Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 128

Question 1

In a new study that compares Fortune 100 executives in 1980 with their counterparts in 2001,
Peter Capelli and Monika Hamori have documented what business people have no doubt already
witnessed: The road to the executive suite and the characteristics of the executives who get there
have changed significantly over the last two decades. To summarize: Todays executives are
younger, more likely to be female, and less likely to have Ivy League educations. They make their
way to the executive suite faster than ever before (about four years faster than their counterparts
in 1980) and they hold fewer jobs along the way. They spend about five years less in their current
organization before being promoted and are more likely to be hired from the outside. Whats
more, the Organization Man, the lifelong corporate employee who worked his way faithfully and
slowly up the executive ladder, appears to be headed out the door increasingly nudged,
apparently, by women. From the 1950s through the 1970s, American executives looked a lot
alike, write Capelli and Hamori. They tended to be model organization men, who stuck faithfully
with the companies that first hired them and they climbed methodically up the corporate ladder
until, at last, they retired. The dominant notion during that time was that a business career ran its
course inside a corporation.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following cannot be attributed as a characteristic of the Organization Men as brought
out in the passage?
A. They joined and retired from the same company
B. They were of the firm opinion that their entire career was confined to one company
C. They were mostly women
D. Their promotions were slower as compared to contemporary executives
E. As compared to the present executives in the same stage, they were much older
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
It has been clearly brought out that the Organization Man was someone who was a lifelong
employee for the company and who was of the opinion that his entire career was confined to a
single organization. This implies that A and B have been brought out as the characteristics of an
Organization Man. It has been brought out that todays executives are younger and they make their
way to the executive suite about four years faster than their counterparts in 1980. This implies that
D and E are also incorrect answer options to the question asked as both of them refer to
characteristics of the Organization Man. The only option left is C, which is obviously correct as
nowhere in the passage has it been suggested that the Organization Men were mostly women;
rather it has been brought out that women are increasingly being seen as executives in todays
world.
Question 2

People will miss Vajpayee as a clever and resourceful orator. He was an adroit hand for
compromises. That he too fell victim to the maneuvers of fanatics in the BJP is a tragedy.
Parliament will miss his diction in Hindi. Vajpayee may have a grievance that people did not give
him the due for all that he did. He should blame his partys stalwarts like Advani and Murli
Manohar Joshi, who were like a millstone around his neck. Whatever he did they undid it because
they had a closed mind. One used power to escape his linkage with the Babri Masjid demolition
and the other exploited authority to rewrite history. People interpreted Vajpayees silence as his
concurrence for what the two did. Agreed, he feels hurt over criticism. But Vajpayee is to blame
for not taking action against communalist or fanatic elements. He was too weak and vacillating.
Maybe, his hands were bound because of the overall supervision by the RSS. But history is an
unbiased reckoner. The verdict on him would have been different if he had only acted on instincts
which were healthy and not allowed his diffidence to dictate him.
Choose the correct answers
Which of the following have been used to describe Vajpayees personality?
A. resolute
B. an ingenious speaker
C. irresolute
D. indecisive
E. adamant
Correct Answer: B, C and D.
Explanation:
The beginning of the passage brings out that Vajpayee was a resourceful orator and so B is a correct
answer. It has also been brought out that he was weak and vacillating when it came to taking action
against communalist or fanatic elements. Therefore he was irresolute and indecisive but not resolute
and adamant. In view of the above, it is evident that B, C and D are the correct answers.
Question 3
Most of you, therefore, spend the bulk of your adult life (1) ------------ for the right way to
worship, to obey, and to serve God. The (2) ------------- of all this is that I do not want your worship,
I do not need your obedience, and it is not necessary for you to (3) --------- Me.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. anchoring

A. blasphemy

A. serve

B. searching

B. catastrophe

B. obey

C. look

C. irony

C. worship

Correct Answer: Searching, irony and serve


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be filled with the use of a verb that can complement the various
activities (to worship, to obey, and to serve God) that are mentioned ahead in the sentence. The
words that follow the blank immediately (for the right way) reveal to us that the blank should be
completed with the use of a continuous verb, therefore, the option look is rejected. Among the
other options, anchoring does not convey the proper meaning, which leaves us with searching as
the most appropriate option. The second blank in the passage has to be completed with the use of a
word that can compare the situations in the two sentences given to us. The two stand facing each
other, conveying opposing meanings, therefore, irony should be the correct answer. The last blank
in the passage requires a word that can complete the series of activities denied by the narrator. If we
observe keenly, the activities given in this sentence are the same as those given in the first one. We
have worship from worship, obedience from obey and the only one missing is serve. We have
it in our answer options, from where we select it as the correct answer.
Question 4
Area of a right triangle is 504 sq.cm. The length of the hypotenuse is 65 cm.
Column A

Column B

Sum of the sides containing the right angle.

Length of the hypotenuse.

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The sum of any two sides of a triangle is always greater than the third side. Hence, option A is
correct.

Question 5
The diagonal of a square is 15*(6) cm. How many isosceles right triangles of side 1 cm can be cut
out from the square?
[(6) = 6]
Correct Answer: 1350
Explanation:
When 'a' is the side of a square then its diagonal is a*(2).
Hence, if the diagonal of the square is 15*(6), then its side will be given by
Side = 15*(6)/(2) = 15*(2)*(3)/(2)
= 15*(3)
Area of square = side*side
= 15*(3)*15*(3)
= 675 sq.cm.
675 squares of side 1 cm can be cut from the bigger square.
Each square of side 1 cm can be cut into two isosceles right triangles of side 1 cm.
Hence, the square can be divided into 675*2 = 1350 isosceles right triangles of side 1 cm
Question 6
What least number should be subtracted from 2590 so that the remainder when divided by 9, 11
and 13 will leave in each case the same remainder 6?
Which of the following statements is true? Indicate the corrrect option.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 10
E. 14
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The remainder will be divisible by the LCM of 9, 11 and 13
LCM = 1287
1287*2=2574
2574+6=2580
2590-2580=10
Hence, the required number is 10
Question 7

Which of the following is not a multiple of 3, 7 and 19? Indicate all such options.
A. 7980
B. 234901
C. 9975
D. 3591
E. 185191
Correct Answer: B and E
Explanation:
7980=3*7*19*20 234901 is not divisible by 3 9975=3*7*19*25 3591=3*7*19*9 185191 is not
divisible by 3 Hence, (B) and (E) are the correct options.
Question 8
Competitiveness is defined as the ability to add value better than the others in the globalized
economic environment. In other words, for the Indian AC&R industry to succeed, it should be able to
add value better than its competitors across the globe. Despite the poor infrastructure, there is
growing sentiment that India can do it. We have made rapid strides in manufacturing and service
sectors, and international community is admiring many of our Indian companies. I indeed believe
that India can become the global economic powerhouse, and can rival China as the worlds factory. A
recent report has outlined what the Government can do to promote growth of this vital industry, so
that it can fulfill its potential to preserve food, increase productivity and contribute to the quality of
life.
Which sentence refers to a deterrent that can affect the Governments actions to promote
industrial growth?
The correct answer is C. (Despite the poor do it)
Explanation
A deterrent is used to refer to an impediment or a restraint that could affect a course of action being
taken. Therefore, it is evident that the question is referring to something that will adversely affect
the Governments plans or actions to promote industrial growth. In the entire passage, the only such
impediment that has been referred to is the poor infrastructure in the country and hence, C is the
correct answer.
Question 9
Unless, comprehensive socio-economic programs are introduced into the system, ----------------- of
child labor is difficult.
A. Reparation

B. Annihilation
C. Induction
D. Eradication
E. Cessation
Correct Answer: B, D and E
Explanation
The sentence here explains the conditions required for bringing about reforms in relation to child
labor. One can understand that the indication is towards the elimination of this social malignity;
thus, words conveying this meaning have to be selected from the options given. The words,
Annihilation, Eradication and Cessation are suitable to convey the proper sense of the sentence
while the other two words, Reparation and Induction are inappropriate. Thus, they are not the
correct answers.

Question 1
According to Cappelli, Fortune magazine editor William H. Whyte put the phrase Organization
Man on the map when he wrote a book by that title in 1956, posing what was then viewed as a
novel question: Why would executives ever leave their firms? Further studies answered that
question: In the Organization Man era, executives only left the fold if a company didnt deliver on
its promise of upward mobility. In a recent interview, Cappelli acknowledges that he is still unsure
what to call this new corporate executive model. But he is definitely convinced of two things. First,
the new model is here to stay, through the conceivable future. Cappelli points out that the more
conservative, larger Fortune 100 companies are most likely to be able to retain the traditional
model of organizational careers. And if these august, institutional business models have
experienced change over the last 20 years - as they have, according to this research - then the
changes can be assumed to be extremely wide-spread. And even though 45% of executives in 2001
are still classified as lifers - those who spend their entire careers in one company - the
percentage is down from 54% in 1980. Also, the number of lifers in young companies (those
existing for 30 years and less) is only 17%. Second, the new model clearly underscores that
different skills are being rewarded and that a new type of executive will benefit from this trend,
says Cappelli. The businessman in the gray flannel suit - the person who was nameless and had
no independent profile but who fit into the organization, clearly suffers in this model. People who
can promote themselves clearly win. Its tempting to say that people with more merit get ahead
now, although Im not exactly sure that this is true because its hard to judge real merit. But the
people who appear to have merit clearly have the advantage in this model.
Choose the correct answer
The people who are most likely to benefit from the new model being discussed will be those who
A. do not have an independent profile
B. spend their entire lives in one company
C. do not have professional competence but know how to promote themselves
D. try to fit into the needs of the organization and change themselves accordingly
E. know how to make themselves stand out among everyone else
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
The end of the passage clearly brings out the type of executives who are likely to use the new model
to their advantage and benefit from it. It has been stated that people who can promote themselves
clearly win. This implies that the people who are aware of the ways and means to project their skills
and talents will be able to taste success in this model. Option E refers to this type of people. C also
refers to this type of people, but it is not mentioned anywhere in the passage that such people will
be professionally incompetent; rather it has been brought out that people who have merit are the
ones who will have the advantage in this model. All the other options refer to people who do not

belong to the new executive model and therefore, will not be able to benefit from this model. In
view of the above, it is evident that E is the correct answer.
Question 2
The cultural nationalism it talks about does not transcend the countrys long tradition of pluralism.
The Indian culture is not synonymous with Hinduism. The BJP should realize this. The RSS is
convinced that polarizing the electorate on Hindu-Muslim lines has given it electoral advantage.
This was surely one of the central lessons it derived from the 1991 parliamentary polls in which
the BIP was the beneficiary of the violence it had instigated over the Ram Janambhoomi
movement the year before. The BJP was elected to power for the first time in the crucial state of
Uttar Pradesh. What it tells is that the BJP has contaminated most of the Hindu middle class in
India and abroad. The common man still remains largely free of the poison it has injected. Results
of the recent elections should have made the RSS wiser. The BJP may lose the ground still further
and become a rump of a party if it does not realize that India can never be a Hindu nation. A
couple of remarks that Vajpayee made to analyze the reasons for the BJPs debacle indicate that
the party does not want to face the truth. Vajpayee still tried to save Narendra Modi, who the
voters have seen as a symptom of the disease of parochialism. The party cannot ride back to
power on the back of Modi. Vajpayee would have retrieved part of his soiled reputation by not
accepting the partys chairmanship. This would have been a protest of sorts, probably his catharsis
for not having taken any action against Modi.
Choose the correct answer
The BJP should realize this is referring to which of the following?
A. The countrys pluralism does not include Hinduism
B. Cultural diversity has been in the country for so long that it cannot be overridden by a
national culture
C. Cultural nationalism does not oppose the pluralism of the country
D. It is not possible to have a single religion represent the countrys masses and culture
E. Indian culture is not synonymous with pluralism
Correct Answer: B and D.
Explanation:
The opening sentences of the passage discuss the cultural status of the country. It has been brought
out that the country has a long tradition of pluralism or cultural diversity and that the cultural
nationalism cannot transcend or surpass this diversity. Also, it is clarified that Indian culture cannot
mean Hinduism. This means that The BJP should realize this has been used to refer to the
countrys pluralism and the fact that it cannot be surpassed by cultural nationalism. In view of the
above, it is evident, that out of all the given answer options, B and D are the only options that
exactly indicate what the statement in question is referring to. Hence, B and D are the correct
answers.

Question 3
In earlier times when man appeared on earth he was (1) ------------ at the sight of violence of
powerful aspects of nature. In certain cases, the usefulness of different natural (2) -------------- of
nature overwhelmed man. Thus began the worship of (3) -------------- of nature like fire, the sun,
the rivers, the rocks, the trees, the snakes, etc.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. amazed

A. products

A. pressures

B. overawed

B. animals

B. colors

C. intimated

C. objects

C. forces

Correct Answer: Overawed, objects and forces


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can explain the reaction of
humans after coming in contact with the violent forces of nature. One of the reactions
overwhelmed finds a mention in the following sentences in the passage. Thus, we are required to
look for another kind of reaction here. The option amazed is included in the meaning of the word
overwhelmed so we reject it. The other option intimated is again not an appropriate reaction with
respect to nature. Therefore, overawed is the most suitable option.
The second blank has to be completed with a word that can tell about a thing of nature that
overwhelmed humans with its usefulness. The options provide us with three words that can be used
for these things. The option animals is rejected as we cannot count them as commodities. Among
the other options, objects is more suitable when we compare it with products. This is because
products is used more relevantly for the things that are manufactured artificially.
The last blank here has to be completed with a word that can bring the various objects that are
mentioned in the following part of the sentence into a category. Among the various options, forces
seems to be the most suitable options here as the other two are less relevant in the context of
nature.
Question 4
Consider the sequence -9, -5, -1, 3,...
Column A

Column B

The 50th term

191

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the first term of the sequence be a and the common difference be d.
a= -9
d = -1-(-5) = 5-1=4
The nth term of the sequence is given by
Tn=a+(n-1)d
=-9+(50-1)4
=-9+49*4
=-9+196
=187
The 50th term is 187
Option B is correct.
Question 5
A semi-circular park has a flowerbed of a certain width running along its arc on the inner side. The
area of the park, including the flowerbed is 98* sq.m and the area of the park minus the
flowerbed is 72* sq.m. Find the width of the flowerbed in meters.
Correct Answer: 2m
Explanation:
Area of semi-circle = *r*r/2, where r is radius of circle.
Area of the complete park = 98* sq.m
Outer radius of the park = sqrt(2*area/)
= (2*98*pi/pi)
= (196) = 14 m
Area of the park excluding the flowerbed = 72* sq.m
Inner radius of the park = (2*area/)
= (2*72*/)
= (144) = 12 m
Width of the flowerbed = Outer radius - Inner radius
= 14-12 = 2 m
[ = 22/7]
[(2) = 2]

Question 6
Which is the smallest number by which 19404 should be multiplied to make it a perfect square?
Indicate the correct option.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 7
D. 11
E. 22
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
19404=2*2*3*3*7*7*11
19404 should be multiplied by 11 to make it a perfect square.
Option D is true.
Question 7
Which of the following statements is true about the number 34983? Indicate all such options.
A. It is not a perfect square.
B. It is divisible by 132
C. It becomes a perfect square when it is divided by 23
D. It becomes a perfect square when it is multiplied by 23
E. It is divisible by 232
Correct Answer: A, B, C and D
Explanation:
34983=3*3*13*13*23
It is not a perfect square.
It is divisible by 132
It becomes a perfect square when it is either divided or multiplied by 23.
It is not divisible by 232
Hence, A, B, C and D are true.
Question 8
But, the challenges are many. Compared to the stature our industry has in most countries including
the developing Asian countries, the Indian AC&R industry still has a long, long way to go. To become

a major exporter, we need, primarily, scale of manufacture. To acquire scale, we need a large
domestic market, which we need to build. We have a long way to go in terms of customer education.
We come across retailers using deep freezers for storing bottles as well as butter and many other
products, which are not supposed to be stored in the freezers. The consumers do not use several
innovative features that are available. The country also lacks standards in terms of building codes
such as ceiling heights.
Which of the following sentence does not refer to any of the challenges being referred to by the
first sentence, But, the challenges are many?
The correct answer is D. (We come across freezers)
Explanation
The challenges being referred to in the first sentence are the difficulties that will have to be
overcome by the industry. These challenges would include the requirement of a scale of
manufacture for which a large domestic market will have to be built. Other challenges are customer
education and requirement of standards in terms of building codes. Therefore, it is evident that A, B,
C and E all refer to the same challenges as referred to by the first sentence. However, D does not
directly refer to a challenge of the same category. Therefore, on comparing D with the other options,
it is evident that D is the correct answer.
Question 9
The past ages castles and forts had dungeons to ----------- enemies and rivals as prisoners.
A. Liberate
B. Release
C. Imprison
D. Confine
E. Detain
Correct Answer: C, D and E
Explanation
The sentence here describes the utility of the dungeons in the past ages. While the first two options,
Liberate and Release cant be termed as correct as they turn the meaning conveyed by the
sentence upside down; the other three options, Imprison, Confine and Detain appropriately
describe the function of the dungeons.

Question 1
What differentiates a winning company from an also-ran? For many analysts and investors, the
answer involves technology, which increasingly permeates every step of a businesss operations.
But a companys ability to understand its customers philosophical outlook may be as vital to its
success as R&D and other efforts. Technology is no longer an exclusive focus of companies like
IBM or Microsoft, instead, technology is also on its way to becoming the core-asset of consumer
goods companies like Wal-Mart and, in fact, of any company. But this brings us to a metaphysical
question: What is the meaning of technology? For example, a personal computer can be regarded
as a communication tool by a business executive, as an educational tool by a teacher and as a toy
by a child. Different meanings to a given technology can co-exist, or replace one another
sequentially. As more companies operate in a global environment, they will need to do more than
simply ask whether the technological state-of-the art enables the development of a given product.
They will instead have to consider what technology means to each segment of the market and
accordingly, how to position the technology-based product. Although its a given fact that
technological assets can determine the progress of an individual, a company or even a nation, the
decision to embrace or to reject technology is itself deeply affected by abstract ideas that are
embedded in an individuals (or a nations) general life philosophy.
Choose the correct answer
The crux of the issue being discussed by the passage is best described by which of the following?
A. The meaning of technology
B. Technology and philosophy
C. Role of technology in the success of a company
D. The philosophy of the use of technology
E. Technology used in developing a product
Correct Answer: D.
Explanation:
The passage starts on the note that a companys success depends upon how well it is able to
understand its customers philosophical outlook. The passage deals with the importance of
understanding philosophy and it finally ends on the note that companies need to understand how
technology is interpreted by each section of the market or each type of consumer and then they
need to decide how to market their technology-based product. This implies that the entire passage
is dealing with the main issue of how technology needs to be interpreted in terms of the philosophy
for using it. Out of all the given answer options, B and D highlight this issue. However, on comparing
these two options it can be seen that D is the correct answer as it gives a better description of the
crux of the issue being discussed in the passage.
Question 2

The cold war rivalry was at its height, with the Soviet Union using its ideology, supposedly based
on socialism, to attract the countries in Asia and Africa that were gaining independence. There
was intense competition in the military field, and when the Soviet Union won the race for
launching a satellite, the Sputnik, in 1957, it appeared that Moscow had overtaken the US.
Within a year, the US also launched a satellite of its own. At this stage of the cold war, maintaining
surveillance over parts of the Soviet Union that were closer to South Asia, notably the space
launching facilities in Kazakhstan, became quite important. The base provided by Pakistan to the
US near Peshawar at Badaber became crucial for keeping track of Soviet advances. When an
American U-2 spy plane that had taken off from this base was shot down over Central Asia in the
summer of 1960, the Soviet Union not only protested to Washington, but Soviet leader Nikita
Khrushchev threatened to use missiles against the base in Pakistan if such flights continued. This
US-Soviet confrontation was also reflected in the US-Pakistan alliance on the one hand, and a
growing Indo-Soviet strategic convergence on the other. The election of John F. Kennedy to the
White House brought about a shift, as the young president was an Indophile, who attached
importance to cultivating closer relations with India. The course of events in the region also
brought India and the US closer, as the boundary dispute between India and China became heated
up, with India seeking to capitalize on Chinas tense relations with both the superpowers.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following have been used to indicate that US and the Soviet Union were rivals?
A. the boundary dispute between India and China
B. The base provided by Pakistan to the US near Peshawar
C. launching a satellite
D. maintaining surveillance over parts of the Soviet Union
E. The election of John F. Kennedy
Correct Answer: B, C and D.
Explanation:
The boundary dispute between India and China has been discussed to illustrate how India and the
US came closer because they were now having issues with a common rival. This fact has not been
used to indicate that the US and the Soviet Union were rivals and therefore, A is incorrect. The
election of John F. Kennedy has also be highlighted to bring out that he was instrumental in bringing
the US and India closer and therefore, E is also incorrect as it does not indicate any rivalry between
the US and the Soviet Union. All the three remaining options refer to evidence that has been
provided in support of the claim that the US and the Soviet Union were rivals and therefore, B, C and
D are the correct answers.
Question 3

Laughter is the best medicine. If you can (1) ----------- when you are ill you will get your health back
(2) -----------. If you cannot laugh, even if you are healthy, sooner or later you will (3) -------- your
health and you will become ill.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. laugh

A. sooner

A. gain

B. play

B. earlier

B. collide

C. dance

C. frequently

C. lose

Correct Answer: Laugh, Sooner and lose


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that expresses an activity which can
help one gain health. Among the options given, play and dance are the activities that are a result
of ones being healthy. They can impart to ones good health, but to perform them also one needs to
be healthy. Whereas, laugh is the activity which can be performed even when one is not doing well.
It has also been known to impart to the good state of health.
The second blank in the sentence has to be completed with a word that can express the time in
which one can regain health. The options given to us, point in this direction only. However, we are
required to choose the most suitable expression among the options. Earlier cannot be used as it is a
word used while comparing time and frequently is also unsuitable to the meaning conveyed by the
sentence. The most suited option here is sooner which is the correct answer.
The third blank in the sentence has to be completed by a suitable verb that can convey the desired
meaning of the sentence. We must analyze the meaning conveyed by the first sentence and what is
revealed by the given part of the second sentence to be able to properly fill this blank. While the first
sentence tells about the effects of laughing, the second one tells about the effects of not laughing.
Thus, it states an opposing situation. The correct answer therefore, should be a verb that is opposite
in meaning to the verb get in the first sentence. The option gain is hence rejected. The other
option collide is not suitable to the context so we reject it. the correct answer is therefore, lose.
Question 4
Column A

Column B

Number of ways in which one person can be


selected from a group of 10

Number of ways in which two persons can be


chosen from a group of 20

A. Quantity A is greater

B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
One person can be selected from a group of 10 in C(10,1) ways
C(10,1)=10!/[1!9!] =10
Two persons can be selected from a group of 20 in C(20,2) ways
C(20,2)=20!/[2!18!]
=20*19/2=10*19=190
Option B is correct.
Question 5
Find 360% of 360.
Correct Answer: 1296
Explanation:
360% of 360 = 360/100*360
= 1296
Question 6
If a/b = 1/5 which of the following is equal to (3a+2b)/(3a-2b)? Indicate the correct option.
A. 13/5
B. 91/25
C. -91/25
D. -13/7
E. 7/5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(3a+2b)/(3a-2b) = (3a/b+2)/(3a/b-2)
= (3*1/5+2)/(3*1/5-2)
= (3/5+2)/(3/5-2)
= (3+10)/5/(3-10)/5
= 13/-7

=-13/7
Option D is true.
Question 7
What are the remainders when 8^6+6 is divided by 7 and 8? Indicate all correct options.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 6
Correct Answer: A and E
Explanation:
8 divided by 7 leaves remainder 1
82 divided by 7 leaves remainder 1
and so on...86 divided by 7 leaves remainder 1.
86+6 divided by 7 leaves remainder 1+6=7, which is again divisible by 7
Hence, remainder is 0.
8 divided by 8 leaves remainder 0
82 divided by 8 leaves remainder 0
and so on...86 divided by 8 leaves remainder 0.
86+6 divided by 8 leaves remainder 0+6=6.
Hence, remainder is 6.
Options A and E are true.
Question 8
While the men in the schiltron stayed shoulder to shoulder, the enemy couldnt get anywhere near.
Only with archers did they stand any chance of causing serious damage, and at Bannockburn, the
English archers were routed fairly early on in the battle. The English knights knew their only chance
was to break the Scottish formation. So, they tried to draw individuals into single combat. Sergeants
desperately shouted at the spearmen to close the formation and restore control, and so the
schiltron continued to advance, eventually driving the English from the field.
Which sentence asserts that the English faced defeat primarily because of the discipline of the
Scots?
The correct answer is E. (Sergeants desperately shouted field)
Explanation

It is evident from the passage that the English and the Scots were fighting against each other and it
was the Scots who won the battle. It is hinted that the Scots were fighting in a formation called the
schiltron in which they were shoulder to shoulder. The English tried to draw them away from their
formation by inciting them into single combat, but it was the orders given by the sergeants that
prevented the Scots from breaking their formation and they were able to drive the English away.
Therefore, it is evident that the discipline of the Scots which helped them win the battle has been
clearly elucidated in the last sentence of the passage and therefore, E is the correct answer.
Question 9
The judicial system of India went through ----------- reforms during the years of British rule.
A. Vehement
B. Nonaggressive
C. Facile
D. Drastic
E. Trivial
Correct Answer: A and D
Explanation
The blank is this sentence has to be filled using an adjective that can describe the nature of reforms
that occurred in the judicial system of India during the British rule. The options given provide a hint
to the type of reforms that are being discussed in the sentence. The first option, Vehement refers
to the exorbitant and aggressive reforms that were introduced in that time, thus is a correct answer.
The second, third and fifth options are opposite to this meaning, so are wrong; and the fourth
option, Drastic is again a correct answer as it complements the overall meaning of the sentence.

Question 1
The field of the philosophy of technology is relatively young. It was founded on the stipulation
that technological change is a driver of historical processes, but newer theories challenged this
deterministic approach and advocated a reverse direction of the causal arrow, namelythat it is
social change that triggers technological innovation. Finally, the two approaches were synthesized
in a theory of technological momentum that differentiates between different phases in the life
cycle of a given technology. This theory stipulates that at the early, formative stage, - a given field
of technological innovation is shaped by its social environment. However, as the field matures, it
loses its sensitivity to the external social forces and becomes driven primarily by technological
considerations. There are numerous practical implications of the interaction between society and
technology. As a historical example, the 19th century Europe had all it took to become the home
of the first powered flight - but it didnt. By 1810 the British country gentleman George Cayley had
built a working glider, and by the 1890s a German, Otto Lilienthal, had completed more than a
thousand daring fl5.ghtsin full-size gliders. Yet mainstream European science turned its back to the
prospect of aviation and it was a pair of Americans, the Wright brothers, who took the lead in
powered flight.
Choose the correct answer
The example that it was the Americans and not the Europeans who took the lead in powered flight
has been used to substantiate which of the following?
A. field of the philosophy of technology is relatively young
B. Europe had all it took to become the home of the first powered flight - but it didnt
C. a given field of technological innovation is shaped by its social environment
D. a reverse direction of the causal arrow
E. it loses its sensitivity to the external social forces and becomes driven primarily by
technological considerations
Correct Answer: E.
Explanation:
The author has stated that Europe had all that was required to make it the home of the first
powered flight. This means that the society had the requisite knowledge and the technology; in
other words, the social environment was conducive for the development of technology, however the
technological innovation completed its life cycle in America despite being triggered in Europe. This
makes it evident that this example has been provided to substantiate the claim that after maturing,
the field of technological innovation is no longer sensitive to its social environment, but it starts
being driven by technological considerations. In view of the above, it is evident that E is the correct
answer as it refers to the statement which has been substantiated by the given example.
Question 2

When Indian forces sought to follow a Forward Policy along the frontier with China, a clash
resulted in the autumn of 1962. Both the US and Britain rushed arms to India, without consulting
their ally Pakistan. Feeling abandoned by its western allies, Pakistan proceeded to improve
relations with China, which alone provided diplomatic and military support during the 1965
conflict over Kashmir. The end of the policy of relying exclusively on the US and the West marked
the maturing of Pakistans foreign policy, and the next few years saw the relations with both the
major communist powers, China and the Soviet Union, improve significantly. In the early 1960s,
the US perceptions on China were still shaped by the experience of the Korean War when Beijing
had intervened on the side of North Korea, and thousands of American soldiers had died, while
many were held as prisoners of war. The US, therefore, reacted unhappily to Pakistans
rapprochement with China following the signing of the Boundary Accord between the two
countries in 1963. When Pakistan provided an air link for China to the outside world in 1964, the
US showed its displeasure by cancelling aid earmarked for improving the Dhaka airport. In 1965,
the US postponed the Annual Aid to Pakistan consortium meeting to show their disapproval of its
emerging friendly relations with China.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following relations between countries are justified as elucidated in the passage?
A. India and China are rivals but both are on friendly terms with North Korea
B. China, Pakistan and North Korea all are allies
C. China and Pakistan are allies, but both have tense relations with the US
D. The US and North Korea are rivals
E. Pakistan and the US were allies pre 1962
Correct Answer: C, D and E.
Explanation:
A careful reading of the passage brings out that Pakistan, US and Britain were allies before 1962,
after which Pakistan started improving its relations with China much to the disappointment of the
US. This implies that China and the US were rivals. China supported North Korea when numerous
American soldiers lost their lives, this implies that the war was being fought between the US and
North Korea and they were rivals. There is no indication of the relations that North Korea had with
either Pakistan or with India. In view of the above, it is evident that A and B are incorrect; and C, D
and E are the correct answers.
Question 3
The holy scriptures were written by those who had developed (1) ----------- between external
nature and their inner (2) -----------. Their objective was to ennoble, elevate and liberate the human
(3) --------------.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. imbalance

A. health

A. mind and body

B. harmony

B. truth

B. spirit and mind

C. mystique

C. self

C. health and wit

Correct Answer: Harmony, self and spirit and mind


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can explain the intention of the
people who scripted the Holy Scriptures. The later part of the sentence mentions two factors:
external nature and something that is more innate than physical in nature. It is known to all that
religion performs a balancing act between the inner and outer forces for us. On this criterion, we are
led to accept harmony as the most suitable answer for the blank.
The second blank in the passage desires us to complete the phrase inner -----. The relation it has to
the other part of the sentence has been discussed in the earlier paragraph. On the basis of that
discussion, we are led to consider self as the most preferable option. The other two options health
and truth cannot be suitable as they do not stand in a proper equation with the other phrase
external nature.
The last blank in the passage has to be completed with the use of a phrase that can express the
target of Holy Scriptures. Among the options, mind and body is not suitable as religion did not bear
a direct effect on body. The other option health and wit is again rejected. The only suitable option
given to us is spirit and mind which reflects the impact of religion on the inner self of the person
than the external being.
Question 4
logx/2=logy/3=logz/5
Column A

Column B

xy

yz
A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Let logx/2=logy/3=logz/5=k
logx=2k, logy=3k and logz=5k
logx+logy = 2k+3k=5k
log(xy) = 5k
logy+logz = 3k+5k=8k
log(yz) = 8k
log(xy)<log(yz)
xy<yz
Option B is correct.</yz
</log(yz)
Question 5
Ann and Bill are 120cm and 165cm tall respectively. Their weights are 50kg and 64kg respectively.
How much weight in kgs should Ann lose and Bill gain so that the height to weight ratio for both of
them is the same?
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Let the weight to be lost by Ann and that to be gained by Bill be x kgs.
Their height to weight ratio will be
120/(50-x) = 165/(64+x)
120*(64+x) = 165*(50-x)
7680+120x = 8250 - 165x
570 = 285x
x = 570/285 = 2
Ann should lose 2 kg and Bill should gain 2 kg
Question 6
Find the next number in the series 12, 17, 23, 30, 38. Indicate the correct option.
A. 48
B. 43
C. 47
D. 51
E. 45
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
17-12=5
23-17=6
30-23=7
38-30=8
Hence, consecutive numbers are added in the series.
The next number will be 38+9=47
Option C is correct.
Question 7
In a class of 20 girls and 40 boys, 20% of the girls are 12 years old and 40% of all the students are
12 years old. Which of the following statements is true? Indicate all such statements.
A. 50% of the boys are 12 years old
B. 5 girls are 12 years old
C. 35 students in the class are 12 years old
D. 20 boys are 12 years old
E. 50% of the children who are 12 years old are boys
Correct Answer: A and D
Explanation:
Number of girls = 20
Number of boys = 40
Total students = 20+40=60
12 year old girls = 20% of 20 = 20*20/100 = 4
12 year old children = 40% of 60 = 40*60/100 = 24
12 year old boys = 24 - 4 = 20
Percentage of boys who are 12 years old = 20/40*100=50%
Percentage of 12 year old children who are boys = 20/24*100 = 83.33%
Option A is true.
Option B is false.
Option C is false.
Option D is true and E is false.
Question 8
In total war its not just soldiers who suffer and die. By the middle of the 20th century technology
had changed the face of battle once again. Now it was possible to kill the enemy without even seeing
him, as was brought home to us when we investigated the massive World War Two artillery
installations on the Dover coast, and their German counterparts on the French coast. Unbelievable
as it sounds, these guns were lobbing shells almost 30 miles across the English Channel. For four

years the duel of the big guns saw massive shells arcing across the channel, to wreak death and
destruction in France and England. We spoke to a farmer whose land lies near one of the British
guns, and he described what it was like to hear the German shells come screaming in, on one
occasion sending splinters of steel crashing into his house.
Which sentence substantiates the claim made in the first sentence of the passage?
The correct answer is E. (We spoke to his house)
Explanation
The first sentence of the passage is putting forth the claim that apart from soldiers, there are others
who also suffer and die or are affected by the war. In the entire passage, the only instance where it
has been directly implied that people other than soldiers have also been affected by the war is the
last sentence where it has been explicitly brought out that the farmer had shells crashing into his
house. It is evident that this could have been dangerous to his life and he obviously was not a soldier
fighting the war. Therefore, it is evident that E is the correct answer.
Question 9
The surest way to happiness is the ---------------- of human desires and wants such that they are
easier to satisfy.
A. Entwinement
B. Complication
C. Elucidation
D. Simplification
E. Vexation
Correct Answer: C and D
Explanation
The sentence demands a word that can retort to the description given in the latter half of it. The
words, Entwinement and Complication are completely opposite to this demanded meaning, but
the next two options, Elucidation; and Simplification can be perfectly suited to it. The last option,
Vexation is again an antonym to the desired sense of the word.

Question 1
There is merit then, in the suggestion that Europeans saw air flight as a threat to the established
social order. If people could fly, what would become of state sovereignty? The socially structured
Europe couldnt bear this thought. It took a couple of American boys, living in an unstructured
frontier society, to shed an unyielding philosophy that blocked a technological leap and they
introduced powered flight to the world. That kind of missed opportunity could still occur today in
an increasingly global economy. The decision to introduce an invention involves a lot of work on
many dimensions, including an examination of the markets belief system. In the US, for example,
the acceptance of genetically modified foods is much greater than it is in the European Union.
Innovators as well as users of technology often ignore or even deny the technology-metaphysics
link. While the art of marketing does make some room for customers abstract conceptions, the
art of engineering does not. It is generally assumed that the application of science to real-life
needs is driven by tangible forces or, at best, by social structures and processes. But the history of
technology, early and modern, tells a different story, which holds important lessons for the future.
Choose the correct answer
The information provided in the passage makes it apparent that
A. Americans lived in a society that was better organized than the European society
B. the philosophy of consumers is not related to the success of any inventions
C. technology and philosophy are not concomitant
D. the social structure in America was not as organized as that in Europe
E. technological inventions cannot be determined by social structures
Correct Answer: D.
Explanation:
It has been stated that the decision to introduce an invention involves a lot of work including a study
of the consumers or markets belief. This makes it amply clear that technology and philosophy is
related and that the consumers beliefs are related to the success of an invention. This implies that
both B and C are incorrect. The entire passage deals with the issue of how social structures and
consumers philosophy affects technological inventions and therefore E is also incorrect. The
passage starts on the note that Europe was socially structured whereas the American boys being
referred to were living in an unstructured society. This implies that A is incorrect and D is the correct
answer.
Question 2
The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan in late December of that year. A decade of close political
and military cooperation followed, as Pakistan became the frontline state against this audacious
intervention. However, no sooner had Moscow withdrawn from Afghanistan, then the rules
changed again, and the stringent sanctions of the Pressler Law were imposed on Pakistan. With

additional sanctions imposed in 1998 over its nuclear tests, and in 1999 over the military takeover, Pakistan became the most sanctioned state. Just as the Soviet intervention in Afghanistan
had made Pakistan an indispensable frontline ally in 1979, the terrorist attacks on the US in
September 2001 have turned it into a major non-NATO ally in the war against terror. Given the
overall reservations in the West about Pakistans nuclear program, some policy-makers would
have favored availing the terrorist outrage for pre-emptive attacks against the sole Islamic country
having nuclear weapons. But with Al-Qaeda located in Afghanistan, under the protection of the
extremist Muslim Taliban regime, the priority for the US was to neutralize the source of organized
terrorism. Once the military government in Pakistan joined the US as an ally in the war against
terrorism, its steadfastness and determination in extending the maximum support could not fail to
earn high praise. No less important was the role President Musharraf took upon himself to fight
religious extremism within the country, and to create a model of moderation and tolerance within
the Islamic world.
Choose the correct answer
Pakistans role in the invasion of Afghanistan by Soviet Union was
A. to support the Soviet Union
B. to support the intrusion
C. that of an ally for the US
D. that of the frontline state which was the most affected by the intervention
E. to oppose the intervention
Correct Answer: C and E.
Explanation:
It has been brought out that the Soviet withdrew from Afghanistan after a decade during which
Pakistan was the frontline state against the intervention and it provided close political and military
cooperation. As Pakistan was the frontline state against this audacious intervention, it is evident
that it did not support the Soviet Union in its act of intervention. Therefore, A and B are clearly
incorrect. D is factually incorrect. Therefore, C and E are the correct answers as they clearly elucidate
the role of Pakistan during this period.
Question 3
The scientists and (1) ------------- were tortured. This was the (2) -------- of Copernicus, Galileo, Bruno
and others. But, by and by science (3) -----------.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. medical practitioners

A. deed

A. gained ground

B. orthodox people

B. fate

B. regained audience

C. free thinkers

C. desire

C. acquired rationality

Correct Answer: Free thinkers, fate and gained ground


Explanation:
The first glimpse of the passage reveals to us that it concerns the rise of scientific thought in the
society. The first blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can add to the list of
people who were tortured. Among the options, medical practitioners can be taken as a part of the
word scientists only, so we reject it. The other option orthodox people does not refer to science
and rationality. The only suitable option is therefore, free thinkers.
The second blank in the passage is in relation to the details conveyed in the first sentence. We are
given the list of the scientists who were tortured for their scientific activities. The proper word
(among the listed options) for what they went through would be fate, as the other two options are
unsuitable to be used for torture.
The last option in the passage should tell about the gradual development faced by science and
rationality. The option regained audience is wrong as we are talking about the initial entry of
science in the human existence. The other option acquired rationality is also rejected as science
itself is synonymous to rationality so it cannot acquire it by any means. The only possible option
given to us is gained ground.
Question 4
The average of the marks obtained by 30 students of a class is 50. If the score of one student is
removed, the average reduces by 1.
Column A

Column B

Average score of the remaining students

The score that was removed

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:

Average = Total marks/number of students


Total marks = Average*number of students
= 50*30 = 1500
New average = 50-1=49
Number of students = 30-1=29
Total marks = 49*29
= 1421
Marks of the student = 1500-1421
= 79
The score that was removed = 79
Average score of the remaining students = 49
Option B is correct.
Question 5
If f(x) = (x-3)/(x-1), then find the value of [x - f{f(x)}]
Correct Answer: 0
Explanation:
[x - f{f(x)}] = x - f{(x-3)/(x-1)}
= x - [{(x-3)/(x-1)-3}/{(x-3)/(x-1)-1}]
= x - {(x-3-3x+3)/(x-1)}/{(x-3-x+1)/(x-1)}
= x - (-2x)/(x-1)*(x-1)/(-2)
=x-x=0
Question 6
The price of commodity A is $5800 and it decreases at the rate of $2 per three months. Commodity
B costs $4200 and it increases at the rate of $8 per four months. How many years will it take for
the two commodities to become equal in price? Indicate the correct option.
A. 4.5
B. 3.8
C. 20
D. 60
E. 50
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
Price reduction of A in one year = 4*2 = 8
Price increase of B after one year = 3*8 = 24

Let the prices of the two commodities be the same after x years
5800-8x=4200+24x
5800-4200=24x+8x
1600=32x
x=50
Hence, it shall take 50 years.
Option E is correct.
Question 7
The average of 10 numbers is 7. Which of the following statements is true? Indicate all true
statements.
A. The average increases by 1 if each number increases by 1
B. The average becomes 3 times, if each number becomes three times
C. If the sum of the numbers increases by 7, the average increases by 1
D. If seven numbers increase by 3 each and three numbers decrease by 7 each, the average
remains the same
E. The sum of the numbers is 70
Correct Answer: A, B, D and E
Explanation:
Average = 7 and number of observations = 10
Sum of observations = Average* number of observations
= 7*10=70
Option E is true.
If each number increases by 1, then the sum increases by 70+10=80
Average = 80/10=8
Average increases by 1
Option A is true.
If each number becomes three times, the sum also becomes three times.
Average = 3*70/10=3*7=21
Option B is true.
If the sum increases by 7, it becomes 70+7=77
Average = 77/10=7.7
Option C is false.
If 7 numbers increase by 3 and 3 decrease by 7, then sum = 70+7*3-3*7 = 70+21-21=70

Average = 70/10=7
Option D is true.
Question 8
Peter told us how pilots were encouraged to take up pheasant shooting, because it developed a
killer instinct and trained them to fire in front of the fast moving target rather than directly at it. He
explained that back then there was no such concept as Post Traumatic Stress Syndrome; the young
pilots had to get on and do their job, no matter what the cost. He exemplified this by telling us about
a rookie pilot flying with the squadron. He was bounced by an enemy fighter and the tail of his plane
was shot up, but he escaped with his life, and landed back at RAF Homchurch where he told his
superior officer the story of his lucky escape, but instead of showing him sympathy the officer
dressed him down for bringing a perfectly good Spitfire back in a damaged state. If pilots were
allowed to dwell on the dangers they encountered, they would crack up and probably never fly
again.
Which sentence, reiterates the fact that Post Traumatic Stress Syndrome was nonexistent?
The correct answer is D. (He was bounced by damaged state)
Explanation
Post Traumatic Stress Syndrome is first brought out in the second sentence. The correct answer
would be the one that refers to the instance or the sentence where this fact is reiterated or
repeated. Therefore, B is not the correct answer and the correct answer would have to be either the
third, fourth or the fifth sentence. The fourth and the fifth sentence refer to the Post Traumatic
Stress Syndrome. However, the fourth sentence gives a more explicit illustration of the fact that this
Syndrome was nonexistent and therefore, D is the correct answer.
Question 9
There is a ------------ relation between environment and population, where one affects other and
vice versa.
A. Differing
B. Correlating
C. Reciprocating
D. Unharmonious
E. Dovetail
Correct Answer: B, C and E
Explanation
The sentence describes the type of relationship shared by environment and population. The latter
half of the sentence describes it as one in which each affects the other. Based on this description,

the first option, Differing is not appropriate, but the second and third, Correlating and
Reciprocating suit perfectly. The fourth option, Unharmonious is also contradictory to the
conveyed meaning, but the last option, Dovetail can be termed as a correct option.

Question 1
Designers, manufacturers, sellers and managers of technology should seek to comprehend the
metaphysical foundations of technological change, since understanding yields intelligent choices
and enables implementation. The same holds true for investing in technology intensive
companies. Among other criteria, an investor must also look at how a company interprets its
technological assets and adapts to changing belief systems around it. Todays global marketplace
presents a paradox. On the one hand, speedy, inexpensive communications channels like the
Internet are shattering time-distance barriers and enabling disparate cultures to engage in a way
that was perhaps never before possible. But the companies also need to distinguish between
interplay and homogeneity. Corporations tend to assume that cultures are melding together
thanks to globalization, but then theyre surprised to encounter resistance. The value of global
sales continues to grow, and companies that develop technological products without considering
the meaning of the technology to their global customers, based on the customers value systems,
will lose out on an increasing number of opportunities.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following is the paradox being referred to by the author?
A. companies also need to distinguish between interplay and homogeneity
B. Corporations tend to assume that cultures are melding together thanks to globalization, but
then theyre surprised to encounter resistance
C. speedy, inexpensive communications channels like the Internet are shattering timedistance barriers
D. enabling disparate cultures to engage in a way that was perhaps never before possible
E. The value of global sales continues to grow
Correct Answer: B.
Explanation:
A paradox is used to refer to a statement that contradicts itself despite being true when seen in
totality. A careful study of all the given answer options brings out that B is the only option that
meets the definition of a paradox. Moreover, this is the paradox that is being referred to by the
author in the given passage. Therefore, B is the correct answer.
Question 2

With its Iraq venture going badly, success in fighting terrorism in Afghanistan became central to
the Bush campaign for re-election. The decision to name Pakistan as a major non-NATO ally is
designed to obtain the maximum support from Pakistan, which controls the tribal area along the
border with Afghanistan. In committing Pakistani armed forces in this area, President Musharraf
has taken a major risk as many militants have sought sanctuary with the Pathans whose code of
honor requires that persons under ones protection must be defended at all costs. The designation
of Pakistan as a major non-NATO ally does bring some short-term benefits, such as access to
some military equipment previously denied to Pakistan, though delivery of F-I 6 fighters is not
assured. Pakistan as a major non-NATO ally is likely to have a short-term role in the US goals in
the region, currently focused on operations against Al-Qaeda and Taliban elements who have
taken shelter in the mountains along the border between Afghanistan and Pakistans tribal belt.
These operations, repeatedly urged by the US, have not only resulted in heavy casualties but are
also deeply resented by the tribes there, which have enjoyed internal autonomy since British
times. They are likely to leave a legacy of hostility and mistrust that will damage relations
between the federal government and the Pashtuns, who constitute the majority in NWFP and
Baluchistan. Another price paid by Pakistan to earn US approval has been the investigation it has
conducted against its leading nuclear scientists who are regarded as heroes by the people of
Pakistan. It is possible that the US may change its stance again after the 2004 presidential election,
as a result of adopting a more proactive policy against countries holding WMDs in the Islamic
world.
Choose the correct answer
How will having the US as an ally prove to be detrimental for Pakistan?
A. It is likely that Al-Qaeda and Taliban will now retaliate against Pakistan
B. Pakistan will now be able to acquire equipment that was earlier refused
C. The Pakistani leadership has earned the displeasure of its people
D. The price paid by Pakistan to earn this status will go in vain after the US Presidential
elections
E. Pakistan will still not get the F-16 fighters that it so badly needs
Correct Answer: C and D.
Explanation:
The effects of the operations along the Pakistan Afghanistan border and the actions taken by the
Pakistani Government against its leading nuclear scientists have made it clear that C is correct. The
last sentence of the passage hints that the US may change its stance after the Presidential elections.
This would be detrimental for Pakistan because it would have already earned the displeasure of its
people in its quest to gain US approval. Therefore, D is also correct. A has not been directly implied
anywhere in the passage and so it is incorrect. B refers to an advantage of being a US ally and so it is
an incorrect answer to the question asked. E is factually correct but it is not a correct answer to the
question asked. Therefore, C and D are the correct answers.

Question 3
If you are (1) ---------- by laughter, thinking stops. And if you know a few moments of no-mind,
those glimpses will (2) -------------- you many more (3) ---------- that are going to come.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. attacked

A. promise

A. opportunities

B. possessed

B. remind

B. rewards

C. aroused

C. fetch

C. profits

Correct Answer: Possessed, promise and rewards


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can relate the human body with
laughter. The action should be of a nature to bring the thinking process to a temporary halt. The
option attacked is not highly suitable to the context of laughter, so we reject it. The other option,
aroused can be suitable but when we look at the other option possessed we reject it as the latter
completes the sentence in a better manner than the former.
The second blank in the passage requires a word that can tell about the impact that the
remembrance of a few light moments in our life can put on us. The later part of the sentence,
though not complete, reveals that the action is bound to bring a few benefits for the person. The
most suitable option in the light of these criterions is promise; while the other two options are not
conveying the desired meaning.
The last blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can tell about the nature of
benefits that lighter moments bring to human life. All the options opportunities, rewards and
profits can be correct in this respect. However, rewards is the word that is a comprehensive word
to convey the meaning held by the other two options also. Thus, rewards is the correct answer
here.
Question 4
A square is constructed taking a side of a rectangle as a side of the square.
Column A

Column B

Perimeter of the square

Perimeter of the rectangle

A. Quantity A is greater

B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
We do not know whether the square is along the length or along the breath of the rectangle.
Hence, we cannot compare the perimeters.
Option D is correct.
Question 5
The points P(2.8, 4.2) and Q(4,y) lie on a straight line passing through the origin. What is the value
of y?
Correct Answer: 6
Explanation:
Since P and Q lie on the same line, the slopes of PO and QO will be equal, where O is the origin.
Slope of PO = (4.2-0)/(2.8-0)
= 3/2
Slope of QO = (y-0)/(4-0)
= y/4
Equating the two we get, y = 6
Question 6
If the roots of the equation ax2+cx+b=0 be equal, then which of the following is the correct value
of b? Indicate the correct option.
A. a2/4c
B. -a2/4c
C. -a/2c
D. a/2c
E. c2/4a
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
For the roots to be equal, the discriminant has to be zero.
c2-4*a*b=0
c2=4ab

b=c2/4a
Option E is correct.
Question 7
Which of the following is a quadratic equation? Indicate all correct options.
A. (z+1)(z+2)(z+3)(z+4)=9
B. x2+4x+5=0
C. y(y+2)+y(y+3)+y(y+4)=y(y+5)
D. z(2z+3)=0
E. z(1/2)+5z=32
Correct Answer: B, C and D
Explanation:
(z+1)(z+2)(z+3)(z+4)=9 is a polynomial equation of degree 4.
x2+4x+5=0 is a quadratic equation
y(y+2)+y(y+3)+y(y+4)=y(y+5) is a quadratic equation
z(2z+3)=0 is a quadratic equation
z(1/2)+5z=32 is not a quadratic equation since it contains a term with an irrational power.
B, C and D are quadratic equations.
Question 8
The opening day of the summit saw various Working Groups consisting of serving and retired officers
of the intelligence and security agencies discussing in a thoroughly professional manner behind
closed doors the various aspects such as intelligence collection and sharing, the role of the police,
human rights, the root causes etc. The discussions were rich in analysis and productive in results.
The objective was how to promote international solidarity in the campaign against terrorism and the
importance of democracy in this matter. On the second day, however, there was a dilution of the
focus on the professional aspects and an unfortunate shift to the political. On the concluding day,
the proceedings were largely dominated by political leaders from different countries, vying with
each other in making one statement after another reiterating the determination of the international
community to fight against terrorism together and to promote democracy.
Which sentence ratifies the contention that the summit was an exercise with varied perspectives?
The correct answer is D. (On the second political)
Explanation
If the summit is seen as an exercise, the different perspectives of this exercise as brought out in the
passage are the professional and the political perspectives. It has been clearly brought out that the
first day of the summit was entirely a professional exercise and the concluding day was largely

political. The second day has been marked as the day when there was a shift from the professional
aspects to the political aspects; so this was the day when the focus was from both the perspectives.
Therefore, it is the second day of the summit when it could be ratified that the summit was an
exercise with varied perspectives and therefore, D is the correct answer.
Question 9
Various plans for upliftment of masses are made and presented each year in the two houses but
their hidden ------------- prevent them from being a success.
A. Obscurities
B. Lucidities
C. Ambiguities
D. Certainties
E. Conclusiveness
Correct Answer: A and C
Explanation
The sentence presented here discusses the flaws in the policies that prevent them from being
successfully implemented. Therefore, the blank is required to be filled using the words that define
the nature of these flaws. The first option, Obscurities is perfectly suited to the total meaning of
the sentence so is a correct answer. The second option, Lucidities turns the meaning of the
sentence upside down as it refers to certainty, an opposite for obscurity. The third option,
Ambiguities is also a correct answer and the last two options, Certainties and Conclusiveness,
being the antonyms of the desired meaning, are again wrong options.

Question 1
Telecom infrastructure is the key to the growth of IT software and services marketplace and a
segment that has attracted the attention of Nasscom and the software sector for the past few
years. Nasscom has in fact been lobbying with the Government to create a world-class,
international level telecom network to facilitate the process of software exports from the country.
With the software development delivery model increasingly moving towards outsourcing and
offshore services, a robust and reliable telecom infrastructure has become a priority. Issues such
as telephone density are important for enhancing Internet saturation in the country, which in turn
will spur the growth of domestic software and services market as well as industry segments such
as e-commerce. The Government has already taken substantial steps to deregulate the telecom
environment since 1993. Initiatives such as liberalizing the Internet environment through the
introduction of the ISP policy have been some moves in this direction. Yet, our telecom
infrastructure lags behind other Asia Pacific nations such as China, Singapore, among others that

boast higher telephone, Internet saturation and world class telecom infrastructure in terms of
bandwidth availability, etc., which are so important for domestic IT market proliferation and
software exports.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following has not been highlighted as a necessity for propagation and enhancement
of IT services in the country?
A. Telecom Infrastructure
B. Internet saturation
C. Bandwidth availability
D. Software exports
E. Telephone density
Correct Answer: D.
Explanation:
The first sentence of the passage makes it amply clear that telecom infrastructure is essential for
growth of IT software and so A is an incorrect answer to the question asked. The last sentence of the
passage brings out that Internet saturation, telephone density and bandwidth availability are all
prerequisites for enhancement of IT services and marketplace. Therefore, B, C and E are all incorrect
answer options. Software exports have been discussed to stress on the importance of establishing a
robust telecom infrastructure. There is no indication of the importance of software exports for
propagation of IT services within the country and so D is the correct answer.
Question 2
The continued estrangement during the Johnson administration was reflected in the embargo on
arms supplies applied to both Pakistan and India after the latter crossed the international frontier
on September 6, 1965, following outbreak of fighting in the disputed territory of Kashmir. The
embargo affected Pakistan much more adversely, as India had other sources available. Pakistan
therefore turned to China for military hardware. Following the election of Richard Nixon to the
White House in 1969, the US saw the wisdom of a rapprochement with China, in order to
capitalize on the Sino-Soviet split. Pakistans close relations with China became an asset, and
Islamabad played the role of an intermediary in this historic turn in US foreign policy. Though a
tilt towards Pakistan replaced the hostility of the Democratic administrations of Kennedy and
Johnson, the US played a role during the East Pakistan crisis of 1971 that was not in keeping with
the alliance relationship. Nor was the US attitude over Indias nuclear ambitions that were
exposed following its peaceful explosion of 1974 even-handed. As Pakistan launched efforts to
develop nuclear deterrence, a discriminatory policy came to light. The Carter administration
imposed sanctions on Pakistan in early 1979, over its nuclear program, when both economic and
military aid was suspended.

Choose the correct answer


Which of the following US leaders were in power when the US had estranged relations with
Pakistan?
A. Nixon, Johnson and Kennedy
B. Carter but not Nixon
C. Nixon but not Johnson
D. Johnson, Kennedy and Carter
E. Kennedy and Carter
Correct Answer: B, D and E.
Explanation:
It has been clearly brought out in the passage that there was an estrangement between the US
Pakistan relations during the Johnson administration. There was a tilt towards Pakistan after Nixon
came to power. Also, it has been clarified that there was hostility during the Kennedy administration
and the Carter administration imposed sanctions on Pakistan. Therefore, in view of the above, it is
evident that the US did not have estranged relations with Pakistan only when Nixon was in power
and this implies that B, D and E are the correct answers.
Question 3
Civilization fulfils itself when humans are (1) ------------ from animosity to (2) ------------. Religion and
spirituality have their role in this transforming and (3) -------------- process.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. shifted

A. spirituality

A. cultivating

B. elevated

B. urbanization

B. persisting

C. transferred

C. effluence

C. regenerating

Correct Answer: Elevated, spirituality and regenerating


Explanation:
The first blank in the sentence has to be filled with a word that can tell about the kind of movement
involved in the human race moving from animosity to another level. Since animosity is a lower level
of existence we can definitely say that the movement is towards a higher level of existence.

Therefore, considering the options given, we can say that elevated is the most suitable answer.
The next blank requires us to fill it with the level of existence to which humans travelled from
animosity. As said before, this has to be something higher in the ladder of existence. The option
effluence is not a valid option in this equation, so we reject it. The other option urbanization can
be suitable but in the light of the third option, spirituality, we reject it. It is because the latter part
of the passage also uses the word and provides us with a hint for it being the correct answer.
The last blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can be equal in meaning to the
word transforming. The options cultivating and persisting cannot be accepted as the correct
answers as the former carries a metaphorical significance in the context while the latter is a word
with an opposite meaning. The only appropriate answer option is therefore, regenerating.
Question 4
A point divides the line joining (-1,-5) and (6,5) in the ratio 1:6.
Column A

Column B

Ordinate of the point

Abscissa of the point

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The coordinates of the point are given by
((-1*6+6*1)/(6+1), (-5*6+5*1)/(6+1))
= ((-6+6)/7, (-30+5)/7)
= (0, -25/7)
Abscissa is the x co-ordinate and hence it is greater than the ordinate, which is the y co-ordinate.
Option B is correct.
Question 5
Evaluate 64(1/5)*512(1/5)*[{729(1/2)}(1/3)]
[x(1/5) = Fifth root of x]
Correct Answer: 24
Explanation:

64(1/5)*512(1/5)*[{729(1/2)}(1/3)] = (26)(1/5)*(29)(1/5)*[729{(1/2)*(1/3)}]
= {2(6*1/5)}*{2(9*1/5)}*{729(1/6)}
= {2(6/5+9/5)}*{36}(1/6)
= 2(15/5)*{3(6*1/6)}
= 2^3*3
= 8*3=24

Question 6
Alice can knit a sweater in 30 days, Laura in 20 days and Sandra in 60 days. How many days will
they take to knit the sweater if they share their work? Indicate the correct option.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
E. 25
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Work done by Alice in one day = 1/30
Work done by Laura in one day = 1/20
Work done by Sandra in one day = 1/60
Work done by them working together in one day = 1/20+1/30+1/60
= (3+2+1)/60
= 6/60=1/10
Time taken to compete the work = 10 days
Option B is correct.
Question 7
A, B and C can together complete a work in 30 days working 5 hours daily. Which of the following
statements is true? Indicate all correct statements.
A. A completes the work in 10 days working alone for 5 hours daily
B. B can complete the work in 40 days working alone for 3 hours daily
C. We cannot determine how many days A and B will take to complete the work, working
together for 7 hours daily
D. We cannot determine how many days A will take to complete the work working alone for 5
hours daily
E. C will take more than 30 days to complete the work working alone for less than 5 hours daily

Correct Answer: C, D and E


Explanation:
We are given that A, B and C complete the work in 30 days working for 5 hours daily. We need more
information to determine how many days each will take to complete the work working alone.
Options A and B are false and C and D are true. Option E is true since even if A and B do not
contribute towards the work, C shall take at least 30 days to complete it working 5 hours daily. Since
he works for less than 5 hours daily, he shall take more than 30 days.
Question 8
Over the past 20 years weve gotten pretty good at navigation, says Brooks, who heads
Massachusetts Institute of Technologys Computer Science and Artificial Intelligence (Al) Laboratory.
But none of the robots manipulates the environment or really understands the objects they
encounter outside of the lab. A toddler can recognize a cup as a cup, even if its shape or size
changes, while a six-year-old can tie her own shoelaces. For robotics, what it will take to reach those
goals is a tremendous advance in artificial intelligence. A current focus in Al is embodiment as
humans gain experience about the world by moving through it and manipulating it, so to build
robots capable of learning, research groups have increased efforts to mimic the human form.
Which sentence asserts that in terms of manual dexterity, robotics is still in its infancy?
The correct answer is D. (For robotics, what intelligence)
Explanation
Manual dexterity is reflected in actions like tying ones own shoelaces. This is mentioned in the third
sentence, but has not been linked to robotics in this sentence and so it cannot be correct. The fourth
sentence makes it apparent that robotics is in a stage where attaining this kind of manual dexterity
will require remarkable advancement in artificial intelligence. Therefore, this sentence implies that
the present stage of robotics can be compared to infancy as it will take time for it to reach the
toddler stage. Therefore, D is the correct answer.
Question 9
There is a ----------- and bleak scenario witnessed when we look at the human rights situation in
India.
A. Morbid
B. Ghastly
C. Desolate
D. Optimistic
E. Dismal
Correct Answer: A, B, C and E

Explanation
The blank in the sentence has to be filled using a word that compliments the meaning of the word,
bleak. Thus, the first three options, Morbid, Ghastly and Desolate are the correct answers as
they are similar in the sense implied by the word bleak. The fourth option, Optimistic is not
correct, since it has an opposing meaning. And the last option, Dismal is again a correct answer as it
compliments bleak perfectly.

Question 1
Rahul Dravid is not merely India's most dependable or most consistent or most valuable batsman.
He is all of these. But the time has come to recognize that on the basis of his performances in the
last three years he is, quite simply, India's best batsman. Sachin Tendulkar was India's batsman of
the l990s; Rahul Dravid has made this decade his very own. To see a good ball hit for four is a
spectacle; surviving a great ball requires no less skill, but it rarely elicits a sense of wonderment. It is
easy to be agog over a batsman responding to a sharp short ball with an explosive hook, but we
often miss the artfulness and skill involved in leaving a bouncer. No one in contemporary cricket,
Tendulkar and Lara included, deals with the short ball with greater poise and equanimity than
Dravid, whose eye never leaves the ball. Dravid has been hit a couple of times while trying to force
the ball away, but rarely would you see him ducking in to a bouncer. Test cricket, he often says, is
such a fulfilling experience because it challenges the mind continuously for four to five days. Dravid
belongs to that priceless breed of champions whose mental resolve is at its strongest when the
situation is the direst. The manner of playing and statistics are fair pointers, but to many, the heart
of a cricketer's greatness lies in what his performances have meant to the team. He has answered
nearly every call of crisis; he has saved them from defeats in South Africa, West Indies and England
and set up wins in Sri Lanka, England and Australia. Tendulkar will perhaps end his career with a
hundred hundreds. But as Indian cricket stands on the precipice of its own golden age, it must be
remembered that Rahul Dravid has made the most difference.
Choose the correct answer
The author highlights that Rahul Dravid may be India's best batsmen, but at the same time he
A. is incapable of hitting hundreds like Tendulkar
B. has captained the team and saved them from many defeats
C. is not immune to being hit by the ball
D. knows to how maintain a steely resolve when it is least required
E. is unable to handle the short ball as well as Lara
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

The passage deals with various aspects of Rahul Dravid's professionalism and skills as a cricketer. It
has been brought out that Tendulkar may have a hundred hundreds to his credit at the end of his
career, but it has not been implied anywhere that Rahul Dravid is incapable of achieving the same
feat. Therefore, A is incorrect. Rahul Dravid has saved the team from several defeats but it is not
mentioned anywhere that he was the captain of the team during those matches and so B is
incorrect. It has been clearly stated that Dravid is a man whose mental resolve is "at its strongest
when the situation is the direst". This implies that D is incorrect. E is clearly incorrect and it has been
explicitly stated that no one in contemporary cricket, including Lara "deals with the short ball with
greater poise and equanimity than Dravid". The author brings out that "Dravid has been hit a couple
of times while trying to force the ball away" and therefore, it is evident that C is the correct answer.
Question 2
This is a time for MNCs to look at globalization strategies through a new lens of inclusive capitalism.
For companies with the resources and persistence to compete at the bottom of the world economic
pyramid, the prospective rewards include growth, profits and incalculable contributions to
humankind. Countries that still don't have the modern infrastructure or products to meet basic
human needs are an ideal testing ground for developing environmentally sustainable technologies
and products for the entire world. Furthermore, MNC investment at "the bottom of the pyramid"
means lifting billions of people out of poverty and desperation, averting the social decay, political
chaos, terrorism, and environmental meltdown that is certain to continue if the gap between rich
and poor countries continues to widen. Doing business with the world's four billion poorest people
will require radical innovations in technology and business models. It will require MNCs to
reevaluate price-performance relationships for products and services. It will demand a new level of
capital efficiency and new ways of measuring financial success. Companies will be forced to
transform their understanding of scale, from a "bigger is better" ideal to an ideal of highly
distributed small-scale operations married to world-scale capabilities. In short, the poorest
populations raise a prodigious new managerial challenge for the world's wealthiest companies:
selling to the poor and helping them improve their lives by producing and distributing products and
services in culturally sensitive, environmentally sustainable, and economically profitable ways.
Choose the correct answers
How, according to the author, is it beneficial for undeveloped countries if MNCs invest in their
markets?
A. They are a useful testing ground for developing new technologies
B. The living standards will improve as a result of producing and utilizing new products
C. MNCs will have to work towards making technological innovations
D. The locals will have financial gains
E. Social stagnation and decay will be averted
Correct Answers: B, D and E
Explanation

The correct answer choices would be those that directly point out the benefits that will be accrued
by the underdeveloped countries if MNCs start venturing into their markets. Options A and C simply
refer to facts that are not related to such benefits directly based on the context of their appearance
in the passage; whereas, B, D and E have been brought out as the benefits that will be available to
the poor as a result of MNCs investing in their markets. Therefore, B, D and E are the correct
answers.
Question 3
It was thought that freedom and (1) ---------- would speed gradually throughout the world by an
orderly process, and it was hoped that cruelty, (2) ------------, and injustice would continually
diminish. Hardly anyone was haunted by the (3) ---------- of great wars.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. enjoyment

A. secularism

A. advent

B. prosperity

B. empowerment

B. fear

C. exasperation

C. tyranny

C. celebrations

Correct Answers : Prosperity, tyranny and fear


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can complete the meaning
conveyed by the word 'freedom' in the sentence. The word 'enjoyment' in the option list demeans
the sense conveyed by it, therefore is rejected. The word 'exasperation' is not suitable to be used
with freedom. The only suitable word given to us is therefore, 'prosperity'.
The second blank in the passage has to be completed with the use of a word that complete the
series of adjectives used for the processes opposing freedom. The options 'secularism' and
'empowerment' are not suitable as these are related to freedom. The only relevant option provided
to us is 'tyranny'.
The last blank in the passage requires a word that can relate to the use of the words 'haunted' and
'great wars' in the sentence. The option 'advent' is not perfectly suited to the meanings conveyed by
these two words and the option 'celebrations' is not related to wars in any case. Therefore, the only
suitable answer here is 'fear'.
Question 4
log[(x+y)/5] = 1/2 (logx+logy)

Column A

Column B

x/y

y/x
A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
log[(x+y)/5] = 1/2 (logx+logy)
(x+y)/5 = sqrt(xy)
(x+y)=5*sqrt(xy)
Squaring both sides
(x+y)^2 = 5^2*xy
x^2+y^2+2xy = 25xy
x^2+y^2=25xy-2xy = 23xy
Dividing both sides by xy
x/y+y/x=23
We cannot determine which of x/y and y/x is greater.
Option D is correct.
Question 5
15 litres of a solution contain 20% alcohol and the rest is water. Equal quantities of alcohol and
water are added to make the solution 200/7% alcohol. How many litres of alcohol were added?
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation
15 litres of the solution contain 20% alcohol and 100-20=80% water
Quantity of alcohol = 20/100*15 = 3 litres
Quantity of water = 15-3=12 litres
Let x litres of water and x litres of alcohol be added.
Total quantity = 15+x+x = 15+2x litres
Percentage of alcohol = 200/7% = (3+x)/(15+2x)*100
200(15+2x) = (3+x)*7*100
2*(15+2x) = 7(3+x)
30 + 4x = 21 + 7x

30-21 = 7x - 4x
9 = 3x
x = 9/3 = 3 litres
3 litres of alcohol were added.
Question 6
The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers in a sequence of 9 numbers is A and the average of the
last 4 numbers is B. Which of the following is the average of the 9 numbers? Indicate the correct
option.
A. A+B
B. (A+B)/2
C. (A+B)/9
D. (4A+5B)/9
E. (5A+4B)/9
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Let the numbers be x1, x2, x3, x4, x5, x6, x7, x8, x9
A=(x1+x2+x3+x4+x5)/5
x1+x2+x3+x4+x5 = 5A
x6+x7+x8+x9 = 4B
Average of 9 numbers =(x1+x2+x3+x4+x5+x6+x7+x8+x9)/9
= (5A+4B)/9
Option E is true.
Question 7
Annie has a field in the shape of a polygon with 9 sides. Which of the following is true? Indicate all
true statements.
A. She can divide the polygon into 7 triangles with a common vertex.
B. The sum of the interior angles of the field is 1260 degrees.
C. Each interior angle is equal to 140 degrees.
D. Each exterior angle is equal to 40 degrees.
E. She can make 27 diagonals in the field.
Correct Answers: A, B and E

Explanation
The field is in the shape of a polygon with 9 sides.
The field can be divided into (9-2)=7 triangles with a common vertex.
Option A is true.
The sum of the interior angles of the polygon is (9-2)*180
= 7*180 = 1260 degrees
Option B is true.
Since the field is not in the shape of a regular polygon, its interior angles and exterior angles will
measure differently.
Hence, options C and D are not true.
The number of diagonals in the field is given by {9(9-1)/2 - 9}
= 9*8/2-9
= 36-9
= 27
Option E is true.
Question 8
Researchers are realizing that a better way to power and direct motion is to follow the human motor
skills. Built independently by groups at MIT, the robots are propelled along flat grades with a fraction
of the energy required by such technically advanced bipeds as Asimo, Hondas famous
demonstration robot. The walker from MIT incorporates a learning program that optimizes
movement over various terrains by making random adjustments and measuring efficiency. Such a
learning rule, the researchers state, might also describe biological motor learning. But even these
robots are powered by computer-controlled servomotors, which often produce jerky movements.
Which sentence has been used as evidence that robots with human-like motor skills exist?
The correct answer is D. (Such a learning rule learning)
Explanation
The sentence which explicitly implies that robots now have skills that are similar to human motor
skills would be the correct answer. A reference to robots and human motor skills has been made in
the first sentence and the fourth sentence. The other sentences may be discussing robotic motor
skills but they have not been compared with human skills and so none of them can be considered as
the correct answer. The first sentence only suggests that the best way to power and direct motion is
to follow the human motor skills whereas the fourth sentence makes it amply clear that the robots
have a learning rule that is similar to the biological or human motor learning and therefore, D is the
correct answer.
Question 9

In order to meet the demands of competent manpower, the states have to be ------------- in
providing higher education to the people.
A. Disengaged
B. Exempted
C. Non-compelling
D. Obligatory
E. Incumbent
Correct Answer: D and E
Explanation
The sentence here discusses the culpable behavior of the states so as to provide higher education to
the people. The listed first three options are complete opposites of this desired meaning thus, are
the wrong answers. The last two options, Obligatory and Incumbent properly suit the demands of
the sentence and so are the correct answers.

Question 1
The United States must learn to lose this war - a harder task, in many ways, than winning -for it
requires admitting mistakes and relinquishing attractive fantasies. This is the true moral mission of
our time (well, of the next few years, anyway). The cost of leaving will certainly be high, just not
anywhere near as high as trying to "stay the course," which can only magnify and postpone the
disaster. And yet, regrettable to say, even if this difficult step is taken, no one should imagine that
democracy will be achieved by this means. The great likelihood is something else - something worse;
perhaps a recrudescence of dictatorship or Civil War, or both. An interim period, probably very brief,
of international trusteeship is the best solution, yet it is unlikely to be a good solution. It is merely
better than any other recourse. The good options have probably passed us by. They may never have
existed. If the people of Iraq are given back their country, there isn't the slightest guarantee that
they will use the privilege to create a liberal democracy. The creation of democracy is an organic
process that must proceed from the will of the local people, sometimes that will is present, more
often it is not. Vietnam provides an example. Vietnam today enjoys the self-determination it battled
to achieve for so long; but it has not become a democracy. On the other hand, just because Iraq's
future remains to be decided by its talented people, it would also be wrong to categorically rule out
the possibility that they will escape tyranny and create a democratic government for themselves.
The United States and other countries might even find ways of offering modest assistance in the
project. It's just that it is beyond the power of the United States to create democracy for them. The
matter is not in our hands. It never was.
Choose the correct answer

Which of the following has been brought out as a consequence of the United States withdrawing
from the war?
A. Democracy will be achieved
B. United States will find it to be a very hard task
C. Dictatorship will be abolished
D. United States will have to give up its aim for which the war was being fought
E. The impending disaster will be amplified
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
The passage starts with a discussion on the various pros and cons of the United States pulling from
the war. It has been brought out that pulling out from the war or losing it would be harder than
winning the war. This cannot be labelled as a consequence of pulling put from the war. Moreover, it
has been clearly stated that one should not expect democracy to be established by taking this step.
Therefore, A and B are both incorrect. C is clearly incorrect as it has been brought out that in all
likelihood dictatorship will rebound in this scenario. It has been stated that staying on would magnify
the disaster. This obviously will not happen if United States does not stay on. Therefore, E is also
incorrect. The beginning of the passage clearly states that losing the war will entail "relinquishing
attractive fantasies". As D is close to this in meaning and also, it is the only option left, it is the
correct answer.
Question 2
A country should defend itself largely with the armaments it can produce, not with the pricey
imported toys its forces may want. If this tenet were to dictate policy, India could greatly boost its
manufacturing capabilities and create tens of thousands of jobs at home through a vibrant military
industrial complex. From being the world's largest arms importer, India would emerge as a worthy
exporter. Given that India has not fought a full-fledged war in 35 years and is unlikely to face fullscale aggression in the next decade, it is possible to implement in stages, such a principle. In this
light, the Agni-3 test freeze is troubling. India's primary focus ought to be on preventing aggression
through indigenous deterrent assets, not on seeking to defeat aggression with extravagant weapons
from abroad. Yet the PM has acted quite the reversefrom accepting nuclear-capability limits under
a misbegotten deal with the US to providing assurances on multibillion dollar imports of US arms and
reactors. The Agni-3 test freeze epitomizes the mounting costs of the nuclear deal. In fact, from the
period since Rajiv Gandhi conducted the first Agni test exactly 17 years ago, the Agni program has
been significantly crimped by a succession of weak, vacillating PMs.
Choose the correct answers
Which of the following correctly brings out the state of arms manufacture in India?
A. Indigenous development is slowly picking up speed

B. There is more emphasis on import than on indigenous development


C. Numerous jobs have been created as a result of arms manufacture
D. Indigenous development would make India a formidable exporter of arms
E. It is cheaper to import arms than to manufacture them indigenously
Correct Answers: B and D
Explanation
It has been clearly brought out that if the tenet, "A country should defend itself largely with the
armaments it can produce, not with the pricey imported toys its forces may want" were to dictate
policy, then India would have succeeding in creating multitude jobs and becoming an exporter by
boosting its manufacturing capabilities. This means that currently this is not the case and hence,
options A and C are both incorrect, but D is correct. The exported arms have been referred to as
"pricey imported toys" and "extravagant weapons from abroad" which implies that E is clearly
incorrect. A careful reading of the passage suggests that B is correct and therefore, B and D are the
correct answers.
Question 3
Whereas in the past, tribes, nations and (1) ----------- have solved their problems through warfare
and dominance, always seeking to advance themselves at the (2) ----------- of others, the tumult of
the modern world is (3) ---------- that such conflict and segregation must be left behind if the family
of humanity is going to survive and prosper.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. colonies

A. expense

A. theorizing

B. localities

B. value

B. hypothesizing

C. empires

C. domination

C. proving

Correct Answer : Empires, expense and proving


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that stands in the league of the
words like 'tribes, nations' that have been used in the earlier part of the sentence. The options
'colonies' and 'localities' refer to smaller units of society in comparison to those mentioned in the
sentence. The only one option which is suitable to be used with them is 'empires'.

The next blank in the sentence has to be filled with a word that explains the way in which the
empires, nations since the past times have acted on the other groups in the society. We find
references to 'warfare', 'tumult' etc which signal towards the display of power and violence that was
conducted by these societies. The suitable option is thus 'expense' as it shows the exertion of power
by one social group on the other.
The last blank has to be filled with a word that can show the relation between the two parts of the
sentence here. We can observe that the second part of the sentence is a resultant factor for the first.
The options 'hypothesizing' and 'theorizing' are references to laying down of ideas and formulations;
whereas 'proving' completes the relation of these two entities properly. The correct answer is
therefore, 'proving'.
Question 4
A person covers half of his journey at 30 km/hr and the other half at 20 km/hr.
Column A

Column B

His average speed for the whole journey

His average speed for the first half of his journey

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the distance be 2x km
Time = Distance/speed
Time for first half of journey = x/30
Time for second half of journey = x/20
Total time = x/30+x/20 = (20x+30x)/(20*30)
= 50x/(20*30)
= x/12
Average speed = total distance/total time
= (x+x)/(x/12)
= 2x*12/x
= 24 km/hr
Average speed for the first half of his journey = 30 km/hr
Option B is correct.

Question 5
A rectangular park has a walkway 2 feet wide around it along the inside. It has another walkway 5
feet inside the park parallel to its breadth. The rectangular park is 20 feet long and 18 feet wide.
Find the area of the walkway in square feet.
Correct Answer: 174
Explanation
The park can be divided into two rectangles, one formed with the outer edges and the other formed
with the inner edges of the walkway.
Area of the outer rectangular park = 20*18 = 360 sq.ft.
Area of the inner rectangular park = (20-2-2)*(18-2-2)
= 16*14 = 224 sq.ft.
Area of the walkway along the edge of the park = 360-224 = 136 sq.ft.
Area of the walkway parallel to the breadth, not included in the area of the walkway along the edge
= (20-2-2)*2
= 16*2
= 38
Total area of the walkway = 136+38 = 174 sq.ft.
Question 6
Sam bought 100 bottles of juice for $40 each. He planned to earn a profit of 50% on his purchase
and so marked the items accordingly. However, due to a sudden change in weather, he had to sell
them at a discount of 20%. How much profit did he finally earn? Indicate the correct option.
A. $800
B. $600
C. $8
D. $48
E. $60
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Marked price = 40+50% of 40
= 40+50*40/100
= 40+20=60
Selling price after 20% discount = 60-20% of 60
= 60 - 20*60/100
= 60 - 12
= 48
The profit earned on each item = 48-40=$8

Total profit earned = $8*100=$800


Option A is correct.
Question 7
A stick is placed in a co-ordinate plane. The end points of the stick lie at (1,4) and (9,-12). At what
point in the plane does a point on the stick lie such that it divides the stick in ratio 3:5 when all the
possible cases are considered? Indicate all correct options.
A. (4,2)
B. (6,6)
C. (-4,2)
D. (6,-6)
E. (4,-2)
Correct Answers: D and E
Explanation
There can be two such points considering the two ends of the stick as identical.
Let the two points be (x,y) and (x',y').
We have
x=(3*9+5*1)/(3+5), y=(-3*12+5*4)/(3+5)
x=(27+5)/8, y=(-36+20)/8
x=32/8, y=-16/8
x= 4, y=-2
x'=(5*9+3*1)/(5+3), y'=(-5*12+3*4)/(5+3)
x'=(45+3)/8, y'=(-60+12)/8
x'=48/8, -48/8
x'=6, y'=-6
The two points are (4,-2) and (6,-6)
Options D and E are correct.
Question 8
The most important healthcare asset in developing nations is the people in the country who are
already trained to provide medical services. For 30 years, countries struggling to build their
economies have been investing what little resources they have in training healthcare workers. Those
who have received the training are often the people with the skills and knowledge of English to
immigrate to countries with more opportunity. It is essential to provide the equipment and supplies
necessary for them to feel they are able to accomplish something. Direct Relief is an organization
that provides supplies through donations from healthcare companies, including pharmaceutical

firms, from around the world. This group has been able to motivate health workers to contribute to
the progress of their nations.
Which sentence refers to a problem, the solution of which is given in the fourth sentence (It is
essential something)?
The correct answer is C. (Those who have opportunity)
Explanation
The fourth sentence is referring to the provision of equipment and supplies that will make the health
workers feel that they can accomplish something. If this is the solution, then it means that the
problem would be that they felt they will not be able to accomplish anything. Therefore, the likely
problem being discussed is the migration of skilled health workers to other countries for more
opportunities. This is substantiated by the concluding sentence where it is brought out that the
provision of supplies has succeeded in motivating health workers to contribute towards the progress
of their nations. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
Question 9
The human race cannot deny the fact that we are ------------ and indissolubly bound to the past
ages.
A. Liable
B. Indebted
C. Ungrateful
D. Answerable to
E. Settled with
Correct Answer: A, B and D
Explanation
The sentence here requires to be completed using a word that compliments the usage of
indissolubly bound in the later part of it. The first two options, Liable and Indebted are properly
suited to the meaning in this regards, thus join the list of correct answers. The third option,
Ungrateful is completely opposite to it, so is a wrong answer. The fourth option, Answerable to is
again complimenting the phrase in the second part of the sentence and the last option, Settled
with is an incorrect answer, as it is an antonym to the desired meaning.

Question 1

In a recent public speech on economic policy, Bimal Jalan, Governor of the Reserve Bank of India,
explained the realism which drives India's exchange rate policy. There can be no doctrinaire,
orthodox, rule-bound approach to the financial markets and economics and more generally the
social sciences. That is the most important message flowing from Dr. Jalan's speech. Equally
interesting was his declaring the central bank's openness to suggestions and feedback in the process
of policy formulation. Since it has taken place in fairly quick succession, one cannot but compare Dr.
Jalan's pragmatic approach with the almost obsessive rule-bound approach of the International
Monetary Fund (IMF) to economic policy issues. This dogmatic approach was articulated by its
(IMF's) Chief Economist, Kenneth Rogoff, a few days before Dr. Jalan's speech. On a recent visit to
India, Mr. Rogoff almost instinctively talked about India's fiscal deficit being completely
unsustainable and it being the root cause of all its economic malaise. Now, this line on fiscal deficits
has been the standard of the IMF for such a long time that its representatives almost instinctively
parrot out the argument, quite oblivious to the fact that this has been turned on its head in the most
convincing manner in many countries across the world. A budget deficit while undesirable at a point
in time for an economy becomes necessary some other time for the same economy. One cannot
have a single policy at all times.
Choose the correct answer
According to the author, which of the following cannot be used to describe Dr. Jalan's comments?
A. The financial situation can be best handled or understood by adopting a dogmatic policy
B. Dr. Jalan's comments are in stark opposition to IMF's perspective on the same issue
C. It is not possible to have an opinionated approach in respect of the economic policies
D. A fiscal deficit is not necessarily a disagreeable element for a nation's economy
E. It is not mandatory that the same approach will hold true for all economic policies at all
times
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
It has been brought out that IMF has a rule-bound approach to economic policies whereas Dr. Jalan's
speech implies that there can be no rule-bound approach to financial markets and economics.
Therefore, B is a valid description of Dr. Jalan's comments and hence, is an incorrect answer option
for the question asked. The discussion on IMF's stance on fiscal deficits brings out that it may be
necessary at some other time for the same economy and hence D is an incorrect answer option.
Going by the last sentence of the passage, it is evident that E is also a wrong answer choice. The
statement, "There can be no doctrinaire, orthodox, rule-bound approach to the financial markets
and economics and more generally the social sciences" has been made with reference to Dr. Jalan's
comments and it makes it amply clear that C is incorrect and A is the correct answer to the question
asked as C is a valid description and A is unwarranted.
Question 2

Even organizations have started realizing the importance of work-life balance and are taking some
concrete steps to help employees snap out of the imbroglio. A company, for instance, has come up
with a Wednesday Blackout policy, which essentially means that lights are switched off at 6 pm
every Wednesday-a signal for employees to wrap up and push off. Then, there are companies that
have formulated flexi-hour policies for their employees. This allows people to adjust their workday
while maintaining full-time hours-an ideal arrangement for someone who might want to start work
early and leave early. A compressed workweek is another option. "Companies even allow employees
to work the entire week and club the holidays together to meet family," says an Editor of a
publishing house. For all this or any of this to happen, you'll obviously have to look for an
opportunity to talk to your employer. Let them know exactly what you are looking for and explain
why. Do this not from the perspective of "I need to spend more time with my kids" but in terms of
"In order for me to be the most effective employee possible, this is the work arrangement that I
need in order to fulfill my commitment." And if you are wondering whether flexi-arrangements
would hamper your career, then let me tell you a flexible schedule does not always limit your career.
It can slow down your career path slightly because it may take you longer to get the necessary
experience for promotion, but it shouldn't limit growth in the long run. After all, it's good to
remember that the more out of balance or out of control your life is, the more you pay in terms of
physical and emotional health. You probably won't eat properly or consume more caffeine, more
alcohol, more sugar, and you are less likely to exercise on a regular basis. Your relationships too,
could become unstable-quite a heavy price to pay for an unbalanced life.
Choose the correct answers
Which of the following have been attributed to a disturbed work-life balance?
A. Deterioration of health
B. Becoming an effective employee
C. Inability to spend time with family
D. Ineptitude at work
E. The requirement of enforcing flexible working hours for employees
Correct Answers: A, C, D and E
Explanation
The entire passage deals with the importance of work-life balance and how companies are striving to
ensure that their employees have balanced work-life stability. The last portion of the passage brings
out the disadvantages of having a disturbed work-life balance. Becoming an effective employee is
definitely not an outcome of a disturbed work-life balance. In view of the above and a careful study
of the passage and the answer options, it is evident that B is incorrect; whereas A, C, D and E are the
correct answers.
Question 3

Truth was flouted and progressive, (1) ----------- and truthful ideas, ideas expressing doubt and (2) ------------ were suppressed and their holders punished. It was in these (3) ----------- circumstances
that the science emerged as a savior of mankind.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. conservative

A. skepticism

A. convenient

B. liberal

B. certainty

B. advantageous

C. bigoted

C. faithfulness

C. trying

Correct Answers : Liberal, skepticism and trying


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with the use of a word that can be used along
with 'truthful' in the sentence. The word should be in line with the idea conveyed by 'truthful', which
is why we cannot accept 'bigoted' as the answer. This is because the word refers to falsehood. The
other option, 'conservative' cannot be accepted as what is true is not supposed to be biased in any
manner. The only relevant option given to us is 'liberal', which complements the use of truthful in
the sentence properly.
The next blank in the sentence should be completed by a word that stands in equality with the
meaning conveyed by the phrase 'ideas expressing doubt'. Among the options, 'certainty' and
'faithfulness' are opposite to this meaning so we reject them. The option 'skepticism' is the only
relevant option therefore.
The third blank in the sentence has to be completed with the use of a word that can explain the
nature of the circumstances revealed in the first sentence. On the basis of the details delivered to us,
we realize that these were not 'convenient' or 'advantageous' in any manner. They can certainly be
termed as 'trying' which is thus the correct answer.
Question 4
Column A

Column B

The number of chords of a circle formed by


joining the vertices of a cyclic pentagon

The number of diameters of a circle formed by


joining the vertices of a cyclic pentagon

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater

C. The quantities are equal


D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Any two points of the pentagon can be joined to form a chord.
The number of points is given by C(5,2)
C(5,2) = 5!/(2!3!)
= 5*4/2 = 10
10 chords can be drawn by joining the vertices of a cyclic pentagon.
Of these 10 chords, 5 are the sides of the pentagon and 5 are the diagonals of the pentagon. None of
these diagonals passes through the centre of the circle. Hence, the number of diameters is zero.
Option A is true.
Question 5
A set S consists of all positive integers less than 100 that are not perfect squares. How many
elements does S contain?
Correct Answer: 90
Explanation
There are 99 positive integers less than 100.
100 is the square of 10 and 1 is the square of 1.
The squares of 2,3,4,5,6,7,8 and 9 lie between 1 and 100. These are excluded from S.
Hence, S contains 99-9 = 90 elements.
Question 6
The diagonal of a parallelogram AC makes an angle of 32 degrees with side AB. What angle does
AC make with the side BC? Indicate the correct option.
A. 64 degrees
B. 148 degrees
C. 32 degrees
D. 58 degrees
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

The angle depends on the positioning of the sides BC and AD. We cannot determine the angle unless
additional information is provided.
Option E is correct.
Question 7
When A increases by 10%, then B increases by 6%. When B increases by 10%, then C increases by
5%. Which of the following statements is definitely true? Indicate all true statements.
[x^2=x*x]
A. (110)^2*A=105*106*C
B. 1.1B=1.05C
C. C=110A/(105*106)
D. A<B<C
E. B<C<A
Correct Answers: A and B
Explanation
10% increase in A means that it becomes A+10A/100=110A/100
6% increase in B means that it becomes B+6B/100=106B/100
10% increase in B means that it becomes B+10B/100=110B/100
5% increase in C means that it becomes C+5C/100=105C/100
We have,
110A/100=106B/100 and 110B/100=105C/100
or 110A=106B and 110B=105C ...(1)
110A/106=B=105C/110
110A/106=105C/110
(110)^2*A=105*106*C ...(2)
Option A is true.
From (1), we have 110B=105C
1.1B=1.05C
Option B is true.
From (2), we have C=(110)^2*A/(105*106)
Option C is false.
Since we do not know the values of A, B and C we cannot say that A<B<C and B<C<A are definitey
true.
Options D and E are false.
Question 8

A mans mind and a garden are analogous, which may be intelligently cultivated or allowed to run
wild; but whether cultivated or neglected, it must, and will bring forth. If no useful seeds are put into
it, then an abundance of useless weed-seeds will fall therein and will continue to produce their kind.
A gardener cultivates his plot, keeping it free from weeds, and growing the flowers and fruits which
he requires. A man may also weed out all the wrong, useless and impure thoughts, and cultivate
toward perfection the flowers and fruits of right, useful and pure thoughts. By pursuing this process,
a man sooner or later discovers that he is the master-gardener of his soul, the director of his life and
he also reveals, within himself, the flaws of thought and understands how the thought-forces
operate in the shaping of character, circumstances, and destiny.
Which sentence encompasses the crux of the matter being discussed in the passage?
The correct answer is A. (A mans mind forth)
Explanation
The entire passage deals with how a mans mind can be likened to a garden. The correct answer
should be that sentence which explicitly covers all those aspects of a mans mind and a garden that
have been elucidated in the passage. The first sentence mentions that a mans mind and a garden
are similar, it brings out that both a garden and a mans mind will bear fruit whether it is cultivated
or not. This implies that there will be fruitful results if it is cultivated and weeds if allowed to run
wild. Therefore, when seen in totality, this is the only sentence that encompasses the crux of the
matter being discussed and therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 9
The human history presents us with an unbroken chain of evolution and -----------, that has no
events repeating in its due course.
A. Metamorphosis
B. Submission
C. Debacle
D. Revolution
E. Restoration
Correct Answer: A, C and D
Explanation
The sentence here requires us to choose words from the given list that compliment the meaning of
the word evolution. The first option, Metamorphosis is a term from biology, originally, but is used
as a metaphor to describe drastic changes that influence future events. Thus, it is one of the correct
answers. The second option, Submission is an opposing term to the meaning of the word,
evolution so is a wrong answer. The next two options, Debacle and Revolution are properly
suited to this place, so we put them under the category of correct answers. Debacle is a correct
answer as it refers to overthrowing and downfall, in this case, of the past events and conventions to

give way to new ones. The last option, Restoration is opposing to the upper two words in its
meaning, so is a wrong answer. One should be careful of such words in the GRE General Test as they
are put to confuse the test-takers.

Question 1
It seems there have been many Alexander the Greats - as many as there have been serious students
of him as man, hero or God. There are two main reasons for this, multiplicity and plasticity. First, and
more poetically, the great leader's achievements - both in his lifetime and posthumously (the
Alexander myth or legend) - are simply staggering. Second, the original narrative sources that survive
for Alexander are mostly either very non-contemporary or very skewed by partisanship - pro or con,
or both. In the past there have been those who saw him as essentially reasonable and gentlemanly,
or dynamic and titanic, or Homerically heroic. But the recent trend has been decidedly negative,
emphasizing variously his conquering bloodlust, his megalomania, or alleged alcoholism. Here I hope
not to err on the side of gratuitous mudslinging, in my search for clues to the mainsprings of
Alexander's character. But I do lay stress on his grand passion for hunting game - human as well as
animal and the bigger and more dangerous the better. Such macho feats offered him the chance to
enhance his standing in the eyes of his subjects, as well as to ensure an impressive reputation into
posterity.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following contradicts the image of Alexander as painted by the author?
A. He was courteous and energetic
B. He had an obsession for doing extravagant things
C. He was driven by the zeal for conquest at the price of bloodshed
D. He was an avid hunter
E. He found hunting to be a repugnant game
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
It has been brought out that Alexander has been seen differently by different people and that he had
various facets to his personality. There are people who saw him as "reasonable and gentlemanly, or
dynamic and titanic" and therefore, A does not contradict the image of Alexander as painted by the
author and hence, it is incorrect. He has been labeled as a megalomaniac and hence, B also agrees
with the content of the passage and is therefore an incorrect answer option. He had a 'conquering
bloodlust' and so C is also incorrect. He had a passion for hunting. This implies that he was an avid

hunter but he did not find hunting to be a repugnant game. Therefore, D is incorrect and E is the
correct answer.
Question 2
When the abbreviation OBC is spelt out, it refers to Other Backward Classes and not Castes. This is
the meaning that the Constitution of India gave to the phrase. There is a world of difference
between the two and it is only by means of deft political jugglery that the impression has been
conveyed that the Constitution is interested in uplifting a section of the population that can be
labeled under the totally spurious term called backward caste. As the Constitution was interested in
the lot of backward classes, it did not easily equate them with any cluster of castes, nor did it
privilege a solely caste-based criterion to determine them. Backward classes could mean the poor, or
village-based artisans, or the unemployed, or those who are in remote regions, or those who are
educationally deficient, or those who suffer from food deprivation. In all such cases, the focus is on
actual people and not communities. As those answering to such descriptions could come from any
caste group, the founding figures of the Constitution, very purposively, used the term OBC strictly in
terms of classes and not castes. Contrast this with the way the Scheduled Castes were classified by
the Constitution. The job of determining which castes were untouchables proved tricky, so in all such
cases, only the caste criterion was the determining factor. Economic or educational concerns had no
role to play when it came to deciding on the listing of the Scheduled Castes. So when the
Constitution clearly states "classes" and not "castes", as in the term OBC, it is deliberate, and not an
oversight.
Choose the correct answers
Backward Classes could not be placed in the same category as Scheduled Castes because
A. of the lapse on part of the Constitution
B. a section of people had to be poor to be classified as Backward Classes
C. financial status was not a criteria for classification of Scheduled Castes
D. there is no clear criteria to identify backwardness
E. both of them do not meet the same economic criteria
Correct Answer: C and E
Explanation
The author brings out that people were not classified as Backward Classes on the basis of "a solely
caste-based criterion" and that they were classified thus if they were "poor, or village-based
artisans, or the unemployed"; whereas "the caste criterion was the determining factor" in the case
of the Schedules Castes and "Economic or educational concerns had no role to play". Also, it has
been clearly mentioned that this classification was "deliberate, and not an oversight" which implies
that A is clearly incorrect, but C and E are correct. B and D refer to aspects related to classification of
people as Backward Classes and they do not refer to why these people cannot be clubbed under

Schedules Castes as well. Therefore, B and D are also incorrect and C and E are the only correct
answers.
Question 3
The appearance of a new religion in the world, (1) ---------- a time of great change and (2) -------, is
not unlike the birth of a human child. Each time a (3) ---------- figure comes to a society greatly in
need of spiritual rebirth, his message stirs society to the core.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. signaling

A. calm

A. political

B. demanding

B. excitement

B. messianic

C. completing

C. upheaval

C. devotional

Correct Answer : Signaling, upheaval and messianic


Explanation:
The first blank here requires to be completed with the use of a word that can explain the link
between the emergence of 'a new religion' and 'a time of great change'. We can understand that the
two phenomenons are resultant to each other. A new religion brings about great changes after its
emergence. In this context, the option 'signaling' is the most appropriate answer.
The second blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can stand in equation with
the phrase 'a time of great change'. Among the options, 'calm' is inappropriate as a time of change is
always accompanied with disturbances and stirrings in the society. The option 'upheaval' is most
suitable as per this description; so we take it as the correct answer.
The third blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can describe a figure that
emerges in the society at such times. Since we are talking about religion and spirituality, the option
'political' is unsuitable to be used here. Among the other two options, the more appropriate to be
used here is 'messianic'.
Question 4
A stick of length 30cm is at a distance of 8 cm from the centre of a hemi-spherical urn.
Column A

Column B

Length of the longest stick that can be placed in the urn.

Diameter of the urn

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The longest stick that can be placed shall be equal to the diameter of the urn.
Trivially option C is correct.
Question 5
A team of 10 has to be selected for representing a school for a quiz competition. Alan and Smith
are sure to be chosen from the 20 students shortlisted. How many different teams can be formed?
Correct Answer: 43758
Explanation
Ten students have to be selected out of 20.
Two students are sure to be chosen.
Hence, 8 students have to be chosen from 18 remaining students.
The number of teams possible is given by C(18,8)
C(18,8) = 18!/[(18-8)!8!]
= 18!/(10!8!)
= 18*17*16*15*14*13*12*11*10!/10!*8*7*6*5*4*3*2
= 43758
Question 6
If the following system of equations represents lines that meet at a point, then which of the
following is the point?
ax+by=c and lx+my=n
Indicate the correct option.
A. ((bn-cm)/(am-bl), (cl-an)/(am-bl))
B. ((bn-cm), (cl-an))
C. ((bn-cm)/(am+bl), (cl-an)/(am+bl))
D. ((bn-cm)/(am-bl), (an-cl)/(am-bl))
E. ((cl-an)/(am-bl), (bn-cm)/(am-bl))
Correct Answer: A

Explanation
The solution is given by
x/(bn-cm) = y/(lc-an) = 1/(am-lb)
x=(bn-cm)/(am-lb), y=(lc-an)/(am-lb)
The point is given by
((bn-cm)/(am-bl), (cl-an)/(am-bl))
Option A is correct.
Question 7
David has to fill a water tank for the animals in his farm. He uses two pipes which can fill the tank
in 12 minutes and 15 minutes when used separately. However, there is a hole in the tank. When
he fills the tank with both the pipes at the same time, it takes him 40 minutes to complete his
work. Which of the following statements is true? Indicate all true statements.
A. The hole takes less than 12 minutes to empty the completely filled tank when the pipes are
not open.
B. When David mends the hole, he saves more than 10 minutes
C. When only the faster pipe is used it takes 40 minutes to fill the tank
D. When only the slower pipe is used, it cannot fill the tank
E. The fully filled tank can become empty in 8 minutes due to the hole
Correct Answers: B, D and E
Explanation
Work done by the faster tap in one minute = 1/12
Work done by the slower tap in one minute = 1/15
Let the work done by the hole in one minute be 1/x
1/12+1/15-1/x=1/40
1/x=1/12+1/15-1/40
1/x=1/8
The hole takes 8 minutes to empty the tank.
Option A is false and E is true.
When the hole is closed, work done in one minute = 1/12+1/15
= 9/(60) = 3/20
Time taken to fill the tank = 20/3=6.66
40-6.6>10
David will save more than 10 minutes.
Option B is true.
When only the faster pipe is used, work done in one minute = 1/12-1/8 = (2-3)/(2.2.2.3)
= -1/24

Since this is negative, the pipe cannot fill the tank due to the hole.
Option C is false and clearly option D is true.
Question 8
That circumstances grow out of thought, every man knows, who has for any length of time practised
self-control and self-purification, for he will have noticed that the alteration in his circumstances has
been in exact ratio with his altered mental condition. So true is this that when a man earnestly
applies himself to remedy the defects in his character, and makes swift and marked progress, he
passes rapidly through a succession of vicissitudes. The soul attracts that which it secretly harbors;
that which it loves, and also that which it fears; it reaches the height of its cherished aspirations.
Every thought-seed sown or allowed to fall into the mind produces its own, blossoming sooner or
later into act, and bearing its own fruitage of opportunity and circumstance. Good thoughts bear
good fruit, bad thoughts bad fruit.
Which sentence brings out that man undergoes various alterations when he attempts to improve
his disposition?
The correct answer is B. (So true is succession of vicissitudes.)
Explanation
The second sentence is the only sentence that explicitly discusses a man undergoing a succession of
alterations or vicissitudes as a result of attempting to change his character or disposition. Therefore,
out of all the given answer options, it is evident that B is the correct answer.
Question 9
As the cultures develop, there come stages when they show signs of degeneration and a ------------- is required.
A. Invigoration
B. Rejuvenation
C. Abortion
D. Destruction
E. Renascence
Correct Answer: A, B and E
Explanation
The sentence here requires the usage of a word that can explain the need of re-arousal of cultural
values after they start showing signs of degeneration with time passing. The first two options,
Invigoration and Rejuvenation convey this meaning completely, so they are the correct answer
options. The next two options, Abortion and Destruction are not capable of conveying the desired
meaning, so are the wrong answer options. The last option, Renascence is again a correct answer.

Question 1
One of the earliest clues to this aspect of Alexander's character is an image - thought to be probably
of Alexander-painted in fresco which depicts hunting scenes and it is natural to identify the central
figure as a young Alexander engaged, with his father, in what we know to have been one of
Alexander's favorite pastimes. Except that to call it a "pastime" may give a misleading impression,
since hunting in Macedonia was actually an important culturally coded marker of social and political
status. In Macedonia, you did not become fully a man until you had passed the key manhood test of
hunting and killing, without a net, one of the ferocious wild boar that roamed the heights of upper
Macedonia. Only then could you recline, as opposed to sit, when participating in the daily ritual of
the symposium. This was the regular evening drinking party, at which and through which the
Macedonian elite celebrated together and mutually confirmed their elevated social and political
status. Another kind of hunting, the killing of an enemy in battle, entitled a Macedonian to wear a
special kind of belt, as a visual reminder of his attainment. Alexander had passed both those tests
triumphantly by the age of 16, when his father thought him already sufficiently mature to act as
regent of Macedonia. In 336 Alexander became king not only of Macedonia, but also of most of
mainland Greece. He inherited the mantle of his late father, as leader of a Hellenic expedition of holy
revenge and liberation against the once mighty Persian Empire. During the 11 years of his almost
non-stop campaigning in Asia, periods of rest and recreation were infrequent as he strove to achieve
his ambitious aims, to the undoubted chagrin of his officers and troops; but one of his favorite
means of relaxation was hunting.
Choose the correct answer
According to the author, Alexander was the king of Macedonia
A. and his men had faith in him and they followed him with dedication
B. but he invoked the displeasure of his troops when he hunted instead of resting
C. but his army followed him with dissatisfaction and frustration
D. and he had the undoubted loyalty of his officers and troops
E. after he had proved his worth in the campaigning in Asia
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
The life of Alexander as a king has been discussed in the latter part of the passage. All the answer
options refer to his army and the troops under his command. His troops have been referred to only
once in the passage and that has been done in the context of his non-stop campaigning in Asia and it
has been emphasised that he led his army relentlessly in order to achieve his aim. His actions were
met with "undoubted chagrin". Out of all the given options, B and C are the closest to being the
correct answers. However, it has not been implied that his troops were dissatisfied because of his
inclination towards hunting and so C is the correct answer.
Question 2

While day-to-day tasks need to be redesigned to provide opportunities for deepening the
operational skills of employees, it is equally necessary to reshape the broader strategic and
administrative processes of a company so as to broaden its people's analytical and conceptual skills,
and to enhance their quality of thinking and judgment. Less tangible and concrete, these latter sets
of skills and capabilities are perhaps more crucial both for protecting people's employability and for
enabling them to take responsibility for the company's competitiveness. At the same time, widening
employees' access to these skills requires radical changes in a company's core management
processes-a far more daunting task than re-engineering day-to-day operations. In most companies,
strategic thinking and qualitative judgment are seen as the preserves of top management, and it is
only they who have the opportunity to develop and deploy these capabilities. To move up the
relevant information that typically resides at the operating levels, companies create elaborate
systems of planning, communication and control. Such a formal, systems driven management
process is often viewed as the essence of professional management, with the elaborateness of the
systems as the measure of the company's managerial sophistication.
Choose the correct answers
According to the author, the thinking and judgement capabilities of employees
A. can be improved by redesigning the daily routine tasks
B. are essential for preserving their employability
C. are more conceptual and abstract as compared to their operational skills
D. are independent of their parent company's competitiveness
E. are determined by the employers administrative policies
Correct Answer: B, C and E
Explanation
The author has referred to the thinking and judgement capabilities of employees of a company while
stating that "Less tangible and concrete, these latter sets of skills and capabilities are perhaps more
crucial both for protecting people's employability and for enabling them to take responsibility for the
company's competitiveness". This implies that B and E are correct, but D is incorrect. These skills are
being compared to the operational skills of the employees and they have been brought out as "less
tangible". Therefore, C is also correct. A is incorrect as this statement has been made in reference to
the operational skills. Therefore, B, C and E are the correct answers.
Question 3
From early morning they get out of bed complaining, (1) -----------, sad, depressed and miserable.
Then one thing (2) ----------- to another and for nothing. And they get angry ... it is very bad
because it will change your (3) ----------- for the whole day, it will set a pattern for the whole day.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. gloomy

A. depletes

A. appetite

B. cheerful

B. leads

B. health

C. satisfied

C. creates

C. temperament

Correct Answer : Gloomy, leads and temperament


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage needs to be completed with a word that can be in sync with the
following series of words: sad, depressed and miserable. Among the options given, the most suitable
one in this context is 'gloomy' as the other two convey the opposite meaning.
The second blank in the passage has to be filled with a word that can complete the chain of activities
denoted. The options, 'depletes' and 'creates' are unsuitable for this place. The only appropriate
answer therefore, is 'leads'; which satisfies the demands of the sentence with respect to grammar
and meaning both.
The last blank in the sentence needs to be completed after analyzing the details given in the whole
passage. The passage discusses the importance of being happy to the start of the day itself so that
the mood can be stretched through the entire day. The answer options 'appetite' and 'health' are
rejected after considering this aspect. The option 'temperament' is the suitable answer hence.
Question 4
$20000 is lent out in two parts at 8% and 15% simple interest respectively. The net interest in a
year is $2300.
Column A

Column B

First part

Second part

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Let the amount lent at 8% be $x and the amount lent at 15% be $(20000-x)
Simple interest, SI=PRT/100, where P, R and T are principal, rate and time respectively.
According to the conditions, we have
x*8*1/100+(20000-x)*15*1/100=2300
8x+300000-15x=230000
7x=70000
x=$10000
First part = $10000 and Second part = $20000-$10000=$10000
Option C is correct.
Question 5
A cuboid is sliced into two parts of equal dimensions. The dimensions of the cuboid are 2m, 3m
and 4m. What is the least possible surface area of the surfaces created where the cuboid is sliced?
Correct Answer: 28
Explanation
For a cuboid to be sliced into two parts of equal dimensions, there are two possibilities.
Either the cuboid is sliced along a parallel to any one face or it is sliced along the diagonal of any
face.
When the cuboid is sliced along a face.
Area = 2*3 = 6 sq.m.
Area = 3*4 = 12 sq.m.
Area = 4*2 = 8 sq.m.
The length of the diagonal of the side with dimensions 2m and 3m is given by
Sqrt(2^2+3^2) = sqrt(4+9)
= sqrt(13)
Area of the corresponding surface = sqrt(13)*4 sq.m.
The length of the diagonal of the side with dimensions 3m and 4m is given by
Sqrt(3^2+4^2) = sqrt(9+16)
= sqrt(25) = 5
Area of the corresponding surface = 5*2 = 10 sq.m.
The length of the diagonal of the side with dimensions 2m and 4m is given by
Sqrt(2^2+4^2) = sqrt(4+16)
= sqrt(20)
Area of the corresponding surface = sqrt(20)*3 sq.m.
The least possible surface area is 6 sq.m.
Question 6
Suzan tossed a coin. If a head appeared she would buy two new dresses and if a tail appeared she
would buy one new dress. How many outcomes are possible? Indicate the correct option.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 2^3
D. 4^2
E. 2*3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
When Suzan tossed the coin, either she would get a tail or a head.
If she got a head she would buy two new dresses and if she got a tail she would buy one new dress.
Her purchases depend on her tossing the coin. Only two outcomes are possible.
Option A is true.
Question 7
Which of the following equations have real roots? Indicate all the correct options.
[x^2=x*x]
A. 2x^2+x-1=0
B. 4x^2+3x+9=0
C. 6x+x^2+5=0
D. y^2+2y+1=0
E. 9z+3z^2+3=0
Correct Answers: A, D and E
Explanation
2x^2+x-1=0:
D=1^2-4*2*(-1)
= 1+8=9
D>0 and hence the roots are real.
4x^2+3x+9=0:
D=3^2-4*4*9
=9-144=-135<0
The roots are not real.
6x+x^2+5=0:
D=1^2-4*6*5

=1-120=-119<0
The roots are not real.
y^2+2y+1=0:
D=2^2-4*1*1
= 4-4=0
The roots are real.
9z+3z^2+3=0:
3z^2+9z+3=0
D=9^2-4*3*3
= 81-36=45>0
The roots are real.
Question 8
Nor does a pure-minded man fall suddenly into crime by stress of any mere external force; the
criminal thought had long been secretly fostered in the heart, and the hour of opportunity revealed
its gathered power. Circumstance does not make the man; it reveals him to himself. No such
conditions can exist as descending into vice and its attendant sufferings apart from vicious
inclinations, or ascending into virtue and its pure happiness without the continued cultivation of
virtuous aspirations. Man, therefore, is the lord and master of thought. He undoubtedly, is the
maker of himself and the shaper of and author of environment and he has not been chiseled by the
environment.
Which sentence does not reinforce the statement that the character of a man is inherent to his
nature and is not the result of fate?
The correct answer is D. (Man, of thought.)
Explanation
The statement in question refers to the fact that man does not behave in a particular manner due to
fate or circumstances; rather it is the basic nature or the character of the man that propels him to
take certain action and move in a particular direction. The first, second and the fifth sentences
clearly reinforce this statement and therefore, A, B and E are incorrect answer options. On
comparing C and D, it can be seen that D is the correct answer it does not directly imply that man is
not affected by circumstances at all and that he himself is responsible for creating his character and
for carrying out his actions.
Question 9
The women in rural areas of the country face a ------------ situation.
A. Exalted
B. Deplorable
C. Reprehensible

D. Tolerable
E. Commendable
Correct Answer: B and C
Explanation
To identify the correct answer options in this sentence, the candidates are required to use their
general knowledge and look for words that can explain the situation of the rural women in India. The
first option, Exalted is an incorrect option, as it conveys quite the opposite meaning that is
required. The second and the third options, Deplorable and Reprehensible are perfectly suited to
describe the required meaning, so are the correct answers. The last two options are again
unsatisfying explanations of the situation of rural women in India.

Question 1
Throughout his life Alexander was exceptionally preoccupied with his image, both literally and
metaphorically. One of his non-Greek proteges appreciated this very well and had himself buried
in a stone coffin, now in the Archaeological Museum, Istanbul, adorned with images showing
Alexander hunting either a human or animal prey. The strikingly well-preserved artifact is known as
the "Alexander's Sarcophagus", for the good reason that on one long side a figure unambiguously
meant to be Alexander is depicted on horseback, in vigorous and deadly combat against a Persian.
Alexander himself died at Babylon in June 323 BC, at the age of only 32. The circumstances of his
death are almost as unclear as those of his father, though it probably smacks too much of the
historical novel on the subject to suggest that Alexander was assassinated, possibly by poison.
Rather, he is most likely to have caught a deadly fever, probably malarial, after years of pushing
himself beyond reasonable limits. His passing was greeted very differently in different parts of his
vastly enlarged empire. The traditional enemies of Macedon in Greece were thrilled to bits, whereas
those Greeks and non-Greeks who had gladly worshipped him as a living God felt genuinely bereft.
Whatever is thought of his lifetime achievements, there is no questioning the impact of his
posthumous fame.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following best describes the person who is buried in the coffin known as the
"Alexander Sarcophagus"?
A. He was not Greek but he still was in Alexander's army
B. He was exceptionally intelligent
C. His coffin has images of Alexander engraved on it
D. He understood Alexander's penchant for hunting

E. He was under the patronage of Alexander


Correct Answer: E
Explanation
The question is in respect of the person and not his coffin and so C is clearly incorrect. There is no
definite indication of the fact that he was in the army and so A is also incorrect. It has been clearly
stated that he was one of Alexander's non-Greek proteges. This means that he was under
Alexander's patronage. Therefore, on comparing B, D and E, it can be seen that E is the best
description of this person based on the information provided in the passage and therefore, E is the
correct answer.
Question 2
There are two consequences of such an abstract management process. First, it inevitably, reduces
the quality of information that is available to the top management to work on. To collect and
transmit the vast quantities of data needed for strategic thinking and analysis at the top, systems
must simplify. Standard formats, generalized categories and consolidated presentation all help to
move massive amounts of data through the organization, but do so at the cost of homogenizing
away from the data all the information that is insightful or important. Beyond the problem of
excessive simplification, there is also the problem of deliberate distortion. The more top
management uses data obtained through such systems to make choices and to exercise control, the
more the people providing the information learn to be economical with the truth. Second, the
systems also act as a shield, preventing people below from participating in strategy debates; and
thereby, insulating them from the learning potential of such debates. Because of their position and
their accumulated experiences, top managers develop a broader perspective and sharper intuition,
which are, perhaps, the greatest gifts they can give to those lower down in the organization.
However, it is only through continuous, open and face-to-face interactions that these capabilities
can be passed on. To create opportunities for such direct interactions, companies need to
fundamentally reshape their management processes, cutting out much of the elaborate
infrastructure of information, planning and control systems they have built so that information can
flow through direct relationships, strategy can be framed through shared debate, and
implementation can be guided through shared debate, personal mentoring and coaching.
Choose the correct answers
Which of the following is true in respect of handling information in the abstract management
process being referred to in the first sentence of the passage?
A. Selective information is transmitted to the top management
B. The top management has access to information of a quality lower than that available at the
lower levels
C. Information that reaches the top management is used by them for decision making
D. System for controlling flow of information needs to be redesigned

E. Information pertaining to strategy planning and discussions is shared at all levels


Correct Answers: A, B, C and D
Explanation
The abstract management process being referred to in the first sentence of the passage has two
consequences which have been outlined clearly in the passage. All the options, A, B, C and D have
been clearly elucidated during the course of discussions pertaining to these consequences. It has
been specified that there is a "shield, preventing people below from participating in strategy
debates" which implies that E is incorrect. Therefore, A, B, C and D are the correct answers.
Question 3
Almost all historical forms of (1) -------- and thought can claim the (2) --------- of experience and so
the authority of God. The world would be a much poorer thing if one creed (3) --------- the rest.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. character

A. sanction

A. promotes

B. life

B. trail

B. rebukes

C. minds

C. rejection

C. absorbs

Correct Answer : Life, sanction and absorbs


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can stand in an equation with
the use of 'thought' later in the sentence. The option 'character' is unsuitable as per this criterion
and among the other two options, 'life' and 'minds', 'life' is a better answer to be considered. This is
because there can be 'historical forms of life' but no 'historical forms of minds'.
The second blank in the sentence has to be filled with a word that can complement the use of the
word 'experience' in it. Among the listed answer options, 'sanction' seems the most appropriate one.
While 'trail' doesn't reveal a proper meaning when used in it, the option 'rejection' is not accepted
since it delivers an opposing meaning for the sentence.
The last blank in the passage needs to be completed with a word that can explain the action on part
of one creed in the society due to which the world would transform into a poorer thing. The usage of
'promotes' would turn the meaning of the sentence upside down, so we cannot consider it as the
answer. The other option, 'rebukes' is also rejected as the word is inappropriate to be used for
creeds as such. The only suitable option is therefore, 'absorbs', which refers to creeds taking over
each other.

Question 4
Column A

Column B

The number of consecutive multiples of both 2


and 3 that lie between 200 and 350

The number of consecutive multiples of both 2


and 3 that lie between 350 and 500

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The numbers will be multiples of 6 since they are multiples of both 2 and 3.
The numbers lie between 200 and 350 and form an A.P. with common difference 6.
The first term of the A.P. will be 204 and the last term will be 348.
The nth term of an AP with first term 'a' and common difference 'd' is given by
Tn=a+(n-1)d
348 = 204 +(n-1)6
144 = (n-1)6
n = 24+1=25
25 such numbers exist.
The numbers will be multiples of 6 since they are multiples of both 2 and 3.
The numbers lie between 350 and 500 and form an A.P. with common difference 6.
The first term of the A.P. will be 354 and the last term will be 498.
The nth term of an AP with first term 'a' and common difference 'd' is given by
Tn=a+(n-1)d
498 = 354 +(n-1)6
144 = (n-1)6
n = 24+1=25
25 such numbers exist.
Option C is correct.
Question 5
Two pickpockets, Kevin and Melvin, pick each other's pockets. Kevin picks Melvin's pocket first
and steals $30. The total amount with Kevin becomes twice as much as is left with Melvin. Then

Melvin picks Kevin's pockets. He steals $40 and the amount with him becomes thrice as much as is
left with Kevin. How many dollars did Kevin initially have?
Correct Answer: 34
Explanation
Let the initial amounts with Kevin and Melvin be $x and $y respectively.
Acording to the conditions,
2(y - 30) = x + 30 and 3(x + 30 - 40) = y - 30 + 40
2y-60 = x + 30 and 3(x - 10) = y +10
x - 2y = -90 and 3x -y = 40
Replace x = 2y-90 in the second equation
3(2y-90) - y = 90
6y - 270 - y = 90
5y = 90 + 270 = 360
y = 62
x = 2*62 - 90
= 124 - 90 = 34
Kevin had $34 initially
Question 6
There are 5 suitable players for chess, 5 for hockey and 5 for football. One player is required for
each, the chess team, the hockey team and the football team. In how many ways can the Sports
Club Secretary make the choice? Indicate the correct option.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 15
D. 125
E. 27
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
The chess player can be chosen in 5 ways, the hockey player in 5 ways and the football player in 5
ways.
Total ways of choosing the team = 5*5*5=125
Option D is correct.
Question 7
Which of the following statements is true about 1/12, 1/8, 1/6? Indicate all correct options.

A. The terms are in AP


B. The terms are in GP
C. The common difference is greater than 1
D. The common ratio is 3/2
E. The common difference is less than 1
Correct Answer: A and E
Explanation
1/8-1/12 = (12-8)/(12*8)
= 4/(12*8)
= 1/24
1/6-1/8 = (8-6)/(6*8)
=2/48=1/24
Hence, the terms are in AP
The common difference is less than 1
Options A and E are true.
Question 8
Mr. Atal Bihari Vajpayee was to go down in history as the first non-Congress Prime Minister to win a
third successive term. Now, even in defeat, he will go down in history as arguably Indias best and
indisputably the most visionary Prime Minister. Yes, Nehru and Indira Gandhi are all-time greats. But
they had circumstances on their side - the country at the time either did not know or was not given
to see any option and they had a policy that the Congress straddled. Indira traced her lineage to
Nehru, the maker of post-Independence India.
Which sentence corroborates the statement that Indira had the advantage of a political legacy?
The correct answer is E. (Indira traced her India)
Explanation
A political legacy would imply a political heritage or inheritance. The third and the fourth sentences
discuss Nehru and Indira and it is brought out that they were all time greats in the Indian political
scenario owing to the circumstances during which they were political leaders. The fifth sentence of
the passage implies that one of the circumstances was that Indira traced her lineage to Nehru who
was the maker of post-Independence India and therefore, E is the correct answer.
Question 9
The basis of science is an infinite ------------ to unravel the mysteries of the world.
A. Yearning
B. Coveting

C. Longing
D. Languishing
E. Hankering
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D and E
Explanation
The above presented sentence has to be completed using a word that can best describe the basis of
science. All the given options complete the meaning of the sentence when they are used in the
empty blank and also are grammatically correct in their usage at the place. Thus, all the given
options, Yearning, Coveting, Longing, Languishing and Hankering are appropriate answers to
this question.

Question 1
Confronted by the rapid growth of the Hindu Right in recent years, the Congress appears to have
realized the importance of building a broad coalition of secular parties to take on the Bharatiya
Janata Party (BJP), which heads the ruling multi-party National Democratic Alliance. The Shimla
conclave of the party, following the course suggested by the Srinagar conclave, called for a united
fight against the BJP. This serves as a major corrective to the 1998 Pachmarhi resolution of the party
that associated coalition politics with instability, and consequently pushed the smaller, regional
parties into the fold of the BJP. The "yes-to-coalition" line, on its articulation in Srinagar more than a
month ago, had received a broadly positive response from all the potential allies. It is true that the
Congress is the only party capable of challenging the BJP at the all-India level. At this juncture, its
claim to be the natural leader of a "secular coalition" is understandable, even if there have been
many problems over the years with the party's real commitment to secular values. What the
Congress cannot afford to do is to continue its overbearing and patronizing attitude to potential
allies and others willing to support it conditionally in order to keep the BJP out.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following is the strongest contender for the reason behind the Congress's inclination
for a secular coalition?
A. The Shimla conclave
B. The Srinagar conclave
C. A positive response from its political allies
D. The rapid growth of the Hindu Right
E. It is the only party that can challenge the BJP

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
The passage starts on the note that the Congress has understood the importance of a secular
coalition in light of the rapid growth of Hindu Rights in recent years. This event has prompted the
Congress to join its allies in forming a secular coalition which can confront the BJP. The Shimla and
Srinagar conclaves of the party were the venues where these discussions were held. Keeping the
above in mind while carrying out a careful study of the given options, it emerges that D is the
strongest contender for the reason behind Congress's inclination for a secular coalition as this is the
fact which prompted the Congress to head in this direction. Therefore, D is the correct answer.
Question 2
Up to the age of ten or eleven, a child's ego is separable from his thinking. He enjoys thinking. He
enjoys playing with ideas. He is wrong so often that his security is not dependent on his being right.
After the age of eleven, thinking becomes very much a part of the ego and self-image. A person is as
good as his thinking. His status at school and his social standing depend on his thinking. The value
system imposed in schools makes pupils put a high value on cleverness. It is difficult to say how
much of this ego involved with thinking is the result of competitive school pressure and how much of
it is due to adolescent insecurity. The result is the same. It becomes impossible to look objectively at
thinking as a skill and it becomes impossible for a pupil to look at this thinking and say, "My thinking
wasn't very good on that, was it?" Instead, he has to defend his thinking by insisting that he is right
or refusing to think about a subject in which he is going to be at a "disadvantage". One of the main
purposes of teaching thinking is to try to break this deadlock and get pupils to look objectively at
their thinking. Unfortunately the more able or more clever the pupil, the more dependent does his
ego become on his cleverness or thinking ability.
Choose the correct answers
Which of the following has been provided to refute the fact that a child's ego and his thinking are
distinct?
A. Life at the age of ten
B. Life of a child when he enjoys playing with ideas
C. Life after the age of eleven
D. Life of a child who is not clever
E. Life in school and a child's social standing
Correct Answer: C and E
Explanation
The correct answers would be the ones that refer to facts provided as evidence that a child's ego and
his thinking are not distinct and that they are involved. The passage starts on the note that a child's
ego and his thinking are inseparable up to the age of ten or eleven and they start to blend together

after a child crosses the age of eleven. This implies that A is incorrect whereas C is a correct answer
option. B has been used to describe the life of a child before he has crossed the age of eleven and so
B is also incorrect. D is factually incorrect as it has neither been brought out nor implied anywhere in
the passage. E has clearly been brought out as an example of the stage where a child's ego and
thinking get involved and so it is correct. Therefore C and E are the only correct answers.
Question 3
If you really want to help then commit yourselves to (1) ------------ how to feed your hungry, clothe
your naked, (2) ------------ your abused, and shelter your poor. And just as importantly, make your
own everyday life a shining (3) --------- of good humor.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. figure out

A. derive

A. valley

B. manipulate

B. protect

B. metal

C. assert

C. decorate

C. example

Correct Answer : Figure out, protect and example


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with the use of a word with which the two parts
of the sentence can be connected. The option 'manipulate' is inadequate to be used with the list of
activities mentioned in the later part of the sentence. The other option, 'assert' is again wrong as it is
always used for arguments. The only suitable option is therefore, 'figure out'.
The second blank has to be completed with a word that can prove to be a suitable verb for the noun
'abused'. The options, 'derive' and 'decorate' do not convey the meaning correctly so we reject
them. The most suitable option given to us here is 'protect' as the meanings of both are perfectly in
sync with each other.
The last blank in the passage should be completed with a word that can convey the complete sense
of the usage of 'shining' and 'good humor' in the sentence. The options, 'valley' and 'metal' are
inadequate to be used here as they do not complement these parts of the sentence properly. The
option which satisfies the requirements of these is 'example' which is thus, the correct answer.
Question 4
The difference between the areas of two concentric circles is 500*pi. The sum of the radii of the
circles is equal to 50 cm.

Column A

Column B

Difference between the two radii

Radius of the smaller circle

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Let R and r be the two radii such that R>r
Area of a circle = pi*r^2, where r is the radius
pi*R^2-pi*r^2=500*pi
R^2-r^2=500
and R+r=50 cm
(R^2-r^2) = (R+r)(R-r) = 500
(50)(R-r)=500
R-r=500/50 = 10 cm
The difference between the radii is 10 cm.
R+r=50 and R-r=10
Subtracting one relation from the other, we get
R+r-R+r=50-10=40
2r=40
r=20
Radius of the smaller circle = 20cm
Option B is correct.
[pi=22/7]
[r^2=r*r]
Question 5
Solve for x; x + 1/x = 26/5 if x>3
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation
x+1/x = (25+1)/5
= 5 + 1/5

Comparing the two sides, we get x = 5, 1/5


Since x>3, x = 5
Question 6
In how many ways can six differently coloured flags be hoisted on 8 buildings, with at most one
flag on each building? Indicate the correct option.
A. 20160
B. 56
C. 48
D. 36
E. 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Since we have only six flags and 8 buildings, we have to choose 6 buildings out of 8.
This can be done in P(8,6) ways.
P(8,6) = 8!/(8-6)!
= 8!/2!=8*7*6*5*4*3
= 20160
Option A is true.
Question 7
O is the mid-point and the point of intersection of two lines AB and CD. Which of the following is
true? Indicate all correct options.
A. AC = BD
B. AO = OD
C. AC is parallel to BD
D. Triangle AOC is congruent to triangle BOD
E. Triangle ACO is congruent to triangle BDO
Correct Answers: A, C, D and E
Explanation
According to the given conditions, we have
AO = BO and CO = DO
Vertically opposite angles are equal and hence angle AOC is equal to angle BOD.
By SAS congruence condition, we have

Triangle AOC congruent to triangle BOD and


triangle ACO congruent to triangle BDO.
Following the congruence, we conclude that
AC=BD and AO is not equal to OD.
Hence, options A, D and E are true and B is false.
Following the congruence, we conclude that
angle CAO is equal to angle DBO.
Since they form a pair of alternate interior angles, we conclude that AC is parallel to BD.
Option C is true.
Question 8
As Indias tallest leader, he could have imposed the BJPs will on allies. But he deified the federal
consensus at the political level: Coalition Dharma. This is the moment to pay tribute to a giant, to his
sagacity, courage, firm commitment to democracy and unquestioned nationalism. He alone had the
guts to ride a tiger, to pledge progress to every section of the people. And he alone is credited with
the heightened popular aspirations that perhaps made the tiger run away from him.
Which sentence suggests that Mr. Vajpayee was not able to achieve the aims he had set out for
himself?
The correct answer is E. (And he alone him)
Explanation
The author has used riding a tiger to emphasise upon the difficult task that Mr. Vajpayee had
undertaken upon himself. The fifth sentence of the passage brings out that the tiger had run away
from him. In other words, Mr. Vajpayee was no longer able to ride the tiger which suggests that he
was not able to achieve the aims that he had set for himself. Therefore, E is the correct answer.
Question 9
Insolvency is a situation where the ---------- of a business firm are exceeded by its assets.
A. Liabilities
B. Possessions
C. Resources
D. Equities
E. Contingencies
Correct Answer: A and E
Explanation

A close examination of the sentence here tells us that the blank in this sentence has to be filed using
the words that are opposite in their meaning to the word assets. The words, Possessions,
Resources and Equities are similar to it in their meaning, so are the wrong answers. And the
words, Liabilities and Contingencies are thus, the correct answers to the question.

Question 1
Confronted by the rapid growth of the Hindu Right in recent years, the Congress appears to have
realized the importance of building a broad coalition of secular parties to take on the Bharatiya
Janata Party (BJP), which heads the ruling multi-party National Democratic Alliance. The Shimla
conclave of the party, following the course suggested by the Srinagar conclave, called for a united
fight against the BJP. This serves as a major corrective to the 1998 Pachmarhi resolution of the party
that associated coalition politics with instability, and consequently pushed the smaller, regional
parties into the fold of the BJP. The "yes-to-coalition" line, on its articulation in Srinagar more than a
month ago, had received a broadly positive response from all the potential allies. It is true that the
Congress is the only party capable of challenging the BJP at the all-India level. At this juncture, its
claim to be the natural leader of a "secular coalition" is understandable, even if there have been
many problems over the years with the party's real commitment to secular values. What the
Congress cannot afford to do is to continue its overbearing and patronizing attitude to potential
allies and others willing to support it conditionally in order to keep the BJP out.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following is the strongest contender for the reason behind the Congress's inclination
for a secular coalition?
A. The Shimla conclave
B. The Srinagar conclave
C. A positive response from its political allies
D. The rapid growth of the Hindu Right
E. It is the only party that can challenge the BJP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
The passage starts on the note that the Congress has understood the importance of a secular
coalition in light of the rapid growth of Hindu Rights in recent years. This event has prompted the
Congress to join its allies in forming a secular coalition which can confront the BJP. The Shimla and
Srinagar conclaves of the party were the venues where these discussions were held. Keeping the
above in mind while carrying out a careful study of the given options, it emerges that D is the

strongest contender for the reason behind Congress's inclination for a secular coalition as this is the
fact which prompted the Congress to head in this direction. Therefore, D is the correct answer.
Question 2
Up to the age of ten or eleven, a child's ego is separable from his thinking. He enjoys thinking. He
enjoys playing with ideas. He is wrong so often that his security is not dependent on his being right.
After the age of eleven, thinking becomes very much a part of the ego and self-image. A person is as
good as his thinking. His status at school and his social standing depend on his thinking. The value
system imposed in schools makes pupils put a high value on cleverness. It is difficult to say how
much of this ego involved with thinking is the result of competitive school pressure and how much of
it is due to adolescent insecurity. The result is the same. It becomes impossible to look objectively at
thinking as a skill and it becomes impossible for a pupil to look at this thinking and say, "My thinking
wasn't very good on that, was it?" Instead, he has to defend his thinking by insisting that he is right
or refusing to think about a subject in which he is going to be at a "disadvantage". One of the main
purposes of teaching thinking is to try to break this deadlock and get pupils to look objectively at
their thinking. Unfortunately the more able or more clever the pupil, the more dependent does his
ego become on his cleverness or thinking ability.
Choose the correct answers
Which of the following has been provided to refute the fact that a child's ego and his thinking are
distinct?
A. Life at the age of ten
B. Life of a child when he enjoys playing with ideas
C. Life after the age of eleven
D. Life of a child who is not clever
E. Life in school and a child's social standing
Correct Answer: C and E
Explanation
The correct answers would be the ones that refer to facts provided as evidence that a child's ego and
his thinking are not distinct and that they are involved. The passage starts on the note that a child's
ego and his thinking are inseparable up to the age of ten or eleven and they start to blend together
after a child crosses the age of eleven. This implies that A is incorrect whereas C is a correct answer
option. B has been used to describe the life of a child before he has crossed the age of eleven and so
B is also incorrect. D is factually incorrect as it has neither been brought out nor implied anywhere in
the passage. E has clearly been brought out as an example of the stage where a child's ego and
thinking get involved and so it is correct. Therefore C and E are the only correct answers.
Question 3

If you really want to help then commit yourselves to (1) ------------ how to feed your hungry, clothe
your naked, (2) ------------ your abused, and shelter your poor. And just as importantly, make your
own everyday life a shining (3) --------- of good humor.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. figure out

A. derive

A. valley

B. manipulate

B. protect

B. metal

C. assert

C. decorate

C. example

Correct Answer : Figure out, protect and example


Explanation:
The first blank in the passage has to be completed with the use of a word with which the two parts
of the sentence can be connected. The option 'manipulate' is inadequate to be used with the list of
activities mentioned in the later part of the sentence. The other option, 'assert' is again wrong as it is
always used for arguments. The only suitable option is therefore, 'figure out'.
The second blank has to be completed with a word that can prove to be a suitable verb for the noun
'abused'. The options, 'derive' and 'decorate' do not convey the meaning correctly so we reject
them. The most suitable option given to us here is 'protect' as the meanings of both are perfectly in
sync with each other.
The last blank in the passage should be completed with a word that can convey the complete sense
of the usage of 'shining' and 'good humor' in the sentence. The options, 'valley' and 'metal' are
inadequate to be used here as they do not complement these parts of the sentence properly. The
option which satisfies the requirements of these is 'example' which is thus, the correct answer.
Question 4
The difference between the areas of two concentric circles is 500*pi. The sum of the radii of the
circles is equal to 50 cm.
Column A

Column B

Difference between the two radii

Radius of the smaller circle

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater

C. The quantities are equal


D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Let R and r be the two radii such that R>r
Area of a circle = pi*r^2, where r is the radius
pi*R^2-pi*r^2=500*pi
R^2-r^2=500
and R+r=50 cm
(R^2-r^2) = (R+r)(R-r) = 500
(50)(R-r)=500
R-r=500/50 = 10 cm
The difference between the radii is 10 cm.
R+r=50 and R-r=10
Subtracting one relation from the other, we get
R+r-R+r=50-10=40
2r=40
r=20
Radius of the smaller circle = 20cm
Option B is correct.
[pi=22/7]
[r^2=r*r]
Question 5
Solve for x; x + 1/x = 26/5 if x>3
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation
x+1/x = (25+1)/5
= 5 + 1/5
Comparing the two sides, we get x = 5, 1/5
Since x>3, x = 5
Question 6
In how many ways can six differently coloured flags be hoisted on 8 buildings, with at most one
flag on each building? Indicate the correct option.
A. 20160

B. 56
C. 48
D. 36
E. 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Since we have only six flags and 8 buildings, we have to choose 6 buildings out of 8.
This can be done in P(8,6) ways.
P(8,6) = 8!/(8-6)!
= 8!/2!=8*7*6*5*4*3
= 20160
Option A is true.
Question 7
O is the mid-point and the point of intersection of two lines AB and CD. Which of the following is
true? Indicate all correct options.
A. AC = BD
B. AO = OD
C. AC is parallel to BD
D. Triangle AOC is congruent to triangle BOD
E. Triangle ACO is congruent to triangle BDO
Correct Answers: A, C, D and E
Explanation
According to the given conditions, we have
AO = BO and CO = DO
Vertically opposite angles are equal and hence angle AOC is equal to angle BOD.
By SAS congruence condition, we have
Triangle AOC congruent to triangle BOD and
triangle ACO congruent to triangle BDO.
Following the congruence, we conclude that
AC=BD and AO is not equal to OD.
Hence, options A, D and E are true and B is false.
Following the congruence, we conclude that

angle CAO is equal to angle DBO.


Since they form a pair of alternate interior angles, we conclude that AC is parallel to BD.
Option C is true.
Question 8
As Indias tallest leader, he could have imposed the BJPs will on allies. But he deified the federal
consensus at the political level: Coalition Dharma. This is the moment to pay tribute to a giant, to his
sagacity, courage, firm commitment to democracy and unquestioned nationalism. He alone had the
guts to ride a tiger, to pledge progress to every section of the people. And he alone is credited with
the heightened popular aspirations that perhaps made the tiger run away from him.
Which sentence suggests that Mr. Vajpayee was not able to achieve the aims he had set out for
himself?
The correct answer is E. (And he alone him)
Explanation
The author has used riding a tiger to emphasise upon the difficult task that Mr. Vajpayee had
undertaken upon himself. The fifth sentence of the passage brings out that the tiger had run away
from him. In other words, Mr. Vajpayee was no longer able to ride the tiger which suggests that he
was not able to achieve the aims that he had set for himself. Therefore, E is the correct answer.
Question 9
Insolvency is a situation where the ---------- of a business firm are exceeded by its assets.
A. Liabilities
B. Possessions
C. Resources
D. Equities
E. Contingencies
Correct Answer: A and E
Explanation
A close examination of the sentence here tells us that the blank in this sentence has to be filed using
the words that are opposite in their meaning to the word assets. The words, Possessions,
Resources and Equities are similar to it in their meaning, so are the wrong answers. And the
words, Liabilities and Contingencies are thus, the correct answers to the question.

Question 1
Evidently, the party wanted to make it clear that such a coalition would have to be headed by the
Congress under the leadership of Sonia Gandhi. This was necessary for two reasons. First, many of
the potential allies, such as the SP and the RJD, had built their support base on an anti-Congress
plank. These parties now see the Congress as an ally, largely because it is weak in their areas of
influence (Uttar Pradesh and Bihar) and the BJP is the main rival. Secondly, the very same parties
that can be counted as allies at the moment had at one point of time made an issue of the foreign
origin of Ms. Gandhi. Naturally, the Congress does not want a 1996-type situation where it would
have to support from outside a "third front" merely to keep the BJP out of power. Moreover, it
intends to send an unambiguous message to parties such as the Nationalist Congress Party, which,
despite being an alliance partner in Maharashtra, is opposed to Ms. Gandhi becoming the Prime
Ministerial candidate of the secular coalition.
Choose the correct answer
The author suggests that the relation between the Congress and the BJP can be best described as
that of
A. allies
B. coalition partners
C. adversaries
D. political parties
E. accomplices
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
It has been suggested that the political parties like the SP and RJD see the Congress as an ally
because BJP is the main rival. This means that the Congress and the BJP are rivals. Therefore, options
A, B and E are clearly incorrect. D merely refers to the identity of Congress and BJP as political
parties. In view of the above, it is evident that C is the correct answer.
Question 2
In a survey carried out with schoolchildren 42% of the boys and 52% of the girls valued being clever
above anything else. For the boys, the next choice was being rich (far behind with 22%) and for the
girls the next choice was being good-looking (chosen by 23%). While others may be prettier or may
excel at sports, the clever girl treasures her cleverness and cannot bear to be wrong. Since the clever
pupils are the ones who get into the university and thereafter into positions of influence, this effect
is an important one, The self-image continues to include the need to be right all the time and it
becomes almost impossible to develop objectivity about thinking. The ego problem is seen to arise
with the most able pupils when they are doing group work during a thinking lesson. They complain
that they do not like working in groups because the individual's ideas are lost in the general group

output and they cannot show "how good my idea was". The need to shine and to preserve status is
important. The need to be right all the time and the fear of being wrong also distort thinking in favor
of the ego. But more important than both these is the absolute refusal to accept that thinking may
be limited.
Choose the correct answers
According to the survey carried out, girls who place more importance on being sharp and
intelligent
A. bias their thinking to satisfy their ego
B. do not give the same importance to sports
C. do not like being pointed out for their mistakes
D. do so because of their inflated egos
E. are not comfortable participating in group discussions
Correct Answer: A, C and E
Explanation
The passage brings out that girls who are clever have the fear of being wrong and this distorts their
thinking in favour of their ego. This implies that both A and C are correct. However, D is incorrect
because it refers to the result of placing importance on being clever and not the other way round. B
is clearly incorrect as this conclusion cannot be drawn solely based on the contents of the given
passage. The discussion on the attitude of clever girls while participating in group work during
thinking makes it amply clear that E is correct. Therefore, the correct answers are A, C and E.
Question 3
You know what I'm talking about: love and (1) ---------- everyone. Be kind, even when (2) ---------- is
scary or confusing, take courage and be of good (3) ----------, for I am always with you.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. respect

A. lesson

A. conduct

B. ignore

B. thought

B. cheer

C. denounce

C. life

C. value

Correct Answer : Respect, life and cheer


Explanation:

The first blank here has to be completed with a word that can mean just as 'love' or similar to it. The
options, 'ignore' and 'denounce' are rejected as they do not stand up to this criterion. The only
relevant option is thus, 'respect'.
The second blank has to be filled with a word that can complete the meaning of the sentence
properly. The option 'lessons' is not properly suited to convey the meaning of the passage as there
are references to notions like courage, kindness, love and respect in it. Among the other options,
'thought and 'life', 'life' is the more suitable option due to which we accept it as the correct answer.
The last blank in the passage should be completed with a word that can maintain the tone of the
sentence. The sentence directs itself towards a philosophical meaning, under which, we cannot
accept 'value' as a relevant option. The other option 'conduct' also doesn't maintain the tone of the
sentence properly. The only suitable option here is thus; 'cheer' which refers to being happy hearted
and relaxed so as to put faith in the existence of a supreme being.
Question 4
In a school function, the girls have to raise one hand and the boys have to raise both their hands
holding colored pieces of cloth in each. The boys hold three pieces, one green and two red and the
girls hold one green piece each.The number of green cloth pieces is 120 and the number of red
cloth pieces is 40.
Column A

Column B

Half the number of girls among the group

Twice the number of boys in the group

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the number of boys be x and the number of girls be y.
According to the conditions, we have
x+y = 120 ...(1)
2x=40 ...(2)
x = 40/2=20
y = 120 - x
= 120 - 20 = 100
Number of girls = 100
Number of boys = 20

Half the number of girls = 100/2=50


Twice the number of boys = 20*2=40
Option A is correct.
Question 5
The sum of the areas of two squares is 164 sq.units. The side of one square is 2 units more than
the side of the other. Find the area of the smaller square in square units.
Correct Answer: 64
Explanation
Let x be the side of the smaller square.
The side of the larger square will be (x+2)
Sum of areas = x^2+(x+2)^2
= x^2+x^2+4x+4
= 2x^2 +4x+4
This sum is equal to 164
2x^2+4x+4=164
2x^2+4x-160=0
x^2+2x-80=0
x^2+10x-8x-80=0
x(x+10)-8(x+10)=0
(x-8)(x+10)=0
x=8, since x cannot be negative
Area of the smaller square = 8*8 = 64 sq units
[x^2=x*x]
Question 6
In how many ways can Peter choose 5 subjects out of 7 if one language subject is compulsory for
everyone? Indicate the correct option.
A. 5
B. 35
C. 15
D. 24
E. 30
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Peter has to choose 5-1=4 subjects out of 7-1=6
Number of possible options = C(6,4)

= 6!/[(6-4)!4!]
= 6!/(2!4!)
= 6*5/2=15
Option C is true.
Question 7
The sum of the length, breadth and depth of a cuboid is 19 cm and the length of its diagonal is 13
cm. Which of the following statements is true? Indicate all true statements
A. The surface area of the cuboid cannot be calculated
B. The surface area of the cuboid can be calculated
C. The volume of the cuboid cannot be calculated
D. The volume of the cuboid can be calculated
E. The dimensions of the cuboid can be 3cm by 4cm by 12cm
Correct Answer: B, C and E
Explanation
Let the length, breadth and depth of the cuboid be l, b and h.
We know that l+b+h=19 and Sqrt(l^2+b^2+h^2)=13
or l^2+b^2+h^2=13^2=169
We know that (l+b+h)^2=l^2+b^2+h^2+2(lb+bh+hl)
19^2=169+2(lb+bh+hl)
and 2(lb+bh+hl) is the surface area
Hence, we can calculate the surface area.
Option A is false and B is true.
The volume of the cuboid cannot be calculated.
Option C is true and D is false.
3+4+12=19cm
3^2+4^2+12^2=9+16+144=169=13^2
Option E is true.
[x^2=x*x]
Question 8
Yet, in the little time he had, he demonstrated what top class performance can be, and on every
front: Political, social, economic, and international. Mr. Vajpayee will forever be saluted for his
vision, one that his vanquishers cannot match even in their hour of triumph. Accomplishing so much
and with such consummate ease, he will be one tough act to follow. He must know that, as he takes

his bow, it is to a standing ovation. For, Mr. Vajpayee did not need electoral victory to serve as the
measure of his worth.
Which sentence implies that Mr. Vajpayee had lost in the elections?
The correct answer is B. (Mr. Vajpayee will triumph)
Explanation
The first sentence makes a fleeting reference to the fact that he had less time for demonstrating his
calibre. The second sentence refers to his vanquishers who have triumphed. The third sentence
mentions that it will be difficult to follow him. The fourth sentence clearly brings out that he is taking
his bow, but it is not indicated whether this bow is being taken after a victory or a defeat. The fifth
sentence does not clearly emphasise that he has lost the elections. All the sentences indirectly refer
to the fact that he is not in power, but on comparing them, it can be seen that the second sentence
is the strongest proof of the fact that he has lost in the elections as his defeaters have triumphed.
Therefore, B is the correct answer.
Question 9
To satisfy the passionate demand for ----------------, one has to learn communicating with the soul
itself.
A. Consummation
B. Accomplishment
C. Culmination
D. Fallibility
E. Perfection
Correct Answer: A, B, C and E
Explanation
The blank in this sentence has to be filled using words that can explain the human desire for
fulfillment (as is hinted at by the latter half of the sentence). All the given options except the fourth
one, Fallibility stand up to this explanation and fill the blank properly, thus, there are four correct
answer options for it, namely; Consummation, Accomplishment, Culmination and Perfection.

Question: 1
Passage

One difficulty for the Congress is the replication of the Kerala coalition model at the national level. In
States such as Maharashtra, Bihar and Jammu and Kashmir, the party was able to share power only
through a post-poll arrangement. The allies in these States are also rivals at one level. The Congress
will have to settle for a junior role in several States before it can build an effective national-level
alliance. Not surprisingly, the BJP, which made coalition politics the vehicle of its movement towards
power at the Centre, senses some kind of threat in the newly exhibited willingness of the Congress
to accommodate the smaller regional parties in a broad secular alliance. There is no question of
parties such as the Telugu Desam and the Biju Janata Dal, which have the Congress as the principal
rival in Andhra Pradesh and Orissa, becoming alliance partners of the Congress, but this cannot be
said of several other current allies of the BJP - especially if they feel the electoral wind is blowing in
favor of the Congress. By shedding its inhibitions about a coalition arrangement, which effectively
prevented the emergence of a non-BJP government alternative in 1999, the Congress can expect to
draw support from various political quarters in a new bid to unseat the BJP.
Choose the correct answer
The facts provided in the passage conclusively indicate that the BJP
A. is an independent political party and has never been part of an alliance
B. has allies who could join the Congress alliance depending upon the situation
C. is not intimidated by the smaller parties being taken into the Congresss folds
D. was never in power at the centre
E. has never utilized coalition politics for coming into power at the centre
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement, the BJP, which made coalition politics the vehicle of its movement towards power
at the Centre makes it clear that the BJP was at the centre at some point of time and it was part of
an alliance or coalition that took BJP to the position of power. Therefore, options, A, D and E are all
incorrect. It has been stated that the BJP senses some kind of threat from the willingness of the
Congress to accommodate the smaller regional parties in a broad secular alliance and this implies
that C is also incorrect. The author brings out that , this cannot be said of several other current
allies of the BJP - especially if they feel the electoral wind is blowing in favor of the Congress with
reference to political parties who will definitely not join the Congress alliance. Therefore, B is the
correct answer.
Question: 2
Passage
A person would much rather be proved wrong than be told that his thinking was all right but limited.
At least you may be right on another occasion, but being limited implies an inadequacy that will
never be put right. Since it is impossible to tell a person that his thinking is limited, it is very unlikely

that anyone should be capable of saying this to himself. A person will never admit to himself that his
thinking is superficial or shallow or that it could be improved. The result is a colossal conceit in all
matters connected with thinking. Nor is the conceit proportional to the ability. In the case of more
able thinkers the conceit increases at a much greater rate than the thinking skill, so that a person
who might be twice as skilled at thinking as another would be four times as conceited about that
skill. The ego problem is a very difficult one to overcome in the teaching of thinking. Much depends
on the teacher. The method is to try to separate thinking as a deliberate and an artificial skill from
the ordinary thinking activity of the ego.
Choose the correct answers
Limited thinking has been described by the author as
A. an inadequacy which is not considered favourable over being proved as wrong
B. more acceptable when compared to being pointed out as wrong
C. an inadequacy which is unlikely to be sufficed
D. the root cause of egotistical thinking
E. as aspect of personality that people strive to improve upon
Correct Answer: A, C and D
Explanation:
Limited thinking has been defined as an inadequacy that will never be put right and it has also
been brought out that A person would much rather be proved wrong than be told that his thinking
was all right but limited. This implies that A and C are both correct, but B is incorrect. The inability
of a person to admit that his thinking is limited leads to a colossal conceit in all matters connected
with thinking. Therefore, D is also correct. However, E is incorrect as it has been brought out that A
person will never admit to himself that his thinking is superficial or shallow or that it could be
improved. Therefore, the correct answers are A, C and D.
Question: 3
To obliterate every other religion than ones own is a sort of (1) ------------ in religion which we
must try to (2) ----------. We can do so only if we accept something like the Indian solution, which
seeks the (3) ------------ not in a common creed but in a common quest.

Blank 1

A. Bolshevism

Blank 2

A. denounce

Blank 3

A. unity of religion

B. co-operation

B. prevent

B. creativity of thoughts

C. play balling

C. encourage

C. variety of castes

Correct Answer: Bolshevism, prevent and unity of religion


Explanation:
The first blank in the sentence has to be completed with a word that can explain the act of
obliterating religions other than ones own. The option co-operation is rejected as it conveys the
opposing meaning of what is desired here. The other option, play balling also refers to the same in
a colloquial sense, so we reject it. The only relevant option therefore, is Bolshevism.
The second blank in the sentence has to be completed with a word that can define an activity which
is required to be taken up against the obliteration of one religion by another. The practice cannot be
rejected altogether, due to the variety of creeds, so we cannot accept denounce as the correct
answer. The other option encourage reveals an opposing meaning, so we reject it. The only
relevant option is thus, prevent.
The last blank in the passage has to be completed with a phrase that can explain the nature of Indian
culture, with respect to the religious systems practiced under it. The most relevant option given to
us, which describes the criterion perfectly here is unity of religion. The other options are partially
incorrect, so are rejected by us.
Question: 4
The maximum possible integral value of x if
Column A

Column B

2x-3<5

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
2x-3<5
2x<5+3

2x<8
x<4
The maximum possible integral value of x is 3.
Option C is correct.
Question: 5
A, B and C invested $200, $500 and $400 respectively in a farm of potatoes. The farm yielded 5500
kg of potatoes in the year, which the three divided in proportion to their investment. How many
kilograms less than the combined share of A and C did B get?
Correct Answer: 500
Explanation:
The yield is divided proportionately.
Bs share = 500/(200+500+400)*5500
= 500/1100*5500
= 5/11*5500
= 2500 kg
A and C's combined share = (200+400)/(200+500+400)*5500
= 600/1100*5500
= 6/11*5500
= 3000 kg
B's share is lesser than A and C's combined share by 3000 - 2500 = 500 kg
Question: 6
Which of the following is the cube of 3/25? Indicate the correct option.
A. 0.0144
B. 0.001728
C. 0.0001728
D. 0.00001728
E. 0.00144
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
(3/25)3= 0.123
=0.001728
Option B is correct.
Question: 7
Which of the following is not a multiple of 3, 7 and 19? Indicate all such options.
A. 7980
B. 234901
C. 9975
D. 3591
E. 185191
Correct Answer: B and E
Explanation:
7980=3*7*19*20
234901 is not divisible by 3
9975=3*7*19*25
3591=3*7*19*9
185191 is not divisible by 3
Hence, (B) and (E) are the correct options.
Question 8
Are all Muslim countries backward? It is true to an extent since Muslim countries, where affairs are
administered on the basis of the concept of inseparability of religion from the state, are either
altogether backward or at least in some respects. An objective analysis of the cause of this
backwardness makes it apparent that the main factor responsible is not religion but the perception
of Islamic polity being influenced more by the form rather than the true spirit and essence of
religious teachings and values. This is probably why the view that religion cannot be separated from
the state in a Muslim country is being increasingly criticized these days. It is cited as the main reason
behind the backwardness of Muslim states that are, actually acting on this concept.
Which sentence advocates the claim that the inseparability of religion from the state is more of a
theoretical rather than a scriptural injunction?
The correct answer is C. (An objective analysis values)

Explanation
Out of all the sentences, it is the third sentence that discusses the Islamic polity or the Muslim state
and how it is influenced by the form and not the true spirit of the religious or scriptural teachings.
This clearly implies that the inseparability of religion from the state is not a scriptural injunction or
decree. Therefore, C is the correct answer.
Question 9
Even though all are aware of its -------------, the problem of terrorism has not been able to find any
solution for itself from any of the countries.
A. Magnitude
B. Eminence
C. Insignificance
D. Worthlessness
E. Grandeur
Correct Answer: A, B and E
Explanation
The sentence here discusses the problem of terrorism and the blank has to be filled using an
adjective for its nature. A look at the provided options hints at the aspect that we are supposed to
consider while choosing this adjective; here, the aspect is its significance. The first two options,
Magnitude and Eminence; and the last option, Grandeur are the correct answers in this regard.
The third and fourth options, Insignificance and Worthlessness are wrong as they convey the
opposite of the desired meaning of the sentence.

Question: 1
Passage
Can a persons greatness be recognized only in retrospect, by those who live after him? In my view
this is unfairly generalized. In some areas, especially the arts, greatness is often recognizable in its
nascent stages. However, in other areas, particularly the physical sciences, greatness must be tested
over time before it can be confirmed. In still other areas, such as business, the incubation period for
greatness varies from case to case. We do not require a rear-view mirror to recognize artistic
greatness whether in music, visual arts, or literature. The reason for this is simple: art can be
judged at face value. Theres nothing to be later proved or disproved, affirmed or discredited, or

even improved upon or refined by further knowledge or newer technology. History is replete with
examples of artistic greatness immediately recognized, then later confirmed.
Choose the correct answer
What is the authors perspective on recognising a persons greatness or calibre?
A. It is unfair to give recognition only after reciprocating the work
B. It is not fair to judge a person during his lifetime
C. People who live after a great man are not the best judges of his work
D. It is unfair to assume that whatever be the case, it is only after he is gone, that one can
retrospect his work
E. It is unfounded to assume that, in all cases, this recognition can be done only after he is no
more
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
The opening sentences of the passage make it very clear that the author disagrees with the
suggestion or question whether a persons greatness can be recognised only by those who live after
him. He is of the opinion that it has been unfairly generalised; in other words, this cannot hold true
for all cases. He then goes on to describe how a work can be recognised depending upon the area to
which it belongs, for instance, the arts or sciences or business. Out of the all the given options, D and
E seem to be the closest to the authors perspective on the issue. On comparing D and E, it can be
seen that E is the correct answer as D is ambiguous due to the usage of retrospect in the context in
which it has been used and also because whatever be the case is grossly incorrect as outlined in the
subsequent sentences of the passage. Therefore, E is the correct answer.
Question: 2
Passage
The diversity of India is tremendous; it is obvious; it lies on the surface and anybody can see it. It
concerns itself with physical appearances as well as with certain mental habits and traits. There is
little in common between the Pathans of the North-West and the Tamils in the far South. Their racial
stocks are not the same, though there may be common strands running through them; they differ in
face and figure, food and clothing, and, of course, in language. In the North-Western Frontier
Province there is already the breath of Central Asia, and many a custom there, as in Kashmir, remind
one of the countries on the other side of the Himalayas. Pathan popular dances are singularly like
Russian Cossack dancing. Yet, with all these differences, there is no mistaking the impress of India on
the Pathans, as it is obvious on the Tamils. This is not surprising, for these borderlands, and indeed
Afghanistan also, were united with India for thousands of years. The old Turkish and other races that
inhabited Afghanistan and parts of Central Asia before the advent of Islam were largely Buddhists,
and earlier still, during the period of the Epics, Hindus. The frontier area was one of the principal

centers of old Indian culture and it abounds still with ruins of monuments and monasteries and,
especially, of the great university of Taxila, which was at the height of its fame two thousand years
ago, attracting students from all over India as well as different parts of Asia. Changes of religion
made a difference, but could not change entirely the mental backgrounds which the people of those
areas had developed. The Pathans and the Tamils are two extreme examples; the others lie
somewhere in between. All of them have their distinctive features; all of them have still more the
distinguishing mark of India.
Choose the correct answers
Which of the following are not true in respect of the Pathans as described by the author?
A. Pathans and Russians have a common thread running through them
B. The nationality of the Pathans cannot be doubted
C. There is nothing common between the Pathans and the Tamils
D. It is difficult to recognise the Pathans as Indians
E. The culture of the Pathans transcends international borders
Correct Answer: C and D
Explanation:
It has been brought out that the Pathans and the Russians have similar dances and therefore, A is
true in respect of the Pathans and is therefore an incorrect answer option. At the same time, it
implies that E is true in respect of the Pathans and is therefore, an incorrect answer option. The
author states that there is no mistaking the impress of India on the Pathans, as it is obvious on the
Tamils. This implies that both the Pathans and the Tamils cannot be mistaken as non-Indians and
this is something that is common between and the Pathans and the Tamils. Therefore, B is an
incorrect answer option and C and D are both correct answer options.
Question: 3
Sleep is more natural, because you have (1) ------------ it long. If you live 60 years; for 20 years you
have been asleep. It is the greatest (2) ------------ that you have been doing; one-third of your life is
spent in sleep. Laughing, how can you fall asleep? It brings a (3) -------- of no-mind and no-thought,
and does not allow you to fall asleep.

Blank 1

A. stretched

Blank 2

A. activity

Blank 3

A. region

B. practiced

B. artistry

B. terrain

C. valued

C. research

C. state

Correct Answer: Practiced, activity and state


Explanation:
The first blank in the sentence requires a word that can complete the sentence properly so as to
reveal a perfect meaning. The most relevant option among the list of given three here is practiced,
which is thus, the correct answer.
The second blank has to be completed with a word that can describe the category into which
sleeping can be put. The options, research and artistry are not suitable in this context so are
rejected. The only relevant option given here is thus, activity.
The third blank in the passage should be completed with a word that can complete the phrase -------- of no-mind. The options region and terrain are irrelevant in this context and the only suitable
answer is therefore, state which has been used in a metaphorical sense here.
Question: 4
The lines represented by x+2y+7=0 and 2x+ky+14=0 are coincident.
Column A

Column B

-k
A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
x+2y+7=0 and 2x+ky+14=0
Since the lines are coincident, the equations have infinite solutions.
1/2=2/k=7/14
k = 2*2=4

k=4
-k=-4
Option A is correct.
Question: 5
100 people in 5 cities each were interviewed about whether they cast their vote or not. The
number of people in the first four cities who casted their vote were 72, 75, 83 and 93. How many
people from the fifth city should have casted their vote so that the average number of voters per
city would be at least 75?
Correct Answer: 53
Explanation:
Let x be the number of people who casted their vote in the fifth city such that the average of the
voters in the five cities was at least 75.
Average = Sum of observations/Number of observations
(x+72+75+83+93)/5>75
x+323>75*5
x+323>375
x>375-323
x>52
The least number of voters should be 53.
Question: 6
What part of the share of Amanda of 1/15 does Peter have if Peter has 3/40? Indicate the correct
option.
A. 120/3
B. 3/120
C. 1/45
D. 9/8
E. 8/9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:

Let the required number be x


1/15*x=3/40
x=3/40*15
= 45/40 = 9/8
Peter has 9/8 part of Amanda's share.
Option D is true.
Question: 7
When two unbiased dice are tossed simultaneously, which of the following statements is true?
Indicate all true statements.
A. There is 1/2 probability of obtaining an even number as the sum
B. There is no possibility of obtaining the same number on both the dice
C. There are 50% chances that the sum of the numbers appearing on the dice is even
D. There are 15 possible events of obtaining the sum as a prime number
E. In one-sixth cases the same number appears on both the dice
Correct Answer: A, C, D and E
Explanation:
When two dice are tossed, there are 6*6=36 possible outcomes.
The events of an even sum are {(1,1), (1,3), (1,5),(2,2), (2,4), (2,6), (3,1), (3,3), (3,5), (4,2), (4,4), (4,6),
(5,1), (5,3), (5,5), (6,2), (6,4), (6,6)}
The number of such events are 18
Probability = 18/36 = 1/2 = 50%
Options A and C are true.
The same number can appear on both the dice. The events shall be {(1,1), (2,2), (3,3), (4,4), (5,5),
(6,6)}.
The probability is 6/36=1/6
Option B is false and E is true.
The events of obtaining the sum as a prime number are {(1,2), (1,4), (1,6), (2,1), (2,3), (2,5), (3,2),
(3,4), (4,1), (4,3), (5,2), (5,6), (6,1), (6,3), (6,5)}
There are 15 such events.
Option D is true.
Question 8

The Taliban are to be found all over Afghanistan. They may be lying low, but they are quite capable
of mounting successful offensives against Afghan security forces when and where they choose. The
fight against Al-Qaeda is compounded by the kind of terrain and tribal culture the AfghanistanPakistan border area has. The hilly terrain is one of the worlds most difficult areas for any form of
military action. Military planners in the area must also take into consideration the tribesmens fierce
sense of independence. The vast majority of them may not be Taliban supporters, but they are
suspicious of armed intrusions into their territory and guard the traditions of tribal independence
jealously.
Which sentence contradicts the claim made in the fourth sentence (The hilly terrain action)?
The correct answer is B. (They may be choose)
Explanation
The fourth sentence states that the terrain is one of the most difficult areas for any form of military
action. The correct answer to the question asked would be the sentence that brings out a fact which
belies the statement made in the fourth statement. Out of all the sentences given in the answer
options, it is the second sentence that hints at a fact which contradicts the statement made in the
fourth sentence. The second sentence brings out that the Taliban can carry out an offensive against
the Afghan forces when and where they choose and the offensives are successful for the Taliban.
This clearly implies that the terrain is conducive for military action as far as the Taliban is concerned
and hence, when seen from this perspective, the second sentence contradicts the claim made in the
fourth sentence and hence, B is the correct answer.
Question 9
The various improvements in the scientific means and methods are a result of the human --------to improve ones living conditions.
A. Antipathy
B. Impulse
C. Revulsion
D. Loathing
E. Impetus
Correct Answer: B and E
Explanation
The correct answers to fill the blank in this sentence have to be selected on the basis of ones
understanding of the meaning desired from the sentence. The first option, Antipathy is not
properly suited to the meaning conveyed by the sentence, so is a wrong answer. The second option,
impulse is the correct answer as it conveys the desired meaning efficiently. The next two options,
Revulsion and Loathing are direct opposite to the desired meaning of the sentence, so are wrong

answers. The last option, Impetus is again a correct answer as it completes the meaning of the
sentence properly.

Question: 1
Passage
By contrast, in the sciences it is difficult to identify greatness without the benefit of historical
perspective. Any scientific theory might be disproved tomorrow, thereby demoting the theorists
contribution to the status of historical footnote. Or the theory might withstand centuries of rigorous
scientific scrutiny. In any event, a theory may or may not serve as a springboard for later advances in
theoretical science. A current example involves the ultimate significance of two opposing theories of
physics: wave theory and quantum theory. Some theorists now claim that a new so-called string
theory reconciles the two opposing theories, at least mathematically. Yet strings have yet to be
confirmed empirically. Only time will tell whether string theory indeed provides the uniting laws that
all matter in the universe obeys. In short, the significance of contributions made by theoretical
scientists cannot be judged by their contemporaries, but only by scientists who follow them. In the
realm of business, in some cases great achievement is recognizable immediately, while in other
cases it is not. In sum, there have been many great individuals, particularly in the arts and in
business, whose achievements were broadly recognized as great even during their own time.
Choose the correct answer
Based on the contents of the passage, it would be justified to conclude that the string theory
A. is still in a hypothetical stage
B. can be recognised as a great work of art only with the passage of time
C. can be validated only by those scientists who have postulated the theory
D. is of no consequence in Physics as of now
E. has been verified practically
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The string theory is based on the concepts of Physics and so there is no question of recognising it as
a work of art and hence, B is incorrect. It has been clearly brought out that the significance of
theories like this can be best judged by scientists who follow them and not their contemporaries.
Therefore, C is incorrect. The information, string theory reconciles the two opposing theories, at
least mathematically. Yet strings have yet to be confirmed empirically, leads to the conclusion

that the string theory has not yet been verified empirically or practically. This means that since it
reconciles two opposing theories mathematically, it is in a hypothetical stage. However, this does
not imply that it is of no consequence in Physics as of now. In view of the above, it is evident that A
is the correct answer.
Question: 2
Passage
It is fascinating to find how the Bengalis, the Marathas, the Gujaratis, the Tamils, the Andhras, the
Oriyas, the Assamese, the Kannads, the Malayalis, the Sindhis, the Punjabis, the Pathans, the
Kashmiris, the Rajputs, and the great central block comprising the Hindustani-speaking people, have
retained their peculiar characteristics for hundreds of years, have still more or less the same virtues
and failings of which old traditions or records tell us, and yet have been throughout these ages
distinctively Indian, with the same national heritage and the same set of moral and mental qualities.
There was something living and dynamic about this heritage, which showed itself in ways of living
and a philosophical attitude to life and its problems. Ancient India, like ancient China, was a world in
itself; a culture and a civilization, which gave shape to all things. Foreign influences poured in and
often influenced that culture and were absorbed. Disruptive tendencies gave rise immediately to an
attempt to find a synthesis. Some kind of a dream of unity has occupied the mind of India since the
dawn of civilization. That unity was not conceived as something imposed from outside,
standardization of externals or even of beliefs. It was something deeper and, within its fold the
widest tolerance of belief and custom was practised and every variety acknowledged and even
encouraged.
Choose the correct answers
Based on the contents of the passage, it can be concluded that the Assamese, the Sindhis and the
Rajputs
A. have always had different cultural characteristics
B. have traditions that conform to knowledge based on old records
C. speak Hindustani
D. have idiosyncratic Indian values
E. have similar moral ethics
Correct Answer: A, B, D and E
Explanation:
As per the classification being referred to by the author, the Assamese, the Sindhis, the Rajputs and
the great central block comprising the Hindustani-speaking people are different people. Therefore,
C is clearly incorrect. The beginning of the passage makes it amply clear that the Assamese, the
Sindhis and the Rajputs have retained their peculiar characteristics for hundreds of years, have still
more or less the same virtues and failings of which old traditions or records tell us, and yet have

been throughout these ages distinctively Indian, with the same national heritage and the same set of
moral and mental qualities. This implies that A, B, D and E are all correct.
Question: 3
One religious civilization becomes the (1) ----------- of the next, and although all religions exist for
the same (2) -----------, with the same essence of the faiths that have preceded them, each one (3) ---------- a unique link in the family of human civilizations as a whole.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. mother

A. command

A. represents

B. relative

B. factor

B. manages

C. demand

C. purpose

C. designs

Correct Answer: Mother, purpose and represents


Explanation:
The first blank here has to be completed with a word that can explain the relationship of the
ascending civilizations, that too abiding by the grammatical structure of the sentence. The option,
demand is rejected outright. Among the rest two options, mother provides a more defined
relationship of the civilizations, therefore, it is the correct answer.
The next blank here has to be completed with a word that can explain the direction which the
civilizations take for existence. The option command seems irrelevant in the context of religion.
Among the other two options, factors can be an answer, but the meaning conveyed by it is better
explained by purpose which is therefore, the correct answer.
The last blank in the passage needs a word that can describe a trait of religious civilizations as such.
We should notice the words that follow the blank and then choose an answer. The options
manages and designs change the meaning of the sentence which do not seem acceptable in the
context. The most relevant option given to us is thus, represents which tells about the way in which
each of the religious civilizations have denoted the entire family of human civilizations as such.
Question: 4
3x2-2, 3x2 +3, 5x2-10 are in A.P. and x2+15x-54=0
Column A

Column B

-18
A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Since the terms 3x2-2, 3x2 +3 and 5x2-10 are in AP, we have
2(3x2+3) = (3x2-2)+(5x2-10)
6x2+6=3x2-2+5x2-10
6x2-3x2-5x2=-2-10-6
-2x2=-18
x2=9
x=-3,3
x2+15x-54=0
x2+18x-3x-54=0
x(x+18)-3(x+18)=0
(x-3)(x+18)=0
x=3, -18
The value of x is 3.
Option A is correct.
Question: 5
There are 20 students in a group. In how many ways can two representatives be chosen?
Correct Answer: 190
Explanation:
Two representatives out of 20 can be chosen in C(20,2) ways
C(20,2)=20!/[(20-2)!2!]
= 20!/(18!2!)
= 20*19/2
= 190
Question: 6
The average of n numbers is n. If each number is multiplied by n, which of the following will be the
new average? Indicate the correct option.

A. 2n
B. n
C. n3
D. n2
E. n/2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Average = Sum of observations/number of observations
n = Sum/n
Sum = n*n
Each observation is multiplied by n. Hence, the sum of the observations is equal to the old sum
multiplied by n.
New sum = Old sum*n = n*n*n
Average = n*n*n/n=n2
Option D is true.
Question: 7
Which of the following statements is true with respect to the English alphabets? Indicate all
correct statements.
A. 26 single letter words with or without meaning can be formed
B. 26*26 two-letter words with or without meaning and with distinct letters can be formed
C. 26*25*24 three-letter words with or without meaning can be formed
D. 26*25*24*23 four-letter words with or without meaning and with distinct letters can be
formed
E. 26*25*24*23*22 five-letter words with or without meaning can be formed
Correct Answer: A and D
Explanation:
Number of single letter words with or without meaning are=26
Option A is true.
Number of two-letter words with or without meaning and with distinct letters = 26*25
Option B is false.
Number of three-letter words with or without meaning without any condition on repetition =
26*26*26
Option C is false.

Number of four-letter words with or without meaning and with distinct letters = 26*25*24*23
Option D is true.
Number of five-letter words with or without meaning without any condition on repetition =
26*26*26*26*26
Option E is false.
Question 8
While this may be the position on the Pakistan side of the border, the situation in entire Afghanistan
continues to be chaotic. A professional Afghan army which the Karzai government was to raise is
nowhere near its planned strength, thus encouraging the warlords in their defiance of Kabul. The
warlords also refuse to share revenues with Kabul, and often hobnob with the Taliban to blackmail
the Karzai government. Both Islamabad and Kabul should know that the issue needs political
handling more than resort to force. The two governments should also better coordinate their efforts
against Al-Qaeda and the Taliban since the misunderstandings between the two have often enabled
the Taliban to exploit these differences to their advantage.
Which sentence makes it apparent that the issue of security has not been given due precedence by
the Afghan government?
The correct answer is B. (A professional Afghan Kabul)
Explanation
The issue of security has been referred to in the entire passage. The correct answer would be the
sentence that refers to an aspect which indicates lack of interest in maintaining security in the
country. The second sentence brings out that the warlords are defiant due to lack of a professional
Afghan army in the required strength. This is one of the reasons for a chaotic situation in
Afghanistan. None of the other sentences directly refer to the fact that the issue of security has not
been given due importance or precedence. Therefore, B is the correct answer.
Question 9
The present times can see a -------------- and conversion in the neighborhood patterns of the cities
and also the internal composition of neighborhoods.
A. Variance
B. Switch
C. Transformation
D. Stagnation
E. Transmutation
Correct Answer: A, B, C and E
Explanation

The blank in the sentence has to be filled using a word that adds to the meaning of the word
conversion that has been used in the second part of the sentence. The words in the list, all except
Stagnation are suited to its meaning, thus, this is the only wrong answer among the five given
options.

Question: 1
Passage
Strange, there was no effort, no persuasion by the BJP to keep Atal Bihari Vajpayee in harness. Here
was a person who gave the party a liberal face in the last 30 years and took the tally in the Lok Sabha
to 182 from a mere five. Even the six-year rule of the party would not have been possible if he had
not been the meeting point for the 24 parties in National Democratic Alliance. Yet, none in the BJP
shed tears when he stepped down in favor of L.K.Advani. There was no protest from even those who
had basked under the glory of Vajpayee for years. The so-called loyalists were conspicuous by their
silence. Every leader offers to step down after a reverse because victory has many claimants, defeat
none. Vajpayees reaction was no different. It was up to his followers whom he led during many
battles to say that they would not allow him to forsake the leadership. But they seemed a party to
the macabre drama. They could have torn a leaf out of the Congress book - how they fiercely
opposed Sonia Gandhis decision not to become prime minister. It was a moving scene, the leader
declining office and the followers not accepting her no for an answer. The BJP meeting, in
contrast, was too businesslike. No member rose to say that they would not allow Vajpayee to step
down. None threatened to stage a protest to keep him back.
Choose the correct answer
How has the author described the erstwhile Vajpayee loyalists reaction to his resignation?
A. They behaved in an unexpected and vociferous manner
B. They were not noticed because of their inactivity and indifference
C. They were influenced by what had happened in the Congress
D. They had become prominent because of their reticence
E. They vehemently supported him in his decision
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The beginning of the passage discusses the attitude of Vajpayees loyalists of so many years when he
offered to step down from his position. The author has used the statement, The so-called loyalists

were conspicuous by their silence, to describe their reaction. This makes it clear that these loyalists
had become prominent or were in the limelight because of their silence or inaction. In view of the
above, a careful study of the given options brings out that D is the best description of the reaction
from these so-called loyalists and hence, D is the correct answer.
Question: 2
Passage
Differences, big or small, can always be noticed even within the national group, however closely
bound together it may be. The essential unity of that group only becomes apparent when its
compared to another national group, even though often the differences between two adjoining
groups fade out or intermingle near the frontiers, and modern developments are tending to produce
a certain kind of uniformity everywhere. In ancient and medieval times, the idea of the modern
nation was non-existent, and feudal, religious, racial, or cultural bonds had more importance. Yet I
think that at almost any time in recorded history an Indian would have felt more or less at home in
any part of India, and would have felt as a stranger and alien in any other country. He would
certainly have felt less of a stranger in countries which had partly adopted his culture or religion.
Those who professed a religion of non-Indian origin or, coming to India, settled down here and
became distinctively Indian in the course of a few generations, such as Christian, Jews, Parsees,
Moslems, Indian converts, they never ceased to be Indians on account of a change of their faith.
They were looked upon in other countries as Indians and foreigners, even though there might have
been a community of faith between them. Today, when the conception of nationalism has
developed much more, Indians in foreign countries inevitably form a national group and hang
together for various purposes, in spite of their internal differences. An Indian Christian is looked
upon as an Indian wherever he may go. An Indian Moslem is considered as an Indian in Turkey or
Arabia or Iran, or any other country where Islam is the dominant religion.
Choose the correct answers
According to the author, in a foreign country, an Indian
A. has always felt alone, alienated and as a stranger
B. is recognised by his religion, notwithstanding his nationality
C. is indentified by his nationality despite sharing the same religion as that of the locals
D. finds it easier to adopt their culture and settle down
E. forms a community of people hailing from the same country
Correct Answer: C and E
Explanation:
The passage ends on the note that in the present times, Indians in foreign countries have formed
national groups and they hang together. This means that Indians no longer feel like strangers in
foreign countries. Moreover, the fact that Indians felt as strangers in foreign countries has been

brought out in reference to the past and it is not true for all times. Therefore, A is incorrect and E is
correct. It has been brought out that an Indian Christian or an Indian Moslem is looked upon as an
Indian only wherever he may go. This implies that B is incorrect and C is correct. D is clearly incorrect
as it has not been implied anywhere in the passage. Therefore, C and E are the correct answers.
Question: 3
Organizations devoted to (1) ------------- conflict and promoting international peace have appeared,
including those that facilitate global medical and scientific (2) -------------, and enable people from
even the poorest of nations to play a (3) ------------- role in the treatment of disease and
development of science and industry.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. prompting

A. differences

A. determining

B. harvesting

B. collaboration

B. culminating

C. resolving

C. indulgence

C. economical

Correct Answer: Resolving, collaboration and determining


Explanation:
The first lank in the passage has to be completed with a word that can equate the two parts of the
sentence. The two phrases organizations devoted to --------- conflict and promoting international
peace are being referred to here. The most relevant option that can perform this task is resolving
which the correct answer is thus. The second blank here should be completed with a word that can
represent the coming together of the global medical and scientific fields. The option collaboration
seems most efficient in this task while the rest are irrelevant for being considered herein. The last
blank in the passage requires a word that can explain the role played by poor nations in the task of
finding cures to diseases and in the fields of science and industry. The most appropriate answer
option to be considered here would be determining while the other two are inappropriate to be
used in it.
Question: 4
In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of A to B is 3:4. A has a start of 140 m.
Column A

Column B

Time taken by A to finish the race

Time taken by B to finish the race

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Let the speeds of A and B be 3x m/s and 4x m/s respectively.
A has a start of 140 m. Hence, A has to cover (500-140) = 360 meters
Time taken by A to cover 360 meters = distance/speed = 360/3x
= 120/x
Time taken by B to cover 500 meters = 500/4x
= 125/x
Hence, B takes longer to finish the race.
Option B is correct.
Question: 5
A watch gains 10 minutes every hour. How many degrees does the seconds hand move in every
minute?
Correct Answer: 420
Explanation:
The watch gains 10 minutes in every 60 minutes.
Second hand gains 10 seconds in every 60 seconds
It moves 60+10 = 70 seconds in every 60 seconds
Degrees moved in 60 seconds = 70*6 degrees
= 420 degrees
Question: 6
One apple has the same nutrients as 4 biscuits and 3 biscuits have the same nutritional value as 4
bananas. What is the ratio of the number of apples to the number of bananas having the same
nutrients? Indicate the correct option.
A. 3:16
B. 16:3
C. 4:3
D. 3:4
E. 12:1

Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
1 apple = 4 biscuits
3 biscuits = 4 bananas
1 apple = 4 biscuits = 4*4/3 bananas = 16/3 bananas
1 apple = 16/3 bananas
3 apples = 16 bananas
Required ratio = 3:16
Option A is true.
Question: 7
Which of the following is true? Indicate all correct options.
A. P(n,n)=n!
B. P(n,r)=n!/r!
C. P(5,4)=P(6,3)
D. P(4,3)=P(5,4)
E. P(4,n)+P(5,n)=P(6,n)
Correct Answer: A and C
Explanation:
P(n,n)=n!/(n-n)!=n!/0!
=n!
Option A is true.
P(n,r)=n!/(n-r)!
Option B is false.
P(5,4)=5!/(5-4)!=5!/1!=5!=5*4*3*2=120
P(6,3)=6!/(6-3)!=6!/3!=6*5*4=120
Option C is true.
P(4,3)=4!/(4-3)!=4!/1!=4!
P(5,4)=5!/(5-4)!=5!
Option D is false.
P(4,n)+P(5,n)=4!/(4-n)!+5!/(5-n)!
= 4!/(4-n)! + 5*4!/(5-n)(4-n)!
= 4!/(4-n)![1+5/(5-n)]
= 4!/(4-n)![(5-n+5)/(5-n)]
= 4!/(4-n)!*(10-n)/(5-n)

= 4!(10-n)!/(5-n)!
P(6,n)=6!/(6-n)!
Option E is false.
Question 8
The cold war broke out soon after World War II. The communist revolution in China was successful in
that same year. The Republican victory brought General Eisenhower to the White House and his
Secretary of State, John Foster Dulles, began cobbling together a set of military alliances along the
soft underbelly of the communist world in the Middle East and Asia. Dulles first headed for New
Delhi, capital of the largest country in the region. However, Prime Minister Nehru was wary of his
links to the socialist countries, and was also anxious to play an independent role as the leader of a
third force in the world. Dulles then went to Pakistan where he found greater receptivity to the idea
of a military pact with the US that would facilitate both security and development.
Which sentence indicates the trepidation that propelled Dulles into taking the actions he did?
The correct answer is B. (The communist revolution year)
Explanation
The actions taken by Dulles have been elucidated in the third, fourth and the last sentence of the
passage. Therefore, C and D are clearly incorrect as they refer to the actions taken and not the
trepidation or the concern that triggered these actions. The fifth sentence refers to Nehrus
concerns and therefore, E is also incorrect. On comparing A and B, it can be seen that B is the correct
answer as the threat of communist expansion is a likely reason that propelled Dulles into carrying
out the actions he did.
Question 9
Where a home should be the means to achieve higher goals in life, one is ----------- by the aim to
achieve a home itself in the present day scenario.
A. Delimited
B. Liberated
C. Unconstrained
D. Circumscribed
E. Restricted
Correct Answer: A, D and E
Explanation
The sentence given here is based on contradiction. The first part of it is contradicted by the second
that appears after the comma; thus, the words in the list have to be analyzed accordingly. The first
option, Delimited fulfills this requirement by opposing the meaning of the first part. The second

and third options, namely; Liberated and Unconstrained are not suited to this criterion so are
wrong options. The last two options, Circumscribed and Restricted are again the correct options
as they best suit this description.

Question: 1
Passage
But then this is what happens in such organizations which are monolithic. People are dropped after
they have served the purpose. There is no sentimentality about them, no remorse, no regret. It is a
clean, straightforward cut. Vajpayee fell in that category. Once the BJPs mentor, the RSS, decided
that his utility was over, the rest was automatic. Pieces fell into places. In any case, the RSS had for
some time been thinking of Advani as Vajpayees replacement. The changeover confirms my worst
fears that if the BJP had formed the government, Vajpayee would have been asked to resign in favor
of Advani in due course of time. Hardliner Advani is a trusted man of the RSS. Vajpayees reputation
has always been that of the right person in the wrong party. By changing him, the RSS has come into
the open to project the BJP as a party with the Hindutva face. Nagpur, where the RSS has its
headquarters, appears to have come to believe that the BJP should look every bit Hindu. When
Advani said soon after elections that his party would plug the Hindutva line it was clear that the BJP
would drop the pretension of being liberal. Vajpayees image of a liberal politician and a statesman
did not fit into that policy. Whether such an approach pays the BJP dividends or not is yet to be seen.
But the party has played false to thousands of Muslims who had begun moving nearer to it. The real
problem with the BJP is that it has not yet understood Indias ethos.
Choose the correct answer
Which of the following is not an apt description of the BJP as painted by the author?
A. The party is liberal, but secular
B. It is a colossal party
C. It has non-liberal and conservative policies
D. It does not agree with the personal views of Vajpayee
E. It is unabashed when it comes to dropping people who have served their purpose
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The beginning of the passage makes it clear that the BJP is a monolithic or a large party and it has no
remorse while dropping people who have served their purpose. Therefore, B and E both are apt

descriptions of the party and hence, are incorrect answer options to the question asked. When the
views of a party are being described, the views of the majority of its members or its leader are taken
into account. Vajpayee was the leader of the BJP and the contents of the passage indicate that he
has handed over the mantle to Advani. Advani has been described as a hardliner and it has also
been brought out that the BJP should look every bit Hindu. Moreover, the passage brings out that
the BJP would drop the pretension of being liberal. Vajpayees image of a liberal politician and a
statesman did not fit into that policy. Therefore, the party is not secular and it is not liberal either.
In view of the above, it is evident that C and D are incorrect and A is the correct answer.
Question: 2
Passage
In todays economic environment, you have got to reinvent the rules of competition. Some familiar
companies with long records of success (WalMart, Sony) have already learnt to play by the new rules
and are on their way to becoming market leaders. These companies, both old and new, are
redefining business competition in one market after another; by relentlessly driving themselves to
deliver extraordinary levels of distinctive values to carefully selected customer groups. These market
leaders have made it impossible for other companies to compete on the old terms. We also look at
how some of the worlds best known companiessuch as Kodak, IBMhave failed to recognize and
adapt to this new competitive reality. Their stumbling performances provide cautionary tales about
survival, to which close attention must be paid. When we talk about running companies, we are
actually addressing the management of business units. We ask that the leader understand that this
simplifies our task to introduce, define and develop three concepts that every business unit will find
essential. The first value proposition, which is the implicit promise the company makes to the
customer to deliver the particular combination of value-price, quality, performance, selection,
convenience and so on. The second concept, the value driven operating model, is that combination
of operating processes, management systems, business structures, and culture that gives a company
the capacity to deliver on its value preposition. Its the system, machinery, and environment for
delivering value. If the value proposition is the end, the value driven operating model is the means.
The third concept, the value disciplines, refers to the 3 desirable ways in which the companies can
combine operating models and value propositions to be the best in their markets.
Choose the correct answers
What, according to the author, is the reason for the success of Sony?
A. It is relatively a new company and new companies have an advantage in todays competitive
market
B. They have identified the customers and are addressing their specific needs by implementing
new marketing strategies
C. The company has discarded conventional policies for surviving in the market
D. The company has developed new marketing strategies and is totally oblivious to the
consumer requirements

E. They have long records of past successes


Correct Answer: B and C
Explanation:
The passage starts on the note that reinventing the rules of competition has led to sending Sony on
its way to becoming a market leader. The main reason for Sonys success has been brought out to be
its implementation of new rules for competition and serving carefully selected consumer groups.
This implies that B and C are correct, but D is incorrect. It has not been implied anywhere that Sony
is a new company; rather the fact that it has long records of success indicates that it is an old
company. However, having long records of success has not been cited as the reason behind its
success in becoming a market leader. Therefore, A and E are both incorrect. Hence, the correct
answers are B and C.
Question: 3
In a few Zen monasteries, every (1) ----------- has to start his morning with laughter, and has to end
his night with laughter. It will be (2) ----------, living in a family set-up, to suddenly laugh (3) ----------- in the morning. But do try it; its worth getting out of bed laughing.

Blank 1

Blank 2

Blank 3

A. creature

A. difficult

A. bright

B. monk

B. convenient

B. early

C. human

C. frivolous

C. later

Correct Answer: Monk, difficult and early


Explanation:
The first blank here requires to be filled with a word that can explain the kind of people who have to
start their day in the Zen monasteries with laughter. The options creature and human cannot be
taken as these refer to no particular group of human beings with respect to the monasteries. The
only relevant option is therefore, monk. The next blank requires a word that can explain the
experience of practicing the laughter therapy at home. The usage of convenient would be not
suitable and the use of frivolous is not in sync with the tone of the passage which is promoting the
practice. The relevant option is difficult therefore. The last blank in the passage requires a word
that can refer to the time in the morning which is chosen for the practice. The most obvious answer
choice here would be early.
Question: 4

A two-digit number can be obtained by multiplying the sum of its digits by 10. The number can
also be obtained by multiplying the digit in the tens place by 9 and adding 5 to it.
Column A

Column B

The digit in the hundreds place

The digit in the units place

A. Quantity A is greater
B. Quantity B is greater
C. The quantities are equal
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the digit at the tens place be x and the digit at the units place be y.
The number will thus be (10x + y).
According to the given condition,
10x + y = 10(x + y)
10x 10x + y -10y = 0
y = 0 ...(1)
Also, we have
10x + y = 9x+5
10x 9x + y = 5
x + y = 5 ...(2)
y=0
x+y=5
Hence x = 5
The number is 50.
The digit in the units place is 0, the digit in the tens place is 5 and the digit in the hundreds place is 0.
Option C is correct.
Question: 5
The vertices of a triangle are A(2,a), B(2,6) and C(2+sqrt(3),5). Find the value of 'a' if the triangle is
equilateral.
[sqrt(3) = square root of 3]
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:

In an equilateral triangle, all sides are equal.


AB=BC=CA
AB = sqrt[(2-2)2+(6-a)2] = sqrt[(6-a)2]=(6-a)
BC = sqrt[(2-2-sqrt(3))2+(6-5)2] = sqrt(3+1) = sqrt(4) = 2
AB = BC
6-a = 2
a = 6-2 = 4
a=4
Question: 6
Peter bought oranges at $5 per dozen. He sold half of his purchase at twice his investment and half
of his purchase was rotten and could not be sold. How much was his profit percent? Indicate the
correct option.
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 10%
E. 200%
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Let his purchase be of 10 dozen.
His investment = $5*10=$50
He sold 5 dozen at $50*2=$100
He could not sell 5 dozen.
Profit percent = (100-50)/50*100
= 100%
Option A is true.
Question: 7
Sam sold three-fourths of his purchase at 20% profit and the remaining at 10% loss. Which of the
following statements is true? Indicate all such statements.
A. He suffered a loss on the whole transaction
B. He earned a profit on the whole transaction
C. He gained $12.5 for every $100 invested
D. He gained more than 10% of his investment
E. He neither gained not suffered a loss in the transaction

Correct Answer: B, C and D


Explanation:
Let his purchase be worth $100.
Income from selling 3/4th of his purchase at 20% profit = Selling price = 3/4[(100+profit%)/100*Cost
price]
= 3/4[(100+20)/100*$100]
= 3/4(120)=$90
Income on selling 1/4th of his purchase at 10% loss = Selling price = 1/4[(100-loss%)/100*Cost price]
= 1/4[(100-10)/100*$100]
= 1/4*90=$22.5
Total Selling price = $90+$22.5
= $112.5
Gain = 112.5=100=12.5
Gain%=12.5*100/100=12.5%
Hence, he gained on his transaction.
Option A is false and B is true.
Option C is true.
Option D is true and E is false.
Question 8
In a momentous decision, Turkeys parliament voted decisively to aid the US military occupation of
Iraq and Washington is delighted. Having run out of troops itself, the US is arm twisting and bribing
all and sundry to send soldiers to Iraq since not surprisingly, few nations are eager to risk their men
in strife-torn Iraq. Uncle Sam is using a very powerful inducement, money and trade. Turkey shows
just how loudly cash talks with near bankrupt nations. Turkey is an important military power and the
Turkish army of 402,000 men is NATOs second largest after the United States. Though Turkeys
armed forces suffer from outdated arms and wobbly logistics, its soldiers, like those of Pakistan, are
renowned for courage and tenacity.
Which sentence implies that not only Washington, even Turkey has benefitted by aiding the US?
The correct answer is C. (Turkey shows just nations)
Explanation
It has been brought out that US was in need of troops and the Turkish army is a large army with
courageous soldiers. Therefore, the second, fifth and sixth sentences refer to how Washington has
gained from this alliance and hence, A, D and E are all incorrect answer options. The third sentence
simply refers to the tactics being employed by the US to lure countries for extending aid. The fourth
sentence implies that Turkey has agreed to the offer of money and trade made by the US because it
is nearly bankrupt. Therefore, the fourth sentence is an indication of the fact that Turkey has also
benefitted by providing aid to the US and therefore, C is the correct answer.
Question 9

The information and communication technologies have made remarkable -------------- and vast
improvements in the past decades.
A. Breakthroughs
B. Impediments
C. Progression
D. Recession
E. Stagnation
Correct Answer: A and C
Explanation
For this sentence, one requires to look for the words that compliment the use of the word,
Improvements. Two of the options in the list, Breakthroughs and Progression stand up to this
criterion completely, while the other three, Impediments, Recession and Stagnation change its
meaning to convey a completely opposite sense.