1.

What is the expected bond to be formed between the two atoms atom 1(atomic
number 11) and atom 2(atomic number 17)?
a. Polar covalent positive in one end and negative in the other end (O-H,N-H)
b. Non polar covalent attraction is more equal (C-H)
c. Ionic transfer of electrons so two odd numbers are more likely
d. Hydrogen weak bond made by water molecules so obviously wrong

2. Which of the following non

covalent forces shown?

a. Hydrogen same description above

b. Ionic same description above
c. Van der waals very weak, electron cloud around any nonpolar atom will fluctuate
producing a flickering dipole.(not weakend by water)
d. Hydrophobic interactions - caused by pushing of non polar surfaces out of the
hydrogen bonded water network. Bringing two nonpolar surfaces together reduces
their contact with water, the force is a rather nonspecific one.

3. Which of the following is NOT true of carbohydrates? carbs have large amounts of
hydroxyl groups(for H bonding). Simplest having aldehyed or ketone moiety
a. A covalent bond (glycosidic bond) links sugar units together in a polysaccharide
CORRECT
b. Carry one of the two functional groups either keto or an aldehyde group. CORRECT
c. The boat form of carbohydrate is the more static conformational isomer Hayworth
ang masstable. Promotes steric effect ang boat.
d. D-glyceraldehyde is the simplest carbohydrate CORRECT D is in most sugars and
since aldehyde or ketone ang end then its the simplest form.

4. True of polysaccharides
a. Gram negative cell wall is made up of thick layer of peptidoglycans - only
positive,gram neg is thin walled

b. The only GAGS without organic acid component is keratin

sulphate has

no COOH
c. A link trisaccaride is found within the structure of glycoprotein only o and n linked
are found here, no A
d. Cellulose contains alpha(1->4) glycosidic linked glucose should be beta 1->4
linkages

5. All of the following statements is correct regarding proteins and amino acids

EXCEPT
a. Amino acids are classified based on the side chain or R group - CORRECT
b. The acid base property of amino acids depends on the ionization character of both
amino and carboxyl groups - CORRECT
c. The quarternary structure of a protein is possible only if the molecule consists of
more than one amount - CORRECT
d. Denaturation of proteins is associated with the disruption of peptide bonds is isnt

6. Which of the following amino acids is classified to be nutritionally
and has a polar

essential

side chain capable of hydrogen bonding?

a. Phenylalanine no polar but essential

b. Alanine not essential and no polar side chain
c. Threonine - CORRECT
d. Serine has polar but is not essential

7. The zwitter form of amino acidremember it is net sero charge if zwitter
a. Is the predominant ionic species at the isoelectric ph(ph1)
b. Moves towards the cathode during electrophoresis ask aly hehe
c. Has the maximum buffering function of amino acid only if pka=ph

d. Has a net charge of +1 - zero dapat

8. In the delta

system nomenclature for fatty acids, which of the following is

designated as carbon 1?
a. Terminal methyl carbon
b. n carbon
c. carbon of the carboxyl group yes, c of cooh is the cabon 1
d. omega carbon

9. in the formation of a ceramide, the fatty acyl group is attached to the alcohol
backbone at this site check handout, page 11(lipids)
a. alpha carbon or carbon 3
b. terminal carbon of the hydrocarbon chain
c. OH group at carbon 1
d. Amino group attached to carbon 2

10. True of the membrane protein figure shown (check

shifting exam 1)

a. It forms the cytoskeleton of the biological membrane channel not skeleton

b. The multiple alpha helical segments organize to form a channel or transport of
substances across the barrier
c. It is a single pass transmembrane protein not single obviously
d. Glycophorin exemplified this membrane protein example of the sinlge not multiple

11. This statement correctly describes the chemical nature of biologic

membranes
a. The component lipids and proteins are not essential components of the membranes
structure they are the main components

b. Membranes are solid structures at standard conditions they are fluid structures so
proteins and lipids can pass through
c. The two monolayers are asymmetric in nature- two faces of biologic membranes
always differ from one another
d. Most membranes have equal electrical charges inside and out inside more
negative

12. To cause an uncompetitive

inhibition the allosteric effector has to bind to

all noncompetitive bind to allosteric sites(other areas not bound by the active site)
-

Competitive km increase, vmax the same

Non com km the same, vmax decrease

Uncompetitive both decrease

a. The active site of the enzyme- competitive

b. The free enzyme
c. The enzyme-substrate complex
d. The altered enzyme substrate complex

13. True of an enzyme EXCEPT
a. Ribonuclease molecule dna toh
b. Increase speed of product formation -CORRECT
c. Protein molecule conjugated proteins so correct
d. Catalysis affected by ph yupyup, others that affect are temp, enzyme
concentration, substrate concentration

14. The non protein organic portion of enzymes that acts as acceptor of functional
groups in a reaction is appropriately called
a. Holoenzyme complete active enzyme

b. Apoenzyme protein part

c. Coenzyme non protein part
d. Isoenzyme multiple forms of enzymes

15. Which of the following is the correct pair

of the cofactor and reaction,

participated in by the former?

a. Pyridoxal phosphate carboxylation
b. Tetrahydropholic acid transamination
c. NAD oxidation/reduction
d. Thiamine pyrophosphate methylation

16. In the calculation

of energy requirements, the most inconsistent

component is the:
a. Energy used for muscular work
b. Obligatory thermogenesis extra energy expenditure for physical acivity
c. Resting metabolic rate energy required in awake state
d. Thermic effect of food increased heat production following intake of food

17. Among the major peptides

that regulate food intake and energy

utilization, which is the only appetite stimulating?- last 2 pages of doc dakis handout
a. Ghrelin
b. Insulin
c. Leptin
d. PYY,aa

18. In the computati on of the desirable body weight in a Filipino adult. Using the modified

tanhausers method, which is essential?

a. Actual body weight
b. Height in cm basta height if tanhausers
c. Percent of body fat
d. Total energy allowance

19. According to the chemiosmotic

coupling hypothesis of peter

Mitchell, the driving force behind the formation of ATP thru oxidative phosphorylation
is the
a. Formation of high energy intermediate within the mitochondrial matrix
b. Proton gradient created between the intermembranous space and the mitochondrial
matrix page 7 of bioenergetics
c. Coupling of the exergonic reaction with an endergonic reaction
d. Direct transfer of high energy phosphate to ADP

20. Which of the following components of complexes of the electron

transport

chain is associated with a P/O ratio of 3/1 when the reducing equivalents are
channelled into it? Page 6 of bioenergetics
a. NADH-CoQ oxidoreductase
b. FMN-CoQ dehydrogenase
c. Cytochrome b-c oxidoreductase
d. Cytochrome aa3 oxidase

21. In the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6 P catalyzed by hexokinase in the
presence of magnesium ions, an increase in the production of glucose 6 P slows down
the activity of hexokinase. This is an example of what

enzyme activity?

type of control

a. Allosteric regulation binding to a different receptor to activate/deactivate a molecule

cascade
b. Covalent modification - irreversible
c. Non covalent modification - reversible
d. Negative feedback

22.Hormone synthesis is after cleavage of signal sequence of the precursor
peptide:get from pheobe
a. Glucagon
b. Epinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Vasopressin

23.Hormone which undergoes signal transduction after binding
to cell surface receptorfrom pheobe
a. Calcitonin
b. Calcitriol
c. Cortisol
d. Thyroxine

24. The form of estrogen

formed by peripheral conversion of androstenedione

especially in adipose tissues.

a. Estriol converted from estradiol and estrone by 16 hydroxylase
b. Estrone page 12 of steroid
c. Estradiol major form of estrogen in ovaries
d. E2 short for estradiol

25. The more

potent form of testosterone formed by the action of 5

alpha reductase
a. Androsterone mineralocorticoid of the most potent form
b. Androstenediol
c. Androstenedione - major androgen from zona reticularis
d. Dihydrotestosterone - page 10 of steroid hormones

26. The second

messengers generated through the mediation of alpha

adrenergic receptors same as physio

a. cAMP -
b. IP3 1,2 DAG
c. cGMP
d. 5AMP & 5GMP

27. Which enzyme

system is responsible for the majority of

the maltase activity in the intestinal tract? page 2 digestion and absorption of
carbs
a. Glucoamylase
b. Lactase
c. Sucrose-isomaltase
d. Trehalase

28. The most

important allosteric effector of

phosphofructokinase of EMP and fructose 1-6 bisphosphatase of
gluconeogenesis first page carb metab
a. ATP
b. Fructose 6 PO4

c. Frustose 2-6 bisPO4

d. Glucose 6 PO4
29. A mitochondrial

gluconeogenic enzyme, pyruvate

carboxylase, utilizes the following to carry out its reaction -----------------says biotin
sa handout...check
a. Biotin, AMP, CH3
b. Biocytin, ATP, HCO3
c. ATP, biopterin, CO3
d. ADP, CH2, folate

30. These two opposing pathways , namely glycogenolysis

and

glycogenesis, occur in what cellular compartment? review

a. Mitochondrion
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Cytosol

31.Key enzyme in protein digestion that activates the other digestive
enzymes of the pancreatic phase: page 3 of digestion of proteins
a. Chymotripsin
b. Elastase
c. Trypsin
d. Aminopeptidase

32. The most

common mechanism for removal of amino

group of an amino acid is via

a. Transamination first step of catabolism(except for lysine and threonine)

b. Oxidative deamination
c. Direct deamination
d. Dehydrative deamination

33. The major

disposal form of amino groups derived from amino acids

in humans is page 8 of amino acid metab

a. Ammonia
b. Urea
c. Uric acid
d. Ammonium ions

34. All of the following amino acids can serve as substrates

for

gluconeogenesis EXCEPT page 10 of amino acid metab(review ketogenic and

glucogenic)
a. Valine
b. Isoleucine
c. Leucine
d. Glycine

35.Action of pancreatic lipase on dietary lipids will produce which
of the following digestive products page 4 of lipid digestion
a. Cholesterol and 1 free fatty acid
b. Phophatidic acid and 1 free fatty acid
c. 1 free fatty acid and diacylglycerol
d. 2 free fatty acids and monoacyl glycerol


36. The end

product of complete degradation of palmitic acid

via beta oxidation page 3 and 4 of fatty acid metab(confirm with aly)
a. Malonyl CoA
b. Propionyl CoA
c. Acetoacetyl CoA
d. Acetyl CoA

37. Which condition correctly

describes lipid metabolism during

the fed state? Page 26 of fatty acid metab

a. cAMP-dependent phosphorylation of hormone sensitive lipase and perlipin of
adipose cells
b. increased levels of the key enzymes, fatty acid synthase and acetyl CoA carboxylase
c. activation of carnitine palmitoyl transferase 1 (CPT-1) in the mitochondria
d. increased mobilization and hydrolysis of triacylglycerols in the adipose tissue

38. the synthesis

of this intermediate in cholesterol

biosynthesis inhibited by statins as treatment of
hypercholesterolemia check...page 6 of cholesterol metab...mevalonic acid is a possible
answer
a. beta hydroxyl beta methylglutarylCoA
b. mevalonic acid
c. cholic acid
d. squalene

39. which of the following lipoproteins

is responsible for reverse

cholesterol transport and is beneficial in preventing atherosclerosis page 16

of chelosterol metab
a. chylomicrons
b. HDL
c. LDL
d. VLDL

40. An isoform

of PGH2 synthase involved in various

inflammatory reaction involving the joints: page 9 of eicosanoids

a. COX 1
b. COX 2
c. LOX
d. Cytochrome p450

41. Complete hydrolysis of 1

mole of phosphatidyllethalonamine would

yield the components: glycerol, fatty acid, phosphate and ethanolamine. In which of the
following molar reactions? See samplex of modifications of this question( 2nd shift quiz,
2nd shifting exam and other finals)
a. 1:1:2:1
b. 2:1:2:1
c. 1:1:1:1
d. 1:2:1:1

42. The nitric

oxide released by which of the following causes relaxation of smooth

muscle cells of blood vessels page 4 of nitric oxide metabolism

a. Leucocytes

b. Endothelial cells
c. RBCs
d. Post synaptic neuron

43. Which organ id dependent on fatty

acids as a primary fuel? Page 9 of

metabolic integration
a. Brain
b. Heart
c. Kidney
d. Liver

44. With an abundant blood supply of metabolic fuels after

a full meal, the

predominant hormonal influence at this time promotes: page 10 of

metabolic integration
a. Glycogenesis
b. Ketogenesis
c. Lipolysis
d. Protein degradation

45. The TCA

cycle is slowed down in chronic alchoholic

individuals primarily because of page 14 of metabolic integration

a. Acidosis from excessive lactate from glycolysis
b. A high NADH-NAD+ratio from ethanol metabolism
c. Excessive acetyl CoAfrom pyruvate dehydrogenase activity
d. Increased rate of HMP shunt producing high NADPH

46. Metabolic pathway providing NADPH

for RBC metabolism -

blood

generalities page 4
a. Embden-meyerhof pathway ATP and NADH
b. Rappoport leubering shunt 2 3 DPG
c. Hexose monophosphate shunt
d. Methemoglobin reductase pathway NADH from EMP

47. Protein separation based on molecular

mass lab notes/ chemistry

of amino acids handout

a. Salting method - solubility
b. Electrophoresis -charges
c. Size exclusion
d. Paper chromatography

48. Which of the following is NOT

a function of thrombin in the process of

homeostasis side notes on page 3 of blood coagulation

a. Activation of factor X
b. Platelet activation
c. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
d. Activation of factor V

49. Which statement pertains to the biological

function of
immunoglobulin M(IgM)-page 7 of immunoglobulins
a. Binds and fixes complement
b. Chief immunoglobulin in mucosal surfaces and secretions
c. Mediates allergic reactions by activation of mast cells

d. Provides passive immunity to the new born

50. Which region

in the immunoglobulin structure binds

antigens/ page 5 of immunoglobulins

a. Hinge - confers flexibility
b. Fo fragment - none, only a fc and fab region exits.
c. Complimentarity determining region
d. Carboxyl terminal region part of constant regions

51. Figure of immunoglobulin review figures in handout
a. IgE
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

52. One of the following is true

regarding iron absorption

a. Occurs predominantly in the stomach - duodenum

b. Need not be tightly regulated since there exits physiological pathways for its
excretion none, see page 2 under iron abosorption
c. At physiological ph, ferrous iron is rapidly oxidized to the insoluble ferric form
d. Fe+3 is better absorbed than the ferrous form ferrous better, ferric for transport

53. Which of the following steps is the final

step in heme synthesis which

incorporates ferrous iron into protoporphorin IIIto produce heme? Page 11 of iron and
heme metabolism
a. Ferrochalatase - occurs in mitochondria

b. ALA dehydrogenase
c. Uroporphyrinogen 1 synthase of HMB synthase
d. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase

54.Haemoglobin is a better O2 transporter than myoglobin
because:
a. Haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen
b. Haemoglobin binds to oxygen in a cooperative manner
c. The concentration of haemoglobin is higher than myoglobin within erythrocyte
d. Haemoglobin exists in either the T state or the R state

55. Principal transport

form of carbon dioxide in the blood. side notes

seen in page 5 of oxygen transport and storage

a. Carbaminohemoglobin
b. Bicarbonate
c. Carboxyhemoglobin
d. Dissolved CO2

56. True of the oxygen

haemoglobin dissociation curve page 5 of

oxygen transport and storage

a. Hyberbolic in shape
b. Shifts to the right when pCO2 decreases
c. Reflects the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen at various pO2
d. p50 value decreases as 2,3 DPG increases

57.changes in O2 affinity for haemoglobin brought about by changes

in hydrogen concentration page 3 of carbon dioxide transport
a. Haldane effect when O2 combines with Hb, it tends to reduce the Hb affinity for
CO2(rightward shift)
b. Isohydric shift Hgb can take up H+arising from CO2 without any change in H or ph
c. bohr effect
d. Chloride shift exchange of Hco3 and Cl

58. True of oxygen

metabolism page 3 of oxygen metabolism

a. Capable of accepting a total of two electrons

b. Hydrogen peroxide is considered an oxygen radical
c. Acceptance of the 5th electron completely reduces oxygen to H2O
d. Acceptance of the 3 electrons converts O2 to hydroxyl free radical

59. Which of the following reactive

oxygen species is considered to

be the most reactive in attacking biological molecules overemphasized by

doc bautista
a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Superoxide
c. Hydroxyl radical
d. Singlet Oxygen

60. The intermediate of glutamine

metabolism that is utilized by the

renal cells in generating the much needed energy in the form of ATP through Krebs
cycle page 5 of kassie wassie notes 2009
a. Alpha-ketoglutarate

b. Glutamate y-semialdehyde
c. Glutamate
d. Isocitrate

61. The source of energy

of the renal cells during times of starvation page 17,

urine and kidney metabolism

a. Fatty acids
b. Glucose
c. Lactate
d. Glutamine

62.Guanine is linked to the ribose sugar at ____________position
page 7 of chemistry of nucleic acids. Remember A&G is N9, C&T is N1
a. N1
b. N9
c. N6
d. N12

63. True about physical

properties of a nucleoside review doc ngs

handout on nucleic acids

a. Electronegative charge
b. Hydrophobic
c. Basic at ph 7
d. Absorb yellow light

64. Which of the following favors

the monomeric form of glutamine

PRPP-amidotransferase?-take note this is the regulated and commited
step, stated in actual ppt. Page 25
a. IMP-dimeric
b. PRPP
c. GMP-dimeric
d. AMP-dimeric

65. One of the following conditions will lead

to hyperurecemia and gout

page 41 or 42 of ppt
a. Low levels of PRPP synthetase dapat high levels
b. Low activity of PRPP amido-transferase dapat loss of feedback inhibition
c. High levels of HGPRTase should be low levels
d. Impaired uric acid excretion

66. Which of the following DOES

NOT HAPPEN during replication

review video
a. Separation of dsDNA to ssDNA in prepriming stage
b. RNA Pol catalyzing the synthesis of the RNA primer in the lagging strand
c. Elongation of the chain catalyzed by DNA pol III
d. DNA pol 1 for nick translation

67.True of eukaryotic cells
a. Gene expression is controlled at the level of transcription and translation review
video
b. Transcription and translation occur simultaneously
c. There are 3 release factors for the termination of translation

d. Leader sequences are found at the 5 end of mRNA

68.Transition, as a mechanism of mutation, is exemplified by a base
change from: it is the replacement of a purine to purie or pyrimidine to pyrimidine(a&g
purine, c&t-pyrimidines)
a. Adenine->cytosine
b. Adenine->guanine
c. Cytosine->guanine
d. Thymine->adenine

69. The most common consequence of excessive

exposure of DNA to UV

radiation is the formation of: page 8 of mutagenesis and DNA repair

a. Apyrimidinic sites
b. Dihydrouracil
c. Methylated cytosine
d. Thymine dimers

70. Which one of these genes is classified as a tumor

suppressor gene? Table

of page 7 of cancer handout.

a. Ras - oncogene
b. jun -oncogene
c. abl -oncogene
d. Rb

71. Formation of the Philadelphia chromosome in chronic

myelogenous

leukemia is caused by which of the following activation of proto-oncogenes in

table as well

a. Point mutation
b. Amplification
c. Gene translocation
d. Tumor gene suppression

72.PCR which temperature allows denaturing lab notes
a. 20-25 -none
b. 54-60 - annealing
c. 72-75 elongation
d. 90-95

73.Southern blot transfer is a specific hybridization method for:
a. DNA
b. DNA-protein southwestern
c. Protein western
d. RNA northern

74. DNA analysis can be used to initially determine at least how many male factors are
involved in a gang

rape of a female victim: - forensic biochem

a. Mitochondrial DNA basta females

b. Y chromosomes for males
c. X chromosomes females too
d. Autosomal nuclear chromosomes looking for origin

75. For the locus TPOX, and individual is HETEROZYGOUS with allele tandem
repeats of 13, 15 and with frequencies of 1, 0.33 to compute the probability based on
HARDY Weinberg Equilibrium, the formula is:
a. PP homo dominant
b. qq homo recessive
c. 2Pq
d. QRS-none

76.Inborn errors of metabolism are a result from first page of IEM.
Correction in test
a. Deficiency of substrate - no
b. Accumulation of products no
c. Inhibition of secondary pathways yes
d. Accumulation of co factors - no

77.Treatment modalities for decreasing substrate
availability in IEM include: mentioned in lecture
a. Modification of diet
b. Co factor supplementation
c. Gene therapy
d. Increased disposal of toxic metabolites

78. Which of the following is responsible for the increased

amount of

cytochrome p450 at 450nm? Page 3 side notes

a. Phosphatidyl choline
b. Iron

c. Adrenotoxin
d. NADPH

79. The major

reaction in phase 1 of xenobiotics metabolismpage 2 xenobiotics

a. Sulfation
b. Hydroxylation
c. Methylation
d. Acetylation

80. In the synthesis of collagen

fibers, the chain alignment in bundles of three; and

the formation of disulfide bonds between cysteine residues in extension peptides occur
in the? Page 10, biochemistry of connective tissue
a. Mitochondria
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Vacuoles
d. Golgi sac

81.William Beuren disease is associated with this: page 6 of biochem of
connective tissue
a. Keratin defects
b. Deletion of the elastin gene
c. Defective procollagen peptidase
d. Decrease levels of procollagen

82. The brain:-over emphasized

a. Rich in GABA an excitatory neuron

b. Utilizes fatty acids and amino acids as alternative sources of fuel
c. Consume 80% of glucose at rest
d. Requires constant supply of glucose for energy

83. The most

widespread neurotransmitter in the body from

lecture
a. Acetylcholine
b. Glutamate
c. Dopamine
d. Aspartate

84. Which accessory

protein promotes muscle contraction?

Review of physio
a. Titin
b. Troponin C
c. Calsequestrin
d. Tropomyosin

85. Which of the following is true

of osteoblasts?page 3 of bone metabolism

a. Mononuclear cells derived from pluripotent mesenchymal precursors

b. Stimulate osteoclast resorptive activity
c. Responsible for the deposition of osteoid and its subsequent demineralization
d. Mature or differentiated form of osteocytes controlling mineralization

86. The calcium binding

proteins that help in the deactivation of

phototransduction
a. GAP, arrestin
b. GAP, recoverin
c. GCAP, recoverin
d. Arrestin, recoverin

87. In the olfactory

signal transduction, the odorant is page 2

of olfaction handout
a. A volatile chemical compound carried by inhaled air to the olfactory epithelium
b. A protein found in the mucus layers that binds volatile compounds
c. A G coupled protein receptor involved in odorant perception
d. The chemical in direct contact with the taste buds of the tongue

88. Which of the following is/are the taste receptors of the taste

bitter page 5 of

taste
a. T2R
b. T1R1 and T1R3
c. T1R2 and T1R3
d. PKD2L1

89. The type

of lectin that is expressed by both platelets and endothelial cells

involved in the process of extravasation or diapedesis of white blood cells ???????

a. E selectins
b. P selectins
c. L selectins

d. CD23 (low affinity IgE receptor)

90.Werners syndrome, a premature again syndrome is brought about by
mutation in:page 6 biochemistry of aging
a. SOD gene
b. Lamin gene
c. WRN gene
d. Bcl gene

91. The oxidative

stress brought about by free radicals, which

contribute to the overall effects of aging, the following is an example of free oxygen
radical review of doc bautistas lecture
a. Superoxide dismutase
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Catalase
d. Peroxidise

92. Which nutritional advice is correct

about dietary fiber intake?-

overemphasized
a. A daily intake of 40 grams is recommended
b. A high fiber intake should be accompanied by sufficient fluid intake
c. Cellulose and hemicellulose are better preffered than pectins and mucilages
d. Soluble fiber should be emphasized over the insoluble form

93. To maintain optimum health in a Filipino adult, which proportions of carb-protien-

fat is advisable? overemphasized

a. 50-25-25

b. 60-15-25
c. 70-10-20
d. 80-10-10

94. Which of the following is NOT

a chemical component of ascorbic

acid?page 8-9 of vitamins and minerals

a. Stable in the dry form
b. Stable in alkali and acid
c. Easily oxidized in solution
d. Easily oxidized when exposed to heat

95. Cardinal sign

of kwashiorkor, in the absence of which such a diagnosis

cannot be made overemphasized

a. Flag sign
b. Edema
c. Moon facies
d. Potbelly

96. Most common cause

of goiter in the Philippines- general

a. Iron deficiency
b. Vitamin a deficiency
c. Iodine deficiency
d. Undernutrition

97. Which experiment separated substances based

on their relative

affinities to two phases, stationary and mobile lab notes

a. Lipid profile
b. Vitamin c saturation test
c. Amino acid titration
d. Paper chromatography

98. Which laboratory procedure tested the behaviour

of ampholitic
electrolytes (ampholytes), such as amino acids, in the
presence of varying concentrations of acid (HCI) and base (NaOH)? lab notes
a. Centrifugation
b. Immunoassay
c. Titration
d. Precipitation

99. This laboratory experiment involved the reproduction

of several copies

of DNA in a controlled environment consisting of cycles of 3 working temperatures,

94, 60, and 72 lab notes
a.

ELISA

b. SEC
c. PCR
d. PAGE
100.This dye is used

in the laboratory to visualize the DNA

fragments on the Agarose gel electrophoretogram - lab
notes
a. Ethidium bromide
b. 2,6 dichlorophenol-indophenol
c. Fast blast stain
d. May grumwald giemsa stain