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CONFIDENTIAL*

1 What properties of water help it to moderate the changes in temperature?


A Cohesion and adhesion force
B Polarity and hydrogen bonding
C Solvent and high specific heat capacity
D High specific heat capacity and high heat of vaporisation
2 Which of the followings are properties of protein?
I

Amphoteric

II

Can be denatured by heat over 60C

III

Can act as a buffer

A I
B I and II
C II and III
D I, II and III
3 Blood, compact bone and yellow elastic and hyaline cartilages are all classified as
A epithelium tissues
B muscle tissues
C connective tissues
D nerve tissues
4 Which of the following characteristics are true for both mitochondrion and chloroplast?
I

Contain enzymes

II

Contain DNA

III

Able to replicate

IV

Present in all eukaryotic cells

A I and II
B I and III
C I, II and III
D I, II, III and IV

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5 Which of the following statements uses the shortest DNA template.


A A DNA with 75 codons
B An mRNA with 75 codons
C A tRNA with 75 nucleotides
D A polypeptide chain with 75 amino acids
6 The diagram below shows the Lineweaver-Burke plot for an enzyme catalysed reaction.

Which of the following combinations is correct?


A

Without inhibitor With competitive inhibitor With non-competitive inhibitor


X
Y
Z

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7 The diagram below shows the stages in the dark reaction. At which stage is the reduced
NADP reoxidised?

8 Cooperation of the two photosystems of chloroplast is required for


A ATP synthesis
B reduction of NADP and ATP synthesis
C cyclic photophosphorylation
D oxidation of the reaction center of photosystem I
9 Which of the following substances will enter and leave the mitochondria during aerobic
respiration ?
Substance entering mitochondrion
A Glucose

Substance leaving mitochondrion


ATP

B Glucose

Carbon dioxide

C Pyruvate

ATP

D Pyruvate

NADH

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10

Based on the diagram above what is the class of enzyme which catalyses reaction I ?
A Isomerase
B Dehydrogenase
C Hydrolase
D Transferase
11 Which of the following is a hydrogen donor in the biosynthesis of purple sulphur bacteria
and green sulphur bacteria ?
A Water
B Hydrogen sulphide
C NADH
D Hydrocarbon compound

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12 Which of the following are the characteristics of saprotrophs ( saprophytes) ?


I

No chlorophyll

II Digestive enzymes are secreted outside the body and the soluble products
of digestion are absorbed.
III They are decomposers
IV Many saprotrophs are fungi and bacteria
A

I and II

B I, II and III
C II and III
D
13

I, II, III and IV

The following graph shows four oxygen dissociation curves for respiratory pigments.
Which curve represents the oxygen dissociation curve for myoglobin ?

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14 The diagram below represents the control of breathing. Which of the following terms
best describes this control mechanism ?

A Negative feedback
B Positive feedback
C Reflex arc
D Voluntary control
15 The following diagram shows the hydrostatic pressure (HP), the solute potential of the
plasma proteins in the capillary (s) at the arteriole end and the venule end, and the HP
and s in tissue fluid.

Which is true about the diagram ?


A

At the arteriole end


Filtration, filtration value = 3.2kPa

At the venule end


Absorption, absorption value = 0.5kPa

Filtration, filtration value = 2.0kPa

Absorption, absorption value = 0.3kPa

Filtration, filtration value = 1.2kPa

Absorption, absorption value = 1.5kPa

Filtration, filtration value = 2.1kPa

Absorption, absorption value = 3.6kPa

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16 Which of the following correctly describes the movement of water across a root?
From the root hairs across the
cortex
A Apoplast and vacuolar
pathways

Apoplast and vacuolar


pathways

B Symplast and vacuolar


pathways

Symplast and vacuolar


pathways

C Apoplast, symplast and


vacuolar pathways
D Apoplast, symplast and
vacuolar pathways
17

From the cortex across the


endodermis

Apoplast symplast and


vacuolar pathways
Symplast and vacuolar
pathways

Which of the following is true when a person has defective cell in the islets of
langerhand?
A

Glucose concentration is low in the blood

B Glucose concentration is low in the urine


C Glycogen content is high the muscle
D
18

Glycogen content is high in the liver

Which of the following processes enable the mammalian kidney to control the
absorptions of water in dry conditions?
A The production of hypotonic urine
B The ability of the tubule cells to detect blood osmotic pressure
C The reabsorptions of water from the glomerulus in the proximal tubule
D An increase in the permeability of the collecting duct through the action of
antidiuretic hormone( ADH)

19

Why do action potential usually propagate only one direction along the axon?
A The ions flow along the axon in one direction only
B The Nodes of Ranvier conduct in one direction only.
C Both sodium and potassium voltage- gated channel open in one direction only
D The refractory period prevents the opening of the voltage- gated Na+ channel after
each depolarization stage.

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20

The figure below shows a neuromuscular junction.

The chemical substance release from the regions X and Y are:


A

X
Cholinesterase

Y
Sodium ions

Cholinesterase

Calcium ions

Acetylcholine

Sodium ions

Acetylcholine

Calcium ions

21 Steroids hormones
A

function via second messenger

after the activity of the genes in cell

trigger rapid, short-term respond in cell

bind to receptors on the cell surface membranae

22 Which of the following statement about phytochrome is true?


I

phytochrome is a blue green pigment

II

phytochrome exist in two form, Pr and Pfr

III the Pr form of phytochrome is the active form


A

B I and II
C II and III
D

I, II and III

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23

10

Which of the following lymphoid tissues enlarges during childhood but shrinks after
puberty?
A Spleen
B Liver
C Lymp nodes
D Thymus gland

24

Which of the following are found in Human Immunodefeciency Virus (HIV)?


I

DNA

II

RNA

III DNA ligase


IV Reverse transcriptase
A

I and II

B I and III
C II and III
D

II and IV

25 Which of the following are the similarities between Marchantia and Dryopteris ?
I In both plants, movement of antherozoids occur in the presence of water.
II In both plants, sporophyte generations produce spores by meiosis
III In both plants, the sporophyte generation is dominant
IV Both plants can reproduce asexually
A

I, and II

I, II and III

I, II and IV

I, II, III and IV

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11

26 Which of the following is a correct match.


Germ layers
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) Paedogenesis
(c) Polyembryony
(d) Regeneration

Organs or Systems
(I) The potential to divide and replace damaged
or missing parts.
(II) Larval or pupal forms with the potential to
reproduce before attaining the adult stage.
(III) Production of two or more individuals from a
zygote.
(IV) Production of new individual from an egg
without fertilisation.

Which of the following is correctly paired?

27

(a)
(II)

(b)
(IV)

(c)
(III)

(d)
(I)

(II)

(II)

(I)

(III)

(III)

(II)

(I)

(IV)

(IV)

(I)

(III)

(II)

Which of the following events triggers parturition?


A Oestrogen level drops lower than the progesterone level
B Progesterone level drops lower than the oestrogen level
C Oxytocin level increases
D Prostaglandin level increases

28

Which event occurs during epigeal germination of a seed planted in the soil?
A

The epicotyls elongates but the cotyledon remains underground.

B The hypocotyls elongates but the cotyledon remains underground


C The hypocotyls elongates and pushes the cotyledon above the soil surface
D

The plumule elongates and pushes the cotyledon above the soil surface

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29

12

The diagram below shows an allometric growth that occurs in a human.

Which of these statements are correct ?


I

Graph P shows the growth of the thymus gland

II Graph Q shows the growth of the brain


III Graph R shows the absolute growth curve of the human body
IV Graph S shows the growth of the reproductive organs
A

I, II and III

B I, III and IV
C II, III and IV
D
30

I, II, III and IV

During pupa formation from the last larval stage in the butterfly, which of the
following concentration of hormones occur ?
A

Low concentration of ecdysone and juvenile hormone

B High concentration of ecdysone and juvenile hormone


C High concentration of juvenile hormone and low concentration of ecdysone
D

High concentration of ecdysone and low concentration of juvenile hormone

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13

31 In a garden pea, two alleles are present, allele P for the purple flower trait and recessive
allele p for white flower trait. Half of the pollen produced by the plant has the recessive
allele p. Which of the following is most suitable to explain why this has occurred?
A

Mutation occurred.

Mitosis occurred in parent cells.

Crossing over occurred during prophase I of meiosis.

Segregation of the two alleles during anaphase I of meiosis.

32 White eye in Drosophila is determined by a recessive sex-linked gene and a dominant


allele produces red eye. Which of the following is the correct progeny of a cross
between a heterozygous red eye female with a white eye male.
Female

33

Male

Red
1

White
1

Red
1

White
1

Which of the following statements about Downs syndrome are true?


I Trisomy disease
II Caused by non-disjunction during mitosis
III A type of aneuploidy
IV Could be male or female
A I and III only
B I, II and III only
C I, III and IV only
D

I, II, III and IV

34 If the original sequence of chromosome is L M N O P Q R S and two chromosome


mutation occurs, resulting in the sequence of L N M O P R S, what type of mutation is
it?
A Two translocation
B One translocation and one deletion
C One inversion and one deletion
D Two translocation
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14

35 In a population of humans in Africa, 1.0% of its individuals suffered from the sickle-cell
anemia and died. What is the percentage of the individuals in the population that posses
an abnormal haemoglobin, which is heterozygote?
A 1
B 10
C 18
D 90
36 Albinism in man is controlled by a recessive allele a. In a population, the frequency of
albinism is one for every 40, 000 individuals. What is the frequency of allele a?
A 0.05%
B 0.5%
C 5%
D 50%
37 The diagram below shows the regulatory scheme of lactose operon, where I to IV
represent the reaction sequence while X, Y and Z represent the genes.

What are the genes represented by X, Y and Z in the above scheme?


X

Regulator

Operator

Structural

Regulator

Structural

Operator

Operator

Regulator

Structural

Operator

Structural

Regulator

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38

15

If the regulator gene of lactose operon system in Escherichia coli has mutated and is
non-functional, which of the following statements is true?
A - galactosidase enzyme is synthesized in the presence of lactose.
B - galactosidase enzyme is synthesized with or without the presence of lactose.
C - galactosidase is not synthesized in the presence of lactose
D - galactosidase enzyme is not synthesized with or without the presence of lactose

39

The following diagram shows a plasmid having three restriction site tetR and ampR, the
genes for tetracycline and ampicillin resistance respectively.

What will be obtained if the plasmid is treated with Bam HI?


A A single linear fragment is obtained.
B Two linear fragments will be obtained.
C Six linear fragments will be obtained.
D There will be no change to the structure of the plasmid

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16

40 The diagram below shows DNA cloning using a bacterial plasmid.

Why is it necessary to carry out screening?


I
There are bacteria that are not transformed.
II

There are bacteria that do not undergo amplification.

III

There are bacteria that are transformed with non-recombinant plasmids.

A I and II
B I and III
C II and III
D I, II and III
41 The following identification key is prepared for five types of animals
1

Animals with back bone 2


Animals without back bone.. 3
2
Body with dry scales P
Body without scales. Q
3
A pair of antennae.. 4
More than two pairs of antennae.. R
4
Three pairs of mouthparts S
A pairs of jaws. T
What are animals P, Q, R, S and T?
A

P
Snake

Q
Frog

R
Cockroach

S
Prawn

T
Centipede

Frog

Snake

Cockroach

Centipede

Prawn

Snake

Frog

Centipede

Prawn

Cockroach

Snake

Frog

Prawn

Cockroach

Centipede

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42

17

The table below shows the taxonomic hierarchy from kingdom to genus for three
different organisms.
Taxonomic
hierarchy
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus

Examples of organisms
Plantae
W
Dicotyledoneae
Ranales
Ranunculacae
Ranunculus

Animalia
Annelida
X
Terricolae
Lumbricidae
Lumbricus

Animalia
Chordata
Mammalian
Y
Hominidae
Homo

What do X, Y and Z represent?


A

W
Angiospermophyta

X
Anthozoa

Y
Echinodermata

Bryophyte

Nematoda

Mollusca

Coniferophyta

Cestoda

Cnidaria

Angiospermophyta

Oligochaeta

Primates

43 The table below shows four plant phyla and their examples.
Phylum
I Fungi
II Bryophyta
III Filicinophyta
IV Angiospermophyta

Example
a) Helianthus
b) Dryopteris
c) Marchantia
d) Mucor

Which of the following is the correct match for the above four phyla and their
examples?
I
A (a)

II
(b)

III
(c)

IV
(d)

B (c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

C (d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

D (d)

(c)

(b)

(a)

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18

44 The following features are characteristics of a group of plants


Rhizoid is unicellular
They are ancestors of terrestrial plants
Sporophyte stages is dominant
Spores are contained within a sporangium
Haploid spores germinate into gametophyte
These plants belong to the phylum
A Algae
B Bryophyta
C Coniferophyta
D Angiospermophyta
45

Which of the following could cause phenotype variation in organisms that have the
same genotype?
A Mutation
B Exposure to different environment
C Continous variation within the species
D Crossing over in gametogenesis

46 The best definition of soecies involves the


A interbreeding capability
B morphological similarities
C habitat similarities
D physiological similarities
47 Which of the following statements are true about a climax community?
I The plant community is at dynamic equilibrium
II The plant community has the highest species diversity
III The plant community has achieved maturity and stability
IV The plant community is formed at the end of a succession process
A I, II, and III
B I, II and IV
C II, III and IV
D I, II, III and IV
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48

19

Both an aphid and a caterpillar are living on the same leaf. The caterpillar feeds on the
leaf, while the aphid sucks the fluid from the phloem of the leaf. Each species occupies
A the same niche in the same habitat
B the same niche in different habitats
C different niches in the same habitat
D different niches in different habitats

49

Which population growth curve will be produced if environmental resistance is absent?


A Sigmoid curve
B S-shaped curve
C Linear curve
D Exponential curve

50 In capture-mark-release-recapture method done to estimate the population of rats in an


oil palm plantation, 600 rats were caught in the first catch and 650 in the second catch.
350 of the 650 in the second catch did not have markings. What is the rat population size
in the oil palm plantation?
A

323

379

C 1114
D

1300

END OF QUESTION PAPER

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Section A [40 marks]


Answer all questions in this section.
1

The diagram below represents a longitudinal section through part of a striated muscle.

(a)(i) What is the term used to describe the basic unit of muscle contraction shown above?

[1 mark]
(ii) Identify the parts labelled A,B and C.
A: ....
B:..
C:......
[3 marks ]
(b)

The diagram shows the A band, the I band and the H zone. Which of the structures:
(i) contain actin but no myosin
...
[1 mark]
(ii) shortens when the muscle contracts
....
[1 mark]

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(c)

Describe the role played by ATP and Ca 2+ in muscle contraction


(i)

ATP:

..
.....
.
[2 marks]
(ii)

calcium ions:
......
..
...
[2 marks]

Graph M shows the growth curve of a woody perennial plant, and Graph N shows the
growth curve of an insect.

Graph M

Graph N

(a)(i) With reference to Graph M and N, name the pattern and explain the form of the two
types of growth curves.
Graph M
...
..
[2 marks]

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Graph N
..
..
[2 marks]
(ii)

The growth curve of the insect uses length as a measure of growth. Give a reason why
this growth curve cannot be considered as a true measurement of the insects growth.
.
.
[1 mark]

(iii)

If a growth curve is plotted for the same insect using dry mass as a measure of growth,
what form of growth curve would be produced?
..
[1 mark]

(b)(i) State the role played by the ecdysone and juvenile hormone in the metamorphosis in
insects.
Ecdysone:.
.
[1 mark]
Juvenile hormone:.............
..
[1mark]
(ii)

Explain why synthetic juvenile hormone can be used as insecticides.


..
......
.....
.....
[2 marks]

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The bacterium Eschericia coli produces - galactosidase only in the presence of lactose.
- galactosidase hydrolyses the lactose sugar to glucose and galactose. The diagram
below represents a part of DNA which controls the synthesis of - galactosidase.

(a)

Draw an arrow from the box T to show the new position of the repressor molecule if the
lactose molecule is absent.
[1 mark]

(b)

Explain why there is no - galactosidase synthesis when molecule T is in the new


position.

[2 marks]

(c)

Explain how the presence of the lactose molecule induces the production of
- galactosidase.
..
.
..

(d)

[3 marks]
State the function of lac Y gene.
..
..
[1 mark]

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(e)

State the functions of the following structures in the lactose operon.


(i) Regulator gene
.
[1 mark]
(ii) Promoter
..
[1 mark]
(iii) Operator
......
[1 mark]

The diagram below shows three types of unicellelular organisms.

(a)

Name the taxonomic kingdom of the organisms above.

[1 mark]

(b)

State the scientific name and the phylum of each of the organisms given in the diagram
above.
Organism

Name

Phylum

A
B
C
[6 marks]

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(c)

Organism B has two nuclei, namely macronucleus and micronucleus. State the function
of micronucleus.
..
[1 mark]

(d)

State two different characteristics between organism A and C.


......
.
[2 marks]

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Section B [60 marks]


Answer any four questions from this section.
5 (a)
(b)

Besides light intensity, explain how other environmental factors may affect the rate of
photosynthesis.
[10 marks]
State five differences between photosynthesis and aerobic respiration.
[5 marks]

6 (a)

Explain what happens during atria systole, ventricular systole and diastole in a cardiac
cycle of the heart.
[ 7 marks ]

(b) Describe the structure of the heart muscles and explain how heartbeat is initiated.
[ 8 marks ]
7 (a) Explain what is meant by the following terms:
i. antigen
ii.
antibody

[4 marks]

(b) Briefly explain the responses of lymphocytes towards antigen.

[8 marks]

(c ) Explain briefly the concept of self and non-self.

[3 marks]

8 (a) Explain the development of the seed after fertilization.

[10 marks]

(b) Differentiate the structures of monocotyledonous and dicotyledonous seeds.


[5 marks]
9 (a) Explain the types of gene mutation.

[11 marks]

(b) Downs syndrome is caused by chromosomal mutation. Explain how this may occur.
[4 marks]
10

Explain how the following techniques are carried out:


(a) Gene therapy

[7 marks]

(b) DNA fingerprinting techniques

[8 marks]

END OF QUESTION PAPER

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TRIAL STPM 2010


OBJECTIVE ANSWER SCHEME
1. D
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. A

11.B
12.D
13.A
14.A
15.C
16.D
17.D
18.D
19.D
20.D

21.C
22.B
23.D
24.D
25.C
26.C
27.B
28.C
29.D
30.D

31.D
32.A
33.C
34.C
35.C
36.B
37.A
38.B
39.A
40.B

41.D
42.D
43.D
44.C
45.B
46.A
47.D
48.C
49.D
50.D

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TRIAL STPM 2010 ANSWER SCHEME


SECTION A
NO
ANSWER
1(a)(i) Sarcomere
(ii) A-Z line
B-Actin
C-myosin
(b)(i) I band
(ii) I band and H zone
(c)(i) Provides energy to break cross- bridges/rotates
myosin head
(reject muscle contraction)
Provides energy to pump actively calcium ions back into the
sarcoplasmic reticulum
(ii) Calcium ions bind to troponin causing reorientation of the
tropomyosin
Exposing myosin head binding site on the actin filament
2a(i)

(ii)

(iii)
(b)(i)

(ii)

Graph M
unlimited growth
It is produced following an annual serial of smaller sigmoid
curves
Graph N
intermittent growth
Growth only takes place for a short period of time during
ecdysis before the new skin hardens
Because growth is represented by the increase in organic
material in the body.
Length of the exoskeleton is not a true reflection of growth for
insects
(Normal) sigmoid curve // S-shaped curve
Ecdysone
stimulates ecdysis / moulting of exoskeleton // stimulates
development of adult characteristics
Juvenile hormone
maintains the juvenile characteristics of an insect
Synthetic juvenile hormone can block the production of adult
characteristics in insects.
Thus insects dont mature to breed.

3(a) T molecule binds to the operator


(b) The operator and part of the promoter are covered, preventing
RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter.
The lactose operon system is switch off.//Transcription of
structured genes to produce enzyme does not occur.
(c) A small amount of lactose is converted to the allolactose
isomer. Allolactose bind to the repressor, changing its
structure
1
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SUBTOTAL
TOTAL
1
1
1
1
1
3
1
2
1
1
1
2
1
1
TOTAL

2
10

1
1

1
1

1
1
1

Max 1
1

1
1

1
TOTAL
1
1

2
10
1

1
2
1

NO

ANSWER

Allolactose repressor complex detaches from the operator.


RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
Transcription of structured gene occurs, mRNA is produced,
translated and enzymes like -galactosidase are synthesize
(d) The lac Y gene encodes the synthesis of permease enzyme (the
membrane protein that transports lactose molecules into cell)
(e) (i) codes synthesis of repressor molecule
(ii) binding site for RNA polymerase
(iii) binding site for repressor molecule
4(a) Protoctista// Protista
(b)
Organism
Name
Amoeba sp.
A
B
C

Paramecium
sp.
Euglena sp.

Phylum
Rhizopoda

SUBTOTAL
TOTAL
1
1

1
1
1
1
TOTAL
1

3
10
1

1+1

Ciliophora
1+1
Zoomastigina

(Scientific names must ended with sp.


e.g Reject Amoeba )
(c) Function of micronucleus: controls the function of sexual
reproduction
(d)
Characteristic
Organism A
Organism C
Cell wall
Absent
Present
Flagella
Absent
Present
Structure used for
Pseudopodium
Flagellum
locomotion
(accept any other suitable answers)

1+1

1/0
1/0
1/0
Max 2

TOTAL

2
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10

SECTION B
NO

ANSWER

SUBTOTAL
TOTAL

5.(a)
Carbon dioxide concentration
Required in light-independent reaction
Increasing carbon dioxide concentration, increases the rate of
photosynthesis
Rate of photosynthesis becomes constant after carbon dioxide
concentration exceeds reaches certain level
At higher concentration, the rate of photosynthesis decreases
as CO2 absorption is reduced by stomatal closure
(Any 3)

1
1

Temperature
Photosynthesis process is controlled by enzymes
The rate of photosynthesis increases with an increase in
temperature provided light intensity and concentration of CO2
are not limiting factors
Rate of photosynthesis doubles for every 10C increase in
temperature until optimum temperature
Above optimum temperature, rate decreases as the enzymes
are denatured
(Any 3)
Water availability
Water is required in light dependent reaction//photolysis of
water where electrons/ H atom are given out to reduce
NADP
Without water plants close their stomata and would prevent
entry of CO2 into the plants for photosynthesis
(Any 2)

1
1
1

Oxygen concentration
Relatively high O2 level inhibits photosynthesis
O2 competes with CO2 for active site of RuBisCo which
will decrease the overall rate of photosynthesis

1
1

1
1

1
1

Aerobic respiration
A catabolic process which
results in the breakdown of
carbohydrate molecules to
simple inorganic molecules
Energy is stored in the form
of ATP for future use.

Oxygen is used
3
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Max :3

1
1
1
Max :2

(b)
Photosynthesis
An anabolic process which
results in the synthesis of
carbohydrate from simple
inorganic molecules
Energy is accumulated and
stored in the form of
carbohydrates
Oxygen is released

Max: 3

1/0

1/0
1/0

NO

ANSWER
Results in an increase in dry
mass
Occurs in chloroplast
Occurs only in cells that have
chlorophyll and only in the
presence of light

Results in a decrease in dry


mass
Occurs in the mitochondrion
Occurs in all cells
continuously throughout the
lifespan of the cell
(Any 5)

SUBTOTAL
TOTAL
1/0
1/0
1/0
TOTAL

6.

Atrial Systole

both atria contract


both atrioventricular valves open
blood flows into ventricles
pulmonary and aortic valves remain closed

Ventricular systole
both ventricles contract
increased ventricular pressure of blood causes atrioventricular
valves to close
semilunar valves open
blood flows to aorta and pulmonary artery
Diastole
Ventricles relax
Semilunar valves close
Blood flows into atria from vena cava and pulmonary veins.
(b)

Max :5
15

Structure :
the heart is composed of striated muscle cells
the cells are cross-connected by branching fibres and
intercalated discs separating individual muscle cells permit
diffusion of Na+ and K+
this allows rapid spread of impulses from cell to cell
cardiac muscle is myogenic
(Any 3)
Heartbeat:
initial stimulus originate from the sinoatrial node (SAN)
which is the pacemaker found on the right atrium wall near
the entrance of the vena cava
membrane of SAN cells are permeable to Na+
Na+ enter cells and depolarizes cell membranes
An excitatory wave is generated, and spread rapidly from the
SA node across the two atria making both atria contract
Waves reach the AVN ( atrioventricular node) located
4
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1
1
1
1

Any 2

1
1
1
1

Any 2

1
1
1

1
1

1
1

1
1
1
1
1

Max:3

NO

ANSWER
between atria.
Impulses from AVN are conducted by the bundle of His that
branches into Purkinje fibres
The waves conducted throughout the ventricular walls and the
ventricles contract
(Any 5)

7.
(a) i
ii.
(b)

(c)

8.

any foreign/non-self substance in the body


that trigger an immune response against it
a substance produced by plasma cells
as a response to the presence of antigen
Response of T-lymphocytes is cell mediated response
cytotoxic T-lymphocytes binds and
causes lysis of the cell membranes of infected/malignant/nonself cells
Helper T-lymphocytes produce chemicals
to activate/promote growth and multiplication of other
lymphocytes
response of B-lymphocytes is a humoral response
B-lymphocytes response to antigen by dividing and
differentiating into plasma cells
these plasma cells are synthesized in large quantities,
produce antibodies specific to the antigens
that will destroy the antigens
in the immune system, cells/lymphocytes have the ability to
detect whether or not a foreign substances present in the body
is compatible with it
if compatible it will be accepted as self
if not it will treated as non-self
and will trigger an immune response
(Any 3)
After double fertilisation, the triploid nucleus divides rapidly
to form the multicellular endosperm.
The multicellular endosperm functions as a nutrient storage.
The zygote divides through mitosis to form two cells: basal
cell
and terminal cell.
The basal cell multiplies and develops into the suspensor that
anchors the embryo to the endosperm.
The terminal cell develops into the embryo
The embryo cells further develops into one or two cotyledon
The embryo cells between the cotyledons differentiate to form
the shoot apical meristem
The embryo cells near the suspensor differentiate to form the
root apical meristem
5
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SUBTOTAL
TOTAL
1
1
TOTAL
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

Max :5
15
2
2

1
1
1
1

1
1
1
Max: 3
TOTAL
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1

15

NO

ANSWER
The root apical meristem develops to become the radicle
The shoot apical meristem develops to become the plumule
(Any 10)

(b )

Monocotyledonous seed
Has only one cotyledon

SUBTOTAL
TOTAL
1
1

Max:10

Dicotyledonous seed
Has two cotyledon
1/0

Cotyledon reduced to
shield-like
structure
called as scutellum
Aleurone
layer
is
present.
Coleoptiles protect the
plumule, the coleorhiza
protects the radicle
Testa and pericarp are
fused together
9.(a)

Cotyledons are fleshy,


no scutellum
1/0
No aleurone layer
Coleoptiles
and
coleorhiza
are
not
present
Testa and pericarp are
not fused together

Types of gene mutation are base/nucleotide substitution,


base/nucleotide deletion, base/nucleotide inversion and
base/nucleotide insertion
In base/nucleotide substitution, a nucleotide/base is replaced
by another base/nucleotide in the DNA sequence of a gene
Causes missence mutation// this new base/nucleotide alters
one genetic code to a different genetic code which may code
for different amino acid
In base/nucleotide inversion, two or more nucleotides/bases
have been reverse in the DNA sequence within the gene.
The altered genetic code results in a different amino acid in
the polypeptide chain and the formation of non- functional
protein
In base /nucleotide insertion, and extra base/nucleotide is
inserted into the DNA sequence of a gene
Causes the whole base sequence to be shifted to one place
backward
In base/nucleotide deletion, a base/nucleotide is deleted from
the DNA sequence of a gene
Causes the whole base sequence to be shifted to one place
backward
Insertion and deletion are more harmful than substitution and
inversion
Both base /nucleotide insertion and deletion are frameshift
mutation as every single triple code after the mutation point is
altered
6
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1/0

1/0
1/0

TOTAL
1

15

1
1

1
1
1
1

NO

ANSWER
Because frameshift mutation leads to production of nonfunctional protein
(Any 10)

(b)

10.
(a)

Downs syndrome is an example of aneuploidy with 47


chromosomes instead of 46 chromosomes in an individual
It is a result of non-disjunction during meiosis( I and II)
Two chromosomes of no 21 failed to separate during
Anaphase I/II of meiosis
The gametes produced contain 23 + X / 23 + Y
When a sperm with 23 + Y fuses with normal ovum / When a
sperm with 23 + X fuses with normal ovum/ When n ovum
with 23 + X fuses with normal sperm, the zygote formed
contains 45 + XY/XX //trisomy//47 chromosomes

1
1
1
1

TOTAL

15

Gene therapy
Genetic disorders which are caused by a single defective gene
could be cured by inserting a functional gene into certain
body cells such as bone marrow cells.
Adenosin deaminase (ADA) is important in the proper
functioning of the immune system. It is used by white blood
cells to produce antibodies.
The normal gene for ADA is cloned in a vector.
The vector containing the ADA gene is introduced into a
retrovirus.
A small amount of bone marrow cells are isolated from the
patient and cultured in the lab.
The bone marrow cells are infected with the ADA gene
containing the retrovirus.
The retrovirus integrated the normal ADA gene into the bone
marrow cells.
Bone marrow cells with the normal ADA gene are injected
into bone marrow of the patient.
These cells continue to divide thus producing sufficient ADA
enzymes.
(Any 7)

(b)

SUBTOTAL
TOTAL
1
Max:10

1
1
1
1
1
1
1

DNA fingerprinting techniques

DNA fingerprinting is used for identifying criminals and to


identify dead victims beyond recognition and for solving
paternity cases.
In every person, the sequence of bases on the intron is unique
and it usually contains a repeating sequence called
minisatellite/ VNTR (Variable Number Tandems Repeat)
Minisatellite can be used to form a DNA fingerprint.
7
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Max: 7

NO

ANSWER

DNA extracted from cells


and treated with restriction enzyme to produce
RFLP(restriction fragment length polymorphism) so that
their lengths are unchanged.
Gel electrophoresis is performed to separate the fragments.
The southern blotting procedure is carried out to transfer the
fragments to a nitrocellulose filter.
A radioactive probe with a base sequence complementary to
the mini satellite repeat sequence is used to hybridise with
the fragments
The remaining DNA fragments are exposed to an X-ray film
to produce a unique DNA fingerprint that consists of a
number of bands //(autoradiography)
DNA fingerprints from different specimens can be compared
to look for differences and similarities regarding the profile
of bands
(Any 8)

SUBTOTAL
TOTAL
1
1
1
1
1
1

TOTAL

8
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Max:8
15