
a. Split commission with an unlicensed broker
b. Share commission as agreed
c. Agree to revise commission sharing
d. Accept the arrangement for reduction in commission as agreed
129. Attendance in a continuing professional education is provided also in the code of ethics under the
following provision
a. The spirit of camaraderie, cooperation and professional relationship of other shall be
promoted
b. Their dealings with each shall be fair, honest and just
c. A high level of respect relationship with colleagues in the Realty Service Practice shall be
maintained
d. Adequate knowledge, competence and expertise in real estate development and
management shall be maintained
130. Under the then code of ethics, the realty service is considered the following and not a
a. Calling
b. Profession
c. Business
d. Occupation
131. Before the RESA , the code of ethics under the DTI was referred to as
a. National Code of Ethics
b. National Code of Ethics for Real Estate Service
c. National Code of Ethics for Realty Service Practice
d. national Code of Ethics and Responsibilities
132. The code of ethics and responsibilities, as provided under the RESA shall be prescribed and issued by
the
a. National Association of real estate service practitioner
b. Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization
c. Professional Regulatory Commission
d. Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
133. The power to adopt the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities, under the RESA shall be under the
a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization
c. Professional Regulatory Commission
d. Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
134. A judgment or decision of the Professional Regulation Commission becomes final and executory within a
period of
a. 10 days from receipt of judgment
b. 15 days from receipt of judgment
c. 15 days from date of decision
d. 30 days from receipt of decision
135. Aside from RA 9646, the law that governs the current practice of real estate service is
a. Ministry Order No. 39 Series 1985
b. Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree
c. Local Government Code of 1991
d. HLURB Rules of Procedures
136. The PRBRES may cluster the examination subjects for the Real Estate Brokers Licensure examinations,
which is clustered into
a. 3 subjects
b. 5 subjects
c. 4 subjects
d. 12 subjects
137. Under the Sec.13 of RESA IRR, how many subjects coverage for Real Estate Broker Licensure
Examination?
a. 11 Subjects
b. 12 Subjects
c. 13 Subjects
d. 14 Subjects
138. What is the Nationality of Richard Torrens?
a. British
c. Australian
b. Russian
d. American
139. It is the application of economic techniques to real estate markets which describe, explain, and predict
patterns of prices, supply, and demand.
a. Economics
c. Real Estate Economics
b. Macro Economics
d. Supply and Demand
140. The Maceda Law is applicable in the following case involving a residential property
a. Sale through pag-ibig loan
b. Sale through bank financing
c. Sale through financing of payment from the seller
d. Sale through borrowed money lending company
141. In housing economics, the elemental unit of analysis is
A. One household per house
B. Family
C. Barangay
D. City
142. The main determinants of the demand for housing are?
A. Market
B. Need
C. Demographics
D. Access
143. The value of a property tends to coincide with value indicated by the actions of informed buyers in the
market for comparable properties.
A.
Substitution
B.
Changes
C.
Balance
D.
Space
144. An act that can be said to be unethical in dealing with a real property being sold by the owner
a. Avoid exaggeration
b. Conceal relevant information
c. Refrain from misrepresentation
d. Ascertain
145. Today evolved out of yesterday and is the shadow of tomorrow.
A.
Highest & best use
B.
Surplus productivity
C.
Change
D.
Capital
146. It is as pointed out, a corollary of the principles of surplus productivity as itrelated to the proportioning of
the agents in production.
A.
Contribution
B.
Surplus productivity
C.
Highest & best use
D.
Preference
147. In economics, is a revealed preference method of estimating demand or value
A.
Hedonic regression
B.
Highest & best use
C.
Market analysis
D.
Preference
148. Characteristic of real estate market that denotes that a building can last for decades or even centuries,
and the land underneath it is practically indestructible.
A.
Durability
C.
Immobility
B.
Heterogeneous
D.
Preference
149. What real estate market characteristic denotes that consumers come to the good rather than the good
going to the consumer?
A.
Long Time Delay
C.
Immobility
B.
High Transaction Cost
D.
Market
150. The developers an renovators comprise what side of the market?
A.
Demand
C.
Supply
B.
Equilibrium
D.
Balance
151. The owner/user, owner, and renter comprise what side of the market?
A.
Demand
C.
Supply
B.
Equilibrium
D.
Balance
152. This includes banks, Real Estate Brokers, lawyers, and others that facilitate the purchase and sale of real
estate.
A.
Marketing Department
C.
Project developer
B.
Facilitators
D.
Linkages
153. These people supply refurbished buildings to the market.
A.
Developers
C.
Broker
B.
Renovators
D.
Sales Person
154. These people prepare raw land for development and improvement which results in new product for the
market.
A.
Facilitators
C.
Developers
B.
Bankers
D.
Appraisers
155. In case one cannot find or locate his copy of the owners duplicate certificate of title, he must file with the
register of deeds the following:
A. Affidavit of Loss
B. Affidavit of Recovery
C. Sworn Statement of Ownership
D. Sworn Statement of Loss of Original Copy
156. The following is considered a conditional sale
A. Contract to Sell
B. Reservation Agreement
C. Deed of Sale
D. Pacto de Retro Sale
157. The following type of property is not covered by the Maceda Law:
A. Residential condominium units
B. Residential Lots
C. Commercial Lots
D. Non subdivision residential lot
158. The following areas is considered to be environmentally critical areas, except:
A. Areas declared by laws as national parks, watershed reserves
B. Areas identified as central business districts
C. Areas that are habitats of endangered or threatened species of indigenous Philippine plants
D. Areas of unique historic, archeological or scientific interest
159. The following types of projects requires a certificate of registration and licensed to sell from the HLURB
A. Commercial Subdivision
B. Industrial Subdivision
C. Private Farm Estate
160. An important condition required in case of buyers of two or more properties for one to be entitled to the
property under the law
A. Must be in good faith
B. Must be the first to register
C. Must be the first to take possession
D. Must prove he was the first buyer
161. If TCT has an annotation that says "subject to Rule 74. Section 4 of the Rules of Court" , it means that
the property is an inherited property and any heir unduly deprived of his lawful participation in the estate has
____ years to assert his right over said property
A. Two (2) years
B. Five (5) years
C. Four (4) years
D. Ten (10) years
162. The developer may choose any of the following as compliance with Section 18 of RA 7279 on the 20%
socialized housing except:
A. Development of New Settlement
B. Participation in the Community Mortgage Program (CMP) either as a financier or a developer
C. Slum Upgrading, to be certified by the National Housing Authority or the Local Government Unit
concerned
D. Purchase of Government Treasury bonds
163. A parcel of land 500 sqms was sold fo a lump sum of P 3,500,000.00 but eventually upon investigation
the lot size turned out to be 590 sqms, the buyer has the right to
A. No increased in price
B. Re measurement of the lot
C. Resurvey of the property
D. Pay the seller the difference
164. The following should not be included in the advertisement in projects covered by PD 957
A. Any future development not covered by the license to sell
B. Scope of the project
C. Vicinity map and location
D. Amenities and Facilities
165. A subdivision plan of a registered land wherein a street, passageway or open space is delineated on the
plan
A. Simple Subdivision Plan
B. Complicated Subdivision Plan
C. Complex Subdivision Plan
D. Complex Land Use Plan
166. In case of foreclosed property but owner was able to redeem the property within the period of redemption,
the following documents must be presented to The Registry of Deeds
A. Certificate of Payment
B. Certificate of Redemption
C. Certificate of Sale
D. Certificate of Non Redemption
167. A part of condominium project intended for any type of independent use or ownership, including one or
more rooms or spaces located in one or more floors (or part or parts or floors) in a buildings or buildings an
such accessories as may be appended thereto
A. Common areas
B. Undivided areas
C. Condominium facilities
D. Condominium unit
168. Any person directly engaged as principal in the business of buying, selling or exchanging real estate
whether on a full time or part-time basis
A. Real Estate Businessman
B. Real Estate Dealer
C. Real Estate Developer
D. Real Estate Trader
169. By the Contract of Sale, one of the contracting parties obligates himself to transfer the ownership of and
to deliver a determinate thing, and the other party
A. To sign the Deed of Sale
B. To pay thereof a price certain in money or its equivalent
C. To pay the transfer tax
D. To accept the thing immediately
170. The subdivison project or the condominium project shall be deemed registered upon completion of the
publication requirement and the developer shall be issued a
A. License to Sell
B. Registration Certificate
C. Development Permit
D. Building Permit
171. In order to register a sale with the Register of Deeds, the buyer must present the following documents,
except
A. Certificate Authorizing Registration
B. Proof of Payment to the Seller
C. Original owner's duplicate certificate of title
D. Transfer Tax Payment and Clearance
172. These refer to the parts of the condominium project common areas which are not subject to the exclusive
use of any one or group of owners
A. Limited common area
B. General common area
C. Assigned common area
D. Public common area
173. Common areas which are allocated to the exclusive common area use of one or group of unit owners.
A. Exclusive common area
B. Limited common area
C. Unit owner common area
D. General common area
174. The Register of Deeds shall record in the order of their reception, all instruments including copies of writs
and processes filed with him relating to registered land in the
A. Register of Deeds Log Book
B. Primary Book
C. Primary Entry Book
D. Records Book
175. This is the enabling act of any condominium project and "enables" the condominium to exist and governs
its existence
A. Condominium Certificate of Registration
B. Master Deed
C. Condominium Plan
D. Deed of Restrictions
176. This is the evidence or proof of one's ownership of an office condominium unit
A. Torrens certificate of title
B. Condominium Certificate of Title
C. Transfer Certificate Title
D. Condominium Certificate of Ownership
177. A document issued by the condominium corporation that the conveyance is in accordance with the Master
Deed /Restrictions
A. Certificate of conveyance
B. Certificate of management
C. Certificate of occupancy
D. Certificate of clearance
178. A bank foreclosed a lot of M corporation and it can redeem the same within how many months foreclosure
sale
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 18 months
179. In case of redemption of the property sold due to delinquent real property taxes, the owner may redeem
the same including paying interest based on the purchase price from the date of sale to the date of redemption
in the amount of:
A.
One percent per month
B.
Twenty five percent per annum
C.
Twenty four percent per month
D.
Two percent per month
180. The basic real property tax for land located in a province shall be at the rate:
A.
Not exceeding 1% of assessed value
B.
C.
1% of assessed value
D.
181. In case of disagreement with the valuation of the city assessor on the market value of the property, the
owner may appeal the same to the Board of Assessment Appeals within how many days counted from
receipt of the notice of assessment?
A.
30 days
B.
120 days
C.
90 days
D.
60 days
182. A tax on documents, instruments, loan agreements and papers evidencing the acceptance, assignment,
sale or transfer of an obligation, is called:
A.
Value Added Tax
B.
Internal Tax
C.
Documentary Stamps
D.
Sales Tax
183. A residential house and lot located in Quezon City is subject to pay the following real estate tax to the city
government:
A.
Transfer tax
B.
Special Education fund tax
C.
Capital gains tax
D.
Business tax
184. After full payment of capital gains tax and documentary stamp tax on sale of a piece of land, the BIR shall
then issue this document to the taxpayer.
A.
Certificate Authorizing Payment
B.
Certificate Authorizing Registration
C.
Certificate of Payment
D.
BIR Authority to Accept Payment
185. In case of real property paid under deferred payment basis, the documentary stamp tax shall accrue
upon:
A.
Execution of Deed of Absolute Sale
B.
Notarization of transfer document
C.
Payment of the full amount
D.
Execution of Contract to Sell
186. A real estate appraiser was found liable by the PRBRES. He may appeal the decision of the PRBRES to
the PRC Commission
a. Within 15 days from receipt of decision
b. Within 30 days from receipt of decision
c. Within 15 days from date of decision
d. Within 60 days from date of decision
187. The map showing all the details that make up the surface features of the earth is generally called a
a. Surface map
b. Terrain map
c. Topographic map
d. Elevation map
188. In a title, the letters Psu appears which would mean
a. Private subdivision
b. Private survey
c. Public survey
d. Private land survey
189. In case several lots were acquired to be developed into a subdivision, the survey would be a private
consolidation subdivision survey indicated by the letters
a. Psu
b. Pcn
c. Pcs
d. Pcss
190. A private subdivision survey is indicated using the letters

a. Pss
b. Psu
c. Psd
d. Psds
191. A lot buyer wanted to have the 6 parcels of land he just bought all adjacent to each other into one title. He
will have this survey undertaken
a. Private consolidation survey
b. Private survey
c. Private assembly survey
d. Public consolidation survey
192. In order for Mr. Jose Ernest to plot the shape and details of the lot he just bought from the transfer
certificate of title, he must have at least the following data
a. Tie line measurement
b. Bearing and lot points
c. Bearing and distance from lot points
d. Bearing and tie line
193. The process of acquiring private property for public use is called
a. Eminent domain
b. Police power
c. Escheat
d. Condemnation
194. A sale of an ordinary asset shall be considered as a sale on installment if the payment made in the year of
sale does NOT exceed:
a. 5% of the selling price
b. 30% of the selling price
c. 15% of the selling price
d. 25% of the selling price
195. The right of government to regulate land use for the public good.
a. Escheat
b. Eminent domain
c. Police power
d. Taxation
196. The right of governments to acquire private property for public use, such as a road widening.
a. Eminent domain
b. Expropriation
c. Police power
d. Condemnation
197. A government restriction imposed on ownership of real estate that actually means going to the state.
a. Eminent domain
b. Police power
c. Escheat
d. Taxation
198. A charge against a property in which the property is security for payment of a debt is called a
a. lien.
b. mortgage.
c. escheat.
d. restriction.
199. It is the power of the state to take private property for the purpose of public use, provided there is
payment of just compensation
a. Expropriation
b. Eminent Domain
c. Police Power
d. Escheat
200. The capital gains tax should be paid within how many days from the notarization of the deed of sale?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 7 days
d. 45 days
201. The forces that impact real estate values are the following:
a. Physical, economical, sociological and physiological
b. Population, income level, skill levels and social environ
c. Social, economic, physical or environmental and governmental
d. Political, economical, governmental and physical
202. This forces relate to trends in society or culture, and sometimes these forces are imagined while at other
times they are based on actual facts and figures.
a. Environmental
b. Governmental
c. Physical
d. Social
203. A / An ______________________ is a group of complementary land uses.
a. Zone
b. Area
c. Neighborhood
d. Municipality
204. Neighborhoods and zones alike generally exist in one of four life cycle stages; these are
a. growth, stability, renovation, and rebirth
b. growth, decline, reconstruction, and revitalization
c. growth, stability, decline, and revitalization.
d. growth, stability, decline and rebuilding
205. These are assets that embody a cultural, historic, and/ or architectural heritage.
a. Agricultural properties
b. Historic properties
c. Trade related properties
d. Public sector assets
206. In this type of market, goods and services are not readily produced or easily transferable, with no readily
identified group of buyers and sellers active in a particular marketplace.
a. Efficient market
b. Inefficient market
c. Buyers market
d. Sellers market
207. Socialized housing or resettlement areas shall be provided by the local govt. unit of NHA in cooperation
with the private developers/ concerned agencies with the following basic services and facilities
a. Livelihood project
b. Employment
c. Recreational areas
d. Potable water
208. The Subic Freeport Zone is one of the largest developments in Central Luzon. What force does this
represent?
a. Social
b. Governmental
c. Economic
d. Environmental
209. It refers to process of upgrading and rehabilitation of bighted and slum urban areas with a view of
minimizing displacement of dwellers in said area
a. On site development
b. Slum development
c. Slum upgrading
d. On site upgrading
210. They are referred to as individuals or groups who occupy land without the express consent of the
landowner and who have sufficient income for legitimate housing
a. Squatters
b. Informal Settlers
c. Slum dwellers
d. Professional Squatters
211. Small property owners refers to those whose only real property consists of residential lands in highly
urbanized cities not exceeding
a. 120 square meters
b. 200 square meters
c. 300 square meters
d. 400 square meters
212. Can personal property be converted into real property through what process?
a. Severance
b. Accession
c. Conversion
d. Annexation
213. In the execution of eviction or demolition orders involving underprivileged and homeless citizens, the
following shall be mandatory, except
a. Execution of eviction or demolition only during regular office hours from Monday to Friday
b. Execution of eviction or demolition only during good weather, unless the affected families consent
otherwise
c. Adequate permanent relocation
d. Presence of local government officials or their representatives during eviction or demolition
214. Professional squatters or members of squatting syndicates shall be imposed the penalty of imprisonment
of
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 10 years
215. Professional squatters or members of squatting syndicates shall be imposed the penalty of a fine of
not less than
a. P 60,000 but not more than P 100,000
b. P 50,000 but not more than P 100,000
c. P 100,000 but not more than P 200,000
d. P 20,000 but not more than P 50,000
216. As the AIPO, the accredited and integrated professional organization approved by the PRC last 2011 is
called
a. Institute of Real Estate Professional
b. Institute of Philippine Real Estate Service Practitioners
c. Philippine Institute of Real Estate Service Practitioners
d. Philippine Institute of Real Estate Professionals
217. The required membership to the AIPO of a real estate practitioner shall be
a. Upon approval by the AIPO
b. Automatic and mandatory
c. Upon approval by the PRBRES
d. Upon approval by PRC
218. The expiry of the registration with HLURB of real estate broker expires every
a. December 31 of the year
b. 3 years
c. On the birthdate of the real estate broker
d. Every 2 years
219. A current assessor who, on the date of the effectivity of R.A. No.9646 shall be allowed to register without
examination among others, provided they hold permanent appointments and are performing actual appraisal
and assessment functions for the last five (5) years, and have passed the
a. PRC licensure examination for assessors
b. Real property assessing officer ( RPAO) examinations
c. Civil Serviced Examination
d. Real estate appraisers examinations
220. A real estate appraiser was found liable by the PRBRES. He may appeal the decision of the PRBRES to
the PRC Commission
a. Within 15 days from receipt of decision
b. Within 30 days from receipt of decision
c. Within 15 days from date of decision
d. Within 60 days from date of decision
221. The following number of acts performed by a real estate service practitioner shall constitute an act of
engaging in the practice of real estate service
a. More than one transaction
b. At least one transaction
c. Several transaction
d. Two consecutive transaction
222. Upon application and payments of the required fees, subject to the approval of the PRC, special/
temporary permits may be issued to real estate service practitioner from foreign countries in case of
a. Specific foreign development projects
b. Unavailability of local practitioners to enhance the practice
c. Government to government realty projects
d. Lack of real estate salesperson
223. In case of a vacancy in the Board, it shall be filled up for the position vacated, which shall be for the
period of
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. Unexpired portion of the term of member who vacated
d. Not more than 6 years
224. For its creation, the nomination of members to the Real Estate Service Board is initially made by the
a. Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization
b. Professional Regulation Commission
c. Professional Real Estate Organization
d. Accredited Professional Real Estate Organization
225. A real estate appraiser who was licensed then under the DTI may still be allowed to register without
examination under the principle of
a. Licensing
b. Carryover clause
c. Practice exemption
d. Grandfather clause
226. It is not required for purpose of becoming a dual citizen under RA 9225
a. Execute an oath of allegiance
b. Petition through the consular office abroad
c. Make a renunciation of his foreign citizenship
d. Be a former natural born citizen of the Philippines
227. The children inherited property from their father who just died. The rights over the property shall be
deemed transmitted to the heirs
a. Upon Death of the father
b. Upon payment of the estate taxes
c. Upon settlement of the estate of the father
d. Upon transfer of the title in their names
228. The creditable withholding tax on the sale of an ordinary asset should be filed and paid to the BIR:
a. Within 10 days from date of sale
b. Within 30 days from notarization of deed of sale
c. Within 30 days from date of sale
d. Within 10 days from the close of the month of sale
229. For a Filipino, now 33 years old and who is now a citizen of Australia, to be able to acquire land under
BP 185, the person should
a. Be a dual citizen
b. Be born of at least one Filipino parent
c. Be residing in the country within 3 years
d. Not buy more than 5,000 square meters of urban land
230. If a parcel of land owned by the city is no longer intended for public use, it is referred to as
a. Patrimonial property
b. Idle land
c. Private property
d. Public Reserved property
231. Any Filipino citizen may apply for a free patent title under RA 10023 and in case of first and second class
municipalities, the same should not exceed
d. 1,000 square meters
232. A vacant land in Cebu that was escheated to the government because the deceased left no will and no
heirs will be classified as
a. Land of the public domain
b. Patrimonial property
c. National property
d. Public state property
233. Natural-born citizens of the Philippines who had become a citizen of a foreign country shall retain
Philippine citizenship, under the Dual Citizenship law, upon
a. Renouncing their foreign citizenship
b. Becoming a permanent resident
c. Taking oath of allegiance to the Philippines
d. Application with the Department of Foreign Affairs
234. Under BP 185, for land to be classified as an urban area, it means
a. An area where there are malls and shopping centers
b. A municipality with a population density of 1,000 persons per square kilometer
c. Poblaciones with a population density of 800 persons per sq. km.
d. An area with mass transport system
235. Francis migrated to America in 1980. Born of Filipino parents, he wants to retire in the Philippines and
wants to buy a house and lot in Batangas City. As such, he must execute this document
a. Affidavit of waiver
b. Affidavit under BP 185
c. Sworn statement of land ownership
d. Sworn statement of citizenship
236. Acquisition of land under the Foreign Investments Act is allowed for business purpose but cannot be done
for the purpose of
a. Agriculture
b. Manufacturing
c. Buying and selling
d. Leasing of land
237. An owner of a house borrowed money from the bank but failed to pay his loan and the property was sold
at public auction. This is referred to as a method of acquiring title by
a. Voluntary grant
b. Private grant
c. Involuntary grant
d. Foreclosure grant
238. To apply as a dual citizen of the Philippines under RA 9225, one must be a former natural born Filipino
and do the following
a. Renounce his or her foreign citizenship
b. File a petition with the Bureau of Immigration
c. File an application with the Department of Foreign Affairs
d. File for permanent residency
239. A foreigner may own land in the Philippines through hereditary succession, but it is required that the
foreigner must be
a. A dual citizen
b. A legal heir
c. A resident of the Philippines
d. A citizen and resident
240. Two neighbors enter into a sale of a house and lot in cash. This type of transfer is referred to as
a. Involuntary grant
b. Private grant
c. Installment grant
d. Adjacent owner grant
241. A foreigner married a Filipina who then bought a house and lot and the Register of deeds required the
foreigner to execute an affidavit of waiver of his rights over the property. The affidavit of waiver is
a. Valid
b. Void
c. Voidable
d. Required
242. It is voluntary limitation on ones right of ownership to land
a. Deed of Restrictions
b. Building code
c. Zoning
d. Land Use Plan
243. It is the right of a person to the fruits of a property even if the property is not owned by the said person
a. Usufruct
b. Tenancy Agreement
c. Harvest agreement
d. Lease agreement
244. An owner is said to be an owner in fee simple, which means that the owner
a. Has a certificate of title
b. Has the bundle of rights
c. Has the right to sell the property
d. Has bought the property
245. A Filipina got married to a foreigner in august 3, 1998. In such case, the Filipina may still buy land in the
Philippines, provided
a. She becomes a dual citizen
b. She has not renounced her citizenship
c. She buys land under BP 185
d. She buys a maximum of 1,000 sqms. of residential land only
246. Under the 1987 Phil. Constitution the government may transfer land to a Filipino Citizen by homestead
provided the size does not exceed
a. 1,000 square meters
b. 12 hectares
c. 3 hectares
d. 1 hectare
247. The Enchanted Kingdom theme park in Sta. Rosa has had a significant impact on uses of land in its
vicinity for many years and an influence on the value of that land. Which of the four forces does this represent?
a. Social
b. Governmental
c. Economic
d. Environmental
248. The government may dispose or alienate lands of the public domain provided the classification is
a. Residential
b. Forest Land
c. Commercial
d. Agricultural
249. In line with the LRAs mission to preserve the stability and integrity of land ownership and maintain the
trust and confidence of the public in the Torrens System, the LRA shall enable the quick and secure
registration of land titles in the country through the application of state-of-the-art information technology under
this program called
a. Land Title Technology program
b. Land Titling Computerization Project
c. Land Title and Registration Computerization Project
d. Land Computerization Program
250. To show proof that the publication requirement for extrajudicial settlement has been done, the following
document may be presented
a. Copy of newspaper publication
b. Certification by heir of publication
c. Affidavit of publication by heir
d. Affidavit of publication by newspaper
251. A change in actual use of the property reported to the assessor shall take effect beginning
a. The next month after reassessment
b. The next quarter upon reassessment
c. Immediately upon reassessment
d. 90 days after reassessment
252. The zonal value of a property can be obtained from?
a. Bureau of Internal Revenue
b. Registry of Deeds
c. Office of the Sheriff
d. Assessors Office
253. The law referred to as Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program Extension with Reforms (CARPER) is
a. RA 6657
b. RA 9646
c. RA 9700
d. RA 7160
254. The CARPER primarily extends the land distribution program of CARP by
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 10 years
255. Beneficiaries under the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program and CARPER shall be awarded an
area not exceeding
a. 2 hectares
b. 3 hectares
c. 5 hectares
d. 7 hectares
256. Lands acquired by beneficiaries under the CARP shall not be sold, transferred or conveyed except
through hereditary succession, or to the government, or to the government, or to the LBP, or to other qualified
beneficiaries through the DAR for a period of
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. 25 years
257. When the land ceases to be economically feasible and sound for agricultural purposes, the DAR, may
authorize the reclassification or conversion of the land
its disposition after the lapse of
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. 15 years
258. in case of non-redemption of foreclosed property, the capital gains tax or credible withholding tax shall be
paid based on
a. Winning bid price
b. Bid price or zonal value or assessors value whichever is higher
d. Zonal value
259. The donation of a house and lot to the daughter is not subject to the following tax charges
a. Transfer tax
b. Donors tax
c. Documentary stamp tax
d. Registration fees
260. The assessor is mandated to undertake a general revision of real property assessments every
a. Year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. A necessary
261. If land is in a residential area but the building is used for commercial purposes, the assessment level
classification shall be based on
a. Residential
b. Commercial
c. Predominant use
d. Mixed residential and
262. The Quezon City local government imposed starting January 2012 a socialized housing tax in the amount
of
a. of 1% of assessed value
b. 1% of assessed value
c. 2% of assessed value
d. Not exceeding 1% of assessed value
263. A real estate broker will earn P 1,800,000.00 for 2012 in professional fees. The broker shall be subject to
a. 10% VAT
b. 3% percentage tax
c. 12% VAT
d. 5%
264. 31. The amount of exempted capital gains tax in the sale of principal residence shall be
a. Held by the taxpayer until a new residence is bought
b. Deposited in the account of the seller
c. Put in escrow
d. A tax credit for the seller
265. Ms. Rica, a real estate broker, already earned P 800,000 in commissions for the first two months.
Thereafter, the withholding tax of Ms. Rica should be
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 12%
266. A manufacturing corporation bought a parcel of vacant lot in a residential subdivision as the price was
very low and attractive. When sold, the corporation shall be subject to the tax rate on the sale of
a. 1.5%
b. 3.0%
c. 5.0%
d. 6.0%
267. The right of redemption already lapsed last January 6 and the winning bidder must pay the capital gains
tax within what period
a. 30 days from the date of auction sale
b. 30 days from the expiration of redemption period
c. 30 days from the month of expiration of redemption period
d. 30 days from notarization of auction sale
268. A buyer can get the value of the improvements of the house in Quezon City being sold, which may be
found in the
a. Bureau of Internal Revenue
b. City Assessors Office
c. Land Registration Authority
d. City Engineers Office
269. A parcel of land was sold at P5,000,000.00 but the BIR Zonal Value was P 4,800,000.00 while the local
assessors fair market value is P 2,500,000.00 and it was appraised at p 5,500,000.00. What will be the basis
of capital gains tax if sold
a. Selling Price
b. Zonal Value
c. Assessors value
d. Appraised fair market value
270. The minimum burial plot size for ground interment as per HLURB rules is
a. 1m x 1m
b. 1m x 1.5m
c. 1m x 2.44 m
d. 1m x 3.0 m
271. The minimum plot size for a mausoleum under the rules for memorial parks is
a. 3m x 3m
b. 3m x 4m
c. 4m x 5m
d. 5m x 5m
272. Per HLURB Administrative Order No. 2, Series of 1992, the minimum plot size for an industrial estate is
c. 1,000 square meters
273. An allocated lot in an industrial subdivision is also referred to as
a. Industrial lot
b. Factory Plot
c. Subdivision lot
d. Manufacturing lot
274. When it is provided that the unit to be sold must first be offered to the existing unit owners, it is referred to
as
a. Option
b. Right of first refusal
c. Right of offer
d. Right to refuse
275. Condario wanted to stop payment of his monthly amortizations for a studio condo unit since the project
has not been completed but it is required that he must
a. Update hi monthly payments
b. Inform HLURB
c. have paid at least 24 monthly installments
d. Give due notice to the developer
276. A structure, either freestanding or part of another building, containing niches for the inurnment of
cremated human remains
a. Memorial park
b. Niche
c. Mausoleum
d. columbarium
277. It is used by the HLURB in order that the developer of a condominium project may start selling units,
pending other requirements and to assess the market viability of the project
a. Certificate of Registration
b. License to sell
c. Temporary license to sell
d. Interim license to sell
278. In case of a buyer on financing of a residential condominium unit who now owns the unit, the primary law
that the buyer must refer to as owner should be
a. Condominium Act
c. Maceda Law
d. National Building Code
279. The rights o a buyer of a condominium unit, when he fails to pay the monthly installments under the
contract to sell shall be governed by
a. PD 957
b. RA 6552
c. HLURB Rules of Procedures
d. Financing Act
280. Mario wanted to invest in the REIT and he may make an investment in the REIT by way of
a. Subscription of shares of stocks
b. Initial investment of P50,000.00
c. Purchase of condo unit being rented by REIT
d. Direct infusion of capital to the REIT
281. A developer wants to build townhouses but would like build a condominium project instead. Such
development would be called
a. Townhouse subdivision
b. Condominium project
c. Townhouse project
d. Townhouse condominium
282. In order for the investor group of Mr. ang to form a REIT, it must have a minimum paid up capital of
a. P 100,000,000.00
b. P 1,000,000,000.00
c. P 500,000,000.00
d. P 300,000,000.00
283. Income payments to a REIT, for example, rentals, shall be subject to a lower creditable withholding tax of
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%
284. The fund manager of the REIT must have a minimum paid-up capital stock or assigned capital of
a. P 5,000,000.00
b. P 10,000,000.00
c. P 50,000,000.00
d. P 100,000,000.00
285. Cash or property dividends paid by a REIT shall be subject to a final tax of
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
286. Under the REIT law, a REIT must be a public company and to be considered as such a REIT, must have
at least how many public shareholders
a. 60
b. 100
c. 500
d. 1,000
287. A REIT must distribute annually to its shareholders its distributable income to the extent of at least
a. 50%
b. 75 %
c. 90%
d. 100%
288. Under the REIT law, a Constitutive Document means

a. Articles of incorporation of the REIT
b. Approved plan of the REIT
c. Ownership documents of the REIT
d. Share of the stock of the REIT
289. Mr. Calix bought a farmlot in Batangas where he intends to retire. He may only build on the lot up to a
maximum of what percentage of the total lot
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 50%
290. For a farmlot subdivision, the minimum lot area for a farmlot is
a. 400 sqms.
b. 500 sqms
c. 750 sqms.
d. 1,000 sqms.
291. The HLURB may issue a temporary license to sell to a condominium developer which will be valid for
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
292. The condominium corporation may integrate the project with another upon the affirmative vote of a simple
majority of the registered owners, subject only to the final approval of
a. City engineer
b. HLURB
c. Municipal engineer
d. Local government
293. A residential condominium corporation shall not during its existence, sell or otherwise dispose of the
common areas owned or held by it in the condominium project unless authorized by the affirmative vote of a
a. Simple majority of the registered owners
b. 2/3 of the registered owners
c. 51% of the registered owners
d. All of the registered owners
294. The condominium corporation may be dissolved if the project has been in existence in excess of 50 years,
that it is obsolete and that members of the corporations are opposed to the repair or restoration or remodeling
or modernizing of the project to the extent of more than
a. 30% of the members
b. 50% of the members
c. 2/3 of all members
d. 51% of the members
295. a partition by sale may be made provided that damage or destruction to the project has rendered one-half
or more of the units therein untreatable and that condominium owners with common interest are opposed to
repair is more than
a. 30% interest
b. 50% interest
c. 70% interest
d. 100% interest
296. These are areas allocated to the exclusive use of a condominium unit owner like a parking space
a. Common Area
b. Limited common area
c. Exclusive common area
d. Assigned parking space
297. Once a buyer is now the owner of a condominium unit, the law more appropriate covering his ownership
and rights as a unit owner is
a. The Condominium Act
c. The Realty Installment Buyers Protective Act
d. Property Registration Decree
298. Allison sold his 3 bedroom condo unit to a buyer. To register the sale he must get from the condominium
corporation this document
a. Clearance for condominium dues
b. Certificate of transfer
c. Certificate of ownership
d. Certificate of management
299. In buying a condominium unit, it is highly recommended that the buyer get this most important document
to have full knowledge of the project
a. Deed of Restriction
b. Master Deed
c. Articles of Incorporation of Condominium Corporation
d. House rules and regulations
300. It refers to the weight bearing walls, columns and beams, stairways, halls, elevators, etc, including the
electrical, water and plumbing systems and amenities in a condominium project
a. Common Areas
b. Condominium Building
c. Condominium Structure
d. Vertical Building
301. If a unit owner has unpaid assessments, the notice of assessment will be considered a lien on the
condominium unit if
a. A notice of assessment is given to the unit owner
b. A notice of assessment is registered with the Register of Deeds
c. The delinquency is more than 1 year
d. Registered with the city treasurers office
302. The ABC Condo Residences, a mixed use condo project, wanted to amend the master deed. In such
case the majority vote shall be based on
a. Per unit ownership
b. Per unit value
c. Per unit floor area
d. Per unit no. of occupants
303. If one wanted to find out what his interest or share is in the common areas, it may be found in the
following document
a. Master Deed
b. Condominium Rules and Regulations
c. Deed of restrictions
d. Tax Declaration of the Condominium Unit
304. A condominium corporation is important as it will be the management body of the condominium project
and more importantly, will also
a. Collect the dues from the unit owners
b. Hold title to the land of the condominium project
c. Pay for the realty taxes of the unit owner
d. Pay for the insurance of the separate units
305. It is referred to as the space encompasses by the interior surface of the floor, ceiling, walls and exterior
doors and windows, which is susceptible of independent use and ownership
a. Condominium unit
b. Common Areas
c. Condominium Limited common areas
d. Condominium interior
306. the condominium corporation may also be dissolved in a general or special meeting duly called for the
purpose by affirmative vote of
a. All the members of the condominium corporation
b. Simple majority of the condominium members
c. 2/3 vote of the members
d. Majority of the members of the condominium Common areas
307. The following is not part of the Master Deed of a condominium project
a. Amenities and facilities per condo building
b. Number of buildings and stories per building
c. Condominium house rules and regulations
d. Extent of share in the common areas
308. The condominium corporation formation is required in case
a. As provided I the articles of Incorporation
b. At least 60 % Filipino ownership
c. At least one foreigner owns a unit
d. Of purely residential condominium units
309. It is regarded as an interest in real property consisting of a separate interest in a unit in a building and an
undivided interest in common in the land on which it is located and in other common areas
a. Condominium unit
b. Condominium
c. Common areas
d. Condominium project
310. The National Building Code of 1977 is

a. PD1086
b. PD 1096
c. RA 1086
d. RA 1096
311. In general, it is not considered part of the Master deed of a condominium project
a. Land on where the project is located
b. Number of buildings and stories per building
c. Provision for Management body of the project
d. Extent of share in the common areas
312. A person who, intentionally or by gross negligence, violates any provision of the Magna Carta governing
homeowners shall be punished with
a. Fine of not less tha P 20,000.00 but not more than P 50,000.00
b. Fine of not less than P 5,000.00 but not more than P 50,000.00
c. Fine of not more than P 100,000.00 nor less than P 5,000.00
d. Fine of not less than P 10,000.00 and not more than P 100,000.00
313. A director of the homeowners association may simply be removed for causes provided in the bylaws by
a. Petition signed by simple majority of homeowners in good standing
b. Complaint filed with the HLURB
c. 2/3 vote of all members in good standing
d. At least half of the members of the association
314. Under the magna carta governing homeowners, Simply majority of association members refers to
a. 60 %
b. 51 %
c. 2/3 majority
d. 50 % plus 1
315. The following is not a duty of a member of a homeowners association
a. pay membership fees, dues and special assessment
b. to attend meetings of the association
c. Propose measures to raise funds and the utilization of such funds
d. To support projects and activities of the association
316. The law that governs the rights of a homeowner is referred to as
a. Magna Carta for Homeowners
b. Magna Carta for Subdivisions
c. Magna Carta for Homeowners and Homeowners Associations
d. Magna Carta for Subdivision Homeowners
317. The buyer may desist from making his monthly payment or amortization to the developer for non
completion of the project on its completion date provided the buyer
a. Issues postdated cheques
b. Gives notice to the developer
c. Notifies the HLURB
d. Has paid at least 2 years of the total monthly installments
318. In case a buyer would like to refund his payments for non completion of the project within completion
date, the refund shall be the total amount paid including
a. amortization interests but including delinquency interests
b. amortization interests but including delinquency interests, with interest thereon the legal rate
c. amortization interests, with interest thereon at the legal rate
d. amortization interests but excluding delinquency interests, with interest thereon at the legal rate
319. It is a public way intended to be used as pedestrian access to property referred to as a pathway and shall
have a minimum width of
a. 3 meters
b. 3.5 meters
c. 4 meters
d. 2 meters
320. Under the IRR of BP 220 it is a habitable dwelling unit which meets the minimum requirements for a shell
house which includes a s part thereof: window, doors and partition walls for separating functional areas
a. Livable house
b. Basic house
c. Complete house
d. Minimum basic house
321. A habitable dwelling unit which meets the minimum requirements for a housing core with the additional
components such as exterior walls, plumbing, floor and electrical wiring for the unit
a. Socialized housing
b. Shell house
c. Core house
d. Bare house
322. The power of HLURB to hear and decide cases of complaints by a buyer versus the developer refers to
this function
a. Judicial
b. Quasi judicial
c. Admonistrative
d. Regulatory
323. For a row house under the IRR of BP 220, the minimum lot frontage of a rowhouse
a. 3 meters
b. 4 meters
c. 5 meters
d. 3.5 meters
324. A public way with a width of 2.0 meters intended to break a block and to serve both pedestrian and
emergency vehicles
a. Pedestrian lane
b. Alley
c. Walkway
d. Pathway
325. Under the IRR of BP 220, the minimum lot size for socialized single detached unit is
a. 72 square meters
b. 64 square meters
c. 48 square meters
d. 28 square meters
326. Under RA 7279, it refers to the most reasonable price of land and shelter based on the needs and
financial capability of Program Beneficiaries and Appropriate Financing Schemes
a. Reasonable cost
b. Affordable cost
c. Poverty threshold cost
d. Minimum housing cost
327. It means any lot which is not rectangle nor square-shaped as defined in the IRR of PD 957
a. Irregular lot
b. Non confirming lot
c. Non regular lot
d. Corner lot
328. It is a lot situated at the intervention of two or more streets is
a. Corner lot
b. Through lot
c. Intersection lot
d. Crossing lot
329. A dwelling unit which contains 2 separate living units each of which is separated from another by a firewall
and provided with independent access is referred to as
a. Single detached units
b. Rowhouse
c. Duplex
d. Compound
330. A wall which subdivides a building so as to resist the spread of fire, by starting at the foundation and
extending continuously through all storeys to, or above the roof is referred to as a
a. Building partition
b. Firewall
c. Party wall
d. Boundary wall
331. It is defined to be dwelling unit surrounded by yards under the IRR of PD 957
a. Open Space
b. Single detached
c. Single attached
d. Rowhouse
332. It is referred to as a parcel of land bounded on the sides by streets or pathways or natural or man-made
features, and intended for buildings
a. Open space
b. Block
c. Alleys
d. Playground
333. In subdivisions, it is generally defined as a structure designed or used as residence
a. House
b. Dwelling
c. Living quarters
d. Row house
334. The IRR of PD 957 provides that the number of rowhouses per cluster shall not exceed
a. 20 units per block/cluster
b. 30 units per block/cluster
c. 40 units per block/cluster
d. 10 units per block/cluster
335. The water connection for subdivisions as provided under the PD 957 is
a. 100 liters per capita per day
b. 150 liters per capita per day
c. 200 liters per capita per day
d. 250 liters per capita per day
336. For a row house under PD 957, the minimum lot frontage is
a. 3 meters
b. 3.5 meters
c. 4 meters
d. 5 meters
337. Under the IRR of PD 957, the minimum lot area for as ingle detached open market housing shall be
a. 80 square meters
c. 60 square meters
d. 50 square meters
338. The subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective decree became effective last
a. 1972
b. 1976
c. 1981
d. 1986
339. Under the IRR of PD 957, the maximum length of a block in a subdivision should be
a. 300 meters
b. 400 meters
c. 500 meters
d. 1,000 meters
340. Any person who shall violate any provisions of PD 957 shall, upon conviction, may be punished by
a. A fine of not more than P 50,000.00
b. Imprisonment of not more than 5 years
c. Fine of not more than P 20,000
d. Fine of not more than P 10,000
341. A developer may divide the development and sale of the subdivision into phases, each phase to cover not
less than
a. 5 hectares
b. 10 hectares
c. 15 hectares
d. 12 hectares
342. In case of violation by the developer, HLURB may impose administrative fines for violations of PD 957 not
exceeding
a. P 5,000.00
b. P 10,000.00
c. P 20, 000.00
d. P 50,000.00
343. The performance bond required under PD 957 from a developer shall be made payable to
a. HUDCC
b. Republic of the Philippines
c. Homeowners Association
d. Local Government
344. A complaint may be filed with HLURB in the following instance

a. Complaint for non payment of brokers commission
b. Complaint by buyer against non completion of projects
c. Complaint of broker versus his salesperson
d. Complaint of developer for right of way
345. PD 1216 requires subdivision owners to provide adequate roads. Alleys, sidewalks and reserved open
spaces for parks or recreational use of the total area of a subdivision project equivalent to at least
a. 25 %
b. 30 %
c. 35 %
d. 20 %
346. It is defined under PD 957 as a parrel of land primarily partitioned for residential purposes into individual
lots, with or without improvements
a. Simple subdivision
b. Residential subdivision
c. Subdivision project
d. Complex Subdivision Plan
347. It refers to the housing programs and projects covering houses and lots or homelots only undertaken by
the Government or the private sector for the underprivileged and homeless citizens which shall include sites
and services
a. Economic housing
b. Socialized housing
c. Low cost housing
d. Homeless housing project
348. Under the present affordable housing of Pag-ibig Fund, the interest rate on the housing loan up to
P400,000 is
a. 4.5 %
b. 6.0 %
c. 6.5 %
d. 8.0 %
349. In a contract of real estate mortgage, it is used to refer to the person or entity which lends money to the
borrower for a housing loan
a. Lender
b. Mortgagee
c. Mortgagor
d. Financier
350. The processing fee to be paid by a borrower of a Pag-ibig housing loan at the time of approval and take
out of the loan is
a. P 1,000
b. P 2,000
c. P 3,000
d. P 5,000
351 Which of the following are the limitations to property ownership?
a. Police power, eminent domain, taxation and escheat
b. Scarcity, improvements, and area preference scarcity, improvements, and area preference
c. Right to enjoy, possess, exclude others, right to dispose
d. Interest, benefits, amenities
352. The maximum number of Pag-ibig members that may be tacked into a single loan is
a. Only 1
b. 2 members
c. 3 members
d. 3 members of the same family
353. The maximum age limit for the maturity of payment of the loan from Pagibig financing for a housing unit is
a. 50 years old
b. 60 years old
c. 65 years old
d. 70 years old
354. A borrower thru Pag-ibig Fund may purchase a residential lot and loan up to the age of
a. 50 years old
b. 60 years old
c. 65 years old
d. 70 years old
355. Small property owners refers to those whose only real property consists of residential lands in highly
urbanized cities not exceeding
d. 400 square meters
356. Mr. and Mrs. Clavisillas of Malaybalay Bukidnon wanted to loan under the Pagibig Financing to buy a
residential lot, and they can purchase a maximum size of
b. 1,000 square meters
c.2,000 square meters
d. 1 hectare of rural land
357. Under the present Pagibig Financing, the minimum amount of interest charged for housing loan is
a. 5.0%
b. 6.0%
c. 6.5%
d. 7.0%
358. In a low Density Residential should be principally for housing/ dwelling purposes the number of dwelling u
nits should be
a. 10 dwelling units and below
b 20 dwelling units and below
c. 25 dwelling units and below
d. 30 dwelling units and below
359. An area within a city or municipality principally for institutional establishments like welfare homes, home
for the aged, etc.
a. Identified Institutional Zone
b. Light Institutional Zone
c. Classified Institutional Zone
d. Special Institutional Zone
360. The Gross Floor Area of the building is defined as
a. Total Floor space of all covered areas
b. Total Floor space within the perimeter of the permanent external walls
c. Total Floor Space of the building including non covered improved areas
d. Total Floor Space excluding the non-use areas
361. In a high density residential zone area, the number of dwelling units allowed would be
a. Less than 10 per hectare
b. 20 or more per hectare
c. 21 to 65 per hectare
d. 66 or more per hectare
362. In a low Residential Density Zone no building or structure for human occupancy shall be higher than the
grade line in the property or sidewalk by more than
a. 10 meters
b. 12 meters
c. 15 meters
d. 21 meters
363. An area within the city intended for regional shopping centers such as large malls and other commercial
activities which are regional in scope is classified as
a. High Density Commercial Zone
b. Medium Density Commercial Zone
c. Mall and Business District Zone
d. Commercial Special Zone
364. The open space left between the building the lot lines is referred to as
a. Perimeter space
b. Property line easement
c. Setback
d. Easement
365. A process of introducing amendments to or a change in the text or maps of the zoning ordinance
a. Ordinance Revision
b. Reordinancing
c. Zoning amendments
d. Rezoning
366. The Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) once enacted into a zoning ordinance is for the purpose of
a. Evaluation
b. Monitoring
c. Supervision
d. Enforcement
367. It is classified as the area within a city or municipality intended for cultivation/ fishing and pastoral
activities e.g. fish, farming, cultivation of crops, goat/ cattle raising
a. Agricultural Zone
b. Agri-Pasteural Zone
c. Agri-Marine Zone
d. Agri-coastal zone
368. The Floor Area Ratio is computed through the following
a. Building Height divided by the Floor Area
b. Gross Floor Area of Building divided by area of the lot
c. Gross Floor Area divided by the height of the building
d. Floor Area of Units divided by the area of the lot
369. It refers to uses or land activities with contrasting characteristics sited adjacent to each other, e.g.
residential adjacent to industrial plants
a. Contracting uses
b. Contradicting uses
c. Non-congruent uses
d. Conflicting uses
370. Refers to a document embodying specific proposals for guiding, regulating growth and development of a
city or municipality
a. Community land use plan
b. Comprehensive community development plan
c. Comprehensive land use plan
d. Comprehensive land usage and development plan
371., It is primarily concerned with the use of the land and control of density of population trough imposition of
building heights, open space and density provisions in a given area
a. Land use plan
b. Land restrictions
c. Zoning
d. Exemption clearance
372. A device, defined in the CLUP, which grants an owner relief from certain provisions of a zoning ordinance
where because of the specific use would results in a particular hardship upon the owner, as distinguished
from mere inconvenience
a. Exemption
b. Certificate of non coverage
c. Exception
d. Exemption clearance
373. Refers to area designated principally for trade, services and business purposes as used in the zoning
ordinances
a. Commercial area
b. Central Business District
c. Commercial business District
d. Commercial Zone
374. It is an annual levy on real estate equivalent to 1% of assessed value which shall be in addition to the
basic real estate tax.
a. Socialized Housing Tax
b. Idle Land tax
c. Ad valorem tax
d. Special Education Fund tax
375. A document issued by the DENR Secretary or the Regional Executive Director certifying that the
proposed project or undertaking will not cause significant negative environmental impacts.
a. environmental ecological approval
b. environmental impact statement
c. environmental positive certificate
d. environmental compliance certificate
376. Survey of a titled land without technical description or with erroneous technical description.
a) Verification survey
b) Resurvey
c) Relocation
d) Amendment survey
377. Land valuation guidelines for socialized housing shall be set on the basis of the market value reflected in
the zonal valuation, or in its absence, on the latest real property tax declaration by this agency
a. Department of Finance
b. Housing Urban and Development Coordinating Council
c. City Assessor
d. BIR technical valuation committee
378. Sites and lands which, display marked and great potential of becoming urban areas within the period of
five (5) years
a. Potential urban areas
b. Future urban areas
c. Urbanizable areas
d. Identifiable urban areas
379. Urban areas under RA 7279 refer to all the cities regardless of their population density and to
municipalities with a population density of at least
a. 500 persons per square kilometer
b. 1,000 persons per square kilometer
c. 1,500 persons per square kilometer
d. 5,000 persons per square kilometer
380. Beneficiaries of this Act and to individuals or families residing in urban and urbanizable areas whose
income or combined household income falls within the poverty threshold as defined by the NEDA and who don
not own housing facilities
a. Blighted families
b. Underprivileged and homeless citizens
c. Slum families
d. Families in Areas for Priority Development
381. The local government of Quezon City imposed a socialized housing tax beginning 2012 on the assessed
value of all lands in urban areas in excess of the amount of
a. P 25,000
b. P 50,000
c. P 100,000
d. P 150,000
382. If the land of a person is in an area other than highly urbanized cities, or in the other urban areas, a small
property owner is one whose only real property consists of residential lands not exceeding
c. 1,000 square meters
383. The process of land acquisition by exchanging land for another place of land of equal value, or for shares
of stock in a government or quasi government corporation, for the purpose of planned and rational
development and provision for socialized housing
a. Land banking
b. Land acquisition
c. Land swapping
d. Land exchange
384. How many APDs are there in Metro Manila covered by proclamation under Proclamation No. 1967
amending Proc. No. 1893?
a. 110
b. 244
c. 284
d. 302
385. It refers to a group of people or homogeneous societies identified by self-ascription by other, who have
continuously lived as organized community on communally bounded and defined territory
a. Cultural communities
b. Indigenous cultural communities
c. Indigenous tribes
d. Indigenous cultural and tribal communities
386. The total number of ethnolinguistic groups of indigenous people is estimated to be at least
a. 75
b. 100
c. 110
d. 130
387. It is all water, which is open to the atmosphere and subject to surface runoff
a. Rainfall
b. Ground water
c. Atmospheric water
d. Surface water
388. It is the subsurface water that occurs beneath a water table in soils and rocks, or in geological formations
a. Surface water
b. Atmospheric water
c. Groundwater
d. Water table
389. Freshwater means water containing dissolved common salt, sodium chloride containing less than
a. 100 ppm
b. 200 ppm
c. 300 ppm
d. 500 ppm
390. Under the Clean Water Act, it is defined as water intended for human consumption or for use in food
preparation
a. Purified water
b. Mineral water
c. Processed water
d. Drinking water
391. An identifiable source of pollution with specific point of discharge into a particular water body
a. Non point source
b. Point source
c. Waste source
d. Leakage source
392. The largest source of water pollution comes from
a. Domestic source
b. Livestock
c. Industrial waste
d. Water run offs
393. The highest major source of water pollution in the country is due to
a. Industrial sources
b. Domestic waste
c. Livestock
d. Non-point sources
394. A disposal area wherein the solid wastes are indiscriminately thrown or disposed of without due planning
and consideration for environmental and health standards
a. Garbage dump
b. Sanitary landfill
c. Open dump
d. Neighborhood dump
395. A solid waste transfer station or sorting station, drop-off center, a composting facility, and a recycling
facility
a. Junk shop
b. Materials recovery facility
c. Materials waste station
d. Solid waste dumping facility
396. The systematic administration of activities which provide for segregation at source, segregated
transportation, storage, transfer, processing, treatment, and disposal of solid waste
a. Solid waste administration
b. Solid waste management facility
c. Ecological solid waste management
d. Ecological waste administration
397. Material waste generated from planting or harvesting of crops, trimming or pruning of plants and wastes
a. Plant wastes
b. Garden wastes
c. Agricultural wastes
d. Green wastes
398. The substances that significantly deplete or otherwise modify the ozone layer in a manner that is likely to
result in adverse effects of human health and the environment
a. Greenhouses gases
b. Atmospheric pollutants
c. Ozone depleting substance
d. Ozone layer pollutants
399. The geographic-based instrument for planners and decision makers which present an evaluation of the
environment quality and carrying capacity of an area
a. Eco-evaluation report
b. Eco-profile
c. Eco-based profile
d. Eco-quality profile
400. The certificate issued by the DENR to a vehicle manufacturer certifying that a new vehicle meets the
requirements under the law
a. Certificate of compliance
b. Certificate of Passing
c. Certificate of Conformity
d. Vehicle Clearance certificate
401. It means any matter found in the atmosphere other than oxygen, nitrogen, water vapor, carbon dioxide,
and inert gases in their natural or normal concentrations, that is detrimental to health
a. Atmospheric wastes
b. Air waste
c. Air pollution
d. Contaminated air
402. The most problematic sources of pollution are air, water and
a. Noise
b. Solid waste
c. Littering
d. Human fluids
403. An ECC shall contain specific measures and conditions that the project Proponent has to undertake
before and during the operation of a project, and in some cases, during the projects
a. Planning stage
b. Review stage
c. Abandonment stage
d. Operation stage
404. A general area declared thru Proclamation 2146 as environmentally sensitive such that significant
environmental impacts are expected if certain types/thresholds of proposed projects are located, developed or
implemented in it
a. Critical Area of Development
b. Environmentally critical location
c. Environmentally critical area
d. Environmentally sensitive area
405. It refers to projects belonging to project types declared thru Proclamation No. 2146 and
Proclamation No. 803 which may pose significant negative environmental impact at certain thresholds of
operation regardless of location.
a. Environmentally critical area
b. Environmental critical project
c. Environmental impact project
d. Environmentally negative project
406. The government agency tasked to protect the environment and natural resources of the country
a. Department of Environment
b. Department of Environment and National Resources
c. Department of Ecology
d. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
407. It refers to the non living elements and physical components of the environment
a. Inert elements
b. Biotic
c. Ecological environment
d. Biotic environment
408. The major regional groupings of plants & animals discernible at a global scale composed not only of the
climax vegetation, but also of associated successional communities, subclimax communities, fauna, and soils
a. Biomes
b. Bio environment
c. Ecological environment
d. Biotic environment
409. It is the biological environment consisting of all the organisms living in a particular area, as well as all the
nonliving, physical components of the environment.
a. Environments
b. Ecosystem
c. Environmental system
d. Bio-eco system
410. Ecology is often used more loosely in such terms in common parlance as a synonym for the word
a. Natural environment
b. Ecological balance
c. Green technology
d. Bio-eco system
411. It is the scientific of the study of the distribution and abundance of life and the interactions between
organisms and their environment
a. Environmental study
b. Ecology
c. Ecosystem
d. Environmentalism
412. A loan for personal property and secured by personal property.
a. Real estate mortgage
b. Chattel mortgage
c. Liens
d. Blanket mortgages
413. What is the maximum assessment level for Industrial building?
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 80%
414. This principle holds that a prudent person would not pay more for a good or service than the cost of
acquiring an equally satisfactory substitute good or service.
a. Principle of highest and best
b. Principle of anticipation
c. Principle of substitution
d. Principle of competition
415. This comparative approach considers the sales, listings or offers of similar or substitute properties and
related market data, and establishes a value estimate by processes involving comparison.
a. Market data approach
b. Cost approach
c. Income approach
d. Contractors method
416. This comparative approach considers income and expense data relating to the property being valued and
estimates value through a capitalization process.
b. Income approach
c. Cost approach
d. Residual technique
417. This comparative approach considers the possibility that, as an alternative to the purchase of a given
property, one could acquire a modern equivalent asset that would provide equal utility.
b. Income approach
c. Cost approach
d. Building residual technique
418. In property appraisal, these are suppositions taken to be true, involving facts, conditions, or situations
affecting the subject (property being appraised), or the approach in the valuation.
a. Assumptions
b. Market conditions
c. Perceptions
d. Observations
419. These are constraints that maybe imposed by clients or by statutory law that would likely to affect
valuation.
a. Limiting Conditions
b. Assumptions
c. Observations
d. Valuation methods
420. Is a valuer or an appraiser who is in the employ of either the entity that owns the assets or the accounting
firm responsible for preparing the entitys financial record and/or reports.
a. External Valuer
b. Public Sector Appraiser
c. Internal Valuer
d. Valuer General
421. Is a valuer or an appraiser, together with any associates, has no material links with the client, an agent
acting on behalf of the client or the subject of the assignment.
a. External Valuer
b. Internal Valuer
c. Assessor
d. Broker
422. As provided for in the Philippine Valuation Standards, the four property types are:
a. Real estate, asset, machinery, plant and equipment
b. Real property, personal property, businesses and financial interests
c. Real estate, fixture, chattel and trade related
d. Real property, machinery, equipment and plant
423. Families are more aware of recycling their consumer wastes than ever before. This is an example of
which kind of force:
a. Social
b. Governmental
c. Economic
d. Environmental
424. Absolute ownership subject only to limitations imposed by the country is known as
a. Fee simple estate.
b. Leasehold estate.
c. Lease fee estate.
d. Severalty.
425. Interests in items that are not permanently attached or affixed to real estate and are generally
characterized by their moveability.
a. Real estate property
b. Fixtures
d. Chattel
426. Any commercial, industrial, service or investment entity pursuing an economic activity is referred to as
a. Financial interests
b. Real property
d. Business
427. Tax imposed on the right to transmit real and personal properties upon death of the property owner
(decedent).
a. Inheritance tax
b. Capital gains tax
c. Estate tax
d. Real estate tax
428. Refers to government housing projects which may either be a subdivision or a condominium intended for
homeless low-income family beneficiaries
a. Residential subdivision
b. Low cost housing
c. Socialized housing
d. Marginal housing
429.An item that was once personal property that has become part of the real estate is referred to as
a. Real property
b. Real estate
c. Fixture
d. Equipment
430. The purest and most complete form of real estate ownership is
a. leased fee estate.
b. Leasehold estate.
c. fee simple.
d. Real property.
431. A form of partial ownership in which other tenants in common purchase the right of use/occupancy for a
specified period of time, say one week per year.
a. Cooperative
b. Condominium
c. Time-share
d. Severalty
432. The rights and privileges granted to the owner of intangible assets.
a. Personal property
b. Bundle of rights
c. Intangible property
d. Tangible property
433. Rights generally inherent in the ownership of real estate include but are referred to as
a. Property rights
b. Real property
c. Bundle of rights
d. Lease interests
434. At the most fundamental level, value is created and sustained by the interrelationship of five factors that
are associated with any product, service, or commodity. These are
a. Utility, need, purchasing power, buyers and sellers
b. Capital markets, money markets, discount rate and reserve requirements
c. Utility, scarcity, desire, purchasing power, and transferability
d. Location, size, shape, terrain and elevation
435. In property markets, this constitutes the number of possible buyers or renters seeking specific types of
property interests at various prices in a given market within a given period of time, assuming other factors such
as population, income, future prices, and consumer preferences remain constant.
a. Supply
b. Active market
c. Demand
d. Efficient market
436. This economic principle holds that value is simply a function of the present worth of future benefits.
a. Principle of substitution
b. Principle of contribution
c. Principle of anticipation
d. Principle of highest and best use
437. It is defined as that logical, legal, and most probable use which will yield the greatest net income to the
land over a sustained period of time.
a. Interim use
b. Actual use
c. Highest and best use
d. Existing use
438. This term means coordination or management.
a. Capital
b. Labor
c. Entrepreneurship
d. Production
439. The process of orchestrating land, labor, and capital to produce an item.
a. Conduction
b. Analysis
c. Entrepreneurship
d. Capitalization
440. The act of distinguishing or delineating markets that the appraiser should consider in his data program is
called
a. market segregation.
b. market analysis.
c. market segmentation.
d. market study
441. The study of a specific market. It is the collection and dissection of data and the conversion of that data to
information that can be used for analysis and decision-making by an appraiser or analyst.
a. Marketability study
b. Feasibility study
c. Market analysis
d. Investment analysis
442. The analysis of an environment of buyers/sellers and/or landlords/tenants (lessors/lessees).
a. Marketability study
b. Feasibility study
c. Market study
d. Investment analysis
443. If the contract rent and the market rent are equal, the Leasehold or Lessees Interest is
_______________, assuming there is no leasehold improvement.
a. Positive lease
b. Negative lease
c. Zero
d. Equal
444. A real estate mall developer purchases a site with the intent of building a regional mall because the
immediate area has a significant number of households and the income level of those households is affluent.
What type of force is the neighborhood going through?
a. Social
b. Governmental
c. Economic
d. Environmental
445. Specific characteristics of properties and transactions that cause the prices paid for real estate to vary.
a. Comparable data
b. Units of comparison
c. Elements of comparison
d. Comparable sale prices
446. The process of retiring a mortgage or debt over a specified time period.
a. Debt service
b. Installment
c. Amortization
d. Equity
447. Represents the money earned for the right to use capital.
a. Equity
b. Amortization
c. Interest
d. Principal amount
448. Credit regulation devices that the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas can use to regulate the supply of money.
a. Lending rates and amortization rates
b. Capitalization rates and mode of payments
c. Discount rates and reserve requirements
d. Production of new bills and disposal of old bills
449. In the application of the discounted cash flow analysis to operating real properties, the value of the
property is estimated as the net present value of
a. The series of periodic net operating incomes.
b. The reversion value, anticipated at the end of the projection period.
c. The series of periodic net operating incomes, along with an estimate of the reversion value,
anticipated at the end of the projection period.
d. The value of the business at the end of the projection period.
450. The rent specified by a given lease arrangement.
a. Economic rent
b. Market rent
c. Contract rent
d. Rental rate
451. Jake and Rosie sold their house which is their principal residence. You as their broker have to advise
them that the transaction is exempt from the capital gains tax if they spend how many percent of the
sales proceeds in acquiring or constructing their new principal residence?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 100%
d. 60%
452. For the exemption in payment of capital gains tax to be valid, within how many months from the sale or
disposition of their principal residence should Jake and Rosie use the proceeds inacquiring or
constructing their new principal residence:
a.
24 months
b.
36 months
c.
18 months
d.
12 months
453. Despite the exemption from the capital gains tax if Jake and Rosie will use the sales proceeds in acquiring or
constructing their new principal residence, what must the buyer do before paying the agreed upon sell ing price in
order to ensure payment of all taxes due on the transaction?
a.
Withhold and deduct the six percent capital gains tax from the agreed selling price and pay it directly to
the BIR for later refund upon proof by Jake and Rosie.
b.
Withhold and deduct the six percent capital gains tax from the agreed selling price and
deposit the amount in cash or manager's check in Jake's and Rosie' s account
c.
Demand a provision in the deed of sale that any future liabilities shall be for the account of the sellers
d.
Withhold and deduct the six percent capital gains tax from the agreed selling price and deposit the
amount in cash or manager's check in an interest-bearing bank account under an escrow agreement
between the bank, the concerned RDO, the sellers and the buyer
454.
At the end of the prescribed period for acquiring or constructing their new principal residence,Jake and
Rosie must submit documentary evidence showing that they used the proceeds of the sale to acquire a
new principal residence. Within how many days from the end of the prescribed period should they
submit the documentary evidence so that they shall not be declared deficient in the payment of their
capital gains tax on the sale?
a.
b.
c.
d.
455.
Exemptions on payment of the six percent (6% ) capital gains tax on the sale of an individualseller's
principal residence who will use the proceeds to purchase a new place of residence may be availed of
only once every:
a.
b.
c.
d.
456.
b.
c.
d.
Capital Gains Tax P1,470,000.00

Documentary Stamps Tax P 367,500.00
Commission P1,225,000.00
If the value added tax is P720,000, what would be the selling price before VAT?
a.
b.
C.
c.
d.
458.
5 years
8 years
10 years
12 years
You have just closed the sale of a 700 square meter commercial lot in Pasig. The selling price agreed
upon is P35,000 per square meter. You have to advise the seller, who has agreed to pay all the
expenses, to prepare several checks. What amounts should he indicate for the capital gains tax, the
documentary stamps tax, and your 5% commission check? The zonal valuation of the lot is P37,000
per square meter.
a.
457.
Within 15 days
Within 30 days
Within 45 days
Within 60 days
P3,000,000
P4,000,000
P5,000,000
P6,000,000
P7,000,000
If the value added tax is P720,000, what would be the selling price inclusive of VAT?
a.
b.
c.
d.
P5,720,000
P6,720,000
P7,720,000
P8,720,000
Good Luck & God Bless!!!

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RED OCTOBER EDUCATIONAL AND TRAINING CENTER, INC.

Republic of the Philippines

190. A private subdivision survey is indicated using the letters

288. Under the REIT law, a Constitutive Document means

310. The National Building Code of 1977 is

344. A complaint may be filed with HLURB in the following instance

Capital Gains Tax P1,470,000.00

Good Luck & God Bless!!!

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