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OCET-2012

Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.
Words

In Figures

In Words

In

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biochemistry


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry/A
1.

2.

Which of the following amino acids has not a charged side chain at physiologic pH ?
(A) Aspartic acid

(B) Lysine

(C) Glutamic acid

(D) Asparagine

Glutamine has :
(A) three titratable groups
(B) an amide group
(C) an acidic amino acid
(D) a side chain that cannot form hydrogen bonds in proteins

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

The GSH has following amino acids :


(A) Gln-Cys-Leu

(B) Glu-Cys-Gly

(C) Asp-Ala-Gly

(D) Glu-Asp-Gly

Edman degradation uses which reagent for sequencing a polypeptide ?


(A) Fluorotrinitrobenzene

(B) Sanger's reagent

(C) Phenylisothiocyanate

(D) Dansyl chloride

Which one is odd one out ?


(A) Eadie-Hofstee

(B) Shine-Dalgarno

(C) Lineweaver-Burk

(D) Michaelis-Menten

Which of the following is not part of protein sequencing ?


(A) Edman degradation

(B) Amadori rearrangements

(C) HPLC

(D) FAB-MS

A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme :


(A) increases Km without affecting Vm

(B) decreases Km without affecting Vm

(C) increases Vm without affecting Km

(D) decreases Vm without affecting Km

Restriction endonucleases as per EC numbering belong to class :


(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 6

Large soluble proteins with many disulfide linked chains released into serum are :
(A) Albumins

(B) Haemoglobin

(C) Collagen

(D) IgG

10. Which of the following is most abundant protein secreted by fibroblasts ?


(A) Keratin

(B) Collagen

(C) IgG

(D) Alumin

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

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11. What is the maximum insert size (Kb) of bacterial Plasmid ?


(A) 612

(B) 2540

(C) 45100

(D) 1550

12. Fructosuria is the result of :


(A) a deficiency of phosphofructokinase

(B) a deficiency of liver fructokinase

(C) elevated levels of liver aldolase B

(D) a deficiency of liver hexokinase

13. Which one of the following is the major end product of protein-Nitrogen metabolism ?
(A) Glycine

(B) Uric acid

(C) Urea

(D) Arginine

14. A hereditary childhood disease, galactosemia, is characterized by a :


(A) high level of liver UDP-galactose
(B) lack of glucose 1-phosphate
(C) very low galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase activity in liver
(D) lack of galactokinase
15. Biosynthesis of glucuronic acid requires the :
(A) oxidation of UDP-glucose

(B) oxidation of glucose 6-phosphate

(C) oxidation of 6-phosphogluconate

(D) reduction of sorbitol

16. In Tay-Sachs disease lead to accumulation of GM2 due to :


(A) Hexosaminidase

(B) Galactosidase

(C) Sulfatase

(D) Neuranindase

17. Muscle glycogen cannot contribute directly to blood glucose levels because :
(A) muscle glycogen cannot be converted to glucose 6-phosphate
(B) muscle lacks glucose 6-phosphate phosphatase
(C) muscle contains no glucokinase
(D) muscle contains no glycogen phosphorylase
18. In the muscle, a sudden elevation of the Ca++ concentration will cause :
(A) activation of cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase
(B) dissociation of cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase into catalytic and regulatory subunits
(C) conversion of glycogen phosphorylase b to phosphorylase a
(D) conversion of cyclic AMP to AMP by phosphodiesterase

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

19. Mucopolysaccharidoses are inherited storage diseases. They are caused by :


(A) an increased rate of synthesis of proteoglycans
(B) the synthesis of polysaccharides with an altered structure
(C) defects in the degradation of proteoglycans
(D) the synthesis of abnormally small amounts of protein cores
20. Which one of the following is NOT a common feature of the carbohydrate structure in Nlinked and O-linked glycoproteins ?
(A) They may contain N-acetylneuraminic acid
(B) They may contain glucose
(C) Their degradation in vivo involves action of lysosomal enzymes
(D) Their synthesis involves participation of a lipid carrier
21. An uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation such as dinitrophenol :
(A) inhibits respiration and ATP synthesis
(B) allows electron transport to proceed without ATP synthesis
(C) inhibits respiration without impairment of ATP synthesis
(D) specifically inhibits cytochrome b
22. The rate of glycolysis is controlled in part by inhibition of :
(A) NADH reductase

(B) phosphofructokinase by citrate

(C) phosphofructokinase II

(D) glucokinase by ATP

23. In pyruvate kinase deficiency, hemolysis of red cells occurs primarily because of
increased intracellular levels of :
(A) lactate

(B) pyruvate

(C) the ratio of ADP to ATP

(D) 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

24. Which one of the following reactions is unique to gluconeogenesis ?


(A) Lactate pyruvate
(B) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) pyruvate
(C) Oxaloacetatephosphoenolypyruvate
(D) Glucose 6-phosphatefructose 6-phosphate
25. Which of the following enzymic activities would you expect to be decreased in thiamine
deficiency ?
(A) Pyruvate carboxylase

(B) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

(C) Fumarase

(D) -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

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26. Which is the major phospholipid of eukaryotic cell membranes ?


(A) Cardiolipin

(B) Phosphatidylcholine

(C) Cholesterol

(D) Shingolipids

27. Substances that play a direct role in the synthesis of palmitate by the fatty acid
synthetase complex include :
(A) covalently bound phosphopantetheine
(B) covalently bound lipoic acid
(C) malonyl CoA

(D) both (A) and (C)

28. In humans, carnitine :


(A) stimulates the activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase
(B) is important for fatty acid oxidation
(C) inhibits the formation of triacylglycerol
(D) none of these
29. In the major pathway by which liver produces ketone bodies, the immediate precursor of
acetoacetate is :
(A) acetoacetyl CoA

(B) -hydroxybutyrate

(C) 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA

(D) two molecules of acetyl CoA

30. Hydrolysis of a mixture of phosphoglycerides will not yield which of the following
compounds ?
(A) Choline
(C) Phosphate

(B) Glycerol
(D) Tryptophan

31. To be defined as a ganglioside, a lipid substance isolated from nerve tissue must
contain in its structure :
(A) N-acetylneuraminic acid (NANA) hexoses, sphingosine, long chain fatty acids
(B) NANA, a hexose, a fatty acid, sphingosine, phosphorylcholine
(C) NANA, sphingosine, ethanolamine
(D) All of the above
32. Animals fed a high cholesterol diet exhibit decreased cholesterol synthesis by liver
because of the inhibition of which one of the following enzymes ?
(A) 3-Hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl CoA (HMG CoA) synthetase
(B) HMG CoA reductase
(C) Mevalonate kinase
(D) HMG CoA lyase
33. The lipoprotein particles that have the highest percent concentration of triacylglycerol
are :
(A) the chylomicrons
(B) the VLDL
(C) the LDL
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

(D) the HDL


6

34. Chymotrypsin acts :


(A) in the stomach on peptide bonds formed by the amino acid glycine
(B) in the intestinal mucosa on carboxy-terminal amino acids in proteins and peptides
(C) in the intestine on peptide bonds formed by the amino acids arginine or aspartate
(D) in the intestine on peptide bonds formed by amino acids with aromatic side-chains
35. -Aminolevulinic acid synthase activity :
(A) is frequently increased in individuals treated with drugs, such as the barbiturate phenobarbital
(B) catalyses a rate-limiting reaction in porphyrin biosynthesis
(C) requires the cofactor pyridoxal phosphate
(D) all of the above
36. The catabolism of heme :
(A) occurs in the cells of the reticuloendothelial system
(B) involves the oxidative cleavage of the porphyrin ring
(C) results in the liberation of carbon monoxide
(D) all of the above
37. Insulin does all of the following EXCEPT :
(A) enhance glucose transport into muscles
(B) enhance glycogen formation of liver
(C) decrease lipolysis in adipose tissue
(D) enhance gluconeogenesis in liver
38. Ingestion of a metal consisting exclusively of protein would result in which of the
following ?
(A) An increased release of insulin
(B) Hypoglycemia
(C) A decreased release of glucagon
(D) Ketoacidosis caused by the metabolism of ketogenic amino acids
39. Increased formation of ketone bodies during starvation is due to :
(A) mobilization of high-density lipoproteins
(B) formation of acetyl CoA in amounts that exceed the oxidative capacity of the liver
(C) decreased levels of free fatty acids in the liver
(D) a decreased mobilization of triacylglycerols from adipose tissue
40. The abbreviation "W" stands for which of the following amino acids ?
(A) Proline

(B) Phenylalanine

(C) Tyrosine

(D) Tryptophan

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

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41. The coenzyme required in oxidative decarboxylation is :


(A) biotin
(C) ascorbic acid

(B) vitamin B12


(D) thiamine pyrophosphate

42. Which of the following reactions involves the participation of thiamine ?


(A) Lactatepyruvate
(B) -ketoglutaratesuccinyl CoA
(C) Acetyl CoAmalonyl CoA
(D) none of the above
43. Vitamin D :
(A) increases absorption of calcium from the intestine
(B) is not required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight
(C) is not really a vitamin because the active form, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol can be
synthesized in humans
(D) all of the above
44. -Tocopherol :
(A) functions primarily as an antioxidant
(B) deficiency is commonly found in adults
(C) requirements increase with the amount of polyunsaturated fatty acids in the diet
(D) both (A) and (C)
45. Complete acid hydrolysis of nucleic acids yields all of the following EXCEPT :
(A) phosphoric acid
(B) purines
(C) pentoses

(D) adenosine

46. Histones :
(A) are basic protein rich in lysine or arginine, or both
(B) are bound covalently to DNA
(C) have relatively high molecular weights (2,00,000 daltons or higher)
(D) are identical to protamines
47. The formation of uric acid from purines is catalysed by :
(A) adenylate deaminase

(B) uricase

(C) urease

(D) xanthine oxidase

48. The committed step in pyrimidine biosynthesis :


(A) provides a classic example of positive feedback control
(B) results in the formation of dihydroorotic acid
(C) is the formation of N-carbamoylaspartic acid
(D) is catalysed by orotate decarboxylase
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

49. Uric acid is NOT a breakdown product of :


(A) AMP

(B) IMP

(C) GMP

(D) CMP

50. During DNA replication, the sequence 5'-TpApGpAp-3' would produce which of the
following complementary structures ?
(A) 5'-TpCpTpAp-3'

(B) 5'-ApTpCpTp-3'

(C) 5'-UpCpUpAp-3'

(D) 5'-GpCpUpAp-3'

51. One class of RNA characteristically contains methylated purines and pyrimidines. This
RNA is :
(A) tRNA

(B) mRNA

(C) rRNA

(D) 16 S RNA

52. What is the maximum number of different amino acids in a polypeptide chain coded by
the synthetic polyribonucleotide (UCAG) 5 ?
(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

53. The eukaryotic mRNA has a poly A tail comprising of :


(A) 50250

(B) 200250

(C) 50500

(D) 250380

54. Place the following in the chronological order of function : cDNA : gene : mRNA :
transcript :
(A) 2, 1, 3, 4

(B) 4, 1, 3, 2

(C) 4, 3, 2, 1

(D) 1, 2, 2, 3, 4

55. Which of the following could not be classified as a lipid ?


(A) steroids

(B) fats and oils

(C) waxes

(D) photosynthetic pigments

56. The role played by ATP in biochemical reactions is that of :


(A) a reducing agent

(B) an energy-donor substance

(C) a coenzyme

(D) an energy donor substance or a coenzyme

57. DNA, RNA and ATP are all composed of :


(A) nucleotides

(B) purines

(C) nucleic acids

(D) pentose acids

58. In which region of a mitochondria are enzymes of the citric acid cycle located ?
(A) outer membrane

(B) inner membrane

(C) intermembrane space

(D) matrix

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

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59. Iron containing compounds that act as hydrogen acceptors in the respiratory chain are :
(A) flavoproteins

(B) dehydrogenases

(C) cytochromes

(D) oxidases

60. Which of these hormones inhibits FSH production in a female mammal ?


(A) estrogen

(B) adrenalin

(C) thyroxine

(D) testosterone

61. Acetylcholine is a :
(A) Neurotransmitter

(B) B-vitamin

(C) Enzyme

(D) Protein

62. Which of the following contains iodine ?


(A) Insulin

(B) Thyroxine

(C) Oxytocin

(D) Adrenalin

63. Intact duplex DNA is a substrate for :


(A) DNA pol I

(B) DNA pol III

(C) RNA polymerase

(D) DNA pol IV

64. Retinoic acid is a derivative of which Vitamin ?


(A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin D

(C) Vitamin E

(D) Vitamin K

65. Which of the following reactions uses all the phosphate of ATP ?
(A) formation of S-Adenosyl methionine

(B) formation of TPP

(C) formation of PEP from pyruvate

(D) none of these

66. The pH of stacking and running gel in SDS-PAGE respectively, are :


(A) 6.8 and 6.8

(B) 8.8 and 6.8

(C) 6.8 and 8.8

(D) 8.8 and 8.8

67. Macrocystic anemia can result from the deficiency of :


(A) folic acid

(B) vitamin B2

(C) inositol

(D) vitamin B12

68. Details of the citric acid cycle were worked out by the use of :
(A) X-ray crystallography

(B) radioactive carbon compounds

(C) ultracentrifugation

(D) electron microscopy

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

10

69. Which one of the following types of bonds or interactions is least important in determining
the three-dimensional folding of most proteins ?
(A) Hydrogen bonds

(B) Electrostatic bonds

(C) Hydrophobic interactions

(D) Ester bonds

70. The Michaelis constant, Km is :


(A) numerically equal to Vm
(B) dependent on the enzyme concentration
(C) independent of pH
(D) numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half-maximal velocity
71. Which one of the following statements is correct about trehalose ?
(A) It has glucose and fructose
(B) It is a reducing sugar
(C) It is hydrolyzed by -galactosidase to glucose
(D) It is a nonreducing sugar
72. The pka value of acetic acid is :
(A) 3.7

(B) 5.6

(C) 7.5

(D) 4.7

73. The pH of blood is :


(A) 7.0

(B) 6.8

(C) 7.4

(D) 7.6

74. Under physiological conditions, each of the following contains a high energy phosphate
group EXCEPT :
(A) ATP

(B) ADP

(C) AMP

(D) Phosphoenolpyruvate

75. DNA fragments from 0.5-20 Kb can be resolved on agarose gel :


(A) 0.2%

(B) 1.5%

(C) 0.7%

(D) 2.0%

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

11

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ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biochemistry-A/FRH-41377

12

72

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.
Words

In Figures

In Words

In

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)/A


1.

Which parts of amino acids are involved in peptide bonds ?


(A) The carboxyl group on one amino acid and the side chain on the other
(B) The carboxyl group on both amino acids
(C) The amino group on one amino acid and the carboxyl group on the other
(D) The amino group on both amino acids

2.

What provides the information necessary to specify the three-dimensional shape of a


protein ?
(A) The protein's peptide bonds
(B) The protein's interactions with other polypeptides
(C) The protein's amino acid sequence
(D) The protein's interaction with molecular chaperones

3.

4.

The biological activity of a protein is determined by its :


(A) peptide bonds

(B) amino acid sequence

(C) ability to form helices

(D) ability to form sheets

Those portions of a transmembrane protein that cross the lipid bilayer usually consist of
which structures ?
(A) A sheet with mostly polar side chains
(B) A sheet with mostly nonpolar side chains
(C) An helix with mostly polar side chains
(D) An helix with mostly nonpolar side chains

5.

6.

7.

What is the name for a modular unit from which many larger proteins are made ?
(A) Protein domain

(B) helix

(C) Globular domain

(D) sheet

How many identical binding sites exist on an antibody ?


(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

What determines the specificity of an antibody for its antigen ?


(A) The amino acid loops in its variable domain
(B) The amino acid loops in its constant domain
(C) Its Y-shaped structure
(D) The concentration of antibodies and antigens

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

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8.

9.

Which set of the following amino acids are all polar ?


(A) W K Q

(B) H M N

(C) T N Y

(D) M T C

Which of the following can best be related to tertiary protein structure ?


(A) helix

(B) Greek key

(C) Myoglobin

(D) Hemoglobin

10. Edman reagent cleaves polypeptides :


(A) after M residues

(B) after positively charged residues

(C) at the C-terminus

(D) at the N-terminus

11. What type of glycosidic bond is present in lactose ?


(A) (12)

(B) (12)

(C) (14)

(D) (14)

12. What buffer system is predominantly used in the blood ?


(A) phosphate

(B) bicarbonate

(C) citrate

(D) tris

13. The purity of an enzyme at various stages of purification is best measured by :


(A) Total protein

(B) Total enzyme activity

(C) Specific activity of the enzyme

(D) Percent recovery of the enzyme

14. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation :


(A) allows the graphic determination of the molecular weight of an acid from its pH alone
(B) employs the same value for pKa for all weak acids
(C) is equally useful with solutions of acetic acid and hydrochloric acid
(D) relates the pH of a solution to the pKa and the concentrations of acid and conjugate base
15. The personal-computer industry was started by :
(A) IBM

(B) Apple

(C) COMPAQ

(D) HCL

16. What is the name given to the molecular-scale computer ?


(A) Femto computer

(B) Nano computer

(C) Super computer

(D) Micro computer

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

17. A computer has a 1024 K memory. What does the letter K stand for ?
(A) Kilometre

(B) Thousand

(C) 1024

(D) MB

18. Which memory stores the values of variables ?


(A) SAM

(B) ROM

(C) RAM

(D) PROM

19. Which of the following keyboards is the fastest ?


(A) Dvorak

(B) QWERTY

(C) Alphanumeric

(D) Numeric

20. A sequence of one or more character is :


(A) Group

(B) Block

(C) Field

(D) String

21. The operating system manages :


(A) Memory

(B) Disks and I/O devices

(C) Processor

(D) All of the above

22. Which of the following program is not a utility ?


(A) Debugger

(B) Editor

(C) Spooler

(D) All of the above

23. Which of the following would be correct units for the rate constant of a reaction that is
second order overall ?
(A) s1

(B) mol1 dm3 s1

(C) mol cm3 s1

(D) mol2 dm6 s1

24. Predict the geometry of a molecule in which the bonding may be described using the
valence bond model as being made up of sp3 hybrid orbitals on the central atom :
(A) trigonal bipyramedal

(B) square planar

(C) tetrahedral

(D) octahedral

25. How many normal modes of vibrational are possible for a benzene molecule ?
(A) 6

(B) 30

(C) 12

(D) 31

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

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26. NMR is observed in what region of the electromagnetic spectrum ?


(A) Radiofrequency region

(B) Microwave region

(C) IR region

(D) Gamma ray region

27. What is the difference between 2-chloropentane and 3-chloropentane ?


(A) the number of carbon atoms in the molecule
(B) the number of chlorine atoms in the molecule
(C) the position of the chlorine atom in the molecule
(D) the geometry of the carbon chain
28. Which bonds are formed by a carbon atom with sp2 hybridization ?
(A) 4 bonds

(B) 2 and 2 bonds

(C) 1 and 3 bonds

(D) 4 bonds

29. Which technique can be used to determine the number of components in a plant
pigment ?
(A) Calorimetry

(B) Chromatography

(C) Colorimetry

(D) Gravimetry

30. Which salt is colorless ?


(A) KMnO4

(B) Na2CrO4

(C) CoCl2

(D) BaSO4

31. Which property of electromagnetic radiation is inversely related ?


(A) energy and wavelength

(B) amplitude and frequency

(C) energy and frequency

(D) wavelength and amplitude

32. Which functional group is not found in proteins ?


(A) alcohol

(B) amide

(C) amine

(D) aldehyde

33. What happens to the pH of a buffer solution when it is diluted by a factor of 10 ?


(A) the buffer pH decreases by 1 unit
(B) the buffer pH increases by 1 unit
(C) the pH does not change appreciably
(D) the change in pH depends on the buffer used

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

34. The value of x and y that satisfy the following equations :


y = 3x + 5
y = 2x 10
(A) x = 3, y = 14

(B) x = 3 y = 4

(C) x = 3 y = 16

(D) x = 5 y = 20

35. Factorise 100 y2 :


(A) (10 y) (10 + y)

(B) (50 y) (2 + y)

(C) (10 y)2

(D) (10 + y) (10 + y)

36. Select the best definition of a Sigmoidal graph :


(A) A graph where two linear regions meet
(B) A graph which has an 'S' shape
(C) A graph in which data points lie on a straight line
(D) A graph in which data points lie on a curve that never reaches an axis but appears to skim
alongside it
37. The gradient of a straight line which passes through (3, 2) and (7, 18) is :
(A) 5

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 2

38. Simplify the expression : l n1


(A) e

(B) 10

(C) 1

(D) 0

39. Accuray relates to :


(A) the spread of results measured for a particular data point
(B) the difference between measured value and true value
(C) a Gaussian distribution (Gaussian)
(D) random errors
40. Find the mode of the following data series :
Temperature (in K) 439, 437, 441, 438, 437, 436, 441, 440, 437, 442, 440
(A) 441 K

(B) 439 K

(C) 437 K

(D) 440 K

41. Calculate the minimum error associated with using 100 cm3 volumetric flask that is
accurate to within 0.1 cm3 .
(A) 0.001

(B) 0.0005

(C) 0.01

(D) 0.005

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

[Turn over

42. A temperature is measured as 325 4 K. Calculate the signal to noise ratio and state
whether the reading is usable :
(A) The signal to noise ratio is 4 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
(B) The signal to noise ratio is 325 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
(C) The signal to noise ratio is 0.003 : 1 which means that the reading is too unreliable to use
(D) The signal to noise ratio is 81 : 1 which means that the reading is usable
43. What is the name of the system which deals with the running of the actual computer and
not with the programming table ?
(A) Operating system

(B) Systems program

(C) Object program

(D) Source program

44. What is the innate error in the equilibrium constant, K, given that the temperature is
constant (249 K) and the free energy, G, is 3.14 kJ/mol ? (
G = RT l nK )
(A) = 4.8 105

(B) = 1.1 105

(C) = 2.2 104

(D) = 3.2 104

45. Labeling a stretch of DNA according to its functions is called :


(A) recombinant DNA technology

(B) functional analysis

(C) annotation

(D) screening

46. How much of the human genome is actual protein-encoding genes ?


(A) 1%

(B) 3%

(C) 95%

(D) 20%

47. What step of DNA is skipped during shotgun sequencing ?


(A) Computer analysis

(B) Cloning of DNA fragment

(C) Primer reactions

(D) Mapping step

48. The most widely scoring matrices used for protein sequence alignments (BLOSUM) is
based on :
(A) Genetic code
(B) Physico-chemical properties
(C) Simple identity
(D) Statistics of observed substitutions in "safe" multiple sequence alignments
49. Normalization is used to reduce errors in data. What kind of errors can be reduced by
normalization ?
(A) Systematic

(B) Random

(C) Systematic and Random

(D) Gaussian

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

50. What is a position-specific scoring matrix ?


(A) A similarity matrix calculated specifically for peptides at the ends of proteins
(B) A similarity matrix calculated from a specific subset of alignments representing a sequence
motif
(C) A similarity matrix which incorporates measures of positional periodicities in peptide
sequences
(D) A matrix for comparing sequences according to their position in phylogenetic tree
51. If the enthalpy change for a reaction is zero, Go is equal to :
(A) Ho

(B) l n K eq

(C) TSo

(D) TSo

52. The enzyme, DNA polymerase can work only in :


(A) 3'5' direction

(B) 5'3' direction

(C) Both the direction

(D) 5'5' direction

53. The ratio of purines and pyrimidines in mRNA is not 1 : 1 because the nitrogenous bases
are :
(A) unpaired

(B) paired

(C) paired only in loops

(D) paired in stems

54. The most common plasmid vector used in genetic engineering is :


(A) PBR 328

(B) PBR 322

(C) PBR 325

(D) PBR 330

55. Bt cotton is :
(A) Cloned plant

(B) Transgenic plant

(C) Hybrid plant

(D) Mutated plant

56. Three dimensional structure of tRNA is :


(A) L-shaped

(B) Clover leaf like

(C) X-shaped

(D) Y-shaped

57. A riboside is :
(A) Base + phosphate

(B) Ribose + phosphate

(C) Ribose + phosphate + base

(D) Ribose + base

58. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of
nucleosides present in the segment is :
(A) 480

(B) 240

(C) 120

(D) 60

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

[Turn over

59. DNA replication is :


(A) conservative and discontinuous

(B) semiconservative and semidiscontinuous

(C) semiconservative and discontinuous

(D) conservative

60. Initiation codon of protein synthesis in eucaryotes is :


(A) GUA

(B) GCA

(C) CCA

(D) AUG

61. Swiss-Prot was established in :


(A) 1980

(B) 1964

(C) 1984

(D) 2006

62. Within NCBI the SNP is :


(A) a database of structural nucleotide and protein
(B) a database of single nucleotide polymorphism
(C) a database for major histo-compatibility complex
(D) none of these
63. The molecular viewer used for mutation in protein sequence is :
(A) Deepview

(B) PyMol

(C) Cn3D

(D) RasMol

64. Motif is a .........


(A) super secondary structure

(B) tertiary structure

(C) secondary structure

(D) primary structure

65. The colour of phosphorus atom in Rasmol is :


(A) white

(B) yellow

(C) red

(D) orange

66. The percentage of safe zone in homology modelling is :


(A) 40%

(B) 30%

(C) 25%

(D) 20%

67. The first protein to be sequenced is :


(A) haemoglobin

(B) tannin

(C) insulin

(D) myosin

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

10

68. Myoglobin and subunits of hemoglobin have :


(A) very different primary and tertiary structure
(B) very similar primary and tertiary structure
(C) very similar primary structures but different tertiary structures
(D) very similar tertiary structures, but different primary structures
69. Which of the following six-membered ring compounds has the most planar structure ?
(A) Glucose

(B) Cytosine

(C) Cyclohexane

(D) Inositol

70. You hold a rubber ball in your hand. The Newton's third law companion force to the force
of gravity on the ball is the force exerted by the :
(A) ball on the earth

(B) ball on the hand

(C) hand on the ball

(D) earth on the ball

71. De Broglie hypothesized that the linear momentum and wavelength of a free massive
particle are related by which of the following constants ?
(A) Planck's constant

(B) Boltzmann constant

(C) The Rydberg constant

(D) Avogadro's number

72. An electron has total energy equal to four times its rest energy. The momentum of the
electron is :

2 mc

(A) mc

(B)

(C)

(D) 4 mc

15 mc

73. In the diamond structure of elemental carbon, the nearest neighbours of each C atom lie
at the corners of a :
(A) square

(B) hexagon

(C) cube

(D) tetrahedron

74. The root mean square speed of molecules of mass 'm' in an ideal gas at temperature T is :
(A)

2 kT / m

(C) 0

(B)

3 kT / m

(D) kT/m

75. The average translational energy of any ideal gas depends only on :
(A) the absolute temperature

(B) the mass of the gas

(C) the pressure of the gas

(D) whether the gas is monatomic or diatomic

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

11

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ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-(Bioinformatics)-A/FRH-41363

12

72

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Which of the following amino acids can exist as diastereomers ?


(A) isoleucine and leucine

(B) isoleucine and valine

(C) threonine and serine

(D) isoleucine and threonine

Non-polar amino acid residues are found mostly :


(A) in the core of proteins

(B) on the surface of the proteins

(C) on alpha helices

(D) in non specific region

Glyceraldehyde phosphate is oxidized during glycolysis. What happens to the hydrogen


atom and the electron that are removed during oxidation ?
(A) they oxidize NAD+

(B) they reduce NAD+

(C) they are transferred to pyruvic acid

(D) they are eliminated in the form of methane

In the electron transport system, the final acceptor of electrons is :


(A) cytochrome b

(B) cytochrome a3

(C) oxygen

(D) ubiquinone

At the end of the Kerb's citric acid cycle, most of the energy removed from the glucose
molecule has been transferred to :
(A) NADH and FADH2

(B) ATP

(C) Oxaloacetic acid

(D) Citric acid

The high solubility of amino acids in water is due to :


(A) presence of side chain

(B) dipolar ion structure

(C) unipolarity

(D) hydrophilic nature of amino group

The rate of migration of a protein in an SDS-Polyacrylamide gel is not influenced by :


(A) size of the protein

(B) charge of the protein

(C) pore size of the gel

(D) strength of the electric field

A solution of a mixture of proteins is loaded onto a gel filtration column that has a size
exclusion limit of 75,000 Da. The proteins have the following MW in Daltons A : 11,237
B : 66,000; C:42,000; D:90,000. The proteins will elute from the column in the following
order :
(A) A, B, C, D

(B) D, B, C, A

(C) A, C, B, D

(D) D, A, B, C

A protein structure on eukaryotic chromosomes to which spindle fibers (microtubules)


bind is :
(A) telomere

(B) centrosome

(C) kinetochore

(D) centromere

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

[Turn over

10. What is the chemical basis of gene imprinting ?


(A) phosphorylation of DNA

(B) methylation of DNA

(C) oxidation of DNA

(D) glycosylation of DNA

11. The tryptophan biosynthetic operon is an example of :


(A) a positively controlled repressible operon

(B) negatively controlled inducible operon

(C) positively controlled inducible operon

(D) negatively controlled repressible operon

12. In the pentose phosphate pathway :


(A) Only the C-1 carbon of glucose are oxidized to CO2
(B) All the carbons of glucose are oxidized to CO2
(C) No decarboxylation occurs
(D) C-4 and C-5 of glucose is oxidized to CO2
13. F1F0ATPase in chloroplasts is located on the :
(A) inner chloroplast membrane with F1 facing the stroma
(B) inner chloroplast membrane with F1 facing the inner-membrane space
(C) thylakoid membrane with F1 facing the stroma
(D) thylakoid membrane with F1 facing the thylakoid lumen
14. In C4 plants, phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase is located in :
(A) cytosol

(B) chloroplast

(C) peroxisome

(D) mitochondrion

15. Although T-cell and B-cell membranes contain some shared receptors, the receptor
specific for B-cell membrane is :
(A) pokeweed mitogen

(B) phyto hemagglutinin

(C) concanavalin A

(D) sheep red blood cells

16. The T-cell receptor can bind to antigenic peptides :


(A) only in the free form

(B) only when loaded on to MHC molecules

(C) only when bound to hapten

(D) only when bound by antibody

17. Abzymes are :


(A) antibodies that have catalytic activities
(B) enzymes that are highly specific like antibodies
(C) also referred to as zymogens
(D) enzymes that hydrolyze antibodies
18. At what [S] is the velocity (V0) of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is 25% of the Vmax ?
(A) 3/4 Km

(B) 4 Km

(C) 1/3 Km

(D) 1/4 Km

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

19. The reason for the presence of histidine at the active site of enzymes is :
(A) it is the only polar residue with a five-membered ring at the side chain
(B) it can form salt bridges
(C) its pKa is close to 7
(D) it can interact with the substrates better than any other residue
20. Three-dimensional images of the surface of the cells and tissues could be visualized
through :
(A) transmission electron microscope
(B) scanning electron microscope
(C) compound microscope
(D) florescence microscope
21. A mixture of three peptides A, B and C is loaded in a C18 reverse phase chromatography
column. A mixture of water and acetonitrile is used as the solvent with increased
concentration of the latter in a gradient mode. If the hydrophobicities of the peptides are
in the order A < B < C, the order in which they will elute from the column would be :
(A) A followed by B followed by C
(B) B followed by C followed by A
(C) C followed by B followed by A
(D) A followed by C followed by B
22. Fluorescence microscopy is based on the ability of certain molecules to :
(A) absorb light of a constant wavelength
(B) absorb light of many different wavelengths
(C) absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a longer wavelength
(D) absorb light of a given wavelength and then emit light of a shorter wavelength
23. Who discovered phagocytosis ?
(A) I.P. Semmeleveis
(B) John Needham
(C) Elie Metchnikoff
(D) Jules Bordet
24. World Intellectual Property Rights day is celebrated on :
(A) April 26
(B) June 26
(C) October 26
(D) December 28
25. Which one of the following does not belong to Group D enterococci ?
(A) Streptococcus faecalis
(B) Streptococcus pyogenes
(C) Streptococcus faecium
(D) Streptococcus durans
26. In bacteria, the genes that code for the enzymes of a metabolic pathway are usually
arranged consecutively to form a functional unit called :
(A) an induction system
(B) an end-product repression system
(C) an operon
(D) a constitutive enzyme system
27. Which of the following is an epigenetic factor for gene expression in eukaryotes ?
(A) recombination
(B) DNA methylation
(C) protein phosphorylation
(D) DNA protein interaction
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

[Turn over

28. The yeast two-hybrid system is designed to identify which of the following ?
(A) All the components of a multiprotein complex
(B) Human proteins that are required for binding RNA polymerase
(C) Two proteins that directly interact with one another
(D) Two proteins that are involved in the same metabolic pathway
29. siRNA :
(A) forms complex in the spliceosome
(B) recruits histone acetyl transferases to the nucleus
(C) forms a complex with RISC proteins to inhibit translation or cause degradation of
complementary mRNA
(D) is not transmitted to daughter cells after cell division
30. Pinta, a skin disease is caused by :
(A) Treponema carateum
(B) Francisella tularensis
(C) Clostridium tetani
(D) Pseudomonas mallei
31. Cytokines are not :
(A) able to induce increased blood vessel permeability
(B) antigen-specific
(C) made in response to bacterial antigens
(D) signals from one cell that affects the behavior of another cell
32. Type I hypersensitivity is known as :
(A) anaphylaxis
(B) agglutination
(C) the transfusion reaction
(D) contact hypersensitivity
33. Which of the following disease is not an autoimmune disease ?
(A) rheumatoid arthritis
(B) lupus erythematosis
(C) bovine spongiform encephalitis
(D) grave's disease
34. Gell and Coombs classified hypersensitivity into 4 types. IgE mediated hypersensitivity
belongs to :
(A) Type I
(B) Type II
(C) Type III
(D) Type IV
35. What is the enzyme called that retroviruses carry to convert their RNA genome into a
DNA genome ?
(A) RNA dependent RNA-polymerase
(B) replicase
(C) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(D) reverse transcriptase
36. Transcription in HIV is initiated from :
(A) pol
(B) env
(C) gag
(D) left LTR
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

37. What type of DNA-binding domains do "true" homeoproteins have ?


(A) helix-turn-helix
(B) helix-zinc finger
(C) helix-leucine zippers
(D) -ribbon
38. The first successful attempt to test the theory that precursors of biomacromolecules
could be abiotically synthesized under presumed primitive earth conditions was made by :
(A) Darwin
(B) Huxley
(C) Miller
(D) Oparin
39. In the laboratory, the kind of mRNA triplet oligomer that occurs most readily by
nonenzymatic reactions is (R = purine, Y= pyrimidine)
(A) RRR
(B) YRY
(C) YYY
(D) YYR
40. Mycobacterial cell wall is the immune system booster present in :
(A) alum
(B) freunds incomplete adjuvant
(C) freunds complete adjuvant
(D) lectin
41. You place a cell in a solution. Over a period of time, you notice that the cell shrinks, as if
it is losing water. Which of the following seems likely ?
(A) the solution has more dissolved solutes than the cell does
(B) the solution is an acid
(C) the solution is strong buffer
(D) the solution has fewer dissolved solutes than the cell does
42. Although abscisic acid is not involved in the formation of the abscission layer, it does
have many roles in the life of plants. Which of the following is a function of abscisic acid ?
P. in times of water stress, it causes the stomata to close
Q. it promotes tolerance to stress
R. it induces leaf and flower senescence
S. it induces and maintains the dormancy of seeds
(A) P, Q
(B) R, S
(C) P, R, S
(D) P, Q, R, S
43. Environmental signals influence the distribution of an auxin in a plant by :
(A) decreasing the cell's sensitivity to the auxin
(B) causing auxin to migrate to the lighted portion
(C) destroying the auxin
(D) causing auxin to migrate into the shaded portion
44. The accumulation of one of the following causes seed dormancy :
(A) abscisic acid

(B) cytokinin

(C) ethylene

(D) gibberellin

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

[Turn over

45. The coenzyme involved in oxidative decarboxylation is :


(A) thiamine pyrophosphate
(B) biotin
+
(C) NAD
(D) pyridoxal phosphate
46. International day for Biological Diversity is celebrated on :
(A) 2nd July
(B) Ist November
(D) 18th June
(C) 22nd May
47. What property of biomembranes is responsible for their self-sealing nature ?
(A) hydrophilicity of the phospholipid head group
(B) presence of protein in biomembranes
(C) presence of cholesterol in biomembranes
(D) hydrophobocity of the fatty acid side chains of phospholipids
48. Colchicine is an inhibitory chemical, which :
(A) prevents microtubule polymerization
(B) prevents microtubule depolymerization
(C) stops the functioning of centriole
(D) prevents attachment of spindle fibre with kinetochore
49. Which of the following protein targeting mechanisms is common for mitochondria and
chloroplast organelles ?
(A) co-translational
(B) post-translational
(C) co-translational and post translational
(D) de novo protein synthesis
50. A mechanism of genetic exchange that does not occur in a culture medium containing the
enzyme DNase is :
(A) specialized transduction
(B) conjugation
(C) transformation
(D) generalized transduction
51. A tautomeric shift causing the substitution of one purine for a pyrimidine is called a(n) :
(A) transversion
(B) translocation
(C) transition
(D) deletion
52. Which of the following chemical mutagens are likely to cause frameshift mutations ?
(A) 5-bromouracil
(B) 2-amino purine
(C) acridine orange
(D) hydroxylamine
53. Sulpha drugs are effective antibiotics which inhibit the formation of folic acid by acting as
a:
(A) non-competitive inhibitor
(B) competitive inhibitor
(C) uncompetitive inhibitor
(D) irreversible inhibitor
M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

54. The production of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation is driven by energy from :


(A) coenzyme A
(B) isomerization of the cytochromes
(C) the formation of NADH
(D) the diffusion of protons from the intermembrane space to the matrix of the mitochondrion
55. Polymerase chain reaction is considered as a revolutionary technology because all of the
following except :
(A) it enables an unlimited production of a DNA fragment in vitro
(B) it is highly sensitive technology
(C) it enables the direct production of a synthetic gene that did not exist before
(D) its experimental protocol is simple
56. Most antibodies are synthesized by the :
(A) central lymphoid organs
(B) peripheral lymphoid organs
(C) primary lymphoid organs
(D) macrophages
57. Removal of bursa of Fabricius from chicken results in :
(A) a markedly decreased number of circulating T lymphocytes
(B) anemia
(C) a delayed rejection of skin graft
(D) low serum levels of antibodies
58. The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is a :
(A) population
(B) species
(C) genus
(D) phylum
59. Which of the following cells or structures are associated with asexual reproduction in
fungi ?
(A) ascospores
(B) basidiospores
(C) conidiophores
(D) zygosporangia
60. Energy pyramids of an ecosystem tend to diminish at higher trophic levels. This is because
at each successive level :
(A) the organisms become smaller
(B) energy is stored and therefore less is passed on to the next level
(C) energy is being concentrated in fewer and larger organisms
(D) energy is being lost from one level to the next
61. The phenomenon of genetic drift is most likely to occur in populations that are :
(A) small and inbred

(B) undergoing gene flow

(C) allopatric

(D) large and panmictic

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

[Turn over

62. Mitochondrial DNA is advantageous for evolutionary studies because :


(A) it is inherited only through the female parent and thus evolves in a way that allows trees of
relationship to be easily constructed
(B) it is inserted into X chromosome
(C) it first appeared in humans and is not found in other animals
(D) it evolves more slowly than the genes in the nucleus
63. The rate controlling step in the synthesis of fatty acids is catalyzed by :
(A) acetyl-CoA carboxylase

(B) fatty acid synthase

(C) HMG CoA synthase

(D) thiolase

64. Bacillus anthracis capsules consist of which one of the following ?


(A) -glutamyl polypeptide
(B) hyaluronic acid
(C) repeating polysaccharide capsule of glucose and glucuronic acid
(D) sialic acid polymers
65. The bacteria Clostridium botulinum that causes botulism are :
(A) obligate aerobes

(B) facultative anaerobes

(C) obligate anaerobes

(D) facultative aerobes

66. Which of the following eukaryotic genera contain common cloning host cells ?
(A) Paramecium

(B) Saccharomyces

(C) Penicillium

(D) Spirogyra

67. Highly cooperative binding of a ligand to multiple binding sites on a macromolecule is


best demonstrated by :
(A) Adair equation

(B) Hill plot

(C) Lineweaver-Burk plot

(D) Arrhenius plot

68. Listeria monocytogenes shows which of the following characteristics ?


(A) It is an extracellular pathogen

(B) It is catalase-negative

(C) It can grow at refrigerator temperatures (4C) (D) It is gram negative coccus
69. Which of the following is characteristic of Neisseria meningitidis but not Neisseria
gonorrhoeae ?
(A) contains a polysaccharide capsule

(B) ferments glucose

(C) is oxidase-positive

(D) most isolates show resistance to penicillin

70. A young, alcoholic male develops severe, necrotizing lobar pneumonia. The organism is
Lac+ and produces a luxuriant capsule. The most likely agent is :
(A) Campylobacter fetus

(B) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

(D) Klebsiella pneumonia

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

10

71. Acid fast staining of gram positive mycobacterium is due to :


(A) presence of dipicolinic acid in cell wall

(B) presence of mycolic acid in cell wall

(C) presence of teichoic acid in cell wall

(D) presence of diaminopimelic acid in cell wall

72. The cell walls of gram positive bacteria contain two modified sugars, N-acetylglucosamine
(NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM). They are covalently linked by :
(A) alpha-1, 4-glycosidic bond

(B) beta-1,6-glycosidic bond

(C) alpha-1, 6-glycosidic bond

(D) beta -1, 4-glycosidic bond

73. Many plasmids have ampicillin marker. This implies :


(A) the plasmids contain genes for ampicillin biosynthesis
(B) ampicillin is required for bacterial growth after transformation
(C) the plasmid contains the gene encoding -lactamase
(D) ampicillin is essential for cell survival
74. World AIDS day is observed on :
(A) 5th May

(B) 1st December

(C) 26th December

(D) 9th January

75. Which one of the following arrangements of the metal ions Na+, K+, Mg2+ and Ca2+ in the
order of decreasing concentrations is correct with respect to a quiescent mammalian
cell ?
(A) Na+, K+, Mg2+, Ca2+

(B) K+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+

(C) Mg2+, K+, Na+ , Ca2+,

(D) Ca2+, Mg2+, K+, Na+

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

11

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2Year Course)-Biotechnology/FRH-41398-A

12

158

OCET-2012

Sr. No. :

Question Booklet Series : A


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal(s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for
each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/A

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

Eukaryotic algae are included in


(A) Monera and Protista

(B) Protista and Plantae

(C) Monera and Plantae

(D) Monera, Protista and Plantae

Among three domains of life, Archaea are considered more close to


(A) Bacteria

(B) Cyanobacteria

(C) Eubacteria

(D) Eukarya

Red tide is related to


(A) Cyanobacteria

(B) Red algae

(C) Dinoflagellates

(D) Phaeophyceae

Which of the following has maximum population ?


(A) Herbivores

(B) Parasites

(C) Carnivores

(D) Decomposers

Which one includes seedless vascular plants ?


(A) Algae

(B) Bryophytes

(C) Pteridophytes

(D) Gymnosperms

Kelps are included in


(A) Chlorophyta

(B) Cyanophyta

(C) Rhodophyta

(D) Phaeophyta

Each nucleosome core particle contains a double stranded DNA fragment bound to the histone
octamer consisting of two molecules each of the following set of 4 histones :
(A) H1, H2A, H2B, H3

(B) H2A, H2B, H3, H4

(C) H1, H2A, H3, H4

(D) H1, H2, H3, H4

During DNA replication in prokaryotes, the RNA primers are removed by the 5'-3' exonuclease
activity of enzyme
(A) RNA polymerase

(B) DNA polymerase I

(C) DNA polymerase II

(D) DNA polymerase III

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

[Turn over

9.

Which is true for tryptophan operon in E.Coli ?


(A) The operator lies within the promoter region
(B) The promoter lies within the operator site
(C) The promoter is present next to the operator site
(D) The operator is present next to the promoter site

10. In yeast mitochondrial mRNAs, the codon UGA is


(A) A stop codon

(B) A trp codon

(C) A start codon

(D) A gln codon

11. In a cell, DNA is present only in


(A) Mitochondria & Golgi bodies

(B) Chloroplast & Endoplasmic reticulum

(C) Mitochondria & Chloroplast

(D) Chloroplast & Ribosome

12. 2n-2 represents


(A) Monosomic

(B) Double monosomic

(C) Nullisomic

(D) Nullitetrasomic

13. Softwood mostly consists of


(A) Vessels

(B) Tracheids

(C) Xylem

(D) Wood fibres

14. Which one is incorrect for catkin inflorescence ?


(A) Unbranched peduncle

(B) Unisexual flowers

(C) Sessile flowers

(D) Basipetally borne flowers

15. Highest chromosome number among plants is reported in


(A) Ophioglossum

(B) Selaginella

(C) Equisetum

(D) Salvinia

16. In plectostele, xylem and phloem are arranged as


(A) Alternate

(B) Opposite

(C) Spiral

(D) Mixed

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

17. In a charged tRNA, amino acid is covalently bound to


(A) C residue of ACC sequence at 3' end
(B) A residue of CCA sequence at 3' end
(C) C residue of ACC sequence at 5' end
(D) A residue of CCA sequence at 5' end
18. In which of the following, presence of glyoxysomes is expected ?
(A) Endosperm of wheat

(B) Endosperm of castor

(C) Palisade cells of leaf

(D) Root hairs

19. DNA can be located after gel electrophoresis by staining with


(A) Ethidium bromide

(B) Pyronin Y

(C) Bromophenol blue

(D) Sudan III

20. A polysome is a structure formed by


(A) Fusion of several subunits of ribosome
(B) Attachment of many ribosomes to endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Several ribosomes attached to a mRNA
(D) Several ribosomes attached together in a linear manner
21. Amino acids encoded by only one codon are
(A) Methionine and arginine

(B) Methionine and tryptophan

(C) Methionine and threonine

(D) Valine and glutamine

22. Crystals of calcium oxalate are found in the epidermal cells of


(A) Mimordica

(B) Eichhornia

(C) Grasses

(D) Maize

23. Number of microtubules in a bacterial flagellum is/are


(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Nine

(D) Eleven

24. Heterochromatin differs from euchromatin in being


(A) Transcriptionally inactive

(B) Sensitive to temperature

(C) Unable to replicate

(D) Unable to get stained

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

[Turn over

25. Which one is a floating symbiotic water fern ?


(A) Lemna

(B) Equisetum

(C) Pteris

(D) Azolla

26. More than two flagella are present on the reproductive cells of
(A) Dictyota

(B) Chara

(C) Oedogonium

(D) Volvox

27. In Haplontic life cycle in an alga, occurrence of meiosis is


(A) Gametic

(B) Sporic

(C) Zygotic

(D) Coenocytic

28. Agar Agar is extracted from members of class


(A) Phaeophyceae

(B) Rhodophyceae

(C) Chlorophyceae

(D) Dinophyceae

29. Irish femine was due to the attack of


(A) Claviceps purpurea

(B) Pthyium debaryanum

(C) Ustilago tritici

(D) Phytopthora infestans

30. Which cell organelle is common to a bacterial and a plant cell ?


(A) Chloroplast

(B) Centriole

(C) Mitochondrion

(D) Ribosome

31. The disappearance of green colour in the leaves due to lack of light is called
(A) Etiolation

(B) Chlorosis

(C) Albinism

(D) Evection

32. Which of the following is true for in situ conservation of biodiversity ?


(A) Establishment of botanical gardens

(B) Cryopreservation of specimens

(C) Establishment of gene banks

(D) Protection of national parks and sanctuaries

33. World Wetland Day is celebrated on


(A) February 2

(B) March 22

(C) April 22

(D) May 22

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

34. Tissue with dead cells having thick walls and narrow lumen is called
(A) Collenchyma

(B) Parenchyma

(C) Sclerenchyma

(D) Aerenchyma

35. There are two chloroplast endoplasmic membranes (CER) around the chloroplasts in members
of
(A) Rhodophyta

(B) Bacillariophyta

(C) Dinophyta

(D) Chlorophyta

36. Red rust of tea is caused by


(A) A fungus

(B) An alga

(C) A virus

(D) A bacterium

37. Richmond Lang effect is caused due to


(A) Auxins

(B) Cytokinins

(C) Gibberellins

(D) Ethylene

38. What is the site of vernalization ?


(A) Green Leaves

(B) Permanent tissues

(C) Apical meristem

(D) Young stem

39. One molecule of glucose in Calvin cycle is formed from


(A) 6 CO2 + 24 ATP + 12 NADPH

(B) 6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH

(C) 6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 18 NADPH

(D) 6 CO2 + 12 ATP + 6 NADPH

40. One among the following is a source of fibre and oil


(A) Gossypium herbaceous

(B) Crotolaria juncea

(C) Sesbania species

(D) Brassica compestris

41. Level of carbon dioxide in our atmosphere is approximately


(A) 285 ppm

(B) 335 ppm

(C) 385 ppm

(D) 435 ppm

42. Deficiency of one of the following causes brown heart disease


(A) Molybdenum

(B) Boron

(C) Iron

(D) Sodium

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

[Turn over

43. Most commonly used carbon source is


(A) Starch

(B) Sucrose

(C) Maltose

(D) Lactose

44. Which one of the following is not the feature of monocot stems ?
(A) Hollow stem

(B) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis

(C) Numerous vascular bundles

(D) More of metaxylem vessels

45. Dikaryophase among fungi is found in


(A) Phycomycetes

(B) Slime moulds

(C) Deuteromycetes

(D) Ascomycetes

46. Cork cells have deposition of


(A) Chitin

(B) Suberin

(C) Cellulose

(D) Pectin

47. Members of Marchantiales are usually


(A) Mat like

(B) Cushion like

(C) Thalloid

(D) Foliaceous

48. Which is incorrect match ?


(A) SunflowerCypsella

(B) TrapaNut

(C) GrapesDrupe

(D) GramPod

49. Sweet potato is


(A) Corm

(B) Stem tuber

(C) Root tuber

(D) Bulb

50. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is present in


(A) Lathyrus

(B) Cycas

(C) Cicer

(D) Alnus

51. Which is National tree of India ?


(A) Tectona grandis

(B) Ficus religiosa

(C) Dracena draco

(D) Ficus benghalensis

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

52. The largest angiosperm is


(A) Eucalyptus regnans

(B) Rafflesia arnoldi

(C) Sequoia sempervirens

(D) Zamia pygmea

53. Ephemerals have life span of about


(A) 1-3 weeks

(B) 4-6 weeks

(C) 7-9 weeks

(D) 10-12 weeks

54. During photosynthesis, oxygen is released by


(A) Rhizobium

(B) Klebsiella

(C) Oscillatoria

(D) Azotobacter

55. The portion of the embryo axis between cotyledons and the plumule is called
(A) Epicotyl

(B) Radicle

(C) Chalaza

(D) Hypocotyl

56. Which is not an insectivorous plant ?


(A) Utricularia

(B) Dionaea

(C) Passiflora

(D) Drosera

57. Procambium also refers to


(A) Dermatogen

(B) Periblem

(C) Protoderm

(D) Plerome

58. Four sepals, four petals with tetradynamous condition and siliqua fruit is found in members of
the family
(A) Cucurbitaceae

(B) Solanaceae

(C) Magnoliaceae

(D) Brassicaceae

59. Botanical name of Brinjal is


(A) Capsicum annum

(B) Solanum tuberosum

(C) Solanum melongena

(D) Cucumis sativa

60. Blue mold is


(A) Penicillium

(B) Rhizopus

(C) Mucor

(D) Aspergillus

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

[Turn over

61. Choose the vascular heterosporus cryptogam


(A) Lycopodium

(B) Selaginella

(C) Cedrus

(D) Gnetum

62. In Dryopteris fern, number of neck canal cells is


(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

63. One of the following is not a feature of Cycas


(A) Archegonia without neck canal cells
(B) Development of endosperm after fertilization
(C) Leafy sporophylls
(D) Formation of suspensor
64. The concept of generic drift was introduced by
(A) Swell Wright

(B) G.G. Simpson

(C) Hardy Weinberg

(D) Julian Huxley

65. Last electron acceptor in respiration is


(A) Oxygen

(B) Hydrogen

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) NADH

66. Link between carbohydrate and fat metabolism is


(A) Pyruvic acid

(B) Oxaloacetic acid

(C) Acetyl Co-enzyme A

(D) Maleic acid

67. Plant with cladode is


(A) Opuntia

(B) Oxalis

(C) Smilax

(D) Asparagus

68. Rate of transpiration is dependent on


(A) Negative turgor pressure

(B) Temperature

(C) Diffusion pressure deficit

(D) Vapour pressure deficit

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

10

69. Which one of the amino acids has methyl group as side chain ?
(A) Alanine

(B) Glycine

(C) Valine

(D) Leucine

70. Stomata of CAM plants are


(A) Always open

(B) Never open

(C) Open during day & close at night

(D) Open during night & close during day

71. In a monohybrid cross, the ratio of homozygous to heterozygous individuals in F2 generation is


(A) 1 : 1

(B) 2 : 1

(C) 1 : 2

(D) 3 : 1

72. Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?


(A) Gibberellic acidLeaf fall

(B) IAACell wall elongation

(C) CytokininsCell division

(D) Abscissic acidStomatal closure

73. Germplasm conservation in liquid nitrogen is


(A) Stratification

(B) Cryopreservation

(C) Scarification

(D) Dormancy

74. Maximum number of ATP is obtained from


(A) Glucose

(B) Palmitic acid

(C) Maleic acid

(D) Glycerol

75. Two or more species which occupy overlapping areas are


(A) Sympatric species

(B) Allopatric species

(C) Sibling species

(D) Polytypic species

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

11

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Botany/FRH-41372/A

12

91

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)/A

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Why is good nutrition necessary for good health ?


(A) Postural deformities

(B) Development

(C) Instant replies

(D) Good habits

Which country hosted the first Afro-Asian Games in 2003 ?


(A) Japan

(B) Thailand

(C) India

(D) China

The head office of the International Cricket Council (ICC) is situated in :


(A) Zimbabwe

(B) UAE

(C) South Africa

(D) England

Blood is formed in the human adult by the :


(A) Heart

(B) Spleen

(C) Red bone marrow

(D) Yellow bone marrow

Which of the following countries won the Africa Cup of Nations Football Championship in
February, 2012 ?
(A) Ivory Coast

(B) Gabon

(C) Zambia

(D) South Africa

Which of the following terms is not used in the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Gambit

(B) Volley

(C) Back hand drive

(D) Smash

If 684 = 132 and 970 = 546. Then 478 + 609 = ?


(A) 804

(B) 480

(C) 408

(D) 840

The reason for a swimming pool to appear less deep than the actual depth is :
(A) Reflection

(B) Refraction

(C) Light scattering

(D) Interference

Suraj runs 9 km to the South turns left and runs 8 km. Again, she turns left and runs
9 km. How far is she from her starting point ?
(A) 1 km
(C) 8 km

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

(B) 9 km
(D) 17 km
3

[Turn over

10. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was instituted in the year :
(A) 1991-1992

(B) 1992-1993

(C) 1993-1994

(D) 1995-1996

11. The official mascot of the Delhi Commonwealth Games held in October 2010 was :
(A) Tiger

(B) Ostrich

(C) Kangaroo

(D) Peacock

12. 'Merdeka Cup' is associated with the game of :


(A) Football

(B) Golf

(C) Badminton

(D) Tennis

13. Asafa Powell who created a new world record in 100 metres race is a citizen of :
(A) Jamaica

(B) USA

(C) Japan

(D) South Africa

14. The world Athletics Championship 2007 was organised in :


(A) Osaka

(B) New Delhi

(C) Dhaka

(D) Beijing

15. In a certain code CREAM is written as NBDBQ. How is BREAD written in that code ?
(A) EBDAQ

(B) BEFQA

(C) EBFAQ

(D) BEDQA

16. Pugilists are known as :


(A) Chess Players

(B) Boxers

(C) Archers

(D) Footballers

17. Which of the following tournaments is not a part of Grand Slam Tennis ?
(A) Wimbledon

(B) Australian Open

(C) US Open

(D) German Open

18. 'Shivanthi Gold Cup' is associated with the game of :


(A) Hockey

(B) Table Tennis

(C) Volleyball

(D) Football

19. The permanent Headquarters of the IOC is located in :


(A) Stockholm (Sweden)

(B) Lausanne (Switzerland)

(C) Atlanta (USA)

(D) Beijing (China)

20. Which in the following is the oldest sport in India ?


(A) Judo

(B) Wrestling

(C) Boxing

(D) Gymnastics

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

21. Which Country is not a part of Common Wealth Games ?


(A) Pakistan

(B) Canada

(C) Afghanistan

(D) Sri Lanka

22. Who invented the game of volleyball ?


(A) J.F. Williams

(B) William Morgan

(C) C.A. Bucher

(D) James N.S.

23. Strain is an injury to :


(A) Muscle

(B) Ligament

(C) Connective tissue

(D) Bone

24. 'Voice box' is also known as :


(A) Trachea

(B) Pharynx

(C) Mouth

(D) Larynx

25. The Emblem of 29th Olympiad in Beijing, 2008 was :


(A) World Sean-Dancing China

(B) Chinese Seal - Dancing Beijing

(C) Chinese Hope-Dancing Country

(D) Chinese Green-Dancing Panda

26. The collar bone is known as :


(A) Scapula

(B) Ribs

(C) Sternum

(D) Clavicle

27. The main duty of the marshal in Athletics is to :


(A) Supervise official

(B) Conduct march past

(C) Maintain discipline

(D) Drive away unwanted people out of areas

28. Which of the following vitamins do we get from Sun rays ?


(A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin B

(C) Vitamin C

(D) Vitamin D

29. 'Martina Hingis' belongs to :


(A) USA

(B) Switzerland

(C) England

(D) Canada

30. 'National Council of Educational Research and Training' was established in :


(A) 1961

(B) 1962

(C) 1964

(D) 1963

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

[Turn over

31. The city 'Olympia' is in :


(A) Rome

(B) Sweden

(C) Greece

(D) Germany

32. The 'Cagers' are :


(A) Kabaddi Players

(B) Football Players

(C) Kho-Kho Players

(D) Basketball Players

33. The purpose of new education policy is :


(A) to provide equal opportunity of education to all
(B) to improve the whole education system
(C) to link the education with employment
(D) to delink the degree from education
34. India played hockey for the first time in Olympic Games in :
(A) 1924, Paris (France)

(B) 1932, Los Angeles (USA)

(C) 1928, Amsterdam

(D) 1938, Berlin (Germany)

35. The term 'Tee' is associated with which of the following sports ?
(A) Chess

(B) Golf

(C) Table Tennis

(D) Water Polo

36. Martina is fifteenth from both ends of a row of girls. How many girls are there in the
row ?
(A) 15

(B) 30

(C) 16

(D) 29

37. Who is called the Father of the Olympiad ?


(A) Jacques Rogge

(B) Pierre de Coubertin

(C) Michael James

(D) Stephanie Rice

38. Which country won the Thomas Cup 2008 ?


(A) Spain

(B) France

(C) Australia

(D) China

39. Where was the first World Cup Football held ?


(A) Uruguay

(B) Canada

(C) France

(D) Brazil

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

40. When was the last time that India won the Gold medal in Hockey at the Olympics ?
(A) 1980

(B) 1992

(C) 1972

(D) 1986

41. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Double Fault

(B) Cox

(C) Ruff

(D) Crease

42. Who is the present President of International Cricket Council ?


(A) David Morgan

(B) Percy Sonn

(C) Haroon Lorgat

(D) Sharad Pawar

43. The limb bones of children become bent if there is deficiency of vitamin :
(A) A

(B) B

(C) D

(D) E

44. Among the given nutrients, milk is a poor source of :


(A) Calcium

(B) Protein

(C) Carbohydrate

(D) Vitamin C

45. Fill in the blank spaces : 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, (...)


(A) 36

(B) 35

(C) 49

(D) 48

46. Number of players on each side of Baseball, Basketball and Volleyball games are
respectively :
(A) 7,5,6

(B) 9,5,7

(C) 9,5,6

(D) 9,7,6

47. The first Asian Games were organized at New Delhi in :


(A) 1950

(B) 1958

(C) 1954

(D) 1952

48. A boy said to a woman, "Your mother is the wife of my father's elder son." How is that
boy related to that woman ?
(A) Uncle

(B) Father

(C) Cousin

(D) Brother

49. Treatment is related to Doctor in the same way as sport is related to :


(A) Coach

(B) Game

(C) Player

(D) Playground

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

[Turn over

50. If KABADDI could be as 6 and VOLLEYBALL as 9, what is the code number for
SOCCER ?
(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 4

51. In which place World Class Hockey Academy is proposed to be established by


International Hockey Federation ?
(A) Sydney

(B) Berlin

(C) Dubai

(D) Madrid

52. India's first National Cricket Academy has been established in :


(A) Hyderabad

(B) Pune

(C) Bangalore

(D) Delhi

53. Blood gets de-oxygenated in :


(A) Muscle

(B) Nerves

(C) Heart

(D) Lungs

54. Kwashiorkor is the deficiency of :


(A) Vitamin

(B) Protein

(C) Mineral

(D) Carbohydrate

55. If RESULT is coded as 798206, LET will be coded as :


(A) 680

(B) 096

(C) 092

(D) 086

56. With which is 'Euro Cup' associated ?


(A) Cricket

(B) Football

(C) Wrestling

(D) Polo

57. Complete the series 1, 6, 12, 19, 27, ?


(A) 35

(B) 36

(C) 38

(D) 54

58. Which of the following countries has been chosen as the venue for the 2022 FIFA World
Cup ?
(A) Spain

(B) Qatar

(C) South Korea

(D) Russia

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

59. Health is primarily a responsibility of the :


(A) Community

(B) Individual

(C) Parents

(D) State

60. In a code, the word ATHLETICS is written as DWKOHWLFV. How will you write GOLF
in the given code ?
(A) JRIO

(B) JROH

(C) JROI

(D) JROJ

61. Swimming is to butterfly as _______ is to dressage.


(A) Equestrian Events

(B) Rowing

(C) Roller Skating

(D) Canoeing

62. Physical exercise done in presence of oxygen, is called :


(A) Aerobic exercise

(B) Anaerobic exercise

(C) Isometric exercise

(D) Isokinetic exercise

63. 'Rovers Cup' is associated with the game :


(A) Football

(B) Chess

(C) Basketball

(D) Boxing

64. Knee joint is a :


(A) Hinge Joint

(B) Ball and Socket Joint

(C) Sliding Joint

(D) Pivot Joint

65. To which of the following chambers of the heart, is the aorta connected ?
(A) Left auricle

(B) Right auricle

(C) Right ventricle

(D) Left ventricle

66. Who coined the Olympic Motto 'Citius, Altius, Fortius' ?


(A) Rousseau

(B) Aristotle

(C) Henry Didion

(D) Plato

67. Leander Paes won Tennis bronze medal at :


(A) Atlanta Olympics

(B) Barcelona Olympics

(C) Sydney Olympics

(D) Athens Olympics

68. Bat is to cricket as ..... is to billiards.


(A) Cue

(B) Stick

(C) Puck

(D) Ball

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

[Turn over

69. Fill the missing number :


5, 11, __, 26, 35
(A) 18

(B) 17

(C) 19

(D) 16

70. If GAMES could be as SEMAG, what is the code for SPORTS ?


(A) STORPS

(B) STROPS

(C) STORSS

(D) STTOPS

71. Strategy 'Fast break' is related with the game of :


(A) Badminton

(B) Football

(C) Athletics

(D) Cricket

72. Complete the series 9, 11, 15, 23, ?


(A) 43

(B) 39

(C) 31

(D) 27

73. Pushing against the wall is the exercise of :


(A) Isometric

(B) Isotonic

(C) Isokinetic

(D) Plyometric

74. The angle of landing sector of discus throw is :


(A) 40o

(B) 34.96o

(C) 34.92o

(D) 32.92o

75. 'Rectus Femoris' muscle is located in :


(A) Lower back

(B) Calf

(C) Lower leg

(D) Thigh

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

10

ROUGH WORK

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

11

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41362

12

100

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Biophysics


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics/A
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

In humans cholesterol is synthesized in :


(A) Spleen

(B) Pancreas

(C) Brunner's gland

(D) Liver

Malarial parasite reproduces by :


(A) Budding

(B) Regeneration

(C) Binary fission

(D) Multiple fission

Total energy produced by one gram of carbohydrate is :


(A) 9 joules

(B) 9.2 kcals

(C) 4.2 kcals

(D) 9 kcals

The lungs are covered by two thin membranes called :


(A) Peritoneum

(B) Thoracic cavity

(C) Pleura

(D) Alveolar sacs

When an electric current flows through a metallic wire, the particles moving are :
(A) Ions

(B) Atoms

(C) Protons

(D) Electrons

Blood from pulmonary vein flows into :


(A) Right ventricle

(B) Left ventricle

(C) Right atrium

(D) Left atrium

If a cell is kept in a hypertonic solution its volume will :


(A) Decrease

(B) Increase

(C) Remain same

(D) Perforate

Brunner's glands are present in the :


(A) Large intestine

(B) Liver

(C) Stomach

(D) Small intestine

Parkinsonism is related to :
(A) Brain

(B) Kidney

(C) Heart

(D) Muscles

10. Osmosis occurs across a :


(A) Permeable membrane

(B) Impermeable membrane

(C) Semi-permeable membrane

(D) Intact membrane

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

[Turn over

11. This part of the eye is devoid of blood vessels :


(A) Retina

(B) Choroid

(C) Cornea

(D) Sclera

12. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling clover leaf ?


(A) mRNA

(B) tRNA

(C) rRNA

(D) hRNA

13. This hormone is a modified amino acid :


(A) Progesterone

(B) Prostaglandin

(C) Estrogen

(D) Epinephrine

14. One of the examples of the action of autonomous nervous system is :


(A) Pupillary reflex

(B) Swallowing of food

(C) Knee jerk response

(D) Blinking of eyes

15. Non-functional thymus may lead to :


(A) Anemia

(B) Reduction in stem cells

(C) Loss of antibody production

(D) Loss of cell mediated immunity

16. The proton NMR spectrum of propane consists of :


(A) A triplet and a singlet

(B) A triplet and a quartet

(C) A doublet and triplet

(D) A triplet and septet

17. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency leads to haemolysis of :


(A) Lymphocytes

(B) RBCs

(C) Platelets

(D) Leucocytes

18. HIV, first starts destroying :


(A) B-lymphocytes

(B) Leucocytes

(C) Thrombocytes

(D) Helper T-lymphocytes

19. Gel electrophoresis is used for :


(A) Isolation of DNA molecules
(B) Cutting of DNA into fragments
(C) Separating DNA fragments according to their size
(D) Vector analysis
20. Disinfection of water supplies can be achieved by :
(A) Filtration

(B) Sedimentation

(C) Ultraviolet radiation

(D) Coagulation

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

21. The genetically modified brinjal has been developed for :


(A) Drought resistance

(B) Insect resistance

(C) Enhancing shelf life

(D) Enhancing mineral content

22. Which of the following statements is correct ?


(A) 130/80 mm Hg is high blood pressure and requires treatment
(B) 100/55 mm Hg is ideal blood pressure
(C) 105/55 mm Hg makes one very active
(D) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
23. This is a sex-linked disorder :
(A) Colour blindness

(B) Tuberculosis

(C) Diphtheria

(D) Leprosy

24. Correct statement related to 99mTc is :


(A) 140 keV and 6 hours

(B) 140 keV and 4 hours

(C) 160 keV and 6 hours

(D) 160 keV and 4 hours

25. Vitamin-K is useful for :


(A) Synthesis of prothrombin

(B) Converting prothrombin to thrombin

(C) Production of lactin

(D) Temperature regulation

26. Ammonia converts into urea in :


(A) Kidney

(B) Spleen

(C) Liver

(D) Urinary bladder

27. Respiratory centre in the brain is located in :


(A) Cerebellum

(B) Cerebrum

(C) Medulla oblongata

(D) Thalamus

28. Sertoli cells are found in :


(A) Ovary

(B) Testis

(C) Liver

(D) Pancreas

29. Physical half life of 1-125 is :


(A) 28 days

(B) 8 hours

(C) 8 minutes

(D) 60 days

30. GFR stands for :


(A) Glomerular Filtration Rate

(B) Gradient Filtration Rate

(C) Gravity Filtration Rate

(D) Gradual Filtration Rate

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

[Turn over

31. A portion of the chromatin in interphase which remains relatively compacted and is transcriptionally inactive is known as :
(A) Euchromatin

(B) Chromatinin

(C) Heterochromatin

(D) Homochromatin

32. Depolarization of nerve is due to :


(A) Na+/K+ pump

(B) Ca2+/Mg2+ pump

(C) Na+/H+ pump

(D) Na+/Ca2+ pump

33. The anaerobic decomposition of protein with the production of foul smelling compounds
is known as :
(A) Liquefaction

(B) Putrefaction

(C) Rotting

(D) Degradation

34. Brachycardia is a result of excess :


(A) Acetylcholine

(B) Epinephrine

(C) Sodium chloride

(D) Adrenaline

35. Gel filtration is based on the principle of :


(A) Molecular weight

(B) Charge

(C) Colour

(D) Optical density

36. Quartz cuvettes are essential when source of incident ray is in the :
(A) Visible range

(B) U.V. range

(C) I.R. range

(D) Ultrasonic range

37. Global warming is caused by :


(A) NO 3

(B) CO 2

(C) O 3

(D) O 2

38. Information that cannot be obtained from IR spectrum :


(A) The molecular mass

(B) Presence of C=O

(C) Presence of O-H

(D) Presence of C-H

39. The active part of immunoglobulin is :


(A) Fab

(B) Fc

(C) Fd

(D) Feb

40. GM counter works on the principle of :


(A) Ionization of gases

(B) Ion exchange

(C) Scintillation

(D) Quenching

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

41. HCl is secreted by :


(A) Chief cells

(B) Oxyntic cells

(C) Goblet cells

(D) Endothelial cells

42. Optical density equals :


(A) 2-log T

(B) Log T log E

(C) Log T 2

(D) Log I log E

43. Franklin's work was hindered by the lack of :


(A) Strong X-rays

(B) Magnetic waves

(C) True crystals of DNA

(D) Precision of instruments available

44. Superoxide ions are decomposed by :


(A) Catalase

(B) Peroxidase

(C) Superanion dismutase

(D) Superoxide dismutase

45. Autoradiography is performed with :


(A) -source

(B) -source

(C) -source

(D) r-source

46. Adhesive used to stick the microscopic slides :


(A) Paraffin wax

(B) Egg albumin

(C) Xylene

(D) DPX

47. ORD stands for :


(A) Optical rotator dispersion

(B) Optical revolution dispersion

(C) Optical regional dispersion

(D) Orderly rotator dispersion

48. Histamine is released by :


(A) Mast cells

(B) Endothelial cells

(C) W.B.C.

(D) Plasma cells

49. MHC stands for :


(A) Major histocompatibility complex

(B) Minor histocompatibility complex

(C) Major hypersensitivity complex

(D) Minor hypersensitivity complex

50. Differential centrifugation is used for the separation of :


(A) Different types of cells

(B) Different types of cell organelle

(C) Different types of lipids

(D) Different types of fats

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

[Turn over

51. Thyroid uptake unit is a modified :


(A) Scintillation counter

(B) GM counter

(C) EEG

(D) ECG

52. Nodes of Ranvier :


(A) Increase the movement of impulse
(B) Decrease the movement of impulse
(C) Has no effect on impulse
(D) Increase the energy expenditure by sodium pump
53. Exchange of gases in respiratory system is caused due to :
(A) Partial pressure of gases

(B) Diffusion

(C) Active transport

(D) Osmosis

54. Proteins are detected at this wavelength :


(A) 280 nm

(B) 260 nm

(C) 240 nm

(D) 340 nm

55. 1 Gray of radioactive material equals :


(A) 100 rads

(B) 100 rems

(C) 100 curies

(D) 100 rutherford

56. Glass knives are used to cut :


(A) Plastic sections

(B) Wax sections

(C) Both plastic and wax

(D) Gel sections

57. The vitamin required for carboxylation reaction is :


(A) Vitamin B2

(B) Vitamin B6

(C) Vitamin B12

(D) Biotin

58. In proteins the -helix and -pleated sheets are example of :


(A) Primary structure

(B) Secondary structure

(C) Tertiary structure

(D) Quaternary structure

59. Isoelectric point of amino acids is used for :


(A) Crystallization

(B) Precipitation

(C) Solubility

(D) Reactivity

60. Cells can be sorted by which fluorescent technique ?


(A) FRET

(B) FRAP

(C) FACS

(D) GFP

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

61. Cancers of epithelial tissues are called :


(A) Sarcoma

(B) Carcinoma

(C) Lymphoma

(D) Myeloma

62. I-131 emits :


(A) Gamma rays

(B) -particles

(C) -particles

(D) gamma and -particles

63. Membranes are components of all the following except for :


(A) Nucleus

(B) Microtubules

(C) Golgi complex

(D) Lysosomes

64. Living cells can be studied under a :


(A) Polarizing microscope

(B) Phase contrast microscope

(C) Scanning electron microscope

(D) Transmission electron microscope

65. Iron is absorbed in :


(A) Stomach

(B) Small Intestine

(C) Jejunum

(D) Duodenum

66. Pernicious anemia is caused due to :


(A) Vitamin B6 deficiency

(B) Vitamin D deficiency

(C) Vitamin B12 deficiency

(D) Vitamin K deficiency

67. Lac operon model was described by :


(A) Jacob and Monod

(B) Einstein

(C) Wagner

(D) JC Bose

68. Humoral immunity involves :


(A) Antibodies

(B) Antibiotics

(C) WBC

(D) RBC

69. Telomerase is a :
(A) Ribonucleoprotein

(B) Deoxyribonucleoprotein

(C) Glycoprotein

(D) Polysaccharide

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

[Turn over

70. Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function ?
(A) ER ....... photosynthesis

(B) Nucleus ........ cellular respiration

(C) Lysosome ........ movement

(D) Central vacuole ......... storage

71. The resolution of a light microscope depends upon :


(A) Condenser lens system

(B) Objective lens system

(C) Wavelength of incident light

(D) Numerical aperture

72. Part of the nucleus containing the hereditary material :


(A) nuclear envelope

(B) karyoplasm

(C) nucleolus

(D) chromatin

73. Centriole is involved in :


(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) The organization of the cell during interphase
(C) The organization of the cell during mitosis
(D) Protein synthesis
74. Bonds showing strongest absorption in the IR are :
(A) C-H

(B) O-H

(C) N-H

(D) S-H

75. Chargaff's rule suggests :


(A) C=G

(B) C=T

(C) A=G

(D) A=C

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

10

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

11

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Biophysics-A/FRH-41394

12

16

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Chemistry


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2Year Course)-Chemistry/A


1.

2.

Cyclopentanone on reaction with isopropylamine would produce :


(A) An amide

(B) An enamine

(C) An imine

(D) Cyclopentene

Which of the following structural formula depicts Aspirin ?


OH
(A)

OMe

OAC

(B)
COOH

O
O COEt
(C)

OCOCH3
(D)

COOH
3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

COOH

Which of the following is not a reactive intermediate ?


(A) Allene

(B) Benzyne

(C) Carbocation

(D) Nitrene

Carbon atom having four different groups attached to it is called :


(A) Prochiral

(B) Homochiral

(C) Achiral

(D) Chiral

An 'E' olefin which is unsymmetrically disubstituted will :


(A) always be trans

(B) always be cis

(C) be cis or trans

(D) never be cis

Which of the following aromatic compounds is most reactive towards electrophilic


substitution reaction ?
(A) Benzaldehyde

(B) Benzoic acid

(C) Acetophenone

(D) Benzene

Which of the following alkenes can exist as E, Z isomers ?


(A) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3

(B) CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2

(C) CH3C(CH3)=CHCH3

(D) CH3C(CH3)=CH2

Which molecule listed below has shortest CC bond length ?


(A) C2H6

(B) C2H2

(C) ClCH2CH2Cl

(D) CH3CH2OH

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

[Turn over

9.

Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by :


(A) Nucleophilic addition

(B) Electrophilic addition

(C) Nucleophilic substitution

(D) Electrophilic substitution

10. An organic compound exhibits an infra-red band at 2245 cm1 and is hydrolysed to an
organic acid by mineral acid. The original compound is :
(A) An ester

(B) An amide

(C) A nitrile

(D) An acid anhydride

11. Which of the following organic acids is most highly ionised in water ?
(A) CH3CH2COOH

(B) (CH3)2CHCOOH

(C) (Cl)2CH CH2COOH

(D) CH3C(Cl)2COOH

12. Oxidation of 1-nitronaphthalene gives :


(A) Phthalic acid

(B) 3-Nitrophthalic acid

(C) m-Nitrobenzoic acid

(D) p-Nitrobenzoic acid

13. Hofmann degradation of an amide with Br2 and an alkali gives a :


(A) Nitrile

(B) Primary amine

(C) Secondary amine

(D) Tertiary amine

14. Which of the following compounds on reaction with NH3 gives an organic compound which
in turn on heating with an alkali evolves ammonia ?
(A) C6H5CH2Cl

(B) C3H7OH

(C) C6H5Br

(D) C6H5COCl

15. Which of the following on alkaline hydrolysis does not give benzoic acid ?
(A) C6H5OCOCH3

(B) C6H5CONH2

(C) C6H5COOCH3

(D) C6H5OCOC6H5

16. Which of the compounds listed below will have highest boiling point ?
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

(B) CH3CH2CH2COOH

(C) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

(D) CH3CH2OCH2CH3

17. The typical reaction of alkyl halide is :


(A) Electrophilic substitution

(B) Nucleophilic substitution

(C) Electrophilic addition

(D) Nucleophilic addition

18. The gas which is liberated from ethanol on heating with excess H2SO4, on reaction with
bromine produces
(A) CHBr2CHBr2

(B) CH3CH2Br

(C) CH2BrCH2Br

(D) C2H5OC2H5

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

19. SN2 reactions normally proceed with :


(A) Racemisation

(B) Racemisation with inversion

(C) Retention of configuration

(D) Inversion of configuration

20. Which of the following solvents is classified as protic solvent ?


(A) n-Hexane

(B) Ethanol

(C) Acetone

(D) Diethyl ether

21. Nitration of ethyl benzoate produces :


(A) Ethyl ortho-nitro benzoate

(B) Ethyl para-nitro benzoate

(C) Ethyl meta-nitro benzoate

(D) Ethyl ortho-and para-nitro benzoate

22. Oxidation of cyclohexene with hot acidified KMnO4 produces :


(A) A diacid

(B) A diketone

(C) A dialdehyde

(D) A keto aldehyde

23. The major of reaction of toluene with bromine in presence of bright sunlight is :
(A) ortho-bromotoluene

(B) meta-bromotoluene

(C) para-bromotoluene

(D) benzyl bromide

24. Which of the following compound is formed from CH3MgBr on its reaction with HCOOH ?
(A) CH3COOH

(B) HCOOCH3

(C) CH4

(D) CH3COOCH3

25. The compounds I and II shown below are described as :


CH3
C2 H 5

Cl
H
I

C 2H5

H
Cl

CH3
II

(A) Enantiomers

(B) Diastereomers

(C) Geometrical isomers

(D) Identicals

26. The rate constant for two parallel reactions were found to be 1.010 2 dm3 mol1 s1 and
3.0 10 2 dm3 mol1 s1. If the corresponding energies of activation of parallel reactions
are 60.0 kJ mol1 and 70.0 kJ mol1 respectively, the apparent overall energy of activation
is :
(A) 130.0 kJ mol1

(B) 67.5 kJ mol1

(C) 100.0 kJ mol1

(D) 65.0 kJ mol1

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

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27. Which of the following is an intensive property ?


(A) temperature

(B) surface tension

(C) viscosity

(D) all of these

28. During an adiabatic reversible expansion of an ideal gas :


(A) pressure increases

(B) the value of changes

(C) internal energy of the system increases

(D) temperature of the system decreases

29. Which of the following statements is always true for a system at equilibrium under
conditions of constant temperature and pressure ?
(A) S > 0

(B) G = 0

(C) dG = dw'max

(D) G > 0

30. The concentration of H+ ion in neutral water is ______ .


(A) 1 107 mol/litre

(B) 7.0 mol/litre

(C) 7.0 mol/litre

(D) 1/7 mol/litre

31. The conjugate acid of NH2 is :


(A) NH3

(B) NH4OH

(C) NH4+

(D) N2H4

32. Which of the following is not related to colloids ?


(A) Ultracentrifugation

(B) Dialysis

(C) Brownian motion

(D) Wavelength

33. Rate of diffusion of a gas is :


(A) Directly proportional to its density
(B) Directly proportional to its molecular weight
(C) Directly proportional to square root of its molecular weight
(D) Indirectly proportional to square root of its molecular weight
34. Faradays laws of electrolysis are related to :
(A) Atomic number of cation

(B) Atomic number of anion

(C) Equivalent weight of electrolyte

(D) Speed of cation

35. What is the degeneracy of the energy level with n = 6 in a hydrogenic atom or ion ?
(A) 25

(B) 16

(C) 36

(D) 9

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

36. How many nodes does a 4d orbital possess ?


(A) 3, of which 1 is an angular node and 2 are radial nodes
(B) 3, of which 2 are angular nodes and 1 a radial node
(C) 3, of which all are radial nodes
(D) 3, of which all are angular nodes
37. To which orbitals may an electron in a 2p orbital in a hydrogenic atom make allowed
spectroscopic transitions ?
(A) 1s and 3d

(B) ns, np and nd

(C) ns and nd

(D) nd and nf

38. Which of the following statements about the kinetics of the reaction
H2(g) + Br2(g) 2HBr(g) is definitely true ?
(A) The reaction is first order with respect to bromine, Br2
(B) The reaction is second order overall
(C) The presence of hydrogen bromide, HBr, inhibits the rate of the reaction
(D) It is not possible to determine anything about the kinetics of the reaction from the stoichiometry
39. What is the degeneracy of the rotational energy level with J = 4 for a heteronuclear
diatomic molecule ?
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 9

40. One molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in :
(A) 1000 g of solvent

(B) One litre of solvent

(C) One litre of solution

(D) 22.4 litre of solution

41. A line in the Paschen series of the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen is observed at
a wavenumber of 7800 cm1. Deduce the upper state principal quantum number for this
transition.
(A) 7

(B) 6

(C) 4

(D) 5

42. When a catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium, a decrease occurs in the :


(A) Activation energy

(B) Heat of reaction

(C) Potential energy of reactants

(D) Potential energy of products

43. On a pressure-temperature phase diagram, the conditions under which a one-component


system exists as two phases in equilibrium corresponds to :
(A) a point

(B) a line

(C) an area

(D) the entire diagram

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

[Turn over

44. A sample of unknown gas at STP has a density of 0.630 g per litre. What is gram molecular
mass of this gas ?
(A) 2.81 g

(B) 14.1 g

(C) 22.4 g

(D) 63 g

45. Determine the de Broglie wavelength of an electron with a kinetic energy of 1.00 eV :
(A) 1.23 nm

(B) 28.7 pm

(C) 364 m

(D) 8.70

46. Which of the following would be correct units for the rate constant of a reaction that is
second order overall ?
(A) s1

(B) mol1 dm3 s1

(C) mol cm3 s1

(D) mol2 dm6 s1

47. The standard cell potential for the reaction


2NO + O2 + H2O 2HNO2
was measured to be +0.240 V. Calculate the standard reaction Gibbs energy.
(A) 11.6 kJ mol1

(B) 23.2 kJ mol1

(C) 46.3 kJ mol1

(D) 96.5 kJ mol1

48. Calculate the entropy change when 2.0 mol of a perfect gas A and 3.0 mol of a perfect
gas B mix spontaneously :
(A) +195 J K1

(B) +28 J K1

(C) 12 J K1

(D) 8.34 kJ K1

49. The energy released as heat when liquid propanone, CH3COCH3, is burned in a bomb
calorimeter at 298.15 K is 1788 kJ mol1. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of
propanone :
(A) +1790 kJ mol1

(B) +1786 kJ mol1

(C) 1790 kJ mol1

(D) 1786 kJ mol1

50. The vapour pressure of bromobenzene, C6H5Br, above an ideal-dilute aqueous solution
of molality 0.092 mol kg1 is 23.6 kPa. Calculate the Henry's law constant of
bromobenzene :
(A) 256 kPa kg mol1

(B) 2.17 kPa kg mol1

(C) 461 Pa kg mol1

(D) 390 Pa kg mol1

51. Borazine has the formula :


(A) (BN)

(B) B3N3H6

(C) B6H10

(D) B6H12

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

52. Indicator used in the titration of acidified KMnO4 with ferrous sulphate is :
(A) phenolphthalein

(B) methyl orange

(C) starch

(D) none of these

53. Which of the following oxo-acids of chlorine have chlorine in the lowest oxidation state ?
(A) HClO4

(B) HClO3

(C) HClO2

(D) HClO

54. The number of pentagonal and hexagonal faces in C60 fullerene are :
(A) 12,20

(B) 12,25

(C) 12,28

(D) 16,20

55. Which out of the following is correct order of size ?

(A) I > I > I


+

(C) I > I > I

(B) I > I > I

(D) I > I > I

56. Which of the following is most covalent ?


(A) NaF

(B) MgO

(C) AIN

(D) SiC

57. What type of hybridization is involved in XeF2 ?


(A) sp2

(B) sp

(C) sp3 d1

(D) sp3 d2

58. Which of the following has the highest boiling points ?


(A) water

(B) hydrogen sulphide

(C) hydrogen selenide

(D) hydrogen telluride

59. Which of the following coordination compounds is non-conducting ?


(A) CoCl3 6NH3

(B) CoCl3 5NH3

(C) CoCl3 4NH3

(D) CoCl3 3NH3

60. Which of the following is an organometallic compound ?


(A) C2H5ONa

(B) (C2H5)4Pb

(C) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3

(D) CH3COONa

61. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br constitute an example of :


(A) linkage isomerism

(B) ionisation isomerism

(C) coordination isomerism

(D) optical isomerism

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

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62. The effective atomic number of an inert gas is not attained in case of the following :
(atomic no. of Cr = 24, Fe=26, Co = 27)
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+

(B) [Fe(CO)5]

(C) [Fe(CN)6]4

(D) [Cr(NH3)6]3+

63. The element with symbol 'At.' belongs to which block of the periodic table ?
(A) s-block

(B) p-block

(C) d-block

(D) f-block

64. Precipitates of silver chloride dissolve in :


(A) Conc. HCl

(B) Aqua-regia

(C) NH4OH

(D) Water

65. The colour of mercury sulphide is :


(A) white

(B) yellow

(C) black

(D) green

66. Nickel is routinely determined gravimetrically by using the reagent :


(A) DMG

(B) EDTA

(C) Pyridine

(D) F

67. The hybridization involved in the formation of diborane is :


(A) sp2

(B) sp3

(C) dsp2

(D) dsp3

68. In acidic medium, KMnO4 reacts as follows :


2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 +3H2O + 5[O]
The equivalent weight to KMnO4 will be :
(A) 31.6

(B) 63.2

(C) 158.0

(D) 126.4

69. The designation of a subshell with n = 4 and l =3 is :


(A) 4s

(B) 4p

(C) 4d

(D) 4f

70. Mo and W belong to which group :


(A) Cu

(B) Mn

(C) Fe

(D) Cr

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

10

71. The expected spin only magnetic moment of Ti3+ ion is :


(A) 4.90

(B) 2.84

(C) 1.73

(D) 0

72. The coordination number of cerium in [Ce(NO3)6]2 is :


(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 12

(D) 4

73. Cu+ disproportionate into :


(A) Cu only

(B) Cu2+ and Cu3+

(C) Cu2+ and Cu0

(D) Cu and Cu

74. Which of the polyhalide ion is not known ?


(A) I3

(B) F3

(C) Cl3

(D) Br3

75. The coordination numbers of the cations and anions in CaF2 structure are :
(A) 6,6

(B) 8,4

(C) 4,4

(D) 4,8

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

11

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ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Hons. School/2Year Course) Chemistry/FRH-41399-A

12

297

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.
Words

In Figures

In Words

In

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Computer Science


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

M.Sc.(Hons. School)-Computer Science/A


1.

2.

Which of the following statements comes closer to describing the discipline of Computer
Science ? Computer Science is the study of :
(A) how to design programming languages

(B) how to program computers

(C) how to build computers

(D) algorithms and their properties

The key feature of the von Neumann computer architecture is :


(A) Storing an unbounded number of bits
(B) Using 2's complement notation to represent integers
(C) Storing data and code in the same area of memory
(D) The use of punched card

3.

4.

5.

Which name is associated with computer software ?


(A) Bill Clinton

(B) William Gates

(C) Bill Gates

(D) Rajiv Gandhi

Let A[10] be an integer array in C-programming language. Let A[i] = 2i for 0 i 9.


After the assignment j = A[A[4]]is executed, the value of A[ j] is equal to :
(A) Undefined

(B) 1

(C) 5

(D) 10

Consider the following C-program fragment :


k = x * y;
while (k > m) k = k m;
p = k;
The above fragment will compute the value of p as :

6.

(A) (x * y) mod m

(B) (x * y) div m

(C) (x * y)/m

(D) (x * y) m

In C-programming, to access a structure element using a pointer, __________ operator


is used.
(A) dot (.)

(B) address (&)


(D) arrow ()

(C) pointer (*)


7.

In structured programming, a program is divided into modules. Coupling and cohesion


describe the characteristics of modules. A good decomposition should attempt to :
(A) Maximize coupling and Minimize cohesion (B) Minimize coupling and Maximize cohesion
(C) Maximize coupling and Maximize cohesion (D) Minimize coupling and Minimize cohesion

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

[Turn over

8.

9.

The major goal of object-oriented programming is :


(A) Speed

(B) User-interfaces

(C) Reuse

(D) Top-down program development

The feature of object oriented program in which a specific class of objects receives the
features of a more general class describes :
(A) Inheritance

(B) Assignment

(C) Encapsulation

(D) Attribute

10. Halstead's source code metrics are based on the number of :


(A) Modules in the program

(B) Operands in the program

(C) Operators in the program

(D) Both (B) and (C)

11. What activity was added in the spiral model that was not present in the waterfall model of
software development ?
(A) System Analysis

(B) System Design

(C) Risk Analysis

(D) Testing

12. In UNIX OS, the umask value that will cause directories to be created with permissions
rwxr-xx is :
(A) 751

(B) 046

(C) 026

(D) 021

13. Which of the following UNIX command will count the lines of all the .c and .h files in the
current working directory ?
(A) cat *.ch | wc I

(B) cat *.[c-h] | wc I

(C) cat *.[ch] | Is I

(D) cat *.[ch] | wc - I

14. Which UNIX system call is used to create a new process ?


(A) create()

(B) new()

(C) open()

(D) fork()

15. In UNIX shell script programming, if the terms $1 $2 $3 are used inside a script, to what
do they refer ?
(A) The last three commands submitted to the shell
(B) The three highest priority process IDs (PIDs)
(C) The current time, day of the month and year, respectively
(D) The command line arguments submitted to the script

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

16. In UNIX, the command to search the location of a file is :


(A) where

(B) search

(C) grep

(D) find

17. It is known that UNIX OS has an inode-based file system. The file system has 512 byte
blocks. Each inode has 10 direct, 1 single indirect, 1 double indirect block, and 1 triple
indirect block pointer. Block pointers are 4 bytes each. Assume the inode and any block
free list is always in memory. Blocks are not cached. What is the maximum file size that
can be stored before the double indirect pointer needed ?
(A) 5 K

(B) 25 K

(C) 69 K

(D) 8261 K

18. A measure of the number of processes completed per time unit is called :
(A) Throughput

(B) Waiting time

(C) Response time

(D) CPU utilization

19. This concept means that the programs currently being executed are stored on disk and
portions of these programs are brought into memory as needed :
(A) Multiprocessing

(B) Virtual Storage

(C) Spooling

(D) Resource allocation

20. A thread is also called :


(A) A virtual process

(B) A heavyweight process

(C) A lightweight process

(D) A scheduler

21. Which of the following C-declarations can be used to construct a linked list data
structure ?
(A) struct node {int element; node * next;};

(B) struct node {int element; node next;};

(C) struct node {int element; *node next;};

(D) struct node {int element; int *next;};

22. The solution to the Towers of Hanoi problem with n disks requires :
(A) 2n moves

(B) 2n 1 moves

(C) 2n 2 moves

(D) 2n + 1 moves

23. What is the number of nodes in a full binary tree with eight levels ?
(A) 127

(B) 128

(C) 255

(D) 256

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

[Turn over

24. The maximum number of searches for a particular record among 32 records through
Binary search method will be :
(A) 16

(B) 8

(C) 5

(D) 2

25. Which of the following Boolean function is equivalent to X ?


(A) (X + Y) (X + Y') (X + Z) (X + Z')
(B) (X + Y + Z') (X + Z) (X + Y)
(C) (X + YZ) (Y + Z) (Y + Z') (Y' + Z)
(D) WXYZ + W'XY'Z'
26. The Hamming distance is :
(A) Calculated by taking the number of ones in the XOR of two binary strings
(B) Calculated by taking the number of ones in the OR of two binary strings
(C) Calculated by taking the number of ones in the NOT of two binary strings
(D) Calculated by taking the number of ones in the AND of two binary strings
27. Three of the following numbers are same. Which one is different ?
(A) (110100100.01)2

(B) (12210.1)4

(C) (644.1)8

(D) (1A4.4)16

28. The value 10 in decimal number system will be equal to the value _______ in base-9
number system.
(A) 13

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 12

29. The addition of 4-bit, 2's compliment binary numbers 1101 and 0100 results in :
(A) 0001 and an overflow

(B) 1001 and no overflow

(C) 0001 and no overflow

(D) 1001 and an overflow

30. The largest integer decimal value that can be stored in a 16-bit word with the leftmost bit
being used for the algebraic sign is :
(A) 16383

(B) 32767

(C) 65535

(D) 4096

31. What is the correct order of the operations in the instruction cycle ?
(A) Fetch, Execute, Decode, Update

(B) Fetch, Decode, Update, Execute

(C) Fetch, Update, Decode, Execute

(D) Fetch, Decode, Execute, Update

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

32. Floating point numbers in a computer are represented using a 10-bit mantissa (including
a sign bit) and a 7-bit exponent (including a sign bit). What is the approximate value of
the maximum number, which can be represented ? Assume that the mantissa is stored in
the normalized from, that is, without leading zeroes.
(A) 2 128

(B) 2127

(C) 264

(D) 263

33. Which of the following is an example of a client-server model ?


(A) DNS

(B) FTP

(C) TELNET

(D) All of the above

34. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves _______ transmission.


(A) Simplex

(B) Half-duplex

(C) Full-duplex

(D) Automatic

35. Which type of connector does a 10BaseT Ethernet cable use ?


(A) BNC

(B) RJ-45

(C) RJ-11

(D) MSAU

36. Which of the following is the topology offering the highest level of redundancy, is easy to
troubleshoot but is expensive to install ? It is also the topology of the Internet.
(A) Ring

(B) Star

(C) Mesh

(D) Bus

37. A _________ is the standard or set of rules that two computers use to communicate with
each other.
(A) Modem

(B) Protocol

(C) Prototype

(D) Link

38. In data communications, ATM is an acronym for :


(A) Automated Teller Machine

(B) Automatic Transmission Model

(C) Asynchronous Telecommunication Method (D) Asynchronous Transfer Mode


39. Java is :
(A) a programming language

(B) a runtime environment

(C) a class library

(D) all of the above

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

[Turn over

40. What is the purpose of the keyword this in java ?


(A) To allow client programs to reference an object's fields
(B) To allow public objects to reference private objects
(C) To allow methods in other class to reference an object's fields
(D) To allow non-static object methods to reference their host object
41. Which one of the following uses the correct syntax to include an applet called ButtonText
in an HTML page ?
(A) <P><APPLET="ButtonText.java" WIDTH=300 HEIGHT=250></P>
(B) <P><APPLET CODE="ButtonText.java" WIDTH=300 HEIGHT=250></P>
(C) <P><APPLET CODE="ButtonText.class" WIDTH=300 HEIGHT=250></P>
(D) <P><APPLET="ButtonText.class" WIDTH=300 HEIGHT=250></P>
42. What will be printed output if this java code is run with the following command line ?
Command Line : java myprog good morning
Java code

: public class myprog


{
public static void main (String argv[])
{ System.out.println (argv[2]); }
}

(A) myprog
(B) good
(C) morning
(D) Exception raised : "java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException : 2"
43. The value of arithmetic expression P : 12, 7, 3, -, /, 2, 1, 5, +, *, +, written in postfix
notation is :
(A) 14

(B) 15

(C) 16

(D) 18

44. Which of the following is a phase of a compilation process ?


(A) Lexical Analysis

(B) Code Generation

(C) Static Analysis

(D) Both (A) and (B) above

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

45. What is AVI ?


(A) Movie

(B) Audio Visual Interleave

(C) Windows Media Player

(D) A type of computer

46. What is stated in Moore's law ?


(A) Technology will advance to a certain point and then decline
(B) The processing powers of computers will double every 18 months
(C) Computers will one day become more intelligent than people and take over the world
(D) Humans are capable of performing the same tasks as computers but at a much slower pace
47. What is a typical screen refresh rate ?
(A) 10 MHz

(B) 75 MHz

(C) 750 Hz

(D) 75 Hz

48. A display is configured to show 65,536 colors. How many bytes are needed to store the
color information for one pixel ?
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 8

49. Pick up wrongly matched pair :


(A) Internet Explorer Microsoft
(B) Random access Magnetic Disk
(C) Vacuum Tubes First Generation Computers
(D) Artificial Intelligence Third Generation Computers
50. The order of convergence of Newton-Raphson iterative algorithm is :
(A) first order

(B) second order

(C) third order

(D) none of the above

51. Events A and B are mutually exclusive and have non-zero probabilities. Which of the
following statements is true ?
(A) P(A B) = P(A) + P(B)

(B) P(B) P(A)

(C) P(A B) = P(A)P(B)

(D) P(B) P(A)

52. A square matrix is singular whenever :


(A) the rows are linearly independent

(B) the columns are linearly independent

(C) the rows are linearly dependent

(D) None of the above

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

[Turn over

53. Which of the following formulae is most accurate for numerical integration ?
(A) Simpson's Rule

(B) Trapezoidal Rule

(C) Weddle's Rule

(D) Gauss's Quadrature formula

54. Indexing is more efficient than sorting because :


(A) It uses more storage space but a quicker searching algorithm
(B) It saves computational time after a new record is added
(C) It keeps track of record number and thus make it faster
(D) It does random searching of record
55. Data Independence in DBMS is :
(A) A feature which ensures that application programs do not use data independently
(B) An idea which indicates that the data organization and application programs are not dependent
(C) A method by which two independent data sets can be processed separately
(D) A process by which we ensure that no two data sets interact with each other
56. If a database relation schema is in BCNF, then it is also in :
(A) First normal form

(B) Second normal form

(C) Third normal form

(D) Multiple normal forms

57. The unit of signal modulation is :


(A) Decibel

(B) Mega Hertz

(C) Cycles per second

(D) GB

58. A method of ensuring transaction integrity :


(A) Firewell

(B) SSL

(C) Authentication

(D) Digital Signature

59. Cookies were designed as a response to which problem in the original design of HTML
and HTTP ?
(A) Lack of privacy and confidentiality in viewing web-pages
(B) Inequality if information between clients and servers
(C) The open and distributed nature of the Internet
(D) Persistence of state between web-sessions
M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

10

60. Nanosecond is :
(A) Thousandth of a second

(B) Millionth of a second

(C) Billionth of a second

(D) 300 Giga Byte of storage

61. Consider the following logic circuit :

a
T
b

Which of the following best describes the circuit ?


(A) Exclusive OR (a XOR b)

(B) Equivalence (a = b)

(C) The carry bit of a + b

(D) The sum bit of a + b

62. What is the difference between a Virus and a Worm ?


(A) A worm is bigger in size
(B) A virus attaches itself to another file, while a worm exists independently
(C) A virus can replicate, a worm can't
(D) A virus can damage data, a worm can't
63. The minimum number of bits required to represent any one character from ASCII code
set is :
(A) 2

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 8

64. Who is original developer of Linux, the free Unix clone on the PC ?
(A) Bill Gates

(B) Linus Torvalds

(C) Dennis Ritchie

(D) Richard Stallman

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

11

[Turn over

65. ISDN stands for :


(A) Integral Service Dynamic Network

(B) International Subscriber Dialup Network

(C) International Service Digital Network

(D) Integrated Service Digital Network

66. Which of the following is responsible for the management and coordination of activities
and the sharing of the resources of the computer ?
(A) Application Software

(B) Motherboard

(C) Operating System

(D) RAM

67. A software is termed an open source software if :


(A) the developer company is open 24 hours
(B) its source code is available to share, study and modify
(C) it can be downloaded from the Internet
(D) it is available free of cost
68. What is a specialized software program that allows input and output devices to
communicate with the rest of the computer system ?
(A) Utility driver

(B) Utility program

(C) Device driver

(D) Data compression utility

69. What results will be produced by the following SQL query ?


Select sum(standard_price) as total_price
from product_v
where product_type = 'WOOD';
(A) The total price of all products that are of type wood
(B) The total price of all products
(C) The standard_price of the first wood product in the table
(D) The standard_price of any wood product in the table
70. To eliminate duplicate rows in a SQL query, the _______ qualifier is used in the SQL
Select command.
(A) alter

(B) distinct

(C) check

(D) specific

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

12

71. What result set is returned from the following SQL query ?
Select customer_name, telephone
from customers
where city in ('Jaipur', 'New Delhi', 'Agra');
(A) The customer_name and telephone of all customers
(B) The customer_name and telephone of all customers living in either Jaipur, New Delhi or Agra
(C) The customer_name and telephone of all customers living in Jaipur and New Delhi and Agra
(D) The customer_name of all customers living in Jaipur, New Delhi or Agra
72. Programs such as Internet Explorer that serve as navigable windows into the Web are
called :
(A) Hypertext

(B) Networks

(C) Internet

(D) Web browsers

73. printf("%d", printf ("time")); statement in C language :


(A) results in a syntax error

(B) outputs time4

(C) outputs garbage

(D) outputs time and terminates abruptly

74. What would be output of the following program ?


# define SQR(X) (X*X)
main()
{
int a, b = 3;
a = SQR(b + 2);
printf("\n%d", a);
}
(A) 25

(B) 11

(C) Error

(D) Garbage value

75. In the context of web pages, The "C" in CSS stands for :
(A) "Concatenating"

(B) "Cascading"

(C) "Centering"

(D) "Controlling"

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

13

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

14

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Hons.School)-Computer Science-A/FRH-41358

15

192

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Environment Science)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

M.Sc. (Environment Science)/A

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

In a nucleosome core particle, 146bp long double stranded DNA fragment is wound round
the histone octamer in about :
(A) 1.5 turns of a left handed supercoil

(B) 1.8 turns of a left handed supercoil

(C) 1.5 turns of a right handed supercoil

(D) 1.8 turns of a right handed supercoil

In E. coli, during DNA replication, leading and lagging strands are made by :
(A) DNA polymerase I and III respectively

(B) DNA polymerase I and II respectively

(C) DNA polymerase I only

(D) DNA polymerase III only

Triticum aestivum (Wheat) is :


(A) Diploid

(B) Triploid

(C) Tetraploid

(D) Hexaploid

The plant with the largest egg cell and antherozoid is :


(A) Ephedra

(B) Cedrus

(C) Cycas

(D) Pinus

In Gymnosperms, if a somatic cell has chromosome number as 20, its endosperm will be
(A) 20

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 10

Definite number of cells arranged in a definite shape forms a colony known as :


(A) Globule

(B) Glomerule

(C) Coenobium

(D) Coenocytic

Which one is usually not correct for dicot plants ?


(A) Pentamerous symmetry

(B) Parallel venation

(C) Tap roots

(D) Dictyostele

Smut diseases are usually caused by species of :


(A) Ustilago

(B) Puccinia

(C) Colletotrichum

(D) Albugo

Which of the following is not directly involved in photorespiration ?


(A) Peroxisomes
(C) Mitochondia

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

(B) Chloroplast
(D) Glyoxysomes

[Turn over

10. Stalk like structure with which an inflorescence is attached to the plant is known as :
(A) Petiole

(B) Pedicel

(C) Peduncle

(D) Plerome

11. In D-Glucose, the letter "D" implies :


(A) Optical rotation

(B) Confiquration

(C) Conformation

(D) Geometrical isomerism

12. Which of the following compounds is a Vitamin ?


(A) Ascorbic acid

(B) Chloramphenicol

(C) Penicillin

(D) Alanine

13. Acetylene when bubbled through a solution of H2SO4 containing HgSO4 produces :
(A) Formaldehyde

(B) Acetone

(C) Acetic acid

(D) Acetaldehyde

14. Carbanion is also known as :


(A) An electrophile

(B) A free radical

(C) A nucleophile

(D) A zwitter ion

15. Cyclohexane has most stable conformation as :


(A) Chair form

(B) Boat form

(C) Twist boat form

(D) Planar form

16. Catalytic hydrogenation of 2-butyne using Lindlar's Catalyst produces :


(A) (Z) 2 butene

(B) (E) 2 butene

(C) Butane

(D) Mixture of E and Z2butene

17. Naturally ocurring amino acids are :


(A) Dconfigured

(B) Lconfigured

(C) Racemic

(D) Non-racemic

18. Lewis acids as per Lewis concept of acids/ bases, are :


(A) Proton donars

(B) Proton acceptors

(C) Electron donars

(D) Electron acceptors

19. The weakest acid amongst the following is :


(A) CH3CH2COOH

(B) ClCH2CHClCOOH

(C) Cl2CH.CH2COOH

(D) CH3.CCl2COOH

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

20. Benzene can be converted to chlorobenzene using :


(A) Electrophilic addition

(B) Nucleophilic addition

(C) Electrophilic substitution

(D) Nucleophilic substitution

21. Which of the following atmospheric layers has the concentration of ozone ?
(A) Troposphere

(B) Stratosphere

(C) Ionosphere

(D) Thermosphere

22. Which of the following is associated with climate change ?


(A) IPCC

(B) ICICI

(C) NDC

(D) UPA

23. The point of origin of earthquake in the interior of earth is called ____ :
(A) Seismogram

(B) Epicentre

(C) Focus

(D) Richter

24. Incoming solar radiation is commonly called ____ :


(A) Electromagnetic radiation

(B) Isolation

(C) Insolation

(D) Electromagnetic spectrum

25. Which of the following places suffered a nuclear power plant disaster ?
(A) Jaitapur

(B) Fukushima

(C) Fatehabad

(D) Kudankulam

26. Which of the following is incorrect about India ?


(A) India is seventh largest country in the world in terms of Area
(B) India is second largest country in the world in terms of population
(C) India is located in the northern hemisphere
(D) The Indian Standard Time is measured from 82o 30' west longitude.
27. The NIFE is ______.
(A) Upper most layer of earth
(B) Inner most layer with dominance of Silica
(C) Inner most layer with dominance of nickel and Iron
(D) Earth's crust
28. Which of the following is responsible for global warming ?
(A) Increase in Forest cover
(B) Increase in Carbon in the atmosphere
(C) Increase in Oxygen in the atmosphere
(D) Decrease in Carbon in the atmosphere
M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

[Turn over

29. Which of the following is incorrect ?


(A) The earth's atmosphere is heated by short wave radiation from sun
(B) The earth's atmosphere is heated by long wave terrestrial radiation
(C) The land surface of earth constitutes 29 per cent of total earth's surface
(D) The southern hemisphere of earth has more water than land
30. Where is the headquarters of Survey of India located ?
(A) New Delhi

(B) Kolkata

(C) Dehradun

(D) Mumbai

31. The length of a rectangular garden is 2 feet longer than 3 times its width. If the perimeter
of the garden is 100 feet, find the length of the garden.
(A) 12

(B) 20

(C) 27

(D) 38

32. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 2 cms more than the longer side of the triangle. The
shorter side of the triangle is 7cms less than the longer side. Find the length of the
hypotenuse.
(A) 5

(B) 10

(C) 17

(D) 20

33. If f is a linear function such that f(1) = 5 and f(3) = 9, then f(2) =
(A) 0

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 10

34. The product of two consecutive positive odd integers is equal to 675. Then their sum is :
(A) 48

(B) 52

(C) 60

(D) 64

35. At 9 am a car (A) began a journey from a point, travelling at 40 kmph. At 10 am another
car (B) started travelling from the same point at 60 Kmph in the same direction as car
(A). At what time will car B pass car A ?
(A) 12 pm

(B) 1 pm

(C) 11 am

(D) 3 pm

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

36. A swimming pool can be filled by pipe A in 3 hours and by pipe B in 6 hours, each pump
working on its own. At 9 am pump A is started. At what time will the swimming pool be
filled if pump B is started at 10 am ?

37.

(A) 11 am

(B) 11.10 am

(C) 11.20 am

(D) 11.45 am

n =1 (2n + 1/2) =
10

(A) 115

(B) 65

(C) 55

(D) 40

38. A chemist has a 20% and a 40% acid solutions. What amount of 20% solution should be
used in order to make 300 ml of a 28% acid solution ?
(A) 200 ml

(B) 180 ml

(C) 120 ml

(D) 100 ml

39. A number increased from 120 to 150. By what percent, of its original value, did this
number increase ?
(A) 25

(B) 20

(C) 40

(D) 10

40. A number of the form 213ab, where a and b are digits, has a reminder less than 10 when
divided by 100. The sum of all the digits in the above number is equal to 13. Find the digit
b.
(A) 5

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

41. What is the median for the data : 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 8 ?


(A) 8

(B) 6.5

(C) 6

(D) 6 and 7

42. Which of the following statements is true about the relation between standard deviation
and variance v ?
(A) = v2
(B) v = 2
(C) v =
(D) There is no systematic relation between standard deviation and variance.
43. What is/ are the modes for the data : 1, 4, 8, 8, 9, 7, 6, 9, 8, 9, 7, 7, 5, 3.
(A) 6

(B) 7.8

(C) 8

(D) 7, 8 and 9

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

[Turn over

44. The mean of the 10 terms of a data is 14. The mean of these first five terms is 12. Then
the mean of the next five terms is :
(A) 12

(B) 14

(C) 16

(D) 18

45. The mean of a set of data is 5 and its standard deviation is 2. The z score for a value of 9
is :
(A) 1

(B) 1.5

(C) 1.6

(D) 2

46. A quadrilateral ABCD has 1 g mass located at each of its vertices A (1, 2,2) B(3,2,1),
C(1,2,4) and D(3,1,2). The coordinates of centre of mass are :
(A) (3, 2, 1)

(B) (6,1,7)

(C) (6,1,7)

(D) (3,2,1)

47. In beta decay, the particle emitted along with the positron is :
(A) neutrino

(B) muon

(C) pion

(D) antineutrino

48. According to Kepler's law, the orbital period of a plant is proportional to :


(A) square root of the cube of the semi-major axis of the elliptical orbit of the planet
(B) the cube of the semi-major axis of the elliptical orbit of the planet
(C) square root of the semi-minor axis of the elliptical orbit of the planet
(D) square root of the cube of the semi-minor axis of the elliptical orbit of the planet
49. Electron microscope is based on :
(A) negative charge of electron

(B) negative beta decay of radioisotopes

(C) photoelectric effect

(D) wave nature of electrons

50. The correct order for the e.m. waves in the decreasing order of frequencies is :
(A) X-rays, IR, UV, Microwaves and Radio waves
(B) X-rays, Microwaves, UV, IR and Radio waves
(C) X-rays, UV, IR, Microwaves and Radio waves
(D) X-rays, UV, IR, Radio waves and Microwaves
51. The X-rays of wavelength10.0 pico meter are compton scattered from electrons in a
target. The wavelength of the backscattered x-rays will be :
(A) 4.9 picometer

(B) 9.5 picometer

(C) 10.0 picometer

(D) 14.9 picometer

52. A carbon resistor is colour coded with bands yellow, violet, brown and silver. Its value is :
(A) 4700 ohm + 5%

(B) 420 ohm + 5%

(C) 4700 ohm + 5%

(D) 470 ohm + 10%

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

53. A wire of resistance 10 ohm is bent to form a complete circle. The resistance between
two diametrically opposite points is :
(A) 2.5 ohm

(B) 5.0 ohm

(C) 20 ohm

(D) 1.25 ohm

54. The household power supply in India is :


(A) A.C. with Vpeak = 220 V, 50 Hz

(B) A.C. with Vaverage = 220 V, 50 Hz

(C) 220 V D.C., 50 Hz

(D) A.C. with Vrms = 220 V, 50 Hz

55. The atomic packing fraction of a body-centred cubic is :


(A)

3
8

(B)

3
4

2
3
(D)
8
8
56. Which of the following animals has the maximum level of mixing of the oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood in its ventricle ?

(C)

(A) Fish

(B) Frog

(C) Snake

(D) Crocodile

57. Breathing rate in mammals is controlled by a part of brain called as :


(A) Thalamus

(B) Hypothalamus

(C) Medulla oblongata

(D) Cerebellum

58. Digestive enzymes are released by the pancreas and bile is related by the liver, in
response of the hormone :
(A) Insulin

(B) Zymogen

(C) Cholecystokinin

(D) Secretin

59. In the flame cell system of a planarian, materials are drained directly from the :
(A) Blood

(B) Lymph

(C) Interstitial fluid

(D) Coelom

60. The neurotransmitter between a motor neuron and a muscle cell is :


(A) Serotonin

(B) Epinephrine

(C) Dopamine

(D) Acetylcholine

61. The acrosome of a sperm contains :


(A) Hydrolytic enzymes

(B) DNA

(C) Mitochondria

(D) Fructose

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

[Turn over

62. The geographical limits within which a population exists is its :


(A) Niche

(B) Habitat

(C) Range

(D) Territory

63. Which of the following is a fish ?


(A) Cuttle fish

(B) Silver fish

(C) Flat fish

(D) Jelly fish

64. Which of the following arthropods is a chelicerate ?


(A) Horse shoe crab

(B) Lobster

(C) Millipede

(D) Grass hopper

65. Which is the largest bone in the body ?


(A) Femur

(B) Humerus

(C) Pelvic

(D) Sternum

66. During this year, India will elect its :


(A) 10th President

(B) 11th President

(C) 12th President

(D) 13th President

67. Which is the world's highest battlefield ?


(A) Sopore

(B) Siachen

(C) Leh

(D) Anantnag

68. National Environmental Engineering Research Institute is located at :


(A) Lucknow

(B) Kolkata

(C) Hyderabad

(D) Nagpur

69. World Earth Day is celebrated on :


(A) February 22

(B) March 22

(C) April 22

(D) June 5

70. National park established for conservation of Tiger was :


(A) Bandipur National Park

(B) Manas National Park

(C) Ranthombore National Park

(D) Kajiranga National Park

71. Biological names of organisms are generally written in :


(A) Greek

(B) English

(C) Latin

(D) German

72. Chipko movement got full support in 1970s from :


(A) Balbir Singh Seechewal

(B) Rajendra Singh

(C) R K Pachauri

(D) Sunder Lal Bahuguna

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

10

73. Which of the Crickters has the honour to complete 100 centuries ?
(A) Sunil Gavasker

(B) Farooq Engineer

(C) Sachin Tendulkar

(D) Saurav Ganguly

74. Nobel Prize in Literature was awarded to an Indian and he was :


(A) Amartya Sen

(B) S R Ramachandran

(C) Rabinder Nath Tagore

(D) Har Gobind Khorana

75. What is the full form of MHOW, the cantonment town in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Main Headquarters of Windows

(B) Military Headquarters of War

(C) Memorial House of Wars

(D) Memorial Headquarter of Widows

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

11

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Environment Science)-A/FRH-41396

12

160

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Human Genomics


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

r
r r
A when A = yx + xy is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) zero

Solid angle subtended by a sphere at its centre is :


(A) 4

(B) 2

(C)

(D) zero

When one gram of matter is converted into matter, the released energy is equal to :
(A) 3 109 joules

(B) 9 1013 joules

(C) 9 1010 joules

(D) 9 1011 joules

The total energy of N molecules of gas following Maxwell-Boltzman distribution is given


by :
(A) NKT

(C)
5.
zxy1
2

6.

7.

8.

9.

3
NKT
2

(B)

NKT

(D) 3 NKT

The single covalent bond energy for Ge-Ge bond is :


(A) 0.16 eV

(B) 1.6 eV

(C) 0.016 eV

(D) 16 eV

Mercury becomes super conducting at about :


(A) 20oC

(B) 170oK

(C) 120oK

(D) 4 oK

The capacitance of a pn function under reverse bias is of the order of :


(A) F

(B) F

(C) pF

(D) milli F

c Compton
To observe Compton effect, the wavelength of incoming photons should be (
wavelength) :
(A) << c

(B) c

(C) >> c

(D) 6000 A

The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then the energy of first excited state
is :
(A) 13.6 eV

(B) 3.40 eV

(C) 3.4 eV

(D) 13.6 eV

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

[Turn over

10. Which of the following is a fundamental particle ?


(A) -particle

(B) p

(C) e

(D) n

11. Thymine molecule is a :


(A) Vitamin

(B) Nucleotide

(C) Heterocyclic base found in RNA

(D) Heterocyclic base found in DNA

12. Glucose and Galctose are two isomeric monosaccharides known as :


(A) Anomers

(B) Epimers

(C) Enantiomers

(D) Conformors

) and pi (
) bonds in CH2 = CH2 is :
13. The number of Sigma (
(A) 1 and 5

(B) 2 and 4

(C) 3 and 3

(D) 4 and 2

14. Natural proteins are macromolecules consisting of amino acids which are :
(A) Racemic

(B) Non-racemic

(C) L-configured

(D) D-configured

15. The following pair of compounds is best described as :


CH3

Cl

Ph

CH3

Ph

Cl

II

(A) Enantiomers

(B) Diastereomers

(C) Conformors

(D) Positional isomers

16. Which of the following acids is a strongest one ?


(A) CH3COOH

(B) F3CCOOH

(C) F2CClCOOH

(D) Cl2CHCOOH

17. In the formula 'D-Glucose', the letter 'D' refers to :


(A) Density

(B) Optical rotation

(C) Conformation

(D) Configuration

18. Mesotartaric acid is :


(A) Leavo rotatory

(B) Dextro rotatory

(C) Optically inactive

(D) Racemic

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

19. Benzene can be converted to Nitrobenzene by :


(A) Electrophilic substitution

(B) Electrophilic addition

(C) Nucleophilic substitution

(D) Nucleophilic addition

20. Ethyl carbocation is more stable than methyl carbocation because of :


(A) Resonance

(B) Hybridization

(C) Hyper conjugation

(D) Planarity

21. The most reactive derivative of carboxylic acid towards substitution at carbonyl carbon
is :
(A) An ester

(B) An amide

(C) An acid chloride

(D) An anhydride

22. An unsymmetrically disubstituted olefin which is designated as 'E' :


(A) will always be trans
(B) will always be cis
(C) can be cis or trans
(D) can never be cis
23. 250 ml of 0.5 M NaOH solution would require how many grams of NaOH ?
(A) 10 g

(B) 5 g

(C) 0.5 g

(D) 0.25 g

24. The mode of expressing concentration which is independent of temperature is :


(A) Molality

(B) Molarity

(C) Normality

(D) Mass Volume Percent

25. The maximum number of electrons in an orbit with n = 3 and l = 2 is :


(A) 02

(B) 06

(C) 10

(D) 14

26. The primary standard used in volumetric analysis is :


(A) NaOH

(B) KOH

(C) KMnO4

(D) Mohr's Salt

27. 0.1 mole of ethylene will absorb how many grams of bromine (At. wt of Bromine is 80) ?
(A) 16

(B) 08

(C) 04

(D) 02

28. Which of the following halogen acids will boil at higher temperature ?
(A) HF

(B) HCl

(C) HBr

(D) HI

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

[Turn over

29. Which of the following orbitals has its four lobes along the x and y-axis ?
(A) dxz

(B) dyz

(C) dzx

(D) dx2 y2

30. The sum of pH and pOH is equal to :


(A) Zero

(B) 01

(C) 10

(D) 14

31. The sides of a triangular plot are in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 and its perimeter is 300 m.
Its area is :
(A) 1500 sq.m.

(B) 1500 2 sq.m.

(C) 1500 3 sq.m.

(D) 1500 5 sq.m.

32. The probability that a leap year selected at random will have 53 Sundays is :
(A) 1/5

(B) 1/7

(C) 2/5

(D) 2/7

33. The largest positive integer that will divide 398, 436 and 542, leaving remainders 7, 11,
and 15 respectively is :
(A) 17

(B) 19

(C) 21

(D) 15

34. A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination
1500 km. away in time it has to increase its speed by 250 km/hr from its usual speed. Its
usual speed is :
(A) 700 km/hr

(B) 750 km/hr

(C) 500 km/hr

(D) 550 km/hr

35. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of
their ages (in years) was 124. The present age of father is :
(A) 37 years

(B) 36 years

(C) 39 years

(D) 40 years

36. A man arranges to pay off a debt of Rs. 3600 by 40 annual instalments which increase by
a fixed amount every year. When 30 of the instalments are paid, he dies leaving onethird of the debt unpaid. The first instalment is :
(A) Rs. 51

(B) Rs. 50

(C) Rs. 49

(D) Rs. 52

37. The height of a tower is 10 m. The length of its shadow when sun's altitude is 45o is :
(A) 12 m

(B) 20 m

(C) 5 m

(D) 10 m

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

cm and the sector it bounds has an area of 20


cm2.
38. An arc of a circle is of length 5
The radius of the circle is :
(A) 7 cm

(B) 10 cm

(C) 8 cm

(D) 6 cm

39. On selling a tea-set at 5% loss and a lemon-set at 15% gain, a crockery-seller gains
Rs. 7. If he sells the tea-set at 5% gain and the lemon set at 10% gain, he gains Rs. 13.
The cost price of tea set is :
(A) Rs. 100

(B) Rs. 80

(C) Rs. 90

(D) Rs. 110

40. A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 20. If 9 is added to the number,
the digits interchange their places. The number is :
(A) 54

(B) 45

(C) 36

(D) 20

41. Hormones that penetrate plasma membrane of cell are :


(A) Small peptide hormones

(B) Derivatives of Amino acids

(C) Steroid hormones

(D) Polypeptides

42. Which of the following are uricotelic ?


(A) Reptiles and Birds

(B) Birds and Mammals

(C) Fishes and Reptitles

(D) Reptiles and Mammals

43. Eukaryotic cell wall contains :


(A) Muramic acid

(B) Amino sugars

(C) Cellulose

(D) Collagen

44. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is formed of :


(A) Golgi Cisternae

(B) Mitochondria

(C) Chloroplast

(D) Endoplasmic reticulum

45. ABO blood group is an example of :


(A) ncomplete dominance

(B) Epistasis

(C) Homeostasis

(D) Multiple allelism

46. A person with Down's syndrome has chromosome number of :


(A) 45

(B) 47

(C) 48

(D) 49

47. Loss of single chromosome creates a condition called :


(A) Trisomy

(B) Nullisomy

(C) Haploidy

(D) Monosomy

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

[Turn over

48. Which of the following cause instability of lysosomal membrane ?


(A) Vitamin K

(B) Cholesterol

(C) Cortisone

(D) Antihistamine

49. Which of the following is not a component of histone octamer ?


(A) H2A

(B) H1

(C) H2B

(D) H3

50. Which of the following is a pair of homologous structures ?


(A) Fins of shark and flippers of whale
(B) Flipper of whale and arm of man
(C) Wing of butterfly and wing of bat
(D) Wing of pigeon and wing of cockroach
51. The process of formation of sperm from spermatid is called :
(A) Spermiogenesis

(B) Spermatogenesis

(C) Aspermis

(D) Polyspermy

52. The vector of Dengue virus is :


(A) Aedes aegypti

(B) Anopheles stephensi

(C) Culex pipiens

(D) Phlebotomus elegonensis

53. Meiosis can be best studied in :


(A) Root tips

(B) Megaspore

(C) Microspore

(D) Pollen mother cells

54. Which of the following plant hormone helps in fruit ripening ?


(A) Auxin

(B) Gibberellins

(C) Cytokinin

(D) Ethylene

55. Trypsin is a digestive enzyme present in :


(A) Saliva

(B) Pancreas

(C) Stomach

(D) Intestines

56. Messenger RNA is synthesized in :


(A) Nucleus

(B) Nucleolus

(C) Cytoplasm

(D) Nucleosome

57. The memory cells of immune system are stored in :


(A) Spleen

(B) Liver

(C) Pancreas

(D) Adrenal gland

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

58. In E.coli transcription is terminated by :


(A) RNA polymerase

(B) rho factor

(C) H-factor

(D) DNA polymerase

59. Which of the following represents Pleiotropy ?


(A) Colour blindness

(B) Sickle cell anaemia

(C) Blood groups

(D) Phenylketonuria

60. Philadelphia chromosome is the result of :


(A) Pericentric inversion

(B) Paracentric inversion

(C) Translocation

(D) Deletion

61. Aspirin, one of the most successful drugs,


i.

is a derivative of salicylic acid

ii.

has its origin in a plant

iii. is more than 100 years old in the market


iv. is used for different therapeutic indications.
Choose the right combination from the following :
(A) ii to iv

(B) i to iii

(C) i to iv

(D) i, ii and iv

62. One of the following is not a brain neurotransmitter ? Identify it.


(A) Acetylcholine

(B) Serotonin

(C) Ephedrine

(D) Epinephrine

63. The antibodies in plasma of a person with blood group AB will be :


(A) Anti A

(B) Anti B

(C) Both anti A and anti B

(D) None

64. The following drugs are used in treating malaria; identify the one derived from the plant :
(A) Chloroquine

(B) Artemisinin

(C) Primaquine

(D) Quinacrine

65. An ingredient used in a drug formulation without any therapeutic action is called :
(A) Excipient

(B) Synergist

(C) Antioxidant

(D) Antagonist

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

[Turn over

66. Which one of the following shall not affect the bioavailability of a drug ?
i.

Route of administration

ii.

Rate of absorption

iii. Age and sex


iv. Dosage forms
Choose the right option from the following :
(A) i to iv

(B) ii to iv

(C) ii and iv

(D) i and iii

67. HPLC is a chromatographic techniques used for :


i.

qualitative analysis

ii.

quantitative analysis

iii. structure elucidation of ingredients of a mixture


iv. separation of components from a mixture.
Choose the right option from the following :
(A) i to iv

(B) ii and iii

(C) ii to iv

(D) i, ii and iv

68. Central Drug Research Institute is located in :


(A) Mumbai

(B) Lucknow

(C) Delhi

(D) Kolkata

69. A normal gastric residence time is :


(A) Less than 60 min

(B) More than 3 h

(C) Between 5 to 10 min

(D) Between 2 to 3 h

70. Find the correct statement :


(A) Cellulose and starch are mae up of glucose units
(B) Cellulose is a tetrasaccharide
(C) Starch is derived from units of glucose and fructose
(D) Starch is a heteropolysaccharid

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

10

71. The penicillins,


i.

contain a -lactam ring

ii.

contain a thiazolidine ring

iii. contain a purine ring


iv. and early penicillins were active against gram ve bacteria
Choose the right combination from the following :
(A) i and iv

(B) ii and iii

(C) i and ii

(D) iii and iv

72. A drug molecule can be marketed after establishing its safety and efficacy in :
(A) experimental animals

(B) clinical trials phase II

(C) clinical trials phase III

(D) clinical trials phase IV

73. A super critical fluid is a fluid :


(A) above critical temperature
(B) above critical pressure
(C) above critical temperature and below critical pressure
(D) above critical temperature and pressure
74. Which one of the following statements is wrong ?
A drug is :
(A) adulterated if any substance has been mixed with it so as to reduce its quality
(B) misbranded if it contains a colour other than one which is prescribed
(C) misbranded if it is not labelled in the prescribed manner
(D) spurious if it is labelled with a name which belongs to another drug
75. Krafft point relates to :
(A) Pressure

(B) Concentration

(C) pH

(D) Temperature

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

11

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-Human Genomics-A/FRH-41395

12

152

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)/A


1.

In the Michelson Interferometer, the compensating plate is used for :


(A) Inducing symmetry in the optical elements
(B) Compensating the extra path traversed by reflected waves during splitting of beam
(C) Getting circular shape of interference fringes
(D) Replacing bright central fringe with dark one

2.

The output of the Nicol prism, when monochromatic natural light is incident on it, is :
(A) Ordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(B) Extraordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
(C) Extraordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(D) Ordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal

3.

4.

The aircraft at take off stage is an example of :


(A) Inertial reference frame

(B) Non-inertial reference frame

(C) Universal reference frame

(D) Fictitious reference frame

The radius of carbon atom in the diamond crystal structure having cubic unit cell
edge 16 3 nm is :

5.

(A) 6 nm

(B) 8 nm

(C) 16 3 nm

(D) 8 3 nm

Electrical resistance of conductor owes its origin to :


(A) Surface barrier potential binding the electrons
(B) Thermal vibration of electrons
(C) Scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions
(D) Scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions as well as impurity atoms/ions

6.

Which of the following processes makes use of electromagnetic induction ?


(A) Charging a storage battery
(B) Magnetising an iron piece with a bar magnet
(C) Generation of hydroelectricity
(D) Magnetising a soft iron piece by placing inside a current carrying solenoid

7.

The atomic unit of electric dipole moment is :


(A) 1Debye=3.331030 cm

(B) 1Debye=3.331028 cm

(C) 1Debye=31032 cm

(D) 1Debye=31029 cm

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

[Turn over

8.

9.

The ratio E(axial)/E(Equatorial) between axial and equatorial electric fields due to a
short electric dipole is :
(A) 1.5

(B) 2.0

(C) 1.0

(D) 0.5

The continuous component x-ray spectrum owes its origin to :


(A) Photoelectric effect

(B) Bremmstahlung

(C) Pair production

(D) Compton effect

10. The well defined wave function must not be :


(A) Single valued
(B) Continuous w.r.t. space coordinates
(C) Obeying the principle of superposition
(D) Always a real function
11. The moving particle confined in an infinite potential well is not characterised by which of
the following ?
(A) Quantized negative energy states
(B) Ground state not the state of rest
(C) Quantized wavefunctions defining different probability distribution for the particle
(D) Quantized positive energy states
12. Which of the following energy terms does not contribute in the binding energy formula
derived using liquid drop model for nucleus ?
(A) Surface energy

(B) Asymmetry energy

(C) Heisenberg Exchange energy

(D) Coulombs energy

13. For the alpha decay from natural radionuclides, which of the following observations does
not hold true ?
(A) The emission of alpha particle takes place following tunnelling of barrier
(B) The energetic alpha particles are emitted by radionuclide with shorter half life
(C) The energy required by alpha particle to penetrate a radionuclide is much smaller than the
kinetic energy of alpha particle emitted by that radionuclide
(D) The alpha decaying radionuclides have mass number greater than 200.
14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a under-damped oscillating systems ?
(A) Frequency of oscillations is lower than that for free oscillator
(B) Amplitude of oscillations decreases with each oscillation
(C) Energy of the oscillating system remains conserved throughout the process of oscillation
(D) Dissipative forces are smaller than the restoring forces
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

15. Calculate the maximum current in the RC harmonic oscillator consisting of inductance of
F, when maximum voltage across the capacitor is 0.1V.
0.2mH and capacitance of 5.12
(A) 16mA

(B) 8mA

(C) 4mA

(D) 10mA

16. The Poynting vector associated with an electromagnetic wave gives the information
about :
(A) Energy flux and direction of propagation of EM wave
(B) Frequency of EM wave
(C) Rate of oscillations of electric and magnetic field intensities
(D) Dispersive power of the medium through which EM wave is propagating
17. The ferromagnetic materials are characterized by :
(A) Negative value of susceptibility

(B) Small but positive value of susceptibility

(C) Large positive value of susceptibility

(D) Zero value of susceptibility

18. The phenomenon of diamagnetism arises due to :


(A) Increase in magnetic dipole moment of electron, associated with its orbital motion, in the
applied field due to alignment
(B) Reduction in magnetic moment of electron, associated with its orbital motion, due to
decrease in its frequency of revolution under the influence of applied magnetic field
(C) Reduction in magnetic moment of electron, associated with its spin, due to antialignment of
spin magnetic moment with respect to magnetic field
(D) Increase in magnetic moment of electron, associated with its spin, due to alignment of spin
magnetic moment along the direction of magnetic field
19. The length of the metre stick moving parallel to its length, when its mass is 1.5 times its
rest mass, is :
(A) 150 cm

(B) 66.7 cm

(C) 75 cm

(D) 125 cm

20. The planets revolving around the sun in the solar system obey the law, relating their time
period of revolution and average radius of orbit, expressed as :
(A) T r3

(B) T2 r3

(C) T2 r5

(D) T r

21. A bright nail is placed in a beaker containing aqueous copper sulphate solution. The nail
is taken out after 20 minutes. The deposit formed on iron nail is of :
(A) Copper sulphate

(B) Iron sulphate

(C) Copper metal

(D) Copper oxide

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

[Turn over

22. A liquid is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves no residue when passed through the
filter paper. The liquid can be classified as :
(A) Oil

(B) Colloidal sol

(C) A suspension

(D) True solution

23. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated
nitric acid, gives :
(A) 2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzene

(B) o-nitrophenol

(C) p-nitrophenol

(D) nitrobenzene

24. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the
oxides and not subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly ?
(A) Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2
(B) CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than CS2
(C) Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides
(D) CO2 is more volatile than CS2
25. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
(A) Sodium chloride is a covalently bonded solid
(B) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six
(C) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase
(D) B2H6.2NH3 is known as inorganic benzene
26. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4
solution in the presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried
out in the presence of HCl, because HCl :
(A) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine
(B) furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid
(C) reduces permanganate to Mn2+
(D) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water
27. The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO2) (NH3)5]Cl2 is :
(A) Nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (III) chloride
(B) Nitrito-N pentaamminecobalt (II) chloride
(C) Pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (II) chloride
(D) Pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

28. Which of the following statements is true ?


(A) H3PO3 is a stronger acid than H2SO3
(B) In aqueous medium HF is a stronger acid than HCl
(C) HClO4 is a weaker acid than HClO3
(D) HNO3 is a stronger acid than HNO2
29. Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to :
(A) The appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
(B) The appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 5d electrons from the nuclear charge
(C) The same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu
(D) The imperfect shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
30. In Langmuirs model of adsorption of a gas on a solid surface :
(A) The rate of dissociation of adsorbed molecules from the surface does not depend on the
surface covered
(B) The adsorption at a single site on the surface may involve multiple molecules at the same time
(C) The mass of gas striking a given area of surface is proportional to the pressure of the gas
(D) The mass of gas striking a given area of surface is independent of the pressure of the gas
31. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as :
k=Ae-E/RT (where E/RT is read as power of e) In this equation, E represents :
(A) The energy above which all the colliding molecules will react
(B) The energy below which colliding molecules will not react
(C) The total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature, T
(D) The fraction of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy of the reaction
32. Reverse Osmosis is a process :
(A) By which waste is separated from water by a semi permeable membrane
(B) In which water is treated with activated carbon
(C) Which inhibits oxidation of organic substance present in waste water
(D) Which kills the bacteria present in water
33. The reason SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed as compared to CCl4 is that :
(A) The bonding in SiCl4 is ionic
(B) Silicon is non-metallic
(C) Silicon can extend its coordination number beyond four
(D) Silicon has filled 3d-orbitals
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

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34. Which of the following statement regarding ferrocene is not correct ?


(A) It is a sandwich compound
(B) It can undergo Mannich condensation
(C) It is less stable than nickelocene and cobaltocene
(D) It cannot undergo direct nitration
35. The number of NMR signals for the compound CH3OCH2CH3 is :
(A) One signal (singlet)

(B) Two signals (one singlet, one multiple)

(C) Three signals (singlets)

(D) Three signals (singlet, quartet, triplet)

36. If t of a reaction is halved as the initial concentration of the reaction is doubled. Then
the reaction is :
(A) First order

(B) Second order

(C) Zero order

(D) Pseudo first order

37. 20 g of ice at 0 degrees C is dropped into a beaker containing 120 g of water at 70


degrees C. The final temperature of the mixture (neglecting heat capacity of beaker)
and assuming heat of fusion of ice as 80 cal/g is :
(A) 13.7 degree C

(B) 78 degrees C

(C) 48.57 degrees C

(D) 18 degrees C

38. Addition of solid NaNO3 to a saturated solution of sodium chloride causes crystallization
of solid sodium chloride this can be explained on the basis of :
(A) Le Chateliers principle

(B) Henrys Law

(C) Werners theory

(D) Ostwald dilution Law

39. Aqueous solutions of HNO 3, KOH, CH 3COOH, and CH 3COONa of identical


concentrations are provided. The pair of solutions which form a buffer upon mixing is :
(A) HNO3 and CH3COOH

(B) KOH and CH3COONa

(C) HNO3 and CH3COONa

(D) CH3COOH and CH3COONa

40. In the given figure the carbon atom C2 is rotated anticlockwise by 120 about the C2-C3
axis, then the resultant conformation is :
1 CH3
H

H
2

H
(A) gauche

3
H

4 CH3

(B) eclipsed

(C) staggered
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

(D) partially eclipsed


8

41. The Fourier number (NFO) is defined as :


(A) tL2/

(B) hL/k

(C) t/L2

(D) hk/L

42. Baffles are provided in the heat exchanger to increase :


(A) fouling factor

(B) heat transfer area

(C) heat transfer coefficient

(D) heat transfer rate

43. Relative volatility, , for a binary system :


(A) decrease with increase in pressure
(B) increase with increase in pressure
(C) increase with increase in temperature at constant pressure
(D) has no significance in distillation operation
44. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has boiling point lower than either of them when it :
(A) shows no deviation from Raoults law
(B) shows positive deviation from Raoults law
(C) shows negative deviation from Raoults law
(D) is saturated
45. Gypsum is :
(A) Calcium chloride

(B) Potassium sulphate

(C) Sodium sulphate

(D) Calcium sulphate

46. Fireclay bricks are generally :


(A) a basic refractory

(B) an acidic refractory

(C) a neutral refractory

(D) not a refractory material

47. Main component of flint glass is :


(A) zinc

(B) red lead

(C) boron

(D) selenium

48. The monomer which could form an addition polymer is :


(A) C2H6

(B) C2H4

(C) CH3CH2OH

(D) HOCH2CH2OH

49. An example of a condensed polymer is :


(A) Starch

(B) Protein

(C) Cellulose

(D) All of the above

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

[Turn over

50. The polyvinyl resin is :


(A) Synthetic polymer
(B) Made from compounds having vinyl (CH2=CH-) group
(C) Obtained from free radical polymerization of alkene group
(D) All of the above
51. Which of these is an addition polymer ?
(A) Polyethylene

(B) Polypropylene

(C) Polystyrene

(D) All of the above

52. The resistance of heat flow by conduction is :


(A) Directly proportional to the material thickness
(B) Inversely proportional to the material density
(C) Inversely proportional to the area normal to the direction of heat transfer
(D) All of the above
53. Heat exchangers are used in :
(A) Condensors and boilers in steam plants
(B) Radiators
(C) Intercoolers and preheaters
(D) All of the above
54. A perfect black body :
(A) Is black in colour

(B) Reflects all incidents radiation

(C) Absorbs all incident radiation

(D) Transmit all incident radiation

55. Cylinder driers are used in :


(A) Detergent industry

(B) Dairy industry

(C) Pharmaceutical

(D) Paper industry

56. Soaps are :


(A) Zinc salts of higher fatty acids

(B) Salts of benzene sulphonic acid

(C) Sodium salts of higher fatty acids

(D) Salts of EDTA

57. Which of the given compounds is a Thermoplastic resin ?


(A) Silicones

(B) Bakelite

(C) Polystyrene

(D) Vulcanized rubber

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

10

58. Cermets are materials obtained by mixing :


(A) Cement with glass powder

(B) Ceramic materials with glass powder

(C) Ceramic materials with metal powder

(D) Cement with metal powder

59. Bullet resistant glass is obtained by :


(A) Compressing sheets of glass fabric soaked in phenol formaldehyde resin
(B) Pressing together several layers of glass with vinyl resins in alternate layers
(C) Placing non brittle plastic sheet between two thin glass plates
(D) Mixing rare earth oxides to glass
60. Main constituents of naturals rubber is :
(A) Polystyrene

(B) Polyisoprene

(C) Polybutadiene

(D) Polypropylene

+ icos 2
)4 (sin icos )3 ?
61. What is the imaginary part of (sin 2

(A) sin 11

(B) cos 11

(C) sin 11

(D) cos 11

62. The equations 2x 3y + 6z = 4, 5x + 7y 14z = 1, 3x + 2y 4z = 0 have :


(A) Unique solution

(B) Exactly two solutions

(C) Infinitely many solutions

(D) No solution

5 3

63. The matrix A =


has eigen values :
3 5
(A) 4, 6

(B) 5, 5

(C) 2, 8

(D) 1, 9

64. In the Laurent series expansion of f(z) =


coefficient of

1
z2

1
1

, valid in the region |z|>2, the


z 1 z 2

is :

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 1

(D) 2

65. What is the equation of the cone with vertex at origin and passing through the circle
x2 + y2 = 4, z = 2 ?
(A) x2 + y2 + z2 = 0

(B) x2 + y2 z2 = 0

(C) x2 y2 + z2 = 0

(D) x2 + y2 + z2 = 0

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

11

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3
66. The value of [(2x y ) dx + xydy] , where c is the region enclosed by |z| = 1 and |z| = 3
c

is :
(A) 60

(B) 60

(C) 0

(D) 8

67. The radius of curvature at the origin for the curve x3 + y3 2x2 + 6y = 0 is :
(A)

(B) 1

(C)

(D) 2

3/2

x4 + y 4
, show that x u + y u is equal to :
68. If u = loge

x+y

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 5

69.

is equal to :
(A) 1/6

(B) 1/32

(C) /32

(D) /4

70. For

d2y
dx 2

+ 4y = tan 2x , solving by variation of parameters. The value of Wronskian is :

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

71. Inverse Laplace transform of

1
s(s 2 + 1)

is :

(A) 1 + sin t

(B) 1 sin t

(C) 1 + cos t

(D) 1 cos t

72. If Jn(x) is a Bessel function of first kind, then

[J 2 (x) J 2 (x)]dx , is equal to :


0

(A) 2

(B) 2

(C) 0

(D) 1

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

12

73. The value of

P2 (x) dx , is equal to :
2

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2/3

(D) 2/5

74. The number of all possible matrices of order 2 2 with each element 0 or 1 is :
(A) 2

(B) 8

(C) 16

(D) 32

75. If f(x) =

4x
2 + 4x

, then f(x) + f(1x) is equal to :

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 4

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

13

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ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

14

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry)-A/FRH-41356

15

76

Sr. No.
Important : Please consult your Admit Card/Roll No. Slip before
filling your Roll Number on the Question Paper cum Answer Sheet

OCET 2012

Question Booklet Series :A

Roll No.

Question Paper cum Answer Sheet

In Figures

Subject : LL.B. (Bachelor of Laws)

In Words

OMR Answer Sheet Serial No.

Time : 90 minutes
Maximum Marks : 75
Question Details :
Part I

50 Objective Type Questions

= 50 marks

Part II

Writing and Communication Skill in English

= 25 marks

PLEASE READ INSTRUCTIONS ON THE INSIDE COVER CAREFULLY &


DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
NOTE :
This paper comprises of 50 Objective type questions (No. 150) in Part I, and 4 Subjective type questions
(No. 51 54) in Part II. Answers to the Objective type questions (No. 150) are to be given on the OMR
Sheet while those of Subjective type questions (No. 51 54) are to be given in the Question Booklet only in
the space provided after every question. Subjective type questions are to be answered only in English.
51

52

53

54

Marks
Secured

Signatures :

Total
in figures
in words

Invigilator

Evaluator

Checking Assistant

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work, only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/A
PARTI
1.

The major chunk of Indian Law is :


(A) Written but vague
(B) Customary and based on usage
(C) Codified but static
(D) Codified but open to contemporary challenges

2.

3.

4.

The passing of Right to Information Act, 2005 is culmination of a movement initiated by :


(A) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan

(B) Labour Liberation Party

(C) Bandhua Mukti Morcha

(D) Bhartiya Kisan Sabha

The Indian Constitution presently has :


(A) 14 Schedules

(B) 13 Schedules

(C) 12 Schedules

(D) 11 Schedules

The term 'ex post facto laws' stand for :


(A) Laws with prospective effect only
(B) Laws with retrospective effects only
(C) Laws both with retrospective and prospective effects
(D) Contract laws only

5.

The President of India may resign his office :


(A) By writing an official letter to Prime Minister
(B) By writing under his hand addressed to the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) By writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President
(D) By writing an official letter to Chief Justice of India

6.

Recently Gujarat High Court was asked to issue a Writ of Mandamus to the Centre as
well as the state government to make it mandatory for manufacturers of goods to print
the product details like price, ingredients and the date of manufacture in Hindi. However
the Hon'ble court refused to oblige on the plea that :
(A) Hindi is not our national language
(B) Hindi is not our official language
(C) Hindi is not a state language
(D) This direction would not be acceptable to non Hindi states

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

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7.

8.

9.

The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, 2012 shall be held from :
(A) June 10-12, 2012

(B) July 20-22, 2012

(C) June 20-22, 2012

(D) July 10-12, 2012

The term 'classical' is derived from word 'classicus', which belongs to :


(A) Latin

(B) Chinese

(C) French

(D) Kannada

Name the winner of General non-fiction category of Pulitzer Prize for the year 2012 :
(A) Stephen Greenblatt

(B) Siddhartha Mukherjee

(C) Diane Ackerman

(D) Mara Hvistendahl

10. Name the Indian poet called as "Shakespeare of India":


(A) Harivansh Rai Bachchan

(B) Kamba

(C) Kalidas

(D) Tulsidas

11. The first women's university in India was established by :


(A) Maharishi Charak

(B) Maharishi Govindacharya

(C) Mahatama Nirlepdas

(D) Maharishi Dhondo Keshav Karve

12. The song Jana-gana-mana was first published under the title :
(A) Gana jagrati

(B) Bharat Vidhata

(C) Jana Bodhini

(D) Lok Shakti

13. Who popularized the famous slogan "Satyameva Jayate" (Truth alone will triumph) :
(A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(C) Madan Mohan Malaviya

(D) Sarojini Naidu

14. The Government of India may sue in the name of :


(A) Prime Minister of India

(B) President of India

(C) Union of India

(D) Indiathe Union of states

15. Who has the right to vote in the election of the members of both the lower and upper
houses of the parliament ?
(A) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(B) Members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Elected members of State Legislative Council
(D) Elected members of State Legislative Assembly

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

16. When a chief minister is disqualified from voting in the election of President of India ?
(A) If he himself contests the election
(B) If he has been asked to prove his majority on the floor of the State Legislative Assembly
(C) If he is a member of the State Legislative Council
(D) If he belongs to the same political party to which the presidential candidate belongs
17. The Supreme Court has the power to grant Special Leave to Appeal against the orders of
the lower courts and tribunals under :
(A) Article 226 of the constitution

(B) Article 336 of the constitution

(C) Article 236 of the constitution

(D) Article 136 of the constitution

18. Which Article of the Constitution gives to the High Court control over the subordinate
courts of the concerned state ?
(A) Article 226 of the constitution

(B) Article 227 of the constitution

(C) Article 236 of the constitution

(D) Article 235 of the constitution

19. A political party could be registered as a national party after inter alia it has secured at
least :
(A) 8% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of six states
(B) 9% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of seven states
(C) 14% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of three states
(D) 6% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of four states
20. A product advertisement is designed to appeal mainly :
(A) the manufacturers

(B) the competitors

(C) the target audience

(D) the media

Instructions : In the following 5 questions, two statements have been marked as assertion (a)
and reason(r). In the context of the given statements select the correct options :
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct explanation for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct explanation for (a)
(C) (a) is true but (r) is false
(D) (a) is false but (r) is true
21. Assertion :
(a) The Chapter III of our constitution is based on American model of constitutional rights
Reason :
(r) The fundamental rights are enforceable.
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

[Turn over

22. Assertion :
(a) To contest the election of Vice President of India the candidate must be qualified for election
as member of Rajya Sabha
Reason :
(r) The Vice President of India acts as the ex officio chairman of Rajya Sabha
23. Assertion :
(a) Articles 35 to 51 laid down the Directive Principles of the State Policy
Reason :
(r) The Directive Principles of the State Policy enshrine the fundamental principles to be followed
by the governments while framing laws and policies
24. Assertion :
(a) By rule of law we ordinarily mean supremacy of law
Reason :
(r) This means that parliament is free to enact any type of law
25. Assertion :
(a) X marries another woman while his lawfully wedded wife is still alive
Reason :
(r) This indicated that he has divorced his first wife
Select the appropriate answer for each of the following 5 questions on the basis of the given
principle and the facts :
26. PRINCIPLE : Attempt is not an offence until it is an attempt to commit an offence
punishable with imprisonment.
FACTS : Z makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, and finds
after so opening the box, that there is no jewel in it.
(A) Z has done an act towards the commission of theft and therefore is guilty
(B) In the absence of the definition of offence in the stated Principle it cannot be said that Z is
guilty
(C) The stated Principle neither defines the offence nor specifies that the said offence is punishable
with imprisonment. So the position is unclear
(D) Police should arrest Z and produce him before the magistrate as only the court has the
authority to decide his guilt or innocence
27. PRINCIPLE : When anyone uses his property in such a manner as to cause damage to
others, he commits the wrongful act of private nuisance.
FACTS : X and Y are the owners of adjoining flats. X leased his flat to R an AIDS patient
and activist. Fearing the spread of the disease, Y's tenant vacated his flat and since then
no tenant is ready to move in Y's flat. Y repeatedly requested X to change his tenant, but
to no use. Now Y has filed a suit against X for causing private nuisance.
(A) Y will win in the court as X has knowingly caused him financial loss
(B) Y will fail in his case as X has a right to put his flat to any use as per his choice
(C) Y's claim will fall as X could not be held responsible for wrong beliefs and notions of the people
(D) Y will win the case as X has not listened to his repeated requests
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

28. PRINCIPLE : Confession made in the court should be free and voluntary.
FACTS : Sumeet wanted to give an expensive gift to his girl friend on her birthday. But
he did not have the enough money. So he snatched a gold chain from an old lady. Police
arrested Sumeet on suspicion and in the lock up the investigating officer told him that if
he would admit his guilt he shall be set free. Sumeet confesses his guilt in the court.
(A) Sumeet shall be released as he admitted his guilt
(B) Court will set him free because of his truthfulness
(C) Sumeet shall not be punished as the police officer has promised him release
(D) Sumeet shall not be punished merely on the basis of this suggested confession
29. PRINCIPLE : Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a
minor is void.
FACTS : Rohit and Prachi were deeply in love and wanted to marry each other. But their
parents were strongly opposed to the idea as they belonged to different castes. Ultimately
they were compelled to execute an agreement in the presence of a lawyer stating that
they shall not marry each other and the same was signed by their parents as witnesses.
Thereafter both of them fled away from home and solemnized their marriage.
(A) Their marriage is void as they have broken their agreement
(B) Their marriage is voidable and could be declared invalid by any one of them
(C) Their marriage is valid despite the violation of the agreement executed by them
(D) Their marriage is voidable till it is accepted by their parents
30. PRINCIPLE : Anticipatory bail could be granted to any person who apprehends arrest
for a non bailable offence.
FACTS : Z publishes a defamatory statement against a state minister in a local daily.
Police registers a case of defamation, a bailable offence against Z. He files an application
in Supreme Court asking for anticipatory bail.
(A) His application shall be rejected by Supreme Court for want of jurisdiction
(B) His application shall be rejected due to limited circulation of the newspaper
(C) His application shall be entertained by the court as it involves the denial of personal liberty
of Z
(D) His application shall be returned as non maintainable
31. The statement by a victim as to the cause of his death is called :
(A) Res Judicata
(B) Estoppel
(C) Inquest
(D) Dying Declaration
32. Which of the following is not a fundamental right ?
(A) Right to Property
(B) Right to Education
(C) Freedom of Speech and Expression
(D) Protection against Double Jeopardy
33. The term unliquidated damages stands for :
(A) Damages caused by a thing which is not a liquid
(B) The damages to be assessed by court
(C) The damages caused to a partner of liquidated firm
(D) The damages caused to a liquidated firm
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

[Turn over

34. A written statement under oath and signed by the maker as a true statement is called :
(A) Testimony
(B) Affidavit
(C) Contract
(D) Legal Declaration
35. Who is considered as the 'Father of Induced Breeding' in India ?
(A) Satish Dhawan

(B) M.S. Swaminathan

(C) Verghese Kurien

(D) Hiralal Chaudhuri

36. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendations
of :
(A) Finance Ministry

(B) Public Accounts Committee

(C) Public Estimates Committee

(D) Finance Commission

37. Between which countries 'hundred years war' was fought :


(A) Italy and Japan

(B) Japan and Russia

(C) Vietnam and USA

(D) France and England

38. The famous Nero Decree was issued by Adolf Hitler on :


(A) March 19, 1945

(B) March 29, 1945

(C) March 9, 1945

(D) March 21, 1945

39. Tripitakas were the sacred books of the :


(A) Hindus

(B) Jains

(C) Buddhists

(D) Christian

40. Offence : Punishment :: Contract : ?


(A) Specific Performance/and damages

(B) Fine

(C) Forfeiture of Property

(D) Departmental Inquiry

Choose the alternative which expresses best, the meaning of the given phrase.
41. Talking through one's hat :
(A) To talk straight

(B) To talk irresponsibly

(C) To brag or exaggerate

(D) To talk sense

42. A person who is indifferent to pleasure or pain :


(A) Patient

(B) Serene

(C) Stoic

(D) Enduring

43. To rest upon one's oars :


(A) To stop working

(B) To be deadly tired

(C) To indulge in day dreaming

(D) To avoid legitimate work

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

44. Proscription :
(A) Contribution

(B) Prohibition

(C) Prediction

(D) Subscription

45. One who hates mankind :


(A) Philanthropist

(B) Terrorist

(C) Misanthrope

(D) Misogynist

46. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC ?


(A) Myanmar

(B) Sri Lanka

(C) Bhutan

(D) Pakistan

47. The judge of Supreme Court holds office till the age of :
(A) 60 years

(B) 63 years

(C) 65 years

(D) 62 years

48. The words 'bull and bear' are used in :


(A) Income tax department

(B) Stock market

(C) Custom department

(D) Excise department

49. Name the member of Rajya Sabha who was recently in news for demanding change of
his/ her seat number :
(A) Rekha

(B) Hema Malini

(C) Dharaminder

(D) Jaya Bhaduri Bachchan

50. The Right of Education Act came into force on :


(A) April 1, 2010

(B) April 15, 2012

(C) October 2, 2011

(D) April 1, 2009


PARTII

(Writing and Communication Skill with Legal Aptitude)


51. Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that follow :
It is a matter of life or death: that's a concept that gets our attention, while being engrossed
in an A-grade medical book, last year's Pulitzer Prize winner for non-fiction. The Emperor
of All Maladies : A Biography of Cancer by Siddhartha Mukherjee. It isn't hyperbole to
call Emperor a literary masterpiece. The Pulitzer citation describes it as, "an elegant
inquiry, at once clinical and personal, into the long history of an insidious disease that,
despite treatment breakthroughs, still bedevils medical science." "Elegant" is an apposite
description of the New York-based oncologist's prose, whether he is rephrasing Tolstoy:
"Normal cells are identically normal; malignant cells become unhappily malignant in
unique ways"; or explaining the book's provocative title: "This book is a 'biography' in
the truest sense of the wordan attempt to enter the mind of this immortal illness, to
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

[Turn over

understand its personality, to demystify its behaviour." "If we, as a species, are the
ultimate product of Darwinian selection, then so, too, is this incredible disease that lurks
inside us." Mukherjee weaves together multiple stories about medical advances, doctors
and scientists, and the patients who teach us something in the living or dying. Emperor is
a historical account of cancer; we understand how cancer rose to prominence as a leading
cause of deathas a direct result of human beings living longer now, and more likely to
develop cancer. A greater understanding of the disease however comes with the caveat,
the more you know, and the more aware you are of how much you don't know. Another
doctor/author who combines the three key ingredients that make Emperor such an unputdownable readmedical expertise, literary elegance and the ability to tell a story
is Abraham Verghese. His first two books, My Own Country : A Doctor's Story of a Town
and Its People in the Age of AIDS and The Tennis Partner are gripping and finely crafted
more, they are candid and compassionate. The doctor's story is worth listening to, as
well, hence the popularity of the medical memoir. In Heart Matters : A Memoir of a
Female Heart Surgeon, author Kathy Magliato Strikes a chord when she describes "the
thrill of touching the human heart". As one of the world's very few female heart surgeons,
she offers a different viewpoint on what is largely regarded as a male preserve. Medical
books deal with a subject close to our heartsus, we, ourselves. Perhaps the ones we
are most drawn tothrillers asideare those that give us a deeper insight into how the
mind-body machine works, why we are sick, how we can get betterand, unhappily,
sometimes, why we can't. The doctor-author hyphenates are some of the most talented
storytellers in this field; so when you next get a prescription from your doctor, bear in
mind that within that undecipherable scrawl could lurk the beginnings of a literary
masterpiece.
Answer the following questions :
(15=5)
(i) Which key elements, according to the author, make a medical non-fictional book irresistible
read ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(ii) Why the author of the passage has specially referred to 'the thrill of touching the human
heart' ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(iii) Write down two relationships between humans and cancer ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

10

(iv) Why more and more medical books are appearing on the bestsellers list ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(v) Why Siddhartha Mukherjee calls his book "a biography in the truest sense of the word" ?
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Write down meaning of the terms (from the above passage) :
(15=5)
(vi) Undecipherable scrawl
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(vii) Memoir
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(viii) Caveat
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(ix) Insidious
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(x) Hyperbole
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
52. Fill up the blanks with suitable words :
(i) They stepped ------------ and began ------------ talk around

(15=5)

(ii) Nimi gets ------------ a bus in the morning to go ------------ school.

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

11

[Turn over

(iii) When the children are ------------ bed, let's listen to music ------------ the radio.

(iv) I will visit Nova Scotia ------------ March ------------ 2013.

(v) Sachin went ------------ for dinner ------------ the weekend.

53. Write about 30 words on each of the following topics :


(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Right to Education
Telemedicine
Legal Profession
Indian Democracy
Child Exploitation

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

12

(15=5)

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

13

[Turn over

54. Use the following legal terms in sentence :


(A) Negligence
(B) Judicial Review
(C) In camera
(D) Libel
(E) Promissory note

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

(15=5)

14

ROUGH WORK

LL.B.(Bachelor of Laws)/FRH-41368-A

15

540

OCET-2012
Booklet Series Code : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : LL.M. (Master of Laws)


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Who is the Chairman of 13th Finance Commission ?


(A) Vinod Rai

(B) Vijay L. Kelkar

(C) U.K. Sinha

(D) D. Subba Rao

Which day is celebrated as Press Freedom Day ?


(A) 8 March

(B) 5 June

(C) 3 May

(D) 10 December

Who is the 5th woman judge in the Supreme Court of India ?


(A) Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai

(B) Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra

(C) Justice Ruma Pal

(D) Justice Sujata Manohar

Sachin Tendulkar scored his 100th century against which team ?


(A) Pakistan

(B) Australia

(C) England

(D) Bangladesh

Who was the Chief Guest at the 63rd Republic Day of India ?
(A) Yingluck Shinawatra

(B) Susilo Bambang Yudhoyono

(C) Leung Chun-ying

(D) Joachim Gauck

The General Assembly has declared 2012 as the :


(A) Year of Education

(B) Year of Women Empowerment

(C) Year of Handicapped

(D) Year of Sustainable Energy

Where 18th SAARC summit is going to be held ?


(A) Dhaka

(B) Colombo

(C) Maldives

(D) Nepal

As per census data of 2011, nearly how much population of Indians still live in villages ?
(A) 70%

(B) 75%

(C) 65%

(D) 60%

Who is the Chairman of National Human Rights Commission ?


(A) Justice H.S. Kapadia

(B) Justice K.G. Balakrishnan

(C) Justice R.C. Lahoti

(D) Justice Ashok Bhan

10. 4th Summit of leaders of BRICS nations was held in March 2012 in :
(A) India

(B) China

(C) Brazil

(D) South Africa

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

[Turn over

11. Who said the law is a normative science ?


(A) Austin

(B) Henry Maine

(C) Bentham

(D) Kelsen

12. Who said that law is not universal in its nature. It is like a language, it varies with people
and age ?
(A) Savigny

(B) Karl Marx

(C) H.L.A. Hart

(D) C.K. Allen

13. "The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to
contract".
(A) Puchta

(B) Henry Maine

(C) Holland

(D) Goodhart

14. Ratio decidendi means :


(A) the proportion of justice in a case
(B) passing reference by the court in a case
(C) the decisive facts of the case
(D) the principle upon which the case is decided
15. Liability is the jural opposite of :
(A) Duty

(B) Immunity

(C) No Right

(D) Power

16. A beneficial ownership is :


(A) Not legal ownership

(B) A legal ownership

(C) Absolute ownership

(D) Equitable ownership

17. The Realist theory of Personality is also known as :


(A) Bracket Theory

(B) Concession Theory

(C) Organic Theory

(D) Purpose Theory

18. Jural Corelative of Power is :


(A) Liability

(B) Disability

(C) Immunity

(D) Duty

19. Which school was of the view that law should be studied separately from morals ?
(A) Historical School

(B) Analytical School

(C) Sociological School

(D) Natural School

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

20. The concept of 'Social Engineering' was propounded by :


(A) Salmond

(B) Duguit

(C) Pound

(D) Austin

21. res gestae means :


(A) Facts forming part of the same transaction
(B) Facts forming part of different transactions
(C) Facts forming part of different transactions but not at different time
(D) Acts done including the words spoken in the course of a transaction
22. Judicial concession is the concession :
(A) made within the court
(B) made both within and outside the court
(C) cannot be retracted
(D) made before the investigating officer
23. Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel can be applied :
(A) against all the functions of the state
(B) not against all the functions of the state
(C) against the state but not in its sovereign and legislative functions
(D) against the state in its sovereign and legislative functions
24. Testimony of an accomplice :
(A) can be given against an accused person
(B) cannot be given against an accused person
(C) is illegal and is not corroborated
(D) can convict the accused person even if it is uncorroborated
25. Leading question :
(A) can be asked in examination-in-chief
(B) can be asked in cross examination
(C) cannot be asked in re-examination
(D) can be asked at all stages of examination

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

[Turn over

26. A hostile witness is a witness :


(A) Who is not desirous of telling the truth to the court
(B) Who does not resile away from his previous statement
(C) Who gives inconsistent statement
(D) Who does not make any statement
27. In criminal cases the previous bad character of an accused person is :
(A) relevant

(B) not relevant except in reply

(C) not relevant

(D) relevant only in serious cases

28. Primary evidence means :


(A) copies made from the original
(B) oral accounts of the contents of a document
(C) the document itself produced for the inspection of the court
(D) certified copies of the original
29. When the terms of a contract are reduced to writing :
(A) No oral evidence can be given to prove such contract
(B) Oral evidence can be given to prove such contract
(C) Partly oral evidence can be given
(D) Secondary evidence can be given of such contract
30. The burden of proving the good faith of a transaction is on the party :
(A) Who is in a position of active confidence
(B) Who is not in a relation of active confidence
(C) Who is superior to other party
(D) Who is inferior to other party
31. Any worker can approach the labour court :
(A) Through trade union
(B) By reference from appropriate government
(C) Directly
(D) Directly or through trade union
32. Industrial Disputes Act came into operation in the year :
(A) 1947

(B) 1948

(C) 1949

(D) 1950

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

33. Under which statutory provision the concerned worker enjoys protection during
pendency of proceedings ?
(A) Section 25

(B) Section 29

(C) Section 33

(D) Section 36

34. After the expiry of how many days an award becomes operative :
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 30 days from the date of publication of the award by the appropriate government
(D) 60 days from the date on which it is signed by the presiding officer
35. A company is called a government company :
(A) in which 51% shares are held by the government
(B) in which 3/4th of the shares are held by the government
(C) majority of the shares are held by the central government
(D) majority of the shares are held by the central and/or state governments
36. Maximum members in a private company cannot be more than :
(A) 25

(B) 50

(C) 50 excluding employees

(D) 100

37. Public Company can be registered by :


(A) 5 members

(B) 7 members

(C) 12 members

(D) 15 members

38. Statutory meeting of a public company must be called within :


(A) 6 months of the incorporation
(B) 6 months after the prospectus is issued
(C) 1 year after the incorporation
(D) 1 year after the commencement of the business
39. Agreement by way of wager is :
(A) Forbidden

(B) Unlawful

(C) Void

(D) Unenforceable

40. Agreement without consideration :


(A) Void

(B) Voidable

(C) Unlawful

(D) Enforceable if the court finds it just

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

[Turn over

41. The International Court of Justice has :


(A) 9 judges

(B) 13 judges

(C) 15 judges

(D) 18 judges

42. Permanent Court of International Justice came to an end in the year :


(A) 1945

(B) 1946

(C) 1948

(D) 1950

43. Mention regarding the material sources of International Law can be found in :
(A) U.N. Charter

(B) I.C.J. Statute

(C) Rome Statute

(D) Hague Convention

44. U.N. Charter came into force on :


(A) 26 June 1945

(B) 24 October 1945

(C) 24 November 1945

(D) 10 December 1948

45. Who is called the "Father of International Law" ?


(A) Grotius

(B) Holland

(C) Austin

(D) Oppenheim

46. 'Service' defined under Consumer Protection Act does not include :
(A) Professional Service

(B) Technical Service

(C) Medical Service

(D) Commercial Service

47. What is the limitation period within which a complaint can be filed under the Consumer
Protection Act ?
(A) 1 year

(B) 2 years

(C) 3 years

(D) 4 years

48. Injuria sine damno means :


(A) Damaging the other party

(B) Injury without damaging

(C) Damaging without causing legal injury

(D) Wrong under criminal law

49. Vis major means :


(A) Act of God

(B) A major vice

(C) The main ground for action

(D) An act committed by a minor

50. Crime is a :
(A) Private wrong

(B) Public wrong

(C) Both private as well as public wrong

(D) Neither public nor private wrong

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

51. "Fraudulent intention" has been defined as "intention to defraud but not otherwise" in
the IPC section :
(A) 24

(B) 25

(C) 26

(D) 27

52. Under which section of IPC, an act of a child under the age of 7 years is not considered as
an offence :
(A) 81

(B) 82

(C) 83

(D) 84

53. Which section of the Hindu Marriage Act deals with "Maintenance, 'pendente lite' and
expenses of proceedings" ?
(A) 23

(B) 23A

(C) 24

(D) 25

54. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, which of the following persons is not
capable of giving a child in adoption ?
(A) Father
(B) Mother
(C) Guardian having the capacity to give the child in adoption
(D) Grandparent
55. Which report of the Law Commission has recommended that irretrievable breakdown of
marriage should be a ground of divorce ?
(A) 69th

(B) 70th

(C) 71st

(D) 72nd

56. In which court curative petition can be filed ?


(A) Supreme Court only

(B) High Court only

(C) Both Supreme Court and High Court

(D) Any Court

57. In the case of State of Uttranchal v. Balwant Singh (2011), the Supreme Court has given
important directions with regard to :
(A) Appointment of judges

(B) Election of President

(C) Public Interest Litigation

(D) Rights of the Prisoners

58. Right to enforce which articles of the Constitution cannot be suspended during
emergency :
(A) 19, 21

(B) 20, 21

(C) 21, 22

(D) 19, 20

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

[Turn over

59. 11th Fundamental Duty was added in the year :


(A) 1995

(B) 2002

(C) 2005

(D) 2007

60. Under Article 21-A, the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children
of the age :
(A) below 6 years

(B) below 10 years

(C) below 14 years

(D) 6 to 14 years

61. Which of the following articles was added by 1st Amendment to the Constitution ?
(A) Article 15(4)

(B) Article 16(4)

(C) Article 16(4A)

(D) Article 16(4B)

62. By which amendment of the Constitution, provisions as to disqualification on ground of


defection were added ?
(A) 42nd

(B) 44th

(C) 48th

(D) 52nd

63. In which case, the Supreme Court upheld the passive euthanasia ?
(A) Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010)

(B) Aruna Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011)

(C) Union of India v. Navin Jindal (2004)

(D) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996)

64. Which article of the Constitution deals with the right of the President to address and
send messages to the houses ?
(A) 83

(B) 84

(C) 85

(D) 86

65. What is the period for which the member of either house of Parliament if remains absent
from all meetings without the permission of the house, the house may declare his seat
vacant ?
(A) 40 days

(B) 60 days

(C) 90 days

(D) 100 days

66. Part IX-B of the Constitution deals with :


(A) Panchayats

(B) Municipalities

(C) Cooperative Societies

(D) Tribunals

67. Which of the following articles deals with double jeopardy ?


(A) 20(1)

(B) 20(2)

(C) 20(3)

(D) 21

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

10

68. The minimum strength of Council of Ministers including the Chief Minister cannot be
less than :
(A) 10

(B) 12

(C) 15

(D) 20

69. Which article of the Constitution deals with the duties of the Prime Minister as respects
the furnishing of information to the President ?
(A) 76

(B) 77

(C) 78

(D) 79

70. In which year the ground of 'internal disturbance' was substituted by 'armed rebellion'
for imposition of National Emergency ?
(A) 1976

(B) 1978

(C) 1980

(D) 1985

71. How many entries are there in List I of Seventh Schedule ?


(A) 98

(B) 99

(C) 100

(D) 101

72. Who presides over the joint sitting of both the houses of Parliament ?
(A) Vice President

(B) President

(C) Prime Minister

(D) Speaker

73. Vice President is :


(A) Member of Lok Sabha

(B) Member of Rajya Sabha

(C) Member of State Assembly

(D) Not a member of either house

74. 'Financial Emergency', if imposed and approved by both the houses of Parliament, can
remain in force :
(A) for 6 months

(B) for one year

(C) for three years

(D) till it is revoked

75. How many languages are there in 8th schedule ?


(A) 20

(B) 21

(C) 22

(D) 23

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

11

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

LL.M. (Master of Laws)/FRH-41341-A

12

103

OCET-2012

Sr. No. :

Question Booklet Series : A


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal(s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for
each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

Let A be an n n matrix such that A2 = A, then rank (A) + rank (In A) is


(A) n2

(B) 2n

(C) n

(D) n 1

Let A be a hermitian matrix of order 2 with equal eigen values. Then


(A) A = I, where is a scalar

(B) A = A2

(C) A = I

(D) A = A3

Let A be an orthogonal matrix of odd order. Then


(A) O is the only eigen value of A

(B) All eigen values of A are complex

(C) All eigen values of A are real

(D) 1 or 1 is an eigen value of A

For any homogeneous system Ax = 0, where A is a non zero matrix of order 3 4. Then the
number of linearly independent solutions of the system are
(A) At the most 3

(B) 0

(C) At the most 1

(D) 3

Let A be a 4 4 matrix whose characteristic polynomial is x4 + 4x3 + x2 1, then


(A) |A| = 0

(B) |A| = 1

(C) |A| = 1

(D) |A| = 4

Let V be a vector space of dimension 6. Let V1 & V2 be two subspaces of V, each of dimension
4. Then
(A) V1 V2 =

(B) V1 V2 = 0

(C) V1 V2 0

(D) V1 V2 = V

Let A be a real skew-symmetric matrix such that A2 + I = 0 then


(A) A is an odd order matrix

(B) A is an even order matrix

(C) A is singular

(D) A is symmetric

x1

The points (x1, y1), (x2, y2), (x3, y3) are collinear if and only if the rank of matrix x 2
x
3
(A) less than 3

(B) less than or equal to 3

(C) greater than 3

(D) greater than or equal to 3

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

y1 1

y 2 1 is
y 3 1

[Turn over

9.

x 2 y2
+
= 1 is
The locus of a point of intersection of two perpendicular tangents to the ellipse
4
9
given by
(A) x2 + y2 = 36

(B) xy = 36

(C) x2 + y2 = 13

(D) x + y = 5

10. Condition that the line lx + my + n = 0 (l, n 0) touches the parabola y2 = 4ax is
(A)

an
= m2
l

l
= n2
am 2

(B)

am 2
(C) n =
l

(D) n =

l
am 2

11. Plane x + 2y z = 4 cuts the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 x + z 2 = 0 in a circle with radius


(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 1

12. The cone ax 2 + by 2 + cz 2 + 2fyz + 2gzx + 2hxy = 0 admits of sets of three mutually
perpendicular generators if and only if
(A) a = b + c

(B) b = a + c

(C) a = b + c

(D) c = a + b

13. Semivertical angle of a right circular cone with three mutually perpendicular generators is
(A) cot1
(C) cos1

( 2)
sin1 ( 2 )

(B) tan1

( 2)

(D)

14. If two spheres of radii r1 and r2 cut orthogonally, then the radius of the common circle is
(A) r1r2

(B)

(C) r1r2 r12 + r22

(D)

15. The series

n =2

r12 + r22

r1r2
r12 + r22

1
,p>0
n(logn) p

(A) Converges for p > 1 and diverges for p 1


(B) Converges for p > 1 and diverges for p 1
(C) Converges for p 1 and diverges for p < 1
(D) Converges for p 1 and diverges for p < 1

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

16. Between any two real roots of ex sin x = 1, there is at least one real root of
(A) ex cos x + 1 = 0

(B) ex cos x + 1 = 0

(C) ex cos x 1 = 0

(D) ex sin x 1 = 0

x, x irrational
17. The function f(x) =
is
x, x is rational
(A) Continuous everywhere

(B) Discontinuous everywhere

(C) Continuous only at 0

(D) Discontinuous only at 0

18. The curve through point (1, 0) and having at each of its points the slope x/y is
(A) x2 y2 = 1

(B) x2 + y2 = 1

(C) x2 + y2 = 2

(D) x2 y2 = 2

19. Integration factor of the equation

dy 3 3 y
(x y e xy) + 3x2y3ey + y3 + y2 = 0 is
dx

(A)

1
y2

(B)

1
y3

(C)

1
y

(D)

3
y2
1

20. If Pn(x) denotes Legendre polynomial of degree n, then

2
n

(x) dx is

(A)

1
2n + 1

(B)

2
2n 1

(C)

1
2n 1

(D)

2
2n + 1

21. Laplace inverse transform of function F(s) =

1
is
s(s + 9)
2

(A)

1
(1 cos 3t)
9

(B)

1
(1 cos 3t)
3

(C)

1
(1 cos t)
9

(D)

1
(1 + cos t)
3

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

[Turn over

22. If f(t) for t 0 be a continuous function and of exponential order on [0, ) such that f(0) = 0
then Laplace transform of f '(t) is
(A) SF(s)

(B)

F(s)
s

(C) S2F(s)

(D)

F(s)
s2

23. Solution of the equation x(y2 a2)dx + y(x2 z2)dy z(y2 a2)dz = 0 is
(A)

(x2

z2 )

(y2

a 2)

x 2 z2
=c
(B) 2
y a2

=c

y2 + a 2
(C) 2 2 = c
x z

(D) (y2 + a2) (x2 z2) = c

where c is an arbitrary constant.


24. The series

1
1
1
1
+
+
+ ..... +
+ ..... has the sum
2.3 3.4 4.5
(n + 1)(n + 2)

(A) 1

(C)

1
3

(D)

25. The sum of the series

1
2

(B)

n =1

3n 1 1
is
6n 1

(A)

1
5

(B)

2
5

(C)

3
5

(D)

4
5

x4
26. The limit of the function f(x, y) = 4
as (x, y) (0, 0) is
x + y2
1
2

(A) 1

(B)

(C) 0

(D) does not exist

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

27. Value of the double integral

x2 +y 2

dy dx , where R is the semicircular region bounded by the

x-axis and the curve y = 1 x 2 is


(A)

2
(e 1)
2

(B)

(C)

(D)

28. The integral


(A) Converges for p > 1 and diverges for p < 1
(B) Converges for p = 1
(C) Diverges for p > 1
(D) Converges for p 0
29. The area of the region that lies inside the circle r = 1 and outside the cardioid r = 1 cos is

dx2

24 (xe ++1)1)
p

(A) 2

(B) 2 +

(C) 2

(D) 2 +

30. The sum of the series

n =1

1
is
n(n + 1)

(A) 2

(B)

1
2

(C) 1

(D)

1
3

31. The flux of F = (x y)i + xj across the circle x2 + y2 = 1 in xy-plane is


(A)
(C)

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

(B) 2
(D)

[Turn over

32. The work done by the conservative field F = yzi + xzj + xyk along any smooth curve C joining
point A (1, 3, 9) to B(1, 6, 4) is
(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 2

33. If A is a nonsingular matrix of order n, then adj (adj A) is


(A) A(|A|)(n 1)

(B) A(|A|)

(C) A( | A | ) (n 2)

(D) A|A|

34. The area of the cap cut from the hemisphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 2, z 0 by the cylinder x2 + y2 = 1 is

(B) 2 2

(A)

(C) 2 + 2

(D) 2 2 2

35. If Pn(x) is Legendre polynomial of degree n, then


(A) 1

(B) 0

(C) 2

(D) 1

P (x)dx
n

is

36. Let x and y be positive integers such that 3x + 7y is divisible by 11. Which of the following
must also be divisible by 11 ?
(A) 4x + 6y

(B) x + y + 5

(C) 9x + 4y

(D) 4x 9y

37. What is the remainder when 234 235 236 237 238 239 is divided by 120 ?
(A) 119

(B) 1

(C) 0

(D) 2

38. How many zeros are there at the end of 126 ! ?

39.

(A) 25

(B) 30

(C) 31

(D) 33

limn n1/n

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C)

(D) Not defined

40. Let f be a function defined for all real numbers. Which of the following conditions assures that
f has an inverse function.
(A) f is periodic

(B) f is continuous

(C) f is strictly increasing

(D) f is symmetric with respect to the y-axis

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

41. Let f : [0, 1] |R be a continuous function such that f (0)=1 and f(1) = 0. Which of the
following statements is not true ?
(A) There is u [0, 1] such that f(u) f(x) for all x [0, 1]
(B) There is u [0, 1] such that f(u) = 1/2
(C) There is u [0, 1] such that f(u) = 3/2
(D) For all h (0, 1), limx h f (x) = f(h)
42. A particle moves on the curve y = log x so that the x component has the velocity x'(t) = t + 1 for
t 0. At time t = 0, the particle is at point (1, 0). At t = 1, the particle is at the point :
(A) (2, log 2)

(B) (3, log 3)

(C) (3/2 log (3/2))

(D) (5/2, log (5/2))

43. The number of group homomorphisms : ZZ3 ZZ6 is :


(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 6

44. Let G be a group of order 6. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) G has an element of order 2

(B) G has an element of order 3

(C) G has an element of order 6

(D) Every subgroup of G is abelian

45. What is the greatest integer that divides p4 1 for every prime number p greater than 5 ?
(A) 30

(B) 48

(C) 120

(D) 240

46. Suppose f(x) =

2
x 1 and g(x) = x + 1. Then for any real number x

(A) g(f(x)) = x

(B) g(f(|x| + 1)) = |x| + 1

(C) g(f(|x|)) = |x|

(D) g(f(x)) = |x|

47. The graph of x2 + y3 = 1 is symmetric with respect to :


(A) the line y = x

(B) X-axis

(C) Y-axis

(D) the origin

48. Let f : [0, 2] |R, f(x) =

x 3 + 2 2 x 3 + 1 + x 3 + 10 6 x 3 + 1 . Then which of the following

statements are true ?


(A) f '(x) = 0 for all x (0.2)

(B) f(x) 0 for some x [0, 2]

(C) f is not continuous

(D) f '(x) > 0 for all x (0, 2)

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

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1
1
1
+
+ .... +

=
49. lim
n n + 1
n+2
2n

(A) 0

(B) log 2

(C) 1

(D)

50. Let G = C3 C3. Then the number of subgroups of G of order 3 is :


(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

51. The number of distinct digits in 239 is :


(A) 3

(B) 7

(C) 9

(D) 10

52. Let |R |R be a continuous function such that f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y). Then which of the
following statements are true ?
(i)

f is an odd function

(ii) f (q) = qf (1) for every rational number q


(iii) f(x) = f(1)x for every x |R.
(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(C) (i) and (ii) only

(D) all three

53. Consider the ring R = {(x, y) : x, y ZZ} with component-wise addition and multiplication.
Then the number of all solutions of equation x2 = 1 in R is :
(A) 0

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

54. Which of the following cannot be a root of a polynomial of the form 9x3 + ax2 + b, where a and b are
integers ?
(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 1/3

(D) 1/4

55. In ZZ13, the remainder of 5x3 + 11x2 + 6x + 2 divided by 8x + 3 is :


(A) 0

(B) 3

(C) 7

(D) 11

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

10

56. Let R be a ring such that r2 = r for all r R. Which of the following statements are true ?
(i)

r + r = 0 for all r R.

(ii) (r + s)2 = r2 + s2 for all r, s R.


(iii) R is a commutative ring.
(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i) only

(C) (ii) only

(D) all three

57. Let R be a ring of 2 2 matrices with integer entries. Which of the following statement is not true ?
(A) R has zero divisors
(B) R is not a commutative ring
(C) a R is a unit if and only if the determinant of a is not zero
(D) R has a proper right ideal
58. Find the complete solution to the inequality :
x3 8 7x 14
(A) x 3 or x 1

(B) 3 x 1

(C) 3 x 1 or x 2

(D) x 3 or 1 x 2

59. If f(x) = x2 4, then all solutions of (f o f) (x) = 0


(A) 2

(B) 2 + 2, 2 2

(C) 2, 6

(D) No solutions

60. Find the point on line y = 2x 3 which lies closest to (4, 0).
(A) (1.5, 0)

(B) (2, 1)

(C) (2.5, 2)

(D) (3, 3)

61. If f(x) = x2 1 and g(x) = 2x + 1, then (f o g g o f) (x) =


(A) 2x2 + 4x + 1

(B) 2x2 4x + 1

(C) 2x2 + 4x 2

(D) x2 2x 2

62. A line contains (2, 7) and ( 4, 2). Which statement is not true ?
(A) The line has Y-intercept 4
(B) The line is parallel to 3x 2y = 6
(C) The line is perpendicular to 3y = 2x + 12
(D) No portion of the graph of the line lies in the first quadrant

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

11

[Turn over

63. When a polynomial P(x) is divided by x 2, the quotient is 3x2 x 5 and the remainder is 1.
Then P( 1) equals
(A)

(B) 3

(C)

(D) 7

64. Let f and g be differentiable functions such that : f(1) = 2, f'(1) = 3, f'(2) = 4 and g(1) = 2,
g'(1) = 3, g'(2) = 5. Then (f o g)' (1) =
(A)

(B) 4

(C)

12

(D) 15

65. Let R be a ring. Which of the statements are not true ?


(A)

If every non-zero element of R is a unit then R has no zero divisors

(B)

If R is a field then R has no proper non-zero ideals

(C)

The ring R R has zero divisors

(D)

If R has no zero divisors then R is an integral domain

66. Consider the equation : x2 13y2 = 275. Then it has :


(A)

no solutions

(B) a unique solution

(C)

more than one but finite solutions

(D) infinitely many solutions

67. In a ring ZZp, where p is a prime, the product of all non-zero elements is :
(A)

(B) 0

(C)

(D) varies with the value of p

68. Let f and g be function from |R to |R. The negation of the following statement :
For each a |R, there is b |R such that if f(a) > 0, then g(b) > 0 is which of the following ?
(A)

For each b |R there does not exist a |R such that if f(a) > 0, then g(b) > 0.

(B)

For each b |R there exists a |R such that f (a) > 0 and g(b) 0

(C)

There exists b |R such that for each a |R, f(a) > 0 and g(b) 0

(D)

There exists b |R and there exists a |R such that f(a) 0 and g(b) 0

69. Determine the r so that tr (t > 0) is a solution of the differential equation t2y" 7ty' 20y = 0
(A)

r = 2 or 5

(B) r = 2 or 10

(C)

r = 2 or 10

(D) r = 4 or 5.

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

12

70.

k2
=
K!

(A)

2e

(B) e2

(C)

e + e2

(D) e/2

k =1

1 6
1 3

71. If A is a 3 3 matrix such that A 1 = 2 , A 1 = 2 ,


1 2
0 1
1 5
and A 0 = 1 then the determinant of A is :
1 2
(A)

(B) 2

(C)

(D) 5

72. If f is twice differentiable function on an open interval, then


lim f(x + h) 2f (x) + f(x h)
=
h0
h2

(A)

2f ' (x)

(B) f ' (x) + f"(x)

(C)

f ' (x)2

(D) f "(x)

73. Find all continuously differentiable solutions of differential equation :


xy' + y = x, (1 < x <1).
x k
+ , k an arbitrary constant
2 x

(A)

y=

(C)

xy = k, k an arbitrary constant

(B)

y=

x
2

(D) y = 0

74. The solution of differential equation y" 2y' + y = 0 subject to conditions :


y(0) = 1 = y'(0) is :
(A)

et

(B) (1 + t) et

(C)

et+1

(D) t + et

75. The rightmost digit of 1717 is :


(A)

(B) 7

(C)

(D) 1

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

13

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ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

14

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

15

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School)-Mathematics/FRH-41371/A

16

161

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.
Words

In Figures

In Words

In

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.B.A. (Executive)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 85

Maximum Marks : 85

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel Pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 85 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

M.B.A. (Executive)/A
1.

2.

A device used for measuring the depth of the sea is called :


(A) Altimeter

(B) Fathometer

(C) Hydrometer

(D) Manometer

Food is cooked faster in a pressure cooker because :


(A) Heat cannot escape from the cooker
(B) Steam is hotter than the boiling water
(C) Due to high pressure the boiling point of water is raised
(D) In the cooker water starts boiling at a lower temperature

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Two national parks highly populated with one-horned rhinoceros are :


(A) Manas and Laoknowa

(B) Kaziranga and Orang

(C) Buracharpori and Kochmora

(D) Kaziranga and Pabitra

In case of cardiac arrest, what should be the most primary step ?


(A) Mouth-to-mouth respiration

(B) Cardiac massage

(C) To call a doctor

(D) None of these

Which of the following cereal was among the first to be used by man ?
(A) Barley

(B) Oat

(C) Rye

(D) Wheat

The Indian Civil Service was introduced during the time of :


(A) Lord Canning

(B) Lord Curzon

(C) Lord Cornwallis

(D) Lord Dalhousie

Gandhi's Champaran Sataygraha aimed at :


(A) Securing the rights of Harijans

(B) A civil disobedience movement

(C) Maintaining the unity of Hindu society

(D) Solving the problems of indigo workers

The scope of life and personal liberty (Article-21) includes :


(A) Right to bonus

(B) Right to good health

(C) Right to housing

(D) Right to work

Who is legally competent to declare war and conclude peace ?


(A) The President

(B) The Parliament

(C) The Council of Ministers

(D) Prime Minister

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

[Turn over

10. The total number of ear bones are :


(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 8

11. Which of the following is a true fruit ?


(A) Apple

(B) Cashew Nut

(C) Pineapple

(D) Coconut

12. All the colors on a TV screen are produced from :


(A) Red, green and blue
(B) Red, yellow, orange and blue
(C) Blue, green and yellow
(D) Violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red
13. Death Valley is the lowest point in the continent of :
(A) Asia

(B) Africa

(C) North America

(D) South America

14. The first Governor-General of India was :


(A) Cornwallis

(B) Wellesley

(C) Warren Hastings

(D) Sir John Shore

15. Mesopotamia is the old name of :


(A) Iran

(B) Iraq

(C) Turkey

(D) Egypt

16. Who among the following won the first Oscar for Pakistan on February 26, 2012 ?
(A) Ashgar Farhadi

(B) Shahina Amin

(C) Fatima Nourjahan

(D) Sarmeen Obaid-chinoy

17. The author of the book "Environmental Jurisprudence" is :


(A) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud

(B) Justice Ashok A. Desai

(C) Justice A.K. Sood

(D) Justice Prem Nagar

18. The standard time of a country differs from the GMT in multiples of :
(A) Two hours

(B) One hour

(C) Half hour

(D) Four minutes

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

19. Who among the following won the Album of the year award on February 12, 2012 at the
54th Grammy awards ?
(A) Tonny Bennett

(B) Kanye West

(C) Taylor Swift

(D) Adele

20. Which of the following commands is used to select the whole document ?
(A) Ctrl+A

(B) Alt+F5

(C) Shift+S

(D) None of these

21. A country's balance of trade is unfavourable when :


(A) Exports exceeds Imports

(B) Imports exceeds exports

(C) Terms of trade become unfavourable

(D) None of these

22. The Constitution of India describes India as :


(A) A union of states

(B) Quasi-federal

(C) A federation of states and union territories

(D) Partly unitary and partly federal

23. The finance bill includes :


(A) All demands

(B) All expenditures

(C) All accounts

(D) All tax proposals

24. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Multilateral Convention Mutual
Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters that was signed by India in November 4, 2011?
(A) It offers automatic exchange of information, multilateral simultaneous tax examination and
international assistance in the collection of tax due
(B) It offers a wide range of tools for cross-border tax cooperation
(C) The convention imposes safeguards to protect the confidentiality of the information exchanged
(D) All of the above
25. According to the data released on March 1, 2012 the trade deficit during April-January
2011-2012 was :
(A) $ 148.66 billion

(B) $ 124.37 billion

(C) $ 142.34 billion

(D) $ 138.78 billion

26. According to the advance estimates of national income 2011-2012 released by the Central
Statistic Office on February 7, 2012 the Gross Domestic Product growth in the Fiscal
2011-2012 would be :
(A) 7.1 percent

(B) 7.2 percent

(C) 7.0 percent

(D) 6.9 percent

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

[Turn over

27. According to the official data released by the Commerce Ministry on March 1, 2012 the
volume of exports was _____ during April-January 2011-2012 :
(A) $ 242.79 billion

(B) $ 302.53 billion

(C) $ 268.63 billion

(D) $ 301.67 billion

28. National Thermal Power Corporation on September 6, 2011 did sign a deal with which of
the following country to set up India's first thermal power plant abroad :
(A) Malaysia

(B) Sri Lanka

(C) Bhutan

(D) Bangladesh

29. The Reserve Bank of India made it clear to banks in February 2012 that LTV ratio in
respect of house loans should not exceed 80 percent. What is the full form of LTV ?
(A) Loan to Value

(B) Lend to Value

(C) Loan to Valuation

(D) Lending to Value

30. India and Pakistan on February 21, 2012 agreed to extend the agreement to reduce the
risk from accidents related to nuclear weapons for another how many years ?
(A) Five

(B) Four

(C) Three

(D) Two

31. India and Indonesia on October 4, 2011 formally launched the negotiations for a
Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) at the Indonesia-India
Biennial Trade Ministers Forum held in :
(A) Jakarta

(B) New Delhi

(C) Mumbai

(D) Bali

32. The Union Cabinet on September 15, 2011 approved the approach paper for the 12th five
year plan (20122017) which seeks to raise the annual economic growth rate to ______
percent during the five year period, up from 8.20 percent estimated in 11th plan.
(A) 8.50

(B) 8.75

(C) 9.00

(D) 9.20

33. Which of the following banks on November 15, 2011 became the most valuable lenders
in India overtaking State Bank of India in Market capitalization capping Rs. 1,10,200
crore ?
(A) HDFC Bank

(B) ICICI Bank

(C) Axis Bank

(D) Punjab National Bank

34. The Central Government on July 16, 2011 announced to have draw up plans to set up
______ new textiles parks across the country.
(A) 15

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 35

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

35. Padma Bhushan awardee classical singer Ustad Sultan Khan passed away on November
27, 2011. Which of the following musical instrument was revived by Ustad Khan ?
(A) Sitar

(B) Rudraveena

(C) Sarod

(D) Sarangi

36. "A Shot at History" is a book about the Olympic Champion Shooter Abhinav Bindra,
authored by _______ .
(A) Sharda Ugra

(B) Rohit Brijnath

(C) Ashok Chopra

(D) Anjum Chopra

For questions 37-41 : Study the following table carefully to answer these questions :
Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six subjects
Students

Subjects
A (out of 60) B (out of 40) C (out of 80) D (out of 50) E (out of 120) F(out of 75)

80

65

58

68

75

87

55

70

67

74

88

78

74

54

72

84

62

76

68

76

82

56

72

64

75

68

64

72

80

72

82

78

75

67

68

82

37. What is the total marks obtained by student R in subject B, D and E ?


(A) 200

(B) 138

(C) 168

(D) 156

38. What is the average marks obtained by all the students in subjects C ? (Rounded off to
the nearest integer)
(A) 56

(B) 58

(C) 54

(D) None of these

39. What is the average percentage of marks obtained by all the student in Subject A ?
(A) 73

2
3

(B) 43

2
5

(C) 72

1
3

(D) 48

3
5

40. Approximately what is the overall percentage of marks obtained by student Q in all the
subjects ?
(A) 77

(B) 72

(C) 78

(D) 74

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

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41. What is the total marks obtained by all the students together in subject E ?
(A) 522

(B) 488

(C) 445

(D) 534

Directions (42-46) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that
follow :
Madhu and Shobha are good in Dramatics and Computer Science. Anjali and Madhu are good in
Computer Science and Physics. Anjali, Poonam and Nisha are good in Physics and History. Nisha and
Anjali are good in Physics and Mathematics. Poonam and Shobha are good in History and Dramatics.
42. Who is good in Physics, Dramatics and Computer Science ?
(A) Shobha

(B) Poonam

(C) Madhu

(D) Anjali

43. Who is good in Dramatics and Computer Science ?


(A) Nisha

(B) Shobha

(C) Madhu

(D) Anjali

44. Who is good in Physics, History and Dramatics ?


(A) Poonam

(B) Shobha

(C) Madhu

(D) Anjali

45. Who is good in Physics, History, Mathematics and Computer Science ?


(A) Poonam

(B) Nisha

(C) Madhu

(D) Anjali

46. Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics but not in Computer Science ?
(A) Poonam

(B) Nisha

(C) Madhu

(D) Anjali

47. Which of the following number is largest ?


(A) 3 1/3

(B) 51/5

(C) 21/2

(D) 7 1/7

48. If 9X= 9/3X, then X is :


(A) 1/3

(B) 2/3

(C) 3

(D) 4/3

49. If the two hands in a clock are 3 minutes division apart, then the angle between them is :
(A) 3

(B) 18

(C) 24

(D) 60

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

50. Pipe A can fill a tank in 5 hours, pipe B in 10 hours and pipe C in 30 minutes. If all the
pipes are open, in how many hours will the tank be filled ?
(A) 2

(B) 2.5

(C) 3

(D) 3.5

51. A man walking at the rate of 5 km/h crosses a bridge in 15 minutes. The length of the
bridge (in meters) is :
(A) 600

(B) 700

(C) 1000

(D) 1250

52. The difference of two numbers is 25% of the larger number. If the smaller number is 30,
then the larger number is :
(A) 40

(B) 45

(C) 48

(D) 50

53. A man invests Rs. 14400 in purchasing shares of a company paying 5% dividend at the
time when a Rs. 100 share costs Rs. 120 in the market. What is his annual income ?
(A) 500

(B) 680

(C) 600

(D) 700

Directions (54-58) : What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions ?
54. (1024 263 233) (986 764 156) = ?
(A) 9

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) None of these

55. 384 12 2 = ?
(A) 9024

(B) 9216

(C) 6676

(D) 6814

56. 16 24 48 120 360 1260 ?

57.

(A) 3780

(B) 4725

(C) 5355

(D) 5040

2704 2209 = ?
(A) 1996

(B) 2444

(C) 2452

(D) 1983

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

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58. 576 ? 114 = 8208


(A) 8

(B) 7

(C) 6

(D) 9

59. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Suraj said "she is the only daughter of my father's son-in-law".
How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
(A) Niece

(B) Cousin

(C) Sister

(D) Daughter

60. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters 'OEHM' using each
letter only once in each word ?
(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two three

(D) More than three

61. 'K' walked 5 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metres. He then
took a right turn and walked for 20 metres. How far he is from the starting point ?
(A) 20 metres

(B) 15 metres

(C) 25 metres

(D) 30 metres

62. What is the sum of all two digit numbers that give a remainder of 3 when they are divided
by 7 ?
(A) 666

(B) 676

(C) 683

(D) 777

63. If a, a+2 and a+4 are prime numbers, then the number of possible solutions for a is :
(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) More than three

64. Find the missing term in the following series :


BCFGJK__RSVW
(A) LM

(B) OP

(C) QR

(D) NO

65. What will be the next term in :BDF, CFI, DHL ?


(A) CJM

(B) EIM

(C) EJO

(D) EMI

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

10

Directions (66-68) : In the following questions, four alternatives are given, out of which three
are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
66. (A) Flood
(C) Explosion
67. (A) Nephrology
(C) Astrology
68. (A) Broad : Wide
(C) Tiny : Small

(B) Hurricane
(D) Earthquake
(B) Entomology
(D) Mycology
(B) Light : Heavy
(D) Big : Large

69. If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERATT, then DIRECTION will be coded as :


(A) IRDCTIONE

(B) NOIETCRID

(C) RIDTCENOI

(D) NORTECDII

70. Synonym Relation :


Genuine : Authentic : : Mirage ?
(A) Image

(B) Transpiration

(C) Reflection

(D) Illusion

71. How many triangles does the figure contain ?

(A) 12

(B) 10

(C) 6

(D) 11

72. What is the ratio of volumes of two spheres whose radii are in the ratio of 2 : 3 ?
(A) 2:3

(B) 4:9

(C) 4:6

(D) 8:27

73. A piece of cloth costs Rs. 70. If the piece is 4 m longer and each metre costs Rs. 2 less,
the cost remains unchanged. How long is the piece ?
(A) 8 m

(B) 9 m

(C) 10 m

(D) 12 m

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

11

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74. Assertion (A) : Our country is progressing fast in all fields of life.
Reasoning (R) : The middle class people are silent sufferers as usual.
(A) A explains R

(B) R explains A

(C) No relationship exists between the two

(D) R is only a partial cause of A

75. The position of the first and fifth digits in the number 53498167 is interchanged. Similarly
the position of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the
following will be the last digit after the rearrangement ?
(A) 7

(B) 5

(C) 3

(D) None of these

Directions (76-80) : In the following questions, you have one brief passage with some questions
following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question
out of four alternatives.
One simple physical concept lies behind the formation of the stars : gravitational instability. The concept
is not new. Newton first perceived it late in the 17th centaury.
Imagine a uniform, static cloud of gas in space. Imagine then that the gas is somehow disturbed so that
one small spherical region becomes a little denser than the gas around it so that the small region's
gravitational field becomes slightly stronger. It now attracts more matter to it and its gravity increases
further, causing it to begin to contract. As it contracts its density increases which increases its gravity
even more so that it picks up even more matter and contracts even further. The process continues until
the small region gas finally forms a gravitational bound object.
76. The primary purpose of the passage is to :
(A) Describe a static condition
(B) Support a theory considered outmoded
(C) Depict the successive stages of a phenomenon
(D) Demonstrate the evolution of the meaning of a term
77. It can be inferred from the passage that the author views the information contained
within it as :
(A) Lacking in elaboration

(B) Original but obscure

(C) Speculative and unprofitable

(D) Uncomplicated and traditional

78. With which of the following words can you replace the word uniform as given in this
passage ?
(A) Uniting

(B) Varying

(C) Gaseous

(D) Unvarying

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

12

79. What does the underlined word 'it' stands for in the passage ?
(A) Gravitational instability

(B) Cloud of gases

(C) Small spherical denser region

(D) Matter

80. The author provides information that answers which of the following questions ?
1.

What causes the disturbances that changes the cloud from its original static condition ?

2.

How does this small region's increasing density affect its gravitational field ?

3.

What is the end result of the gradually increasing concentration of the small region
of gas ?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Directions (81-82) : In the following questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in
with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the
correct alternative out of the four.
81. The court ______ cognizance of the criminal's words.
(A) Took

(B) Made

(C) Gave

(D) Allowed

82. __________ wins this civil war there will be little rejoicing at the victory.
(A) Whichever

(B) Whoever

(C) Whatever

(D) Wherever

Directions (83-85) : In the following questions, you have one brief passage with some questions
following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question
out of four alternatives.
In May 1966, the World Health Organisation was authorized to initiate a global campaign to eradicate
smallpox. The goal was to eradicate the disease in one decade. Because the similar projects for malaria
and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated, but eleven years
after the initial organization of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations, but also to isoate patients with active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission. Rewards
for reporting small-pox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers. One-by-one, each small
-pox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. At the same time, the entire
village where the victim had lived was vaccinated.
Today small-pox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.
83. Which of the following is the best title for the passage ?
(A) The World Health Organisation

(B) The Eradication of Small-pox

(C) Small-pox Vaccination

(D) Infectious Disease

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

13

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84. What was the goal of the campaign against small-pox ?


(A) To decrease the spread of small-pox worldwide
(B) To eliminate small-pox worldwide in ten years
(C) To provide mass vaccination against small-pox worldwide
(D) To initiate worldwide projects for small-pox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time
85. According to the paragraph what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of
small-pox ?
(A) Vaccination of entire village

(B) Treatment of individual victims

(C) Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations

(D) Extensive reporting of out-breaks

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

14

ROUGH WORK

M.B.A. (Executive)-A/FRH-41347

15

188

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : MBACIT
Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

MBACIT/A
1.

2.

3.

The competence of a company to make contract is decided by its :


(A) Certificate of Incorporation

(B) Memorandum of Association

(C) Articles of Association

(D) Information Memorandum

A debit may signify :


(A) Decrease in asset account

(B) Increase in asset account

(C) Increase in current liability

(D) Increase in capital liability

Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists :
List-I

List-II

(Type of Asset)

(Example)

A. Intangible Assets

1. Gas wells

B. Fixed Assets

2. Preliminary expenses

C. Fictitious Assets

3. Patents and Trademarks

D. Wasting Assets

4. Generators
5. Cash balance

Code :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

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4.

Match List-I and II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Principles of Insurance)

(Explanation)

A. Uberrimae fidei

1. Immediate cause

B. Insurable interests

2. Promise to compensate loss

C. Indemnity

3. Mutual trust

D. Causa proxima

4. Legally recognized relationship

Code :

5.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Maslow's need hierarchy theory of motivation has classified the human needs into following
five categories :
1.

Safety needs

2.

Esteem needs

3.

Social needs

4.

Physiological needs

5.

Self-actualisation needs

Which one of the following is correct hierarchy of the above needs from low order to high
order ?
(A) 1-4-3-2-5

(B) 4-1-3-2-5

(C) 5-3-2-4-1

(D) 4-1-2-5-3

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

6.

Match List-I and II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Contributor)

(Management Thought/Theory)

A. Mary Parker Follet

1. Human Relation

B. Henri Fayol

2. Integration Theory

C. Elton Mayo

3. Scientific Management

D. F W Taylor

4. 14 Principles of Management

Code :

7.

8.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Which one of the following transactions does not affect the Balance Sheet totals ?
(A) Purchase of Rs. 5,000 supplies on credit

(B) Payment of Rs. 30,000 not payable

(C) Collection of Rs. 40,000 from debtors

(D) Withdrawal of Rs. 8,000 by owner

Match List-I and II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Item)

(Accounting Standards)

A. Earning per share

1. AS-3

B. Cash flow statement

2. AS-20

C. Inventory valuation

3. AS-1

D. Disclosure of Accounting Policies

4. AS-2

Code :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

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9.

Which one of the following function is concerned with synchronizing and unifying the
action of a group of people in an organisation ?
(A) Directing

(B) Controlling

(C) Coordinating

(D) Staffing

10. A company limited by shares has to call the statutory meeting within a period of not less
than One month and not more than six months. The period is counted with reference to
which one of the following ?
(A) The date of incorporation
(B) The date at which the company is entitled to commence business
(C) The date of actual receipt of certificate of incorporation
(D) The date of actual commencement of business
11. What does payout ratio mean ?
(A) Ratio of debtor to creditors
(B) Ratio of profit distributed to profit retained
(C) Ratio of dividends per share and earnings per share
(D) Retained earnings
12. Working papers should not record :
(A) The audit plan
(B) The nature, timing and extent of audit procedures performed
(C) The conclusions drawn from the evidence obtained
(D) The audit programmes
13. The doctrine of indoor management seeks to :
(A) Protect outsider against the company
(B) Protect company against the outsider
(C) Determine the relation between company and director
(D) Determine the relation between Director and Auditor
14. Hewlett-Packard (HP) is the world dominant leader in its laser printer business with high
growth and high market share. As per Boston Consulting Graph (BCG) matrix, HP falls
in which one of the following categories ?
(A) Cash cows

(B) Stars

(C) Dogs

(D) Question marks

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

15. Which one of the following helps in determining long term objectives of an organisation,
adoption of course of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve the set
goal ?
(A) Rules

(B) Policies

(C) Procedure

(D) Strategies

16. Price level changes are calculated through :


(A) Index

(B) Income series

(C) Correlation

(D) Income series and correlation

17. Cost incurred on the building is :


(A) Fixed cost

(B) Variable cost

(C) Semi-variable cost

(D) Opportunity cost

18. Additional cost by producing one more unit is :


(A) Implicit cost

(B) Book cost

(C) Sunk cost

(D) Marginal cost

19. Analysis of government decision on welfare aspect is :


(A) Positive economics

(B) Normative economics

(C) Analytical economics

(D) Positive and Analytical economics

20. Consumer reaches a saturation point for a product when marginal utility (MU) is :
(A) Positive

(B) Negative

(C) Zero

(D) Positive and Negative

21. Which of the following is not a credit rating agency ?


(A) CRISIL

(B) ICRA

(C) ICICI

(D) CARE

22. Priority to heavy industry was given for the first time in :
(A) First five year plan

(B) Second five year plan

(C) Third five year plan

(D) Fourth five year plan

23. Sick units are referred to :


(A) FIPB

(B) BIFR

(C) SIA

(D) DGTD

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

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24. Under perfect competition, company in the long run earns :


(A) Net profit

(B) Gross profit

(C) Super normal profit

(D) Normal profit

25. The correct duration of Ninth five year plan :


(A) 1997-2002

(B) 1992-97

(C) 1985-90

(D) 1983-88

26. Restrictive trade practices are covered under :


(A) FERA

(B) FEMA

(C) MRTP Act

(D) Consumer Protection Act

27. Shareholders earn :


(A) Profit

(B) Dividend

(C) Interest

(D) Rent

28. Indifference curve is always :


(A) Convex

(B) Concave

(C) L-shaped

(D) Vertical line

29. Ordinal measure of utility is required in :


(A) Revealed preference

(B) Utility

(C) Indifference curve

(D) Utility and Revealed preference

30. Cross elasticity of demand between tea and sugar is :


(A) Positive

(B) Negative

(C) Zero

(D) Infinity

31. ALU is an acronym for what ?


(A) Associative Logic Unit

(B) Arithmetic Logic Unit

(C) Array Logic Unit

(D) Application Lower Unit

32. 240 MB file is transferred at a rate of 400 Kbps. How long will it take approximately ?
(A) 10 minutes

(B) 60 minutes

(C) 80 minutes

(D) 160 minutes

33. RAM is considered as a .


(A) Volatile Memory

(B) Non-Volatile Memory

(C) Permanent Memory

(D) Virtual Memory

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

34. Laser printer is an example of Printer.


(A) Non-impact

(B) Impact

(C) Dot Matrix

(D) CRT

35. During execution of a program, both the program and the data it is analyzing are held in
which portion of the computer ?
(A) ROM

(B) RAM

(C) Control Unit

(D) CD-ROM

36. Which of the following is an example of an optical storage medium ?


(A) CD-ROM

(B) Hard Disk

(C) Tape

(D) Floppy Disk

37. An interface that allows you to perform actions or pick options from menus by using a
mouse is called a/an .
(A) Command Line Interface

(B) Integrated Interface

(C) Parallel Interface

(D) Graphical User Interface

38. The Recycle Bin in Windows OS is used .


(A) to eliminate the need to use paper

(B) to store deleted files

(C) to select programs

(D) to store often-used programs

39. When you cut or copy a block of text in a word processor, it is placed on the .
(A) desktop

(B) style sheet

(C) ruler

(D) clipboard

40. The only language that the computer can understand and execute is called :
(A) Machine language

(B) Assembly language

(C) High-level language

(D) English language

41. Which of the following printers gives excellent resolution and tends to be quiet ?
(A) Laser

(B) Dot-Matrix

(C) Daisy-Wheel

(D) Inkjet

42. WAN stands for :


(A) Wap Area Network

(B) Wide Area Network

(C) Wide Array Net

(D) Wireless Area Network

43. Personal computers used a number of chips mounted on a main circuit board. What is the
common name for such boards ?
(A) Daughterboard

(B) Motherboard

(C) Fatherboard

(D) Childboard

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

[Turn over

44. All of the following are commonly used output devices except .
(A) A keyboard

(B) A monitor

(C) A printer

(D) Speakers

45. Who among the following is famous for being one of the Co-Founders for the Microsoft
Corporation that was formed in 1975 after he dropped out of Harvard ?
(A) William Gates

(B) Rajiv Gandhi

(C) Bill Gates

(D) Narayan Murthi

46. The song "Vande Mataram" was written by :


(A) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

(B) Rabindranath Tagore

(C) A.R. Rahman

(D) Satyajit Ray

47. Who is the chairperson of Bharti Group as on May 2012 ?


(A) Raj Mittal

(B) Alok Mittal

(C) Sunil Mittal

(D) Ramen Mittal

48. Who amongst the following is the RBI governor as on May 2012 ?
(A) Venkatraman

(B) Brijesh Mishra

(C) Bimal Jalan

(D) D. Subbarao

49. Who is the Vice President of United States as on May 2012 ?


(A) Al Gore

(B) Rumsfeld

(C) Cheney

(D) Joe Biden

50. Three women, Rekha, Jaya and Vidya, are sitting side by side on a bench, not necessarily
in that order. One of the women is a teacher, one is a singer, and one is a pharmacist. The
women sitting to Jaya's right is the teacher, and the woman sitting to Rekha's right is the
singer. What is Vidya's profession ?
(A) She must be a singer

(B) She is either a teacher or a singer

(C) She is either a pharmacist or a teacher

(D) She must be a pharmacist

51. Which of the following countries does not play International Cricket ?
(A) Russia

(B) England

(C) South Africa

(D) Pakistan

52. Many times we read in financial newspaper about 'FII'. What is the full form of 'FII' ?
(A) Final Investment in India

(B) Foreign Investment in India

(C) Formal Investment in India

(D) Foreign Institutional Investment

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

10

53. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on
money flow in equity through 'P Notes'. What is the full form of 'P Notes' ?
(A) Permanent Notes

(B) Purchase Notes

(C) Participatory Notes

(D) Private Notes

54. 'BRIC' which was the Organisation of 4 nations namely Brazil, Russia, India and China
has now become 'BRICS'. Which is the fifth nation included in it ?
(A) South Korea

(B) Singapore

(C) Spain

(D) South Africa

55. Discovery of India is a famous book written by ...........


(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

56. Which chess piece can only move diagonally ?


(A) Bishop

(B) Knights

(C) Pawns

(D) King

57. Who was Leonardo di Caprio's co-star in Titanic ?


(A) Kate Winslett

(B) Angelina Jolie

(C) Sandra Bullock

(D) None of the above

58. Who is the author of the book, 'Three Point Someone' ?


(A) Arun Shourie

(B) Chetan Bhagat

(C) Rafiq Zakaria

(D) Salman Rushdie

59. The pH of human blood is normally between :


(A) 5.35 to 5.45

(B) 6.35 to 6.45

(C) 7.35 to 7.45

(D) 8.55 to 8.65

60. The country that shares longest border with India is :


(A) China

(B) Bangladesh

(C) Nepal

(D) Pakistan

61. Choose the appropriate word :


With all those injuries, and the lack of good hospital, death of the old man was .
(A) Superficial

(B) Condemned

(C) Inevitable

(D) Fulsome

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

11

[Turn over

62. Choose the appropriate word :


Finally I left the job as I was tired of looking after the affairs of the office.
(A) Motley

(B) Mundane

(C) Plain

(D) Modest

63. Choose the appropriate word :


I have been working here six months.
(A) since

(B) by

(C) for

(D) in

64. Choose the appropriate word :


Considering the way and the speed with which the issue is being sought to be resolved by
the government, it is amply clear that it is several important details crucial to
the nature of the murder case.
(A) Examining

(B) Overlooking

(C) Focusing on

(D) Negating

65. Choose the most appropriate meaning for the following idiom : 'To fish in troubled waters'.
(A) To make the situation worse

(B) To make profit when others in trouble

(C) To create trouble for others

(D) To indulge in evil acts

66. Give the antonym of CRYPTIC :


(A) Futile

(B) Candid

(C) Famous

(D) Indifferent

Directions for the Questions 67-68 : In each of the following questions, a sentence is given
with a blank followed by four alternatives. Choose the word or phrase that most correctly
completes the sentences.
67. Mamta did not attend office yesterday. She for a picnic.
(A) will have gone

(B) have gone

(C) may have gone

(D) would go

68. I don't know where Mahima is. She ................. at home.


(A) would be

(B) is

(C) can be

(D) could be

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

12

Directions for the Questions 69-72 : For each italicized and underlined word in a sentence,
select the word or phrase among the four choices that is nearest in meaning to the word :
69. He joined the ordnance factory.
(A) Scheduled

(B) Ordinary

(C) Arms and ammunitions

(D) Communications and technologies

70. North Korea has been vigorously pursuing a clandestine weapons programme.
(A) Progressive

(B) Systematic

(C) Secretive

(D) Nefarious

71. This variety of species has now becomes extinct.


(A) Rare

(B) Dead

(C) Dormant

(D) Extant

72. The result of the happening was ominous.


(A) Pleasant

(B) Enduring

(C) Threatening

(D) Beautiful

Analogies
Questions 73-75 :
Directions : Each of the following questions consists of a pair of capitalized words followed by
four choices lettered A to D. The capitalized words bear some meaningful relationship to
each other. Choose the lettered pair of words whose relationship is most similar to that
expressed by the capitalized pair :
73. WRITING : PLAGIARISM
(A) confidence : deception

(B) money : misappropriation

(C) gold : theft

(D) germ : theft

74. EXERCISE : STRENGTH


(A) business : resource

(B) practice : skill

(C) defeat : gain

(D) games : contest

75. STARE : GLANCE


(A) confide : tell

(B) gulp : sip

(C) hunt : stalk

(D) step : walk

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

13

ROUGH WORK

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

14

ROUGH WORK

MBACIT-A/FRH-41397

15

68

OCET 2012

Sr. No. :

Question Booklet Series : A


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics)/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Business economics studies business decision making based on


(A)

economic theory

(B)

political science

(C)

sociology

(D) history

Alternative courses of action among which business choices are made are called
(A)

hypothesis

(B)

business strategies

(C)

actions

(D) objectives

Microeconomics deals with the


(A)

economy as a whole

(B) global economy

(C)

small individual units of the economy

(D) rural economy

Cardinal Utility Analysis was given by


(A)

Amartya Sen

(B)

A. Marshall

(C)

Joan Robinson

(D) J. Stiglitz

Indifference Curve Approach was given by


(A)

Hicks and Allen

(B)

Pigou

(C)

Ricardo

(D) Marshall

The difference between what the consumer is willing to pay and what he actually pays is
(A)

marginal utility

(B) business strategies

(C)

consumers surplus

(D) price of the good

When the percentage change in quantity demanded of a good is greater than the
percentage change in its price, the demand for that good is said to be
(A)

inelastic

(B) unitary elastic

(C)

elastic

(D) low

Future demand estimation of a product is known as


(A)

demand forecasting

(B)

demand elasticity

(C)

demand management

(D) inelastic demand

One of the conditions for the existence of monopoly is


(A)

similar products are available in the market

(B)

free entry of firms

(C)

no close substitutes for the product in the market

(D)

two or more firms

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

[Turn over

10. Price discrimination refers to a market practice of


(A)

giving free product

(B)

selling at no profit

(C)

perfect competition

(D)

selling the same product at different prices to different buyers

11. Kinked demand curve theory refers to


(A)

monopoly

(B)

oligopoly

(C)

perfect competition

(D) monopolistic competition

12. Classical theory of rent was given by


(A)

J.B. Say

(B)

Todaro

(C)

Ricardo

(D) J.S. Mill

13. Keyness Theory of Interest is known as


(A)

Loanable Funds Theory

(B)

Liquidity Preference Theory

(C)

Capital Market Theory

(D) Demand for money

14. National Income at Market Prices is


(A)

GNP Net Income from Abroad

(B)

GNP + Net Income from Abroad

(C)

GNP Depreciation

(D) GNP + Depreciation

15. Adam Smith was


(A)

a classical economist

(B)

a modern economist

(C)

an Indian economist

(D) not an economist

16. Consumption function relates the amount of consumption to the


(A)

level of production

(B)

level of income

(C)

level of advertisement

(D) sales

17. Marginal Propensity to Consume is the ratio of change in consumption to the change in
(A)

demand

(B) supply

(C)

production

(D) income

18. Multiplier is equal to


(A)

1/1-MPC

(B)

1/1-MPS

(C)

saving

(D) investment

19. Population in India is estimated with the help of


(A)

sampling survey

(B) population survey

(C)

trend method

(D) stratified sampling

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

20. The division financial of resources between the centre and the states is governed by the recommendations
of the
(A)

Finance Commission of India

(B)

Ministry of Finance

(C)

Planning Commission of India

(D) Prime Minister

21. The period from April 1, 2010 to 31 March, 2015 is covered by the
(A)

12th Finance Commission

(B)

13th Finance Commission

(C)

14th Finance Commission

(D) 10th Finance Commission

22. Economic Reform Programme was started in India in


(A)

1991

(B)

1951

(C)

1947

(D) 2011

23. Vicious circle of poverty is a hindrance to economic development according to


(A)

Nurkse

(B)

Rostow

(C)

Marshall

(D) Ricardo

24. Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to
(A)

monetary economics

(B)

econometrics

(C)

welfare economics

(D) international economics

25. Lewis put forward his model of Economic Development with


(A)

Unlimited Supply of Labour

(B) Disguised Unemployment

(C)

Saving

(D) Investment

26. Chief Economic Advisor of India is


(A)

Dr. Manmohan Singh

(B)

Dr. Montek Ahluwalia

(C)

Dr. Kaushik Basu

(D) Dr. Subba Rao

27. Monetary Policy in India is announced by the


(A)

Prime Minister of India

(B) Planning Commission of India

(C)

Reserve Bank of India

(D) Finance Minister

28. Maximum contribution to GDP in India is coming from


(A)

agriculture

(B)

industry

(C)

service sector

(D) manufacturing

29. Maximum workforce in India is engaged in


(A)

agriculture

(B)

(C)

service sector

(D) manufacturing

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

industry

[Turn over

30. Consumer protection in India is governed by


(A)

Consumer Protection (Amendment Act), 2002

(B)

MRTP Act

(C)

RBI

(D)

Ministry of Finance

31. The capital market in India is regulated by


(A)

Prime Minister

(B)

SEBI

(C)

SBI

(D) IDBI

32. The focus of Eleventh Five Year Plan was on


(A)

agro based industry

(B) steel industry

(C)

inclusive growth

(D) capital market

33. The Twelfth Five Year Plan covers the period


(A)

2012-17

(B)

2013-18

(C)

2005-10

(D) 2007-12

34. Inflation leads to


(A)

increase in purchasing power

(B)

decrease in purchasing power

(C)

no change in purchasing power

(D) economic equalities

35. One of the main causes of high fiscal deficit in India is


(A)

very high rate of growth

(B)

high rate of development

(C)

very high subsidies

(D) export duties

36. Income tax is


(A)

a neutral tax

(B)

a direct tax

(C)

an indirect tax

(D) a subsidy

37. The Classical Theory of International Trade was given by


(A)

Adam Smith

(B)

Joan Robinson

(C)

David Ricardo

(D) Alfred Marshall

38. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is also known as


(A)

IMF

(B)

WTO

(C)

RBI

(D) World Bank

39. W.W. Rostow gave the


(A)

Theory of Balanced Growth

(B) Theory of Capital Formation

(C)

Theory of Stages of Economic Growth

(D) Theory of Population

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

40. Following are the measures of central tendency :


(A)

mean, median, mode

(B)

correlation and regression

(C)

standard deviation

(D) skewness and kurtosis

41. Identity matrix is the n n square matrix with


(A)

zeroes on the main diagonal

(B)

all zero elements

(C)

ones on the main diagonal and zeroes elsewhere

(D)

all ones

42. Determinant exists only for


(A)

a square matrix

(B) any matrix

(C)

a rectangular matrix

(D) complex numbers

43. Green Revolution is also known as


(A)

Agro-processing

(B)

New Agricultural Strategy

(C)

Agricultural Policy

(D) New Agri-Development Scheme

44. After independence the trade policy of India focussed on


(A)

import substitution

(B)

import liberalisation

(C)

free imports

(D) unlimited imports

45. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) has been replaced by


(A)

SEBI

(B)

FEMA

(C)

LERMS

(D) FDI

46. Most indirect taxes at the central and state levels are likely to be replaced by
(A)

Service tax

(B) Value-added tax

(C)

Goods and Services Tax

(D) Excise duty

47. In order to exercise fiscal discipline, the following Act was enacted :
(A)

Fiscal Reform Act

(B)

Fiscal Management Act

(C)

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act

(D)

FERA

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

[Turn over

48. Presently the flagship programme of the Government of India for providing jobs to the rural poor is
(A)

IRDP

(B)

NREP

(C)

MGNREGA

(D) JNNURM

49. A set X is called a subset of Y if


(A)

there is no common element

(B)

every element of X is an element of Y

(C)

all elements are equal to one

(D)

all elements are negative

50. A set with no element is called a


(A)

unit set

(B) power set

(C)

null set

(D) identity set

51. If y = u + v w , where u, v, w, are functions of x, then dy/dx =


(A)

du/dx + dv/dx dw/dx +

(B) zero

(C)

du/dx

(D) infinity

52. dy/dx of 2x 25 =
(A)

2x

(B)

25

(C)

() 25

(D) 2

53. The demand curve for a monopolist is given by q = 100 4p, marginal revenue is :
(A)

100

(B)

25 q/2

(C)

zero

(D) 4

54. In a regression equation y = a + bx, b is the


(A)

intercept

(B) slope of the regression line

(C)

dependent variable

(D) independent variable

55. A diagonal matrix where all diagonal elements are equal is called a
(A)

unit matrix

(B)

determinant

(C)

scalar matrix

(D) triangular matrix

56. The Gini coefficient measures


(A)

unemployment

(B) inflation

(C)

economic growth

(D) income inequalities

57. Repo rate is a rate at which


(A)

banks lend to the people

(B) RBI lends to the commercial banks

(C)

RBI lends to the people

(D) banks lend to the RBI

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

58. When the government borrows in order to repay the debt, it is known as
(A)

credit creation

(B) deficit financing

(C)

debt trap

(D) fiscal deficit

59. The annual budget presented by the Finance Minister reflects the
(A)

monetary policy

(B) industrial policy

(C)

fiscal policy

(D) FDI policy

60. Corporate stocks and shares are traded in


(A)

capital market

(B)

money market

(C)

cooperative banks

(D) RBI

61. Mergers and acquisitions are known as


(A)

inside trading

(B)

business combinations

(C)

capital transactions

(D) sensex

62. WTO is a body for


(A)

trade amongst OECD countries

(B)

EU countries

(C)

promoting global trade

(D) trade in services

63. India is a member of


(A)

SAARC countries

(B)

OECD

(C)

OPEC countries

(D) East Asian Tigers

64. Canons of taxation were introduced by


(A)

Amartya Sen

(B)

Pranab Mukherjee

(C)

Adam Smith

(D) Robbins

65. Says Law of Markets states that


(A)

supply creates its own demand

(B)

demand and supply are equal

(C)

supply is always more than demand

(D) demand is zero

66. A mixed economy has


(A)

both supply and demand

(B)

glut and shortages

(C)

market forces and government intervention (D) labour and capital

67. For a perfectly competitive firm


(A)

price equals marginal revenue

(B) price equals total cost

(C)

price equals total revenue

(D) price is more than MR

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

[Turn over

68. Which of the following is NOT an economist ?


(A)

Bill Clinton

(B) Alfred Marshall

(C)

Montek Singh Ahluwalia

(D) J.B. Say

69. If the coefficient of correlation is zero, the variables will be


(A)

correlated

(B) independent

(C)

associated

(D) dependent

70. Standard deviation is a measure of


(A)

correlation

(B) central tendency

(C)

dispersion

(D) mean

71. If coefficient of correlation between two variables is 0.4, coefficient of


determination will be
(A)

(B)

0.16

(C)

0.04

(D) 16

72. WTO is an improvement over


(A)

World Bank

(B)

IMF

(C)

GATT

(D) TRIPS

73. When internal economies of scale occur


(A)

total cost falls

(B)

average cost falls

(C)

losses occur

(D) marginal cost increases

74. PPP stands for


(A)

Poor Purchasing Power

(B)

Public Private Partnership

(C)

Purchasing Power Partnership

(D) Public Private Product

75. The central bank of India is known as


(A)

Central Bank of India

(B)

(C)

Reserve Bank of India

(D) Bank of India

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

10

State Bank of India

ROUGH WORK

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

11

ROUGH WORK

M.B.E. (Master of Business Economics/A/FRH-41366

12

228

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M. Com. (Business Innovation)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

M.Com.(Business Innovation)/A

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Which is the world's smallest country ?


(A) Monaco

(B) Vatican City

(C) Nauru

(D) Tuvalu

Who was the most expensive player at the 2012 IPL auction ?
(A) Ravindra Jadeja

(B) Mahela Jayawardene

(C) Vinay Kumar

(D) Brendon McCullum

Which author was awarded the Booker Prize-2008 for his novel 'The White Tiger' ?
(A) Kiran Desai

(B) Arundhati Roy

(C) Chetan Bhagat

(D) Aravind Adiga

How many bones does the human body have ?


(A) 205

(B) 206

(C) 207

(D) 208

What was the codename of the CIA Operation which eliminated Osama Bin Laden ?
(A) Eagle Assist

(B) Jibril

(C) Neptune Spear

(D) Odyssey Dawn

What is the full form of SIM ?


(A) Subscriber Identity Message

(B) Subscriber Internet Method

(C) Satellite Identification Mode

(D) Subscriber Identity Module

Who is the current Duchess of Cambridge ?


(A) Catherine Elizabeth Middleton

(B) Princess Beatrice

(C) Lady Louise Windsor

(D) Princess Eugenie

Which moon of Uranus shares its name with a famous Shakespearean character ?
(A) Oberon

(B) Macbeth

(C) Caesar

(D) Achilles

Which long-range intercontinental ballistic missile was recently lauched by India from
Wheeler Island ?
(A) Agni-III
(C) Agni-V

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

(B) Agni-IV
(D) Agni-VII

[Turn over

10. Who was the world's first space tourist ?


(A) Mark Shuttleworth

(B) Dennis Tilo

(C) Gregory Olsen

(D) Anousheh Ansari

11. The Mughal emperors were the descendants of which dynasty ?


(A) Timurids

(B) Slave

(C) Khilji

(D) Sayyid

12. What number president of the Republic of India is Pratibha Devisingh Patil ?
(A) Tenth

(B) Eleventh

(C) Twelfth

(D) Thirteenth

13. How many times has London hosted the Olympics in the past ?
(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

14. Who is the current Secretary-General of the United Nations ?


(A) Kurt Waldheim

(B) Javier Perez

(C) Kofi Anan

(D) Ban Ki-moon

15. The slain dictator, Muammar Gaddafi belonged to which country ?


(A) Syria

(B) Libya

(C) Tunisia

(D) Egypt

16. Which is the oldest soft drink brand of India ?


(A) Dukes

(B) Campa

(C) Coke

(D) Thumps Up

17. The base line for which brand's latest advertisement reads 'har ghar kuch kehta hai' ?
(A) Nerolac

(B) Jenson & Nicholson

(C) Asian Paint

(D) Dulux India

18. Which company manufactured the ballot boxes for India's first general election that was
held in 1951 ?
(A) Hind Metal Works

(B) Hindustan Steel Works Construction Ltd.

(C) Allied Metal Works

(D) Hyderabad Allwyn Metal Works

19. In which year, for their humanitarian work, was the Noble Peace Prize awarded to Grameen
Bank ?
(A) 2007

(B) 2006

(C) 2005

(D) 2001

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

20. Who is the current Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Infosys Technologies ?
(A) K. V. Kamath

(B) S. Gopalakrishnan

(C) S. D. Shibulal

(D) V. Balakrishnan

21. Which company acquired beleaguered software company Satyam Computer Services in
2009 ?
(A) Tech Mahindra

(B) Larsen & Toubro

(C) Wilbur Ross

(D) Tata Consultancy Services

22. Who said these words 'Stay Hungry Stay Foolish' in his commencement address at Stanford
University in 2005 ?
(A) Bill Gates

(B) Warren Buffett

(C) Andrew Grove

(D) Steve Jobs

23. Who is the present Managing Director of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
(A) Horst Kohler

(B) Dominique Strauss-Kahn

(C) Christine Lagarde

(D) Rodrigo de Rato

24. In economics, BRIC is a grouping acronym that refers to the countries of Brazil, Russia,
India and China. Who coined this acronym ?
(A) Tushar Poddar

(B) Jim O'Neill

(C) Eva Yi

(D) Adler Martins

25. Which of the following term is used to represent a market when everything in the economy
is great, people are finding jobs, gross domestic product (GDP) is growing and stocks are
rising ?
(A) Bears

(B) Chickens

(C) Bulls

(D) Pigs

26. Which of the following is not an experiential training method ?


(A) Case study

(B) Lectures

(C) On-the-job training

(D) Role playing

27. Who proposed the 'Hierarchy of Needs Theory' in 1943 ?


(A) Abraham Maslow

(B) Frederick Herzberg

(C) Douglas Mc Gregor

(D) David McClelland

28. Which publishing house publishes the famous news daily 'Economic Times' ?
(A) Reckitt Benckiser

(B) Benett, Colman & Co. Ltd.

(C) Living Media

(D) Kasturi & Sons

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

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29. What is the full form of 'GAAR' ?


(A) General Anti Avoidance Regulation

(B) General Anti Avoidance Reconciliation

(C) General Anti Avoidance Remand

(D) General Anti Avoidance Rule

30. What is 'Six Sigma' ?


(A) A mathematical model for increasing output while lowering costs
(B) An ad-hoc grouping of the world's six most valuable companies
(C) Form of industrial dispute arbitration
(D) A system of quality management
31. The production system of which car giant is often held up as a model of business
innovation ?
(A) Volkswagen

(B) Fiat

(C) Toyota

(D) Peugeot

32. Who is currently the Chairman of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)which aims to provide a unique identification number for all residents of India ?
(A) Nandan Nilekani

(B) R.S. Sharma

(C) Sam Pitroda

(D) Subir Gokarn

33. Which of the following term refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs ?
(A) Corporate social responsibility

(B) Sustainability

(C) Green economics

(D) Convergence

34. What is the potential for change in value of a foreign-currency denominated transaction
due to an exchange rate change called as ?
(A) Transaction exposure

(B) Translation exposure

(C) Economic exposure

(D) Asset exposure

35. Which group is responsible for developing international auditing standards ?


(A) International Accounting Standards Board (IASB)
(B) International Auditing and Assurances Standards Board (IAASB)
(C) International Organization of Securities Commission (IOSCO)
(D) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

Reasoning
Directions (36-40): In the series of terms given in each of the questions below, identify the
terms which does not fit in the series.
36. Which one number does not belong to the series ?
11, 2, 21, 3, 32, 4, 41, 5, 51, 6
(A) 21

(B) 11

(C) 32

(D) 51

37. Complete the given series.


LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ?
(A) PHV

(B) PIU

(C) PJW

(D) PKX

38. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives :


cx fu ir ? ol ri
(A) lo

(B) mn

(C) no

(D) op

39. Which number will come next in the following series ?


8, 15, 28, 53, ?
(A) 98

(B) 106

(C) 100

(D) 102

40. Which sequence of the letters when placed at the blanks one after another will complete
the given letter series ?
b__b __bb__bbb__bb__b
(A) bbbbba

(B) bbaabb

(C) ababab

(D) aabaab

41. Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different marks in a test, C scored more than D but
not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored less than B. Who did score third
highest marks ?
(A) B

(B) A

(C) C

(D) Data Inadequte

42. Mohan walked 30 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 40 metres. He
again took a left turn and walked 30 metres. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 100 metres

(B) 60 metres

(C) 70 metres

(D) 40 metres

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

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43. In a certain code 'MOUSE' is written as 'PRUQC". How is 'SHIFT' written in that code ?
(A) VKIRD

(B) VKIDR

(C) VJIDR

(D) VIKRD

44. How many such digits are there in the number '37152869' each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when digits are arranged in ascending order within
the numbers ?
(A) none

(B) one

(C) two

(D) three

45. A man pointing to a photograph says, "The lady in the photograph is my nephew's maternal grandmother". How is the lady in the photograph related to the man's sister who has
no other sister ?
(A) Cousin

(B) Sister-in-law

(C) Mother

(D) Mother-in-law

46. Raman is 7 ranks ahead of Suman in a class of 39. If Suman's rank is seventeenth from
the last. What is Raman's rank from the start ?
(A) 14th

(B) 15th

(C) 16th

(D) 17th

Find the missing link in the following series (47-48)


47. 7, 49, 56, 8, _, 72, 9, 81, 90
(A) 36

(B) 60

(C) 64

(D) 70

48. 1/2, 3/4, 5/8, 7/16, _ , 11/64.


(A) 8/24

(B) 9/32

(C) 9/24

(D) None

Directions (49-50) : In the following questions, four alternatives are given, out of which three
are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
49. (A) Ladder

(B) Staircase

(C) Bridge

(D) Escalator

50. (A) Venus

(B) Saturn

(C) Earth

(D) Mercury

51. Synonym Relation ?


Ocean : Pacific : Island ?
(A) Greenland

(B) Ireland

(C) Netherland

(D) Borneo

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

Directions (52-55) : Read the following information carefully and answer the question that
follow :
Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F are marching in a line. They are arranged according to their height, the
tallest being at the back and the shortest in front.
F is between B and A
E is shorter than D but taller than C who is taller than A
E and F have two boys between them
A is not the shortest among them
52. Where is E ?
(A) Between A and B
(B) Between C and A
(C) Between D and C
(D) In front of C
53. Who is the tallest ?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) F
(D) A
54. If we start counting from the shortest, which boy is fourth one in the line ?
(A) E
(B) A
(C) D
(D) C
55. Who is the shortest ?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) B
(D) F
Quantitative Aptitude
56. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs. 312.
What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same
time ?
(A) Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C) Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
57. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much
would each person get ?
(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 23,468
(C) Rs. 37,420
(D) Rs. 19,562
58. Terry consumes 1600 ml of milk everyday. How many litres of milk will she consume in
four weeks ?
(A) 42.6

(B) 43.4

(C) 44.8

(D) 41.6

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

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59. A and B invested in a trade. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio 2 :3
of their investment. If A invested Rs. 40 then the amount invested by B is :
(A) Rs. 30

(B) Rs. 60

(C) Rs. 90

(D) Rs. 100

60. Five men can complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days will 12 men
complete the same piece of work ?
(A) 8

(B) 6

(C) 12

(D) 10

61. How many numbers, between 1 and 300 are divisible by 3 and 5 together ?
(A) 16

(B) 18

(C) 20

(D) 100

62. If 2x+42x+2=3 then x is equal to :


(A) 2

(B) 0

(C) 2

(D) 4

63. A clock gains 15 minutes per day. It is set right at 12 noon. What time will it show at
4:00 am, the next day ?
(A) 4:10 am

(B) 4:45 am

(C) 4:20 am

(D) 5:00 am

64. Ratio of the two numbers is 3:4 and the sum of these two numbers is 420. The sum of
their square is :
(A) 9103

(B) 9104

(C) 9105

(D) None of these

65. Two-third of one-seventh of a number is 87.5% of 240. What is the number ?


(A) 2670

(B) 2450

(C) 2205

(D) 1470

66. By selling 66 metres of cloth a man loses the selling price of 22 metres. Find the loss
percent.
(A) 20%

(B) 25%

(C) 30%

(D) 35%

67. What would be the simple interest, if the compound interest on the same sum for 2 years
at 4% be Rs. 408 ?
(A) Rs. 400

(B) Rs. 404

(C) Rs. 396

(D) Rs. 408

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

10

68. The fourth proportional to 4, 6, 8 is :


(A) 12

(B) 32

(C) 48

(D) None

69. X can do a piece of work in 15 days. If he is joined by Y who is 50% more efficient, in what
time will X and Y together finish the work ?
(A) 10 Days

(B) 6 Days

(C) 18 Days

(D) Data Insufficient

70. The circumference of a circle is 44 metres. Find the area of a circle.


(A) 154 m2

(B) 166 m2

(C) 175 m2

(D) 168 m2

71. If x is a number midway between 10 and 16, and y is half of 78, then y/x =
(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

72. A bag contains Rs. 187 in the form of 1 rupee, 50 paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio of
3:4:5, the number of one rupee coins is :
(A) 102

(B) 136

(C) 170

(D) 132

73. What is the least number of 4 digits which when divided by 5, 8 10 and 15 leaves 2 as
remainder in each case ?
(A) 1076

(B) 1084

(C) 1080

(D) None of these

74. (42)2 6.3 26 = ?


(A) 7182

(B) 7269

(C) 7260

(D) 7280

75. The area of a square is equal to the area of a rectangle. The difference between the
length and breadth of the rectangle is 48 cms and the breadth of the rectangle is onefourth of its length. What is the side of the square ?
(A) 32 cm

(B) 16 cm

(C) 64 cm

(D) Cannot be determined

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

11

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ROUGH WORK

M.Com.(Business Innovation)-A/FRH-41357

12

176

OCET 2012

Sr. No. :

Question Booklet Series : A


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

[Turn over

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

By profession Antony von Leeuwenhoek was a


(A)

Cloth merchant

(B)

Bacteriologist

(C)

Chemist

(D) Medical doctor

Swan neck flask experiment was carried out by


(A)

Robert Koch

(B) Antony van Leeuwenhoek

(C)

Louis Pasteur

(D) James Watson

Koch postulates were laid down using


(A)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(B)

Escherichia coli

(C)

Bacillus anthracis

(D) Bacillus subtilis

The oldest microbial fermentation process is considered to be


(A)

Yoghurt

(B)

Beer

(C)

Cheese

(D) Idli

Which term is associated with Nirenberg, Holley and Khorana ?


(A)

Nucleotides

(B) Genetic code

(C)

tRNA structure

(D) Introns

The sequence of taxonomic rank is


(A)

Species, Genus, Family, Class, Order, Division, Kingdom

(B)

Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Division, Kingdom

(C)

Species, Genus, Family, Order, Division, Class, Kingdom

(D)

Species, Genus, Family, Division, Order, Class, Kingdom

Pick the odd one out


(A)

Salmonella

(B)

Proteus

(C)

Bacillus

(D) Candida

Which is not a spore forming organism ?


(A)

Aspergillus

(B)

Bacillus

(C)

Clostridium

(D) Staphylococcus

Sterilization of 100 ml nutrient medium by autoclaving requires following conditions


(A)

15 lbs. per square inch, 121 C, 15 min

(B)

10 lbs. per square inch,121 C, 15 min

(C)

15 lbs. per square inch, 100 C, 15 min

(D)

15 lbs. per square inch, 121 C, 30 min

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

[Turn over

10. E. Coli ribosome comprises of


(A)

60% RNA and 40% protein

(B)

81% RNA and 19% protein

(C)

50% RNA and 50% protein

(D) 40% RNA and 60% protein

11. The bacterium Escherichia coli is


(A)

Gram positive, sporulating, short rods and motile, lactose fermenter

(B)

Gram negative, short rods and non-motile, non lactose fermenter

(C)

Gram positive, non-sporulating, long rods and motile, lactose fermenter

(D)

Gram negative, non-sporulating, short rods and motile, lactose fermenter

12. Which term is not associated with Ti plasmids ?


(A)

Nopaline

(B)

Octopine

(C)

TC-T-DNA

(D) TL-T-DNA

13. Which of the following interactions are involved in antigen-antibody binding ?


(A)

Hydrogen bond

(B)

Vander Waals forces

(C)

Covalent bond

(D) Electrostatic interactions

14. Spectrophotometer works on the principle of Beer-Lamberts law. According to Beer-Lamberts law
intensity of transmitted light is
(A)

Directly proportional to length of the tube

(B)

Inversely proportional to the length of tube

(C)

Inversely proportional to the square of length of tube

(D)

Independent to the length of tube

15. Which of the following is correct ?


(A)

Protease is an exotoxin

(B)

LPS is a pyrogen

(C)

Peptidoglycan is a monomer of glucosamine

(D)

Dipocolinic acid is an amino acid.

16. In the prebiotic era, the Earths atmosphere was rich in


(A)

CH4, N2, H2O, H2, HCN

(B)

CH4, N2, H2O, H2

(C)

CH4, NH3, H2O, H2, HCN

(D) CH 4, NH 3, H 2O, H 2

17. On an average adult human being contains


(A)

1010 cells

(B)

(C)

1016 cells

(D) 109 cells

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

10 13 cells

[Turn over

18. The word ELISA stands for


(A)

Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Activity

(B)

Enzyme Linked Indirect Sorbent Assay

(C)

Enzyme Linked Indirect Sorbent Activity

(D)

Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay

19. The Western Blotting technique involves


(A)

Primary antibodies, Secondary antibodies

(B)

Conjugated Primary antibodies, Secondary antibodies

(C)

Primary antibodies, Conjugated Secondary antibodies

(D)

Conjugated Primary antibodies, Conjugated Secondary antibodies

20. 3-D structures of proteins can be determined by


(A)

X-ray crystallography and NMR

(B)

X-ray crystallography only

(C)

NMR only

(D) HPLC

21. According to Watson and Crick Model of DNA, the adjacent nitrogenous bases are separated by
(A)

3.0

(B)

3.4

(C)

3.8

(D) 4.0

22. Fully extended E.coli chromosome is


(A)

Twice the size of E.coli

(B)

Ten times the size of E.coli

(C)

Hundred times the size of E.coli

(D) Thousand times the size of E.coli

23. Which type of RNA is present maximally in Bacteria ?


(A)

mRNA

(B) rRNA

(C)

tRNA

(D) Satellite RNA

24. The consensus sequence of Pribnow box is


(A)

TATAAT

(B)

TAATAT

(C)

TATTAA

(D) TAATTA

25. An Hfr strain of E. coli contains :


(A)

A plasmid vector used to clone genes

(B)

A bacterial chromosome with a phage genome inserted

(C)

A bacterial chromosome with F factor inserted

(D)

A human chromosome with a transposable element inserted

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

[Turn over

26. A genomic library comprises of


(A)

All the genes present in the chromosome of a cell

(B)

All the genes present in the chromosome and plasmid of a cell

(C)

All the Genetic material present in a cell

(D)

All the genetic material present in the chromosome of a cell

27. The milk sugar Lactose is made up of


(A)

Alpha 1,4 linkage between two Glucose molecules

(B)

Beta 1,4 linkage between two Glucose molecules

(C)

Alpha 1,4 linkage between two Glucose and Galactose

(D)

Beta 1,4 linkage between two Glucose molecules

28. An enzyme requires Zn2+ in order to catalyze the conversion of substrate to product. Zinc is best identified
as a :
(A)

Coenzyme

(B) Cofactor

(C)

Co-substrate

(D) Zincozyme

29. Which type of histone is absent in human cells ?


(A)

H2

(B)

(C)

H3

(D) H1

H5

30. The vector pBR322 contains


(A)

Amp and Tet resistance markers

(B)

Amp and Km resistance markers

(C)

Km and Tet resistance markers

(D) Amp, Km and Tet resistance markers

31. The strongest bond present in biochemicals is


(A)

Hydrogen bond

(B)

Covalent bond

(C)

Ionic bond

(D) Van der Waals bonds

32. The percentage of DNA base sequences similar in all human beings is
(A)

99 %

(B)

90 %

(C)

85%

(D) 80 %

33. The staining of DNA in agarose gels is routinely done by


(A)

Acridine Orange

(B)

(C)

Commassie Blue

(D) Neutral Red

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

Crystal Violet

[Turn over

34. In general, Proteins are separated on


(A)

Agar gels

(B)

Agarose gels

(C)

Acrylamide gels

(D) Gelatin gels

35. In Molecular sieve chromatography the separation of proteins is based on


(A)

Charge of the molecules

(B)

Size of the molecules

(C)

Volume of the molecules

(D) Primary structure of the amino acids

36. Which statement is most appropriate for nucleus of a human cell ?


(A)

Contains DNA only

(B) Contains DNA + Proteins only

(C)

Contains DNA + Proteins + RNA only

(D) Contains DNA + Proteins + Sugars only

37. In which phase of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes come together, become shortened and form a
pair ?
(A)

Leptotene

(B) Zygotene

(C)

Pachytene

(D) Diplotene

38. Which phase of the human cell cycle consumes maximum time
(A)

G1

(B)

G2

(C)

(D) M

39. Which statement is most appropriate ?


(A)

Majority of bacteria are sporulating

(B)

Majority of bacteria are pathogenic

(C)

Majority of bacteria contain N-acetyl-D-glucosamine

(D)

Human stomach is devoid of bacteria

40. Which of the following is not a part of protein secondary structure ?


(A)

-Helix

(B) -Helix

(C)

-Turns

(D) -sheets

41. Which of the amino acid is not asymmetric ?


(A)

Phenyl alanine

(B)

Tryptophan

(C)

Glycine

(D) Proline

42. Clustal W is used for


(A)

Secondary structure prediction

(B) Tertiary structure prediction

(C)

Primary protein structure analysis

(D) Multiple sequence alignment

43. Which of the following is not a primary database ?


(A)

PDB

(B)

(C)

GenBank

(D) DDBJ

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

PROSITE
7

[Turn over

44. Which of the following cannot be used as Vector for gene cloning purpose ?
(A)

Phage

(B)

Plasmid

(C)

Bacterium

(D) M13

45. A DNA library is


(A)

a general collection of all genes sequenced thus far

(B)

a collection of DNA fragments that make up the entire genome of a particular organism

(C)

a DNA fragment inserted into a vector

(D)

all DNA fragments identified with a probe.

46. Which of the following shape is not characteristic of bacteria ?


(A)

Spherical

(B)

Icosahedral

(C)

Rods

(D) Helical

47. Which of the following is not part of RNA processing in eukaryotes ?


(A)

splicing of exons

(B) reverse transcription

(C)

addition of a 5' cap

(D) addition of a poly A tail

48. An E.coli strain lacking DNA Polymerase I would be deficient in :


(A)

Repair

(B) Splicing

(C)

Methylation

(D) Degradation

49. The ribosome is involved in all the following EXCEPT :


(A)

Peptide bond formation

(B)

Aminoacylation of tRNA

(C)

Binding of protein factors during elongation

(D)

Binding of aminoacyl tRNA to mRNA

50. Three types of RNA involved in comprising the structural and functional core for protein synthesis,
serving as a template for translation, and transporting amino acid, respectively, are :
(A)

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

(B)

rRNA, tRNA, mRNA

(C)

tRNA, mRNA, rRNA

(D) rRNA, mRNA, tRNA

51. Common lesions found in DNA on exposure to UV light are


(A)

Pyrimidine dimers

(B) Single stranded breaks

(C)

Base deletions

(D) Purine dimmers

52. The terms Isoschizomer is used for


(A)

DNA ligases

(B)

(C)

DNA helicases

(D) Restriction endonucleases

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

DNA polymerases

[Turn over

53. Golden rice is created by transforming genes related to


(A)

Hormone synthesis

(B)

Beta-carotene synthesis

(C)

Protein synthesis

(D) Carbohydrate synthesis

54. Which one is not a fermented product ?


(A)

Jalebi

(B) Rasgulla

(C)

Idli

(D) Vada

55. The sequence of antigen processing in MHC class I pathway is


(A)

Antigenic protein, peptide fragment released into cytosol, proteosome, ER

(B)

Antigenic protein, proteosome, peptide fragment released into cytosol, ER

(C)

Antigenic protein, peptide fragment released into cytosol, ER proteosome

(D)

Antigenic protein, ER, peptide fragment released into cytosol, proteosome, ER

56. How much of the biological carbon present on the Earth is accounted for by microbes ?
(A)

30%

(B)

40%

(C)

50%

(D) 60%

57. Intestinal microbes are rich source of


(A)

Vitamin C & K

(B)

Vitamin A & C

(C)

Vitamin A & B

(D) Vitamin B & K

58. Which of the amino acid is not present in the cell wall of Bacteria ?
(A)

L-Ala

(B)

L-Glu

(C)

D-Ala

(D) D-Glu

59. The antibiotic streptomycin kills bacteria by inhibiting


(A)

Cell wall biosynthesis

(B) Disrupting cell membrane permeability

(C)

Inhibiting DNA replication

(D) Inhibiting protein synthesis

60. Majority of microbes are


(A)

Chemolithoautotrophs

(B)

Chemolithoheterotrophs

(C)

Chemoorganoautotrophs

(D) Chemoorganoheterotrophs

61. Which of the following component is not a part of nutrient medium prepared for the growth of
Cyanobacteria ?
(A)

Sodium nitrite

(B)

(C)

Glucose

(D) EDTA

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

Citric acid

[Turn over

62. Agar is a Sulfated polymer composed mainly of


(A)

Galactose and Glucouronic acid

(B)

Glucose and Glucouronic acid

(C)

Galactose and Galactouronic acid

(D) Glucose and Galactouronic acid

63. In the relationship between two organisms, if only one organism benefits, such association is called
(A)

Mutualism

(B) Neutralism

(C)

Commensalism

(D) Opportunism

64. The most distinguishing parameter in differentiation between Bacteria and Archaea is
(A)

Cell Wall composition

(B)

Extreme habitats

(C)

tRNA sequences

(D) rRNA sequences

65. The cell membranes of many bacteria contain


(A)

Sterols

(B)

Cholesterols

(C)

Hopanoids

(D) Haponoids

66. Escherichia can be distinguished from Shigella on the basis of


(A)

Motility test

(B)

Voges-Proskeur test

(C)

H2S production test

(D) Urease test

67. A viral disease Chicken pox (Varicella) is caused by


(A)

SS DNA Varioella-Zoster virus

(B)

DS DNA Varioella-Zoster virus

(C)

SS DNA Varicella-Zoster virus

(D) DS DNA Varicella-Zoster virus

68. In A = T base pair


(A)

C-1 of sugar is attached to N-9 of adenine and N-1 of Thymine

(B)

C-1 of sugar is attached to N-1 of adenine and N-6 of Thymine

(C)

C-4 of sugar is attached to N-9 of adenine and N-1 of Thymine

(D)

C-4 of sugar is attached to N-1 of adenine and N-6 of Thymine

69. Based on structure, which is the simplest amino acid ?


(A)

Glycine

(B)

Lysine

(C)

Proline

(D) Valine

70. Which bacterium lacks cell wall ?


(A)

Helicobacter

(B)

(C)

Mycobacter

(D) Mycobacterium

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

Mycoplasma

10

[Turn over

71. The fungus, Aspergillus has


(A)

60S + 80S ribosomes

(B)

60S ribosomes only

(C)

80S ribosomes only

(D) Some have 60S and some have 80S ribosomes

72. A protein has a pl value of 9.0. At pH 7, the protein will have


(A)

Positive charge

(B)

Negative charge

(C)

Neutral

(D) Depends on the polarity of the solvent

73. Majority of industrially important microbial enzymes are produced in


(A)

Lag Phase

(B)

Log Phase

(C)

Stationary Phase

(D) Enzymophase

74. GRAS stands for


(A)

Generally regarded as Staphylococci

(B)

Generally regarded as Super

(C)

Generally regarded as Safe

(D) Generally regarded as Sterile

75. Which one is free living N2 fixing bacteria ?


(A)

Acinetobacter

(B)

(C)

Azotobacter

(D) Rhizobium

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

Nitrobacter

11

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Two Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology/FRH-41360/A

12

[Turn over
82

OCET-2012

Sr. No. :

Question Booklet Series : A


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal(s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for
each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

If 1, , 2 be the cube roots of unity, then value of (1 + 2)7 + (1 + 2)7 is :


(A) 128

(B) 128

(C) 64

(D) 64

If i = 1 and z = x + iy then the equation z2 = z has


(A) No solution

(B) 2 solutions

(C) 4 solutions

(D) An infinite number of solutions

The value of
(A) cos 34

(B) sin 34

(C) cot 56

(D) tan 56

The eccentricity of the ellipse x2 + 4y2 + 8y 2x + 1 = 0 is :


(A)

(C)
5.

6.

7.

cos 11 + sin 11
is :
cos 11 sin 11

3
2
1
2

5
2

(B)

(D)

1
4

The orthocenter of the triangle formed by the lines xy = 0 and x + y = 1 is :


(A) (1/2, 1/2)

(B) (1/3, 1/3)

(C) (1/4, 1/4)

(D) (0, 0)

Which of the following statements is a tautology ?


(A) (~ q p) q

(B) (~ q p) (p ~ p)

(C) (~ q p) (p ~ p)

(D) (p q) (~ (q q))

Let A, B and C be the three events such that


P(A) = 0.3, P(B) = 0.4, P(C) = 0.8, P(A B) = 0.08, P(A C) = 0.28, P(A B C) = 0.09.
If P(A B C) 0.75, then P(B C) satisfies :

8.

(A) P(B C) 0.23

(B) P(B C) 0.48

(C) 0.23 P(B C) 0.48

(D) P(B C) 0.15

Let p(x) be the polynomial x 3 + ax 2 + bx + c, where a, b and c are real constants.


If p(3) = p(2) = 0 and p'(3) < 0, which of the following is a possible value of c ?
(A) 27
(B) 18
(C) 6
(D) 3

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

[Turn over

9.

The coefficient of x3 in the expansion of (1 + x)3 (2 + x2)10 is :


(A) 214

3 10
(B) +
3 1

10
3
(C) + 2
3
1

3 10 9
(D) 2
3 1

10. Let f(x) be the mean of the five numbers : 4, 9, 7, 5 and x. Let g(x) be the median of these five
numbers. For how many values of x, a real number, is f(x) = g(x) ?
(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Infinitely many

11. Assume that p is a polynomial function on the set of real numbers. If p(0) = p(2) = 3 and
2

p'(0) = p'(2) = 1, then

xp"(x) dx =
0

(A) 3

(B) 2

(C) 1

(D) 2

12. Let f be a function such that f(x) = f(1 x) for all real number x. If f is differentiable everywhere, then f'(0) =
(A) f(0)

(B) f(0)

(C) f ' (1)

(D) f '(1)

13. If A is a 3 3 matrix such that :

0 1
3 0
6

A 1 = 0 and A 4 = 1 , then the product A 7 is




2 0
5 0
8
0
0
(A)
1

1
2
(B)
0

1
1
(C)
0

9
10
(D)
11

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

14. Which of the following CANNOT be a root of a polynomial in x of the form 9x5 + ax3 + b, where
a and b are integers ?
(A) 9
(C)

(B) 5

1
4

(D)

1
3

15. Consider the following system of linear equations over the real numbers, where x, y and z are
variables and b is a real constant :
x+y+z=0
x + 2y + 3z = 0
x + 3y + bz = 0
Which of the following statements are true ?
I.

There exists a value of b for which the system has no solution.

II. There exists a value of b for which the system has exactly one solution.
III. There exists a value of b for which the system has more than one solution.
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
16. If f is a continuous function on the set of real numbers and if a, b are real numbers, which of
the following must be true ?
I.

II.

b+ 3

a+3

f(x) dx =

f(x 3) dx

f(x) dx = f(x) dx f(x) dx


3b

3a

III. f(x) dx = 3 f(3x) dx


(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

[Turn over

17. A circle is inscribed in a square. A small rectangle of size 8 cm 16 cm is placed as shown in


the picture below. The radius of the circle is :
16 cm
8 cm

(A) 40

(B) 50

(C) 24

(D) 128

n+2

a for n 1. Then a30 is equal


18. Let {an}
n = 1 be defined recursively by a1 = 1 and an + 1 =
n n
to :

(A) (15) (31)


(C)

(B) (30) (31)

32
30

(D)

19. The sum of the series


(A) n 1 +
(C) 2n +

32 !
30 ! 2 !

1 3 7 15
+ + + +...... upto n-terms is :
2 4 8 16

1
2n

1
2n

(B) n +

1
2n

(D) n + 1 +

1
2n

20. The maximum value of sin(x + /6) + cos(x + /6) in interval (0, /2) is attained at
(A) /12

(B) /6

(C) /3

(D) /2

21. The distance between the parallel lines y = 2x + 4 and 6x = 3y + 5 is


(A) 17 / 3

(B) 1

(C) 3 / 5

(D) 17 5 / 15

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

22. The lines 2x 3y = 5 and 3x 4y = 7 are the diameters of a circle of area 154 square units.
= 22/7)
Then the equation of this circle is (
(A) x2 + y2 + 2x 2y = 62

(B) x2 + y2 + 2x 2y = 47

(C) x2 + y2 2x + 2y = 47

(D) x2 + y2 2x + 2y = 62

23. The focus of the parabola y2 x 2y + 2 = 0 is :


(A) (1/4, 0)

(B) (1, 2)

(C) (3/4, 1)

(D) (5/4, 1)

(x + 1) (x 3)
24. f(x) =
is a real-valued function in the domain :
(x 2)

(A) ( , 1] [3, )

(B) ( , 1] (2, 3]

(C) [ 1, 2) [3, )

(D) [ 1, 2]

25. How many words can be formed out of the letters of the word PECULIAR beginning with P
and ending with R ?
(A) 100

(B) 120

(C) 720

(D) 150

dn y
26. If y = logex and n is positive integer, then
is equal to
dx n
e
(A)
x

(C) (n 1) ! x n

(B) (n 1)xn
(D) (1)n 1 (n 1)! x n

1 1
27. If and are the root of 4x2 + 3x + 7 = 0, then the value of + is :

(A)

(C)

3
4

3
7

(B)

(D)

3
7

4
7

28. The medians of a triangle meet at (0, 3). While its two vertices are (1, 4) and (5, 2), the third
vertex is at
(A) (4, 5)

(B) (1, 2)

(C) (7, 3)

(D) ( 4, 15)

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

[Turn over

29. If p2 + q2 = 1 and X = (3p 4p3)2 + (3q 4q3)2, then the value of X is


(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 6

(D) 12

30. The area of the triangle having the vertices (4, 6), (x, 4), (6, 2) is 10 sq units. The value of x is
(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

31. If cos
+ sin
=

2 sin

(A)
(C)

, then cos
is equal to
sin
2 cos

2 sec

(B)

sin
2

(D)

32. A number is chosen from each of the two sets {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} and {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,
8, 9}. If P denotes the probability that the sum of the two numbers be 10 and Q the probability
that their sum be 8, then (P + Q) is
(A)

(C)

16
81

33. The value of Lim


x0

(B)

137
729

(D)

137
81

| sin x |
is :
x

(A) 1

(B) 1

(C)

(D) Does not exist

34. For a frequency distribution of marks in Mathematics for 100 students, the average was found
to be 80. Later it was discovered that 48 was misread as 84. The correct mean is :
(A) 80.36

(B) 79.36

(C) 79.64

(D) 80.64

35. If a, b, c are real numbers such that a2 + b2 + c2 = 1, then ab + bc + ca


(A) 1/2

(B) 1/2

(C) 2

(D) 2

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

2y
2
36. The only integral root of the equation 2
5y
3

3
6

= 0 is :

10 y

(A) y = 0

(B) y = 1

(C) y = 2

(D) y = 3

37. The harmonic mean of two numbers is 4. The arithmetic mean A and geometric mean G of these
two numbers satisfy the equation 2A + G2 = 27. The two numbers are :
(A) 3, 6

(B) 4, 5

(C) 2, 7

(D) 1, 8

38. The root of x3 2x 5 = 0, correct to three decimal places by using Newton-Raphson method
is :
(A) 1.0404

(B) 2.0946

(C) 1.7321

(D) 0.7011

39. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = |x 1| and y = 3 |x| is
(A) 2 sq units

(B) 3 sq units

(C) 4 sq units

(D) 6 sq units

40. Solution of the differential equation

dy y
+ = sin(x) is :
dx x

(A) x(y + cos x) = sin x + C

(B) x(y cos x) = sin x + C

(C) x(y + cos x) = cos x + C

(D) x(y cos x) = cos x + C

41. How many bits are required to store an ASCII character ?


(A) 7

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 16

42. What does HTTP stands for ?


(A) Hypertext Transfer Protocol

(B) Hypertext Token Protocol

(C) Hypertext Telnet Protocol

(D) Head Tail Transfer Protocol

43. A 600 MB file is transferred at a rate of 500 Kbps. Approximately, how long will it take ?
(A) 20 minutes

(B) 120 minutes

(C) 160 minutes

(D) 1 hour

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

[Turn over

44. Which of the following is responsible for the management and coordination of activities and
the sharing of the resources of the computer ?
(A) Application Software

(B) Motherboard

(C) Operating System

(D) RAM

45. WAV file format is associated with what type of files ?


(A) Video

(B) Sound

(C) Image

(D) Word Document

46. A software is termed an open source software if


(A) the developer company is open 24 hours
(B) its source code is available to share, study and modify
(C) it can be downloaded from the Internet by paying very small amount
(D) it is available free of cost
47. Consider the following lists :
List I

List II

1.

Linux

P.

Text File Editor

2.

Mozilla Firefox

Q. Image File Format

3.

Notepad

R.

Operating System

4.

JPEG

S.

Web Browser

The correct match is


(A) 1 R, 2 S, 3 P, 4 Q

(B) 1 S, 2 R, 3 Q, 4 P

(C) 1 R, 2 P, 3 S, 4 Q

(D) 1 Q, 2 S, 3 P, 4 R

48. What is a specialized software program that allows input and output devices to communicate
with the rest of the computer system ?
(A) Utility driver

(B) Utility program

(C) Device driver

(D) Data compression utility

49. Pattern of connections between the devices on a network.


(A) Topology

(B) WAN

(C) LAN

(D) Internet

50. Millisecond is
(A) Thousandth of a second

(B) Millionth of a second

(C) Billionth of a second

(D) Hundred times a second

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

10


51. ______ is simply a fast port that lets you connect computer peripherals and consumer
electronics to your computer without restart.
(A) Freeware

(B) Shareware

(C) Firewire

(D) Firmware

52. Using the HDD as an extension of RAM is a feature of


(A) Virtual memory

(B) Cache

(C) Direct Memory Access (DMA)

(D) Virtual Reality

53. Which of the following decimal numbers has an exact representation in binary notation ?
(A) 0.2

(B) 0.3

(C) 0.4

(D) 0.5

54. Consider the following code segment :


if(Y < 0)
{

X= X;
Y=Y;

}
Z = 0;
while (Y > 0)
{
Z=Z+X;
Y=Y1;
}
Assume that X, Y and Z are integer variables, and that X and Y have been initialized. Which of
the following best describes what this code segment does ?
(A) Sets Z to be the sum X + Y

(B) Sets Z to be the absolute value of X

(C) Sets Z to be the value of Y

(D) Sets Z to be the product X * Y

55. A Trojan Horse refers to


(A) the using of a large financial system to squirrel away small amounts of money.
(B) changing data before or as it enters the system.
(C) placing illegal instructions in the middle of a legitimate program.
(D) using another persons identification code.
56. A cricketers average in his first 18 innings was 16.5 runs. After a further 8 innings, his average had increased to 32.5 runs. What was his average for the last 8 innings ?
(A) 120
(B) 80.5
(C) 68.5
(D) 65.5
M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

11


[Turn over

57. A test has 50 questions. A student scores 1 mark for a correct answer, 1/3 for a wrong answer,
and 1/6 for not attempting a question. If the net score of a student is 32, the number of
questions answered wrongly by that student cannot be less than
(A) 6

(B) 12

(C) 3

(D) 9

58. A paper of size L W (L > W) is folded in half along and longer dimension. It is then folded in
half along the other dimension and a third time, along the direction of the first fold. What are
the dimensions of the folded paper ?
(A)

L W

4 4

(B)

L W

8 4

L W
L W

(D)
8 8
4 2
59. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total number of
bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had after division. Find the original number
divided.

(C)

(A) 15

(B) 18

(C) 21

(D) 24

60. At 10 a.m. two trains started traveling toward each other from stations 287 miles apart. They
passed each other at 1:30 p.m. the same day. If the average speed of the faster train exceeded
the average speed of the slower train by 6 miles per hour, which of the following represents the
speed of the faster train, in mile per hour ?
(A) 38

(B) 40

(C) 44

(D) 48

61. A certain street has 1000 buildings. A sign-maker is contracted to number the houses from 1 to
1000. How many zeroes will he need ?
(A) 100

(B) 142

(C) 192

(D) 250

62. There are three envelopes on a table and one of them contains a secret formula. On the first
envelope, it is written, The formula is not in here. It is in Envelope 2. On the second it is
written, The formula is not in Envelope 1. It is in Envelope 3. On the third, it is written,
The formula is not in here. It is in Envelope 1. It both the statements on one of the envelopes
are true; one statement is true and one is false on another envelope; and, both the statements
are wrong on the remaining one, which envelope contains the formula ?
(A) In Envelope 1

(B) In Envelope 2

(C) In Envelope 3

(D) In None of the Envelopes

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

12


63. Given the sequence A, BB, CCC, DDDD............and so on, the 253rd letter in the sequence will
be :
(A) V

(B) U

(C) T

(D) W

64. Walking at of his usual speed, a man is late by 2 hours. The usual time is :
(A) 10 hours

(B) 7 hours

(C) 15 hours

(D) 6 hours

65. Of the two-digit numbers (those from 11 to 95, both inclusive) how many have a Second digit
greater than the first digit ?
(A) 37

(B) 38

(C) 36

(D) 35

Questions : 6668.
Directions : For each word in capital letters, select the word or phrase among the four choices that is
most nearly opposite in meaning to the word.
66. Meager
(A) Extravagant

(B) Average

(C) Excessive

(D) Plentiful

67. Mundane
(A) Heavenly

(B) Excellent

(C) Exciting

(D) Superb

68. Beguile
(A) Flatter

(B) Smile

(C) Persuade

(D) Cheat

Questions : 6971.
Directions : For each word in capital letters, select the word or phrase among the four choices that is
nearest in meaning to the word.
69. Inebriate
(A) Stupefied

(B) Dreamy

(C) Drunken

(D) Unsteady

70. Counsel
(A) Oppose

(B) Advise

(C) Correct

(D) Publish

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

13


[Turn over

71. Jeopardy
(A) Adventure

(B) Magic

(C) Enmity

(D) Danger

Questions : 7275.
Directions : Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given sentences.
72. A cure for all diseases
(A) Panacea

(B) Antibiotic

(C) Excorcism

(D) Incantation

73. One who eats everything


(A) Omniscient

(B) Omnivorous

(C) Omnipotent

(D) Insolvent

74. Land surrounded by water as to be almost an island


(A) Peninsula

(B) Lagoon

(C) Archipelago

(D) Isthmus

75. One who possesses many talents


(A) Exceptional

(B) Nubile

(C) Versatile

(D) Gifted

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

14


ROUGH WORK

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

15


[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.C.A. (Master of Computer Applications)/FRH-41370/A

16


565

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.E. (Chemical)


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

M.E.(Chemical)/A
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its :


(A) Internal energy increases

(B) Enthalpy decreases

(C) Enthalpy remains constant

(D) Enthalpy reduced to zero

Drag coefficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range) :


(A) CD = 16/Re.p

(B) CD = 24/Re.p

(C) CD = 18.4/Re.p

(D) CD = 0.079/Re.p0.25

A plant has a capacity of producing 25000 units per year. The annual fixed cost is Rs.
90000. The variable cost per unit is Rs. 16. The price of the product is Rs. 20 per unit.
The break-even point in terms of the capacity of the plant will be :
(A) 20%

(B) 70%

(C) 80%

(D) 90%

What will be the weight of air required for the combustion of 3 kg of carbon ?
(A) 34.783 kg

(B) 36.298 kg

(C) 36.248 kg

(D) 36.254 kg

Breakeven point is the point where :


(A) Fixed and variable cost lines intersect
(B) Fixed and total cost lines intersect
(C) Variable and total cost lines intersect
(D) Sales revenue and total expenditure lines intersect

6.

7.

8.

Aniline point of a diesel is a measure of its :


(A) Aromatic content

(B) Paraffin content

(C) Olefin content

(D) Naphthenic content

Which controller has the maximum stabilising time ?


(A) P

(B) PD

(C) PI

(D) PID

In a laminar boundary layer, the nominal thickness varies with the longitudinal distance
x as :
(A) x

(B) x1/3

(C) x

(D) x

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

[Turn over

9.

Kicks law assume that energy required for size reduction is proportional to the
logarithm of the ratio between initial and final diameters. The unit of Kicks constant is :
(A) kW sec/kg

(B) kWh/kg

(C) kWh/sec.kg

(D) kg/sec

10. Slope of the feed line, if feed to a distillation column is a saturated liquid, is :
(A) 0

(B)

(C) > 1

(D) < 1

11. H2S present in naphtha reformed gas is removed by absorbing in :


(A) Ethanolamine

(B) K2CO 3

(C) HCl

(D) vacuum gas oil

12. Alkyl benzene sulphonate is a :


(A) Detergent

(B) Rubber

(C) Polyester

(D) Pesticide

13. Transition length for a turbulent fluid entering into a pipe is around ............... times the
pipe diameter.
(A) 5

(B) 50

(C) 500

(D) 1000

14. Cylindrical pressure vessels in horizontal condition is generally supported on a :


(A) Lug support

(B) Skirt support

(C) Saddle support

(D) Guy wire support

15. Carburettor in a spark ignition engine is used to :


(A) mix air-fuel in the desired ratio

(B) maintain a constant speed at varying loads

(C) adjust the stroke length

(D) increase the compression ratio

16. In a double pipe (concentric) heat exchanger, the hydraulic radius for heat transfer (for a
fluid flowing through the annulus) would be :
(A) Same as that for fluid flow
(B) Less than that for fluid flow
(C) More than that for fluid flow
(D) D2D1 (D1 and D2 are inner diameter of inner and outer pipes respectively)

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

17. HETP is numerically equal to HTU only when operating line :


(A) lies below the equilibrium line

(B) lies above the equilibrium line

(C) is parallel to the equilibrium line

(D) is far from the equilibrium line

18. It is not desirable to design a heat exchanger for LMTD correction factor, FT, of less
than :
(A) 0.99

(B) 0.95

(C) 0.80

(D) 0.55

19. In a distillation operation, total reflux requires :


(A) minimum number of plates

(B) infinite number of plates

(C) minimum reboiler and condenser load

(D) that flow of fresh feed must continue

20. Separation of a binary mixture of gases by absorption in the liquid solvent depends upon
their differences in :
(A) density

(B) solubility

(C) viscosity

(D) kinematic viscosity

B, the fractional change in volume of the


21. For the isothermal gas-phase reaction A
system between no conversion and complete conversion is :
(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 2/3

22. A reaction in which one of the products of reaction acts as a catalyst is called :
(A) Homogeneous catalytic reaction

(B) Heterogeneous catalytic reaction

(C) Autocatalytic reaction

(D) Biochemical reaction

i +3
23. Given i = 1, the ratio
is given by :
i +1
(A) i

(B) 2

(C) i + 2

(D) i + 1

24. The vessel dispersion number (D/uL) for plug flow is :


(A) 0

(B) 500

(C) 750

(D)

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

[Turn over

25. The value of a for which the following set of equations :


y + 2z = 0
2x +y + z = 0
ax + 2y = 0
have non-trivial solution, is :
(A) 0

(B) 8

(C) 2

(D) 3

26. Clapeyron equation deals with the :


(A) Rate of change of vapour pressure with temperature
(B) Effect of an inert gas on vapour pressure
(C) Calculation of F for spontaneous phase change
(D) Temperature dependence of heat of phase transition
27. If heat contents of CH4, C2H4 and C3H8 are 17.9, 12.5 and 24.8 kcal/mole respectively,
then H for the reaction CH4(g) + C2H4(g) C3H8(g) will be :
(A) 19.4 kcal

(B) 30.2 kcal

(C) 55.2 kcal

(D) 55.2 kcal

28. Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigerator is the ratio of :


(A) Work required to refrigeration obtained
(B) Refrigeration obtained to the work required
(C) Lower to higher temperature
(D) Higher to lower temperature
29. Grams of butane (C4H10) formed by the liquefaction of 448 litres of the gas (measured at
STP) would be :
(A) 580

(B) 640

(C) 1160

(D) 1180

30. If the pressure on 100 c.c. of air is halved, then its volume (at the same temperature)
would be
(A) 100 c.c.

(B) 50 c.c.

(C) 250 c.c

(D) 200 c.c

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

31. After throttling, gas temperature :


(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains same
(D) may increase or decrease; depends on the nature of the gas
32. A substance is compressed irreversibly and adiabatically. The substance is heated if the
volume expansivity is :
(A) zero

(B) negative

(C) positive

(D) infinity

33. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2) is :
(A)

T2 T1
T2

(B)

T2 T1
T1

(C)

T1 T2
T2

(D)

T1 T2
T1

34. A liquid mixture containing 50 mole per cent each of benzene and toluene at 40 C is to be
continuously flash vaporized to vaporise 60 mole per cent of the feed. The residual liquid
product contains 35 mole per cent benzene. If enthalpies per mole of feed,
distillate and the residue are 5, 30 and 2 kJ/kmol, respectively, what is the heat added in
kJ per mole of vapour product ?
(A) 18.28 kJ

(B) 25.67 kJ

(C) 22.99 kJ

(D) 13.27 kJ

35. The accentric factor ( ) of all materials is always :


(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) > 1

(D) < 1

36. Maximum heat transfer rate is obtained in :


(A) laminar flow

(B) turbulent flow

(C) creeping flow

(D) transition region

37. The heat transfer coefficient in film type condensation is :


(A) greater than that for dropwise condensation
(B) lower than that for dropwise condensation
(C) is same as that for dropwise condensation
(D) half that for dropwise condensation
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

[Turn over

38. Double pipe heat exchangers are used :


(A) when heat transfer area required is very high
(B) when heat transfer area required is very low
(C) because it occupies less floor area
(D) because it is less costly
39. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the floating tube bundle head arrangement is used :
(A) in low range of temperature differences

(B) because of its low cost

(C) in high range of temperature differences

(D) to prevent corrosion of the tube bundles

40. Dittus-Boelter equation cannot be used for molten metals mainly due to its very low :
(A) Prandtl number

(B) Grashoff number

(C) thermal conductivity

(D) viscosity

41. A 1000 kg vehicle travelling at 80 m/s impacts a plunger attached to a piston-cylinder


arrangement. If all of the energy of the vehicle is absorbed by 20 kg of liquid contained
in the cylinder, what is the maximum temperature rise of the liquid ? (Specific heat of the
liquid is 4.0 kJ/kg C) :
(A) 55C

(B) 50C

(C) 45C

(D) 40C

42. Ficks first law of diffusion for the z direction is :


(A) J A = D AB

CA
z

(B) J A = D AB

CA
z

(C) J A = D AB

2CA
z 2

(D) J A = D AB

2C A
z 2

43. The dew point of an unsaturated mixture of water vapour and air at constant
temperature and pressure :
(A) does not change with change in absolute humidity
(B) increases with increase in absolute humidity
(C) decreases with increase in absolute humidity
(D) decreases linearly with increase in absolute humidity

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

44. The internal reflux ratio (Ri) is equal to :


Ro

(A) Ro

(B) 1 + R
o

Ro

1+ R o

(C) 1 R
o

(D) 1 R
o

where Ro = external reflux ratio


45. Eddy momentum diffusivity, thermal diffusivity and mass diffusivity will be same for :
(A) NPr = NSc = 0.7
(B) NPr = NSc = 1
(C) NPr = NSc = 7.02
(D) NPr = NSc = 297
46. A 20 cm-dia, 1.2 m-long cylinder loses heat from its peripheral surface by convection.
Surface temperature of the cylinder is constant at 100 C and the fluid temperature is
constant at 20C. The average convection heat transfer coefficient over the surface of
the cylinder 25 W/m2.K. The heat transfer rate is :
(A) 120 W

(B) 240 W

(C) 320 W

(D) 480 W

47. For flow through pipes, Reynolds analogy is valid at :


(A) Pr = 1 and Sc = 1

(B) Pr > 1 and Sc > 1

(C) Pr < 1 and Sc < 1

(D) Pr < 1 and Sc > 1

48. Which one of the following is used in gas absorption ?


(A) Wetted wall tower

(B) Packed tower

(C) Perforated tray tower

(D) Fluidised tower

49. The relative volatility of component A relative to component B is equal to the ratio of
vapour pressure of component A to vapour pressure of component B at the existing
temperature if :
(A) total pressure is 1 atm
(B) liquid phase behaves as an ideal solution
(C) vapour phase behaves as an ideal gas
(D) both the liquid phase and vapour phase are ideal
M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

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50. The pore size of molecular sieves 5 A is :


(A) 5 nm

(B) 0.5 nm

(C) 0.05 nm

(D) 0.05 m

51. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is :


(A) Steady

(B) Unsteady

(C) Laminar

(D) Vortex

52. Slope of the operating line for the rectifying section of the distillation column is :
(A)

(B) 0

(C) > 1

(D) < 1

53. A thin flat plate 2 m 2 m is hanging freely in air. The temperature of the surroundings
is 25 C. Solar radiation is falling on one side of the plate at the rate of 500 W/m2.
Temperature of the plate will remain constant at 30 C, if the convective heat transfer
coefficient (in W/m2. C) is :
(A) 25

(B) 50

(C) 100

(D) 200

54. Buoyant force is :


(A) resultant of upthrust and gravity forces acting on the body
(B) resultant force on the body due to the fluid surrounding it
(C) resultant of static weight of body and dynamic thrust of fluid
(D) equal to the volume of liquid displaced by the body
55. The fluid forces considered in the Navier-Stokes equation are :
(A) Gravity, velocity and viscous

(B) Gravity, pressure and turbulent

(C) Pressure, viscous and turbulent

(D) Gravity, viscous and turbulent

56. What drag force is exerted at sea level by a 3.5 m braking parachute when the speed is
20 m/s ? CD = 1.20. CD value remains constant. air (sea level) = 1.225 kg/m3 air (at
2000 m) = 1.007 kg/m3
(A) 2828.6 N

(B) 282.86 N

(C) 28.28 N

(D) 2.828 N

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

10

57. Water at 20 C flowing through a 20 cm diameter pipe. Take kinematic viscosity of water
at 20C = 0.0101 stoke. Assume changes from laminar to turbulent at Re = 2320. The
critical velocity will be :
(A) 1.117 cm/sec

(B) 11.17 cm/sec

(C) 111.7 cm/sec

(D) 1.117 m/sec

58. Which of the following forces does not act in case of fluids ?
(A) Centrifugal force

(B) Tensile force

(C) Vibratory force

(D) Elastic force

59. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, it should be installed in :


(A) vertical line

(B) horizontal line

(C) inclined line with upward flow

(D) in any direction and in any location

60. If V is the mean velocity of flow, then according to Darcy-Weisbach equation for pipe
flow, energy loss over a length of pipe is proportional to :
(A) V

(B) 1/V

(C) V2

(D)

61. Bellows are made of :

(A) Leather

(B) Paper

(C) Plastic

(D) Thin copper sheet

62. The emf (mV) of a thermocouple maintained at two junctions at different temperatures is
as follows :
Hot
Cold
emf
1000C
0C
41.32
30C
0C
1.20
1000C
30C
?
(A) 41.32
(B) 40.12
(C) 21.26

(D) 42.56

63. If E is the age distribution of fluid leaving a vessel, then :


(A)

E dt = 0

(B)

(C)

E dt = 1
0

E dt =

(D)

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

11

E dt =

[Turn over

64. Rate of a gaseous phase reaction is given by :

dp A
= K.p 2A
dT

The unit of rate constant is :


(A) (atm)1

(B) (hr)1

(C) atm1.(hr)1

(D) atm. (hr)1

65. Fluid flow in a real packed bed can be approximated as :


(A) Plug flow model

(B) Dispersion model

(C) Mixed flow model

(D) Tank in series model

66. The catalytic activity of enzymes is due to their capacity to :


(A) increase the activation energy

(B) lower the activation energy

(C) lower the potential energy

(D) increase the potential energy

67. A photochemical reaction is :


(A) initiated by light
(B) accompanied with emission of light
(C) catalysed by light
(D) used to convert heat energy into light
68. For the consecutive unimolecular-type first order reaction :
K1
K2
A
R
S

The concentration of component A, CA at any time t is equal to :


(A) CA o e(k1 + k 2 ) t

(B) CAo e (k1 + k 2 ) t

(C) CAo ek1t

(D) CAo e k1t

69. In order to obtain high purity and porosity, excellent transparency and electrical properties
in PVC, vinyl chloride should be polymerised by :
(A) Bulk polymerisation

(B) Suspension polymerisation

(C) Emulsion polymerisation

(D) Solution polymerisation

70. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric equation is called :
(A) elementary reaction

(B) non-elementary reaction

(C) parallel reaction

(D) autokinetic reaction

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

12

71. Yield of tar from high temperature carbonisation of dry coal is about :
(A) 3%

(B) 8%

(C) 20 %

(D) 24%

72. Back mixing is more predominant in :


(A) a well stirred batch reactor

(B) plug-flow reactor

(C) a single CSTR

(D) CSTR connected in series

73. Crude oil of kinematic viscosity 2.25 stokes flows through a 20 cm diameter pipe, the
rate of flow being 1.5 litres/sec. The flow will be :
(A) laminar

(B) turbulent

(C) uncertain

(D) between laminar and turbulent

74. Molecular sieves are regenerated by heating to temperatures :


(A) below 100 C

(B) above 800 C

(C) between 200C and 315 C

(D) below 200 C

75. Chemical name of Grignard reagent is :


(A) Sodium thiosulphate

(B) Ethyl magnesium chloride

(C) Sodium sulphite

(D) Sodium biocarbonate

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

13

ROUGH WORK

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

14

ROUGH WORK

M.E.(Chemical)-A/FRH-41364

15

52

OCET 2012

Sr. No. :

Question Booklet Series : A


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Com. (Honours)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 85
Maximum Marks : 85
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 85 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

[Turn over

M.Com. (Honours)/A
1.

If opening stock is Rs. 10,000; Net Purchase Rs. 70,000; Wages Rs. 2500; carriage inward
Rs. 500 and closing stock Rs. 15,000, what is merchandising cost ?

2.

(A)

Rs. 65,000

(B) Rs. 83,000

(C)

Rs. 68,000

(D) Rs. 73,000

Consider the following statements with regard to trade discount :


1.

It is a reduction in the catalogue price of an article.

2.

It is allowed by the manufacturer or the wholesaler to the retailer.

3.

Entry for trade discount must be made in the books of accounts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

3.

(A)

1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C)

1 and 2

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Type of Asset)

(Example)

A.

Intangible Assets

1.

Gas wells

B.

Fixed Assets

2.

Preliminary expenses

C.

Fictitious Assets

3.

Patents and Trademarks

D.

Wasting Assets

4.

Generators

5.

Cash balance

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

[Turn over

4.

What is the preferential order of payments of the following in the event of winding up of a company ?
1.

Bank loan (secured)

2.

Preference share capital

3.

Debentures

4.

Equity shares

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :


Codes :

5.

(A)

1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 4, 1, 3, 2

(C)

3, 1, 2, 4

(D) 1, 3, 2, 4

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Principles of insurance)

(Explanation)

A.

Uberrimae fidei

1.

Immediate cause

B.

Insurable interests

2.

Promise to compensate loss

C.

Indemnity

3.

Mutual trust

D.

Causa proxima

4.

Legally recognized relationship

Codes :

6.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Theory of Motivation)

(Contributors)

A.

X, Y Theory

1.

Frederick Herzberg

B.

Expectancy theory

2.

J Stacey Adams

C.

Two factor theory

3.

Douglas Mc Gregor

D.

Equity theory

4.

Victor Vroom

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

[Turn over

7.

Maslows need hierarchy theory of motivation has classified the human needs into following five
categories :
1.

Safety needs

2.

Esteem needs

3.

Social needs

4.

Physiological needs

5.

Self-actualisation needs

Which one of the following is correct hierarchy of the above needs from low order to high order ?

8.

(A)

1-4-3-2-5

(B) 4-1-3-2-5

(C)

5-3-2-4-1

(D) 4-1-2-5-3

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Contributors)

(Management Thought/theory)

A.

Mary Parker Follet

1.

Human Relation

B.

Henri Fayol

2.

Integration Theory

C.

Elton Mayo

3.

Scientific Management

D.

FW Taylor

4.

Principles of management

Codes :

9.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Gangplank theory of communication, advanced by Henri Fayol, is an example of which one of the
following ?
(A)

Vertical upward communication

(B)

Vertical downward communication

(C)

Lateral or horizontal communication

(D)

Cyclic or circular communication

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Items)

(Accounting Standards)

A.

Earning per share

1.

AS-3

B.

Cash flow statement

2.

AS-20

C.

Inventory valuation

3.

AS-1

D.

Disclosure of Accounting Policies

4.

AS-2

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11. What is the renewal fees paid for a patent right ?


(A)

Capital expenditure

(B) Revenue expenditure

(C)

Deferred revenue expenditure

(D) Development expenditure

12. The balance of old provision for doubtful debts on 1.4.2006 was Rs. 10,000. The bad debts written
off during the year 2006-07 amounted to Rs. 12,000, and the new provision required on 31.3.2007
was Rs. 15,000. What is the total amount to be debited to Profit and Loss account on account of bad
debts and provision for doubtful debts ?
(A)

Rs. 37,000

(B) Rs. 27,000

(C)

Rs. 17,000

(D) Rs. 15,000

13. Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making
payments of claim ?
(A)

Subrogation

(B) Utmost good faith

(C)

Contribution

(D) Average clause

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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14. Which of the following companies do not have the obligation to get its Articles of Association registered
along with the Memorandum of Association ?
(A)

Public company limited by shares

(B) Unlimited companies

(C)

Private companies limited by shares (D) Companies limited by guarantee

15. A company limited by shares has to call the statutory meeting within a period of not less than
One month and not more than six months. The period is counted with reference to which one of the
following ?
(A)

The date of incorporation

(B)

The date at which the company is entitled to commence business

(C)

The date of actual receipt of certificate of incorporation

(D)

The date of actual commencement of business

16. Assertion (A) :

The scope of audit of accounts of a limited company may be restricted by Board of


Directors

Reason (R)

The Board of Directors is responsible for adherence to Accounting Standards in


Preparation of financial statements.

Codes :
(A)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is true but (R) is false

(D)

(R) is true but (A) is false

17. Assertion (A) :


Reason (R)

Accounts prepared by adhering to accounting standards are more reliable.


Accounting standards ensure application of uniform accounting policies while preparing
and presentation of financial statement.

Codes :
(A)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is true but (R) is false

(D)

(R) is true but (A) is false

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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18. The following particulars are available from the account of Mr. X :
Rs.
Direct expenses

8,000

Opening stock

12,000

Purchases

1,00,000

Interest paid

3,000

Closing stock

12,000

What is the cost of goods sold ?


(A)

Rs. 1,00,000

(B) Rs. 1,05,000

(C)

Rs. 1,08,000

(D) Rs. 1,35,000

19. While preparing final accounts, adjustment entries deal with which of the following ?
1.

Expenses incurred

2.

Income received

3.

Expenses outstanding

4.

Income received in advance

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :


(A)

1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1 and 3

(C)

3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

20. Assertion (A) :

While preparing Trading and Profit and Loss account and Balance Sheet, Adjustments
given outside the Trial Balance are treated twice.

Reason (R)

Adjustments are to be made twice because of the application of matching Principle.

Codes :
(A)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is true but (R) is false

(D)

(A) is false but (R) is true

21. Consider the following data :


Rs.
Opening capital

5,000

Closing capital

6,000

Drawings

1,000

New capital introduced

500

What is profit of the year ?


(A)

Rs. 2,000

(B) Rs. 1,500

(C)

Rs. 1,000

(D) Rs. 500

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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22. Intrinsic value of shares is calculated on the basis of which one of the following ?
(A)

Total assets

(B) Net assets

(C)

Fixed assets

(D) Gross current assets

23. A company with a paid up capital of 5,000 shares of Rs. 10 each has a capital turnover of four times
with a margin of 8% on sales. What is the return on investment (ROI) of the company ?
(A)

28%

(B) 32%

(C)

35%

(D) 42%

24. Assertion (A) :

Trading on equity is recommended in a situation when rate of return is higher than the
cost of capital.

Reason (R)

Trading on equity magnifies the EPS.

Codes :
(A)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is true but (R) is false

(D)

(A) is false but (R) is true

25. The manufacturing and other companies (Auditor Report) Order, 1988 (M A O C A R O) does not
include a company engaged in which one of the following activities ?
(A)

Supplying and rendering services

(B)

Trading

(C)

The business of financing, investment, chit fund, nidhi or mutual benefit society

(D)

Insurance

26. Assertion (A) :


Reason (R)

The duty of the auditor is to prepare the audit report and sign it.
It is not the duty of the auditor to see that his report has been sent to Shareholders.

Codes :
(A)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)

Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)

(A) is true but (R) is false

(D)

(A) is false but (R) is true

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Types of errors)

(Example)

A.

Errors of commission

1.

Incorrect allocation of expenditure

B.

Compensating errors

2.

Counter balanced error

C.

Errors of principle

3.

Incorrect recording

Codes :
A

(A)
(B)
(C)

3
2
3

1
3
2

2
1
1

(D)

28. What is the most important objective of internal audit ?


(A)

Early detection of errors and fraud

(B) Facilitating final audit

(C)

Early finalisation of annual accounts

(D) Ensuring systematic accounting

29. Consider the following steps in estimation of sampling :


1.

Determine the sample size

2.

Take sample and determine the results

3.

Determine sampling plan

4.

Evaluate sample results

The correct sequence of the steps given above is :


(A)

2341

(B) 3 1 2 4

(C)

4321

(D) 1 2 3 4

30. In capital market, Beta is used to measure :


(A)

The riskiness of securities

(B) Profitability of securities

(C)

Marketability of securities

(D) Volatility in prices of securities

31. Consider the following statements regarding mutual funds :


1.

Mutual funds can participate in options trading and carrying forward transactions in Securities

2.

Mutual funds can invest in transferable securities in the money and capital markets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


(A)

1 only

(B) 2 only

(C)

Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

A.

List-I

List-II

(Mutual Fund Scheme)

(Characteristic)

Open-ended mutual fund scheme

1.

It offers capital appreciation of the underlying


investment.

B.

Closed-ended mutual fund scheme

2.

It is a fund accepted and liquidated on a continuous


basis by a Mutual Fund Manager.

C.

Growth fund scheme

3.

It is also known as regional or country fund.

D.

Off-shore Mutual Fund

4.

No exit possible till the closure of the scheme.

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

33. Consequential Loss Policy is an example of insurance of :


(A)

Existing assets

(B) Non-existing assets

(C)

Re-insurance

(D) Double insurance

34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

A.

Marine insurance

1.

Throwing of certain cargo

B.

Voyage policy

2.

Value is decided at the time of forming policy

C.

Block policy

3.

Lloyds Association

D.

Jettison

4.

Land and sea risk

5.

Cargo

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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35. Which of the following qualities are the four essential requirements of active listening ?
(A)

Expression, empathy, acceptance, curiosity

(B)

Curiosity, desire to conform, empathy, acceptance

(C)

Intensity, empathy, acceptance, willingness to take responsibility for completion

(D)

Acceptance, empathy, expression, intensity

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

A.

Typing test

1.

Personality test

B.

Verbal comprehension test

2.

Aptitude test

C.

Self confidence test

3.

Achievement test

D.

Clerical test

4.

Intelligence test

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

37. Which one of the following statements about selection is not valid ?
(A)

Recruitment is a positive exercise while selection is a negative exercise

(B)

The utility of interview as a tool of selection is affected by the possibility of interviewer


bias

(C)

Aptitude tests form complete tools for managerial positions

(D)

References have a limited role in the selection process for employment

38. Consider the following statements :


The principle of span of management states that
1.

Organisational variables affect the number of subordinates that can be effectively supervised by a
manager.

2.

The use of technology in the organisation affects the number of subordinates that can be effectively
supervised by a manager.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


(A)

1 only

(B) 2 only

(C)

Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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39. Consider the following statements :


The doctrine of indoor management does not apply in case
1.

Of an outsider having an actual or implied knowledge of the lack of authority of the person acting on
behalf of the company.

2.

When the outsider has no knowledge of the Memorandum and Articles of Association of the company.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


(A)

1 only

(B) 2 only

(C)

Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

40. How can the share capital of a company be reduced ?


(A)

By a resolution passed by the Board of Directors

(B)

By an ordinary resolution in AGM

(C)

By a special resolution in AGM and permission from the Company Law Board

(D)

By permission from the Company Law Board only.

41. Which one of the following statement is true ?


(A) Capital expenditure does not affect the profitability of a concern but revenue Expenditure does
(B) Capital expenditure affects the profitability of a concern directly but revenue expenditure does not
(C) Capital expenditure affects the profitability of a concern indirectly but revenue expenditure affects
directly
(D) Both Capital expenditure and revenue expenditure affect the profitability of a concern directly.
42. Teeming and Lading implies :
(A)

Auditors, their assistants and other persons in the audit team

(B)

Concealment of cash collections from customers

(C)

Examination based on vouchers

(D)

Establishment of the fact that assets and liabilities exist as per position statement

43. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?


1.

A company can be incorporated without signed Articles of Association.

2.

All companies must include the word Limited in their name.

3.

Government companies need not get their account audited.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :


(A)

1, 2 and 3

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C)

1 and 2 only

(D) 1 only

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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44. Hewlett-Packard (HP) is the world dominant leader in its laser printer business with high growth
and high market share. As per Boston Consulting Graph (BCG) matrix, HP falls in which one of the
following categories ?
(A)

Cash cows

(B) Stars

(C)

Dogs

(D) Question marks

45. Which of the following international standards are going to be implemented in India w.e.f.
01-04 2011 ?
(A)

International Accounting and Reporting Standards

(B)

International Accounting and Auditing Standards

(C)

International Financial Reporting Standards

(D)

International Accounting and Financial Reporting Practices

46. Sweat-equity shares are the shares issued to the :


(A)

Directors or employees of the company at a discount

(B)

Existing shareholders of the company at a discount

(C)

Government, where government is a majority shareholder

(D)

Public in general at a discount

47. Given :
Opening Stock

Rs. 50,000

Sales
Carriage inwards
Sales return
Gross profit on sales
Net loss
Purchases

=
=
=
=
=
=

Rs. 1,50,000
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 60,000
Rs. 10,000
Rs. 1,00,000

Purchases returns

Rs. 9,000

What is the value of closing stock ?


(A)

Rs. 61,000

(B) Rs. 50,000

(C)

Rs. 48,000

(D) Rs. 71,000

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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48. According to which one of the following conventions of accounting, stock-in-trade is valued at Market
price or cost price whichever is lower ?
(A)

Consistency

(B) Materiality

(C)

Conservatism

(D) Full disclosure

49. Depreciation amount provided in the sinking fund method as compared to annuity method is :
(A)

Higher

(B) Lower

(C)

Equal

(D) Higher in initial years and lower in the later years

50. How is Unclaimed dividends shown in the Balance Sheet ?


(A)

As provisions

(B) As reserve and surplus

(C)

As current liabilities

(D) As miscellaneous items

51. Consider the following statements :


1.

Marine insurance policies are valued policies and the market fluctuations are avoided. In case of fire
insurance policies, doctrine of indemnity is followed and only the market value of the property at the
time of loss is compensated.

2.

Marine insurance policies cannot be freely assignable whereas fire insurance policies are freely
assignable.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


(A)

1 only

(B) 2 only

(C)

Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

52. Who appoints the auditor of a Government Company ?


(A)

Shareholders in the Annual General Meeting

(B)

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(C)

Government on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(D)

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is responsible for audit, therefore auditor is not
appointed

53. Which one of the following does not relate to the issues of securities ?
(A)

Book building process

(B) Initial public offer

(C)

Secondary market

(D) Private placement

54. Where income tax laws allow deduction of only a part of an item of expenditure, the disallowed
amount would result in :
(A)

Timing difference

(B) Internal difference

(C)

Permanent difference

(D) Legal difference

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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55. In funds flow analysis, net increase in working capital will appear as :
(A)

Sources of funds

(B)

Uses of funds

(C)

An item in adjusted Profit and Loss Account

(D)

Funds from operations

56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
A.

List-II

Fixed assets are valued at cost

1.

Going-concern concept

2.

Materiality convention

3.

Business entity concept

4.

Full-disclosure convention

less depreciation
B.

Appending notes regarding contingent


Liabilities in accounting statements

C.

Insignificant items or events having an


Insignificant economic effect need not
be disclosed

D.

Cash withdrawn by the owner to meet


personal expenses

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

57. Which of the following transactions will improve acid-test ratio ?


1.

Bill payable dishonoured

2.

Cash collected from customers

3.

Issue of convertible debentures

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :


Codes :
(A)

1, 2 and 3

(B) 2 only

(C)

3 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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58. Price level changes are calculated through :


(A)

Index

(B) Income series

(C)

Correlation

(D) Income series and correlation

59. Identify the correct sequence of the following with regard to delegation of authority :
1.

Creation of obligation

2.

Authorisation of actions

3.

Determination of expected results

4.

Assignment of duties

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :


Codes :
(A)

3-2-4-1

(B) 1-2-4-3

(C)

1-4-2-3

(D) 3-4-2-1

60. In marine insurance, a partial loss is technically called as :


(A)

Warranties

(B) Particular average

(C)

Total loss

(D) Liabilities

61. Under which of the following methods of depreciation the amount of an asset is never reduced to
zero ?
(A)

Straight line method

(B) Diminishing balance method

(C)

Sums of years digit method

(D) Annuity method

62. Consider the following :


Amortization refers to writing off the value of
1.

Tangible assets

2.

Intangible assets

3.

Fictitious assets

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


(A)

1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C)

1 only

(D) 2 only

63. Which one of the following statements is correct ?


When creditors velocity or creditors turnover is higher as compared to debtors velocity,
it would
(A)

Improve liquidity

(B) Reduce liquidity

(C)

Have no effect on liquidity

(D) Improve financial position

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64. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Technique of auditing)
A.

(Explanation)

Vouching

1.

It is an enquiry into the value, ownership


and title of assets

B.

Verification

2.

It is testing of the exact value of an asset


on the basis of its utility

C.

Investigation

3.

It is the verification of authority and authenticity of


transaction as recorded in the books of accounts

D.

Valuation

4.

It is an examination of accounts and records of a


business concern with some special purpose.

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Liability of auditor)

(Example)

A.

Liability for negligence

1.

Not liable for untrue statement in prospectus

B.

Liability for misfeasance

2.

Breach of trust or duty

C.

Criminal liability

3.

Untrue statement in the prospectus

D.

Liability to third party

4.

Dividend paid out of capital

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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66. Life insurance is a contract of which one of the following ?


(A)

Indemnity

(B) Guarantee

(C)

Contribution

(D) Subrogation

67. A Provision is a :
(A)

General reserve

(B) Specific reserve

(C)

Capital reserve

(D) Contingency reserve

68. An estimate of the assets and liabilities of a firm as on a given date is called :
(A)

Balance sheet

(B) Statement of affairs

(C)

Statement of capital

(D) Income statement

69. The classification function of accounting is performed by :


(A)

Journal

(B) Trial balance

(C)

Ledger

(D) Cash book

70. In a three column cash book, apart from cash and bank account, the third column is for :
(A)

Petty cash expenses

(B) Discount allowed and received

(C)

Commission allowed and received

(D) Contra transaction

71. A company can forfeit share if the :


(A)

Shareholder fails to pay the amount of the call during the stipulated period

(B)

Shareholder pays calls in advance

(C)

Shareholder does not pay the application money

(D)

Shares have been issued at par

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

A.

Leverage ratio

1.

Short term solvency

B.

Liquid ratio

2.

Earning capacity

C.

Turnover ratio

3.

Relationship of debt and equity

D.

Profitability ratio

4.

Efficiency of assets management

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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73. Additional cost by producing one more unit is :


(A)

Implicit cost

(B) Book cost

(C)

Sunk cost

(D) Marginal cost

74. Marginal utility theory was conceptualised by :


(A)

Keynes

(B) Alfred Marshall

(C)

J.R. Hicks

(D) Allen

75. Consumer reaches a saturation point for a product when marginal utility (MU) is :
(A)

Positive

(B) Negative

(C)

Zero

(D) Positive and negative

76. Increase in demand bacause of decrease in price is called :


(A)

Extension

(B) Increase

(C)

Contraction

(D) Decrease

77. The term group equilibrium is related to :


(A)

Monopolistic competition

(B) Oligopoly

(C)

Duopoly

(D) Perfect competition

78. According to 2011 census sex ratio of India is :


(A)

852

(B) 940

(C)

925

(D) 965

79. According to 2011 census Literacy rate of India is :


(A)

50%

(B) 90%

(C)

74%

(D) 55%

80. The correct duration of Ninth five year plan :


(A)

1997-2002

(B) 1992-97

(C)

1985-90

(D) 1983-88

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I

List-II

(Sector)

(Sector wise FDI inflows in 2008)

A.

Service

1.

40%

B.

Manufacturing

2.

35%

C.

Infrastructure

3.

18%

D.

Construction

4.

7%

Codes :
A

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

82. First industrial policy resolution was issued in :


(A)

1947

(B) 1948

(C)

1951

(D) 1954

83. Restrictive trade practices are covered under :


(A)

FERA

(B) FEMA

(C)

MRTP Act

(D) Consumer Protection Act

84. National Stock Exchange is facing major competition from :


(A)

Bombay Stock Exchange

(B) Delhi Stock Exchange

(C)

Calcutta Stock Exchange

(D) OCTEI

85. Rolling settlement was introduced by SEBI for the first time in :
(A)

1990

(B) 1994

(C)

1998

(D) 2000

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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ROUGH WORK

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

22

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ROUGH WORK

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

23

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ROUGH WORK

M. Com. (Honours)/FRH-41369/A

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114

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

2
*

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/A


1.

2.

3.

A resistance 'R' and inductance of 'L' H are connected across 240 V, 50 Hz supply.
Power dissipated in the circuit is 300 W and the voltage across R is 100 V. In order to
improve the power factor to unity, the capacitor that is to be connected in series should
have a value of :
(A) 43.7 F

(B) 4.37 F

(C) 437 F

(D) .437 F

To a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The angle between
voltage and current will :
(A) Increase

(B) Decrease

(C) Remain nearly the same

(D) Become indeterminant

A network is said to be linear if and only if :


(A) the response is proportional to the excitation function
(B) the principle of superposition applies
(C) the principle of homogeneity applies
(D) both (B) and (C)

4.

1
j
5.

6.

in series with a parallel


Thevenin resistance of the network comprising of a resistor of 1
through which 1 ampere
connection of a current source of 2 amperes and a resistor of 1
of current flows is :
(A) 2

(B) 0.5

(C) 4/3

(D) 1

A circuit with a resistor, inductor, and capacitor in series is resonant of f Hz. If all the
component values are doubled, the new resonant frequency is :
(A) 2f

(B) still f

(C) f/2

(D) f/4

Which one of the following is the correct Fourier Transform of the unit step signal
1 for t > 0
u(t) =
:
0 for t 0
(A) ( )

(C)

1
+ ( )
j

(B)

(D) 2 ( )

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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*

[Turn over

7.

8.

9.

If

then two discrete time signals are :

(A) x(n)=anu(n) and x(n)=anu(n)

(B) x(n)=anu(n) and x(n)=anu(n1)

(C) x(n)=anu(n) and x(n)=anu(n1)

(D) x(n)=anu(n) and x(n)=anu(n+1)

Inverse z-transform of 1 is :
(A) (n + 1)

(B) (n)

(C) (n 1)

(D) u(n)

If |a| < 1, then value of

n
n=0

a n is :

(A)

1
1+ a

(B)

1
1+ a2

(C)

1
1 a

(D)

1
a

10. A causal LTI system with rational system function H(z) is stable if and only if all the poles
of H(z) lie inside the unit circle i.e. they must all have magnitude :
(A) Greater than 1

(B) Smaller than 1

(C) Greater than or equal to 1

(D) Equal to zero

11. A pn junction in series with a 100 ohms resistor is forward biased so that a current of
100 mA flows. If voltage across this combination is instantaneously reversed to 10V at
t = 0, then reverse current that flows through the diode at t = 0 is approximately given
by :
(A) 0 mA

(B) 100 mA

(C) 200 mA

(D) 50 mA

12. Negative feedback in amplifiers :


(A) improves signal to noise ratio at the input
(B) improves signal to noise ratio at the output
(C) does not affect signal to noise ratio at the output
(D) reduces distortion
13. An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 1 mA and Vp = 5V. Its maximum transconductance is :
(A) 0.1 milli mho

(B) 0.4 milli mho

(C) 1.0 milli mho

(D) 4.0 milli mho

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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14. Threshold voltage of an n-channel MOSFET can be increased by :


(A) increasing the channel doping concentration
(B) reducing the channel doping concentration
(C) reducing the gate oxide thickness
(D) reducing the channel length
15. In a pnp transistor operating in the active region, in the base region, the main stream of
current is :
(A) drift of holes

(B) diffusion of holes

(C) drift of electrons

(D) diffusion of electrons

16. Avalanche photodiodes are preferred over PIN diodes in optical communication systems
because of :
(A) speed of operation

(B) higher sensitivity

(C) larger bandwidth

(D) larger power handling capacity

17. The dynamic emitter resistance of a BJT operating in the active region is of the order
of :
(A) 0.01

(B) 1

(C) 100

(D) 10 K

18. In an npn transistor operating in active region the main current crossing the collector
junction from base side is :
(A) hole drift current

(B) hole diffusion drift

(C) electron diffusion current

(D) electron drift current

19. After firing an SCR, if the gate pulse is removed, the SCR current :
(A) remains the same

(B) reduces to zero

(C) rises up

(D) rises a little and then falls to zero

20. In a CMOS CS amplifier, the active load is obtained by connecting :


(A) p channel current mirror circuit

(B) n channel transistor

(C) p channel transistor

(D) BJT current mirror

100
. For a unit step input to the
( s + 1) ( s + 100)
system the approximate settling time for 2% criterion is :

21. The transfer function of a system is G( s) =

(A) 100 sec

(B) 4 sec

(C) 1 sec

(D) 0.01 sec

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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[Turn over

25
. If the system
s + 8s + 25
initially at rest is subjected to a unit step input at t = 0, the second peak in the response
will occur at :

22. A second order system has a transfer function given by (s) =

(A) sec

(B) / 3 sec

(C) 2 / 3sec

(D) / 2 sec

23. The open loop DC gain of a unity negative feedback system with closed loop transfer
function

s+4
is :
s + 7s + 13
2

4
9

(A)

(B)

(C) 4

(D) 13

24. The characteristic polynomial of a system is q(s) = 2s5 + s4 + 4s3 + 2s2 + 2s + 1. The system
is :
(A) Stable

(B) Marginally stable

(C) Unstable

(D) Oscillatory

25. Which of the following points in NOT on the root-locus of a system with the open-loop
transfer function :
G(s) = k/s (s + 1) (s + 3) ?
(A) s = + j 3

(B) s = 1.5

(C) s = 3

(D) s =

26. The phase margin (in degrees) of a system having the loop transfer function
is :
(A) 45o

(B) 30o

(C) 90o

(D) 30o

27. The open loop transfer function of a feedback control system is G(s)H(s) =
gain margin of the system is :
(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 16

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

6
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1
. The
(s + 1)3

28. In the Bode plot of a unity feedback control system, the value of phase of G (j) at the
gain cross over frequency is 125. The phase margin of the system is :
(A) 125o

(B) 55o

(C) 55o

(D) 125o

5
. The second order
(s + 5)(s 2 + s + 1)
approximation of T(s) using dominant pole concept is :

29. The transfer function of a plant is T(s) =

(A)

1
( s + 5)( s + 1)

(B)

(C)

5
s + s +1

(D)

5
( s + 5)( s + 1)

30. The stable variable equations of a system are


The system is :

and y = x1 + u.

(A) Controllable but not observable

(B) Observable but not controllable

(C) Neither controllable nor observable

(D) Controllable and observable

31. Identify which one of the following will NOT satisfy the wave equation :
(A) 50 e j ( t 3 z)

(B) sin [ (10z + 5 t]

(C) cos(y2 + 5t)


(D) sin(x) cos (t)
x& 1 = 3x
1 1 x2 + u, x& 2 = 2x1
32. A plane electromagnetic wave travelling along +z direction, has its electrical field given
s2 + s + 1
by Ex = 2cos ( t) and Ey = 2cos ( t + 90). The wave is :
(A) Linearly polarized

(B) Right circularly polarized

(C) Left circularly polarized

(D) Elliptically polarized


r
r
33. A loop is rotating about the y-axis in a magnetic field E = B0cos( t + )axT . The voltage
in the loop is :
(A) Zero
(B) Due to rotation only
(C) Due to transformer action only
(D) Due to both rotation and transformer action
34. When a plane wave travelling in a free space is incident normally on a medium having
r = 4.0, the fraction of power transmitted into the medium is given by :
(A) 8/9

(B) 1/2

(C) 1/3

(D) 5/6

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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[Turn over

transmission line is open circuited at the load end. The input


35. A very lossy, /4 long, 500
impedance measured at the other end of the line is approximately :
(A) 0

(B) 50

(C)

(D) None of these

36. Choose the correct statements : For a wave propagating in the air filled rectangular
waveguide.
(A) Guide wavelength is never less than the free space wavelength
(B) Wave impedance is never less than the free space impedance
(C) Phase velocity is never less than the free space velocity
(D) TEM mode is possible if the dimensions of the waveguide are properly chosen
37. An airfield rectangular waveguide has inner dimensions of 3 cm 2 cm. The wave
impedance of the TE20 mode of propagation in the waveguide at a frequency of
) :
30 GHz is (free space impedance 0 = 377
(A) 308

(B) 355

(C) 400

(D) 461

. The radiation resistance


38. The radiation resistance of a circular loop of one turn is 0.01.
of five turn of such a loop will be :
(A) 0.002

(B) 0.01

(C) 0.05

(D) 0.25

39. A person with a receiver is 5 km away from the transmitter. What is the distance that this
person must cover further to detect a 3 dB decrease in signal strength ?
(A) 942 m

(B) 2070 m

(C) 4978 m

(D) 5320 m

40. A transmission line is feeding 1 watt of power to a horn antenna having a gain of 10 dB.
The antenna is matched to the transmission line. The total power radiated by the horn
antenna into the free-space is :
(A) 10 watts

(B) 1 watts

(C) 0.1 watts

(D) 0.01 watts

41. Which of the following statements is not correct ?


(A) Propagation delay is the time required for a gate to change its state
(B) Noise immunity is the amount of noise which can be applied to the input of a gate without
causing the gate to change state
(C) Fan in of a gate is always equal to fan-out of the same gate
(D) Operating speed is the maximum frequency at which digital data can be applied to a gate
M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

8
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42. Consider a multiplexer with X and Y as data inputs and Z as control input. Z = 0 selects
input X and Z = 1 selects input Y. What are the connections required to realize the
2-variable Boolean function f = T + R, without using any additional hardware ?
(A) R to X, 1 to Y, T to Z

(B) T to X, R to Y, T to Z

(C) T to X, R to Y, 0 to Z

(D) R to X, 0 to Y, T to Z

43. With which decoder it is possible to obtain many code conversions ?


(A) 2 line to 4 line

(B) 3 line to 8 line

(C) not possible with any decoder

(D) 4 line to 16 line decoder

44. In which one of the following types of analog to digital converters the conversion time is
practically independent of the amplitude of the analog signal ?
(A) the dual slope integrating type

(B) successive approximation type

(C) counter ramp type

(D) tracking type

45. Which one of the following is used as the interface chip for data transmission between
8086 and a 16-bit ADC ?
(A) 8259

(B) 8255

(C) 8253

(D) 8251

46. Which one of the following addressing modes is used in the instruction PUSH B ?
(A) Direct

(B) Register

(C) Register indirect

(D) Immediate

47. What is the purpose of DMA facility in microprocessor based systems ?


(A) To increase the speed of data transfer between the microprocessor and the I/O devices
(B) To increase the speed of data transfer between the microprocessor and the memory
(C) To increase the speed of data transfer between the memory and the I/O devices
(D) To improve the reliability of the system
48. A 4 bit shift register, which shifts 1 bit to the right at every clock pulse is initialized to
values 1000 for Q0 Q1 Q2 Q3. The D input is derived from Q0, Q2 and Q3 through two
ExOR gates as shown in figure. What will be the values at Q0 Q1 Q2 Q3 after 5th clock
pulse ?
(A) 1000
(B) 0011

D input

(C) 0001
(D) 0000

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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[Turn over

49. For the 8085 assembly language program given below, the content of the accumulator
after the execution of the program is :
3000

MVI A, 45H

3002

MOV B, A

3003

STC

3004

CMC

3005

RAR

3006

XRA B

(A) 00H

(B) 45H

(C) 67H

(D) E7H

50. A 4-bit ripple counter and a 4-bit synchronous counter are made using flip-flops having a
propagation delay of 10ns each. If the worst case delay in the ripple counter and the
synchronous counter be R and S respectively, then :
(A) R = 10ns, S = 40ns

(B) R = 40ns, S = 10ns

(C) R = 10ns, S = 30ns

(D) R = 30ns, S = 10ns

51. If the radiated power of AM transmitter is 10 KW, the power in the carrier for modulation
index of 0.6 is nearly :
(A) 8.24 KW

(B) 8.47 KW

(C) 9.26 KW

(D) 9.6 KW

52. In a low level AM system, the amplifier which follows the modulated stage must be the :
(A) linear device

(B) harmonic device

(C) class C amplifier

(D) non-linear device

53. For a 10-bit PCM system, the signal to quantization noise ratio is 62 db. If the number of
bits is increased by 2, then the signal to quantization noise ratio will :
(A) increase by 6 db

(B) increase by 12 db

(C) decrease by 6 db

(D) decrease by 12 db

54. When the channel is noisy, producing a conditional probability of error p = 0.5, the channel
capacity and entropy function would be respectively :
(A) 1 and 1

(B) 1 and 0.5

(C) 0.5 and 1

(D) Zero and 1

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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55. In a certain 12 channel TDM system, it is found that channel number 3 and channel
number 8 are connected to the same input signal. This technique :
(A) wastes the channel capacity
(B) takes care of different sampling rates
(C) is required when different bandwidth signals are to be transmitted
(D) reduces noise
56. A band pass signal has significant frequency components in the range of 1.5 MHz to
2 MHz. If the signal is to be reconstructed from its samples, the minimum sampling
frequency will be :
(A) 1 MHz

(B) 2 MHz

(C) 3.5 MHz

(D) 4 MHz

57. In a single error correcting Hamming code, the number of message bits in a block is 26.
the number of check bits in the block would be :
(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 7

58. If binary PSK modulation is used for transmission, the required minimum bandwidth is
9600 Hz. To reduce the transmission bandwidth to 2400 Hz, the modulation scheme to be
adopted should be :
(A) quadrature phase shift keying

(B) minimum shift keying

(C) 16-ary quadrature amplitude modulation

(D) 8-ary PSK

59. PAM signals can be demodulated by using a :


(A) low pass filter alone

(B) Schmitt trigger followed by a PLF

(C) Differentiator followed by a LPF

(D) Clipper circuit followed by a LPF

60. The bit rate of a digital communication system is 34 M bit/s. The modulation scheme is
QPSK. The baud rate of the system is :
(A) 68 Mbits/s

(B) 34 Mbits/s

(C) 17 Mbits/s

(D) 8.5 Mbits/s

61. The gain bandwidth product of a two stage CE amplifier is :


(A) same as that of one stage
(B) greater than that of one stage
(C) less than that of one stage
(D) product of the two gain bandwidth products of each stage

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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[Turn over

62. For a transistor, parameters are = 180 and VA = 150 V, and it is biased at ICQ = 2 mA.
If collector of the transistor is connected to the base terminal, then small signal resistance
re = vce /ic of this two terminal device is :
(A) 12.88 K

(B) 12.87

(C) 2.33

(D) 1.53

63. Class AB operation is often used in power (large signal) amplifiers in order to :
(A) Get maximum efficiency

(B) Remove even harmonics

(C) Overcome a cross over distortion

(D) Reduce collector dissipation

64. If an amplifier with resistive negative feedback has two left half planes poles in its open
loop transfer function then amplifer :
(A) Will always be unstable at high frequencies
(B) Will be stable for all frequencies
(C) May be unstable, depending upon the feedback factor
(D) Will oscillate at low frequencies
65. A differential amplifier is invariably used in the input stage of all OP-AMPs. This is done
basically to provide OP-AMPs with a very high :
(A) CMRR

(B) Bandwidth

(C) Slew rate

(D) Open loop gain

66. An op-amp, having a slew rate of 62, 8 V/m sec, is connected in a voltage follower
configuration. If maximum amplitude of the input sinusoid is 10 V, then minimum frequency
at which slew rate limited distortion would set in at the output is :
(A) 1.0 MHz

(B) 6.28 MHz

(C) 10.0 MHz

(D) 62.8 MHz

67. For good differentiation one must ensure the time period T of signal is related to time
constant RC as :
(A) T = RC

(B) T < RC

(C) T = RC/2

(D) T > RC

68. For the frequency 100 Hz and C = 0.1 F, determine the value of R for RC phase shift
oscillator.
(A) 6.5 K

(B) 16 K

(C) 65 K

(D) 1.6 K

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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69. The load RL in the circuit cannot be replaced by :


Vdd
RL
output

input

(A)

(C)

(B)

V Bias

V Bias

(D)

70. For the depletion MOSFET shown in the figure below, find W/L for ID = 100
A,
2
A/V and VD = 1V.
Kn = 20
5V
RD

ID
VD

(A) 30

(B) 20

(C) 10

(D) 100

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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[Turn over

71. An LTI system having transfer function (s2 + 1) / (s2 + 2s + 1) and input x(t) = sin(t + 1) is
in steady state. The output is sampled at a rate s rad/s to obtain the final output y(k).
Which of the following is true ?
(A) y(k) is zero for all sampling frequencies s
(B) y(k) is non zero for all sampling frequencies s
(C) y(k) is non zero for s > 2, but zero for all s < 2
(D) y(k) is zero for s > 2, but non zero for all s < 2
72. The 4-point discerete Fourier transform (DFT) of a discrete-time sequence {1.0.2.3} is :
(A) 0, 2 + 2j, 2, 2 2j

(B) 2, 2 + 2j, 6, 2 2j

(C) 6, 1 3j, 2, 1 + 3j

(D) 6, 1 + 3j, 0, 1 3j

73. The Z transform of the time function

is :

(A) Z 1/Z

(B) Z/(Z 1)2

(C) Z/(Z 1)

(D) (Z 1)2/Z

74. Convolution of x(t + 5) with impulse function (t 7) is equal to :


(A) x(t 12)

(B) x(t + 12)

(C) x(t 2)

(D) x(t + 2)

t) is :
75. The power in the signal s(t) = 8cos(20 t /2) + 4sin(15
(A) 40

(B) 41

(C) 42

(D) 82

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

15
*

ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Electronics & Communication Engineering)/FRH-41345-A

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163

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M. E. F. B (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

'Niche' market means :


(A) A free market

(B) A social market

(C) Equity Market

(D) A specified market for target group

Value-added services means :


(A) Giving full value for money

(B) Better value for better price

(C) Costlier service

(D) Additional service

'Benchmark' means :
(A) Products line up on bench

(B) Salesman sitting on a bench

(C) Set standards

(D) None of these

As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within
how many days of the closure of the initial public offer (IPOs) ?
(A) 60 days

(B) 12 days

(C) 30 days

(D) 45 days

The new version of MGNREGA included more than 25 agricultural and allied activities.
The new version of the act will be implemented from which of the following dates ?
(A) 1 April 2012

(B) 1 May 2012

(C) 1 June 2012

(D) 1 July 2012

Which of the following is a financial asset ?


(A) Gold

(B) Silver

(C) Shares in a Demat Account

(D) Land and Buildings

Which of the following challenges will be most the crucial from human existence on earth
in the days to come ?
(A) Pollution

(B) Food Security

(C) Availability of Natural Gas

(D) Need for Financial Inclusion

Which of the following is not a government of India undertaking ?


(A) Oil India Limited

(B) Sutlej Jal Vidyut Nigam Ltd.

(C) ICICI Bank

(D) National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd.

What percent of India's GDP is invested in providing education ?


(A) 1 %
(C) 4%

(B) 2.5 %
(D) 6 %

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

[Turn over

10. The atmospheric gas that is mainly responsible for Greenhouse Effect :
(A) Ozone

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Oxygen

(D) Carbon-dioxide

11. The parliament can legislate on subjects given in the Union list only in consultation with
the state government for the state of :
(A) Assam

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Jammu & Kashmir

(D) Kerala

12. Tooth paste is a product sold under :


(A) Monopolistic competition

(B) Perfect competition

(C) Monopoly

(D) Duopoly

13. Who is the Supreme Commander - in - Chief of armed forces of country ?


(A) Defence Minister

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Senior Most Among the three service chiefs (D) President
14. The 2014 FIFA (Foot Ball World Cup) will be held in which of the following countries ?
(A) Russia

(B) South Africa

(C) Germany

(D) Brazil

15. The Olympic games 2012 will be held at which of the following cities ?
(A) London

(B) Cannes

(C) Perth

(D) Brisbane

16. According to the latest World Health Organization analysis published on February 04,
2012, out of the estimated 1.3 million people who died of tuberculosis in 2008 globally
India alone accounted for :
(A) 2.4 Lakhs

(B) 2.6 Lakhs

(C) 2.2 Lakhs

(D) 2.8 Lakhs

17. Who among the following won the coveted GD Birla Award for Scientific Research for
2011 in February 2012 ?
(A) Tapas Kumar Kundu

(B) Ashoke Sen

(C) Salil Chaudhury

(D) Tarun Vaidyanathan

18. Capital market regulator Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) on February 1,
2012 notified new rules for private placement of shares to institutional investors through
a new window called the IPP. What is the full form of IPP ?
(A) Institutional Private Placement

(B) Investors Placement Programme

(C) Institutional Placement Programme

(D) Institutional Placement Policy

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

19. Which of the following states on February 13, 2012 announced that bollywood superstar
Shahrukh Khan would be the state's brand ambassador ?
(A) Maharashtra

(B) Delhi

(C) West Bengal

(D) Jammu & Kashmir

20. The Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh on February 1, 2012 approved the constitution
of a National Council for Senior Citizens. The committee which recommended such
council, was headed by :
(A) Kapila Vatsyayan

(B) Rekha Bhardwaz

(C) Mohini Giri

(D) Nagma Sanave

21. Which of the following fruit was declared by the scientists in October 2011 as "wonder
drug" for it contains concentrated Punicalagins which may cure many ailments ?
(A) Apple

(B) Pineapple

(C) Pomegranate

(D) Strawberry

22. According to WTO's World Trade Report 2011, India's rank in service exports during
2010 stood :
(A) 20th in the world

(B) 18th in the world

(C) 16th in the world

(D) 14th in the world

23. With which of the following countries India did sign a revised Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreement on November 27, 2011, which would replace the agreement on double
taxation avoidance signed in 1987 ?
(A) China

(B) Russia

(C) Nepal

(D) Sri Lanka

24. With which of the following countries India did sign the Bilateral Investment Promotion
and Protection Agreement (BIPPA) on October 21, 2011 ?
(A) Bangladesh

(B) China

(C) Nepal

(D) Bhutan

25. Union Communications and IT minister Kapil Sibal on September 30, 2011 unveiled which
of the following for better management of spectrum ?
(A) National Frequency Allocation Plan-2011

(B) National Telecom Policy - 2011

(C) National Electronics Policy-2011

(D) National IT Policy-2011

26. On which date in 2011 did India ratify the United Nations Convention against
Corruption ?
(A) May 12

(B) May 16

(C) May 18

(D) May 9

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

[Turn over

27. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to :


(A) avoid slipping

(B) increased speed

(C) reduce fatigue

(D) increased stability

28. The sky appears blue because :


(A) It is actually blue
(B) The atmosphere scatters blue colours more than the others
(C) All colours interfere to produce blue
(D) In white light the blue components dominate
29. In old age, people have to wear spectacles for reading and writing because :
(A) Their eye lenses become weak
(B) They lose the power of accommodation
(C) Their eye balls become too short
(D) Their eye-lenses lose their magnifying power
30. An electric bulb has a filament made of :
(A) Copper

(B) Iron

(C) Lead

(D) Tungsten

31. The first human statues worshiped in India were those of :


(A) Brahma

(B) Vishnu

(C) Buddha

(D) Shiva

32. When the East India Company was set-up, India's ruler was :
(A) Aurangzeb

(B) Akbar

(C) Jehangir

(D) Humayun

33. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the constitution ?
(A) JB Kriplani

(B) Rajendra Prasad

(C) JL Nehru

(D) BR Ambedkar

34. "Do or die" was one of the most powerful slogan of India's freedom struggle. Who gave
it ?
(A) M.K. Gandhi

(B) JL Nehru

(C) BG Tilak

(D) S.C. Bose

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

35. What is 'Kaveri' ?


(A) India's indigeneous aircraft engine

(B) India's Low cost Laptop

(C) India's air to air Missile

(D) India's guided surface to Air Missile

36. Which of the following carries out 'Open Market Operations' ?


(A) Finance Ministry

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) External Affairs Ministry

(D) Planning Commission

Direction (Q. 37 to 42) : Study the following table to answer the given questions :
Production (in crore units) of six companies over the years
COMPANY

YEARS
1997

1998

1999

2000

2001

2002

Total

TP

103

150

105

107

110

132

707

ZIR

75

80

83

86

90

91

505

AVC

300

300

300

360

370

340

1970

CTU

275

280

281

280

285

287

1688

PEN

25

30

35

40

42

45

217

SIO

85

87

89

91

92

96

540

Total

863

927

893

964

989

991

5627

37. The production of company AVC in 2000 is approximately what percent of its average
production over the year ?
(A) 300

(B) 110

(C) 136

(D) 118.25

38. For SIO, which year was the percent increase or decrease in production from the
previous year the highest ?
(A) 2001

(B) 1998

(C) 2002

(D) 2000

39. Which company has less average production in the last three years compared to that of
first three years ?
(A) SIO

(B) CTU

(C) ZIR

(D) None of these

40. The total production of six companies in the first two given years is what percent of that
of last two given years ? (round off upto two decimal places).
(A) 87.08

(B) 104.55

(C) 90.40

(D) 10.62

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

[Turn over

41. For ZIR, which of the following is the difference between production in 2002 and then in
2001 ?
(A) 10,00,00,000

(B) 1,00,00,000

(C) 10,00,000

(D) 40,00,000

42. For how many companies did the production increase every year from that of the
previous year ?
(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

Direction (Q. 43 to 47) : Each of the questions below consist of a question and two statements
numbered (i) and (ii) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer questions. Read both the statements and give answer.
(a) Statement (i) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (ii) alone is not sufficient.
(b) Statement (ii) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (i) alone is not sufficient.
(c) Both Statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is
sufficient.
(d) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
43. What is the value of x ?
(i)

if 10 is added to x, the result is 34.

(ii) if x is multiplied by y, the result is 38

44. Kundu and Puttu can do a work in 12 days, in how many days will Puttu complete the
work working alone ?
(i)

Kundu can complete the work in 36 days

(ii) Kundu is half as efficient as Puttu

45. What is the percentage of families in the city have telephones ?


(i)

50% of the families of the city have televisions

(ii) 30% of the television owners of the city have telephones


46. On which date in April was Varun born ?
(i)

Varun's mother remembers that Varun was born before nineteenth but after fifteenth

(ii) Varun's sister remembers that Varun was born before seventeenth but after twelfth.
47. Which direction is Shashidhar facing ?
(i)

In the early morning Shashidhar was standing in front of a puppet and the shadow of the
puppet was falling to the right of Shashidhar.

(ii) In the early morning Shashidhar was standing on the ground. His shadow was falling behind
him when he turned to his left.
48. Introducing a man, a woman said, His wife is the only daughter of my mother. How is the
woman related to that man ?
(A) Aunt

(B) Wife

(C) Mother-in-law

(D) Maternal Aunt

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

49. E is the son of A. D is the son of B. E is married to C.C is B's daughter. How is D related
to E ?
(A) Brother

(B) Uncle

(C) Father-in-law

(D) Brother-in-law

50. 'BF' is related to 'HL' in the same way as 'KO' is related to ?


(A) QV

(B) PT

(C) QU

(D) QT

51. Ramakant walks northwards. After a while, he turns to his right and a little further to his
left. Finally, after walking a distance of one kilometer, he turns to his left again. In which
direction is he moving now ?
(A) North

(B) South

(C) East

(D) West

52. Manish is fourteenth from the right end in a row of 40 boys. What is his position from the
left end ?
(A) 24th

(B) 25th

(C) 26th

(D) 27th

53. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one
that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Tiger

(B) Wolf

(C) Cat

(D) Fish

54. 'Sandwich' is related to 'Snack' in the same way as 'Train' is related to :


(A) Driver

(B) Track

(C) Transport

(D) Car

55. If 'MOBILE' is coded as 'OMIBEL' and 'PAGERS' is coded as 'APEGSR', how will
'MOUSSE' be coded as in the same code ?
(A) OSMESU

(B) OMEUSS

(C) OMUSES

(D) OMSUES

Direction (Q. 56 to 58) : In each of the following questions, select the related words/ letters/
number from the given alternatives :
56. 7:50 : : 17 : ?
(A) 288

(B) 118

(C) 290

(D) 324

57. MUG: GUM :: LENS : ?


(A) Glass

(B) Spectacle

(C) Snel

(D) Object

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

[Turn over

58. INTIMATE : UNFAMILIAR : : ?


(A) Interior : Remote

(B) Forbear : Patience

(C) Interested : Indifference

(D) Popular : Friendly

59. The ratio between the present ages of Jyoti and Amit is 8 : 9 respectively. After four
years Jyoti's age will be 28 years. What was Amit's age 8 years ago ?
(A) 18 years

(B) 21 years

(C) 20 years

(D) 19 years

Direction (Q. 60-61) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
number series ?
60. 620 428 332 284 260 (?)
(A) 246

(B) 258

(C) 262

(D) 248

61. 7 11 20 36 61 (?)
(A) 97

(B) 86

(C) 99

(D) 85

62. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'CONFIRM' each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

Direction (Q. 63-67) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by
three conclusions numbered I, II, and III. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seen to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
63. Statements :
Some pens are pencils.
All pencils are caps.
All caps are buses.
Some buses are trains.
Conclusions :
I.

Some trains are caps.

II. Some pens are buses.


III. Some pencils are trains.
(A) Only I follows

(B) Only II follows

(C) Only I and II follow

(D) None follows

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

10

64. Statements :
All shirts are skirts.
All skirts are banks.
All banks are roads.
All roads are brushes.
Conclusions :
I.

All banks are skirts.

II. All roads are banks.


III. Some brushes are shirts.
(A) Only I follow

(B) Only III follow

(C) Only I and III follow

(D) All I, II and III follow

65. Statements :
Some fishes are plates.
Some plates are spoons.
Some spoons are plants.
All plants are crows.
Conclusions :
I.

Some plates are crows.

II. Some crows are spoons.


III. Some plants are spoons.
(A) Only I follow

(B) Only I and II follow

(C) None follow

(D) Only II and III follow

66. Statements :
Some eggs are hens.
Some hens are ducks.
All ducks are pigeons.
All pigeons are sparrows.
Conclusions :
I.

All ducks are sparrows.

II. No egg is duck.


III. Some sparrows are hens.
(A) Only I follow

(B) Only I and II follow

(C) Only III follow

(D) Only I and III follow

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

11

[Turn over

67. Statements :
No man is tiger.
No tiger is cat.
Some cats are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions :
I.

Some tigers are cats.

II. Some cats are men.


III. Some lions are men.
(A) None follows

(B) Only III follow

(C) Only I and II follow

(D) Only I follow

68. Members of a club are gentlemen. Some members are officers. Officers are
invited to a party. Therefore, we may deduce that :
(A) All members are invited to a party
(B) All gentlemen are invited to a party
(C) Officers who are gentlemen are invited to a party
(D) Some gentlemen are invited to a party.
69. A goes 4 km south, then 8 km west, then 6 km north, then 8 km east and then 2 km
south. How far is A from the starting point ?
(A) 2 km

(B) 1 km

(C) 0 km

(D) 3 km

70. A clock seen through a mirror shows 8 o'clock. What is the correct time ?
(A) 8:00

(B) 4:00

(C) 12:20

(D) 12:40

Directions (71-72) : fill in the blanks with the most logical choice.
71. Revenge : Mercy : : Cruelty :
(A) Aggression

(B) Anger

(C) Kindness

(D) Despair

72. ______ is to prisoner as cage is to bird.


(A) House

(B) Poison

(C) Prison

(D) Room

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

12

73. Meghna is taller than Sujata but she is not taller than Natasha of the same class. Indira
is shorter than Natasha but taller than Meghna. If Natasha is the tallest in the class, who
is shortest ?
(A) Meghna

(B) Indira

(C) Sujata

(D) None of these

74. Per capita income is maximum in which of the following states in India ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh

(B) Punjab

(C) Gujarat

(D) Goa

75. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was associated with :


(A) Industrial Policy

(B) Banking Reforms

(C) Panchayati Raj

(D) Centre-State relations

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393

13

ROUGH WORK

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393 14

ROUGH WORK

M.E.F.B. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)-A/FRH-41393 15

36

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.E. (Computer Science and Engineering/Information Technology)


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

M.E.(Computer Science and Engineering / Information Technology)/A

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

To implement Dijkastra's shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs


in linear time, the data structure to be used is :
(A) Queue

(B) Stack

(C) Heap

(D) B-Tree

The following numbers are inserted into an empty binary search tree in the given order :
10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the height of the binary search tree (the height is the
maximum distance of a leaf node from the root) ?
(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 6

How many distinct binary search trees can be created out of 4 distinct keys ?
(A) 5

(B) 14

(C) 24

(D) 42

A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The levelorder traversal of the heap is given below : 10, 8, 5, 3, 2. Two new elements 1 and 7 are
inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the
insertion of the elements is :
(A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1,

(B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5

(C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5

(D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5

Give a 16 bit value 1001101011001101. What operation must be applied in order to


complement middle 8 bits ?
(A) XOR 0000111111110000

(B) AND 1111000000001111

(C) OR 1111101010101111

(D) None of these

Number of swaps required to sort n elements using selection sort in the worst case :
(A) (n2)

(B) (n log n)

(C) (n)

(D) (n2 log n)

Suppose an unpipelined processor with 25ns cycle time is divided into 5 pipeline stages
with latencies of 5,7,3,6 and 4 ns. If pipeline latch latency is 1 ns, what is cycle time of
resulting processor ?
(A) 8 ns

(B) 9 ns

(C) 10 ns

(D) 12 ns

M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

[Turn over

8.

Consider the following C function :


int f(int n)
{ static int i = 1;
if (n > = 5) return n;
n = n + i;
i ++;
return f(n);
}
The value returned by f(1) is

9.

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

If the following program is executed and user entered number 4 as input, then output is :
#include <stdio.h>
void main( )
{ int a, b = 8 ;
scanf("%d", & a);
if (a = 0) b*=2; else b/=2;
printf("%d",b++);
}
(A) 16

(B) 8

(C) 4

(D) 5

10. If in a program it is required that a local variable must retain its value during various
function calls to it, its storage must be :
(A) Static

(B) Register

(C) Auto

(D) Extern

11. The output of the following program will be :


#include<stdio.h>
void main ( )
{ char *ptr;ptr="OCET";putchar(*ptr);}
(A) T

(B) O

(C) OCET

(D) Syntax error

M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

12. Consider the following C program :


main ( )
{ int x, y, m, n ;
scanf ("%d %d", &x, &y); / * Assume x > 0 and y > 0* /
m = x; n = y ;
while (m ! = n)
{ if (m >n)
m = m n;
else n = n - m ;
}
printf("%d",n); }
The program computes
(A) x + y, using repeated subtraction

(B) x mod y using repeated subtraction

(C) the greatest common divisor of x and y

(D) the least common multiple of x and y

13. A computer has 32 bit instructions and 12 bit address. If there are 250 two address
instructions how many maximum one address instructions can be formulated ?
(A) 26576

(B) 27456

(C) 24576

(D) 25476

14. Booth's coding in 8 bits for (-57)10 is :


(A) 0-100+1000

(B) 0-100+100-1

(C) 0-1+100-10+1

(D) 00-10+100-1

15. If (73)x (in base-x number system) is equal to (54)y (in base-y number system), the possible values of x and y are :
(A) 8,16

(B) 10,12

(C) 9,13

(D) 8,11

16. A machine stores floating point numbers in 7-bit word. The first bit is stored for sign of
the number, the next three for the biased exponent and the next three for the magnitude
of the mantissa. In order to represent 35.35 in the above representation, the error would
be :
(A) underflow

(B) overflow

(C) NaN

(D) No error will be registered

M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

[Turn over

17. The probability that two friends share the same birth month is :
(A) 1/6

(B) 1/12

(C) 1/144

(D) 1/24

18. Suppose A is a finite set with n elements. The number of elements in the largest
equivalence relation of A is :
(A) 1

(B) n

(C) n + 1

(D) n2

19. The number of distinct relations on a set of 3 elements is :


(A) 8

(B) 9

(C) 18

(D) 512

20. In a population of N families, 50% of the families have three children, 30% of the
families have two children and the remaining families have one child. What is the
probability that a randomly picked child belongs to a family with two children ?
(A) 3/23

(B) 6/23

(C) 3/10

(D) 3/5

21. Two 16:1 and one 2:1 multiplexers can be connected to form a :
(A) 8:1 multiplexer

(B) 16:1 multiplexer

(C) 32:1 multiplexer

(D) 64:1 multiplexer

22. If P1 is NP complete and there is polynomial time reduction of P1 to P2, then P2 is :


(A) NP complete

(B) Not necessarily NP complete

(C) Can not be NP complete

(D) None of these

23. A PDM behaves like a TM when the number of auxiliary memory it has, is :
(A) 0

(B) 1 or more

(C) 2 or more

(D) None of the above

24. A grammar that is both left and right recursive for a non-terminal, is :
(A) Ambiguous
(B) Unambiguous
(C) Information is not sufficient to decide whether it is ambiguous or not
(D) None of the above
25. Which one of the following regular expressions is NOT equivalent to the regular
expression (a + b + c)* ?
(A) (a* + b* + c*)*

(B) (a* b* c*)*

(C) ((ab)* + c*)*

(D) (a*b* + c*)*

M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

26. A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum
number of hosts that can belong to this subnet ?
(A) 14

(B) 30

(C) 62

(D) 126

27. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for :


(A) Finding the IP address from the DNS
(B) Finding the IP address of the default gateway
(C) Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address
(D) Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address
28. One of the header fields in an IP datagram is the time to live(TTL) field. Which of the
following best explains the need for the field ?
(A) It can be used to prioritize the packets
(B) It can be used to reduce delays
(C) It can be used to optimize throughput
(D) It can be used to prevent packet looping
29. Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming
signal is 46.4 ms. The minimum frame size is :
(A) 94

(B) 416

(C) 464

(D) 512

30. In a network of LANs connected by bridges, packets are sent from one LAN to another
through intermediate bridges. Since more than one path may exist between two LANs,
packets may have to be routed through multiple bridges. Why is the spanning tree algorithm used for bridge-routing ?
(A) For shortest path routing between LANs

(B) For avoiding loops in the routing paths

(C) For fault tolerance

(D) For minimizing collisions

31. Which one of the following statements is FALSE ?


(A) Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF
(B) A relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF
(C) A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in a 3NF relation
(D) A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in a BCNF relation
32. Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a shared
lock on R, it will :
(A) result in a deadlock situation

(B) immediately be granted

(C) immediately be rejected

(D) be granted as soon as it is released

M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

[Turn over

33. The fourth normal form (4NF) is concerned with dependencies between the elements of
compound keys composed of :
(A) one attribute

(B) two attributes

(C) three or more attributes

(D) any number of attributes

34. If a table has Functional dependency from A to B and A is not the candidate key, then
which of the following is true ?
(A) Table is not in 2NF

(B) Table involves some redundancy

(C) Data is not correct

(D) None of the above

35. Let E1 and E2 be the two entities in an ER diagram with simple single valued attributes.
R1 and R2 are the relationships between E1 and E2, where R1 is one-to-many and R2 is
many-to-many. R1 and R2 do not have any attributes of their own. What is the maximum
number of tables required to represent this situation in the relational model ?
(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

36. Consider the following where clause


WHERE A.no=B.no(+)
The above outer join lists :
(A) All matching & non-matching rows of table B
(B) All matching & non-matching rows of table A
(C) All non-matching rows of table B
(D) All non-matching rows of table A
37. After executing an UPDATE statement, the developer codes a PL/SQL block to perform
an operation based on SQL%ROWCOUNT. What data is returned by the
SQL%ROWCOUNT operation ?
(A) A numeric value representing the number of rows updated
(B) A Boolean value representing the success or failure of the update
(C) A VARCHAR2 value identifying the name of the table updated
(D) A LONG value containing all data from the table
38. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both conflict serializability
and freedom from deadlock ?
(i)

2-phase locking

(ii) Time Stamp ordering


(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(C) both (i) and (ii)

(D) neither (i) nor (ii)

M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

39. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transforms a file key into a record location is :
(A) a B-tree file
(B) an indexed file
(C) a hashed file
(D) A sequential file
40. Which of the following is true concerning open-source DBMS ?
(A) Is not competitive against PC-oriented packages and is fully SQL compliant
(B) Is competitive against PC-oriented packages and is not fully SQL compliant
(C) Is free or nearly free database software whose source code is not publicly available
(D) Is free or nearly free database software whose source code is publicly available
41. Which of the following types of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of total
maintenance effort in typical commercial application ?
(A) Adaptive maintenance
(B) Corrective maintenance
(C) Preventive maintenance
(D) Perfective maintenance
42. What is the output of the following program :
#include<stdio.h>
main( )
{
enum status {low, medium, high};
enum status rain; rain = 1 ;
if(rain = = low)
printf("Rain =%d", rain);
}
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) No output
(D) Error
43. What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures ? Mean Time
Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days, Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours :
(A) 1%
(B) 24%
(C) 99%
(D) 99.009%
44. Which of the following statements are valid in C, if p is a pointer ?
(A) p = &x
(B) &x++
(C) &x=&y
(D) &x-45. An abstract data type is :
(A) Same as abstract class
(B) A data type which can not be instantiated
(C) A data type for which only the operations defined on it can be used but none else
(D) All of the above
M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

[Turn over

46. C++ encourages structuring a software as a collection of components that are :


(A) Highly cohesive and loosely coupled
(B) Not highly cohesive but loosely coupled
(C) Highly cohesive and tightly coupled
(D) Not highly cohesive but tightly coupled
47. Disk scheduling is used to decide :
(A) Which disk should be accessed next
(B) The order in which disk access requests must be serviced
(C) The physical location where files should be accessed in the disk
(D) None of these
48. A system has 6 tape drives, with N processes competing for them. Each process may
need 3 tape drives. The maximum value of N for which the system is guaranteed to be
deadlock free is :
(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) None of the above

49. The size of the decoder to select all memory devices of capacity 256 4 each to make a
memory of 4K 8-bit memory is :
(A) 3:8

(B) 4:16

(C) 5:32

(D) None of the above

50. Which of the following keyword is used to achieve run time polymorphism ?
(A) const

(B) explicit

(C) mutable

(D) virtual

51. Which one of these will be handled at the HIGHEST priority ?


(A) Interrupt from Hard Disk

(B) Interrupt from Mouse

(C) Interrupt from Keyboard

(D) Interrupt from CPU temperature sensor

52. Which languages need heap allocation in the run-time environment ?


(A) Those that support recursion

(B) Those that use dynamic scoping

(C) Those that allow dynamic data structures

(D) Those that use global variables

53. HTML has language elements which permit certain actions other than describing the
structure of the web document. Which one of the following actions is NOT supported by
pure HTML (without any server or client side scripting) pages ?
(A) Embedding web objects from different sites into the same page
(B) Refresh the page automatically after a specified interval
(C) Automatically redirect to another page upon download
(D) Display the client time as part of the page
M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

10

54. How much time would it take to transmit a 1024*1024 image with 256 gray levels using a
56K baud modem ? Transmission is accomplished in packets consisting of a start bit, a
byte (8 bits) of information, and a stop bit :
(A) 157.25 sec

(B) 167.25 sec

(C) 177.25 sec

(D) 187.25 sec

55. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps. What
is throughput of a system (all stations together) produces 250 frames per second ?
(A) 80%

(B) 70.4%

(C) 15.2%

(D) 8.4%

56. Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process ?
(A) Stack

(B) Address Space

(C) File Descriptor Table

(D) Message Queue

57. A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the following
does the organization need to practice beside Process Change Management and
Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5 ?
(A) Defect Detection

(B) Defect Prevention

(C) Defect Isolation

(D) Defect Propagation

58. Suppose that two parties A and B wish to setup a common secret key (D-H key) between
themselves using the Diffle-Hellman key exchange technique. They agree on 7 as the
modulus and 3 as the primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and party B chooses 5 as their
respective secrets. Their D-H key is :
(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

59. Consider the following message M = 1010001101. The cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
for this message using the divisor polynomial x5 + x4 +x2 + 1 is :
(A) 01110

(B) 01011

(C) 10101

(D) 10110

60. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a bridge ?


(A) Bridge is a layer 2 device
(B) Bridge reduces collision domain
(C) Bridge is used to connect two or more LAN segments
(D) Bridge reduces broadcast domain

M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

11

[Turn over

61. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this
host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video
transmission ?
(A) It uses error control mechanisms
(B) It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions
(C) It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses
(D) It uses multiple port numbers
62. Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD ?
(A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol
(B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
(C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network
(D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network
63. A system uses FIFO policy for page replacement. It has 4 page frames with no pages
loaded to begin with. The system first accesses 100 distinct pages in some order and
then accesses the same 100 pages but now in the reverse order. How many page faults
will occur ?
(A) 196
(B) 192
(C) 197
(D) 195
64. Which of the following is the programmable internal timer ?
(A) 8250
(B) 8251
(C) 8253
(D) 8275
65. The clock interrupt handle on computer requires 2 msec per clock tick. The clock runs at
60hz. What percent of CPU time is devoted to the clock ?
(A) 1.2
(B) 7.5
(C) 12
(D) 18.5
66. Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to instructions :
(A) CALL and RET
(B) PUSH and POP
(C) STA and LDA
(D) MOV and JMP
67. When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instructions
stored in/on the :
(A) stack pointer
(B) accumulator
(C) program counter
(D) stack
68. The main memory of a computer has 2m blocks while the cache has 2c blocks. If the
cache uses set associative mapping scheme with two blocks per set, then block k of the
main memory maps to the set :
(A) (k mod m) of cache
(B) (k mode c) of cache
(C) (k mod 2c) of cache
(D) (k mod 2m) of cache
M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

12

69. Registers which are partially visible to users and used to hold conditional codes are
known as :
(A) PC

(B) Memory address registers

(C) General purpose registers

(D) Flags

70. The access time of a cache memory is 100 ns and that of main memory is 1000 ns. It is
estimated that 80% of memory requests are for read and remaining 20% are for write.
The hit ratio for read access only is 0.9 and write through procedure is used. What is
average access time of the system considering only memory read cycles ?
(A) 200 ns

(B) 300 ns

(C) 720 ns

(D) 800 ns

71. Pixel phasing is a technique for :


(A) Shading

(B) Hidden line removal

(C) Circle drawing

(D) Anti-aliasing

72. Which of the following graphical transformations are non-commutative ?


(A) Linear followed by scaling

(B) Linear followed by rotation

(C) Scaling followed by rotation

(D) None of the above

73. What will be the output of following program ?


#include <stdio.h>
void main( )
{ unsigned int a = 8; ~a; printf("%u", a);
}
(A) 8

(B) 0

(C) 8

(D) None of the above

74. Consider a machine with 64 MB physical memory and a 32-bit virtual address space. If
the page size is 4KB, what is the approximate size of the page table ?
(A) 16 MB

(B) 8 MB

(C) 2 MB

(D) 24 MB

75. Increasing the RAM of a computer typically improves performance because :


(A) Virtual memory increases

(B) Larger RAMs are faster

(C) Fewer page faults occur

(D) Fewer segmentation fault occur

M.E.(Comp. Sc. and Engg./Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

13

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.E.(Com. Sc. and Engg/Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

14

ROUGH WORK

M.E.(Com. Sc. and Engg/Inf. Tech.)FRH-41350-A

15

301

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Paper : I
Subject : M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)
Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)/A


1.

The open loop DC gain of unity negative feedback system with closed-loop transfer
function

2.

3.

4.

s+4
is :
s + 7 s + 13
2

(A) 4/13

(B) 4/9

(C) 4

(D) 13

For a second order system, if both the roots of the characteristic equation are real and
equal then the value of damping ratio will be :
(A) < 1

(B) Zero

(C) 1

(D) 1

An electromechanical closed-loop control system has the following characteristics equation S3 + 6KS2 + (K + 2) S + 8 = 0 where K is the forward gain of the system. The
condition for closed-loop stability is :
(A) K = 0.528

(B) K = 2

(C) K = 0

(D) K = 2.528

If the open-loop transfer function is a ratio of a numerator polynomial of a degree 'm' and
a denominator polynomial of a degree 'n', then the integer (n m) represents the
number of :
(A) break away points

(B) unstable poles

(C) separate root loci

(D) asymptotes

10

5.

The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is

(s + 3)3 . The gain

margin of the system will be :

6.

7.

(A) 20 dB

(B) 40 dB

(C) 60 dB

(D) 80 dB

A system has ten poles and two zeros. The slope of its highest frequency asymptote in its
magnitude plot is :
(A) 40 dB/decade

(B) 160 dB/decade

(C) 200 dB/decade

(D) 240 dB/decade

1 2
0
X=
x + u ; Y = [b 0] x, where be is unknown constant the system is :

1
0 1
(A) observable for all values of b

(B) unobservable for all values of b

(C) observable for all nonzero values of b

(D) unobservable for all non-zero values of b

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

[Turn over

8.

9.

A function f(t) = sin 1.1 t + sin 3.3 t has the time period :
(A) /1.1

(B) 2/1.1

(C) 2/3.3

(D) 3/2.2

The Nyquist plot of a loop transfer function G(jw) H(jw) of a system encloses the (1, 0)
point. The gain margin of the system is :
(A) Less than zero

(B) Zero

(C) Greater than zero

(D) Infinity

10. Which one of the following is a non-valid BCD CODE ?


(A) 0111 1001

(B) 0101 1011

(C) 0100 1000

(D) 0100 1001

11. Skip distance is independent of :


(A) frequency

(B) state of ionization

(C) transmitting power

(D) types of wave propagation

12. With usual notations a 2-port network satisfies the condition


A= D=

3
4
B= C
2
3

The Z11 of the network is :


(A) 5/3

(B) 4/3

(C) 2/3

(D) 1/3

13. The unit of poynting vector is :


(A) power

(B) energy density

(C) energy

(D) power density

14. Tangential component of the electric field on a perfect conductor will be :


(A) Same as normal field component and 180o out of phase
(B) Zero
(C) Same as normal field component and 90o out of phase
(D) Infinite
15. For an AM wave having a power of 800 W at its carrier frequency and modulation index
of 90%, the power content of each side band is :
(A) 81 W

(B) 162 W

(C) 200 W

(D) 400 W

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

16. A PWM signal can be generated by :


(A) an astable multivibrator

(B) an monostable multivibrator

(C) integrating a PPM signal

(D) differentiating a PPM signal

17. The transfer function

V2 (s)
10 s
is for an active :
= 2
V1(s) s + 10 s + 100

(A) low pass filter

(B) band pass filter

(C) high pass filter

(D) all pass filter

18. The sensitivity of a photo diode depends upon :


(A) light intensity and depletion region width
(B) depletion region width and excess carrier life time
(C) excess carrier life time and forward bias current
(D) forward bias current and light intensity
19. If a mod-6 counter is constructed using 3 flip-flops, the counter will skip :
(A) 4 counts

(B) 3 counts

(C) 2 counts

(D) Zero counts

20. The open-loop gain of an operational amplifier is 105, a signal of 1 mV is applied to the
inverting input with non-inverting input connected to the ground. The supply voltages are
10 V. The output of the amplifier will be :
(A) +100 V

(B) 100 V

(C) +10 V

(D) 10 V

21. Given (125)8 = (203)R, the value of the radix R will be :


(A) 16

(B) 10

(C) 8

(D) 6

22. Consider the following set of instructions :


STC
CMC
MOV

A, B

RAL
MOV

B, A

This set of instructions :


(A) doubles the number in Register by B

(B) multiplies B by A

(C) divides the number in Register by 2

(D) adds A and B

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

[Turn over

23. In a digital voltmeter, the oscillator frequency is 400 kHZ, the ramp voltage falls from
8 V to 0 V in 20 msec. The number of pulses counted by the counter is :
(A) 8000

(B) 4000

(C) 3200

(D) 1600

24. Which of the following transducers can be used for magnetic flux density measurement ?
(A) LVDT

(B) Synchro

(C) Hall effect transducer

(D) Thermocouple

25. The position telemetering system using synchros is :


(A) a pulse telemetering system

(B) an RF telemetering system

(C) a DC telemetering system

(D) an AC telemetering system

26. The input impedance of a CRO is nearly :


(A) Zero

(B) 10 ohm

(C) 100 ohm

(D) 1 M ohm

27. Which of the following is basically a current sensitive instrument ?


(A) PMMC instrument

(B) CRO

(C) Electrostatic instrument

(D) FET input electronic voltmeter

28. The most commonly used null detector in power frequency ac bridge is a :
(A) vibration galvanometer

(B) d'Arsonval galvanometer

(C) ballistic galvanometer

(D) tachometer

29. Which of the following instrument has the lowest resistance ?


(A) ammeter

(B) voltmeter

(C) frequency meter

(D) megger

30. The shunt resistance in an ammeter is usually :


Y

(A) Zero

(B) One

(C) X

(D) X

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

31. Which of the following does not require auxiliary circuitry if used as transducer ?
(A) capacitance

(B) photocell

(C) resistance

(D) inductance

32. The zero error of an instrument is :


(A) gross error

(B) systematic error

(C) random error

(D) indefinite error

33. The reliability of a measuring instrument means :


(A) the life of instrument
(B) degree to which repeatability continues to remain within the specified limits
(C) the extent over which the characteristics remain linear
(D) all of these
34. A digital voltmeter has a read out range from 0 to 9999. When full scale reading is
9.999 V the resolution of the full scale reading is :
(A) 0.001

(B) 1000

(C) 3 digit

(D) 1 mV

35. Which of the following connections of the three phase transformer causes interference
to the nearby communication system ?
(A) Delta-star

(B) Star-delta

(C) Star-star

(D) Delta-delta

36. Scott-connections are used for :


(A) Single phase to three phase transformation
(B) Three phase to single phase transformation
(C) Three phase to two phase transformation
(D) Single phase to any no phase transformation
37. Distribution transformers have core losses :
(A) > copper loss

(B) < copper loss

(C) = copper loss

(D) = (copper losses)/2

38. For a slip ring induction motor, if the resistance is increased, then :
(A) Starting torque and efficiency increases
(B) Starting torque and efficiency decreases
(C) Starting torque decreases but efficiency increases
(D) Starting torque increases but efficiency decreases

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

[Turn over

39. An amplifier with no feedback has a gain bandwidth product of 5 MHz. Its closed loop
gain is 50. The new bandwidth will be :
(A) 250 kHz

(B) 100 kHz

(C) 10 kHz

(D) 20 kHz

40. Skin effect exists in :


(A) cable carrying dc current

(B) dc transmission line only

(C) ac transmission line only

(D) dc as well as ac transmission lines

41. Single core cable are usually not provided with :


(A) rubber insulation

(B) paper insulation

(C) steel armoring

(D) lead sheath

42. In an RC phase shift oscillator, the minimum number of R-C networks to be connected in
cascade will be :
(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 4

43. Bundled conductors are mainly used :


(A) to increase the shunt capacitance

(B) to decrease the shunt capacitance

(C) to increase the series reactance

(D) to decrease the series reactance

44. Capacitor with initial charge Qo at t = 0+ acts as :


(A) open circuit

(B) short circuit

(C) voltage source

(D) current source

45. A voltage wave containing 20% harmonics is applied to an inductor. The percentage of
third harmonics in the current wave will be :
(A) much less than 20%

(B) much more than 20%

(C) 20%

(D) 10%

46. The voltages measured across R, L and C in a series RLC circuit connected with a
sinusoidal source are 3 V, 14 V and 10 V respectively. The input voltage is :
(A) 27 V

(B) 5 V

(C) 24 V

(D) 10 V

47. Bandwidth of an RF tuned amplifier is dependent on :


(A) Q-factor of the tuned input circuit
(B) Quiescent operating point
(C) Q-factor of the tuned output circuit
(D) Quiescent operating point and Q factor of input circuit
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

48. Leading power factor implies that :


(A) current leads the voltage

(B) current lags behind the voltage

(C) voltage leads the current

(D) current and voltage aline

49. Latching current of an SCR is ________ of the rated current.


(A) Below 10%

(B) 1020%

(C) 2025%

(D) 2530%

50. Breakdown in a silicon UJT was observed to occur at a voltage of 6 V for a VBB = 10 V.
Its (stand off ratio) is :
(A) 1.66

(B) 0.6

(C) 0.54

(D) 0.4

51. In FM, if depth of modulation is doubled, power transmitted :


(A) becomes double

(B) remain unaltered

(C) becomes 1.5 times

(D) becomes 2 times

52. Base modulation is used in TV transmission because :


(A) power required is small

(B) large power output and better efficiency

(C) high degree of linearity

(D) less degree of linearity

53. Relaxation oscillator is one which :


(A) produces sinusoidal output

(B) produce non sinusoidal output

T /2

1
(C) relaxes indefinitely
(D) oscillates continuously
f (t ) dt

T T / 2
54. A differential amplifier essentially consist of :
(A) two input and two output terminals
(B) only resistors and transistors
(C) two transistors
(D) two CE amplifiers having their emitters directly coupled to each other
55. In Fourier expression, the Coefficient a0 is found by :
1
(B) 2T

(A)
T /2

1
(C) T f (t ) cos t dt
T / 2

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

2
(D) T

T /2

f (t ) dt

T / 2

f (t ) dt
0

[Turn over

56. The figure below shows the circuit of which one of the following ?
+ VDD
vO1

V in

vO2

(A) Bi-stable multi-vibrator

(B) Schmitt trigger

(C) Mono-stable multi-vibrator

(D) Astable multi-vibrator

57. In the circuit given below, both transistors have same voltage VT. What is the
approximate value of the highest possible output voltage Vout, if Vin can range from 0 to
VDD ? Assume 0 < VT < VDD .
V DD

V out
V in

(A) VDD VT

(B) VDD

(C) VT

(D) Zero

58. The maximum power in the shown load is :


10

j 20

50 0o V

ZL

(A) 25 W

(B) 30.6 W

(C) 62.5 W

(D) 110 W

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

10

59. Which one of the following sets of equations is independent in Maxwell's equations ?
(A) Two curl equations
(B) Two divergence equations
(C) Both curl and divergence equations
(D) Two curl equations combined with continuity equation
60. The signal flow graph for a system is shown below. The number of forward paths is :
a42
a23

a12
x2

x1

a44

a32

a34

a45
x4

x3

x5

a35
a52

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
61. The equivalent inductance of system shown below is :
L1

L2
M

1'

(A) L1 + L2
(B) L1 + L2 + 2M
(C) L1 + L2 2M
(D) L1 L2 2M
62. The current flowing through the load resistor RL in the circuit is :

+
6V

RL =

(A) 0.2 A
(C) 0.5 A

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

(B) 0.25 A
(D) 1.0 A

11

[Turn over

63. The Fourier series is expressed by :


(A) f (t ) = a0 +

(B) f (t ) = a0 +

(C) f (t ) =

(an cos t + bn sin t )

n =1

(an cos n t + bn sin n t )

n =1

(an cos n t + bn + sin n t )

n =1

(D) f (t ) = a0 +

(cos n t + sin n t )

n =1

64. Which of the following is not the tree of the given graph ?
5
2

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

12

65. The value of i9 in the circuit is :


i9

i8 = 6 A

i6

i5

i4

i7 = 3 A

i3= 4 A
i1 = 2 A

i2

(A) 2A

(B) 2A

(C) 5A

(D) 5A

66. The waveform shown below is given to dc meter. The reading of the meter will be :
I
10 mA

(A) 5 mA

(B) 10 mA

(C) 7.1 mA

(D) 6.3 mA

67. The circuit shown in the figure is :

R1

Load

R2

rV
(A) a voltage source with voltage R || R
1
2

(B) a voltage source with voltage

r || R2
V
R1

r || R2 V
R2
V
(C) a current source with current R + R r (D) a current source with current R + R r
1
2
1
2
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

13

[Turn over

68. If RST is written in a program the problem will jump to location :


(A) 0020 H

(B) 0024 H

(C) 0028 H

(D) 002C H

69. In the switching circuit shown in the figure below, RC time constant is much switching
longer as compared to the time period of its input pulse signal.
Vin
C
R

Vin

Vin
O

Vout

Vout of the circuit is in the form :


+V

O
O

(A)

(B)

(C) +V

(D)

+V
O

70. Differential mode voltage gain of the amplifier for the figure is :
R

R
vo

v1

o1

o2

v2

R
vu

hfe RL
(A)
hic

RL
(B) 2R
E

RL
(C) R
E

(D)

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

14

h fc R L
RE

71. AC-to-DC circulating current dual converters are operated with which of the following
relationship between their triggering angles ?
(A) 1 2 = 180

(B) 1 + 2 = 360

(C) 1 + 2 = 180

(D) 1 + 2 = 90

72. The fully controlled SCR converter in the figure is fed from a single-phase source. When
the firing angle is zero, the DC output voltage of the converter is 300 V. What will be the
output voltage for a firing angle of 60o, assuming continuous conduction ?
+
V dc

(A) 150 V

(B) 210

(C) 300

(D) 100

2
73. The differential equation d x + 10 dx + 25x = 0 will have a solution of the form :
dt
dt 2

s + bs + ba
Log
ab
s + as +

(A) (C1 + C2 t) e5t

(B) C1e2t

(C) C1e5t + C2 e5t

(D) C1e5t + C2e2t

74. The Laplace transform of

e at e bt
is :
t

sb
(A) s + b

(B)

(C)

(D)

75. A plane electromagnetic wave travelling along = z direction, has its electric field given by
t) and Ey = 2 cos(
t + 90). The wave is :
Ex = 2 cos (
(A) Linearly polarized

(B) Right circularly polarized

(C) Left circularly polarized

(D) Elliptically polarized

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

15

ROUGH WORK

M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)-A/FRH-41343

16

100

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M. Sc. (Hons. School)- Microbiology


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology/A

1.

2.

3.

The main feature of prokaryotic organism is :


(A) Absence of locomotion

(B) Absence of nuclear envelope

(C) Absence of nuclear material

(D) Absence of protein synthesis

Meosomes are also known as :


(A) Mitochondria

(B) Endoplasmic reticulum

(C) Plasmids

(D) Chondroids

Which one of the following does not affect immunogenicity of a substance ?


(A) Making a molecule more foreign
(B) Making a molecule larger
(C) Altering dose of the molecule
(D) Increasing chemical complexity by adding amino acids

4.

5.

6.

7.

Electron microscope gives magnification upto :


(A) 100

(B) 2000

(C) 50,000

(D) 2,00,000

Mountax reaction is used for detection of :


(A) Tuberculosis

(B) Diphtheria

(C) Cholera

(D) Gas gangrene

N. gonorrhoeae cannot produce :


(A) Conjunctivitis

(B) Pelvic inflammatory disease

(C) Primary sterility

(D) Non specific urethritis

Which of the following is not applicable to Streptococcus pneumoniae ?


(A) Can grow in presence of bile
(B) They are sensitive to Optochin
(C) Grow best in presence of 5-10% carbon dioxide
(D) Are one of the common causative agents of meningitis

8.

Toxic shock syndrome is usually caused by :


(A) C. diphtheria

(B) Cl. botulinum

(C) Ps. aeruginosa

(D) Staph. aureus

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

[Turn over

9.

Import of Vitamin B12 into gram negative bacterial cells is facilitated by special class of
proteins in the outermembrane known as :

(A) Integrins
(C) Tubulins
10. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(B) Adhesins
(D) Porins

(A) Y. pestis mainly owes its virulence to the capsular antigen


(B) Y. pestis is motile at 18-22OC
(C) Y. pestis can grow on ManConkey's agar
(D) Y. pestis form chains in broth culture
11. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine ?
(A) TAB vaccine

(B) Pertussis vaccine

(C) Meningococcal vaccine

(D) BCG vaccine

12. Which of the following is not true of Bacteroides fragilis ?


(A) Is the most commonly encountered anaerobe in human clinical infections
(B) Produces brick red fluorescence when exposed to ultra violet light
(C) Produce -Lactamase enzyme
(D) Is non haemolytic on sheep blood agar
13. All of the following toxins and enzymes are produced by Streptococcus pyogenes except:
(A) StreptolysinO

(B) Erythrogenic toxin

(C) Enterotoxin

(D) Deoxyribonuclease-B

14. The first physician to make practical application of the germ theory of disease to surgery
was :
(A) Louis Pasteur

(B) Robert Koch

(C) Joseph Lister

(D) Edward Jenner

15. All of the following statements are true about pneumococci except :
(A) Pneumococci cause lobar pneumonia

(B) They produce haemolysis on blood agar

(C) They are bile soluble

(D) They are motile

16. Which part of the adult female genital tract is usually not involved in gonorrhea ?
(A) Cervix uteri

(B) Fallopian tubes

(C) Endometrium

(D) Vaginal mucosa

17. Which of the following statement is true with regard to the nature of viriods and prions ?
(A) Viriods are DNA and prions are RNA

(B) Viriods are proteins and prions are RNA

(C) Viriods are RNA and prions are proteins

(D) Both are made up of proteins

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

18. Reverse isolation would be appropriate for :


(A) A patient with tuberculosis

(B) A patient who has had minor surgery

(C) A patient with glaucoma

(D) A patient with leukemia

19. On soyabean which of the following forms symbiotism ?


(A) Azatobactor paspali

(B) Rhizobium

(C) Nostoc

(D) Bradyrhizobium

20. Salt and sugar preserve food because they:


(A) Make them acid

(B) Produce a hypotonic environment

(C) Deplete nutrients

(D) Produce a hypertonic environment

21. Which is the incorrect statement about bacterial capsule ?


(A) Capsular material is antigenic in nature
(B) It protects bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis
(C) It can not be stained by Gram's stain
(D) It is acid fast in nature
22. All of the following statements are true about exotoxins except :
(A) Exotoxins are protein in nature
(B) Are heat labile
(C) Produced only by Gram positive bacteria
(D) Are highly antigenic and can be used to produce antibodies
23. Which of the following organisms does not cause food poisoning ?
(A) Clostridium welchii

(B) Shigella dysenteriae

(C) Staphylococcus aureus

(D) Clostridium botulinum

24. Both factors X any Y are necessary for the growth of :


(A) Haemophilus influenzae

(B) Haemophilus para-influenzae

(C) Bordetella pertussis

(D) Haemophilus ducreyi

25. Hepatic amoebiasis is caused by :


(A) Trophozoites of E. histolytica

(B) Cysts of E. histolytica

(C) Toxins of the parasites

(D) Trophozoites of Giardia

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

[Turn over

26. Which of the following enzymes acts as a spreading factor ?


(A) Hyaluronidase

(B) Coagulase

(C) Catalase

(D) DNase

27. Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicating DNA ?
(A) Ethidium bromide

(B) Nitrosogeranidine

(C) Acridine orange

(D) Both (A) and (B)

28. Which of the following is an example of RNA virus ?


(A) SV 40

(B) T4 Phage

(C) Tobacco mosaic virus

(D) Adeno virus

29. Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as :


(A) They can be multiplied by culturing
(B) They can be multiplied in the laboratory using enzymes
(C) They cannot replicate freely
(D) They are self replicating within the bacterial cell
30. In delayed type hypersensitivity, 80% of the cells are :
(A) CD4 positive

(B) CD8 positive

(C) Neutrophils

(D) Eosinophils

31. DNA-replication is by the mechanism of :


(A) Conservative

(B) Semiconservative

(C) Dispersive

(D) None of the above

32. The most important function of a gene is to synthesize :


(A) Enzymes

(B) Hormones

(C) RNA

(D) DNA

33. Vinegar fermentation involves :


(A) Yeasts only

(B) Yeasts with lactic bacteria

(C) Yeasts with acetic acid bacteria

(D) Yeasts with butyric acid bacteria

34. First genetically engineered and biotechnologically produced vaccine was against :
(A) AIDS

(B) Small pox

(C) Herpes simplex

(D) Hepatitis B

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

35. Tobacco and tea leaves are fermented to give flavour and taste. This type of
fermentation is known as :
(A) Alcohol fermentation

(B) Curing

(C) Degradation

(D) Lactic acid fermentation

36. Mycoplasma are not inhibited by penicillin because they :


(A) Produce penicillinase

(B) Are Gram positive

(C) Are Gram negative

(D) Do not have a cell wall

37. Streptokinase is also termed as :


(A) Fibrionolysin

(B) Catalase

(C) Coagulase

(D) Hyaluronidase

38. In fermentor, the top portion left without broth is called :


(A) Shaft

(B) Headspace

(C) Impeller

(D) Sparger

39. Aspergillus niger is used generally for the production of :


(A) Ethanol

(B) Penicillin

(C) Citric acid

(D) Lactic acid

40. The required temperature for the production of citric acid is :


(A) 10oC80oC

(B) 30oC50oC

(C) 20oC50oC

(D) 25oC30oC

41. The strain of fungi used for the larger scale production of penicillin is :
(A) Penicillium chrysogenum

(B) P. notatum

(C) Streptomyces aurecus

(D) Saccharomyces sps

42. Which one of these is a -lactam antibiotic ?


(A) Amoxycillin

(B) Ciprofloxacin

(C) Nalidixic acid

(D) Gatifloxacin

43. The descendants of a pure culture are known as :


(A) Genus

(B) Species

(C) Strain

(D) Family

44. Which of the following bacteria are unlikely to be examined in food sample ?
(A) Salmonella

(B) Clostridium

(C) Fecal streptococci

(D) Nitrobacter sp.

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

[Turn over

45. Which of the following is not a constituent of lactophenol cotton blue ?


(A) Phenol

(B) Glycerine

(C) Acetic acid

(D) Aniline blue

46. RNA polymerase binds to a region of DNA having length of :


(A) 30-40bp

(B) 40-60bp

(C) 35-55bp

(D) 40-45bp

47. Bacteria are more sensitive to the action of antibiotics at which phase of the growth
curve ?
(A) Decline phase

(B) Stationary phase

(C) Log phase

(D) Lag phase

48. Which of these grow on MRS medium ?


(A) E.coli

(B) Lactobacilli

(C) Bacilli

(D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

49. The third generation biofuels can be derived from :


(A) Microalgae

(B) Corn

(C) Lignocellulosic materials

(D) Molasses

50. Isolation of which of the following bacteria from the blood of a patient with signs of sepsis
is highly suggestive of an underlying malignancy ?
(A) Bacteroides fragilis

(B) Fusobacterium necrophorum

(C) Clostridium septicum

(D) Clostridium perfringens

51. All of the following are RNA viruses with helical symmetry except :
(A) Reoviridae

(B) Bunyaviridae

(C) Orthomyxoviridae

(D) Paramyxoviridae

52. Salmonella which can cause prolong septicaemia :


(A) Salmonella anetum

(B) Salmonella cholerasuis

(C) Salmonella typhimurium

(D) Salmonella enteritidis

53. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting :


(A) Cell wall synthesis

(B) RNA synthesis

(C) Folate synthesis

(D) DNA gyrase

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

54. Vaccines prepared from toxins and chemicals are :


(A) Cellular vaccines

(B) Subcellular vaccines

(C) Live attenuated

(D) Heterologous vaccines

55. The first dimension of separation for two-dimensional electrophoresis is based on :


(A) molecular mass

(B) isoelectric point

(C) folding

(D) charge

56. All of the following are used to characterize prokaryotic organisms for the First Edition
of Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology except :
(A) Gram-staining properties

(B) Presence of endospores

(C) Oxygen relationship

(D) Phylogenetic information

57. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon entry with :
(A) Methylase

(B) Endonuclease

(C) Ligases

(D) Exonucleases

58. How many disulfide bonds are there in a typical immunoglobulin molecule ?
(A) 25

(B) 69

(C) 1020

(D) 28

59. The lowest temperature that kills all microorganisms in a liquid suspension in 10 minutes
is known as the :
(A) decimal reduction time

(B) thermal death point

(C) thermal death temperature

(D) thermal death time

60. Toll like receptors play an important role in immune defense by recognizing :
(A) Microbial components
(B) Conformational changes in antigenic proteins
(C) MHC peptide complexes
(D) Anti-idiotypic immunoglobulins
61. Differential Interference Contrast microscopy :
(A) compares two identical specimens on the same microscope
(B) illuminates the specimen with light of two different colors
(C) illuminates the specimen with light of two different phases
(D) illuminates the specimen with both reflected and transmitted light
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

[Turn over

62. Which of the following is not true about bacterial flagella ?


(A) Most of their length consists of a hollow, rigid protein tube
(B) They are constructed largely of a single protein called flagellin
(C) They spin like wheels, either clockwise or counterclockwise
(D) They use cytoplasmic ATP as their primary energy source
63. Which one is a non standard amino acid ?
(A) Carnitine

(B) Leucine

(C) Histidine

(D) Tyrosine

64. Bacteria do not always swim aimlessly but are attracted by nutrients such as sugar and
amino acids, and are repelled by harmful substances and bacterial waste products.
Movement toward chemical attractants and away from repellents is called :
(A) Swimming motility

(B) Gliding motility

(C) Tumbling

(D) Chemotaxis

65. Rhesus incompatibility may develop from the marriage of :


(A) Rh+ve male and Rhve female

(B) Rh+ve male and Rh+ve female

(C) Rhve male and Rhve female

(D) Rhve male and Rh+ve female

66. Which of the following molecules form the part of specific immune response ?
(A) Complement components

(B) Interferons

(C) Acute phase reactants

(D) Cytokines

67. Phages have been successfully used for all except :


(A) To study host-parasite relations

(B) To study virus multiplication

(C) For treating fungal infections

(D) For epidemiological tracings

68. Cell mediated immune response can be transferred passively by transferring :


(A) Serum

(B) Neutrophils

(C) Products of activated lymphocytes

(D) Macrophages

69. A mutation :
(A) Is a stably inherited change in the genotype
(B) Is a stably inherited change in the phenotype
(C) Always involves a change in the amino acid sequence of the affected gene product
(D) Is a stably inherited change in the genotype and phenotype
M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

10

70. Which of the following parasites does not have the cystic stage ?
(A) Trichomonas vaginalis

(B) Entamoeba histolytica

(C) Balantidium coli

(D) Giardia lamblia

71. Which of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of electron donors in their
environments ?
(A) Chemotroph

(B) Lithotroph

(C) Autotroph

(D) Heterotroph

72. Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may do any of the following but NOT :
(A) Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis

(B) Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis

(C) Inhibit host cell protein synthesis

(D) Degrade host cell DNA

73. What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays ?


(A) Mouse

(B) Cat

(C) Dog

(D) Chicken

74. Which of the following has been linked to Kaposi's sarcoma ?


(A) Epstein-Barr virus

(B) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus

(C) Human immunodeficiency virus

(D) Human herpes virus

75. The ability of Vibrio fischeri to produce bioluminescence chemicals only when a certain
population density has been reached is an example of :
(A) Liebig's Law of the minimum

(B) Shelford's law of tolerance

(C) The second law of thermodynamics

(D) Quorum sensing

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

11

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M. Sc. (Hons. School)-Microbiology-A/FRH-41375

12

136

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.P.Ed. (Master of Physical Education)


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

What does the Olympic Flame symbolize ?


(A) A zeal to play sports

(B) Challenge

(C) Continuity

(D) Integrity

If a match live commentary in Delhi commences at 10.00 am, at what time the viewer at
London should tune into it ?
(A) 4.00 a.m.

(B) 4.30 a.m.

(C) 4.45 a.m.

(D) 4.50 a.m.

Who was the first male sprinter to win Olympic gold in 200 m and 400 m races at the
same time ?
(A) Michael Johnson

(B) Carl Lewis

(C) Colin Jackson

(D) Jesse Owens

The term caddy is associated with :


(A) Golf

(B) Billiards

(C) Bridge

(D) Snooker

Physical activity is basically a :


(A) Social attribute

(B) Psychological tendency

(C) Biological necessity

(D) Philosophical concept

Supination and Pronation are the movements of :


(A) Tibia-Febula Joint

(B) Carpal-Metacarpal Joints

(C) Radio-Ulnar joint

(D) Tarcal-Metatarcal joint

Which word from the following list is a component of health-related fitness ?


(A) Power

(B) Endurance

(C) Exercise

(D) Co-ordination

Which of the following demonstrates the importance of AGILITY ?


(A) Ability to get a quick start and leave the opposition behind
(B) Ability to dodge opponents and get free
(C) Ability to increase the range of movements possible at a joint and hold a better technical
shape
(D) Ability to move two or more body parts together to produce a technically correct shot.

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

[Turn over

9.

Which Principle of Training is being applied when a coach devises two different training
programmes for two different athletes, even though they are training for the same
event ?
(A) Specificity

(B) Progression

(C) Reversibility

(D) Individual Needs

10. ATLAS OF MAN which describes the body types was written by :
(A) Heath

(B) Carter

(C) Kretchmer

(D) Sheldon

11. Dynamometer is used to measure :


(A) Flexibility

(B) Agility

(C) Strength

(D) Speed

12. Recreation Movement in India was started by :


(A) De Mellow

(B) G. D. Sondhi

(C) H. C. Buck

(D) Vaidya P. R.

13. Teaching is also a learning activity for teachers as :


(A) It develops an in depth understanding of a discipline
(B) Teachers need to do action research
(C) Teachers learn a lot from their students
(D) Teaching is a process, not a product
14. Profuse sweating during strenuous physical activity causes the loss of :
(A) Sodium chloride

(B) Potassium

(C) Calcium

(D) Glycogen

15. Which country is said to be the pioneer in starting the Recreation movement in the
world ?
(A) USA

(B) England

(C) China

(D) Germany

16. The best indicator for measuring the intensity of your workout is :
(A) The total time of the conditioning bout

(B) Rapid breathing

(C) The amount of perspiration

(D) Your heart rate

17. Which countrys Olympic athletes sport the letters RSA on their vests ?
(A) Russia

(B) South Africa

(C) South Korea

(D) South America

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

18. Muscles which cause the joints to bend are called :


(A) Flexors

(B) Extensors

(C) Abductors

(D) Adductors

19. Which of the following is a set of five events included in Modern Pentathlon ?
(A) Cycling, Skating, Shooting, Gymnastics, Running
(B) Judo, Shooting, Swimming, Cycling, Running
(C) Horse riding, Fencing, Shooting, Gymnastics, Running
(D) Horse riding, Fencing, Shooting, Swimming, Running
20. The rate of progress in learning slows down and reaches a limit beyond which further
improvement seems impossible. It is known as :
(A) Plateau

(B) Loss of interest

(C) Boredom

(D) Difficult stage

21. Exercise for the body and music for the soul : in which country this common adage was
used ?
(A) Italy

(B) France

(C) Greece

(D) Germany

22. The initial steep rise in the learning graph is an indication of quick progress and is
technically known as :
(A) End spurt

(B) Initial spurt

(C) Saturation point

(D) Initial start

23. Which among the following sports is NOT a part of the London Olympics ?
(A) Taekwondo

(B) Baseball

(C) Table Tennis

(D) Triathlon

24. What is the normal range for BMI in humans ?


(A) 19-25

(B) 18-24

(C) 18.5-24.9

(D) 18.2-24.2

25. Complete the series-Race : Fatigue ::Fast : ?


(A) Food

(B) Hunger

(C) Appetite

(D) Weakness

26. Find the odd one out :


(A) P.T. Usha

(B) Milkha Singh

(C) G.S. Randhawa

(D) Kamaljit Sandhu

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

[Turn over

27. What is the motto of London Olympics 2012 ?


(A) Inspire a Generation

(B) One world one dream

(C) Gateway to the Future

(D) With Glowing Hearts

28. In races that do not start in lanes, competitors may be divided into two groups and placed
on separate arced starting lines according to the following :
(A) 65% of runners placed on outer lanes arced line
(B) 35% of runners placed on inner lane arced line
(C) 65% of runners placed on inner lane arced line
(D) None of the above
29. The inner lining of heart is called :
(A) Myocardium

(B) Pericardium

(C) Endocardium

(D) Epicardium

30. Which city will host the 2014 Winter Olympic Games ?
(A) Sochi

(B) La Rinconada

(C) Rio de Janeiro

(D) Vancouver

31. The gladiatorial combats were a very popular past time for all sorts of people in
ancient :
(A) Greece

(B) Rome

(C) China

(D) Germany

32. Who is the first Indian woman to reach the semi finals of All England Badminton
Championship ?
(A) Jawala Gutta

(B) Sania Mirza

(C) Aparna Popat

(D) Saina Nehwal

33. Which of the following should be the primary objective of an intramural program ?
(A) Involving the greatest possible number of students in the program
(B) Providing for well-balanced competition in individual and team sports throughout the
program
(C) Stimulating the interest of spectators and gaining Newspaper coverage of intramural events
(D) Providing a wide variety of activities for teams and for individuals
34. Which sport was originally called Mintonette ?
(A) Basketball

(B) Volleyball

(C) Handball

(D) Football

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

35. The rotator cuff is formed by all of the following except :


(A) Subscapularis

(B) Teres minor

(C) Teres major

(D) Supraspinatus

36. Russian athletes took part in Olympic Games for the first time in :
(A) 1908

(B) 1912

(C) 1896

(D) 1904

37. Study of muscular system is called :


(A) Mycology

(B) Musculogy

(C) Myology

(D) Mytology

38. The two principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are :
(A) Actin and Troponin

(B) Actin and Myosin

(C) Troponin and Tropomyosin

(D) Myosin and Tropomyosin

39. The low intake of carbohydrate in the diet :


(A) Does not influence exercise performance in events lasting less than 10 minutes
(B) Affects the resting muscle pH
(C) May impair high intensity exercise performance
(D) Results in greater reliance on muscle glycogen during exercise
40. Training for strength or power has little effect on :
(A) Muscle mass

(B) Muscle strength

(C) Anaerobic capacity

(D) Aerobic capacity

41. Students intrinsic motivation is most likely to be enhanced by physical education


activities that :
(A) Provide opportunities for self determination through choice
(B) Follow a familiar and predictable structure
(C) Encourage comparisons of performance among peers
(D) Consist of easily accomplished tasks that guarantee success
42. A physically educated person is best described as an individual who :
(A) Participates in physical activity on a daily basis
(B) Understands the physiological basis of the effects of physical activity and inactivity on the
body
(C) Knows the rules and regulations of a wide variety of sports
(D) Has the knowledge, skills, fitness, and attitudes necessary to lead a healthy lifestyle

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

[Turn over

43. Which of these combined events is NOT part of track and field ?
(A) Triathlon

(B) Pentathlon

(C) Decathlon

(D) Heptathlon

44. The summer Olympic Games have been held in 3 different cities in the USA : Los
Angeles and Atlanta are two of them. Which is the other ?
(A) Chicago

(B) San Diego

(C) St. Louis

(D) New York

45. The fly zone is what ?


(A) Where runners wait to enter the track
(B) Where discus is thrown
(C) Where vaulters leave the ground
(D) Where runners in a relay can begin to exchange
46. Which officials are the eyes of the referees in athletics ?
(A) Judges at the finish

(B) Umpires

(C) Time keepers

(D) Marshals

47. What does the second letter in the acronym IAAF stand for ?
(A) Amateur

(B) Association

(C) Athletics

(D) Asian

48. The exchanging of gases for the purpose of producing energy is called _________.
(A) Breathing

(B) Respiration

(C) Circulation

(D) Restitution

49. Find out which one is a Nautical sport :


(A) Rowing

(B) Trampoline

(C) Shooting

(D) Golf

50. A _________ section divides an organ into top and bottom.


(A) Sagittal

(B) Oblique

(C) Coronal

(D) Transverse

51. Which bones do not belong to the axial skeleton ?


(A) Skull

(B) Spinal column

(C) Ribs

(D) Hip bone

52. The Brisbane Cricket Ground is also known as :


(A) The Gabba

(B) Lords

(C) Carisbrook

(D) Centurion Park

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

53. The breakline in 400m track shall be :


(A) A straight line

(B) A dotted line

(C) An arched line

(D) Broken line

54. In 1976 Montreal Olympics, who was the first Asian to reach the finals of 800m race in
Athletics ?
(A) Harichand

(B) Shivnath

(C) Shri Ram Singh

(D) Bhadur Prashad

55. In which country is bull-fighting a very prestigious sport ?


(A) Sweden

(B) Somalia

(C) Spain

(D) Singapore

56. Who is considered as the Father of Kinesiology ?


(A) Hippocrates

(B) Galon

(C) Aristotle

(D) Socrates

57. Dr. B. L. Gupta Trophy is associated with :


(A) National championship

(B) Inter-University championship

(C) North Zone Inter-University championship (D) Federation Cup


58. Which vein carries oxygenated blood ?
(A) Superior vena cava

(B) Pulmonary vein

(C) Inferior vena cava

(D) Varicose veins

59. Nurture is also known as :


(A) Training

(B) Heredity

(C) Conditioning

(D) Reasoning

60. The onset of puberty for boys is between _________ years; for girls it is between
_________ years of age.
(A) 9-13; 10-12

(B) 13-16; 11-14

(C) 8-11; 9-13

(D) 11-14; 13-16

61. The length of trachea (wind pipe) in an adult person is about :


(A) 20 cm

(B) 10-14 cm

(C) 10-16 cm

(D) 5-9 cm

62. Who declares the Olympic games close ?


(A) Chairman JOC

(B) President IOC

(C) Secretary IOC

(D) Prime Minister of the country

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

[Turn over

63. What will you do as Principal if a teacher of the school does not come to a function of
school on time ?
(A) You will ask him to meet you after the function is over
(B) You will complain this to the management committee of the school
(C) You will scold him before everyone
(D) You will tell him about his responsibilities
64. How many apparatus are used in women artistic gymnastics ?
(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Five

(D) Four

65. An umpire in Hockey shows green card. He is indicating for :


(A) Warning

(B) Temporary suspension

(C) To start the game

(D) Exclusion from game

66. In Cycle Racing, what is a sag wagon ?


(A) Vehicles picking up riders who have dropped out
(B) Fastest rider in a race
(C) Slowest rider in a race
(D) Vehicle carries cycles
67. The most important skill of teaching is :
(A) Making students understand what the teacher says
(B) Covering the course prescribed in his subject
(C) Keeping students relaxed while teaching
(D) Taking classes regularly
68. There will be better communication in a lecture if a teacher :
(A) Reads from prepared notes
(B) Prepares the notes well in advance and uses them as a guide
(C) Talks extempore
(D) Talks extempore drawing examples from other disciplines
69. The centre controlling point of cell is :
(A) Mitochondria

(B) Nucleus

(C) Golgi apparatus/body

(D) Cytoplasm

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

10

70. When we mark two starting lines in long distance events it is called _________.
(A) Split start

(B) Curve start

(C) Echelon start

(D) Diagonal start

71. The maximum weight of the cross bar shall be _________ in pole vault.
(A) 2 kg

(B) 2.25 kg

(C) 2.50 kg

(D) 2.75 kg

72. Which Official shall check the readiness of baton in relay race ?
(A) Starter

(B) Recaller

(C) Starters Assistant

(D) Line man

73. Complete the series 3, 10, 24, 45 ?


(A) 62

(B) 94

(C) 73

(D) 81

74. Synchronized swimming became an official Olympic event in :


(A) Helsinki (1952)

(B) Montreal (1976)

(C) Moscow (1980)

(D) Los Angeles (1984)

75. Which one of the following is a key process in physical education ?


(A) Effort

(B) Competence

(C) Developing skills and techniques

(D) Performance

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

11

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.P.Ed.(Master of Physical Education)-A/FRH-41376

12

132

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : Masters in Public Health


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

Masters in Public Health/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

When a human donor gives a pint of blood, it usually requires how many weeks for the
body reserve of red corpuscles to be replaced ?
(A) 1 week

(B) 3 weeks

(C) 7 weeks

(D) 21 weeks

Lengthening of long bones in humans occurs in a particular area of the bone. This area is
called the :
(A) Medullary canal

(B) Cancellous bone

(C) Periosteum

(D) Epiphysis

The part of the human brain which is an important relay station for the sensory impulses
and also is the origin of many of the involuntary acts of the eye such as the narrowing of
the pupil in bright light is the :
(A) Hypothalamus

(B) Midbrain

(C) Corpus callosum

(D) Cerebellum

In cell division, the phase following the metaphase is known as :


(A) Prophase

(B) Anaphase

(C) Telophase

(D) Extophase

Sickle cell anemia and Huntingtons chorea are both :


(A) Virus-related diseases

(B) Bacteria-related diseases

(C) Congenital disorders

(D) Deficiency disease

In most species of Paramecium there are how many contractile vacuoles ?


(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

From which grandparent or grandparents did you inherit your mitochondria ?


(A) Mothers parents

(B) Paternal grandfather

(C) Grandmothers

(D) Maternal grandmother

The placenta in humans is derived from the :


(A) Embryo only

(B) Uterus only

(C) Endometrium and embryo

(D) Urethra

Myelin sheaths are found :


(A) Surrounding tendons

(B) Covering the brain

(C) Covering muscles

(D) Around axons of neurons

Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

[Turn over

10. What ions determine the resting potential of a nerve ?


(A) Sodium and calcium

(B) Calcium and copper

(C) Potassium and calcium

(D) Sodium and potassium

11. The valve between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery is the :
(A) Mitral valve

(B) Semilunar valve

(C) Bicuspid valve

(D) Tricuspid valve

12. Digestion of carbohydrates begins where ?


(A) Small intestines

(B) Colon

(C) Mouth

(D) Stomach

13. The complex of sugar polymers and proteins which are patchily distributed on the plasma
membranes of animal cells is called :
(A) Cellulose

(B) Chitin

(C) Glyocalyx

(D) Cytoskeleton

14. The type of gene interaction in which the effects of one gene override or mask the
effects of other entirely different genes is called :
(A) Linkage

(B) Mutation

(C) Pleitropy

(D) Epistasis

15. Which disease is not cause by virus ?


(A) Polio

(B) Common cold

(C) Influenza

(D) Tuberculosis

16. What is the daily energy requirement of a person doing very hard work ?
(A) 400 kJ

(B) 600 kJ

(C) 800 kJ

(D) 16000 kJ

17. National Immunization Schedule of India gives OPV to the children for preventing :
(A) Diarrhoea

(B) Polio

(C) Glaucoma

(D) Elephantasis

18. Which one is dead tissue ?


(A) Sclereids

(B) Collenchyma

(C) Pericycle

(D) Endodermis

19. Mycorrhizas is :
(A) An association between Fungus and Plant root
(B) An association between Algae and Plant root
(C) An association between Bacteria and Plant root
(D) An association between Virus and Plant root
Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

20. Example of Mutualism is :


(A) An association between Fungus and Plant root
(B) An association between Algae and Plant root
(C) An association between Bacteria and Plant root
(D) An association between Virus and Plant root
21. Gastrin produced from :
(A) Stomach Mucosa

(B) Duodenum mucosa

(C) Liver

(D) Pancreas

22. The lungs are covered by a membrane called the _________


(A) Parietal Pleura

(B) Visceral pleura

(C) Parietal pericardium

(D) Peritonium

23. Which of the following means the same as frontal ?


(A) Transverse

(B) Coronal

(C) Sagittal

(D) Occipital

24. Which of the following is caused by smoking ?


(A) Premature baldness in men

(B) Chest hair on women

(C) Cough with phlegm

(D) Autism

25. What are antioxidants ?


(A) Minerals

(B) Phytochemicals

(C) Pollutants

(D) Enzymes

26. What can lead to athletes foot ?


(A) Poor hygiene

(B) Wearing the same pair of shoes every day

(C) Wearing socks made of synthetic fibres

(D) Fungal infection

27. Which of these dark-green leafy vegetables is not a good source of calcium ?
(A) Spinach

(B) Broccoli

(C) Kale

(D) Mustard

28. The mobile parts of the spinal column are :


(A) Coccyx and sacrum

(B) Vertebrae

(C) Thoracic and lumbar

(D) Ligaments

29. Where is your liver ?


(A) On top of the stomach

(B) Below the gallbladder

(C) Near the rectum

(D) Below the large intestines

Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

[Turn over

30. Damage from lack of oxygen to the brain begins in :


(A) Less than 4 minutes

(B) 3 minutes

(C) 12 minutes

(D) More than 5 minutes

31. Which of the following is not the way to make sure you meet the highest standards of
personal hygiene ?
(A) Limit the jewellery that you wear

(B) Long hair must be tied back

(C) Clean your teeth regularly

(D) Wash your hands regularly

32. Attunement is a term referring to :


(A) A tune that mother, father and baby all like
(B) A tune that is meant to soothe the baby
(C) When the signals from mother to baby and baby to mother are properly matched
(D) When a father has fallen in love with his baby
33. Which blood group is universal donor ?
(A) A

(B) B

(C) AB

(D) O

34. Oxfam is :
(A) Drug
(B) Medicine
(C) Organisation provides relief of sufferings as a result of wars or other causes in world
(D) Diseases
35. Berksons bias is a form of :
(A) Information bias

(B) Recall bias

(C) Observer bias

(D) Selection bias

36. Pandemic pertains to any disease, which is prevalent over a :


(A) City

(B) Village

(C) Ecological habitat

(D) Country

37. Line listing is a tool to organize data in :


(A) in meta-analysis

(B) in surveillance/outbreak investigation

(C) in literature

(D) in statistics

38. Elimination of leprosy as a public health problem was defined by the WHO as :
(A) The disease pathogen does not exist in that region
(B) The reduction of prevalence to a level below one per 1,000
(C) The reduction of prevalence to a level below one per 10,000
(D) The reduction of prevalence to a level below one per 1,00,000
Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

39. Which of the following disease is not transmitted by housefly ?


(A) Typhoid

(B) Cholera

(C) Shigella

(D) Malaria

40. Salutogenesis is :
(A) A type of disease

(B) A term used in Mental Health

(C) Related with immunization

(D) A process of improvement in health

41. Who is Father of Medicine ?


(A) Leeuwenhock

(B) Shushruta

(C) Hahnemann

(D) Hippocrates

42. Penicillin is discovered by :


(A) John Snow

(B) Alexander Fleming

(C) Robert Koch

(D) William Far

43. Poverty line is drawn on the basis of :


(A) Members in the family

(B) Income of the family

(C) Per capital (adult) intake of calories

(D) Their health status

44. Placebo is a/an :


(A) Plant

(B) Animal

(C) Inert medication

(D) Disease

45. Type II error or Beta error :


(A) It is the acceptance of null hypothesis as true when it is actually false
(B) It is the acceptance of null hypothesis as true when it is actually true
(C) It is the rejection of null hypothesis as true when it is actually true
(D) It is the rejection of null hypothesis as true when it is actually false
46. Confirmatory test for HIV is :
(A) Northern blot

(B) Eastern blot

(C) Western blot

(D) Southern blot

47. What is the use of Johari Window ?


(A) Studying health effects due to pollutants
(B) Studying the interpersonal relations
(C) Studying epidemiology
(D) Studying common health problems

Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

[Turn over

48. What signifies Chappati Diagram (Venn Diagram) ?


(A) To understand Socio-economic status
(B) To understand the importance of different persons and institutions
(C) To understand Geography of that area
(D) To understand disease prevalence
49. Which one is autosomal recessive disorder ?
(A) Malaria

(B) Sickel cell anaemia

(C) Influenza

(D) Mad-cow disease

50. Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness (IMNCI) strategy is adopted
under :
(A) RCH I

(B) RCH II

(C) NGO

(D) FRU

51. Low birth weight infant is :


(A) Having 3 Kg wt

(B) Having > 2.5 kg

(C) Having < 2.5 kg

(D) Having 4 Kg wt

52. The goal to be achieved by NRHM is :


(A) Infant mortality rate reduced to 10/1000 live births
(B) Infant mortality rate reduced to 20/1000 live births
(C) Infant mortality rate reduced to 30/1000 live births
(D) Infant mortality rate reduced to 40/1000 live births
53. Who among the following has suggested a three-fold division of the agricultural
population into Malik, Kisan and Mazdoor ?
(A) Daniel Thorner

(B) D.N. Dhanagre

(C) K. Gough

(D) A. Amitai Etzioni

54. People in the cybernetic age are categorized into Alpha and Beta. Which one of the
following belongs to Alpha category ?
(A) Illiterate tribal

(B) Cultivator

(C) Village shopkeeper

(D) Trained Scientist and Professional

55. Who introduced the term Stateless society ?


(A) Paul Bohannan

(B) E. Evans-Pritchard

(C) A. Powell

(D) A. Giddens

Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

56. According to Hindu view of life there are four ages :

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

Which one of the following are the correct sequences ?


(A) SatyayugaDwaparaTretaKaliyuga
(B) KaliyugaDwaparaSatyayugaTreta
(C) SatyayugaTreta-DwaparaKaliyuga
(D) TretaDwaparaSatyayugaKaliyuga
Which one of the following is not covered under the Element of Social Structure ?
(A) Deviation
(B) Observance
(C) Sanction
(D) Group action
Which one of the following theories is considered as an Explanation cause of social
protests ?
(A) Absolute deprivation
(B) Political mobilization of the oppressed
(C) Relative deprivation
(D) Absolute poverty
In which one of the following concepts has M.N. Srinivas explained caste mobility as a
process of social and cultural change ?
(A) Sanskritization
(B) Westernization
(C) Secularization
(D) Modernization
Education should train the :
(A) Individual first
(B) Society first
(C) Nation first
(D) Family first
The idea of equality was welcomed by the :
(A) Lower caste in Hindu society
(B) Kshatriya
(C) Brahman
(D) Backwards
Incorporating learned behaviour into own personality and makes them his style of life
is :
(A) Assimilation
(B) Co-operation
(C) Competition
(D) Conflict
Nalgonda Technique is famous :
(A) For Chlorination
(B) To reduce content of Chlorine in water
(C) To reduce content of Fluorine in water
(D) To reduce content of Arsenic in water
Minimata disease is caused due the contamination of :
(A) Arsenic
(B) Floride
(C) Mercury
(D) Lead
ALARA is a principal applied to control :
(A) Some diseases
(B) Some pollutants
(C) Malaria

Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

(D) Swine flu


9

[Turn over

66. How much space is recommended for a person sufficient for keeping him healthy ?
(A) 1-2 cubic feet/person

(B) 10-12 cubic feet/person

(C) 100-120 cubic feet/person

(D) 1000-1200 cubic feet/person

67. Which of the following is not a health effect due to Radiation Pollution ?
(A) Leukemia

(B) Genetic effect

(C) Heat stroke

(D) Carcinogenesis

68. Leachate is a :
(A) Liquid mixed air

(B) Liquid seeped through solid waste

(C) Radioactive substance

(D) Pesticide

69. Kyoto Protocol is :


(A) For limiting use of ozone depleting substances, finding alternatives and helping developing
countries
(B) For member nation pledged to reduce overall green house gas emission
(C) To conserve water
(D) To conserve biodiversity
70. The main function of Hind Kusht Nivaran Sangh is :
(A) Fight against Malaria

(B) Fight against Dengue

(C) Elimination of Leprosy

(D) Elimination of Polio

71. Tabun is a/an :


(A) Man made chemical warfare agent

(B) Medicinal plant

(C) Tourist place

(D) Scientist

72. In Bhopal gas tragedy which poisonous gas was not released ?
(A) MIC

(B) HCN

(C) CO

(D) Chlorine

73. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green Revolution ?
(A) Mechanized agriculture

(B) Hybrid seeds

(C) Slash and burn

(D) Monoculture

74. Which of the following is not as a consequence of global warming ?


(A) Rising sea level
(B) Increased agricultural productivity worldwide
(C) Worsening health effects
(D) Increased storm frequency and intensity
75. Which species of chromium is toxic in water ?
(A) Cr+2

(B) Cr+3

(C) Cr+6

(D) Cr0

Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

10

ROUGH WORK

Masters in Public Health-A/FRH-41349

11

160

OCET-2012

Sr. No. :

Question Booklet Series : A


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal(s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for
each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/


Medical Physics/Physics & Electronics/A
1.

In the Michelson interferometer, the compensating plate is used for


(A) inducing symmetry in the optical elements
(B) compensating the extra path traversed by reflected waves during splitting of beam
(C) getting circular shape of interference fringes
(D) Replacing bright central fringe with dark one

2.

The output of the Nicol prism, when monochromatic natural light is incident on it, is
(A) ordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(B) extraordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal
(C) extraordinary ray with vibrations perpendicular to optic axis of crystal
(D) ordinary ray with vibrations parallel to optic axis of crystal

3.

The role of Helium atoms in the He-Ne laser is to


(A) help in excitation and population inversion of Neon atoms
(B) help in maintaining optical resonance
(C) result in the emission of red colour light
(D) Absorb

4.

The colours observed on the surface spilled on the roads are due to
(A) Thin film interference
(B) Newton ring formation
(C) Dispersion of light by the oil film
(D) Scattering of different colours of white light by thin film

5.

6.

A thick sheet of glass 3.7 m is placed in the path of one of the interfering beams, of the wavelength 550 nm, in the Fresnel biprism arrangement. If the central maximum is shifted to the
position earlier occupied by the 5th bright fringe, the refractive index of the sheet is
(A) 1.65

(B) 1.54

(C) 1.74

(D) 1.43

Calculate the radius of 3rd half period zone of the zone plate of focal length 1.5 m illuminated
by light of wavelength 593 nm
(A) 2.04 mm

(B) 1.98 mm

(C) 1.07 mm

(D) 1.63 mm

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

[Turn over

7.

8.

A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is incident normally on a plane


diffraction grating having 400 lines per centimetre. The angle of diffraction for first order principal
maxima is given by
(A) sin = 0.5

(B) sin = 0.7

(C) sin = 0.2

(D) sin = 0.1

The interference differs from the diffraction in that


(A) It can be observed with white light
(B) Unlike diffraction the interference fringes are of varying intensity
(C) Interference minima are perfectly dark but that of diffraction are not so
(D) The diffraction fringes are of equal width but interference fringes are of unequal width

9.

Which of the following is not an experimental technique to obtain a polarised beam of light ?
(A) Dichorism

(B) Reflection from a clear liquid surface

(C) Interference by division of wavefront

(D) Double refraction

10. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60. If the reflected and refracted light are
perpendicular to each other, the refractive index of the glass is
(A) 1.3

(B) 2.1

(C) 1.9

(D) 1.7

11. In the Youngs double slit experiment performed with white light, the colour of the central fringe
will be
(A) white

(B) black

(C) red

(D) violet

12. The pumping source for ruby laser is


(A) Electrical discharge

(B) Xenon flash lamp

(C) Chemical luminescence

(D) Plasma formation

13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an under-damped oscillating system ?


(A) frequency of oscillations is lower than that for free oscillator
(B) amplitude of oscillations decreases with each oscillation
(C) energy of the oscillating system remains is conserved throughout the process of oscillation
(D) dissipative forces are smaller than the restoring forces
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

14. Calculate the maximum current in the RC harmonic oscillator consisting of inductance of
0.2 mH and capacitance of 5.12 F, when maximum voltage across the capacitor is 0.1 V.
(A) 16 mA

(B) 8 mA

(C) 4 mA

(D) 10 mA

15. The forced series LCR electrical oscillator is not characterised by which of the following
properties ?
(A) at resonance, the inductive and capacitive reactance counterbalance each other
(B) The current is maximum at resonance
(C) The power absorption from source is minimum at resonance
(D) Oscillation frequency solely depends upon the inductance and capacitance at resonance
16. When electromagnetic wave propagates through a dielectric medium, then
(A) Electric and magnetic fields oscillate in phase and with same frequency
(B) Electric and magnetic fields oscillate in phase but not with same frequency
(C) Magnetic field oscillates with a phase lag relative to electric field
(D) Electric field oscillates with a phase lag relative to magnetic field
17. The relative permittivity of the medium is 3.24. The refractive index of this medium will be :
(A) 2.2

(B) 1.8

(C) 1.6

(D) 2.0

18. The Poynting vector associated with an electromagnetic wave gives the information about :
(A) power flux and direction of propagation of EM wave
(B) frequency of EM wave
(C) rate of oscillations of electric and magnetic field intensities
(D) dispersive power of the medium through which EM wave is propagating
19. The electric field intensity (in SI units) inside a charged spherical shell of radius 15 m and surface
charge density 15 C per m2 is
(A) 1

(B) 1/15

(C) 0

(D) 15

20. The electric lines of force at any point on the equipotential surfaces
(A) are parallel to it

(B) are inclined at acute angles

(C) are normal to it

(D) are inclined at obtuse angles

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

[Turn over

21. A current of 10A flows through a conductor of cross-section 1 mm2. If the density of charge
carriers is 1021 cm3, then calculate the drift velocity of electrons
(A) 6.25 cm/s

(B) 6.25 mm/s

(C) 62.5 m/s

(D) 0.625 mm/s

22. The resistivity of conductor increases with temperature because of


(A) Decrease of relaxation time

(B) Increase in relaxation time

(C) Increase in mean free path of electrons (D) Increase in charge carrier density
23. The magnetic field intensity due to a long current carrying solenoid is proportional to
(A) Inversely proportional to current
(B) Directly proportional to number of turns of wire
(C) Independent of permeability of core introduced
(D) Inversely proportional to permeability of core
24. Electrical resistance of conductor owes its origin to
(A) surface barrier potential binding the electrons
(B) thermal vibration of electrons
(C) scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions
(D) scattering of electrons by vibrating lattice ions as well as impurity atoms/ions
25. Which of the following processes makes use of electromagnetic induction ?
(A) Charging a storage battery
(B) Magnetising an iron piece with a bar magnet
(C) Generation of hydroelectricity
(D) Magnetising a soft iron piece by placing inside a current carrying solenoid
26. The atomic unit of electric dipole moment is
(A) 1 Debye = 3.33 1030 cm

(B) 1 Debye = 3.33 1028 cm

(C) 1 Debye = 3 1032 cm

(D) 1 Debye = 3 1029 cm

27. The ratio E(axial)/E(Equatorial) between axial and equatorial electric fields due to a short electric
dipole is
(A) 1.5

(B) 2.0

(C) 1.0

(D) 0.5

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

28. Two streams of electrons moving parallel to each other in the same direction
(A) Attract each other

(B) Repel each other

(C) Cancel the electric field of each other

(D) Cancel the magnetic field of each other

29. Which of the following is based on law of conservation of energy ?


(A) Faradays law

(B) Amperes theorem

(C) Lenzs law

(D) Biot-Savert law

30. The ferromagnetic materials are characterized by


(A) negative value of susceptibility

(B) small but positive value of susceptibility

(C) large positive value of susceptibility

(D) zero value of susceptibility

31. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field, it is acted upon by


(A) a force and a torque

(B) neither a force nor a torque

(C) a torque only

(D) a force only

32. A bar magnet is cut into two equal pieces. The pole strength of either piece will be
(A) halved

(B) unchanged

(C) doubled

(D) reduced to zero

33. Ferrites are the materials, which are not characterized by


(A) negative electrical conductivity
(B) rectangular shaped hysteresis loop
(C) high Joules heating on current flow
(D) two sub-lattices with unequal and opposite magnetic moments
34. To shield an instrument from the external magnetic field, it may be placed in the cabinet made
of
(A) wood

(B) ebonite

(C) metal

(D) diamagnetic substance

35. In a region where electric field is 5 N/C, 40 lines of electric force are crossing per m2. The number of lines crossing per m2, where the electric field intensity is 10 N/C will be
(A) 20

(B) 80

(C) 100

(D) 200

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

[Turn over

36. The length of the metre stick moving parallel to its length, when its mass is 1.5 times its rest
mass, is
(A) 150 cm

(B) 66.7 cm

(C) 75 cm

(D) 125 cm

37. The planets revolving around the sun in the solar system obey the law, relating their time
period of revolution and average radius of orbit, expressed as :
(A) T r3

(B) T2 r3

(C) T2 r5

(D) T r

38. The aircraft at take off stage is an example of


(A) Inertial reference frame

(B) Non-inertial reference frame

(C) Universal reference frame

(D) Fictitious reference frame

39. The radius of carbon atom in the diamond crystal structure having cubic unit cell edge
16 3 nm is
(A) 6 nm

(B) 8 nm

(C) 16 3 nm

(D) 8 3 nm

40. The continuous component X-ray spectrum owes its origin to


(A) Photoelectric effect

(B) Bremmstahlung

(C) Pair production

(D) Compton effect

41. The well defined wave function must not be


(A) single valued
(B) continuous w.r.t. space coordinates
(C) obeying the principle of superposition
(D) always a real function
42. The moving particle confined in an infinite potential well is not characterised by which of the
following ?
(A) quantized negative energy states
(B) ground state not the state of rest
(C) quantized wavefunctions defining different probability distribution for the particle
(D) quantized positive energy states
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

43. Which of the following energy terms does not contribute in the binding energy formula derived
using liquid drop model for nucleus ?
(A) Surface energy

(B) Asymmetry energy

(C) Heisenberg Exchange energy

(D) Coulombs energy

44. For the alpha decay from natural radionuclides, which of the following observations does not
hold true ?
(A) The emission of alpha particle takes place following tunnelling of barrier
(B) The energetic alpha particles are emitted by radionuclide with shorter half life
(C) The energy required by alpha particle to penetrate a radionuclide is much smaller than the kinetic energy of alpha particle emitted by that radionuclide
(D) The alpha decaying radionuclides have mass number greater than 200
45. Which of the following properties is not associated with the neutrino particle ?
(A) nearly zero mass

(B) no charge

(C) integral spin

(D) spin = 1/2

46. A radioactive specimen, consisting of 10000 active atoms, has a half life of 1 hour. How many
radioactive atoms will be left in the specimen after a duration of 3 hours ?
(A) 1250

(B) 5000

(C) 2500

(D) 7500

47. A radionuclide, with mass number A and Atomic number Z, undergoes positron decay. The product
will be characterized by
(A) Mass number = A, Atomic number = Z 1
(B) Mass number = A, Atomic number = Z + 1
(C) Mass number = A + 1, Atomic number = Z 1
(D) Mass number = A 1, Atomic number = Z 1
48. Which of the following does not support the shell structure of the nucleus ?
(A) Extra stability for nuclei with proton or/and neutron number equal to one of the magic numbers
(B) Low natural abundance of nuclei with proton or/and neutron number equal to one of the magic
numbers
(C) Nuclei with proton or/and numbers equal to magic numbers are spherical in shape
(D) Nuclei, with proton or/and neutron numbers equal to one of the magic numbers, have large number
of isotopes
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

[Turn over

49. Quadrupole moment of a doubly magic nucleus is always


(A) positive but small

(B) negative but large

(C) zero

(D) positive and large

50. The radius of 8Be4 nucleus is 2.4 fm. The radius of

27Al

(A) 4.8 fm

(B) 3.6 fm

(C) 3.0 fm

(D) 4.2 fm

13

nucleus will be

51. Which of the following is not a natural radioactive series ?


(A) Uranium Series

(B) Thorium Series

(C) Actinium Series

(D) Lead Series

52. The kinetic energy of each of the electron and positron generated in the pair production of
1.522 MeV will be
(A) 0.756 MeV

(B) 200 keV

(C) 400 keV

(D) 150 keV

53. A photon of 45 picometre wavelength undergoes scattering by loosely bound electron nearly at
rest. The maximum wavelength of the scattered photon will be
(A) 40.2 picometre

(B) 35.2 picometre

(C) 49.8 picometre

(D) 48.2 picometre

54. Which of the following phenomena are not explicable using wave nature of light ?
(A) photoelectric effect

(B) Doppler effect

(C) Compton effect

(D) Gravitational red shift

55. The photoelectric emission of K-shell electron, with binding energy of 3.2 eV, is caused by a
6.5 keV photon. The kinetic energy of emitted electron is
(A) 9.7 keV

(B) 4.85 keV

(C) 3.3 keV

(D) 3.2 keV

56. The atomic packing fraction of face-centred cubic is


(A)

3 2

(C)
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

(B)
3
2

(D)

10

57. Number of atoms per unit cell in case of body-centred cubic is


(A) 2

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 4

58. For the van der Waals force, the dependence of the interaction energy on distance r is proportional to
(A) ~ r6

(B) ~ r7

(C) ~ r3

(D) ~ r2

59. A 214Pb (Z = 82) nucleus decays via two decays and one alpha decay, the resulting nucleus is
(A)

210Pb

(B)

210Bi

(C)

210Au

(D)

210Pt

60. Miller indices of the plane parallel to the x-axis and y-axis are
(A) (0, 0, 1)

(B) (1, 0, 0)

(C) (0, 1, 0)

(D) (1, 1, 0)

61. In case of a system of identical, indistinguishable particles obeying Pauli exclusion principle,
the number of particles in each state at the temperature T is proportional to (k is Boltzmann
constant and f is the Fermi energy)
1
exp[( f ) /(A)
kT ] + 1
1
(C) 1 exp[( ) / kT ]
f

1
(B) exp[( ) / kT ] 1
f

(D)

1
exp[ / kT] + 1

62. The range of strong interactions is


(A) ~ 1015 m

(B) ~ 1012 m

(C) ~ 1010 m

(D) ~ 1013 m

63. In an p-type Silicon, which of the following statements is true ?


(A) Electrons are majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants
(B) Electrons are majority carriers and pentavalent Atoms are dopants
(C) Electrons are minority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
(D) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/
Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

11

[Turn over

64. In full wave rectifier with input frequency of 50 Hz, the frequency of the output is
(A) 50 Hz

(B) 100 Hz

(C) 150 Hz

(D) 200 Hz

65. For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain


(A) remains constant for all frequencies
(B) is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the middle frequencies
(C) is low at high and low frequencies, and constant middle frequencies
(D) is continuously decreasing with frequency
66. In case of the transistor connected in the common emitter configuration, the input resistance is
defined as ratio of
(A) change in VCE and to change in VBE, with IB kept constant
(B) change in VCE and to change in IC, with IB kept constant
(C) change in VBE and to change in VCE, IB with kept constant
(D) change in IB and to change in VBE, with VCE kept constant
67. Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in series. The first amplifier has a voltage gain
of A1 and the second has a voltage gain of A2. The overall gain of the combination will be
(A) A1A2

(B) A1 + A2

(C) A1 A2

(D) A1/A2

68. The least preferred principal crystal structures for the metallic crystals is
(A) Simple cubic

(B) Body centred cubic

(C) Face centred cubic

(D) Hexagonal

69. The base of an npn transistor is


(A) heavily doped

(B) lightly doped

(C) metallic

(D) Doped by pentavalent material

70. A reverse voltage of 10 V is applied across a Si diode. The magnitude of voltage across the depletion
layer will be
(A) 0 V

(B) ~ 0.7 V

(C) ~ 10 V

(D) ~ 1.1 V

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

12

71. The thermally generated electrons and holes acquire sufficient energy from the applied
potential to produce new carriers by removing valence electrons from their bonds. These new
carriers in turn produce additional carriers again through the process of disrupting bonds. The
cumulative process is referred to as
(A) Avalanche breakdown

(B) Zener breakdown

(C) Avalanche multiplication

(D) Zener multiplication

72. The basic Collpitts oscillators uses


(A) two inductor and one capacitors

(B) one inductor and two capacitors

(C) two capacitors

(D) Tickler coil

73. The light emitted diodes consist of


(A) GaAs

(B) GalnP

(C) GaAllnP

(D) InAs

74. VLSI circuits are integrated circuits having


(A) more than 10 gates

(B) more than 1000 gates

(C) more than 100 gates

(D) no gate

75. The Michelson-Morley experiment was performed with object to study


(A) Presence of hypothetical medium ether
(B) To study the variation of speed of light in different medium
(C) To study variation of speed of light along different directions in space
(D) It was a sophisticated optical experiment to study the orbital velocity of earth

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

13

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

14

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

15

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Physics/Medical Physics/


Physics & Electronics/FRH-41359/A

16

276

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M. Tech. (Instrumentation)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel Pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)/A
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Electrolyte solution in a standard saturated Weston cell is :


(A) Cadmium sulphate

(B) Potassium sulphate

(C) Magnesium sulphate

(D) Zinc sulphate

The best material use for standard resistor is :


(A) Manganin

(B) Aluminium

(C) Nicrome

(D) Platinum

Which of the following material is best suited for resistance of high value ?
(A) Manganin

(B) Nickel-chromium

(C) Constantan

(D) Gold chromium

Commonly used standard capacitor is :


(A) Concentric sphere type

(B) Parallel plate type

(C) Concentric cylinder type with guard rings

(D) Multiple parallel plate type

The fact as to how closely the instrument reading follows the measured variables is
called the :
(A) Accuracy

(B) Precision

(C) Fidelity

(D) Sensitivity

The reliability of an instrument refers to :


(A) Measurement of changes due to temperature variation
(B) Degree to which repeatability continues to remain within specified limits
(C) The life of the instrument
(D) The extent to which the characteristics remain linear

7.

8.

9.

The efficiency of an instrument is defined as the ratio of the measured quantity at full
scale to the power taken by the instrument at :
(A) One-fourth scale

(B) Half scale

(C) Three-fourth scale

(D) Full scale

The degree of reproducibility among several independent measurements of the same


true value under reference conditions is known as :
(A) Accuracy
(B) Precision
(C) Linearity
(D) Calibration
The errors committed by a person in the measurements are :
(A) Gross errors
(B) Random errors
(C) Instrumental errors
(D) Environmental errors

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

[Turn over

10. Which of the following is absolute instrument ?


(A) Power factor meter

(B) Ammeter

(C) Wattmeter

(D) Tangent galvanometer

11. Which of the following type of the instrument is an integrating instrument ?


(A) Power factor meter

(B) Energy meter

(C) Watt meter

(D) Frequency meter

12. When a PMMC instrument is connected to ac ?


(A) The instrument will get damaged

(B) The pointer will not move at all

(C) The pointer will oscillate to and fro

(D) The instrument will indicate zero

13. In PMMC instrument scale is :


(A) Non-linear

(B) Logarithmic

(C) Exponential

(D) Uniformaly divided

14. Moving iron and PMMC instruments can be distinguished from each other by looking at
the :
(A) Pointer

(B) Terminal size

(C) Scale

(D) Scale range

15. Clamp on ammeter is used for measurement of :


(A) Large a. c.

(B) Small a. c.

(C) Small d. c.

(D) Large d. c.

16. To which of the following you will prefer to extend the range of an a. c. voltmeter ?
(A) Low series resistance

(B) High resistance in parallel

(C) CT

(D) PT

17. High a. c. voltages are usually measured with :


(A) Magnetic voltmeter

(B) Inductive voltmeter

(C) PT with voltmeter

(D) CT with voltmeter

18. Integrating meters are used for measurement of :


(A) Voltage

(B) Current

(C) Phase

(D) Energy

19. Electrolytic meter is basically a/an :


(A) dc ampere-hour meter

(B) dc watt-hour meter

(C) ac energy meter

(D) ac ampere-hour meter

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

20. Kelvin double bridge is best suited for measurement of :


(A) Inductance

(B) Capacitance

(C) Low resistance

(D) High resistance

21. Shunts are employed in series ohmmeters for :


(A) Increasing accuracy

(B) Measuring currents

(C) Spreading out the range

(D) Protection of meter from burning

22. Loss of charge method is used for the measurement of :


(A) Low R

(B) Hi R

(C) Low L

(D) Hi L

23. Which of the following is used to measure the resistance of an electrical installation ?
(A) Multimeter

(B) Ammeter and Voltmeter

(C) Maxwell bridge

(D) Megger

24. Potentiometer is basically a _________________ instrument.


(A) Digital

(B) Deflection type

(C) Null type

(D) Recording

25. For measurement of emf of a standard cell we use :


(A) Galvanometer

(B) Potentiometer

(C) Zener reference

(D) Electrodynamic voltmeter

26. Stator of the phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an a. c. potentiometer
usually has a ___________ winding.
(A) 1-

(B) 2-

(C) 3-

(D) 6-

27. The Schering bridge is used for measuring :


(A) Dielectric loss and pf

(B) Capacitance and frequency

(C) Inductance and capacitance

(D) Resistance and inductance

28. In wein bridge the output frequency is determined by :


(A) RC combination

(B) RL combination

(C) RLC combination

(D) LC combination

29. Inductance of an inductor is measured in terms of capacitance and resistance by :


(A) Maxwells bridge

(B) Andersons bridge

(C) Hays bridge

(D) Weins bridge

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

[Turn over

30. Which of the following bridge is frequency sensitive ?


(A) Wheatstone bridge

(B) Maxwell bridge

(C) Anderson bridge

(D) Wein bridge

31. The __________ earthing device is used to remove all the earth capacitance from the
bridge circuit.
(A) Phase

(B) Schering

(C) Wagner

(D) Maxwell

32. Open circuit fault in a cable can be located by :


(A) Blavier's test

(B) Capacity test

(C) Varley loop test

(D) Murray loop test

33. The impurity in liquid having significant effect in reducing the breakdown strength is :
(A) Dust

(B) Moisture

(C) Ionic impurity

(D) Dissolved gases

34. The main difference between electronic and electrical instrument is that an electronic
instrument has :
(A) An indicating device

(B) An electron device

(C) A transducer

(D) A digital readout

35. The current sensitivity of an instrument is expressed in :


(A) Ampere

(B) Ohm/A

(C) A/division

(D) Ohm/V

36. VTVM can measure :


(A) Current and voltage

(B) Voltage and resistance

(C) Current and power

(D) Current and resistance

37. FETs are used in amplifiers to get :


(A) Hi input impedance

(B) Lo input impedance

(C) Hi output impedance

(D) Lo output impedance

38. FET input stage is used in an amplifier to increase :


(A) Output impedance

(B) Input impedance

(C) Frequency BW

(D) Power handling capacity

39. Q-meter operates on the principle of :


(A) Series resonance

(B) Current resonance

(C) Self inductance

(D) Eddy current

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

40. In measurement made using a q-meter, hi-impedance elements, should preferably be


connected in :
(A) Star

(B) Delta

(C) Series

(D) Parallel

41. Input impedance of a CRO is nearly ____________ ohm.


(A) 0

(B) 10 k

(C) 100

(D) 1M

42. Phosphor coating for CRT is provided on :


(A) Inside surface only

(B) Outside surface only

(C) Both the surfaces

(D) Within the glass

43. Purpose of the synchronizing control in a CRO is :


(A) Focus the spot on the screen

(B) Lock the display of the signal

(C) Adjust the amplitude of the display

(D) Control the intensity of the spot

44. How many time base circuits does a dual trace CRO has ?
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

45. Which one of the following oscillator is used for generation of hi-frequencies ?
(A) RC phase shift

(B) Wein bridge

(C) LC oscillator

(D) Blocking oscillator

46. Monolithic technique is ideally suited for fabricating :


(A) Linear IC

(B) Digital IC

(C) Thin film

(D) Thick film

47. An ideal Op-amp does not have :


(A) Zero input impedance

(B) Zero output impedance

(C) Infinite voltage gain

(D) Infinite Frequency BW

48. An Op-amp may be classified as ________ amplifier.


(A) An RC coupled

(B) Linear

(C) Positive feedback

(D) Low BW

49. An Op-amp cannot be used as :


(A) An adder

(B) An integrator

(C) A multiplier

(D) An exponential

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

[Turn over

50. Binary representation of (85)10 is :


(A) 1010101

(B) 1100101

(C) 1011001

(D) 1001001

51. CMOS uses only :


(A) Bipolar transistors

(B) JFET

(C) MOSFET

(D) MOSFETs and resistors

52. A _________ crystal is used for accurate and stable time base circuit in a digital frequency
meter.
(A) Quartz

(B) Rochelle salt

(C) Aluminium

(D) Carbon

53. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?


(A) AC

(B) DC

(C) AC voltage

(D) DC voltage

54. Maximum rectification efficiency for a half-wave rectifier is :


(A) 100%

(B) 88%

(C) 50%

(D) 40.6%

55. Crystal structure of silicon is :


(A) Simple cubic

(B) Body central cubic

(C) Phase centered cubic

(D) Diamond

56. Forbidden energy gap is highest for :


(A) Germanium

(B) Silicon

(C) Gallium arsenide

(D) Carbon

57. The equivalent circuit of an ideal diode is :


(A) Charging condenser

(B) A discharging condenser

(C) A switch

(D) A resistor

58. Darlington circuit is obtained by connecting :


(A) Two CB stages in cascade

(B) Two CE stages in cascade

(C) A CE stage followed by CB stage

(D) Two emitter followers in cascade

59. Maximum efficiency of class-B amplifier is :


(A) 78.5%

(B) 66%

(C) 50%

(D) 40%

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

60. A transistor amplifier with 80% efficiency could be :


(A) Class A

(B) Class B

(C) Class AB

(D) Class C

61. The system steady state error can be minimized by :


(A) Decreasing damping frequency

(B) Decreasing natural frequency

(C) Increasing damped frequency

(D) Increasing system gain constant

62. Which of the following is not in frequency domain ?


(A) Nyquist criterion

(B) Bode plot

(C) Root locus plot

(D) Nichol chart

63. Race condition always arises in :


(A) Synchronous circuit

(B) Asynchronous circuit

(C) Combination circuit

(D) Digital Circuit

64. The 2732 is 40968 EPROM. How many address lines does it have ?
(A) 12

(B) 24

(C) 50

(D) 32

65. Scratch pad memory is :


(A) FIFO memory

(B) LIFO memory

(C) Local permanent memory

(D) Local temporary memory

66. Which of the following bus is used to transfer data from main memory to peripheral
device ?
(A) DMA bus

(B) Output bus

(C) Input bus

(D) Data bus

67. When TRAP interrupt is triggered program control is transferred to location :


(A) 0020h

(B) 0024h

(C) 0028h

(D) 002Ch

68. The mnemonics used in writing a program is called :


(A) Assembly language

(B) Fetch cycle

(C) Micro instruction

(D) Object program

69. A program that translates symbolically represented instructions into their binary
equivalents is called :
(A) Loader

(B) Assembler

(C) Link

(D) Auto loader

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

[Turn over

70. American standard code for information interchange (ASCII) employs a coded character
set consisting of :
(A) 7 bit

(B) 7 bit with parity check

(C) 8 bit

(D) 8 bit with parity check

71. For TV broadcast, picture signal is modulated in :


(A) SSB

(B) VSB

(C) FM

(D) AM

72. Power rating of radio transmitter is :


(A) 100 mW

(B) 10W

(C) 10KW

(D) 10mW

73. Which of the following modulating system is digital ?


(A) PPM

(B) PWM

(C) PCM

(D) PEM

74. An antenna is synonymous to a :


(A) Generator

(B) Transformer

(C) Regulator

(D) Reflector

75. Which of the following antenna gives circular polarization ?


(A) Yagi-uda

(B) Parabolic

(C) Dipole

(D) Helical

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

10

ROUGH WORK

M.Tech. (Instrumentation)-A/FRH-41346

11

160

OCET-2012
Booklet Series Code : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Tech. (Microelectronics)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel Pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)/A
1.

In a MOSFET, inversion layer quantization results in :


(A) Rise in gate capacitance
(B) Fall in gate capacitance
(C) Rise in drain current
(D) No effect on gate capacitance and drain current

2.

Hole gate oxide tunneling is lesser than electron gate oxide tunneling in a thin silicon
oxide MOSFET because :
(A) Holes are heavier and the barrier heights offered to them are larger than electrons
(B) Holes are lighter and the barrier heights offered to them are larger than electrons
(C) Holes are heavier and the barrier heights offered to them are lower than electrons
(D) Holes are lighter and the barrier heights offered to them are lower than electrons

3.

4.

5.

6.

Trench capacitors and stack capacitors are present in :


(A) SRAM

(B) DRAM

(C) MRAM

(D) NMOS

Silicon nitride capping when deposited over the gate of a MOSFET results in :
(A) Biaxial Strain

(B) Uniaxial Strain

(C) Both uniaxial and biaxial strain

(D) None of the above

Uniaxial or biaxial strain in an n-MOSFET result in :


(A) Decrease of the electron mobility

(B) Increase of the electron mobility

(C) No effect on mobility

(D) Decrease in drain current

In a long channel MOSFET, capacitance in inversion region is :


(A) Close to gate oxide capacitance
(B) Negligible as compared to that in accumulation region
(C) Lesser than depletion capacitance
(D) Lesser than deep depletion capacitance

7.

8.

A MOS charge coupled device operates in :


(A) Depletion region

(B) Deep depletion region

(C) Inversion region

(D) Accumulation region

Body effect in an NMOS results in :


(A) Decrease in threshold voltage

(B) Increase in threshold voltage

(C) Increase in drain current

(D) Increase of depletion capacitance

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

[Turn over

9.

Data is lost in a DRAM because of its :


(A) Leakage through the substrate

(B) Loss during read operation

(C) Loss through other DRAM cells

(D) All of the above

10. Which of the following is a surface potential model ?


(A) SPICE Level 1

(B) HiSIM model

(C) SPICE Level 2

(D) BSIM 2 model

11. Process transconductance parameter is :


(A) Mobility and gate oxide capacitance product
(B) Drain current and mobility product
(C) Surface potential and transconductance product
(D) Mobility and transconductance product
12. The aspect ratio of a MOS device is :
(A) Length to Width ratio

(B) Drain current to gate voltage ratio

(C) Width to length ratio

(D) Transconductance to gate voltage ratio

13. Flash and torch are types of :


(A) Oxidation

(B) Metallization

(C) BJT Models

(D) Etching

14. Threshold voltage of a MOSFET is dependent on :


(A) Drain induced barrier lowering

(B) Substrate doping

(C) Polydepletion

(D) All of the above

15. Ion implantation and diffusion are types of :


(A) Etching

(B) Metallization Process

(C) Crystal Growth

(D) None of the above

16. High k dielectrics are used in ICs to :


(A) Increase the gate oxide leakage

(B) Decrease the gate oxide leakage

(C) Increase the drain to source leakage

(D) Decrease the drain to source leakage

17. Mobility of holes in a p-MOSFET is increased by :


(A) Biaxial strain

(B) Increasing the drain to source voltage

(C) Decreasing the drain to source voltage

(D) Increasing the substrate doping

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

18. Moderate inversion region in a MOSFET is :


(A) After strong inversion region
(B) Before weak inversion region
(C) Where charge transport is both drift and diffusion
(D) Where charge transport is only drift
19. Maximum ON current in a MOSFET is when :
(A) Drain to source voltage is greater than drain saturation voltage
(B) Drain to source voltage is lower than drain saturation voltage
(C) Gate to source voltage is lower than threshold voltage
(D) Same at every drain to source voltage
20. Velocity overshoot effect occurs in a MOSFET when :
(A) Carrier velocity exceeds the saturation velocity
(B) Carrier velocity is lesser than the saturation velocity
(C) The MOSFET channel length is long
(D) None of the above
21. BSIM 3, BSIM 4 and BSIM 5 are :
(A) Theoretical MOSFET Models

(B) Analytical Instruments

(C) Layout rules

(D) Memory design techniques

22. NMOS, MNOS and SONOS :


(A) Transistors used in CMOS inverters
(B) All are non volatile memories
(C) NMOS is a transistor and others are non volatile memories
(D) Types of bipolar transistors
23. Large temperature increase on a lightly doped n-type semiconductor results in :
(A) Rise in resistivity

(B) Fall in resistivity

(C) No change in resistivity

(D) First rise and then fall in resistivity

24. High k and Low k dielectrics are used as :


(A) Gate oxide dielectrics
(B) Passivation dielectrics
(C) High k for gate oxide and low k as interlayer dielectric in multilevel interconnects
(D) Low k for gate oxide and high k for passivation
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

[Turn over

25. Silicon Oxidation rate :


(A) Rises after some time of oxidation

(B) Falls after some time of oxidation

(C) Remains constant with time

(D) Is not a function of temperature

26. In an n-type depletion MOSFET :


(A) The threshold voltage is negative
(B) Extra layer of p type material is implanted over the substrate
(C) The threshold voltage is undefined
(D) None
27. Which of the following is a wet etchant ?
(A) KOH

(B) HF

(C) HCL

(D) All of the above

28. A developer solution :


(A) Develops the wafer after lithography
(B) Develops the wafer after oxidation
(C) Is not used in IC manufacturing
(D) Develops the wafer immediately before lithography
29. Characterization of semiconductor is done using :
(A) Scanning Electron Microscope

(B) Transmission Electron Microscope

(C) Atomic Force Microscope

(D) All of the above

30. Gate over drive voltage is :


(A) Gate voltage

(B) Gate voltage + Threshold Voltage

(C) Gate voltage Threshold Voltage

(D) Threshold Voltage

31. S-EDIT and IC Station are :


(A) MOSFET models

(B) VLSI Design tool modules

(C) Noise parameters

(D) Fabrication steps

32. Resists are :


(A) Positive or Negative

(B) Organic or Inorganic

(C) PMMA and PBS

(D) All of the above

33. Oxides grown by wet oxidation are poorer than oxides grown by dry oxidation mainly
because :
(A) Hydrogen oozes out of the oxide

(B) Oxygen oozes out of the oxide

(C) Poor quality of underlying silicon

(D) None of the above

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

34. Dry etching is better than wet etching because dry etching :
(A) Is isotropic

(B) Is anisotropic

(C) Does not involve plasma

(D) Is done using wet chemicals

35. Ion implantation in ICs :


(A) Requires high energy ions

(B) Requires plasma production

(C) Is anisotropic

(D) All of the above

36. Lateral straggle is due to :


(A) Scattering of ions in implanted wafers

(B) Diffusion process

(C) Slow oxidation

(D) Over metallization

37. DRAM and SRAM compare as :


(A) DRAM is faster than SRAM

(B) DRAM is slower than SRAM

(C) DRAM has lower density than SRAM

(D) DRAM and SRAM have equal speed

38. XRD and XRT are used for :


(A) Elemental analysis
(B) Crystalline nature and surface imaging of the sample
(C) Resistance measurements
(D) Capacitance measurements
39. Open loop voltage gain of a MOSFET is a product of :
(A) Transconductance and Output resistance

(B) Conductance and Output resistance

(C) Gate voltage and drain voltage

(D) Mobility and gate voltage

40. Which one of the following is a type of a MOSFET ?


(A) LDD

(B) DDD

(C) Vertical

(D) All of the above

41. SEM and TEM have :


(A) Same incident electron energy

(B) Same imaging areas

(C) Different incident electron energies

(D) None of the above

42. Power dissipation due to gate oxide tunneling in CMOS inverter is :


(A) Static power dissipation

(B) Dynamic power dissipation

(C) Crowbar power dissipation

(D) None of the above

43. 5T, 6T and 7T are types of :


(A) DRAM

(B) SRAM

(C) FRAM

(D) PRAM

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

[Turn over

44. Bitlines in semiconductor memories are :


(A) RLC transmission lines

(B) Two in an SRAM Cell

(C) Are precharged for a memory operation

(D) All of the above

45. Floating gate transistors are used in :


(A) Phase change memories

(B) Flash memories

(C) DRAM

(D) MRAM

46. CRIER, CRUP and CREME are :


(A) Leakage currents in nanometer MOSFETs (B) Radiation effect models
(C) Analytical Instruments

(D) Types of Electron Mobility

47. The output swing of an enhancement mode MOSFET inverter where supply voltage Vdd
and enhancement load threshold Voltage Vtn is :
(A) Vdd+Vtn

(B) Vdd

(C) Vdd-Vtn

(D) Vdd-2 Vtn

48. Gilbert Cell is a :


(A) Adder

(B) Multiplier

(C) XOR

(D) Subtraction circuit

49. Which of the following is not a negative resistance device ?


(A) Tunnel diode

(B) Gunn diode

(C) Tetrode

(D) None of the above

50. HKMG refers to :


(A) High k metal gate technology

(B) High kinetic energy ions on metal gate

(C) High k metallurgical glass technology

(D) High k mineral and glass technology

51. Flash memories dominantly are of :


(A) OR and AND

(B) NOR and NAND

(C) XOR and NAND

(D) XOR and NOR

52. HBT :
(A) is used to increase current gain

(B) is used to decrease current gain

(C) operates at low frequencies

(D) is a MOSFET

53. PZT and SBT are :


(A) Dielectrics

(B) Semiconductors

(C) Ferroelectrics

(D) Piezoelectric materials

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

54. Concept of a mobile atom is in :


(A) SRAM

(B) PRAM

(C) Ferroelectric memories

(D) MOSFETs

55. Ferroelectric capacitor is a :


(A) Fixed capacitor

(B) Variable capacitor

(C) Volatile capacitor

(D) None of the above

56. MINIMOS is :
(A) Circuit simulator

(B) Device simulator

(C) Process simulator

(D) None of the above

57. Strong Inversion in a MOSFET is :


(A) Reversible condition
(B) Irreversible condition
(C) When gate voltage is lesser than the threshold voltage
(D) Surface potential is equal to Fermi potential
58. Heat sinks are used in :
(A) Aluminum nitride packages

(B) Plastic packages

(C) Aluminum oxide packages

(D) Mullite Packages

59. Phase change memory is based on :


(A) Electronic polarization

(B) SET and RESET operation

(C) Phase and frequency modulation

(D) Latchup action

60. DG, GAA and SOI are types of :


(A) MOSFETs

(B) BJTs

(C) Resistors

(D) Capacitors

61. C4 and TAB are :


(A) Defects in a crystal

(B) Die attachment techniques

(C) Short channel effects

(D) MOSFET models

62. Gummel poon model is for :


(A) MOSFET

(B) BJT

(C) Capacitor

(D) JFET

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

[Turn over

63. BIST is a :
(A) Short channel effect

(B) Electronic Testing Technique

(C) MOSFET Model

(D) An effect in a BJT

64. Hermeticity refers to :


(A) Process in oxidation

(B) Type of packaging

(C) Process in testing

(D) A type of a MOSFET

65. Which of the following is true about a CMOS inverter and MOSFET inverter with
depletion load ?
(A) Each type has three PMOS transistors

(B) Each type has three NMOS transistors

(C) Both have same output voltage swing

(D) Both have different output voltage swing

66. Electro-migration in interconnects is :


(A) Migration of interconnects from source to drain
(B) Breakage of interconnect due to high current density
(C) Breakage of interconnect due to low current density
(D) None of the above
67. A transmission gate :
(A) Passes 1 and 0 logics

(B) Passes 1 only

(C) Passes 0 only

(D) Passes neither 0 nor 1

68. 3 input CMOS NOR gate has :


(A) 3 NMOS and 3 PMOS

(B) 2 NMOS and 3 PMOS

(C) 6 NMOS

(D) 9 PMOS

69. Compaction in physical layout is :


(A) One dimension only

(B) Two dimension only

(C) Both one and two dimensions

(D) None of the above

70. BSDL is :
(A) Testing language

(B) Short channel effect

(C) Latchup condition

(D) Parasitic capacitor

71. Spontaneous Polarization occurs in :


(A) SRAM

(B) DRAM

(C) FRAM

(D) Flash Memories

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

10

72. Poly-depletion causes :


(A) Reduced drain currents

(B) Increased drain currents

(C) Increased strains in the lattice

(D) Reduced strains in the lattice

73. Boron penetration effect is :


(A) Penetration of boron from source to drain in a MOSFET
(B) Penetration of boron from emitter to base in a BJT
(C) Penetration of boron from the polysilicon layer into the gate oxide in a MOSFET
(D) Penetration of boron from source to the substrate in a MOSFET
74. The gate oxide thickness (tox) and the gate length (Lg) are related as :
(A) tox = 0.2 Lg

(B) tox = 2 Lg

(C) tox = 0.002 Lg

(D) tox = 0.02 Lg

75. Which of the following is used in optoelectronic applications ?


(A) GaAs

(B) Porous Silicon

(C) Inp

(D) All of the above

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

11

ROUGH WORK

M.Tech. (Microelectronics)-A/FRH-41344

12

236

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel Pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)/A


1H

2.

3.

4.

5.

The part of machine level Instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be
done, is :
(A) Operation code

(B) Address

(C) Locator

(D) Flip-Flop

Ovule integument gets transformed into :


(A) Seed

(B) Seed coat

(C) Fruit wall

(D) Cotyledons

Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation :


(A) Luteinizing hormone

(B) Follicle-stimulating hormone

(C) Growth hormone

(D) Luteotropic hormone

A computer assisted method for the recording and analyzing of existing or hypothetical
systems is :
(A) Data transmission

(B) Data flow

(C) Data capture

(D) Data processing

For a series LCR circuit at resonance, the statement which is not true is :
(A) Peak energy stored by a capacitor = peak energy stored by an inductor
(B) Average power = apparent power
(C) Wattless current is zero
(D) Power factor is zero

6.

7.

8.

9.

The arranging of data in a logical sequence is called :


(A) Sorting

(B) Classifying

(C) Reproducing

(D) Summarizing

One byte can be used to encode any integer between 'O' and -inclusive :
(A) 16

(B) 256

(C) 128

(D) 255

The movement of solvent molecules through semi-permeable membrane is called :


(A) Electrophoresis

(B) Electrolysis

(C) Osmosis

(D) Cataphoresis

Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit ?


(A) Printer

(B) Keyboard

(C) Mouse

(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

10. A large computer designed to handle complex scientific calculations :


(A) May use only a firmed word-length storage approach
(B) Will likely require a character addressable storage unit
(C) Must use fixed length words of four character each
(D) Will not use numbered address locations
11. The light pen was developed around :
(A) 1942

(B) 1976

(C) 1950

(D) 1992

12. The stoichiometry of inorganic metal complex is generally determined from :


(A) Stern-Volmer plot

(B) Job plot

(C) Benesi-Hilderbrand plot

(D) Arrhenius plot

13. The ability of a computer system to remain operational despite various failures is :
(A) Relation

(B) Schema

(C) Resilience

(D) Versatility

14. The first mechanical calculating machine was made by :


(A) William Oughtred

(B) Gottfried Leibnitz

(C) Blaise Pascal

(D) Charles Babbage

15. Pollen grains of a plant whose 2n =28 are cultured to get callus by tissue culture method.
What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the callus ?
(A) 21

(B) 14

(C) 56

(D) 28

16. Pinus belongs to the class _______.


(A) Gentopsida

(B) Cycadopsida

(C) Coniferopsida

(D) Sphenopsida

17. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by :


(A) Facial nerve

(B) Trigeminal nerve

(C) Hypoglossal nerve

(D) Vagus nerve

18. The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by :


(A) Blood cells

(B) Bone cells

(C) Sex chromosomes

(D) Autosomes

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

[Turn over

19. Which of the following computer language is used for artificial intelligence ?
(A) Fortran

(B) Prolog

(C) C

(D) Cobol

20. Ribose sugar is present in :


(A) RNA only

(B) RNA polymerase and ATP

(C) RNA and ATP

(D) RNA polymerase, RNA and ATP

21. With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true ?
(A) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

(B) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

(C) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme

(D) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme Apoenzyme

22. Who wrote the famous book 'Origin of Species' ?


(A) Lamarck

(B) Darwin

(C) De Vries

(D) Mendel

23. Inulin is a polymer of :


(A) Glucose

(B) Galactose

(C) Fructose

(D) Arabinose

24. A bar magnet is equivalent to _____ .


(A) solenoid carrying current

(B) circular coil carrying current

(C) toroid carrying current

(D) straight conductor carrying current

25. A certain current on passing through a galvanometer produces a deflection of 100 divisions.
When a shunt of one ohm is connected, the deflection reduces to 1 division. The
galvanometer resistance is :
(A) 100

(B) 99

(C) 10

(D) 9.9

26. The atomic numbers of Ni and Cu are 28 and 29 respectively. The electron configuration
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 represents :
(A) Cu+

(B) Cu2+

(C) Ni2+

(D) Ni

27. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph of K.E. of the photoelectron
emitted from the metal versus the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line
graph, whose slope :
(A) is same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the incident radiation
(B) depends on the nature of the metal
(C) depends on the intensity of the incident radiation
(D) depends on the nature of the metal and also on the intensity of incident radiation
M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

28. Blue colour of sea water is due to :


(A) interference of sunlight reflected from the water surface
(B) scattering of sunlight by the water molecules
(C) image of sky in water
(D) refraction of sunlight
29. Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays because :
(A) it contains only a single electron
(B) energy levels in it are far apart
(C) its size is very small
(D) energy levels in it are very close to each other
30. In which of the processes, does the internal energy of the system remain constant ?
(A) Adiabatic

(B) Isochoric

(C) Isobaric

(D) Isothermal

31. Pick out the correct statement from the following :


(A) Pu239 is not suitable for a fission reaction
(B) For stable nucleus, the specific binding energy is low
(C) Energy released per unit mass of the reactant is less in case of fusion reaction
(D) Packing fraction may be positive or may be negative
32. Solar spectrum is an example for :
(A) line emission spectrum

(B) continuous emission spectrum

(C) band absorption spectrum

(D) line absorption spectrum

33. Osmotic pressure observed when benzoic acid is dissolved in benzene is less than that
expected from theoretical considerations. This is because :
(A) benzoic acid is an organic solution
(B) benzoic acid has higher molar mass than benzene
(C) benzoic acid gets associated in benzene
(D) benzoic acid gets dissociated in benzene
34. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons in a photoelectric effect does not depend
upon :
(A) wavelength

(B) frequency

(C) intensity

(D) work function

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

[Turn over

35. Which of the following is a dichroic crystal ?


(A) Quartz

(B) Tourmaline

(C) Mica

(D) Selenite

36. The acceleration due to gravity becomes(g/2), where g = acceleration due to gravity on
the surface of the earth at a height equal to :
(A) R/2

(B) 2R

(C) R/4

(D) 4R

37. A Carnot engine has efficiency 25%. It operates between reservoirs of constant
temperatures with temperature difference of 80C. What is the temperature of the
low-temperature reservoir ?
(A) 25C

(B) 25C

(C) 33C

(D) 33C

38. A particle of charge e and mass m move with a velocity v in a magnetic field B applied
perpendicular to the motion of the particle. The radius r of its path in the field is ______.
(A) (Bv) /(em)

(B) (ev) /(Bm)

(C) (Be) /(mv)

(D) (mv) /(Be)

39. A radioactive substance contains 10,000 nuclei and its half life period is 20 days. The
number of nuclei present at the end of 10 days is :
(A) 7,500

(B) 8,000

(C) 9,000

(D) 7,070

40. One end of a towel dips into a bucket full of water and other end hangs over the bucket.
It is found that after some time the towel becomes fully wet. It happens :
(A) Because viscosity of water is high
(B) Because of the capillary action of cotton threads
(C) Because of gravitational force
(D) Because of evaporation of water
41. For tap water and clean glass, the angle of contact is :
(A) 0

(B) 90

(C) 140

(D) 8

42. When there are no external forces, the shape of a liquid drop is determined by :
(A) Surface tension of the liquid

(B) Density of liquid

(C) Viscosity of liquid

(D) Temperature of air only

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

43. The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube does not depend upon :
(A) Angle of contact

(B) Density of the liquid

(C) Radius of the capillary tube

(D) Atmospheric pressure

44. If y = (x + 3)2, then ( 2x 6)2 must equal which of the following :


(A) 4y2

(B) 2y2

(C) 4y

(D) 4y

45. In the figure below, AD is a diameter of the circle with center O and AO = 5. What is the
length of arc BCD ?

O
36

(A) /2

(B)

(C) 3/2

(D) 3

46. If m and p are positive integers and (m + p) x m is even, which of the following must be
true ?
(A) If m is odd, then p is odd

(B) If m is odd, then p is even

(C) If m is even, then p is even

(D) If m is even, then p is odd

47. The region of an infra-red spectrum where many absorptions take place is known as
the :
(A) thumbprint region

(B) handprint region

(C) footprint region

(D) fingerprint region

48. The pH of 108 M HCl solution is :


(A) 8

(B) more than 8

(C) between 6 and 7

(D) slightly more than 7

49. If n is an odd integer, which of the following must be an odd integer ?


(A) n -1

(B) n + 1

(C) 2n

(D) 4n +1

50. The compound on dehydrogenation gives a ketone. The original compound is :


(A) primary alcohol

(B) secondary alcohol

(C) tertiary alcohol

(D) carboxylic acid

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

[Turn over

51. A 19-liter mixture consists by volume of 1 part juice to 18 parts water. If x liters of juice
and y liters of water are added to this mixture to make a 54-liter mixture consisting by
volume of 1 part juice to 2 parts water, what is the value of x ?
(A) 17

(B) 18

(C) 27

(D) 35

52. In the incomplete table below, the sum of the three integers in each row, column, and
diagonal is the same. If the numerical values in four of the blocks are as shown, what is
the value of w ?

(A) 6

(B) 5

(C) 2

(D) 5

53. The +1 effect is shown by :


(A) NO 2

(B) Cl

(C) Br

(D) CH3

54. Which one is not a constituent of nucleic acid ?


(A) Uracil

(B) Guanidine

(C) Phosphoric acid

(D) Ribose sugar

55. A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32. The molecular mass of the metal nitrate
is :
(A) 192

(B) 188

(C) 182

(D) 168

56. A ligand can also be regarded as :


(A) Lewis acid

(B) Bronsted base

(C) Lewis base

(D) Bronsted acid

57. Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The reaction
is called :
(A) Wurtz's reaction

(B) Williamson's reaction

(C) Wittig's reaction

(D) Etard's reaction

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

58. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic strengths :
CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, NH3
(A) (CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2 NH
(B) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3 N < NH3
(C) NH3 < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
(D) NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
59. Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a :
(A) secondary alcohol

(B) aldehyde

(C) ketone

(D) ester

60. During the formation of a chemical bond :


(A) energy decreases
(B) energy increases
(C) energy of the system does not change
(D) electron-electron repulsion becomes more than the nucleus-electron attraction
61. Formation of coloured solution is possible when metal ion in the compound contains :
(A) paired electrons

(B) unpaired electrons

(C) lone pair of electrons

(D) high nuclear charge

62. In alkaline medium, alanine exists predominantly as/in _______.


(A) zwitterion

(B) anion

(C) covalent form

(D) cation

63. In the brown ring test, the brown colour of the ring is due to :
(A) ferrous nitrate

(B) ferric nitrate

(C) a mixture of NO and NO2

(D) nitrosoferrous sulphate

64. IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCl :


(A) 2-chloro-2 methyl propane

(B) tert-butyl chloride

(C) n-butyl chloride

(D) 3-chloro butane

65. Molarity of a given orthophosphoric acid solution is 3M. Its normality is :


(A) 1 N

(B) 2 N

(C) 0.3 N

(D) 9 N

66. In the following which one is classified as polyester polymer ?


(A) Nylon-66

(B) Terylene

(C) Bakelite

(D) Melamine

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

[Turn over

67. Rate of physical adsorption increases with :


(A) decrease in pressure

(B) increase in temperature

(C) decrease in surface area

(D) decrease in temperature

68. The product formed when hydroxylamine condenses with a carbonyl compound is called :
(A) hydrazone

(B) hydrazine

(C) oxime

(D) hydrazide

69. Given the following reactions involving A, B, C and D :


(i)

C + B+ C+ + B

(ii) A+ + D No reaction
(iii) C+ + A No reaction
(iv) D + B+ D+ + B
The correct arrangement of A, B, C, D in order of their decreasing ability as reducing
agent.
(A) D > B > C > A

(B) A > C > D > B

(C) C > A > B > D

(D) C > A > D > B

70. To check that a secondary alcohol has been completely oxidised to a ketone you can :
(A) check that the IR spectrum has absorptions at 3500 cm1 and 1650 cm1
(B) check that the IR spectrum has no absorption around 3500 cm1
(C) check that the IR spectrum has no absorption around 1650 cm1
(D) check that the IR spectrum has no absorption at 3500 cm1 and 1650 cm1
71. Signals in a proton nmr spectrum do not provide information about :
(A) the relative number of hydrogen atoms in a particular environment
(B) the number of chemically different hydrogen atoms on adjacent atoms
(C) the environment of different hydrogen atoms in a molecule
(D) the molecular mass of an organic molecule
72. The correct order for the basic features of a mass spectrometer is :
(A) acceleration, deflection, detection, ionisation
(B) ionisation, acceleration, deflection, detection
(C) acceleration, ionisation, deflection detection
(D) acceleration, deflection, ionisation, detection
M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

10

73. The fluorescence emission of the following compound is enhanced upon protonation due
to :
N

(A) Cancelation of PET process

(B) Modulation of ICT

(C) FRET

(D) Eximer formation

74. Certain crystals produced electric signals on application of pressure; this phenomena is
called :
(A) Ferroelectricity

(B) Pyroelectricity

(C) Piezoelectricity

(D) Ferrielectricity

75. Hardness of water is due to the presence of the salts of :


(A) Na+ and K+

(B) Ca2+ and Mg2+

(C) Ca2+ and K+

(D) Ca2+ and Na+

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

11

ROUGH WORK

M.Tech. (Nano Science and Nano Tech.)-A/FRH-41342

12

120

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1.
Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/ noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine/A

1.

2.

3.

A rickshaw puller remembers a large number of places and has the ability to find
shortcuts and new routes between familiar places. Which region of brain is responsible
for this ?
(A) Hypothalamus

(B) Pituitary

(C) Thalamus

(D) Hippocampus

How do you calculate maximum predicted heart rate in beats per minute ?
(A) 222 minus Age

(B) 220 minus Age

(C) 320 minus Age

(D) 322 minus Age

A Ramachandran plot shows :


(A) The angles that are allowed between the bonds connecting the amide nitrogen in a peptide
bond
(B) The sterically limited rotational angles (domains) where phi and psi are allowed in the protein
backbone.
(C) The amino acid residues that have the greatest degrees of rotational freedom
(D) The sterically allowed rotational angles between the side chain groups in a peptide and the
peptide backbone.

4.

5.

6.

What is the percentage of maximal predicted heart rate is considered an adequate stress
test ?
(A) 75%

(B) 65%

(C) 55%

(D) 85%

Where does the 99mTC bind in the red blood cell ?


99m

(A) To the Beta chain of hemoglobin

(B)

TC does not bind red blood cell at all

(C) To the cell wall of red blood cells

(D) To the alpha chain of hemoglobin

Colloid shift refers to :


(A) The redistribution of colloid within the kupfer cells over time
(B) Increased uptake of the colloid in the spleen and bone marrow relative to liver
(C) Small colloid particles clumped together to form large particles which localize in the lungs
(D) The redistribution of colloid within the hepatocytes over time

7.

ci of activity ?
How many MBq will correspond to 40
(A) 1.85

(B) 0.85

(C) 1.48

(D) 0.48

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

[Turn over

8.

9.

The pair production process requires which of the following energy ?


(A) 1.02 KeV

(B) 0.2 KeV

(C) 1.02 MeV

(D) 0.2 MeV

Method of Fourier transformation is not applied to :


(A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

(B) X ray Crystallography

(C) CT Imaging

(D) GM Counter

10. Which of the following enzymes is useful for dissolution of blood clots ?
(A) Streptokinase

(B) Cytochrome oxidase

(C) Peroxidase

(D) Taq polymerase

11. Which element activates Protein Kinase C during coagulation ?


(A) Ca++

(B) Li+

(C) Zn++

(D) K+

12. Which of the following radiation is used for the treatment of Polycythemia Vera ?
(A) Gamma rays

(B) Alpha rays

(C) Beta rays

(D) X rays

13. Perchlorate discharge test is used in the diagnosis of :


(A) Ectopic thyroid defects

(B) Organification defects

(C) Acute thyroiditis defects

(D) Lingual thyroid defects

14. Structure of hemoglobin molecule is :


(A)

(B) 2

(C) 22

(D) 2

15. Which of the following holds true for a hexagonal crystal system :
(A) a = b = c = = 90o, = 120

(B) a = b c = = 90o, = 120

(C) a = b = c = = = 90o

(D) a = b = c, = = 90o

16. Torosion angles for alpha helix are :


(A) 57, 47

(B) 49, 26

(C) 110, 120

(D) 70, 130

17. Mitochondria are also called :


(A) Suicide bags

(B) Digestive bags

(C) Phagocytic bags

(D) Power house bags

18. The resting of non-dividing stage between two successive mitotic divisions is termed as :
(A) Interphase

(B) Prophase

(C) Telophase

(D) Metaphase

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

19. Among the following which process does not occur in the nucleus :
(A) Transcription

(B) Replication

(C) Translation

(D) Mutation

20. Centrosomes are present in :


(A) Animal cells only

(B) Plant cells only

(C) In both plant cells and animal cells

(D) In neither plant cells nor animal cells

21. Total number of chromosomes present in human mitotic cell :


(A) 44

(B) 46

(C) 48

(D) 42

22. The approximate normal glomerular filtration rate is :


(A) 120 to 130 ml/min

(B) 130 to 140 ml/min

(C) 140 to 150 ml/min

(D) 150 to 160 ml/min

23. In Alzheimer's Disease, symmetric decreases in perfusion and metabolism occur in the :
(A) Frontal lobes

(B) Brain stem

(C) Temporal parietal lobe

(D) Posterior parietal lobe

24. Decreased glucose metabolism and perfusion in caudate nucleus and puamen, is usually
present in which of the following diseases ?
(A) Huntington's Disease

(B) Wilsons's Disease

(C) Multi infract Dementia

(D) AIDS dementia

25. What is the sensitivity of an increased alkaline phosphatase for skeletal metastasis from
prostate cancer ?
(A) 20%

(B) 40%

(C) 50%

(D) 70%

26. What is flare phenomenon ?


(A) Increased uptake following chemotherapy due to healing of bone after regression of
metastasis.
(B) Decreased uptake following chemotherapy due to healing of bone after regression of
metastasis.
(C) No uptake following chemotherapy due to healing of bone after regression of metastasis.
(D) Normal uptake following chemotherapy due to healing of bone after regression of metastasis
M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

[Turn over

27. A solution of NaCl absorbs half of the incident light intensity at 280 nm when placed in a
1.00 cm spectrophotometer cell. What would be the width of cell that would absorb 75%
of the incident light intensity ?
(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 1.5

(D) 0.75

28. An X ray tube operates at 30 kV and the current through it is 2 mA. The number of
electrons hitting the anode per second is :
(A) 3.2 1021

(B) 3.2 1019

(C) 1.25 1019

(D) 1.25 1016

29. Which of the following hormones crosses the plasma membrane and initiates its action ?
(A) Insulin

(B) Glucagon

(C) Estradiol

(D) Norepinephrine

30. Which MALDI method summarizes for the production of gas phase ions for mass
spectrometry ?
(A) Sample is forced through a capillary tube and solvent vaporizes
(B) Sample is embedded in a crystalline matrix and impinged by laser beams
(C) Sample is heated and then bombarded by electrons
(D) Sample is hit by a low energy xenon beam
31. Kirromycin inhibits protein synthesis by acting on :
(A) Ribosomes

(B) t-RNA

(C) GTP

(D) Elongation factor Tu

32. Which of the following feature does not change when an ultrasound wave moves through
a tissue ?
(A) Frequency

(B) Amplitude

(C) Intensity

(D) Waveform

33. Which of the following from the list given below provides only spin active nuclei ?
(A) 1H, 2H, 12C

(B) 1H, 12C, 19F

(C) 2H, 12C, 19F

(D) 1H, 13C, 19F

34. Lowest Linear energy transfer is depicted by :


(A) Beta rays

(B) Gamma rays

(C) Alpha rays

(D) Neutrons

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

35. Energy of thermal neutrons is :


(A) 25 eV

(B) 2.5 eV

(C) .25 eV

(D) .025 eV

36. The velocity of propagation of action potential :


(A) is independent of diameter of axon
(B) is unaffected if the axon is demyelinated
(C) depends on the thickness of the myelin around the axon
(D) is fastest in unmyelinated axons
37. The resting membrane potential of a mammalian cell is :
(A) is mainly determined by the Ca2+ gradient
(B) is mainly determined by the Na+ gradient
(C) is mainly determined by the Cl gradient
(D) is mainly determined by the K+ gradient
38. In bioinformatics, the requisite tool for identification of motifs is :
(A) COPIA

(B) BLAST

(C) PROSPECT

(D) Pattern hunter

39. A mountaineer climbs on a mountain of 10000 feet in the Himalayas. What will happen to
his arterial PCO2 and pH ?
(A) Both will be lower than normal
(B) The pH will fall and PCO2 will rise
(C) Both will be higher than normal due to the physical exertion
(D) The pH will rise and PCO2 will fall
40. Which of the following types of transition requires lowest energy ?
(A) electronic

(B) vibrational

(C) rotational

(D) nuclear spin

41. Differential centrifugation is a process that :


(A) separates different components of the cell on the basis of their functions
(B) separates components of the cell that have a different shapes
(C) separates components of the cell that have different densities
(D) separates components on the basis of their charges

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

[Turn over

42. The field of view of a microscope with a 10X ocular and a 5X objective is 5mm. What will
be the field of view with a 10X objective ?
(A) 0.5 mm

(B) 0.1 mm

(C) 2.5 mm

(D) 25 mm

43. 2 D electrophoresis is run to carry out the separation of :


(A) separate DNA fragments

(B) separate RNA fragments

(C) separate different proteins

(D) observe a protein in two dimensions

44. Abbe number is a measure of :


(A) Dispersion

(B) Colour temperature

(C) Interference

(D) Circular dichroism

45. Which of the following is a type of natural suture ?


(A) Polypropylene

(B) Nylon

(C) Keratin

(D) Catgut

46. How quickly can pulmonary emboli resolve ?


(A) 15 days

(B) 10 days

(C) 5 days

(D) 1 day

47. The ejection fraction of the gall bladder can be evaluated using :
(A) Cimitidine

(B) Dipyridamole

(C) Cholecystokinin

(D) Dobutamine

48. The normal adult renal plasma flow is approximately :


(A) 900 mL/minute

(B) 700 mL/minute

(C) 500 mL/minute

(D) 300 mL/minute

49. Which photon processes are dominant in the context of diagnostic radiology ?
(A) Compton scattering and photoelectric effect
(B) Photoelectric effect and pair production
(C) Compton scattering and pair production
(D) Compton scattering and Rayleigh scattering
50. The dose rate from potassium-40 in the human body is :
(A) 0.1 mSv/yr

(B) 0.2 mSv/yr

(C) 0.5 mSv/yr

(D) 1.0 mSv/yr

51. Sprain is caused due to excessive pulling of :


(A) Muscles

(B) Nerves

(C) Tendons

(D) Ligaments

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

52. DNA replication in cell cycle takes place in :


(A) G1 phase
(B) S phase
(C) M phase
(D) G2 phase
53. The average distance a photon travels in a medium between interactions describes :
(A) Linear attenuation coefficient
(B) Crompton Cross section
(C) Mean Free Path
(D) Linear Energy Transfer
54. Which one of the following is not the process of energy transfer from neutrons ?
(A) Compton scattering
(B) Elastic scatter
(C) Inelastic scatter
(D) Spallation
55. An electron in conduction band :
(A) is located near the compton edge
(B) has higher energy than an electron in valance band
(C) has no charge
(D) has lower energy than electron in valance band
56. Protein part of enzyme is called :
(A) Apoenzyme
(B) Prosthetic group
(C) Haloenzyme
(D) Coenzyme
57. Bremsstahlung radiations are called :
(A) X rays with variable energy
(B) X rays with fixed energy
(C) Gamma rays with fix energy
(D) Gamma rays with variable energy
58. Cerenkov radiations travel in water :
(A) At a speed of light

(B) At a speed greater that of light

(C) At a speed less than that of light

(D) At a speed of ultrasound waves

59. Epinephrine and norepinephrine :


(A) are amino acids
(B) are polypeptides
(C) are secreted by neurons in the autonomic nervous system
(D) activate alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
60. Ca++ plays an important role in following biological processes except :
(A) Contraction of cardiac muscles

(B) Blood coagulation

(C) Contraction of skeletal muscles

(D) Oxygen utilization

61. An alpha particle is :


(A) He2+

(B) [He2]2+

(C) He+

(D) He

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

[Turn over

62. The nuclear spins of 1H and 2H are, respectively :


(A) and 1

(B) and

(C) 1 and

(D) and 0

63. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to :


(A) Anaerobic production of ATP

(B) The citric acid cycle production of ATP

(C) Production of ATP by chemiosmosis

(D) Alcoholic fermentation

64. The auger effect occurs most frequently in elements with atomic number (Z) :
(A) Z < 25

(B) Z < 50

(C) Z < 100

(D) Z < 150

65. 1 amu is equal to :


(A) 1.66 1024 Kg

(B) 1.66 1025 Kg

(C) 1.66 1026 Kg

(D) 1.66 1027 Kg

66. Sound waves and ultrasound waves when they travel from moon towards earth :
(A) Sound waves shall reach first

(B) Ultrasound waves shall reach first

(C) Both will reach at the same time

(D) Both will not reach the earth

67. Glycogen is a type of :


(A) Carbohydrate

(B) Protein

(C) Lipid

(D) Glycoprotein

68. Which of the following cannot cause mutation ?


(A) X rays

(B) Infrared ray

(C) Ultraviolet ray

(D) Gamma ray

69. The involuntary muscles are controlled by the :


(A) Cerebrum

(B) Cerebellum

(C) Medulla oblongata

(D) Pons

70. Positron and negatron differ on the basis of :


(A) Mass

(B) Charge

(C) Mass and Charge both

(D) Ionization

71. When a radionuclide is administered to a living body, the damage to biological tissues is
because of :
(A) Gamma radiations

(B) U.V. radiations

(C) Beta radiations

(D) Infrared radiations

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

10

72. Linear energy transfer of alpha particles in biological tissue is :


(A) more than gamma rays

(B) less than gamma rays

(C) same as of beta rays

(D) less than beta rays

73. What is the distance between oppositely charged atoms in an optimal electrostatic
interaction ?
(A) 2.8 angstroms

(B) 2.5 angstroms

(C) 3 angstroms

(D) 2.2 angstroms

74. Collage protein has :


(A) Triple helix

(B) Double helix

(C) Single helix

(D) It is beta stranded

75. Which of the following bond is weakest ?


(A) Covalent bond

(B) Ionic bond

(C) Hydrogen bond

(D) Van der Waal bond

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

11

[Turn over

ROUGH WORK

M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-Nuclear Medicine-A/FRH-41392

12

124

OCET-2012

Sr. No. :

Question Booklet Series : A


Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Tech. (Polymer)


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the
corresponding bubbles with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. If you want to change an already marked answer, erase the shade in the darkened bubble completely.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted
for each wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not
allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer
whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A
1.

Three containers are filled with water upto the same height as shown. The pressures at the bottom
of the containers are denoted as P1, P2 and P3.

P1

P2

P3

Which one of the following relationships is true ?


(A) P3 > P1 > P2
(B) P2 > P1 > P3
(C) P1 > P2 = P3
(D) P3 = P1 = P2
2.

Match the polymerisation mechanisms in Group I with corresponding polymers in Group II :


Group I
Group II
P. Chain growth/Addition polymerisation
I. Polyethylene
Q. Step growth/Condensation polymerisation
II. Polyvinyl chloride
III. Polyethylene terephthalate
(A) P III, Q I, II
(B) P I, II, Q III
(C) P II, III, Q I
(D) P I, Q II, III

3.

For the reaction, N2 + 3H2


2NH3 + heat, what is the effect of the increase of temperature on the
equilibrium of the reaction ?
(A) equilibrium is shifted to the left
(B) equilibrium is shifted to the right
(C) equilibrium is unaltered
(D) reaction rate does not change

4.

In an orifice meter, if the pressure drop across the orifice is overestimated by 5%, then the percentage
error in the measured flow rate is :
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 2.5
(D) 5

5.

In general, which of the following vector identity is incorrect ?


(A) A (B + C) = (A B) + (A C)
(B) (A + B) C = (A C) + (B C)
(C) (B A) = (A B)
(D) A (B C) = (A B) C

6.

Two identically sized spherical particles A and B having densities A and B respectively, are settling
in a fluid of density . Assuming free settling under turbulent flow conditions, the ratio of terminal
settling velocity of particle A to that of particle B is given by :
(A)

(A )
(B )

(B)

(C)
B
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

(B )
(A )

(D)
A
3

[Turn over

7.

The critical speed (revolutions per unit time) of a ball mill of radius R, which uses balls of radius r
is :
(A)

1
2

(C)

1
2

g
Rr

g
r

(B)

1
2

g
R

(D)

1
2

g
Rr

8.

An aqueous sodium chloride solution (10 wt%) is fed into a single effect evaporator at a rate of
10000 kg/h. It is concentrated to a 20 wt% sodium chloride solution. The rate of consumption of
steam in the evaporation is 8000 kg/h. The evaporator capacity (kg/h) and economy are :
(A) 5000, 0.625
(B) 10000, 0.625
(C) 5000, 1.6
(D) 10000, 1.6

9.

If a stands for the edge length of the cubic systems : simple cubic, body centred cubic and face
centred cubic, then the ratio of the radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively :
1
1
a : 3a :
a
2
2

(A)

1
3
1
a:
a:
a
2
4
2 2

(B)

(C)

1
3
2
a:
a:
a
2
2
2

(D) 1a : 3a : 2a

10. Bernoullis equation for steady and frictionless flow states that :
(A) total pressure at all sections is same
(B) total energy at all sections is same
(C) velocity head at all sections is same
(D) total momentum at all sections is same
11. 1 g of ice is mixed with 1 g of steam. After thermal equilibrium is achieved, assuming no heat loss,
the temperature of the mixture is :
(A) 100C
(B) 55C
(C) 75C
(D) 0C
12. The time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction, with CAO as the initial concentration
of the species, is :
(A) CAO/2k
(B) CAOk
(C) 2k/CAO
(D) CAO/k
13. A perfectly insulated container of volume V is divided into two equal halves by a partition. One side
is under vacuum while the other side has one mole of an ideal gas (with constant heat capacity) at
298 K. If the partition is broken, the final temperature of the gas in the container :
(A) will be greater than 298 K
(B) will be 298 K
(C) will be less than 298 K
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

(D) cannot be determined


4

14. A liquid is boiling in an airtight vessel. Using an exhaust tube the vapour is pumped out at a faster
rate. What will happen to the liquid ?
(A) Temperature will go down but boiling will occur
(B) Temperature will rise and boiling will continue
(C) boiling will stop
(D) Whatever vapour inside will collapse
15. The relationship PV = constant, where is the ratio of the specific heats of ideal gas is applicable to :
(A) adiabatic process

(B) isobaric process

(C) isochoric process

(D) isothermal process

16. A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction with a constant speed of 10 m/s. It is subjected to a
retarding force 0.1 J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to x = 30 m. Its final kinetic energy will be :
(A) 475 J

(B) 450 J

(C) 275 J

(D) 250 J

17. Match the following :


P. Euler number

1.

viscous force/inertial force

Q. Froude number

2.

pressure force/inertial force

R. Weber number

3.

inertial force/gravitational force

4.

inertial force/surface tension force

(A) P 1, Q 2, Q 3

(B) P 2, Q 3, Q 4

(C) P 3, Q 2, Q 1

(D) P 4, Q 3, Q 2

18. When air undergoes Joule-Thomson expansion, the temperature :


(A) may remain constant

(B) increases

(C) may increase or decrease

(D) decreases

19. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with :


(A) HCHO

(B) (CH2OH)2

(C) CH3CHO

(D) CH3COCH3

20. In which of the following polymers, the intermolecular forces of attraction are weakest ?
(A) Nylon

(B) Poly (vinyl chloride)

(C) Cellulose

(D) Natural rubber

21. Specific heat of a gas, Cp = Cv, at :


(A) absolute zero

(B) critical temperature

(C) triple point

(D) all temperatures

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

[Turn over

22. Absolute humidity is defined as :


(A) actual mass of air in a unit volume of air and water vapour mixture
(B) actual mass of water vapour in a unit volume of air
(C) actual mass of water vapour in a unit volume of air and water vapour mixture
(D) actual mass of air in a unit volume of water vapour
23. For a given dry bulb temperature, with decrease in the relative humidity, the wet bulb temperature :
(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains same

(D) may increase or decrease

24. Ability of a material to resist fracture due to high impact load is called :
(A) toughness

(B) stiffness

(C) plasticity

(D) hardness

25. A thin flat plate 2m 2m is hanging freely in air. The temperature of the surroundings is 25C. Solar
radiation is falling on one side of the plate at the rate of 500 W/m2. The temperature of the plate will
remain constant at 30C, if the convection heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2 C) is :
(A) 25

(B) 50

(C) 100

(D) 200

26. An equimolar liquid mixture of species 1 and 2 is in equilibrium with its vapour at 400 K. At this
temperature, the vapour pressures of the species are P1sat = 180 kPa and P2sat = 120 kPa. Assuming
that Raoults law is valid, the value of y1 is :
(A) 0.3

(B) 0.41

(C) 0.5

(D) 0.6

27. Which is the most critical measurement in the following relation used for the computation of M
from the following equation ?
x 4 y3/2 z 4/5
M=
6
p
(A) X

(B)

(C) Z

(D) P

28. In constant pressure filtration, rate of filtration follows the relation (v : filtrate volume, t : time, k
and c : constants) :
(A)

dv
= kv + c
dt

(B)

dv
1
=
dt
kv + c

(C)

dv
= kv
dt

(D)

dv
= kv2
dt

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

29. A plane intersects the coordinate axes at :


2
1
1
y=
z=
3
3
2
What are the Miller Indices of the plane ?

x=

(A) 932

(B) 432

(C) 423

(D) 364

30. Materials which are usually most ductile have :


(A) face centred cubic lattice
(B) body centred cubic lattice
(C) hexagonal close packed lattice
(D) simple cubic
31. A material is known as allotropic if it :
(A) has fixed structure under all conditions
(B) Exists in several crystal forms at different temperatures
(C) responds to heat treatment
(D) has its atoms distributed in a random pattern
32. When the driving frequency approaches the systems natural frequency, there is a rapid increase in
the output amplitude of an undamped second order system. This condition is known as :
(A) vibration
(B) instability
(C) resonance
(D) oscillations
33. In a tensile test, elastic limit of cast iron as compared to ultimate tensile strength is approximately :
(A) half
(B) double
(C) same
(D) triple
34. A 10 kg solid at 100C with a specific heat of 0.8 kJ/kg C is immersed in 40 kg liquid at 20C with a
specific heat of 4.0 kJ/kg C. The temperature attained after a long time if the container is insulated
will be :
(A) 30C
(B) 28.8C
(C) 26C
(D) 23.8C
35. The inverse of the following matrix :
a 0
0 b

is
ab 0
(A)

0 1

b 0
(B)

a b

1 / a 0
(C)

0 1 / b

0 a
(D)

b 0

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

[Turn over

36. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
ListI

ListII

(Dimensionless quantity)

(Application)

a.

Stanton number

1.

Natural convection

b.

Grashof number

2.

Mass transfer

c.

Peclet number

3.

Forced convection

Schmidt number

4.

Forced convection for small Prandtl number

Codes :
a

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

37. A 20 cm dia, 1.2 m long cylinder loses heat from its peripheral surface by convection. Surface
temperature of the cylinder is constant at 100C and the fluid temperature is constant at 20C. The
average convection heat transfer coefficient over the surface of the cylinder is 25 W/m2K. The heat
transfer rate is :
(A) 120 W

(B) 240 W

(C) 320 W

(D) 480 W

38. A lubricant 1000 times more viscous than water would have a viscosity (in Pa-s) :
(A) 0.1

(B) 10

(C) 1

(D) 1000

39. Upto the critical radius of insulation :


(A) added insulation will increase heat loss
(B) added insulation will decrease heat loss
(C) convection heat loss will be less than conduction heat loss
(D) heat flux will decrease
40. The function f(x) = 3x(x 2) has a :
(A) minimum at x = 1

(B) maximum at x = 1

(C) minimum at x = 2

(D) maximum at x = 2

41. In Hagen-Poiseuille flow through a cylindrical tube, the radial profile of shear stress is :
(A) constant

(B) cubic

(C) parabolic

(D) linear

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

42. The flooding velocity in a plate column, operating at 1 atm pressure, is 3 m/s. If the column is
operated at 2 atm pressure, under otherwise identical conditions, the flooding velocity will be :
(A) 3/2

(B) 3/2

(C) 1

(D) 3/4

43. Match each of the following techniques of polymerisation in Group I, with the corresponding process
characteristics in Group II :
Group I

Group II

P. Bulk

Polymer with very high molecular weight can be obtained

Q. Solution

Heat removal is crucial but very difficult

R. Suspension

Small amount of undesired low molecular weight polymer is formed

S. Emulsion

Polymer concentration in the product stream is low :

(A) P I, Q II, R III, S IV

(B) P II, Q I, R III, S IV

(C) P I, Q II, R IV, S III

(D) P III, Q II, R IV, S I

44. Under fully turbulent flow conditions, the frictional pressure drop across a packed bed varies with
the superficial velocity V of the fluid as :
(A) V1

(C) V3/2

(B) V

(D) V2

45. In petroleum refining operations, the process used for converting paraffins and naphthenes to
aromatics is :
(A) catalytic reforming

(B) catalytic cracking

(C) hydrocracking

(D) alkylation

46. According to the penetration theory of mass transfer, the mass transfer coefficient (k) varies with
diffusion coefficient (D) of the diffusing species as :
(B) D1/2

(A) D

(C) D1/2

(D) D3/2

47. The active component of catalysts used in steam reforming of methane to produce synthesis gas is :
(A) Nickel

(B) Iron

(C) Platinum

(D) Palladium

48. The general solution of the differential equation :

d2y
dx

dy
6y = 0
dx

With C1 and C2 as constants of integration is :


(A) C1e3x + C2e2x
(C) C1e3x + C2e2x
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

(B) C1e3x + C2e2x


(D) C1e3x + C2e2x
9

[Turn over

49. The feed to a binary distillation column has 40 mol % vapour and 60 mol % liquid. The slope of the
q-line in McCabe-Thiele plot is :
(A) 1.5
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.6
(D) 1.5
50. Match the product in Group I with the name of the process in Group II :
Group I
Group II
P. Sodium Carbonate
1. Haber
Q. Ammonia
2. Solvay
R. Sulphuric Acid
3. Fischer-Tropsch
4. Contact
(A) P 2, Q 1, R 4
(B) P 4, Q 1, R 2
(C) P 3, Q 4, R 2
51. Given : i =

(D) P 2, Q 1, R 3

i+3
1 , the ratio i + 1 is given by :

(A) i

(B) 2

(C) i + 2

(D) i + 1

52. Property of a material due to which recovery after unloading is complete and instantaneous is
called :
(A) elasticity
(B) plasticity
(C) anelasticity
(D) viscoelasticity
53. Which one of the following process sequences is used in the sugar industry ?
(A) Ca2HPO4/Lime treatment crystallisation crushing
(B) Ca2HPO4/Lime treatment multiple stage evaporation crystallisation
(C) crushing crystallisation Ca2HPO4/Lime treatment
(D) multiple stage evaporation crystallisation Ca2HPO4/Lime treatment
54. Parameters a and b in van der Waals and other cubic equations of state represent :
(A) amolecular weight
(B) amolecular size
bmolecular polarity
bmolecular attraction
(C) amolecular size
(D) amolecular attraction
bmolecular speed
bmolecular size
55. Minimum reflux ratio in a distillation column results in :
(A) optimum number of trays
(B) minimum reboiler size
(C) maximum condenser size
(D) minimum number of trays
M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

10

56. An operator was told to control the temperature of a reactor at 60C. The operator set the set-point
of the temperature controller at 60. The scale actually indicated 0 to 100% of a temperature range
of 0 to 200C. This caused a runaway reaction by over-pressurising the vessel, which resulted in
injury to the operator. The actual set-point temperature was :
(A) 200
(B) 60
(C) 120
(D) 100
57. Select the most appropriate pump from Group II to handle fluid given in Group I :
Group I
Group II
P. Highly viscous fluid
1. Piston pump
Q. Fluid containing large amount of abrasive 2. Gear pump
solids
3. Plunger pump
4. Centrifugal pump
(A) P 2, Q 1
(B) P 2, Q 4
(C) P 3, Q 4
(D) P 4, Q 3
58. Which of the following is desirable in gasoline but undesirable in Kerosene ?
(A) Aromatics
(C) Naphthenic acid
59. Cast iron contains carbon approximately :
(A) 0.2 to 0.4%
(C) 2 to 4%

(B) Mercaptans
(D) Paraffins

(B) 1 to 1.3%
(D) 4 to 6.67%

60. In the sulphite process for paper manufacture, the cooking liquor is :
(A) Magnesium bisulfite and sulphur dioxide in acid medium
(B) Magnesium sulfite and magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium sulfite and magnesium sulfite
(D) Sodium sulphite, Sodium bisulfite and sulphur dioxide
61. Which of the following represents the Carnot cycle ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
S

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

P
11

[Turn over

62. The modulus of the complex number

is :

(A)

(B)

1
2

(C) 1

(D)

63. Two identical reservoirs open at the top are drained through pipes attached to the bottom of the
tanks as shown below. The two drain pipes are of the same length but of different diameters
(D1 > D2).

L
D1

D2

Assuming the flow to be steady and laminar in both drain pipes, and the volumetric flow rate in the larger
pipe is 16 times of that in the smaller pipe, the ratio D1/D2 is :
(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 16

64. The limit of :


f(x) =

x
sin x

as x 0 is :
(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D)

65. Fluid flows in an annulus of inner diameter 0.8 m and outer diameter 1 m. The equivalent diameter
for flow is :
(A) 0.45

(B) 0.2

(C) 1.64

(D) 0.9

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

12

66. Match the products in Group I with raw materials in Group II :


Group I
Group II
P. Caustic soda
1. Ammonia and sulphuric acid
Q. Soda ash
2. Sodium carbonate and slaked lime
3. Salt and limestone
4. Salt and sulphuric acid
(A) P 2, Q 3
(B) P 1, Q 2
(C) P 3, Q 4
(D) P 4, Q 1
67. Baffles are used in heat exchangers in order to :
(A) increase the tube side fluid heat transfer coefficient
(B) promote vibration in the heat exchanger
(C) promote cross flow and turbulence in the shell side fluid
(D) prevent shell expansion due to thermal effects
68. For the reaction 2R + S T, the rates of formation rR, rs and rT of the substances R, S, T respectively
are related by :
(A) 2rR = rS = rT
(B) 2rR = rS = rT
(C) rR = 2rS = 2rT

(D) rR = 2rS = 2rT

69. In a tray column, separating a binary mixture, with non-ideal stages, one of the following statements
is true :
(A) Point efficiency can exceed 100%
(B) Murphree efficiency cannot exceed 100%
(C) Murphree efficiency can exceed 100%
(D) Both point efficiency and Murphree efficiency can exceed 100%
70. Which one of the following statements is true ?
(A) Heat can be fully converted into work
(B) Work cannot be fully converted into heat
(C) The efficiency of a heat engine increases as the temperature of the heat source is increased while
keeping the temperature of the heat sink fixed
(D) a cyclic process can be devised whose sole effect is to transfer heat from a lower temperature to a
higher temperature
71. The following differential equation is :

d2y

dy
+ yex = sinh x
dx
dx
(A) first order and linear
2

+ sin x

(C) second order and linear


M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

(B) first order and nonlinear


(D) second order and nonlinear
13

[Turn over

72. The weight fraction of methanol in an aqueous solution is 0.64. The mole fraction of methanol will
be :
(A) 0.75
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.2
73. Nylon 6, 6 is manufactured from :
(A) caprolactum
(B) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
(C) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic acid
(D) dimethyl terphthalate and ethylene glycol
74. Match the systems in Group I with equipments used to separate them in Group II :
Group I
Group II
P. Gassolid
1. filter press
Q. Liquidliquid
2. cyclone
3. decanter
4. thickener
(A) P 1, Q 2
(C) P 3, Q 4

(B) P 2, Q 3
(D) P 4, Q 1

75. For a particle in water settling at its terminal settling velocity, which of the following is true ?
(A) buoyancy = weight + drag
(B) weight = buoyancy + drag
(C) drag = weight + buoyancy
(D) drag = weight

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

14

ROUGH WORK

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

15

ROUGH WORK

M.Tech. (Polymer)/A/FRH-41365

16

28

OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C/D

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Two Year Course)-System Biology and Bioinformatics


Time : 90 minutes
Number of Questions : 75
Maximum Marks : 75
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)-System Biology & Bioinformatics/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

Operators in perl programming can appear _________ their operands.


(A) before and between

(B) before and after

(C) between and after

(D) before, between and after

Two strings may be joined end to end with _____ in a perl program script.
(A) dot operators

(B) x operators

(C) + operators

(D) * operators

In perl language a statement ends in :


(A) colon

(B) semicolon

(C) no punctuation marks needed

(D) numeric characters

Rapid prototyping in programming for biological research is :


(A) speed with which a programmer can write a typical perl program
(B) speed with which a programmer can write an experiment protocol
(C) speed with which an experimenter can use a typical protocol
(D) speed with which an experimenter can use a typical perl program

5.

A computational program, for reading DNA and then writing its protein code, must
examine :
(A) three reading frames from sense strand
(B) three reading frames from Antisense strand
(C) all six reading frames from both strands
(D) any reading frame as selected by the programmer

6.

7.

8.

The international sequences repository GenBank is a :


(A) Genetic sequence database

(B) Genetic sequence analysing program

(C) Genetic sequence creating program

(D) Genetic sequence analysis funding agency

In computational biology programmes, the text scanning operation is commonly called :


(A) Pairing

(B) Parsing

(C) Prunning

(D) Perling

In B type of DNA the distance between two successive nitrogenous base pairs is :
(A) 34

(B) 36

(C) 20

(D) 3.4

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

[Turn over

9.

Eco R1 is an enzyme with __________ capability.


(A) Ligase

(B) Polymerase

(C) Restriction digestion

(D) Gyrase

10. The sequence analysis of DNA is catagorized as :


(A) Structural genomics

(B) Functional genomics

(C) Kinomics

(D) Proteomics

11. The study of gene expression, its regulation as well as phenotype production is called :
(A) Structural genomics

(B) Functional genomics

(C) Metabolomics

(D) Proteomics

12. The tertiary structure of tRNA is :


(A) L-shaped

(B) Clover leaf shaped

(C) Y-shaped

(D) Pyramid shaped

13. The best method to ascertain paternity is :


(A) Chromosome Counting

(B) Protein Analysis

(C) DNA Fingerprinting

(D) RNA Quantification

14. If in a DNA segment on analysis it is found that it has 60 adenine and 50 cytosine bases.
The total number of nucleotides in that segment of DNA will be :
(A) 110

(B) 120

(C) 100

(D) 220

15. Which of the following would represent the correct complementary strand of a DNA
fragment having base sequence CATGACTAG ?
(A) CATTAGGAC

(B) CTAGTCATG

(C) GATGTCATC

(D) GTACTGATC

16. GENSCAN is _________ .


(A) a tool to predict genes

(B) a database of genes

(C) a database of predicted genes

(D) a dataset of genes in a particular species

17. Which of the following can be performed using Clustal W ?


(A) local sequence alignment only

(B) global sequence alignment only

(C) partial sequence alignment

(D) multiple sequence alignment

18. The first genome sequence project was accomplished in which of the following species :
(A) H influenzae

(B) D melanogaster

(C) S cerevisae

(D) A thaliana

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

19. Transcriptomics is :
(A) the reverse transcription of RNA produced by the genome at any one time
(B) complete set of genes to be transcribed by the genome at any one time
(C) the study of complete set of RNA transcripts produced by the genome at any one time
(D) the study of complete set of genes
20. Identify the two groups of an amino acid that react to form a peptide bond :
(A) The side chain carboxyl group and the alpha-amino group
(B) The side chain carboxyl group and the side chain amino group
(C) The alpha-carboxyl group and the side chain amino group
(D) The alpha-carboxyl group and the alpha-amino group
21. The double helix as determined by Watson and Crick is composed of :
(A) Two, parallel complementary strand

(B) Two, antiparallel complementary strand

(C) A single strand of phosphodiester linkages

(D) Two strands in pi() helix conformation

22. Which single word best describes the reaction catalyzed by a restriction endonuclease ?
(A) Redox

(B) Hydrolysis

(C) Phosphoryl group transfer

(D) Isomerization

23. The free energy released upon breakdown of one mole of glucose to two moles of lactate
is stored in which of the following forms :
(A) Two moles of NADH and two moles of ATP
(B) Two moles of NADH
(C) Two moles of glyceraldehydes-3 phosphate
(D) Two moles of ATP
24. Absence of which of the following enzyme prevents muscle to regulate Blood Glucose :
(A) hexokinase
(B) phosphofructokinase
(C) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
(D) glucose-6-phosphatase
25. What is the cellular location of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle ?
(A) Nucleus

(B) Cytoplasm

(C) Mitochondria

(D) Ribosomes

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

[Turn over

26. Which of the hormones listed below is not peptide ?


(A) Insulin

(B) Glucagon

(C) Testosterone

(D) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone

27. RNA polymerase that transcribes the mitochondrial DNA is encoded in :


(A) eukaryotic extra-chromosomal plasmid DNA
(B) nuclear DNA
(C) mitochondrial DNA
(D) Intervening sequences in mitochondrial DNA
28. Identify the amino acid that has two chiral centres :
(A) Proline

(B) Threonine

(C) Lysine

(D) Alanine

29. What is the most important factor in determining the native, three dimensional structure
of a protein ?
(A) The number of disulfide bonds
(B) The sequence of amino acids in the protein
(C) Interactions of the protein molecules with the solvent
(D) The origin of the protein
30. Select the fibrous protein from the list mentioned below :
(A) Myoglobin

(B) Hemoglobin

(C) Albumin

(D) Keratin

31. Which of the following statements is not true for isoenzymes ?


(A) They catalyze the same chemical reactions
(B) They have the enzyme classification number
(C) They can be present in different organs and tissues
(D) They have the same quaternary structure
32. The term "sn" in sn-glycerol stands for :
(A) Side selective numbering

(B) Simple numbering

(C) Stereospecific numbering

(D) Side specific nucleus

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

33. Which of the following segments of duplex DNA may be restriction enzyme cleavage
site ?
(A) 5'ACGA
3' TGCT
(B) 5'CGAT
3'GCTA
(C) 5'ACGT
3'TGCA
(D) 5'ACCC
3' TGGG
34. The enzymes phosphoglucomutase catalyzes the isomerisation of glucose-6-phosphate
to :
(A) Glucose-1-phosphate

(B) Fructose-6-phosphate

(C) Galactose-6-phosphate

(D) Fructose-1-phosphate

35. The erythrocyte plasma membrane allows simple diffusion of only :


(A) Glucose

(B) Fructose

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Chloride ions

36. Shine Dalgarno sequences are present in which of the following :


(A) mRNA

(B) tRNA

(C) rRNA

(D) miRNA

37. Which of the following is not a consensus sequence ?


(A) TGCCCCATGCT

(B) TGCCCCATCCT

(C) TGCGCCATGCT

(D) TGCGCCTACCT

38. Which of the following has the RNA degrading activity ?


(A) DNA polymerase I

(B) DNA ligase

(C) DNA topoisomerase

(D) DNA helicase

39. Which of the following is the inhibitor for transcription process ?


(A) Actinomycin D

(B) Streptomycin

(C) Puromycin

(D) Chloramphenicol

40. The first protein to be sequenced is :


(A) keratin

(B) myosin

(C) actin

(D) insulin

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

[Turn over

41. All of the following can be associated as part of activities of RNAs except :
(A) splicosomes

(B) ribozymes

(C) isozymes

(D) lariats

42. Phylip acronym signifies :


(A) Phylogeny editing program
(B) A synonym for phylogeny analysis
(C) Phylogeny inference package
(D) A special bioinformatic language for phylogeny analysis
43. Refer to diagram, during PCR the name forward primer and reverse primer are designed
in such a manner that : 5'---------------------------3' Top strand
3'---------------------------5' Bottom strand
(A) Forward primer is complementary to bottom strand and reverse primer is complementary to
top strand
(B) Forward primer is complementary to top stand and reverse primer is complementary to top
bottom
(C) Forward primer has the same sequence as bottom strand and reverse primer has same
sequences as top strand
(D) Forward primer and reverse primers are complementary to the top strand only
44. Which of the following is key component of hot start PCR ?
(A) use of radioactive primers
(B) starting the PCR in hot laboratory
(C) keeping Taq polymerase inactive till the primers are annealed properly
(D) keeping the PCR tubes at 90C for two hrs before starting PCR
45. What is glycogenine ?
(A) Protein that after binding glycogen facilitates its breakdown
(B) A protein on to which glycogen synthesis is primed
(C) Glycogen having protein bound after every 5 sugars
(D) Glycogen having protein bound after every 7 sugars
46. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) IgG crosses the placenta
(B) C1-9 is used by the alternative complement pathway
(C) eosinophils are responsible for phagocytosis
(D) interleukin-1 activates B cells to produce interleukin-2
M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

47. During which cycle of PCR amplification you would first time get the exact size of DNA
fragments :
(A) 5th cycle

(B) 1st cycle

(C) 3rd cycle

(D) 25th cycle

48. The Phi-Psi plot for protein conformation is known as :


(A) Rajaraman plot

(B) Ramanujan plot

(C) Ramachandran plot

(D) Ramaswami plot

49. Sulphur is decomposed to form ______ by bacteria.


(A) H2S4

(B) H2S

(C) H2S2

(D) H2SO4

50. Poisonous substances produced by microorganisms are known as :


(A) Enzymes

(B) Toxins

(C) Lysins

(D) Defensins

51. By convention the bacterial dimensions can be measured in which of the following units :
(A) Millimeter

(B) Micrometer

(C) Nanometer

(D) Picometer

52. The term MAP kinase refers to :


(A) microorganism assorted protein kinase

(B) mitrochondrial activated protein kinase

(C) mitogen activated protein kinase

(D) multiple aligned primary kinase

53. Phagocytosis in a cell can be defined as :


(A) The ability of a cell to reproduce
(B) The ability of a cell to move
(C) The ability of a cell to engulf and digest solid materials
(D) The ability of a cell to change shape
54. Which of the following is true regarding the human chromosomes ?
(A) There are 23 pairs autosomal chromosome
(B) The Y chromosome is larger than the X chromosomes
(C) Barr body is caused by the presence of an inactive X chromosome
(D) Barr body is only found in people who are phenotypically female
55. Central processing unit is a combination of :
(A) Control and storage

(B) Control and output unit

(C) Arithmetic logic and input unit

(D) Arithmetic logic and control unit

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

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56. Which of the following coenzyme is involved in oxidation reduction reaction ?


(A) Pyridoxal phosphate

(B) Lipoic Acid

(C) Thiamine pyrophosphate

(D) Tetrahydrofolate

57. Personal computers can be connected together to form a ________.


(A) Server

(B) Supercomputer

(C) Network

(D) Search engine

58. Computers use the _____ language to process data.


(A) Processing

(B) Kilobyte

(C) Binary

(D) Representational

59. Which of the following statement is not true regarding transport proteins in cell
membranes ?
(A) They are present in cell membranes
(B) The serve to carry polar molecules across the hydrophobic cell membrane
(C) They are required to transport amino acids across cell membranes
(D) They are required to transport hydrophobic steroids cell across membrane
60. During which of the following process there is a sudden increase in absorbance at 260 nm
of a DNA solution isolated from mammals :
(A) Denaturation

(B) Renaturation

(C) Supercoiling

(D) Precipitation

61. The species identified as endangered have :


(A) become extinct

(B) a high probability of extinction

(C) a high probability of replacing other species (D) a threat to biodiversity


62. Which of the following is not a technique for development of molecular markers in DNA
sequences ?
(A) RFLP

(B) RAPD

(C) STS

(D) HPLC

63. The minimum size of foreign gene required for cloning in Yeast artificial chromosomes
is :
(A) 25 kb

(B) 50 kb

(C) 75 kb

(D) 100 kb

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

10

64. Which of the following scientists are associated with their respective discovery :
(a)

Demonstration of bacterial transformation

(i)

Arthur Koenberg

(b)

Mechanism of biological synthesis of DNA

(ii)

Griffith

(c)

Discovery of penicillin

(iii) Martinus Beijerinck

(d)

Demonstration of filterable infectious agent

(iv)

Ian Flemming

(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), c-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(D) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

65. Alpha complementation is a phenomenon utilized for :


(A) selection of recombinant DNA molecules

(B) insertion of recombinant DNA molecules

(C) extraction of recombinant DNA molecules (D) transport of recombinant DNA molecules
66. Which of the following is not a property exhibited by Phagemids ?
(A) Origin of replication from plasmid ColE1

(B) Selectable marker for antibiotic resistance

(C) Intergenic region from a filamentous phage (D) Transposable intergenic regions
67. To generate radiolabelled probes, nicks in the probe DNA can be extended using a
Labelled deoxyribonucleotide with the help of :
(A) restriction enzyme

(B) DNA ligase

(C) DNA polymerase I

(D) DNA topoisomerase

68. A technique of tracing protein location or modification over a time using radioactive
agents is described as :
(A) Pulse chase experiment

(B) Pulsed field electrophoresis experiment

(C) Chirped pulse amplification experiment

(D) Hybridization experiment

69. Match each of the Vitamins listed in the first column with its related coenzyme :
(a) Riboflavin

(i)

FAD

(b) Vitamin B6

(ii) NAD

(c) Niacin

(iii) Tetrahydrofolate

(d) Folic acid

(iv) Pyridoxal phosphate

(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), c-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(C) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(D) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

70. A single strand of DNA having 35 nucleotides would have how many phosphodiester
bonds when present as covalently closed circle and as linear chain ?
(A) 35 and 34

(B) 34 and 33

(C) 34 and 34

(D) 33 and 33

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

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71. When Chargaff analyzed the concentration of bases in DNA, he found ?


(A) A = T ; G = C

(B) A = G; T = C

(C) A + T = C + G

(D) A = T = C = G

72. Recombinant DNA molecules are introduced into plant cells with the aid of which
bacterium ?
(A) Agrobacterium tuberosis

(B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(C) Arabidopsis tumefaciens

(D) Arabidopsis tuberosis

73. Which of the following activity cannot be categorized as post translational modification ?
(A) Proteolytic cleavage

(B) Phosphorylation of amino acids

(C) Selection and activation of amino acids

(D) Attachment of carbohydrate groups

74. PDB identifier is assigned by :


(A) three character alphanumeric identifier

(B) four character alphanumeric identifier

(C) six character alphanumeric identifier

(D) five character alphanumeric identifier

75. Orthologous sequences are :


(A) Homologous sequences in different species that arose from a common ancestral gene
(B) Homologous sequences in same species that arose from a common ancestral gene
(C) Nonhomologous sequences in different species that arose from a common ancestral gene
(D) Nonhomologous sequences in same species that arose from a common ancestral gene

M.Sc.(Two Year Course)System Biology & Bioinformatics-A/FRH-41361

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OCET-2012
Question Booklet Series : A/B/C

Sr. No. :

Important : Please consult your Admit Card / Roll No. Slip before filling your Roll Number on the Test Booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Roll No.

In Figures

In Words

In Words

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.


Signature of the Candidate :

Subject : M.Sc. (Hons. School/2 Year Course)-Zoology


Time : 90 minutes

Number of Questions : 75

Maximum Marks : 75

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO


INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your Roll No. on the Question Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Subject and Series Code of Question Booklet on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding
bubble with Black Ball Point /Black Gel Pen.
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. To open the Question Booklet remove the paper seal (s) gently when asked to do so.
5. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 75 questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of test.
6. Each question has four alternative answers (A, B, C, D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point / Black Gel pen.
7. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Sheet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
8. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the questions given in the
Question Booklet.
9. Negative marking will be adopted for evaluation i.e., 1/4th of the marks of the question will be deducted for each
wrong answer. A wrong answer means incorrect answer or wrong filling of bubble.
10. For calculations, use of simple log tables is permitted. Borrowing of log tables and any other material is not allowed.
11. For rough work only the sheets marked Rough Work at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
12. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, i.e., not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
13. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
14. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so, would be expelled from
the examination.
15. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistance or found giving or receiving assistance or found using any other unfair
means during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent /
Observer whose decision shall be final.
16. Telecommunication equipment such as pager, cellular phone, wireless, scanner, etc., is not
permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/A


1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Conjugation of Paramecium was elucidated by :


(A) Dellinger

(B) Hyman

(C) Diller

(D) Hertwig and Maupaus

Which of the following is not a larval stage of liver fluke ?


(A) Cercaria

(B) Cysticercus

(C) Sporocyst

(D) Miracidium

Placenta is found in which of the following animals :


(A) Ambystoma

(B) Xenopus

(C) Duckbilled platypus

(D) Equus

In which of the following trochophore larva is absent ?


(A) Brachiopoda

(B) Mollusca

(C) Crustacea

(D) Annelida

Permanent neoteny is exhibited by :


(A) Necturus

(B) Bolitoglossa

(C) Ambystoma

(D) Eleutherodactylus

Glycosylation of proteins takes place in :


(A) Mitochondria

(B) Ribosomes

(C) Endoplasmic reticulum

(D) Lysosomes

In a heterozygote if both the alleles are expressed. They are called :


(A) Dominant

(B) Recessive

(C) Co-dominant

(D) Partially dominant

Non-allelic genes effecting same trait but one's expression is masked by second's
expression are called :
(A) Lethal genes

(B) Supplementary genes

(C) Epistatic genes

(D) Complementary genes

Which layer of egg contains hyaluronic acid ?


(A) Corona radiata

(B) Plasma membrane

(C) Cortical layer

(D) Zona pellucid

10. To which of the following categories the scorpion belongs :


(A) Crustacea

(B) Arachnida

(C) Insecta

(D) Brachiopoda

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A

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11. Which of the following is Hermaphrodite ?


(A) Aplysia

(B) Pila

(C) Unio

(D) Cardium

12. Drones of honey bee are :


(A) Fertile females

(B) Sterile females

(C) Fertile males

(D) Sterile males

13. Prokaryotic ribosomes contain :


(A) 16S, 23S and 5SrRNA

(B) 18S, 28S, 5.8S and 5SrRNA

(C) 16S, 18S and 23SrRNA

(D) 16S, 28S and 5SrRNA

14. Which of the following is the most productive aquatic ecosystems ?


(A) Coral reef ecosystem

(B) Stream ecosystem

(C) Riverine ecosystem

(D) Pond ecosystem

15. Which of the following air sacs are not paired in pigeon ?
(A) Cervical

(B) Interclavical

(C) Thoracic

(D) Abdominal

16. Retrogressive metamorphosis occurs in :


(A) Herdmania and frog

(B) Botryllus and Necturus

(C) Frog and Necturus

(D) Botryllus and Herdmania

17. The outer layer of placenta which is selectively permeable and hormone secreting is :
(A) Chorion

(B) Amnion

(C) Allantois

(D) Yolk sac

18. Study of population ecology is called :


(A) Synecology

(B) Demecology

(C) Phytosociology

(D) Ecosystem

19. Sleeping sickness is caused by :


(A) Trypanosoma gambiense

(B) Leishmania donovani

(C) Trichomonas buccalis

(D) Plasmodium vivax

20. Aphrodite is :
(A) Sea hare

(B) Sea mouse

(C) Sea horse

(D) Sea squirt

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A

21. Deficiency of which of the following hormones causes the dwarfism and excess of the
same causes gigantism and acromegaly :
(A) Thyrotropin

(B) Somatotropin

(C) Cortisone

(D) Parathormone

22. Which of the following diseases is autoimmune disease ?


(A) Insulin dependent Diabetes Mellitus

(B) Diabetes insipidus

(C) Parkinson's disease

(D) Angina

23. Double trisomics have a genomic constitution of :


(A) 2n+2

(B) 2n+1

(C) 2n+1+1

(D) 2n2

24. Which of the following is the sex linked abnormality ?


(A) Patau's syndrome

(B) Edward's Syndrome

(C) Kleinfelter's syndrome

(D) Cri-du-chat syndrome

25. Stinging cells are present in :


(A) Aurelia

(B) Spongilla

(C) Euplectella

(D) Hyalonema

26. Metameric segmentation is found in :


(A) Nematoda

(B) Annelida

(C) Urochordata

(D) Cephalopoda

27. A functional unit in a compound eye is termed as :


(A) Ocellus

(B) Stigma

(C) Ommatidium

(D) Eye spot

28. A restriction enzyme brings cleavage only at :


(A) the ends of a gene

(B) the methyl group

(C) a particular sequence of nucleotide

(D) the time of replication

29. Preparation of sperm before penetration of ovum is :


(A) Insemination

(B) Spermiogenesis

(C) Capacitation

(D) Spermatogenesis

30. Which of the following is a fish ?


(A) Cuttle fish

(B) Jelly Fish

(C) Flat Fish

(D) Silver Fish

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A

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31. Pernicious anaemia is caused due to deficiency of :


(A) Pyridoxine

(B) Folic acid

(C) Niacin

(D) Cyanocobalamine

32. Which gas contributes most to greenhouse effect ?


(A) Sulphur dioxide

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Ozone

33. Diapedesis is :
(A) Bipedal walk
(B) Ability of WBC to pass through blood vessels
(C) Reproduction in Paramecium
(D) Doubling of chromosomes
34. Acetabulum is part of :
(A) Sternum

(B) Skull

(C) Pelvic girdle

(D) Pectoral girdle

35. Bt in Bt cotton stands for :


(A) Biotechnologically tailored

(B) Bioenvironmentally tested

(C) Bacillus thuringiensis

(D) Bacillus thermophillus

36. Gall bladder is absent in :


(A) Rana

(B) Scoliodon

(C) Uromastix

(D) Columba

37. Silk is produced by which stage of life cycle of silk moth :


(A) Larva

(B) Adult

(C) Pupa

(D) Egg

38. Structures with similar functions but having different origins are called :
(A) Analogous

(B) Autologous

(C) Vestigial

(D) Homologous

39. Which type of eggs show superficial cleavage ?


(A) Megalecithal

(B) Microlecithal

(C) Cleidoic

(D) Centrolecithal

40. The AIDS virus can be transmitted by :


(A) Hand shake

(B) Using same toilet

(C) Sharing utensils with infected person

(D) Using contaminated needles for injections

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A

41. The technique of chromatography is based on the principle of :


(A) Adsorption

(B) Absorption

(C) Partitioning

(D) Partitioning and adsorption

42. Which of the following amino acids is the precursor for the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 ?
(A) Tryptophan

(B) Lysine

(C) Tyrosine

(D) Histidine

43. Abzymes are :


(A) Antibodies that have catalytic activities
(B) Zymogens
(C) Enzymes that hydrolyse antibodies
(D) Enzymes that are highly specific like antibodies
44. Which of the following bird species is endangered ?
(A) Hill myna

(B) Great Indian Bustard

(C) Crow pheasant

(D) Grey hornbill

45. During electrical stimulation-induced depolarization of neuron, voltage gated :


(A) Na+ channels will close

(B) K+ channels will close

(C) Cl channels will open

(D) Na+ channels will open

46. Which of the following is natural inducer of the lac operon in E-coli ?
(A) Allolactose

(B) Galactose

(C) Lactose

(D) IPTG

47. The region where RNA polymerase binds to promoter in prokaryotes is called :
(A) Pribnow box

(B) Hogness box

(C) Homeobox

(D) Shine Delgarno box

48. In which organelle is NADP+ the final electron acceptor ?


(A) Chloroplast only

(B) Mitochondrion only

(C) Both chloroplast and mitochondria

(D) Lysosomes

49. One of the major transmembrane protein in a tight junction is :


(A) Lectin

(B) Claudin

(C) Adherin

(D) Integrin

50. Which of the following is not a poisonous snake ?


(A) Rat Snake

(B) Cobra

(C) Viper

(D) Krait

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A

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51. XX-XO mechanism of sex determination occurs in :


(A) Humans

(B) Birds

(C) Grasshopper

(D) Drosophila

52. Bipinnaria is larval form of :


(A) Coelenterata

(B) Polychaeta

(C) Echinodermata

(D) Cestoda

53. Sternum is absent in :


(A) Mammals

(B) Amphibians

(C) Fishes

(D) Birds

54. Amphioxus belongs to :


(A) Hemichordata

(B) Cephalochordata

(C) Urochordata

(D) Cyclostomata

55. Which part of the brain detects temperature changes in blood ?


(A) Cerebellum

(B) Cerebral hemispheres

(C) Medulla

(D) Hypothalamus

56. In most of the ecosystems, the greatest amount of energy flows through the :
(A) Secondary consumers

(B) Herbivores

(C) Decomposers

(D) Carnivores

57. Triassic and Jurassic periods are included in :


(A) Paleozoic era

(B) Mesozoic era

(C) Coenozoic era

(D) Proterozoic era

58. The population of all the species in a given habitat is referred to as :


(A) Biosphere

(B) Community

(C) Ecosphere

(D) Ecosystem

59. Which one of the following is the termination codon ?


(A) GCG

(B) CCC

(C) UUU

(D) UAG

60. Which of the following is not characteristics of birds ?


(A) Air sacs attached to lungs

(B) Hollow bones

(C) Ectothermic

(D) Amniotic egg

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A

61. Development of which of the following occurs first :


(A) Liver

(B) Heart

(C) Notochord

(D) Kidney

62. An animal that warms its body mainly by heat of cellular respiration is :
(A) a poikilotherm

(B) an exotherm

(C) an ectotherm

(D) an endotherm

63. Modern birds are more closely related to :


(A) Lizards

(B) Mammals

(C) Crocodile

(D) Turtles

64. The neurotransmitter between a motor neuron and a muscle cell is :


(A) Serotonin

(B) Epinephrine

(C) Dopamine

(D) Acetylcholine

65. The first true hominids in the fossil record have been placed in the genus ?
(A) Homo

(B) Australopithecus

(C) Dryopithecus

(D) Aegyptopithecus

66. Which of the following is a radially symmetrical animal ?


(A) Planarian

(B) Rotifer

(C) Fluke

(D) Sea anemone

67. The total collection of genes at one time in a unit of evolution is called as :
(A) Genotype

(B) Demotype

(C) Multiple alleles

(D) Gene pool

68. In aerobic cellular respiration most of the ATP is synthesized during :


(A) Glycolysis

(B) Oxidation of pyruvic acid

(C) Krebs cycle

(D) Electron transport

69. Genetic drift occurs when a few individuals of a species colonize an Island. This particular
phenomenon is known as :
(A) Bottle-neck effect

(B) The founder effect

(C) Assortative mating

(D) Random mating

70. The meiotic process by which homologues are paired during prophase l is called :
(A) Chiasma

(B) Interkinesis

(C) Crossing over

(D) Synapsis

M.Sc.(Hons.School/2 Year Course)-Zoology/FRH-41348-A

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71. Which enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of new strands of DNA molecule, by linking
nucleotide to the developing strand ?
(A) DNA ligase

(B) DNA polymerase

(C) Single strand binding protein

(D) Topoisomerase

72. The number of spiracles in cockroach is :


(A) Twelve

(B) Fifteen

(C) Eight

(D) Ten

73. The King crab Limulus is important because it is a :


(A) Missing link

(B) Living fossil

(C) Connecting link

(D) Extinct species

74. Cri-du-Chat syndrome is due to a :


(A) Duplication

(B) Deletion

(C) Inversion

(D) Translocation

75. The sting of worker honey bee is a modification of :


(A) Mandibles

(B) Jaws

(C) Ovipositor

(D) Maxillae

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