VISION IAS

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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

GENERAL STUIDES (P) 2016 (Test Code 1715)

Q 1.B

Statement 1 is incorrect. The RTI Act, 2005 clearly says that in case of a clash with the OSA, the public
interest will prevail. Section 8(2) of the RTI Act says, "Notwithstanding anything in the Official Secrets
Act, 1923, nor any of the exemptions permissible in accordance with subsection 8(1) of RTI Act, a public
authority may allow access to information, if public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm to the
protected interests."
Statement 2 is correct. Second ARC recommended that The Official Secrets Act, 1923 should be
repealed." But the government rejected the recommendation, saying "The OSA is the only law to deal
with cases of espionage, wrongful possession and communication of sensitive information detrimental to
the security of the State."

Q 2.B

Statement 1 is incorrect: The eCourts Integrated Mission Mode Project is one of the national eGovernance
projects being implemented in High Courts and district/subordinate Courts of the Country.
There are two phases of the project. Eventually, Phase II will move towards 'less paper courts' and finally
towards 'paperless courts'.
The project is being implemented by National Informatics Centre (NIC).
Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, 'b' is the correct answer.

Q 3.D

Corporate governance is a concept, rather than an individual instrument. It includes debate on the
appropriate management and control structures of a company. It includes the rules relating to the power
relations between owners, the board of directors, management and the stakeholders such as employees,
suppliers, customers as well as the public at large.
In India, corporate governance initiatives have been undertaken by the Ministry of of Corporate Affairs
(MCA) and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

Q 4.B

Statement 1 is correct : Its fourth report titled 'Ethics in Governance' outlines the code of ethics for civil
servants.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The eleventh report titled PROMOTING e-GOVERNANCE: The SMART Way
Forward

Q 5.B

Statement 1 is correct as the Delimitation Commission Act of 1952 provides for the readjustment of seats.
Statement 2 is incorrect as it also provides for delimitation and reservation of territorial constituencies and
other related matters.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the orders issued by the Delimitation commission cannot be challenged in any
court.
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Q 6.A
RPA 1950 includes:
1. Preparation of electoral rolls
2. Allocations of seats in parliament and state legislatures
3. Delimitations of constituencies
4. Qualification of Voters
Conducting elections, Registration of political parties are part of RPA 1951
RPA Act 1951 includes:
1. Actual conduct of elections.
2. Administrative machinery for conducting elections.
3. Poll
4. Election offences.
5. Election disputes.
6. By-elections.
7. Registration of political parties.
Hence only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q 7.D

Option (a) is correct. Along with with Consolidated Fund of India, CAG also audits the Consolidated
Funds of all the states and Union Territories with legislatures.
Option (b) is correct. CAG audits the Contingency Fund of India and Public Account of India as well as
those of states.
Option (c) is correct. CAG audits the private companies and PPP projects in cases where revenue sharing
with the government is involved.
Option (d) is incorrect. Under Article 148-151 the CAG in no way control the receipt and issue of money.
He is only an auditor.

Q 8.B

Statement 1 is correct: As per the Constitution, any election commissioner or regional commissioner
cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is not binding on the President. One such case has already come up in 2009
when the President has rejected the proposal of the CEC to remove the election commissioner from office.
Statement 3 is correct: No such removal has taken place till date.

Q 9.B

Statement 1 is incorrect : The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and
allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special officer for linguistic minorities.
Statement 2 is correct : The reports of Special officer for linguistic minorities are placed before Parliament
by the President.

Q 10.B

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chairman and members are appointed by the President by warrant under his
hand and seal.
Statement 2 is correct: The conditions of service of its members is determined by the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Commission has to investigate all matters relating to the constitutional and
other legal safeguards for SCs, OBCs and the Anglo-Indian Community and report to the President upon
their working.

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Q 11.B

Under the nationwide campaign of Jal Kranti, a village with acute water scarcity on a pilot project will be
selected as Jal Gram. In this identified village a comprehensive integrated development plan will be
framed and several water conservation activities will be launched. Activities proposed under the campaign
include rain water harvesting, recycling of waste water, micro irrigation for using water efficiently and
mass awareness program. Along with it, a cadre of local water professional Jal Mitra will be created and
they will be given training to create mass awareness. As pilot project, activities under this nation
campaign will be run in one water stressed village in each 672 districts in the country.

Q 12.A

The Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf, originally known as the Gulf Cooperation
Council (GCC), is a regional inter governmental political and economic union consisting of all Arab states
of the Persian Gulf, except for Iraq. Its member states are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia,
and the United Arab Emirates. Hence Option A is correct.

Q 13.B

Statement 1 is incorrect: The State may by law can adopt Hindi as official language even if it is not used
in the state.
President if he is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a State desire the use of any
language , he may then direct the state to recognised that language throughout that State or any part
thereof for such purpose as he may specify.(statement 2 is correct).
State may by law can adopt Hindi as official language even if it is not used in the state. (statement-3 is
incorrect)
Hence 'b' is the correct answer.

Statement 2 is correct: The President if he is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a State
desire the use of any language , he may then direct the state to recognised that language throughout that State
or any part thereof for such purpose as he may specify.
Q 14.D

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) does not cover: the members of the defence forces, officers
and servants of the Supreme Court and secretarial staff of the Parliament. It covers the Civilian employees
of defence services.

Q 15.A

Among other functions, the Constitution has given the function to the Finance Commission to recommend
the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State on the basis of recommendations made
by the Finance Commission of the State.
It has all powers of the civil court as per the Court of Civil Procedure, 1908: This is according to The
Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951. This is not a Constitutional power.
The 3rd one is a function of the State Finance Commission.

Q 16.D

Statement 1 is incorrect: The members of CVC are appointed by a committee consisting of Prime
minister, Union home minister, Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha. Speaker of Lok Sabha does not a part
of selection committee .
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be
removed from his office by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after
the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central
Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed. The
President may suspend from office, and if deem necessary prohibit also from attending the office during
inquiry, the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner in respect of whom a
reference has been made to the Supreme Court until the President has passed orders on receipt of the
report of the Supreme Court on such reference.
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The President may, by order, remove from office the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance
Commissioner if the Central Vigilance Commissioner or such Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may
be: is adjudged an insolvent; or has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the Central
Government, involves moral turpitude; or engages during his term of office in any paid employment
outside the duties of his office; or is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason
of infirmity of mind or body; or has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect
prejudicially his functions as a Central Vigilance Commissioner or a Vigilance Commissioner.

Q 17.D

All the statements are incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not mandatory that all the elections to rural and urban bodies are held on
party lines. Though it is being debated that it should be made compulsory but not done till now.
Statement 2 is incorrect :State Election Commissioner is appointed by Governor but removed in a manner
as provided for removal of a judge of High Court i.e. by President only.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Seats are not compulsorily reserved for Other Backward Castes.

Q 18.D
NCRWC Recommendations:
The following should be added as new Fundamental Rights:
(a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment.
(b) Right to compensation ifa person is illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty.
(c) Right to leave and to return to India.
(d) Right to privacy and family life.
(e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year.
(f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice.
(g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid 8.
(h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children).
(i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainable
development.
On Directive Principles
1. The heading of Part-IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as Directive Principles of State
Policy and Action.
2. A new Directive Principle on control of population should be added.
3. An independent National Education Commission should be set-up every five years.
4. An Inter-Faith Commission should be established to promote inter-religious harmony and social solidarity.
5. There must be a body of high status to review the level of implementation of the Directive Principles.
6. A strategic Plan of Action should be initiated to create a large number of employment opportunities in five
years.
7. Implementation of the recommendations contained in the Report of the National Statistical Commission
(2001)
The following new fundamental duties should be included in Article 51-A:
(a) Duty to vote at elections, actively participate in the democratic process of governance and to pay taxes.
(b) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical and
moral well-being of children.
(c) Duty of industrial organizations to provide education to children of their employees.

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Q 19.B

The Supreme Court, in Prakash Singh case, directed the States and the Union Territories to comply with
seven binding directives for police reforms in India. Statement 1 is correct. It directed state governments
to constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the
police.Statement 2 is incorrect the states to create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to look
into complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police.
Statement 3 is correct. It directed the separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the
police
Extra Information:
Policing in India is governed by the archaic Indian Police Act, 1861 which was enacted in response to the
revolt of 1857 in order to check any dissent against colonial rule. In this context supreme court laid down
seven directives to states and centre in Prakash Singh case related to police reforms:
1. Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) in all states headed by state home minister, leader of
opposition in assembly, MLAs from all major political parties and eminent member of civil society.
The SSC will:
Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence on the police
Lay down broad policy guideline and evaluate the performance of the state police
2. Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimum
tenure of two years.
3. Ensure that other police officers on operational duties including Superintendents of Police and
Station House Officers of a police station are provided a minimum tenure of two years.
4. Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police as investigations are poorly
mounted, slow, done by inadequately trained staff.
5. Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other
service related matters of police officers.
6. Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against
police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of serious
misconduct.
7. Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and
placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years.

Q 20.D

Through e-governance, government services will be made available to citizens in a convenient, efficient
and transparent manner. All the given four options, in addition to many others, represent challenges to egovernance initiatives in India.

Q 21.C

Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. A party is recognised as a national party if it secures six percent of
the valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislative
assembly; and in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states. or
If it wins two percent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are elected
from three states. or
If it is recognised as a state party in four states.

Q 22.D

The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of
Corruption (1962 -1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. There is no dedicated law for CBI in India.
It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Under the act, the CBI can
investigate only with notification by the central government. It also provides assistance to the Central
Vigilance Commission. Hence, does not enjoy any powers of Tribunal or civil court.
Hence, none of the given statements are true.

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Q 23.D

A "public authority" is any authority or body or institution of self government established or constituted
by or under the Constitution or by any other law made by the Parliament or a State Legislature or by
notification issued or order made by the Central Government or a State Government. The bodies owned,
controlled or substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government and nonGovernment organisations substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government also
fall within the definition of public authority. The financing of the body or the NGO by the Government
may be direct or indirect.
Hence, all insitutions will come under Public Authority. Option 'd' is the correct answer.

Q 24.B

Goods are those which are manufactured or produced and sold to consumers through retailers and
wholesalers as well. Hence Statement 1 is wrong.
The Act applies to private, public and cooperative sectors in India. Statement 2 is correct.
Hence option B is correct.

Q 25.D

The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) has been constituted in 2003 to hear appeals against the
decisions of the Registrar of trade marks, geographical indications and the controller of patents. Hence
option D is correct.

Q 26.A

Notifications in respect of bye-elections to the House of the People is issued by the Election Commission
under the provisions of Section 149 of that Act.

Q 27.C

NITI Aayog is an executive body and work like a think-tank. The powers to allocate fund vested in the
finance ministry.
Planning Commission Enjoyed the powers to allocate funds to ministries and state governments which
was abolished by the union government.
The CEO of NITI Aayog is appointed by the PM. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

Q 28.A

No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in respect of their personal
acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. However, ivil proceedings can be started against President
and Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act by giving 2 months advance
notice. so statement 1 is incorrect.
The constitution does not grants any immunity to the ministers for their official Acts. so statement 2 is
incorrect.
The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot
be sued. The Judicial Officers Protection Act (1850) lays down that, no judge, magistrate, justice of
peace, collector or other person acting judicially shall be liable to be sued in any civil court for any act
done by him in the discharge ofhis official duty. Statement 3 in correct.
Hence, 'a' is the right answer.

Q 29.D

A19(1)(c). All citizens shall have the right to form associations or unions or co-operative socities and
Article43 (DPSP) states that he State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or
co-operative basis in rural areas.Part IXB of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.

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Raz Kr

Q 30.A

While an ordinary elector is registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which his place of
ordinary residence is located, person having service qualification can get enrolled as service voter at his
native place even though he actually may be residing at a different place (of posting). Thus statement 1 is
correct.
Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable,
has 0ption of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy
voter duly appointed by him. Thus statement 2 is also correct.
Service Voter means any person who is required to give his vote by postal ballot under clause (a) of
section 60, i.e. (a) members of the armed forces of the Union, (b) members of a force to which the
provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950) have been made applicable whether with or without
modifications, (c) members of the armed police force of a State who are serving outside that State, (d)
persons who are employed under the Government of India in a post outside India (e.g. Ambassadors and
High Commissioner, of India abroad, their staff etc. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
Hence 'a' is the right answer.

Q 31.B

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The act defines public authority for the act as any authority or body or
institutions of self government established or constituted by constitution or legislation or notification. It
also includes any(i) body owned, controlled and substantially financed, (ii) NGOs substantially financed
directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate government.

Q 32.A

Statement 1 is correct. The Act has several provisions for improving the functional autonomy of the
police - creation of a State Police Board to frame broad policy guidelines for promoting efficient,
responsive and accountable policing etc; merit-based selection and appointment of the Director General
of Police, ensuring security of tenures, setting up of Establishment Committees to accept and examine
complaints from police officers about being subjected to illegal orders, to recommend names of suitable
officers to State Government for posting to all positions in the ranks of Assistant/ Deputy Superintendents
and above in the police organisation in the State excluding the DGP.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act provides for better service conditions to the police personnel including
rationalising their working hours, one day off in each week, or compensatory benefits in lieu; creation of
a Police Welfare Bureau to take care of health care, housing, and legal facilities for police personnel as
well as financial security for the next of kin of those dying in service. It further mandates the government
to provide insurance cover to all officers, and special allowances to officers posted in special wings
commensurate with the risk involved.

Q 33.A

Florence Nightingale Award The Florence Nightingale Award was established by the Union Health
Ministry to honour the selfless services rendered by Nurses with devotion, sincerity, dedication and
compassion. The Award is given to the outstanding nursing personnel employed in Central, State/UTs.
Nurses working in Government, Voluntary Organizations, Mission institutions and private institutions
can apply with due recommendation of concerned State Government. The Award carries 50,000 rupees
cash award, a certificate, a citation certificate and a medal. May 12: International Nurses Day The award
is named after Florence Nightingale, founder of modern nursing. She was born on May 12, 1820 and the
day is celebrated as International Nurses Day all over the world.

Q 34.A
Union government had constituted a 10-member committee to review and revitalise public private partnership
(PPP) mode of infrastructure development. The committee is chaired by former finance secretary Vijay
Kelkar.

Committee will look into variations in contents of contracts and difficulties experienced with particular
conditions.
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Suggest optimal risk sharing mechanism by analyzing risks involved in PPP projects in different sectors.
It will also look into existing framework of sharing of such risks between the Government and project
developer.
Propose design modifications to the contractual arrangements of the PPP based on best international
practices
Suggest measure to Government in order to improve capacity building for effective implementation of the
PPP projects.

Other Information:
BASEL-3 norms - Raghuramrajan committee
Finacial inclusion & payment bank system & - Nachiket Mor committee
Report on monetary policy frame work - Urjit Patel committee
Q 35.A

Statement 1 is correct. The visit of May 2015 to Mongolia is the first visit by an Indian PM.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The civil nuclear agreement was signed with Mongolia in 2009.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Holy Tripitaka is not of Hinduism. Tripitaka consists of three sections of the
Buddha's Teachings. They are the Discipline (Vinaya Pitaka), the Discourse (Sutta Pitaka), and Ultimate
Doctrine (Abhidhamma Pitaka). During PMs visit, it was agreed to initiate a joint translation project of
"Holy Tripitaka" into Mongolian language.

Q 36.A

Statement 1 is correct. In 2013 the Supreme Court in a landmark judgement ruled that the citizens of
India have the Right to Negative Vote by exercising the 'None of the above' (NOTA) option in EVMs and
ballot papers. The judgement was passed based on a PIL filed by the People's Union for Civil Liberties an
NGO in 2009.
However, it does not mean that if 'NOTA' gets the highest votes then the election will be conducted again,
rather, even in that case the candidate with the highest votes will be treated as the elected candidate.

Q 37.B

The UPSC presents, annually, to the president a report on its performance. The President places this
report before both the Houses of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the cases where the
advice of the Commission was not accepted and the reasons for such non-acceptance.
All such cases of non-acceptance must be approved by the Appointments Committee of the Union
cabinet. An individual ministry or department has no power to reject the advice of the UPSC.
Thus only statement 2 is correct.

Q 38.B

Q 39.C

The Term of AG is not Fixed under constitution and he holds the office during the pleasure of the
President.
He should not defend accused persons in criminal prosecutions without the permission of the Government
of India.
He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
Hence, 'b' is the correct answer.
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body, hence statement 1 is wrong.
It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Hence
statement 2 is wrong.
Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of
laws. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Therefore option C is correct.
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Q 40.C

E- Governance involve the use of ICTs by government agencies for any or all of the following reasons: (a)
Exchange of information with citizens, businesses or other government departments (b) Speedier and
more efficient delivery of public services (c) Improving internal efficiency (d) Reducing costs / increasing
revenue (e) Re-structuring of administrative processes and (f) Improving quality of services. Hence, all
statements are correct.
Hence Statement 1 is wrong. The exchange of information is not limited to citizens and government
depatments, business groups are also involved in the use of ICT for E-governamnce.

Q 41.A

Statement 1 is correct. A public policy must have a clear purpose/objective and must be deliberately
formulated. Statement 2 is incorrect as it does not ONLY include a statements of goals. Statement 3 is
incorrect as it is not always necessary to delineate a time frame for the achievement of goals.

Q 42.B

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the CAG submits three audit reports to the President i.e. Audit report on
Appropriation accounts, audit report on Finance accounts and audit report on Public Undertakings, the
audit reports relating to the accounts of state are submitted to the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments, however in
1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of
accounts of Central Government.
Statement 3 is correct: He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or
Governor e.g. audit of local bodies on the request of Governor.

Q 43.D

Statement 1 is incorrect : While the members of SPSC are appointed by the Governor, they can be
removed only by the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The Constitution authorises Governor to determine the conditions of service of
the Chairman and the members of the commission.

Q 44.B

While the appointment committees of CVC, NHRC and CIC have the leader of opposition in Lok Sabha
in their appointment committees, the chairperson and members of National commission for SCs are
appointed the President.

Q 45.C

NITI Ayog replaces Planning Commission as another executive body. It is not even a statutory body.
PMO is also an executive body set up under an order of cabinet. Cabinet word however finds mention
under Article 352 the Constitution in the context of National Emergency. Also, the constitution
mentioned about the important parliamentary committee like PAC.

Q 46.B
The chairman and members of NHRC are appointed by the President on the recommendations of 6 member
committee consisting of:

Prime Minister
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Union Home Minister
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Leaders of oppositions of Lok Sabha
Leaders of oppositions of Rajya Sabha

Hence 'b' is the correct answer.

9

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Q 47.D

All statements are correct. It has achieved major milestone of destroying 90 per cent of the global
chemical weapons stockpile.

Q 48.B

Statement 1 is correct: The Central Public Service Commission came into being in 1926 as per the
provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.
Statement 2 is correct: As far as the strength of the Commission is concerned, it is left to the President to
decide upon this.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of six
years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish their
offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before the
expiry of their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution.
The President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the
following circumstances: (a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt); (b) If he engages,
during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or (c) If he is, in the
opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for
misbehaviour. However, in this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an
enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the
president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advise
tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. During the course of enquiry by
the Supreme Court, the President can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.

Q 49.D

Option (a) is incorrect. The CAG is an independent body which is not answerable to Parliament.
Option (b) is incorrect. CAG, even though appointed by the President, does not hold office on his
pleasure.
Option (c) is incorrect. The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect to the
maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts.
Option (d) is correct. CAG enjoys the same status as the judge of a SC.

Q 50.A

Statement 1 is correct. Only parliament can establish the tribunals for public service matters. State
Administrative tribunals are established by the Parliament on the request of concerned state.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The chairman and members of the State Administrative Tribunals are appointed
by the President after consultation with the governor of the state.

Q 51.C

Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no need to give reasons for seeking information.

Statement 2 is correct. The first appeal has to be filed with the senior officer of concerned Public
Information Officer within 90 days.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Failing the first appeal, the second appeal can be filed with both Central
Information commission as well as the State Information commission.

Q 52.B

10

In general election to the House of the People, the President call upon the parliamentary constituencies to
elect members for the purpose of constituting a new House through notifications published in the Gazette
of India on such date or dates as may be recommended by the Election Commission, The model code of
conduct comes into force from this instant.
Same is applicable in Vidhan sabha elctions

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Q 53.C

Option 1 is correct. The members and chairman of Finance commission are appointed by the President.
Option 2 is incorrect. The Deputy Chairman of Niti Ayog is appointed by the Cabinet.
Option 3 is correct. The CM of the states are appointed by the respective Governors. But in a UT, they are
appointed by the President.

Q 54.A

Statement 1 is correct, as any elector or candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has
been malpractice during the election.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Election petitions are tried by the High Court of the state involved, and if upheld
can even lead to the restaging of the election in that constituency.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Such jurisdiction (election petition) shall be exercised ordinarily by a single
Judge of the High Court and the Chief Justice shall, from time to time, assign one or more Judges for that
purpose.

Q 55.B

Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by parliament while Tribunals under Article 323B
can be established by both parliament and state legislature. So statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals
may be created. So statement 3 is correct.

Q 56.B

Chairman, UPSC and Chairman, CVC can be removed by the President after a due inquiry by the SC.
The Attorney general holds office during the pleasure of the President.
CAG, CEC and High court judges can be removed in same manner as that of a Supreme Court Judge.
They can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President can issue the removal
order only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such
removal.5 The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a
majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members
of that House present and voting). The grounds of removal are twoproved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Hence 'b' is correct.

Q 57.B

Statement 1 is incorrect: A key madate of 3P India is to take up the task of restructuring PPP contracts.
So, it is not a purely advisory body.
Statement 2 is correct: 3P India " may also evolve PPP models to enable attracting private investments in
sectors like Railways, Airports and also social sectors.This entity could also assist project promoters
(public agencies) in identification, structuring and hand holding for a designated fee."

Q 58.D

A social audit is a process by which the people, final beneficiaries of schemes & program are empowered
to audit scheme such as MGNREGA to encourage local democracy and social transparency of an
organization.
Social audits is conducted jointly by the government and people, especially by those people who are
affected by, or are
The intended beneficiaries of the activity, being audited.
Any resident of a panchayat can do social audit who is part of gram sabha.

Q 59.D

11

It is a report prepared by the United States Trade Representative (USTR) to review the global status of
IPR protection and enforcement. In this report, India has been categorised as "Priority watch list". It
means India does not provide significant IPR protection to the.
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Q 60.A

Statement 1 is correct: The species is considered as "critically endangered" by the IUCN Red data list.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The species is found in areas of India as well as Pakistan. However, Thar Desert
in India, is the only landscape in the world that provides viable breeding population to GIBs.

Q 61.C

Statement 1 is incorrect. The flagship "Namami Gange" Program which integrates the efforts to clean and
protect the Ganga river in a comprehensive manner, and it will cover 12 rivers in 8 states.
Statement 2 is correct. The program would be implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga
(NMCG), and its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program Management Groups (SPMGs).
Statement 3 is correct. It is a fully central sponsored program. The program focuses on involving the
States and grassroot level institutions such as Urban Local Bodies and Panchayati Raj Institutions in
implementation.

Q 62.B

The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees on
Public Undertakings (COPUs).

Q 63.D

Statement 1 is incorrect : The SHRC can enquire into violations of human rights in respect of subjects
mentioned in State as well as Concurrent list.

Statement 2 is incorrect : SHRC has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any
relief including monetary relief to the victim.

Q 64.D
Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below (the list is not exhaustive)

Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.
Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.
Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes.
Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of
rural poor.
Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect as capacity building of the poor and marginalized is not a fundamental
objective of social audit. All other statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Q 65.A
Exemption from disclosure of information:
(a) information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India,
the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to
incitement of an offence;
(b) information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or
the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court;
(c) information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State
Legislature;
(d) information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure
of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied
that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
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(e) information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is
satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;
(f) information received in confidence from foreign Government;
(g) information, the disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person or
identify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security
purposes;
(h) information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of
offenders;
(i) cabinet papers including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries and other
officers:
Hence, for statement 2 and 5 if the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the
disclosure of such information, he/she can. The correct answer is 'a'.
Q 66.C

AFSPA has been removed in Tripura recently. However, it is still being continued in other states of
Assam, Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh.

Q 67.B

Chabahar is located in Iran. It was in news because India is helping Iran in the development of this port.
Palmyra is a Syrian city. The city is a UNESCO designated World Heritage site and home to some of the
world's most magnificent ancient ruins. It was recently occupied by ISIS and many of the heritage sites
were destroyed by ISIS.
Mosul is located in Iraq. It has been occupied by the ISIS.
Hence, 'b' is the correct answer.

Q 68.B

The picturesque Nelong Valley near the India-China border, which was closed for civilians after the 1962
war, has been opened for tourists. The valley, 45 km ahead of the border, falls under the Gangotri
National Park in Uttarkashi district, Uttarakhand.
At 11,600 feet, the valley is a cold desert, home to the snow leopard and the Himalayan blue sheep.

Q 69.A

Statement 1 is incorrect : Attorney general of India has the right to speak and to take part in proceedings
of both the houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he
may be named a member, but without right to vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Attorney general of India is not debarred from private legal practiice and is not
a full time counsel for government of India.

Q 70.B

Smart cities would be chosen through a 'City Challenge Competition', that would evaluate preparedness
and capacity of cities that are sponsored by their state governments. Initially about 20 cities would be
taken up for a Union grant of Rs 100 crores per year for five years. AMRUT cities, with over one lakh
population would be finalised by the union government in consultation with state governments.

Q 71.B

13

Statement 1 is correct : Akash is a medium range mobile surface-to-air missile system.

Statement 2 is incorrect : It can simultaneously engage multiple targets in all weather conditions .
Statement 3 is correct: It uses high-energy solid propellant for the booster and ram-rocket propulsion for
the sustainer phase.
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Q 72.D

The conduct of election for the post of speaker and the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are done by its
member. The conduct of election to the Corporations and Municipalities are done by State Election
Commission.
All doubts and disputes arising out of the elections of President and Vice President are decided by the
Supreme Court, not the Election Commission.
Thus none of the given statements are function of Election Commission of India. Hence 'd' is the correct
answer.

Q 73.C

The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up in March 2007 under the
Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, an Act of Parliament (December 2005). The
Commission's Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms
are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the
UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age
group.
Thus only statement 3 is correct. Hence 'c' is the correct answer.

Q 74.C

Statement 1 is incorrect : The Advocate General of State is appointed by the Governor and holds office
during the pleasure of the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct : The Term of Advocate General of State is not Fixed under Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect : He receives such remuneration as determined by the Governor of a State.

Q 75.B

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chief Election Commissioner and the two Election Commissioners draw
salaries and allowances as per the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners
(Conditions of Service) Rules, 1992. 2nd schedule deals with salary of President, Governors, Chief
Judges, speaker, deputy speaker, chairman, deputy chairman, Judges of High Court and Supreme court,
Comptroller and Auditor General.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any
further appointment by the government.

Q 76.A

Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputes
relating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.
There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House, so that any dispute
relating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court,
according to Art.329 (b). So statement 2 is incorrect.

Q 77.D

14

The primary objective of establishing Mega Food Parks is to provide modern infrastructure facilities for
the food processing along the value chain from farm to market with a cluster based approach based on a
hub and spokes model. It includes creation of infrastructure for primary processing and storage near the
farm in the form of Primary Processing Centres (PPCs) and Collection Centres (CCs) and common
facilities and enabling infrastructure like roads, electricity, water, ETP facilities etc. at Central Processing
Centre (CPC). It t will facilitate forward and backward linkages of the food processing industry. and will
improve the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.

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Q 78.D
Statement 1 is incorrect as it has been envisaged by DeiTy.
Statement 2 is correct. The objectives of 'e-Kranti' are as follows:
i. To redefine NeGP with transformational and outcome oriented e-Governance initiatives.
ii. To enhance the portfolio of citizen centric services.
iii. To ensure optimum usage of core Information & Communication Technology (ICT).
iv. To promote rapid replication and integration of eGov applications.
v. To leverage emerging technologies.
vi. To make use of more agile implementation models.
Statement 3 is correct.
Q 79.C

Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of

Prime minister, Leader of opposition and one union cabinet minister nominated by Prime Minister as
members for a term of five years until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. There is no
any specific qualification for members to be appointed as information commissioners but they should be
public eminence with wide experience and knowledge in law, public service etc. in the eye of the
President.

Q 80.C

In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the
territory of India. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses
of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a
member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a
member of Parliament.
The Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government. He does not fall in the category of
government servants. Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice.
Both statements are correct. Hence 'c' is the right answer.

Q 81.B

The Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others has directed
themection Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos in
consultation with all the recognized political parties. Accordingly, certain guidelines are issued:
1. The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrined
in the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other
provisions of Model Code of Conduct (statement 1 is correct).
2. In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected that
manifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means to
meet the financial requirements for it (statement 2 is correct).

Statement 3 is incorrect: After the election gets over, the power to declare an election null and void is in
the hands of High Courts and not ECI.

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Q 82.B

The term 'Citizen' in the Citizen's Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values are
addressed by the Citizen's Charter and, therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all the
stakeholders, i.e., citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/
Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrations etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Citizen's Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool for
facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with
commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public
Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizenfriendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen's Charters in Central
Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation and
implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.

Q 83.A

All the statements given are correct. Regarding the creation of professional chairs for scholars of
eminence in classical language

The University Grants Commission (UGC) can be requested to create, to start with at least in the Central
Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for Classical Language for scholars of eminence in
Classical Indian Languages.

Q 84.D

In 1971 the slogan GAribi Hatao was coined by Indira Gandhi resonated with the nation and secured a
landslide victory for the Congress Party. Jai Jawan, Jai KIsan, Jai Vigyan was coined by Atal vihari
Vajpayee in1998 after Pokhran tests to underline the importance of knowledge in India's progress. Lal
Bahadur Shastri coined Jai Jawan Jai kisaan in 1965 to enthuse the soldiers to defend the country and
simultaneously cheer farmers to do their best to increase the production of food grains and reduce
dependence on import.
Indira hatao Desh Bachao was coined by Jayaprakash Narayan for the general polls in 1977. The
Emergency had tainted Congress, and ushered in the Janata Party rule.
Thus 'd' is the correct answer.

Q 85.C

Both statements are correct.

The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 does provide for the appointment of CBI director. Accordingly, the
selection committee of the CBI director consists of:
o Prime Minister - chairperson
o Leader of Opposition - member
o Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge recommended by the Chief Justice - member

According to the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013, the PM comes within the jurisdiction of Lokpal but
Lokpal will not inquire the PM if the allegation of corruption is related to international relations, external
and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space.

Q 86.B

16

Statement 1 is correct. Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A consumer is not required to pay any court fee but depending on the type of
court and the claim amount there is a provision of a nominal fee.
Statement 3 is correct. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the
consumer forum on his/her behalf.
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Q 87.C
o

Only the Parliament in the given options is concerned with making of Public Policy. Independent
Constitutional bodies (EC, UPSC etc.) are expected to work independently as per mandate given in the
constitution but they does not have to form any public policy. President and Supreme Court do not have
any power to make public policy.

Q 88.D
World Bank governance indicators based on a long-standing research program of the World Bank, the
Worldwide Governance Indicators, since 1996 to till date captured six key dimensions of governance.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

Voice and accountability

Political stability and lack of violence
Government Effectiveness
Regulatory Quality
Rule of Law
Control of Corruption
Thus "d" is the correct answer.

Q 89.B

Q 90.D

Statement 1 is incorrect. Scheme has been launched by Ministry of Minority Affairs.

Statement 2 is correct. USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for
Development) scheme has been launched to preserve rich heritage of traditional arts/crafts of minorities
and build capacity of traditional artisans/craftsmen.
Statement 3 is correct. The scheme will also establish linkages of traditional arts/crafts with the national
and international market and ensure dignity of labour. The scheme, which will be funded by the Central
Government, will prepare skilled and unskilled artisans and craftsmen to compete with big companies.
14th Indo-French naval exercise Varuna concluded on 2 May 2015 in Goa.
Bilateral naval exercise SIMBEX-15 between India and Singapore commenced on 23 May 2015 in
Singapore.
Exercise Malabar is a trilateral naval exercise involving the United States, Japan, India as permanent
partners.
INDRA is a joint, bi-annual military exercise conducted by India and Russia.

Q 91.C
The New Development Bank (NDB) BRICS group of nations comprising Brazil, Russia, India, China and
South Africa . To begin with, the bank will start operating with $50 billion in initial capital with the five
BRICS contributing $10 billion each. According to the pact, the capital of the bank will be divided equally
among the five participating nations and initially it will focus on infrastructure projects member countries.

17

The headquarters of the bank will be located in Shanghai, China .

Eminent banker Kundapur Vaman Kamath was appointed as first President New Development Bank
(NDB) of BRICS nations.
The Bank shall mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and
other emerging economies and developing countries, complementing the existing efforts of multilateral
and regional financial institutions for global growth and development.
Unlike the World Bank, which assigns votes based on capital share, in the New Development Bank each
participant country will be assigned one vote, and none of the countries will have veto power.

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Q 92.A

In physics, gravitational waves are ripples in the curvature of spacetime which propagate as waves,
travelling outward from the source. Predicted in 1916 by Albert Einstein on the basis of his theory of
general relativity, gravitational waves theoretically transport energy as gravitational radiation. These
waves have not been directly detected so far. LIGO is a large-scale physics experiment aiming to directly
detect gravitational waves. This detector recently underwent upgradation which would make it ten times
more sensitive, which, in turn, would provide a 1000-fold increase in the number of astrophysical
candidates for gravitational wave signals. Hence, statement 3 is wrong. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Hence 'a' is the correct answer.

Q 93.C

Statement 1 is incorrect : The Global Hunger report is released annually by the FAO of UN. Statement 2
is correct: As per the report, India is home to 194.6 million undernourished people, the highest in the
world.
Statement 3 is correct : India has failed to achieve both MDG and World Food Summit targets.

Q 94.C

Statement 1 is correct. Transparency International (TI) is a non-governmental organization that monitors

and publicizes corporate and political corruption in international development. It has published the
Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) since 1995, annually ranking countries "by their perceived levels of
corruption, as determined by expert assessments and opinion surveys.
Statement 2 is correct. According to Transparency International's annual survey 2014, India ranks less
corrupt than China for the first time in 18 years.

Q 95.D
The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National
Commission for Women Act, 1990 ( Act No. 20 of 1990 of Govt. of India) to:

review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women

recommend remedial legislative measures
facilitate redressal of grievances and
advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.

Q 96.D

The Charters are expected to incorporate the following elements :-(i) Vision and Mission Statement; (ii)
Details of business transacted by the organisation; (iii) Details of clients; (iv) Details of services provided
to each client group; (v) Details of grievance redress mechanism and how to access it; and (vi)
Expectations from the clients.

Q 97.D
Dag Hammarskjold Medal:

18

It was Established in December 2000. It is awarded posthumously to members of peacekeeping operations

who lost their lives during service with a peacekeeping operation under the operational control and
authority of the United Nations. It is named after second UN Secretary General and Swedish diplomat
Dag Hammarskjold (In office: from 1953 to 1961).
Two Indian peacekeepers have been chosen posthumously for United Nations Dag Hammarskjold Medal.
They are Lance Naik Nand Ram and Raju Joseph.
Thus all statements are correct. Hence, 'd' is the correct answer.

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Q 98.B

In Hoshangabad a New Bank Note Paper Line unit of 6000 metric ton capacity at Security Paper Mill was
inaugurated by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley.
This plant belongs to Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL), a Miniratna
Category-I CPSE, which is a wholly owned by Union Government. By commissioning this plant, India
will become self-reliant in producing Bank Note Paper for higher denominations. Prior to this, India was
considerably dependent on import of bank note paper for currency of big denominations.

Q 99.D

ISA is an autonomous organisation established under the 1982 United Nation Convention on the Law of
the Sea. It is headquartered at Kingston, Jamaica. Both India and China are members of this
intergovernmental organisation.
It was established to organize, regulate and control all mineral-related activities in the international seabed
area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, an area underlying most of the world's oceans.
Thus all statements are correct. Hence 'd' is the correct answer.

Q 100.D

The Supreme Court of India in Indira Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of India and Ors directed the Govt. of
India, State Governments and Union Territory Administrations to constitute a permanent body in the
nature of a Commission or Tribunal for entertaining, examining and recommending upon requests for
inclusion and complaints of over-inclusion and under-inclusion in the list of OBCs.
Pursuant to the direction of the Supreme Court, the Government of India enacted the National
Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 (for setting up a Commission at National Level viz.
National Commission for Backward Classes as a permanent body. The commission is under Minister of
Social Justice and Empowerment. Thus both statements are correct. Hence 'd' is the correct answer.

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