Reviewer Psoac Revised

REVIEWER COMPRE PSOAC CLASS 135
(POSSIBLE QUESTIONER)
1. What is Clash or competition?

a. Misunderstanding c. Understanding b. Conflict
2. _____________ is Conflict with myself
a. Interpersonal b. International c. Intrapersonal
3. - The discord that arises when the goals, interests, or values of different individuals or
groups are incompatible & those individuals or groups block or thwart one anothers
attempts to achieve their objectives and / or Conflict with another person/ organizational
policies is called __________.
a. Organizational conflict b. National Conflict c. Self-Conflict
4. Conflict is healthy where it cases the parties
d. All of the above
5. Conflict resolution style/ threats and violence
a. Competing b. Compromising
c. Avoidance d. Accommodating
6. Command as a conflict resolution style
d. All of the above
7. Command responsibility individual neglects ones concern
a. Accommodatingc. Competing
b. Avoidance d. Accommodating
8. Power oriented people or individual pursues own concern at the persons
Experience use of
a. Competinga. Competing
b. Compromising
c. Avoidance
d. Accommodating
9. Splits differences middle ground position
a. Competing
b. Compromising
c. Avoidance
d. Accommodating
10. Important CR skill
d. Periodically checking understanding
1. Basic requirement police intervention
a. Ambulance d. Marked Vehicle c. Armored van
2. No longer allowed
a. Warning shotc. Shoot to kill d. Over power
3. Physical/ Medical exam
a. Before the arrest d. Immediately after arrest c. After filing the case
4. 2 most important documents after service of Search Warrant
d. Receipt of Property Seized (RPS)& Certificate of Orderly Search (OS)
5. Warrantless Search/ citizens arrest revised
c. Sec 5 no. 113 Rules of Court /
6. Arrested person delivered to proper justice
d. 12-18-36 hour rule
7. Validity of search warrant
b. 10 days
8. Warrant of arrest executed
b. 10 days
9. After executed or such report to judge
b. 10
10. Considered as valid warrantless search
d. All of the above
1. Legal basis in raid operation
d. All of the above
2. Specific duties perimeter security
c. Prevent escape of criminals
3. Art of blending periods to RAID
d. Volume of activities in neighborhood
4. Safest method of identifying members
b. Use of color coded handkerchiefs tied to their heads
5. Door is a reference point imaginary in taking photo

a. 12 oclock
6. Search method could not stand alone to be supplemented
b. Zone/Quadrant/
7. Things to be considered considering the search methods to be applied
a. Area to be searched if subject of the search
8. Last question to be asked often the briefing
d. Whether or not he knows his specific duties by repeating them.
9. Best way of accounting move out/ withdrawal
d. Assigning them to ride in specific vehicles in moving out
10. Members of raiding team who were selected
d. Searchers and Search Supervisor
1. What is CNN stand for?
c. CPP NPA NDF
2. What is PPW stands for?
d. Protracted Peoples War
3. Protraction means
d. All of the above
4. Balance of forcesin favor of the government
a. Strategic defensive
5. NPA attained parity in balance forces; government forces result in acute shortage
b. Strategic Stalemate
6. Balance of forces in favor of the NPA as against government forces
c. Strategic offensive
7. 3 defense system - knowing the enemy and identifying potential target
a. Intelligence
8. Important part of the PNP in 3 defense system;
b. Target hardening
9. Mitigating the effects of destructive terrorists
c. Incident management
10. General inspirations and motives of terrorists
a. Psychological motivation
b. Rational
. Cultural
1. It consists of a special reason or personal reasons which may prompt or induce a
person perform an act constituting a crime.
A) Criminal Intent
B) Negligence
C) Intent
D) Motive
2. When talk about a cause which, in natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by
any efficient intervening cause, produces the injury and without which. The result would
not have occurred, you are referring to:
A) Natural cause
B) Rational cause
C) Proximate cause
D) Cause of Action
3. An honest mistake of fact that destroys the presumptions of criminal intent which
arises upon the commission of felonies act is:
A) Mistake of Identity
B) Mistake in Bow
C) Mistake of Fact
E) None of the above
4. On light felonies, what is punishable is consummated crime
A) True
B) False
C) It Depends
5. Feeble minded person is like an imbecile person and exempt from criminality liability
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
6. Under Sec. 4 of Art. 12 (RPC), by performing a lawful act, with due care, though it
causes injury to another by mere accident, without fault or intention of causing it.
A.) Exempting
B.) Mitigating
C.) Alternative
D.) Justifying
E.) None of the Above
7. An offender can invoke irresistible force as exempting circumstances brought about
by his nervous breakdown
A.) True
B.) False
C.) It depends
8. In order one can invoke vindication of a grave offense as mitigating circumstance, it
must be done immediately from insult to vindication
A) True
B) False
C) It Depends
9. During arraignment, the accused pleaded not guilty and during preliminary
conference, he changed his plea to a plea of guilt, is it within the province of mitigating
circumstances
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
10. When you talk about aggravating circumstances that can generally apply to all
crimes, you mean
A) Specific
B) Qualifying
C) Inherent
D) Generic
11. In treachery, can you treat night-time as a separate and distinct aggravating
circumstance in the commission of an offense?
A) Yes
B) No
C) IT depends
12. When you talk about any devise to conceal the identity of the offender in the
commission of the offense, you mean
A) Insidious machination
B) Cuddling of criminal
C) Disguise
D) Fraudulent act
13. In crimes against persons, it is always aggravating in the alternative circumstances
when you talk about relationship
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
14. In alternative circumstances, intoxication is aggravating when it is not habitual and

subsequent thereto is the commission of an offense
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
15. When you say Conspiracy and Proposal to commit a crime is it punishable under
the law?
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
16. When an agent of a person in authority comes to the rescue of a person in authority
who is being attacked, the offender is liable for
A) Direct Assault
B) Indirect assault
C) It depends
17. Illegal detention is a crime against the fundamental law of the state, whereas;
arbitrary detention is a crime against personal liberty
A) True
B) False
C) None of the above
18. A person is detained when he is placed in confinement or there is restraint on his
person is
A) Kidnapping
B) Serious illegal detention
C) Detention
D) None of the above
19. When you say allegiance, it is an obligation of fidelity and obedience of permanent
status to the government
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
20. Can treason be committed thru culpa?
A) Yes
B) No
C) It depends
21. When the act of more than three persons who are present is tumultuous and the
ultimate object is a violation of public peace, you mean
A) Rebellion
B) Treason
C) Insurrection
D) Sedition
22. A father who facilitated sexual intercourse of his young daughter who is a prostitute
with a man for money, the father cannot be held liable for rape when a case is filed by
wife assisting their daughter
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
23. When the objective is to overthrow and supersede the existing government and to
prevent exercise of governmental authority with respect to particular matters or
subjects, it is
A) Rebellion B) Insurrection C) Treason D) Sedition
24. In sedition, if there are other crimes committed, it is

A) Absorbed
B) Separate crime
C) Complex crime
D) Special Complex Crime
25. In a crime of robbery, when there is homicide as well as attempted homicide or
attempted murder committed during or on the occasion of robbery, the latter offenses
are absorbed and it is
A) Separate crime
B) Complex crime
C) Special complex crime
D) None of the above
26. Any human conduct which, although not productive of some physical or material
harm, but unjustly annoy innocent person
A) Grave coercion
B) Unjust vexation
C) Grave threat
D) Intimidation
27. The essence of the crime of Grave Threat is
A) Violence
B) Threatening
C) Intimidation
D) All of the above
28. When you say abortion the fetus must be removed/extracted from mothers womb in
its early stage of pregnancy
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
29. The death of a person brought about by a lawful act performed with proper care and
skill without homicidal intent is
A) Justifying act
B) Exempting Act
C) Accidental homicide
D) Crime under culpa
30. When you say that a crime against property which has no attempted or frustrated
stage in its commission, you mean
A) Direct Bribery
B) Indirect Bribery
C) Arson
D) All of the above
31. Deposition taking is allowed by way of:
A) Oral Motion B) Written Motion C) Extreme ExigencyD) None of the above
E) All of the above
32. As a rule and in all aspect of relationship between husband and wife, privilege
communication exists
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
33. In all aspects of civil cases, privilege communication exists between doctor and
patient
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
34. In dying declaration, can it be done in any form and it will be admissible as evidence
in court
A) Yes
B) No
C) It depends
35. If a declaration cannot be admitted as dying declaration, can it be admitted as
statement as part of res gestae
A) Yes
B) No
C) It depends
36. When there is extrinsic/intrinsic ambiguity to the terms of a contract, you have to
introduce
A) Real Evidence
B) Best Evidence
C) Parol Evidence
D) Judicial Evidence
37. In all situations, privilege communication exists
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
38. In parol evidence, it is limited to the parties to the contract or writing only
A) True
B) False
C) It depends
39. When a person joined a group of lawyers and confided his legal problem to them
and even sought their legal opinion, is it within the ambit of privilege communications?
A) Yes
B) No
C) It depends
40. When you say ascertaining in judicial proceedings the truth respecting a matter
and/or means to establish or disprove a case, you mean
A) Evidence
B) Testimony
C) Proof
D) Probable Cause
E) Prima Facie Evidence
41. When it has no direct bearing on the particular fact sough to be established and/or it
tends to establish a fact by proving another fact, you mean
A) Judicial Evidence
B) Real Evidence
C) Physical Evidence
D) Circumstantial Evidence
42. When a person lost consciousness when an event she saw is happening and
thereafter, regained consciousness and a statement was made as to the happening of
the event, can it be admitted as a part of res gestae
A) Yes
B) No
C) It depends
43. It is the existing of facts that endanger a well-grounded belief that an offense has
been committed and that the respondent is probably guilty thereof, is called
A) Judicial Evidence
B) Proximate Cause
C) Prima Facie Evidence

D) Probable Cause
44. When you say that it is the degree and quality of evidence that can establish a fact
you mean
A) Quantum of evidence
B) Degree of testimony
C) Causal connection of evidence
D) All of the above
45. It applies in all kind of writing when the said writing is in issue
A) Documentary Evidence
B) Circumstantial Evidence
C) Parol Evidence
D) Best Evidence
46. Disaster preparedness and control plans should include _____ so that people who
are directly involved should know the extent of the incident.
a Evacuation service
c. Identification service
b Public information service d. Counseling
47. Refers to the situational conditions that may induce incident calling for some kind of
police action.
c Police hazard c. Stress
d Police attraction
d. Police risk
48. It is the imaginative contemplation of reality, direct intellectual apprehension, insight
or body generation and principles developed in association with the practice in a
certain field of activity.
a Assessment
c. Theory
b Conclusion
d. Finding
48. This type of police service, the police officer must keep in mind what he is driving is
different from driving his personal vehicle on emergency calls. He must anticipate
the possible danger to both his vehicle and to the person that he is attending to.
e Emergency call for service c. Escorts
f Courtesy calls
d. Courtesy service
49. This type of courtesy service by the police is usually done by assisting citizens or by
giving them their desired information.
g Assisting other agencies
c. Courtesy service
h General information
d. Public service
49. When service is provided by patrol officer and uses his tact and diplomacy in solving
domestic problem, refers to.
i Courtesy service
c. Routine call for service
j General service
d. Assisting other agencies
50. The prescriptive period for the prosecution of qualified trafficking (a. 5 years b. 10
years c. 15 d. 20) years
51. Which of the following is true?
k Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police personnel
l Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increase or promotion
m Performance evaluations done once a year among police personnel
n Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of
work performance of personnel.
52. It is a general statement of intention and typically with time horizon:
a Objective
c. Strategy
b Tactic
d. Goal
53. It is a specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a specific period of

time:
a Objectiveb. tactics c. Strategy d. goal
54. It is the ongoing process which ensures that new risks are recognized and that
established deterrents remain necessary and cost-effective
a Inspection
c. Risk analysis
b Interrogation
d. evaluation
55. It is the pretense of solid evidence against, the accused or looking for the weakest
link among the suspects and will be told that his companions had already
confessed.
a Stern approach c. Sweet and Sour
b Trick and buffs d. A and C is correct
56. Involves segregation of deviant into isolated geographical area so that they can
easily be controlled.
o Coercion c. Convention
p Quarantine d. Containment
59. P02 Juan Dela Cruz, frequents clubs, places of amusements and entertainment
known to be habitually visited by subjects associates. P02 Dela Cruz undercover
assignment is called;
a Multiple assignment
c. Work assignment
b Social assignment
d. Dwelling assignment
60. The neighborhood team policing exhibit the following organization features,
EXCEPT:
a Unified delivery of service
b Low-level flexibility in decision making
c Combined investigation and patrol functions
d Unity of direction
62. This type of police field operations objective is locally referred to as the community
oriented system or COPS.
q Participative law enforcement
r Police community relation
s Police integrated patrol system
t Team policing
63. What is the next planning step after the need to plan is recognized?
a Evaluate alternatives
b Gather and analyze date
c Formulate objectives
d execute the plan
64. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in
proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
u information, interrogation, instrumentation
v detection, apprehension, conviction
w inquiry, observation, conclusion
x magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
65. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who
knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
y interrogation
c. rumor mongering
z Interview
d. inquiry
67. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more
persons.
aa fatal
c. chronic
ab non-fatal
d. injurious
68. It is the means how black market work by tricking victim through email, and social
media, such as face book, You tube, My space, Twitter, etc..
ac Malware spreadc. Create malware
ad Cyber spread
d. Computer tricks
69. The immediate arrival of police officer at the crime scene or accident is imperative in
the apprehension of criminals or the protection of life is what element of police
communication.
a. Speed
c. Accuracy
b. Security
d. accessibility
70. This is a broaddesign, method; a plan to attain a stated goal or objective
a Objective
c. Strategy
b Tactic
d. Goal
71. It is a specific design, method; a plan to attain a stated goal or objective:
a Objective
c. Strategy
b Tactic
d. Goal
72. The establishment of check/choke point operation, the team shall compose of
______ personnel, such as team leader, spotter, profiler, verifier and security.
ae 7
c. 8
af 5
d. 12
73. What is the next planning step after the need to plan is recognized?
e Evaluate alternatives
f Gather and analyze date
g Formulate objectives
h execute the plan
74. The quad concept of police operation are, EXCEPT.
a Intelligence
c. Operation
b Investigation
d. Traffic Direction and Control
75. Basic requirement of police intervention are, EXCEPT.
ag Police vehicle
ah Preferably lead by a commission officer
ai In proper uniform
aj One deputized traffic law enforcer
76. P02 Juan Dela Cruz, frequents clubs, places of amusements and entertainment
known to be habitually visited by subjects associates. P02 Dela Cruz undercover
assignment is called;
c Multiple assignment
c. Work assignment
d Social assignment
d. Dwelling assignment
77. The neighborhood team policing exhibit the following organization features,
EXCEPT:
e Unified delivery of service
f Low-level flexibility in decision making
g Combined investigation and patrol functions
h Unity of direction
78. A steady post indicates
a Public distrust
b Officers inefficiency
c. Public acceptance
d. Officer task
79. Opportunities for favoritism are ______ because of transitory police assignments.
a Increased
c. Lessened
b Affected
d. Burden
80. Rotation______ the officers experience in handling varied emergencies
a Restricts
c. Expands
b Does not affect d. Affect
81. What is the most common advantage associated with the used of cars as patrol
vehicle.
ak Maneuverability c. Flexibility
al Mobility
d. agility
82. The patrol officer contributes directly to crime prevention and law enforcement. He
has also added responsibilities, like;
a Caring for injured persons
b Caring for the sick
c Caring for the lost
d All of the above
83. Distribution or deployment of patrol forcer that in a manner would equalize or
minimized the duration of assistance in the call of police service?
amReponses time distance
an Geographical problem
ao Area of responsibility
ap Crime reporting
84. Refers to the situational conditions that may induce incident calling for some kind of
police action.
aq Police hazard
c. Stress
ar Police attraction
d. Police risk
85. The first step in the planning process is to recognize the need to plan. Which of the
following is not a way of discovering the need to plan?
as Conduct search
at Conduct of training
au Conduct of management audit
av Conduct of inspection
86. The first and most important mission of the Police Officer?
a Crime Investigation
b Crime Prevention and Suppression
c Law Enforcement
d Maintenance and Social Order
87. Patrol officer are the public symbols of their department, hence those who perform
in a slovenly or ineffective manner.
a Appear inattentive to duty
b Disregard their appearance
c Speak discourteously or disrespect to any
d All the above
88. ____________________________ - Process of locating, identifying, and gathering
preliminary data on person/s who has potential value to the current operations or those
that may take at a later date.
a) Spotting
b) Information
c) Intelligence
d) Finished Intelligence
89. ____________________________ - is raw data from any source, data that may be
fragmentary, contradictory, unreliable, ambiguous, deceptive, or wrong.
a) Spotting
b) Information
c) Intelligence
90. ______________________________ - Information that has been collected,
integrated, evaluated, analyzed, and interpreted.
a) Spotting
b) Information
c) Intelligence
91. _______________________________ - is the final product of the intelligence Cycle

ready to be delivered to the policymaker.
a) Spotting
b) Information
c) Intelligence
92. ______________________________ - it the process of developing raw information
into finished intelligence for consumers, including policymakers, law enforcement
executives, investigators, and patrol officers. Used for decision making and action.
a) Intelligence Cycle
b) Strategic Intelligence
c) Line Intelligence
d) National Intelligence
93. _____________________________ - the intelligence information which primary
long range in natural with little practical immediate operation value.
94. ____________________________ - which is of an immediate nature and necessary
for more effective police planning and operation.
95. ___________________________ - it is the integrated product of intelligence
developed by all governmental branches, department concerning the broad aspect of
national security and policy.
a) Intelligence
b) Line Intelligence
96. ___________________________ - Phase of Intel covering the activity devoted in
destroying the effectiveness of hostile activities and to the protection of info against
espionage, subversion and sabotage.
a) Counter-Intelligence
b) Undercover work
97______________________________ - is an investigation process in which disguises
and pre-text cover and deception are used to gain the confidence of criminal suspects
for the purpose of determining the nature and extent of any criminal activities that
maybe contemplating or perpetuating
a) Counter-Intelligence
b) Undercover work
98. How many days shall all public officials and employees respond to letters and other
means of communications sent by the public?
a) 15 calendar days
b) 15 working days
c) 30 calendar days
d) 30 working days
99. Which of the following is not a doctrine of Administrative Law?
a) Doctrine of qualified Political Agency
b) Doctrine of Exhaustion of Administrative Remedies
c) Doctrine of Dependent Relevant Revocation;
d) Doctrine of Necessary Implication.
100. Permanent personnel of the government can be suspended or dismissed?
a) After termination
b) After a preventive suspension
c) After an Administrative Investigation
d) After and inquiry
101. Which of the following public official can exercise the Doctrine of Augmentation?
a) Presiding Justice of the Sandiganbayan
b) Solicitor General
c) COA Chairman
d) Senate Minority Floor Leader
102. A Doctrine or principle of law may be modified or reverse by
a) The Supreme Court
b) The Regional Trial court
c) The Senate
d) The House of the Representatives
103. The Civil Service shall be administered by the Civil Service Commission composed
a) Chairman and Commissioner
b) Chairman and two (2) Commissioners
c) Chairman and three (3) Commissioners
d) Chairman and four (4) Commissioners
104. State who among the officials listed below shall be appointed by the President and
whose appointment shall require confirmation by the Commission on Appointments:
a) Commissioner of Internal Revenue
b) Associate Justice of the Supreme Court
c) Chairman of the NLRC
d) Executive Secretary
105. The Principle of non-delegation of powers presupposes that a delegated power
cannot be further delegated:
a) The principle of non-delegation of powers applies to the Legislative
Department only
b) The principle of non-delegation of powers applies to the Executive Department
only:
c) The Principle of non-delegation or powers accepts certain well-defined
exceptions;
d) The principle of non-delegation of powers is very rigid.
106. Which of the following violates the judiciarys fiscal autonomy?
a) An item in the 2011 General Appointments Act allowing P13.5B to the
Judiciary, the same as last ears allocation but 50% less that the Supreme
Courts proposal
b) A letter of the DBM Secretary to the Chief of the Finance Management and
Budget
Office of the Supreme Court requesting for data of the Judiciary Discretionary
Funds
from 2005 to the present.
c) The President veto, based on the need to rationalized public sector
compensation of the items in the 2011 General Appointments Act allocating
P900M as a supplemental fund for retired members of the judiciary following
a Supreme Court decision.
d) A Commission on Audit (COA) Circular requiring offices to submit postprocurement report at the end of each fiscal year.
107. A determination or decision of an administrative agency can normally be enforced
only pursuant to the provision of a statue in the absence of such statutory provision.
a) The Agency will simply petition the court to issue writ of execution
b) It is implied that the agency can promulgate the rules for enforcing its order
c) A party favoured by the agencys order may file a case in court for
recognition and enforcement
d) The order cannot be enforce and its merely advisory.
108. Administrative remedies should be exhausted before sorting to courts if?
a) A Student was dismissed from school for showing in the website
pornographic pictures
b) The validity of the regulations adopted by the Legal Education Board
providing for the closure of a law school it for 5 consecutive years none of its
graduates passes the bar examination.
c) The COMELEC created a committee to evaluate bids for the

computerization of elections
d) An employee in the civil service is requesting the validity of his transfer.
109. When the court steps in to review, or even reverse administrative acts even the
President, this means that:
a) The Executive must bow down to the judicial branch
b) It merely wants to uphold the majesty of the law
c) The President is not immune from suit
d) Public Administration as a new field is very complex
110. A Law was passes granting a government official the authority to issue and
promulgate temporary rules and emergency measures whenever for any cause,
conditions arise resulting in extraordinary rise in the price of palay, rice or corn. How will
you evaluate this rule?
a) It constitutes an invalid delegation of Legislative power for failing to satisfy
the sufficient test for valid delegation to implement legislation;
b) Congress cannot legislate on so wide and vast area as this;
c) It fails to conform to the completeness test to render the legislative
delegation valid;
d) The Legislation suffers from constitutional infirmity being violative of the
equal protection clause.
111. Which agency is under the general supervision of the President of the Philippines?
a) The Department of Science and Technology (DOST)
b) The Philippine National Police (PNP)
c) The Office of the Undersecretary of Education (Dep-Ed);
d) The Autonomous Regional of Mindanao (ARMM)
112. The Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) invoking its quasi-judicial function
may conduct investigation of registered professionals even without a complaint from a
third party.
a) Yes, because the PRC has a right to protect the public from
professionals who are engaged in malpractice;
b) Yes, PRC may do so to support the call of the President for good
governance;
c) No, PRC cannot be a prosecutor and also become the final arbiter of
erring Professionals;
d) No, PRC must not only conduct investigation when there is a complaint by
a third party.
113. Congressman Douglas: Tiger: Hagedorn authored a bill called House Bill No. 0001
which legalizes jueteng. When House Bill No. 0001became a law (RA No. 10101). Fr
Joaquin Bernas, a priest and a professor of law, filed a petition seeking for the
nullification of RA No. 10101 on the ground that it is unconstitutional as it violates
Section 13, Article ll, of the 1987 Constitution which states that The State recognizes
the vital role of the youth in nation-building and shall promote and protect their physical ,
moral, spiritual, intellectual, and social well-being. FrBernas filed the petition as a
concerned citizen and a s a taxpayer. Does FrBernas have locus standi?
a) Yes, because the issue is of transcendental importance:

b) Yes, because as a priest, FrBernas has a special interest in the well-being of
the youth;
c) No, the law concerns neither citizenship nor expenditure of public funds:
d) No, because FrBernas has no personal and substantial interest that will be
prejudiced by the implementation of the law:
114. State which administrative regulation need not be published:
a) Interpretative regulation
b) Legislative regulation
c) Contingent regulation;
d) Supplemental regulation
115. Which of the position below does not belong to the non-career service?
a) Primary confidential
b) Highly technical position
c) Elective Officials
d) Contractual employees
116. The law on NEPOTISM is directed against
a) Midnight appointment
b) Appointment of relatives
c) Appointments made for the purpose of buying votes:
d) Ad-interim appointments
117. What is the mandatory retirement age of judges, justices of the collegiate courts
and the Supreme Courts?
a) 60 years of age
b) 65 years of age
c) 70 years of age
d) 75 years of age
118. Is a political subdivision of the state which is constituted by law and possessed of
substantial control over its own affairs, remaining to be an intra-sovereign subdivision of
one sovereign nation, but not intended, however, to be an imperium in imperio.
a) Municipality
b) Independent Component City
c) Local Government Unit
d) Sub-province
119. Refers to the administrative autonomy of local government units.
a) Fiscal Autonomy
b) Local Autonomy
c) Autonomous Region
d) Federalism
200. The Chief Purpose of a municipal corporation is to:
a) Perform municipal functions and render municipal services except where
expressly provided by law
b) Serve as a trustee for its inhabitants whether singly or collectively
c) Serve the inhabitants of the State residing in a locality as an agency
of the state
d) Regulate and administer the local and internal affairs of a particular
community
201. A municipality corporation is a political division of the Sate. It can also be best
described as:
a) A miniature state
b) An imperium et imperio
c) A publicly owned and controlled corporation
d) An instrumentality of the state
202. Decentralization simply means:
a) Fiscal and local autonomy
b) The devolution of national administration to local governments
c) An abdication of political power to local governments units
d) Delegation of powers to local government units for their political,
social and economic development.
203. Decentralization of administration means:
a) An abdication of political power in favour of local governments units
declared to be autonomous
b) A local government units is free to chart its own destiny with minimum
supervision from central autonomous
c) The central government delegates powers to the local government

unit to broaden the base of government power
d) The president has only general supervision of local government units but
has no control of their acts.
204. It the president National Red Cross a public corporation?
a) Yes, because it performs a function for the public good.
b) Yes, because it has its own charter
c) No, because it is a non-profit, voluntary and humanitarian
organization
d) No, it is rather an autonomous, neutral and independent body for public
good and welfare.
205. Local water districts are classified as:
a) Government owned or controlled corporations.
b) Private corporation
c) Public corporation
d) Quasi-public corporation
206. Congress may delegate to the President the creation of local government units.
a) Yes, because this is within the power of Congress to do so
b) Yes, because this is an indication of progress on the part of the local
government concerned.
c) No, because the power to create local government units is lodged
exclusively in Congress.
d) No, because this is a violation of the principle of separation of powers.
207. The local creation and existence of Municipal Corporation can only be directly
attacked through an action for:
a) Declaration Relief
b) Quo Warranto
c) Declaration of nullity of creation
d) Injunction
208. For a highly urbanized city to be created, it must an annual income of at least:
a) 50 Million pesos based on 1991 constant prices
b) 20 Million pesos based on 1991 constant prices
c) 25 Million pesos based on 1991 constant prices
d) 100 Million pesos
209. The creation of autonomous regions is made to dependent:
a) The total majority vote in the plebiscite:
b) The majority vote of the constituent unit or units affected.
c) The double majority of the constituent units and the voters
d) 2/3 votes of all registered voters in all the units affected.
210. For a province to be classified as first class, it must have an annual income of
____ pesos or more :
a) 450 Million or more
b) 360 Million to less that 450 Million
c) 270 Million to less than 360 Million
d) 180 Million to less than 270 million
211. For a province to be classified as second class, it must have an annual income of
______ pesos.
a) 450 Million or more
b) 360 million to less than 450 million
c) 270 Million to less than 360 million
d) 180 Million to less than 180 million
212. The authority of a Municipality issue zoning classification is an exercise of its;
a) Legislative power
b) Police power
c) Power of Eminent Domain
d) Local Autonomy
213. A Local government unit, public place, street or structure may change its name not
oftener than _______ years;
a) Once every five (5) years

b) Once every ten (10) years
c) Twice every eight (8) years
d) Once every eight (8) years
214. Police power is chiefly based on:
a) The law of overwhelming necessity
b) The great public needs
c) Saluspopuliestsupremalex
d) The social compact theory
215. Which of the following is not also an exercise of police power?
a) Enactment of the Anti-Graft Law
b) Enactment of BP 22 (The Bouncing check law)
c) Saturation drive against suspected criminals in a locality
d) Prohibition on certain forms of election propaganda
216. The power to regulate the operation of tricycles is lodged in the;
a) Department of Transportation and Communication (DOTC)
b) Land Transportation Office (LTO)
c) Land Transportation Franchising Regulatory Board (LTFRB)
d) Local Government Unit.
217. The permanent closure of a road must be approved by at least ____ votes of all
members of the sanggunian.
a) Majority
b) Three fourths (3/4)
c) Two third (2/3)
d) One third (1/3)
218. Author of a copyrighted book shall be protected during the life and (a. 50 b. 25 c.
15 d. none of the above) years after his death.
219. Which of the following does not constitute infringement of copyright: ( a. Recitation
or performance of a work if done strictly for a charitable or religious institution b.
making of quotations from a communication to the public by mass media of articles on
current political, social, economic, scientific or religious topic, lectures, addresses and
other works of the same nature, which are delivered in public if such use is for
information purposes and has not been expressly reserved d. none of the above)
220. Any technical solution to an issue of any problems which is new, involves an
inventive step, a product, or process, or an improvement of any activity of human (a.
copy right b. patentable inventions c. patent d. service mark)
221. Which of the following can be patented: (a. Discoveries, scientific theories and
mathematical methods b. Methods for treatment of the human or animal body by
surgery or therapy and diagnostic methods practiced on the human or animal body c.
Aesthetic creations; and
d. none of the above)
222. Any visible sign capable of distinguishing the goods or services of an enterprise
and shall include a stamped or marked container of goods (a. patent b. copy right c.
trade mark d. trade name)
223. Starbucks, Mocha Blends and BOs Coffee (a. service mark b. patent c. copy right
d. trade name)
224. The rights shall to the exclusive right to carry out, authorize or prevent anyone from
reproduction of a work (a. trade name b. patent c. copy right d. service mark)
225. In the case of work created by an author during employment but the creation of the
object of copyright is not a part of his regular duties despite using the time, facilities and
materials of the employer, the owner of the work and copy right belongs to (a. creator b.
employee c employer d. corporation).
226. In the case of a work commissioned by a person other than an employer of the
author and who pays for it and the work is made in pursuance of the commission the
owner of the work is (a. person who so commissioned the work b. creator c.
employee d. none of the above)
227. In case of published photographic works, the protection shall be (a. 50 b. 25 c. 15
d. none of the above) years.
228. The government agency that has the lead role in the monitoring, surveillance and
law enforcement of trafficking in persons (a. NBI b. anti-trafficking council c. PNP d.
Human Trafficking Council)
229. The transportation, transfer, receipt of a person is a person is ( a. means b. acts c.
exploitative purpose d. trafficking in person)
230. The offender is member of the military, PNP or law enforcement agencies (a.
qualified trafficking b. acts that promote trafficking c. act of trafficking in persons d.
trafficking in persons)
231. The facilitation of exit and entrance clearance of persons who are subject of
trafficking in persons is (a. acts that promotes trafficking b. qualified trafficking c. acts of
trafficking d. trafficking in persons)
232. The body created by the law whose main function is to monitor the activities of the
law enforcement agencies on trafficking (d. Anti-Human Trafficking Task Force b. AntiTrafficking in Persons Council c. Human Trafficking Council d. Trafficking in persons
council)
233. The penalty for receipt of trafficking person (a. 6 mons b. 12 mons c. community
service d. 1 year imprisonment) for the first offense
234. The matching or pairing of brides for purposes of human trafficking in the pre-text
of marriage (a. acts of trafficking b. acts that promotes trafficking c. qualified
trafficking d. trafficking in person)
235. The offended in trafficking in person acquired HIV or AIDs (a. acts of trafficking b.
acts that promotes trafficking c. qualified trafficking d. trafficking in persons)
236. Knowingly lease or sub-lease a room, house or space for offenders of trafficking in
persons (a acts of trafficking b. trafficking in person c. qualified trafficking d. acts that
promotes trafficking)
237. This is a method of course of action, arranging means or steps for a successful
attainment of the objective.
a. Management
b. Planning
c. Organization
238. A process of attracting candidates who have maximum qualifications to be eligible
for the selection procedure.
a. selection
b. recruitment
c. promotion
239. An intelligence quotient (IQ) of __________ is advisable as a minimum
Standard in police service.
a. 120
b. 126
c. 112
240. A kind of promotion given to an officer who has reaches the time-in-grade;
possessing all the mandatory requirements.
a. meritorious
b. special promotion
c. regular
241. It is an evaluation of the result of persons behavior on how he performs his tasks.
a. incentive
b. Motivation
c. performance
242. A Director General is appointed by the.
a. President
b. Congress
c. Senate
243. It is a process of screening out/or eliminating undesirable applicants and

accepting qualified applicants.
a. incentive
b. selection
c. recruitment
244. It is a management function concerned with the human resources of an
organization.
a. promotion
b. recruitment
c personnel administration
245. A type of plans relating to all routine office and field operations.
a. procedural
b. operational
c. tactical
246. This refers to the setting up and maintenance of a pattern of working relationship of
members and their respective responsibilities.
a. organizing
b. promoting
c. recruiting
247. The Law that deals with Philippine Clean Air Act (a. RA 8479 b. RA 8749 c. RA
8745 d. RA 8497)
248. Which is not part of the term environment (a. water b. land c. air d. Menirals)
249. The attitude of the populace towards natural resources (a. bio system b. Social
economic c. economic system d. political system)
250. The burning of municipal, biomedical and hazardous waste which emits poisonous
and toxic fumes is (a. incinerationb. traditional small-scale method of
community/neighborhood sanitation c. crematoria)
251. A Division in the DENR that has the power to impose fine and penalties against
owner or operator of stationary source of pollution (a. Land Transportation Office b.
Pollution Adjudication Boardc. Bureau of Science and Technology d. Department of
Science and technology)
252. DENR together with what agency shall design training program against air pollution
(a. DOTC b. DOST c. PNP d. All of the above).
253. Any matter found in the atmosphere other than oxygen, nitrogen, water vapor, that
is detrimental to health or the environment is (a. air pollutant b. Air Pollution c.
greenhouse gasses d. air ambient quality)
254. Any alteration of the physical, chemical and biological properties of the
atmospheric air that will or is likely to create or to render the air resources of the country
harmful, detrimental, or injurious to public health, safety or welfare is (a. pollution b. Air
Pollutant c. air pollution d. contamination)
256. Process of growth rate with depleting the natural resources (a. Sustainable
Development b. environmental development c. natural development)
257. Those gases that can potentially or can reasonably be expected to induce global
warming, which include carbon dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, chloroflourocarbons, are (a.
Greenhouse Effects b. Melting of Icecaps c. Greenhouse d. Greenhouse gases)
258. The law the deals with the Forestry Reform Code of the Philippines (a. PD 507 b.
PD 705 c. PD 507 d. PD 75)
259. The mass of lands of the public domain which has not been the subject of the
present system of classification for the determination of which lands are needed for
forest purposes and which are not. (a. public land b, public domain c. public forest d.
ancestral land)
260. It refers to those lands of the public domain which have been the subject of the
present system of classification and determined to be needed for forest purposes. (a.
Forest Reserves b. mangroves c swap d. forest reclamation)
.261. Public offshore area delimited as habitat of rare and unique species of marine
flora and fauna. (a. Eco park b. ocean park c. wildlife park d. Marine Park)
262. The type of forest occurring on tidal flat along the sea coast, extending along
stream where the water is brackish (a. marsh b. swamp c. mangrove d. All of the
above)
263. The authority given to a person to use timber regardless of the ownership of the
land (a. Permit to cut b. timber license agreement c. permit d. permit to transport)
264. PNP can investigate and file initiate the filing of complaints for violation of the
Forest Reform Code of the Philippines (a. yes b.No c. maybe d. it depends)
265.
Which is covered by the term environment (a. water b. air c. mineral d. forest)
266. Which is covered by the Philippines Forestry Reform Code of the Phil (a. Mineral
b. Land c. Forest d. all of the above)
267. The continuous or periodic production of forest products in a working unit for the
purpose of achieving at the earliest practicable time an approximate balance between
growth and harvest or use. (a. Sustainable Development b. Sustained-yield
management
c.
Environmental
Development
d.
Forest
Development).
268. The doctrine that established the rights of a person under custodial investigation.
(a. Right of the Accused b. Miranda Doctrine c. Right to bail of the accused)
269. An art which deals with identity, location and arrest of the offender and provides
evidence of his guilt in criminal proceedings. (a. Criminal Investigationb. Follow-up
Investigation c. Follow-up Operation)
270. Data or knowledge gathered by the police from the persons and from records (a.
Interview b. Interrogation c.Information)
271. Questioning initiated by law enforcement officer on a person under custody and
otherwise deprived of his freedom or liberty (a. Interview b. Investigation c.
Interrogation)
272. Casual conversation or simple questioning of a person who possess relevant
knowledge regarding the commission of the crime (a. Interview b. interrogation c.
investigation)
273. An act defining certain rights of a person arrested, detained or under custodial
investigation and the duties of the arresting, detaining and investigating officer (a. Art
125 of the RPC b. RA7438 Anti-Torture Law c. RA 9208 Human Trafficking )
274. Having victim or witnesses identified the suspect from among five to seven
individuals presented before them (a. Rouges Gallery b. Right to face to face his
accusers c. Police Line-up)
275. These are information coming from the underworld characters such as prisoners,
ex-convicts. (a. Grapevine Information b. Police Asset c. Underworld)
276. The application of instruments methods of physical science in the detection of
above crime (a. Instrumentationsb. Instruction c. Intruders)
277. The first action of an investigator upon arrival at the scene of homicide.( Find /
Look the dead body of the victim /determine the victim if already dead)
278. The physical location where the criminal either commits a crime or leaves physical
evidence of such a crime. (a. Crime area b. Crime Scene c none of the above)
279. Technical staff from the PNP Crime Laboratory tasked with processing and
collection of physical evidence at the crime scene (a. Investigation Team b. SOCO
c. all of the above)
280. An isolated case where the investigator together with SOCO is not allowed to
conduct immediate crime scene investigation without the clearance from the bomb and
explosion unit.(a. explosive case b. eruption case c. Explosion Case)
281. The characteristic way or manner certain criminals commit a crime.
(a. Modus Operandib. Kuratong-baleleng-Ozamisgroup c. Waray-waray group)
282. Direct or full acknowledgement of the accused of the crime charged
(a. Confession b. Denial c. Admission)
283. The process of the police investigator of presenting the case of arrested person
(warrantless arrest) before the prosecutor for proper disposition.
(a. Inquest Proceedings b. Pre-Inquiry c. Pre-Investigation)
284. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer for the
commission of an offense. (a. Voluntary Surrender b. Arrest c. Custody)
285-287. three primary source of physical evidence (a. Circumstantial Evidence ,
Expert witness, Supplementary Affidavit b. Real, Documentary; Testimonial evidence
c. Direct evidence, Corroborative evidence, competence evidence )
.288. Clash, competition
Conflict
289. Conflict with one-self
Intrapersonal
290. Conflict with another person/ Organization policies
Organizational Conflict
291. Conflict is healthy when it cases the facts (explore, stretch, test of position)
All of the above
292. Conflict resolution style/ threats of violence
Avoidance
293. Command as a conflict resolution style
All of the above
294. Conflict resolution/ neglects once concern
Accommodating
295. Power-oriented mode/ individual pursues own concern at the persons expertise/
use of work.
Competing
296. Splits differences/ middle ground position
Compromising
297. Important conflict resolution skill
periodically checking or understanding
298. Basic requirement/ Police intervention
Marked vehicle
299. No longer allowed
Warning shot
300. Physical/ medical exam
immediately after arrest
301. Two most important docs after search
Receipt of property seized and certificate of orderly search
302 Warrantless Search/ citizens arrest revised
Sec 5 rule 113 rules of court
303. Arrested person delivered to proper judicial authority
12-18-36 hour rule
304. Validity of search warrant

Ten days
305. Warrant of arrest- executed,
10 days
306. After questioning or such- report to judge....
10 days
307. Considered as valid warrantless search/ seizure.
All of the above
308. Legal basis in RAID operation
All of the above
309. Specific duties of perimeter security
Prevent escape of criminals
310. Art of blending prior to RAID
Volume and kind of activities in neighbourhood
311. Safest method of identifying members
Use of color-coded handkerchief tied on their heads.
312. Door is a reference point/ imaginary clock
12 o'clock
313. Search Method that could not stand alone.
Zone/ quadrant
314. Things to be considered/ considering the search method to be applied.
Area to be search and subject of the search
315. Last question to be asked after the briefing?
Whether or not he knows his specific duties by repeating them.
316. Best way of accounting- move out/ withdrawal
Assigning them to ride in specific vehicles in moving out.
317. Members of the raiding team who were selected and issued orders for their
important roles as required by most courts?
Searchers and Search Supervisor
318. CNN
CPP/NPA/NDF
319. PPW stands for
Protracted PeoplesWar
320. Protracted means
All of the above
321. Balance of forces is overly tilted in favor of the government against NPA?
Strategic defensive.
322. NPA attained parity in balance forces, government forces result in acute shortage
of forces and material
Strategic stalemate
323. Balance of forces in favor of the NPA and against the government forces?
Strategic offensive.
324. Three-Tiered defense system knowing the enemy and identifying potential target?
Intelligence
325. Important part of PNP in 3 tierreddefense system, making difficult for terrorist to
succeed in their target?
Target hardening
326. To manage effectively the incident and mitigating the effects of destructive terrorist
action/attack
Incident management
327. General inspirational motives of terrorists.
A. Psychological motivation
B. Rational motivation
Choose one. A or B?
328. Based on the PNP Letter of Instructions 71/08 PAYAPA, the formulation and
implementation of Anti-Criminality Plans shall be decentralized to the:
a Police Regional Offices;
b Provincial Police Offices;
c City Police Districts;
d Municipal and City Police Stations; and
e Police territorial units.
329. Letter of Instructions 39/09 KONTRA BOGA prescribes the guidelines and
procedures in the campaign to account the loose firearms of :
a Organized Crime Groups and Partisan Armed Groups;
b Warring Politicians;
c Communist insurgents;
d Moro Islamic Secessionist and Abu Sayyaf Groups; and
e Owners with expired and un-renewed licenses.
330. Letter of Instructions 49/09 BILANG BOGA prescribes the guidelines and
procedures in the campaign to account the loose firearms of :
a Organized Crime Groups and Partisan Armed Groups;
b Warring Politicians;
c Communist insurgents;
d Moro Islamic Secessionist and Abu Sayyaf Groups; and
e Owners with expired and un-renewed licenses.
331. Under Letter of Instructions 39/09, the National Task Force KONTRA BOGA and
Task Groups are activated to conduct the following except:
a Disseminate the PNP Reward System on the recovery of loose firearms;
b Formulate case operation plans;
c Police operations against illegal trafficking of weapons;
d Renewal of expired licenses; and
e Checkpoints, Operation Bakal and Sita.
332. Under Letter of Instructions 39/09, the Commander of National Task Force
KONTRA BOGA is:
a The Chief PNP;
b The Deputy Chief PNP for Administration;
c The Deputy Chief PNP for Operations;
d The Chief Directorial Staff; and
e The Director for Operations.
334. Under Letter of Instructions 49/09, the Commander of National Task Force
BILANG BOGA is:
a The Chief PNP;
b The Deputy Chief PNP for Administration;
c The Deputy Chief PNP for Operations;
d The Chief Directorial Staff; and
e The Director for Operations.
335. Letter of Instructions 63/2010 Police Integrated Patrol System harmonizes all
existing anti-criminality plans and police security operations except:
a Foot and Mobile patrols;
b Detective Beat patrols
c Checkpoint/Chokepoint operations;
d Operation Bakal and Sita; and
e Robbery and Extortion.
336. The QUAD concept of anti-criminality planning involves the following except:
a Intelligence;
b Operations;
c Crime Investigation;
d Police Visibility Patrols; and
e Police Community Relations.
337. For effective implementation of various security and law enforcement operations,
Police Integrated Patrol System has the following features except:
a Goal Setting;
b Detailed Planning;
c Conducting Review/Assessment;
d Checkpoints/Chokepoints; and
e Police Visibility Patrols.

338. The guidelines and procedures in the formulation of Local Anti-Criminality Plan
include the following except:
a Identification of local peace and order issues and concerns;
b Prioritizing identified local peace and order issues and concerns;
c Periodic Review and Assessment;
d Conceptualization and Design of Action Plans; and
e Evaluation of Resources Needed.
339. The doctrine that established the rights of a person under custodial investigation.
Miranda Doctrine.
340. An art which deals with identity, location and arrest of the offender and provides
evidence of his guilt in criminal proceedings. Criminal Investigation.
341. Data or knowledge gathered by the police from the persons and from records.
Information.
342. Questioning initiated by law enforcement officer on a person under custody and
otherwise deprived of his freedom or liberty. Interrogation.
343. Casual conversation or simple questioning of a person who possess relevant
knowledge regarding the commission of the crime. Interview.
344. An act defining certain rights of a person arrested, detained or under custodial
investigation and the duties of the arresting, detaining and investigating officer.RA7438
the Anti-torture law.
345. Having victim or witnesses identified the suspect from among five to seven
individuals presented before them. Police Line-up
346. These are information coming from the underworld characters such as prisoners,
ex-convicts. Grapevine Information.
347. The application of instruments methods of physical science in the detection of
crime.Instrumentation.
348. The first action of an investigator upon arrival at the scene of homicide.Find/look
the dead body to determine whether or not he/she is still alive or dead.
349. The physical location where the criminal either commits a crime or leaves physical
evidence of such a crime. Crime Scene.
350. Technical staff from the PNP Crime Laboratory tasked with processing and
collection of physical evidence at the crime scene. SOCO.
351. An isolated case where the investigator together with SOCO is not allowed to
conduct immediate crime scene investigation without the clearance from the bomb and
explosion unit. Explosion Case.
352. The characteristic way or manner certain criminals commit a crime. Modus
Operandi.
353. Direct or full acknowledgement of the accused of the crime charged. Admission.
354. The process of the police investigator of presenting the case of arrested person
(warrantless arrest) before the prosecutor for proper disposition. Inquest Proceedings
355. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.Arrest.
356-358
three primary source of physical evidence. Real, Documentary and
Testimonial evidence
359. Is issued writing in the name of People of the Philippines signed by a Judge
ordering a police officer commanding him to arrest a person and to bring him/her before
the court?Warrant of Arrest.
360. Issued in writing in the name of People of the Philippine signed by a Judge
commanding a police officer to search a premises and to bring all seized items before
the court. Search Warrant.
361. The lateral lines in the PNP Organizational Structures denotes or called
Coordinating Line and _______
a. Vertical Line b. Command Line c. Authority Line d. Communicating Line
362. The PNP organization is so organized such that all these activities are mentioned,
supervised and accomplished as these activities are determined in the---------a. Mission
b. Vision
c. Goal
d. Objective
363. The Chief PNP and all Police Directors and Chiefs are responsible for whatever
their offices do or fail to do they could delegate their Authority but never the -----a. Rank
b. Position
c. Responsibility
d. Liability
364. The vertical Line denotes or called Command Line and __________
a. Authority Line b. Coordinating Line c. Communicating Line d. Horizontal Line
365. The square in the PNP Organizational Structures denotes or called ________
a. Position of Responsibility
c. Position Accountability
b. Position Authority
d. Position Responsibility with commensurate
Authority and Accountability
366. The Chief PNP is assisted by the two (2) Deputies through principal staff
assistance known as:
a. National Support Unit b. Directorial Staff c. General Staff d. Technical Staff
367. He is responsible for directing the execution of the members of the directorial staff
tasks the coordinated effort of staff members and the efficient and prompt
response of the staff.
a. DCA
b. DDO
c. CDS
d. RD
368. All members Directorial Staff are directly responsible to the Chief, Directorial Staff,
however the Chief, PNP may consult them directly but must inform ______ of their
exchanges with the Chief, PNP
a. DCA
b. DCO
c. CDS
d. RD
369. The members of the Directorial Staff prepare objectives and policies as guidelines
in their respective functional responsibilities.
a. Project Administrators b. Program Directors c. Comptrollers d. Finance
370. The officers responsible for the cost utilization of resources for the accomplishment
of the command objectives are called ________
a. Project Administrators b. Program Directors c. Comptrollers d. Finance Officer
371. It is a formal communication which contains a brief and exact analysis of a
situation, resulting from thorough research made by its author.
a. Staff Studyb. Staff Briefing
c. Staff Conference d. Completed Staff Work
372. it is all situation where all pertinent information and documents, as basis for
decision making and implementation of decisions, are made available to the Chief
of Head of a Unit by the Staff concerned.
a. Staff Study b. Staff Briefing c. Staff Conference d. Completed Staff Work
373. Once a recommendations has been approved by the Commander, it automatically

becomes ____
a. An Order
b. A Directive c. A Command
d. An authority
374. A sensible staff officer must resist the impulse to consult his superior, who expects
answers not ______
a. Reply
b. Question
c. Queries
d. Response
375. In general usage, it identifies a special group of people whose job is to direct the
effort and activities of other people toward common activities simply stated it get
thing done through other people
a. Leadership
b. Management
c. Directing
d. Commanding
376. The process by which courses of action is consciously chosen iron available
alternatives for the purpose of achieving a desire result
a. Planning b. Organizing c. Staffing d. Decision Making
377. It shall have the power to investigate all causes of fires, and if necessary file the
proper complaints with the city or provincial prosecutor who has jurisdiction over
the case.
a. PPSC
b. PNP
c. BJMP
d. BFP
378. It involves personal qualities which enable one person to indicate others to follow.
a. Leadership b. Management c. Directing d. Commanding
379. It is the process by which a Manager anticipates the future and discovers
alternatives courses of action open to him.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Staffing
d. Decision Making
380. It shall exercise supervision and control over all city and municipality
a. PPSC
b. PNP
c. BJMP
d. BFP
381. It is and take shall have the power to maintain peace and order take all necessary
steps to ensure public safety.
a. PPSC
b. PNP
c. BJMP
d. BFP
382. It is the premier educational institution for the training human resources
development and continuing education of all personnel of the PNP, Fire and Jail
Bureaus
a. PPSC
b. PNP
c. BJMP
d. BFP
383. The essence of leadership interpersonal and action oriented and therefore can
best be devoted in practice while development of a Manager can be achieve through.
a. Foreign Study b. Local Study c. Academic Study d. Personal experience
384. It involves personal qualities which enable one person to induce other to follow
a. Leadership
b. Management c. Directing
d. Controlling
385. It pertains to human total satisfaction when people are motivated not so much by
un met needs as by the desire to become all they are capable.
a. Biological Needs b. Self-actualization c. Esteem Needs d. Cognitive Needs
386. It is to free the public from harm or danger
a. Public Safety
b. Safety
c. Security d. Protection
387. It is the prevention of and protection, from events that could endanger the safety of
the general public from significant danger, injury/harm, or damage such as crimes
disaster.
a. Public Safety b. Safety
c. Security
d. Protection
388. Crucial event or situation requiring a special response to ensure an acceptable
solution
a. Crisis
b. Emergency
c.
Eruption
d. Hostage-taking
389. It is a sudden condition or state of affairs calling for immediate action.

a. Crisis
b. Emergency
c. Eruption
d. Hostage-taking
390. One of the objectives of Case Management Analysis Guide is to increase the
understanding of Leaders/Commanders should do and should Not do in guiding a
unit/office
a. Victory
b. Success
c. Glory
d. Triumph
391. In impairing the case for discussion read the case thoroughly to digest the facts
and____.
a. Circumstances b. Surroundings c. Environment d. Climate
392. In written case analysis, propose an action plan and set of recommendations
addressing the issues you have________.
a. Discovered
b. Deciphered c. Identified d. Recovered
393. In the conduct of case analysis, you should prepare for a discussion and in doing
so, you become immersed in facts, options and _____
a. Choices
b. Selections
c. Implications d. Inferences
394. In putting your-self inside the case simply means, think like an actual
a. Straight
b. Tactician c. Participant c. Role player
395. Keeping an open mind is how to get most from case _______
a. Solution
b. Study
c. Analysis
d. Evaluation
396. It is an objective statement of the investigators findings.
a. Inspector General Report
c. Inspection Report
b. Investigation Report
d. Audit Report
397. It is a section that contain of brief statement of when, where and whom the
investigator was and should cite the authority for asking it.
a. Authority b. Matters Investigated c. Facts of the case d. Discussion
398. It is a section of the report that represents the mission of the investigator. In
essence, it answers question what is the investigation about?
a. Authority
b. Matters Investigated c. Facts of the Case d. Discussion
399. This section should indicate the presumption and interference from all
circumstances of the case give the directing office the clearest possible picture.
a. Authority b. Matters Investigated c. Facts of the Case d. Discussion
400. This presents the real truth regarding the maters investigated
a. Authority
b. Matters Investigated c. Facts of the Cased. Discussion
401. This should contains the practical suggestions for appropriate action to be taken to
suitably dispose of phases of the case
a. Facts of the Case b. Discussion c. Conclusion d. Recommendation
402. This represents concise summary results of investigation as supported by the facts
of the case found and set forth in the report.
a. Facts of the Case b. Discussion
c. Conclusion d. Recommendation
403. It open replace visits and correspondence as means of securing coordination.
Commanders and Staff Officers inevitably find that participation in this is frequent
requirement.
a. Meeting
b. Convention
c. Conference d. Dialogue
404. It is a meeting of Commanders or their representatives.
a. Staff Conference
c. Technical Conference
b. Commanders Conference
d. National Support Unit Conference
405. It is a meeting of Staff Officers normally principal staff officers or their preventatives
neither of one headquarters or several headquarters.
a. Staff Conference
c. Technical Staff Conference
b. Commanders Conference d. National Support Unit Conference
406. It is being prepared by the Staff once the decision is made to call the conference. It
also assists the conference planner by ensuring that they understand the exact purpose
of conference.
a. Meeting Planning Checklist
c. Conference Planning Checklist
b. Convention Planning
d. Dialogue
407. It is a presentation of selected and compressed information that present a broad
subject that is essentially relevant to it.
a. Briefing
b. Meeting
c. Convention
d. Conference.
408. It is also characterized by clarity accuracy brevity and ____
a. Particularly
b. Specific
c. Specificity
d. Focus on
409. This means recognition of the audience following of course, the protocol in the
service.
a. Purpose
b. Greeting c. Procedure
d. Plan
410. It presents the main ideas of the briefing in a logical sequence.
a. Body
b. Introduction
c. Conclusion
d. Recommendation
411. It is used under operational conditions where the Chief Imparts information or give
instruction smaller units.
a. Information b. Staff Briefing c. Mission Briefing d. Decision Making
412. It is aimed at securing a coordinated or unified effort among staff officers.
a. Information Briefing b. Staff Briefing c. Mission Briefing d. Orderly presentation
413. One of the characteristics of an Effective Briefer is that he/she must maintain
organizational thinking and ______
a. Orderly Conductb. Orderly Mannerc. Orderly Mind d. Orderly Representation
414. One of the responsibilities of the Briefer it to be heard understood and ______
a. Confident
b. Ready
c. Assuming
d. Energetic
415. There is nothing as well received as a cheerful word of _______. It is not just the
words good morning or good evening. It is also the tone, the sparkle in the eyes, the
expression on the face.
A. excitement
B. Anger
C. Surprise
D. Greeting
416. The sweetest music to ones ears is the sound of his or her own ________
a. Surname
b. Middle Name
c. Name
d. First Name
417. Be generous with your ____. It takes 72 muscles to front, but only 14 to make it.
Why do more exercise when you can get less?
A. Hatred
B. Anger
C. Smile
D. Laugh
418. There are usually three sides to a controversy. Yours, the other persons and its
right side. So, be ______
A. Active
B. Alert
C. Confident
D. Prepared
419. A big does of patience and a dash of humility, and you will be rewarded many folds
is embodied under the good sense of
A. humbleness
B. boastfulness
C. Humor
D. Dramatic Effect
420. It is an act to ordain and institute the Civil Code of the Philippines with particular
treatment on Human Relations
A. RA 385
B. RA 386
C. RA 387
D. RA388
421. Under article 19 of said act, it provides that every person must, in the exercise of
his rights and in the performance of his duties, act with justice, give everyone his use,
and observe honesty and ____
a. good faith
b. bad faith
c. good motive
d. Good Intent
423. The principal paradigm of Policing under Article 1, Code of Conduct for Law
Enforcement Officers, UN General Amnesty Resolution 34/169, dated 17 December
1979 is also known in its simplest term is:
a. To serve and Protect
b. To protect and serve
c. Servant of the people
d. Protector of the People
424. It is a practice adhered to by the international community in dealing with each other
A. Art of Warfare
B. Art of Diplomacy
C. Art of Social Usage
D. Art of Protocol
425. It is the process of taking over differences, clarifying aims, exploring adjustments
sort of fighting
A. Warfare
B. Diplomacy
C. Social Usage
D. Protocol
426. His first duty is represent his /her state and in change of the promotion of friendly
relations between the sending countrys policies abroad. He also ascertains conditions
in the host state. His title is:
A. minister
B. Diplomat
C. Count
D. Duke
427. These are essential in building positive community relations, which translate to
public support
A. Effective broadcast
B. Effective print media
C. Effective Media Relations
D. Effective television Media
428. It is one of the basic tools of the trade in effective Media Relations
A. Broadcast
B. Print
C. Television
D. Press
429. A positive media relations philosophy can help make reporting more accurate, fair,
and
A. equal
B. equilibrium
C. balanced
D. on the level
430. There should always be ____ between the police agency and the Tri-Media
A. Open communication
B. Close communication
C. Oral communication
D. Written communication
431. It is what the tri-media wants most from the Police Agency
A. interview
B. interrogation
C. information
D. education
432. In the PNP set up, the Public Information Officer is a member of the
A. Personal Staff
B. Directorial Staff
C. National Support Unit
D. Technical Staff
433. He serves as the management assistant and spokesperson of the command
A. Director for PCR
B. Director, PCRG
C. Public Information Officer
D. Tri-media
434. T Under the acronym Treat stands for:
A. Trustworthiness
B. Truthfulness
C. Today
D. Tomorrow
435. During interview, the concerned police officer should avoid wearing flashy jewelries
and clothes so as not ____ the attention of the audience which sometimes creates a
negative impression on the minds of the public.
A. disturb
B. Distract
C. Deteriorate
D. Delete
436. One of the reasons why we should work and deal with the Media is because we
cannot ___ them
A. Avoid
B. Ignore
C. Evade
D. Escape
437. In order to have self-confident in dealing and working with the Media is that you
must tell ______
A. A lie
B. Foolishness
C. The Truth
D. Unreliable Story
438. See to it that before proceeding for interview, be sure that you are duly and truly
____________ answer all questions responsively from the Media
A. Prepared
B. Ready
C. Conversant
D. Confident
439. It is the blue print for the protection of life and property is given locality
A. IA/CPSP
B. NPOC
C. RPOC
D. PPOC
440. It mobilizes all government instrumentalities and resources and task of public
safety
A. IA/ CPSP
B. NPOC
C. RPOC
D. PPOC
441. One of the legal bases of IA/CPSP is:
A. Sec. 50, RA 6975
B. Sec 51, RA 6975
C. Sec 52, RA 6975
D. Sec 53, RA 6975
442. Being the chair of the MPOC he is tasked to develop/ establish/ oversee the
IA/CPSP implementation in his jurisdiction
A. Governor
B. Municipal Mayor
C. City Mayor
D. Chief of Police
443. One of the KRA on Areas of Concern of the PNP in IA/CISP is:
A. Fire prevention and suppression
B. Connection
C.
D. Community Development
444. They shall prepare the detailed action plan to implement the specified program and
shall submit same to the local POC for approval and implementation by all agencies
concerned:
A. Lead Agency
B. PNP
C. DSWD
D. DOH
445. One of the program thrusts of IA / CPSP is:
A. Coordination
B. Cooperation
C. Operation and
D. Teamwork
446. IA/CPSP is formulated and developed by the __ in coordination with all concerned
agencies
A. National POC
B. Regional POC
C. Provincial POC
D. Local
447. He monitors the IA/CPSP through its submitted report posted on the status board.
Likewise this will take action of the noted deficiencies in its implementation and
discussed same with the tasked agencies concerned
A. City/ Municipal Mayor
B. City/ Municipal Chief of Police
C. RPOC secretariat
D. Governor
448. The military component under the concept of IA/CPSPS is tasked with physical
security all combat operations while the Police Component deals with Law enforcement
and ________
A. police operations
B. Military operations
C. Intelligence operations
D. Internal Security Operations
449. One of the objectives of IA/CPSP is to maintain the stability of the ___
A. Government
B. Administration
C. Local Government
D. Public Administration
450. The detailed action plans of the lower POCS need not be submitted to the next
higher POC shall remain in the custody of the local POC for ___
A. File
B. Reference
C. Notation
D. Bulletin Board
451. It is a relationship between those who aspire to lead and those who choose to
follow
A. management
B. Leadership
C. Manager
D. Leader
452. It is one of the best foundations of leadership
A. integrity
B. Honor
C. Credibility
D. Sincerity
452. It is a group rule and by no means dictatorial or a rule by one man telling this man
what to do
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Manager
D. Leader
453. It is the process by which a manager anticipates the future and discovers
alternative courses of action open to him
A. planning
B. Staffing
C. Organizing
D. Decision
454. It is the process by which select train, promote and refine subordinate
A. planning
B. Staffing
C. Organizing
D. Decision Making
455. The process by which a course of actions is consciously chosen from available
alternatives for the purpose of achieving a desired result
A. Planning
B. Staffing
C. Organizing
D. Decision Making
95. It is simply stated, getting things done through other people: it identifies a special
group of people whose job is to direct the effort and activities of other people toward
common objectives
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Manager
D. Leader
456. His development can be achieved through academic study
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Manager
D. Leader
457. The essence of leadership is interpersonal action oriented and therefore he can
best develop in practice
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Manager
D. Leader
458. These are organized sets of behaviors belonging to a position described what
managers actually do
A. Roles
B. Functions
C. Duties
D. Responsibilities
459. It had historically described what Mangers should do?
A. Roles
B. Functions
C. Duties
D. Responsibilities
460. Mintsberg grouped 10 - basic roles performed by managers as interpersonal,
informants, oral, and
A. Controlling
B. Supervising
C. Communicating
D. Decisional
461. Which of the following is LE?
a. TNT
b. Black Powder c. C-4
d. ANFO
462. Which of the following is HE?

a. Pyrotechnic b. Propellant c. Black Powder d. TNT
463. The following are the types of Explosive. Except
a. Mechanical Explosion
b. Loud Explosion
c. Chemical Explosion
d. Nuclear Explosion
464. A sudden conversion of potential energy (chemical of Mechanical) into kinetic
energy with the production and release of gasses under pressure.
a. Explosion b. Explosive c. Expanded c. Expert
465. What is an IED?
a. Improvised Explosive Device b. Imported Explosive Device
c. Improvised Explosive Device c. Improving Explosive Device
466. What are the two aspects of understanding an IED events
a.TechnicalCharactirazation& TechnicalCharactization
b. Technical Categorization &Tactics Charactization
c. Tactical Characterization & Technical Categorization
d. Technical Charactization& Technical Categorization
467. Specific design of an IED attack, address the question why here, why now, and
why in this way.
a. Tactics b. Technical Design
c. Tactical Outcomes d. Tactical Design
468. Any substance which when subject to heal, shock or friction can undergo a very
rapid self-propagating (combustion) transformed into a more stable material (gas)
characterized liberation of tremendous amount of heat and almost always of the
formation of gas and sudden release of pressure that resulted to a violent explosion
a. Explosion
b. Explosive
c. Expired
c. Expanded
469. Produces greater propellant effect & few blasting effect (Pushing effect) and it
deflagrated rather than detonate.
a. LE
b. HE
c. UXO
d. EO
470. Produces fewer propellant effect and greater blasting effect (Shattering effect)
a. LE
b. HE
c. UXO
d. EO
471. Which of the following are the types of Explosion?
a. Mechanical Electrical, Chemical, Nuclear
b. Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear
c. Explosive, Explosion, Hazardous Material, Nuclear
d. Mechanical, Radiological, Explosive, Nuclear

472. What types of explosion has high- energy electrical are between electrical phases
or between potential and ground, releasing large volumes of energy.
a. Mechanical
b. Electrical c. Nuclear
d. Chemical
473. What types of explosion has a very rapid or instantaneous conversion of a solid or
liquid compound into larger quantities of expanding gasses accompanied by heat, shock
and noise?
a. Mechanical
b. Electrical
c. Nuclear
d. Chemical
474. A BLEVE is types of what explosion that involves vessels containing liquids under
pressure at temperatures above their being point , Liquid need not be flammable can
occur in vessels as small as a disposable lighter and as large as a railroad tanker?
a. Mechanical
b. Electrical
c. Chemical d. Nuclear
475. A Device placed or fabricated in an improvised manner incorporating destructive,
lethal, noxious, pyrotechnic or incendiary chemicals and designed to destroy,
incapacitate, harass or distract.
a. UXO
b. ERI
c. IED
d. EOD
476. What are the five (5) components of IED?
a. Power source, Initiator, Container, Explosives & Switch
b. Power switch, Initiator, Contaminated, Explosion & Source
c. Switch, Power Source, Initiator, Condemn & Enhancer
d. Switch, Power source, Initiator, Container & Enhancer
477. These the personnel involved in a Post Blast Crime Scene, Except
a. Incident Commander
b. Media
c. PBI Team
d. EOD Team
478. Comprehensive forensic inquiries specifically on a bombing incident
(IED/conventional explosives) through the conduct of various investigative techniques
which involves recovery of physical evidence mainly for reconstruction of explosives
fragments recovered to determine the device components, the modus operandi and
subsequently to identify the perpetrator(s)
a. Post Blast Investigation
b. Post Blast Investigator
c. Post Blast Intelligence
d. Post Blast Interior
479. One of the Phases of a Post Blast Investigation is;
a. Fact Development
c. Load Development
b. Load Analysis
d. All of the above
480. Which area is best area to locate the evidence on Post Blast Crime Scene
a. at the centre
c. at the victim
b. on the target
d. All of the above
CYBER CRIMES
481. _____________________________ -is a form of crime where the Internet or
computers are used as a medium to commit crime.
a. Computer Crime or Cybercrime b. Cyber-crimes against persons
c. Cyber Crimes against Property d. Cyber-crimes against government
482. ______________________________- This committed against persons includes
various harassment of any one with the use of a computer such as e-mail.
.
483. ________________________________- The second category of Cyber-crimes is
that of Cybercrimes against all forms of property. These crimes include computer
vandalism (destruction of others' property), transmission of harmful programmes.
c. Cyber Crimes against Property
d. Cyber-crimes against government
484. Cyber-crimes against government - This crime manifest itself into terrorism when
an individual "cracks" into a government or military maintained website.
a. Cyber Crimes against Property c. Cyber-crimes against persons
485. _______________- is any crime where Computer is a target,Computer is a tool of
crime and Computer is incidental to crime.
a. Computer crime
b. Hacking
c. Virus Dissemination
d. Software piracy486. _____________ - in simple terms means illegal intrusion into a computer system
without the permission of the computer owner/user.
a. Computer crime
b. Hacking
d. Software piracy487. __________________- Malicious software that attaches itself to other software.
a. Computer crime
b. Hacking
d. Software piracy488. __________________- Theft of software through the illegal copying of genuine
programs or the counterfeiting and distribution of products intended to pass for the
original. Retail revenue losses worldwide are ever increasing due to this crime can be
done in various ways
a. Computer crime
b. Hacking
d. Software piracy489. ____________________ - Internet Relay Chat (IRC) servers have chat rooms in
which people from anywhere the world can come together and chat with each other.
Criminals use it for meeting co-conspirators. Hackers use it for discussing their exploits /
sharing the techniques.
a. Internet Relay Chat b. Cyber Stalking c. Net Extortion d. Phishing
490. _________________- In order to harass a woman her telephone number is given
to others as if she wants to befriend males.
491. _________________ - Copying the companys confidential data in order to extort
said company for hugeamount.
492. __________ - It is technique of pulling out confidential information from the
bank/financial institutional account holders by deceptive means.
493. - The Criminal sends emails containing defamatory matters to all concerned off the
victim or post the defamatory matters on a website.
a. GUI b. Windows Desktop c. Mouse
d. Cyber Defamation
494. - Human Interface, Allows interaction with computer, Easier to use than command
line, Utilizes windows, icons and menus
d. Cyber Defamation
495. - consist of a pointer, Left-click, Right-click and Double-click.
d. Cyber Defamation
496. - Includes Desktop, Icons, Start menu, Quick launch, Task bar, Notification area or
system tray and Quick access to files or folders youve left open.
d. Cyber Defamation
497. - Used to view all programs installed on your computer, displays both programs
and places and Allows quick access to recently used programs and documents.
a. Notification Area
b. Windows Task Bar
c. Quick Launch
d. Windows XP Start Menu
498 - Shortcuts that allow access to programs or directories without the need to
minimize any open windows and some are defined by Windows when the toolbar is
unlocked; however, users can add or delete quick launch shortcuts.
b. Windows Task Bar
c. Quick Launch
499 - Displays open files, folders, or programs and used to organize desktop and allows
for multi-tasking.
b. Windows Task Bar
c. Quick Launch
500. - Icons that represent system processes currently running on the computer and by
right-clicking on these icons, many of these programs can be modified or shut down.
a. Notification Area b. Windows Task Bar
c. Quick Launch
501. _____________- A disk is like a filing cabinet, Information is stored in files and
folders.
a. Windows File System
b. Windows Explorer
c. Mother Board
d. Switch Board
502. - is an application that allows users to explore storage devices currently attached
to the computer.
a. Windows File System
b. Windows Explorer
c. Mother Board
d. Switch Board
503.
_________ the felonious taking of records without permission.

a. Larceny
b. Espionage
c. Arson
d. Sabotage
504. ____________ malicious burning
a. Larceny
b. Espionage
c. Arson
d. Sabotage
505. ______________
insidious destruction of records with intent of injuring
authorities.
a. Larceny
b. Espionage
c. Arson
d. Sabotage
506. __________ transmitting information with intent to injure any agency of the
government.
a. Larceny
b. Espionage
c. Arson
d. Sabotage
507. - Records or documents that contain information and materials, the unauthorized
disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave damage to the nations political,
economic or National Security.
a. Top Secret Documentsb. Secret Documents
c. Confidential Documents
d. Restricted Documents
508. Records or documents that contain information and materials that concerns
National Security
a. Top Secret Documentsb. Secret Documentsc. Confidential Documents
509. - Records or documents that contain information and materials that would be
prejudicial to the interest of the nation if disclosed.
a. Top Secret Documents
b. Secret Documentsc. Confidential Documents
510 - Records or documents that contain information and materials that are not
confidential, secret or top secret.
a. Top Secret Documents

c. Confidential Documents
b. Secret Documentsd. Restricted Documents
511. Section 633 of Revised Administrative Code- employee who is in charge of files
shall be accountable and responsible for their safe keeping.
512. __________- a penalty of prison mayor (8-10 yrs) and fine not exceeding P5,
000.00 shall be imposed upon any public officer, employee who shall falsify documents
a. Art 171 of RPC
b. Art 226, RPC
e. Art 229
c. Art 227 RPC
d. Art 228 RPC
513. ________- unauthorized removal, concealment or destruction of records and
documents.
a. Art 171 of RPC
b. Art 226, RPC
e. Art 229
c. Art 227 RPC
d. Art 228 RPC
514. _______- Officer breaking the official seal.
a. Art 171 of RPC
b. Art 226, RPC
c. Art 227 RPC
d. Art 228 RPC
e. Art 229
515. _________- opening a closed document.

a. Art 171 of RPC
b. Art 226, RPC
c. Art 227 RPC
d. Art 228 RPC
e. Art 229
516. _______- any officers who reveal any secret known to him by reason of his official
capacity/ wrongfully deliver papers / documents.
a. Art 171 of RPC
b. Art 226, RPC
e. Art 229
c. Art 227 RPC
d. Art 228 RPC
INTELLIGENCE
Intelligence- It means the network or the system for the collection, collation,
interpretation, evaluation, processing, and dissemination of information with references
to national security.
Agent Recruitment and Management:
Spotting - process of locating, identifying, and gathering preliminary data on person/s
that has potential value to the current operations or those that may take place at a later
date
Spotting Criteria:
Placement state of being located in the target area, organization
Access position relative to assignment that enables the person to obtain information,
data from files, records, or any other sources
Motives / motivation loyalties, possible inducements
Investigation & assessment of candidate agents- process of conducting checks &
investigations of persons spotted to determine qualification, motivation, possible
reactions to recruitment and suitability to undertake information collection.
Motivation- incentive or drive that impels the Agent to work for the operative
TYPES / FACTORS:
IDEOLOGICAL
EMOTIONAL (love, hate, fear, revenge, vanity, envy)
MATERIAL (Need, Greed, Identification, Career)
COERCION (exposure of extra marital affairs, sexual abnormalities, illegal
activities)
Suitability qualifications, motives, and other factors which make the candidate agent
appropriate or fit for the accomplishment of objective.
Accessibility candidate agents ability to place himself in the physical location of the
target to perform the required information collection without detection or compromise
Susceptibility to control ability to comply with or submit to discipline and control
Double Agents individuals who are simultaneously employed by 2 opposing
intelligence agencies with only one of the agencies aware of the dual roles
Dual Agents individuals simultaneously and independently employed by 2 or more
friendly intelligence units / office
Intelligence Peddler individual who sells information
Paper Mill individual who offers a mixture of valid but out-dated information, overt
news, propaganda or sometimes outright fabrications
Plan the Approach
a. Cold approach recruiter establishes contacts and attempts to recruit without
proper cultivation.
b. Development approach recruiter cultivates Candidate Agent as long as he thinks
necessary before trying to recruit
c. Combination approach one cultivates the Candidate Agent, another attempts the
actual recruitment.
Agent debriefing- Act of extracting from an Agent maximum amount of pertinent and
useful information obtained on a collection mission
Disposition/Termination- Determination of courses of action upon Agents completion
of objectives / requirements
Principles of Intelligence:
Interdependence- Intelligence is artificially subdivided into component elements to
ensure complete coverage, eliminate duplication and to reduce the overall task or
manageable sizes.
Continuity- It is necessary that coverage be continuous so that the shape of what
happens today could be studied in the light of what was happened before which in turn
would enable us to predict the shape of things to come.
Usefulness- Intelligence is useless if it remains in the minds or in the files of its
collectors or its producers.
Communication- Intelligence in order to be adequate to their needs must be
communicated to all the decision makers in manner that they will understand and form
that will permit its most effective use.
Selection- Intelligence should be essential and pertinent to the purpose at hand.
Timeliness- intelligence must be communicated to the decision maker at the
appropriate time to permits its most effective use.
Security- is achieved by the measures which intelligence takes to protect and preserve
the integrity of its activities.
Strategic intelligence the intelligence information which primarily long range in
nature with little practical immediate operation value.
Line intelligence which is of an immediate nature and necessary for more effective
police planning and operation
National Intelligence it is the integrated product of intelligence developed by all the
governmental branches, department concerning the broad aspect of national security
and policy
Counters Intelligence Phase of Intel covering the activity devoted in destroying the
effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and to the protection of into against espionage,
subversion and sabotage.
Undercover work is an investigative process in which disguises and pretext cover and
deception are used to gain the confidence of criminal suspects for the purpose of
determining the nature and extent of any criminal activities that maybe contemplating or
perpetuating.
ADMINISTRATIVE CODE OF THE PHILIPPINES
15. is that institution or aggregate of institutions by which an independent society
makes and carries out those rules of action which are necessary to enable men to live
in a social state, or which are imposed upon the people forming that society by those
who possess the power or authority of prescribing them. Government is the aggregate
of authorities which rule in a society. (U.S. Vs Dorr, 2 Phil.332)
a. Government
c. National Governmentb. Philippine Constitution
d. Administration16. is the aggregate of those persons in whose hands the reins of government are for
the time being. (U.S. Vs Dorr, 2 Phil.332)
a. Government
c. National Government
b. Philippine Constitution
d. Administration17. - refers only to the central government, consisting of the legislative, executive and
judicial departments of the government, as distinquished from local governments and
other government entities and is not synonymous therefore with the terms Government
of the Republic of the Philippines. (Central Bank vs CA, 63 SCRA 431)
a. Government
d. Administration
18. - highest law of the law to which all laws must conform
a. Government
d. Administration
19. _________________- execute laws
a. Executive branch
c. Co-equal powers
b. Legislative branch
d. Judiciary
20. ________________- enact laws
a. Executive branch
c. Legislative branch
b. Judiciary
d. Co-equal powers
21. _____________- interpret laws
a. Executive branch
c. Judiciary
b. Legislative branch
d. Co-equal powers
22. ________________- no one is above the other the interpretation of laws- when
there are conflict of rights, courts rule on who has a better right
a. Executive branch
c. Legislative branch
b. Judiciary
d. Co-equal powers
23. ______________________- provides for the local government units
interior
a. The Local Government Code of b. LGU
c. Interior
24.___________- refers to the provincial, City, Municipal and Barangay levels
c. Interior
and the
25. _______ -refers to the PNP, BFP, BJMP, NAPOLCOM, PPSC

c. Interior
___________- The Presidents principal forum for considering national security and
foreign policy matters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet officials.
a. National Security Council
b. NICA/NIB
c. JAPIC
d. NALECC______________- Serves as the focal point for coordination and integration of
government activities involving national intelligence.
b. NICA/NIB
c. JAPIC
d. NALECC____________- The Joint AFP-PNP Intelligence Committee primarily serves as the
linkage to coordinate the intelligence efforts of the AFP and the PNP on matters relating
to internal security.
b. NICA/NIB
c. JAPIC
d. NALECC__________________- To institutionalize intelligence exchange and sharing of
information among member agencies whose function is to enforce the law.
c. NICA/NIB
b. JAPIC
d. NALECC-
LOGISTICS MANAGEMENT
Logistics -The science of planning and carrying out the movement of troops and in its
most comprehensive sense, those aspects of police operations which deal with
acquisition, storage, distribution, movement, maintenance, evacuation and disposition of
supplies and materiel, among others.
Supplies - Include everything, except real estate, which may be needed in the
transaction of public business, or in the pursuit of any undertaking, project or activity,
whether in the nature of equipment, furniture, stationery, material for construction, or
personal property of any sort, including non-personal or contractual services such as
the repair and maintenance of equipment and furniture as well as trucking, hauling,
janitorial, security and related or analogous services (RA 7160).
SOP # 22 dated 24 Sept 92- Turn-over of command property inventory.
The inventory shall be done by the incoming and outgoing chiefs before the
turn-over of command in accordance with the following schedule:
1. Regional Commands - - - - - - - - - - 15 days
2. Provincial Commands - - - - - - - - - 10 days
3. Districts Commands - - - - - - - - - - 7 days
4. Stations - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 5 days
5. Sub-stations - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 3 days
Inventories - Consist of all expendable commodities which are normally consumed in
one (1) year in connection with government operations or use.
Acquired Assets- Consist of lands, building and structures, furniture and equipment
and other assets acquired or repossessed as a result of foreclosureof mortgage or nonpayment of instalments due.
Fixed Assets - Consist of lands and land improvements, buildings, and structures,
fixtures, furniture, equipment and books and work animals which are more or less
permanent or capital in nature.
Expendable Supplies - Are those which are consumable or perishable in nature, and
those which lose their identities when place in or attached to a major or item of property.
Non Expendable Supplies - Are those which are durable in nature and which does not
suffer any material or substantial change or alteration in their sizes or forms after using
them. Generally, equipment falls under this category.
Republic Supplies- Shall mean supplies purchased from appropriated funds of the
PNP.
Non- Republic Supplies- Shall mean supplies acquired by means other than purchase
from appropriated funds of the PNP.
Found In Station - Unaccounted Property found in station regardless of source.
Captured, confiscated and surrendered - Property captured, confiscated and
surrendered from the enemy in the course of Police operations.
Salvaged Property- Property which are unserviceable and beyond economical repair
or property where residue remaining after serviceable components has been reclaimed
from condemned unserviceable property.
Other Non-Republic - Other property not belonging to any of the above subclassification.
Inventory Management-Refers to the development and administration of policies
systems and procedures which will minimize total costs relative to inventory decisions
and related functions.
Requisition - Is an authoritative request or demand for supplies, services or personnel.
Requisition Objective - is the maximum quantities of stock established through
computations to meet foreseeable requirements to support police operations.
Basic Load the specific number of ammunition authorize for each weapon required to
be in the possession of a unit/station
Individual Load quantity of ammunition authorized to be carried by an individual
police personnel and as a part of the unit basic load when circumstances call for
more/less ammunition to be carried by any individual police personnel, the station
commander may increase/decrease the prescribed individual load.
Bulk Load number or quantity of ammunition allowed on the basis of unit of measures
other than rounds per weapon. (Ex. Rounds per police unit) such as grenades,
pyrotechnics.
Programming - Provides an orderly process of scheduling activities and the acquisition
and use of resources to carry out the plan effectively and economically. It is in this stage
that police logistics objective formulated in the planning phase are studied and the first
attempt is made to develop the monetary value for resources involved in the
accomplishment of these objectives. It involves details in police units what the specific
requirements in materials are, when the y will be available and their cost .
Limited or Selective Bidding- Procurement of highly specialized types of goods and
consulting services where only few suppliers or consultants are known to be available.
Limited Source Bidding- Procurement of major plant components where it is deemed
advantageous to limit the bidding to known qualified bidders.
Direct Contracting or single source procurement - is a method of procurement of
goods that does not require elaborate bidding documents.
Repeats Order - when provided for in the APP, is a method of procurement of goods
from the previous winning bidder, whenever there is a need to replenish goods procured
under a contract previously awarded through Competitive Bidding.
Shopping - is a method of procurement of goods whereby the procuring entity simply
requests for the submission of price quotations for readily available of-the-shelf goods
or ordinary/regular equipment to be procured directly from suppliers of known
qualifications.
Negotiated Procurement- is a method of procurement of goods, infrastructure projects
and consulting services, whereby the procuring entity directly negotiates a contract with
a technically, legally and financially capable supplier, contractor or consultant.
Supply Materiel Management- As part of the overall logistics management process, it
is linked with various operating system which include research and development,
requirement determination, acquisition or procurement, inventory, storage, maintenance
and disposition of excess and unserviceable materiel.
Maintenance Management- Refers to maintaining the material in operational status,
restoring it to a serviceable condition, or upgrading and updating the functional utility
through appropriate modifications as deemed necessary.
Organizational Maintenance- Consist of inspecting, cleaning, servicing, preserving,
lubricating, adjusting and replacing minor parts which is performed by the equipment
operator/mechanic of the using organization.
Direct Support Maintenance- Primarily consists of repair/replacement of unserviceable
spare parts, equipment repaired at this level is usually returned to the user. This
category is performed by trained personnel of maintenance units or by mobile repair
crews in direct support to the using organizations.
General Support Maintenance- Consist primarily of repair and replacement of
unserviceable parts, beyond the scope of direct support. Equipment repair at this level
is usually returned to supply channels, or may be returned to the user. This category of
maintenance is performed by maintenance units in general support to using units.
Depot Maintenance-Consist of major overhaul or complete rebuilding of parts, subassemblies, or entire major items. Rebuilt equipment at this level is usually returned to
depot stocks for re-issue.
Daily Preventive Maintenance:
1 Before Operation Service to determine if the vehicle is ready for operation.
Apply FITCALS and BLOWAGS
2 During Operation Service service consist of observing any unsatisfactory
performance while operating and should be investigated and corrected if possible
on the spot.
3 After Operation Service - Inspecting the vehicle thoroughly to determine any
malfunctions that may have developed during operations. Repeat apply FITCALS
and BLOWAGS
Transportation Management- Concurs on supporting the movement of personnel and
materiel from one point to another, meeting the requirement of timeliness to the units
needs at the least cost.
Inventory and Inspection Report- This form is used for the disposal of vehicles,
mechanized equipment, office equipment, furniture, and semi-expendable materials.
Waste Material Report- This form is used for the disposal of waste materials which
result from the consumption or utilization of expandable materials and covers damaged
equipment parts, empty containers and remnants salvaged from destroyed or damaged
fixed assets.
Forms of Property Records:
General Voucher This form shall be used to pick up the accountability of property
acquired thru purchase from appropriated funds of the PNP.
Invoice Receipt - This form shall be used in the transfer of property accountability of
non-expendable supplies from one supply officer to another, except in the case of PNP
Wide Accountable Officer. It shall serve as the evidence of issue or transfer. It may be
used as a packing slip or a tally.
Forms for Use of Depot or Installation supply Officers.
Requisition and Issue Voucher This form shall be used in issuing expendable
supplies. It shall serve as the evidence of issue and transfer of accountability, as well as
the packing slip, tally out, and shipping document.
Requisition Slip This form shall be used for requisitioning supplies.
Property Turn In Slip This form shall be used for turning-in to the supply installation
of the next higher level all excess and unserviceable supplies. This form shall be used
to debit or credit accountability.
Supplies Adjustment Sheet This form shall be used to abstract and sum up all
issues of Republic expendable supplies (issued under Requisition and Issue Voucher)
by Depot Accountable Officer.
Inventory and Inspection Report This form shall be used for dropping accountability
of Republic supplies which are either unserviceable through FWT, through transfer to
other government agencies, donation, destruction, etc.
Inventory Adjustment Report This form shall be used to adjust discrepancies for
non-Republic properties noted between balances in the stock cards and actual balance
of stock on hand of all supplies, when such discrepancies do not exceed P600.00 and
the item quantity short is not in excess of 10 per cent by line item of the recorded
quantitative balance.
Report of Survey This form shall be used for obtaining relief from accountability
and/or responsibility for lost, damaged, stolen, destroyed, or worn-out supplies and
equipment other than FWT.
Technical Inspection Report This form duly accomplished shall support the
Inventory and Inspection Report; the Report of Survey or Statement of Charges, as the
case maybe.
Report of Property Found in Station This form shall be used to pick up
accountability of all supplies like captured enemy property, confiscated property to
include donations and/or supplies not taken up in the record of the unit.
Forms for Use of Supply Officers.
Memorandum Receipt This form shall be used in issuing non-expendable property
from a supply officer to user.
Statement of Charges Within the meaning of this regulation, this form shall be used
whenever the pay of an officer or PNCO is to be charged for property lost, damaged or
destroyed by him thru his fault or negligence.
General Voucher This form shall be used when making emergency purchases of
supplies.
Stock Record Card is the primary instrument of the formal stock record account, and
indicates receipts and issue of property by individual transactions, balances on hand,
dates of transaction, voucher number and all other necessary data for cross reference
to documentation substantiating the stock record card entry.
The Property Accounting Forms of Depot or Installation Supply Officer. Voucher Register This record is the diary of the Supply Officer. In it are recorded all
the transaction (regardless of supply classification) in its life in the order of their
occurrence.
Voucher File is a chronological compilation of property vouchers (except
Memorandum Receipts) support entries made in the voucher Register, and in the Stock
Cards. In the Voucher File, vouchers are arranged in the order that transaction occur.
There is no regard made for the grouping of similar items or of items which pertain to
the same property.
Memorandum Receipt File All temporary issues to responsible officers on Memo
Receipts shall not be listed in the Voucher Register nor be assigned a voucher number
but shall be maintained in a Memorandum Receipt File, separate from the Voucher File.
Property Accounting Records of Consuming Level Supply Officers. Voucher File
Memorandum Receipt File Separate files shall be maintained for equipment
received from Supply Officer and equipment issued to individual personnel of the unit.
Record of Consumption Any record or document which shows that expendable have
been consumed in the public service or in the transaction of official business, such as
trip tickets for POL products; job orders for technical service expendables; after
encounter reports and after training reports for ammunition expended, etc.
Record of Consumption This form shall be used to effect evidence of issues made
to each enlisted man for clothing and equipment on authorized allowances. It shall also
serve as a counter-receipt for turned-in individual equipment of each enlisted man. This
form is the record of consumption for clothing
Company Property Book This is a record kept and maintained by Supply Officers at
Police Station level for all T/O&E property be Technical Services, classification and
grouping where receipts, issued and balances are shown.
Station Property Book Similar to Police Station Property Book in which a record is
maintained for all non-expendable housekeeping type non-T/O&E equipment issued by
Supply Officers of Posts, Camps or Stations.
INTELLIGENCE
Intelligence- It means the network or the system for the collection, collation,
interpretation, evaluation, processing, and dissemination of information with references
to national security.
Agent Recruitment and Management:
Spotting -process of locating, identifying, and gathering preliminary data on person/s
who has potential value to the current operations or those that may take place at a later
date
Spotting Criteria:
Placement state of being located in the target area, organization
Access position relative to assignment that enables
the
person
to
obtain
information, data
from files, records, or any other sources
Motives / motivation loyalties, possible
inducements
Investigation & assessment of candidate agents- process of conducting checks &
investigations of persons spotted to determine qualification, motivation, possible
reactions to recruitment and suitability to undertake information collection.
Motivation- incentive or drive that impels the Agent to work for the operative
TYPES / FACTORS:
IDEOLOGICAL
EMOTIONAL (love, hate, fear, revenge, vanity, envy)
MATERIAL (Need, Greed, Identification, Career)
COERCION (exposure of extra marital affairs, sexual abnormalities, illegal
activities)
suitability qualifications, motives, and other factors which make the candidate agent
appropriate or fit for the accomplishment of objective .
Accessibility candidate agents ability to place himself in the physical location of the
target to perform the required information collection without detection or compromise
Susceptibility to control ability to comply with or submit to discipline and control
Double agents individuals who are simultaneously employed by 2 opposing
intelligence agencies with only one of the agencies aware of the dual roles
Dual agents individuals simultaneously and independently employed by 2 or more
friendly intelligence units / office
Intelligence peddler individual who sells information
Paper mill individual who, offers a mixture of valid but outdated information, overt
news, propaganda or sometimes outright fabrications
Plan the Approach
a
Cold approach recruiter establishes contacts and attempts to recruit
without proper cultivation.
b.
development approach recruiter cultivates Candidate Agent as long as he
thinks necessary before trying to recruit
c.
combination approach one cultivates the Candidate Agent, another attempts
the actual recruitment.
Agent debriefing- Act of extracting from an Agent maximum amount of pertinent and
useful information obtained on a collection mission
Disposition/Termination- Determination of courses of action upon Agents completion
of objectives / requirements
Principles of Intelligence:
Interdependence- Intelligence is artificially subdivided into component elements to
ensure complete coverage, eliminate duplication and to reduce the overall task or
manageable sizes.
Continuity- It is necessary that coverage be continuous so that the shape of what

happens today could be studied in the light of what was happened before which in turn
would enable us to predict the shape of things to come.
Usefulness- Intelligence is useless if it remains in the minds or in the files of its
collectors or its producers.
Communication- Intelligence in order to be adequate to their needs must be
communicated to all the decision makers in manner that they will understand and form
that will permit its most effective use.
Selection- Intelligence should be essential and pertinent to the purpose at hand.
Timeliness- intelligence must be communicated to the decision maker at the
appropriate time to permits its most effective use.
Security- Security is achieved by the measures which intelligence takes to protect and
preserve the integrity of its activities.
Strategic intelligence the intelligence information which primarily long range in
nature with little practical immediate operation value.
Line intelligence which is of an immediate nature and necessary for more effective
police planning and operation
National Intelligence it is the integrated product of intelligence developed by all the
governmental branches, department concerning the broad aspect of national security
and policy
Counter Intelligence Phase of Intel covering the activity devoted in destroying the
effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and to the protection of into against espionage,
subversion and sabotage.
Undercover work is an investigative process in which disguises and pretext cover and
deception are used to gain the confidence of criminal suspects for the purpose of
determining the nature and extent of any criminal activities that maybe contemplating or
perpetuating.
Stages of undercover work:
The early stages A typical pattern is to bring someone in as the girlfriend or boyfriend
of an infiltrator, and then distance themselves from that infiltrator.
The middle stages some agents are allowed to create their own cover stories or
legends and this will depend upon the type of behavior involved (drugs, contraband,
gambling, subversive group, terrorism)
The last stage Some deep cover agents lose perspective and go native so agencies
have policies in place to avoid this. Most agencies will call someone in who has been
doing this kind of work too long so that they can salvage their usefulness as a regular
employee.
Intelligence operation- It is the result of intelligence planning which is always ahead of
operation although an operation can be made without a plan, it is usually due to sudden
and inevitable situation but definitely this is poor intelligence management.
Infiltration the insertion of action agent inside the target
Penetration recruitment of action agent inside the target organization
Cover the means by which an individual group of organization conceal the true nature
of its acts and or existence from the observer.
Cover story a biographical data through fictional that will portray the personality of
the agent he assumed, a scenario to cover up the operation
Cover Support an agent assigned in target areas with the primary mission of
supporting the cover story.
Types of cover:
1 Natural Cover using actual or true background
2 Artificial Using biographical data adopted for the purpose
3 Cover within a Cover justification of existence
4 Multiple Cover any cover you wish
Organizational Cover- Is an account consisting of biographical data/information which
when adopted by an individual will assume the personality he wants to adopt.
Undercover assignment- It is an investigative technique in which agent conceal his
official identity and obtain information from that organization.
Positive Control is characterized by professionalism and rapport
Agent motivation
Psychological control
Negative Control characterized by black mail and threat
Disciplinary Action includes verbal reprimand for pouring performance of insecure

actions.
Escrow Account control of an agent by putting his salary in a bank to be withdraw
only after the Intel opns.
Blackmail
Philippine Intelligence Community- refers to the informal grouping of offices and units
within the PNP organization, which perform or undertake intelligence and
counterintelligence function relating to law enforcement and public safety.
PNPM-D-O-194 DHRDD- An integrated and neatly organized entity composed of units
or agencies, which have intelligence interests and responsibilities.
Directorate for Intelligence- assist the Chief, PNP in attaining intelligence objectives
thru the effective management of all intelligence and counter intelligence activities of
the PNP.
PNP IG- serve as the primary operating arm of the PNP tasked with the fundamental
mission to conduct police intelligence, investigation on various threat groups to national
security and counterintelligence activities in support to the anti-criminality campaign of
the PNP.
Production of Intelligence- collection of pertinent information and its subsequent
conversion into useful intelligence for dissemination
Counterintelligence Operations - protection against espionage, subversion of its
personnel and sabotage of key installations and facilities
Special Operations -focuses on the conduct of neutralization measures
Legal Offensive -undertakes the collection of information and materials that can be
accepted as court evidence
Regional intelligence divisions, police regional offices- assist the Regional Director
in attaining the objectives through effective management of all intelligence and
counterintelligence activities of the Philippine National Police or Police Regional Office.
CIDG- Undertake the monitoring and investigation & prosecution of all crimes involving
economic sabotage and other crimes of such magnitude & extent as to indicate their
commission by highly placed of professional criminal syndicates & organizations.
Investigate all major cases involving violations of the Revised Penal Code and operate
against organized crime groups unless the President assigns the case exclusively to
the National Bureau of Investigation.
SAF- To plan and conduct special operations anywhere in the country in the areas of
counter-insurgency, unconventional warfare, anti-terrorism, hostage-taking, rescue, civil
disturbance control, search and rescue and other related small unit operations.
ASG- to secure all the countrys airports against offensive and terroristic acts that
threaten civil aviation, exercise, operational control and supervision over all agencies
involved in airport security operations, and enforces all laws and regulations relative to
air travel protection and safety.
Maritime Group- to perform all police functions over Philippine territorial waters, lakes
and rivers, along coastal areas to include ports and harbors, and small islands in order
to maintain peace and order and public safety.
Highway Patrol Group- To Promote Safety along the Highways, Enhance traffic safety
Consciousness through Inter-agency Cooperation Concerning Police traffic safety
Education and traffic Law Enforcement functions and develop reforms in the Crime
prevention aspects against all forms Committed along the National Highways involving
the use of Motor Vehicle.
PSPG-the Police Security & Protection office is mandated by law to provide security to
government officials, private individuals & foreign
dignitaries authorized to be
given protection.
CSG- To provide administrative services and general supervision over the organization,
business operations and the activities of all organized private detectives, watchmen,
security guard agencies and company guard forces and to supervise the licensing and
registration of firearms and explosive.
National Security Council - The Presidents principal forum for considering national
security and foreign policy matters with his senior national security advisors and cabinet
officials.
NICA/NIB- Serves as the focal point for coordination and integration of government
activities involving national intelligence.
JAPIC- The Joint AFP-PNP Intelligence Committee primarily serves as the linkage to
coordinate the intelligence efforts of the AFP and the PNP on matters relating to internal
security.
NALECC- To institutionalize intelligence exchange and sharing of information among
member agencies whose function is to enforce the law.
Information - is raw data from any source, data that may be fragmentary, contradictory,
unreliable, ambiguous, deceptive, or wrong.
Intelligence - is information that has been collected, integrated, evaluated, analyzed,
and interpreted.
Finished intelligence- is the final product of the Intelligence Cycle ready to be
delivered to the policymaker.
Intelligence Cycle- Is the process of developing raw information into finished
intelligence for consumers, including policymakers, law enforcement executives,
investigators, and patrol officers. Used for decision making and action (Source: Iowa
Dept of PS)
Plan, Collect, Process, Analyze, Share
Collection Plan- Is a dynamic tool used to coordinate and integrate the efforts of all
collection units and agencies.
Tradecraft - is any technique or trick that substantiates a view of the work as a skilled
occupation or craft. Covert in nature.
Information Processing and Collation phase in which
information
becomes
intelligence.
Recording reduction of info to writing or some other form of graphical representation
and the arranging of info into groups of related items; info are entered into the database.
Collation filtering and sorting information, including deciding what is potentially
relevant to the needs.
Processing and collation - involves conversion of raw information into a form usable
by analysts.
Integration combination of elements isolated in analysis with other known information
to form a logical picture or hypothesis of enemy activities or the influence of operational
area characteristics on the mission of the Office.
Analysis- is the separation of a whole into its parts to allow an examination and
interpretation of the information, typically involves certain methods and techniques,
some of which are statistical, others which are not, which reveal patterns and trends
that often reveal the probability of conclusions; is the "working" of collected intelligence
to explore contexts and anticipated events in its fullest political, military, economic,
diplomatic and cultural implications.
Production- Conversion of information into intelligence through the integration,
analysis, evaluation, and interpretation of all source data and the preparation of
intelligence products in support of known or anticipated user requirements (US DOD).
Dissemination and Use - Delivery of intelligence to users in a suitable form and the
application of the intelligence to appropriate missions, tasks, and functions. The
distribution of raw or finished intelligence to the consumers whose needs initiated the
intelligence requirements. These recipients of finished intelligence then make decisions
or take action based on the intelligence that has been provided.
Evaluation and Feedback- Continuous assessment of intelligence operations during
each phase of the intelligence cycle to ensure that the intelligence requirements are
being met. Assess the value of the intelligence that has been provided. Intelligence unit
managers can also use the feedback to assess the value of their units products, to
assist in assessing unit productivity, for issue search, and to highlight unforeseen rends.
The feedback may also be helpful to support existing or request additional resources.
CONTEMPORARY MANAGEMENT
Management- The planning, organizing, leading, and controlling of human and other
resources to achieve organizational goals efficiently and effectively.
Managers Goal:
Organizational performance is a measure of how efficiently & effectively a manager
uses resources to satisfy customers & achieve organizational goals.
Efficiency a measure of how well or how productively resources are used to achieve
a goal.
Effectiveness a measure of the appropriateness of the goals an organization is
pursuing and of the degree to which the organization achieves those goals.
Managerial Functions:
Planning-Choose appropriate organizational goals & courses of action to best achieve
those goals.
Organizing-Establish task & authority relationships that allow people to work together
to achieve organization goals
Leading-Motivate, coordinate, & energize individuals & groups to work together to
achieve organizational goals
Controlling- Establish accurate measuring systems to evaluate how well the
organization has achieved its goals.
Levels of Management:
First-Line Managers -a manager who is responsible for the daily supervision of nonmanagerial employees.
Middle Managers -a manager who supervises first-line managers and is responsible for
finding the best way to use resources to achieve organizational goals.
Top Manager - a manager who establishes organizational goals, decides how
departments should interact, & monitors the performance of middle managers.
Top Management Team- a group composed of the CEO (chief executive officer), the
COO (chief operating officer), and the heads of the most important departments.
Changes in Managerial Hierarchies:
Restructuring - Downsizing an organization by eliminating the jobs of large numbers of
top, middle, & first-line managers & non managerial employees.
Outsourcing- Contracting with another company, usually abroad, to have it performs an
activity the organization previously performed itself.
Empowerment - The expansion of employees knowledge, tasks, & responsibilities.
Self-managed Team - A group of employees who supervise their own activities and
monitor the quality of the goods & services they provide.
Mintzberg Managerial Roles:
Decisional roles - Are closely associated with methods of managers use to plan
strategy & utilize resources.
Informational roles -Are closely associated with the tasks necessary to obtain &
transmit information & so have been dramatically impacted by IT.
Interpersonal roles- Managers assume interpersonal roles to provide direction &
supervision for both employees & the organization as a whole.
Managerial Skills:
Conceptualize skills- The ability to analyze & diagnose a situation & to distinguish
between cause & effect.
Human skills - The ability to understand, alter, lead, & control the behavior of other
individuals & groups.
Technical skills- The job-specific knowledge & techniques required to perform an
organizational role.
Competencies - The specific set of skills, abilities, & experiences that allows one
manager to perform at a higher level than another manager in a particular setting.
Challenges for Management in Global Environment:
Global organizations - Organizations that operate to compete in more than one
country.
Competitive advantage - The ability of one organization to outperform other
organizations because it produces desired goods or services more efficiently &
effectively than they do.
Scientific Management Theory - The systematic study of the relationships between
people & tasks for the purpose of redesigning the work process to increase efficiency.
Administrative Management Theory - The study of how to create an organizational
structure that leads to high efficiency & effectiveness.
The theory of Bureaucracy
Bureaucracy a formal system of organization & administration designed to ensure
efficiency & effectiveness.
Authority The power to hold people accountable for their actions & to make decisions
concerning the use of organizational resources.
Fayols Principle of Management:
Division of Labor To printout the downside of too much specialization.
Authority & Responsibility The power to hold people accountable for their
actions & make decisions concerning the use of organizational resources.
Unity of Command A reporting relationships in which an employee receives

orders from, & reports to, only one superior.
Line of Authority The chain of command extending from the top to the bottom
of an organization.
Centralization The concentration of authority at the top of the managerial
hierarchy.
Unity of Direction The singleness of purpose that make possible the creation
of one plan of action to guide managers & workers as they use organizational
resources.
Equity The justice, impartiality & fairness to which all organizational members
are entitled.
Order The methodical arrangement of positions to provide the organization
with the greatest benefit & to provide employees which career opportunities.
Initiative The ability to act on ones own, without direction from a superior.
Discipline Obedience, energy application, & other outward marks of respect
for a superiors authority.
Esprit de Corps Shared feeling of comradeship, enthusiasm, or devotion to a
common cause among members of a group.
Behavioral Management Theory- The study of how managers should behave to
motivate employees & encourage them to perform at high levels & be committed to the
achievement of organizational goals.
The Hawthorne Studies & Human Relations:
Hawthorne effect the finding that a managers behaviour or leadership
approach can effect workers level of performance.
Human relations movement - management approach that advocates the idea
that supervisor should receivebehavioural training to manage subordinates in
ways that elicit their cooperation & increase their productivity.
Informal organization the system of behavioural rules & norms that emerge in
a group.
Organizational Behaviours the study of the factors that have an impact on
how individuals & groups respond to & act in organization.
The study of how managers should behave to motivate employees & encourage
them to perform at high levels & be committed to the achievement of
organizational goals.
The Hawthorne Studies & Human Relations:
Hawthorne effect the finding that a managers behaviour or leadership
approach can effect workers level of performance.
Human relations movement- management approach that advocates the idea
those supervisors should receivebehavioural training to manage subordinates in
ways that elicit their cooperation & increase their productivity.
Informal organization the system of behavioural rules & norms that emerge in
a group.
Organizational Behaviours the study of the factors that have an impact on
how individuals & groups respond to & act in organization.
Management Science Theory by Taylor-An approach to management that uses
rigorous quantitative techniques to help managers make maximum use of organizational
resources.
Branches:
Quantitative Management utilizes mathematical techniques.
Operations Management use to analyse any aspect of an organizations
production system to increase efficiency.
Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on analysing an organizations
input, conversion, & output activities to increase product quality.
Management Information System design systems that provide information
about events occurring inside the organization as well as in its external
environment.
Organizational Environment Theory- The set of forces & conditions that operate
beyond an organizations boundaries but affect a managers ability to acquire & utilize
resources.
The Open Systems View
Open System a system that takes in resources from the external environment
& converts them into goods & services that are then sent back to that
environment for purchase by customers.
Closed System - a system that is self-contained& thus not affected by changes
occurring in its external environment.
Entropy the tendency of a closed system to lose its ability to control itself &
thus to dissolve & disintegrate.
Synergy performance gains that result when individuals & departments
coordinate their actions.
Contingency Theory- The idea that the organizational structures & control systems
managers choose depend on are contingent on characteristics of the external
environment in which the organization operates.
Mechanistic Structure An organizational structure in which authority is centralize,
tasks & rules are clearly specified, & employees are closely supervised.
Organic Structure An organizational structure in which authority is decentralized to
middle & first line managers & tasks & roles are left ambiguous to encourage
employees to cooperate & respond quickly to the unexpected.
Enduring Characteristic: Personality Traits- Enduring tendencies to feel, think,
and act in certain ways.
The Big Five Personality Traits :
Extraversion The tendency to experience positive emotions & moods & to feel
good about oneself & the rest of the world.
Negative Affectivity The tendency to experience negative emotions & moods,
to feel distressed, & to be critical of oneself & others.
Agreeableness The tendency to get along well with other people.
Conscientiousness The tendency to be careful, scrupulous, & persevering.
Openness to Experience The tendency to be original, have broad interest, be
open to a wide range of stimuli, be daring, and take risks.
Other Personality Traits that Affect Managerial Behaviours
Locus of Control The tendency to locate responsibility for ones fate within
oneself.
External Locus of Control The tendency to locate responsibility for ones fate
on outside forces & to believe that ones own behaviour has little impact on
outcomes.
Self-esteem The degree to which individuals feel good about themselves &
their capabilities.
Need for achievement - The extent to which an individual has a strong desire to
perform challenging tasks well & to meet personal standards for excellence.
Need for affiliation The extent to which an individual is concerned about
establishing & maintaining good interpersonal relations, being liked, & having
other people get along.
Need for Power The extent to which an individual desires to control or
influence others.
Values, Attitudes, Moods and behaviour
Values: Terminal and Instrumental
Terminal Value a lifelong goal or objective that an individual seeks to achieve.
Instrumental Value a mode of conduct that an individual seeks to follow.
Attitude-An attitude is a collection of feelings and beliefs.
Two most important attitudes:
1 Job Satisfaction The collection of feelings & beliefs that managers have about
their current jobs.
2 Organizational Commitment The collection of feelings & beliefs that
managers have about their organization as a whole.
Organizational Culture -The shared set of beliefs, expectations, values, norms, & work
routines that influence the ways in which individuals, group, & teams interact with one
another & cooperate to achieve organizational goals.
The Nature of Ethics
Ethical Dilemma The quandary people find themselves on when they have decide if
they should act in way that might help another person or group even though doing so
might go against their own self-interest.
Ethics The inner guiding moral principles, values, & beliefs that people use to analyse
or interpret a situation & then decide what right or appropriate way to behave is.
Stake Holders Ethics
Stake holders The people & groups that supply a company with its productive
resources & so have a claim on & stake in the company.
Rules:
Utilitarian Rule - An ethical decision is a decision that produces the greatest
good for the greatest number of people.
Moral Rights Rule An ethical decision is one that best maintains & protects the
fundamental or inalienable rights & privileges of the people affected by it.
Justice Rule An Ethical decision that distributes benefits & harms among
people & groups in a fair, equitable, or impartial way.
Practical Rule An ethical decision is one that a manager has no reluctance
about communicating to people outside the company because the typical person
in a society would think it is acceptable.
Societal Ethics Standards that govern how members of a society should deal
with one another in matters involving issues such as fairness, justice, poverty, &
the rights of the individual.
Occupational Ethics Standards that govern how members of a profession,
trade, or craft should conduct themselves when performing work-related
activities.
Individual Ethics Personal standards & values that determine how people
view their responsibilities to other & how they should act in situation when their
own self- interest is at stake.
Organizational Ethics The guiding practices & beliefs through which a particular
company & its s managers view their responsibility toward their stakeholders.
Approaches to Social Responsibility
Social Responsibility The way a companys managers & employees view their duty
or obligation to make decisions that protect, enhance, & promote the welfare & wellbeing of stakeholders & society as a whole.
Obstructionist Approach Companies & their managers choose not to behave
in a socially responsible way & behave unethically & illegally.
Defensive Approach Companies & their managers behave ethically to the
degree that they stay within the law & abide strictly with legal requirements.
Accommodative Approach Companies & their managers behave legally & try
to balance the interests of different stakeholders as the need arises.
Proactive Approach Companies & their managers actively embrace socially
responsible behaviour, going out of their way to different stakeholder groups &
utilizing organizational resources to promote the interests of all stakeholders.
Obstructionist Approach Companies & their managers choose not to behave
in a socially responsible way & behave unethically & illegally.
Defensive Approach Companies & their managers behave ethically to the
degree that they stay within the law & abide strictly with legal requirements.
Accommodative Approach Companies & their managers behave legally & try
to balance the interests of different stakeholders as the need arises.
Proactive Approach Companies & their managers actively embrace socially
responsible behaviour, going out of their way to different stakeholder groups &
utilizing organizational resources to promote the interests of all stakeholders.
The Increasing Diversity of the workforce and the community
Diversity - Differences among people in age, gender, race, ethnicity, religion, sexual
orientation, socioeconomic background, and capabilities/disabilities.
The Ethnical Imperative to Manage Diversity Effectively
Distributive Justice A moral principle calling for the distributions, & other
organizational resources to be based on meaningful contributions that individuals have
made & not on personal characteristics over which they have no control.
Procedural Justice A moral principle calling for the use of fair procedures to
determine how to distribute outcomes to organizational members.
What is Perception?
Perception The process through which people select, organize, & interpret what they
see, hear, touch, smell, & taste to give meaning & order to the world around them.
Factors that Influence Managerial Perception:
Schema an abstract knowledge structure that is stored in memory & makes possible
the interpretation & organization of information about a person, event, or situation.
Gender Schema Preconceived beliefs or ideas about the nature of men & women,
their traits, attitudes, behaviours& preferences.
Perception as a Determinant of Unfair Treatment
Stereotype Simplistic & often inaccurate beliefs about the typical characteristics of
particular groups of people.
Bias The systematic tendency to use information about others in ways that result in
inaccurate perception.
Overt Discrimination Knowing & willingly denying diverse individuals access to
opportunities & outcomes in an organization.
Sexual Harassment
Sexual harassment - seriously damages both the people who are harassed and the
reputation of the organization in which it occurs.
Forms of Sexual Harassment:
Quid pro quo sexual harassment asking for or forcing an employee to
perform sexual favours in exchange for some reward or to avoid negative
consequences.
Hostile work environment sexual harassment Telling lewd jokes, displaying
pornography, making sexually oriented remarks about someones personal
appearance, & other sex-related actions that make the work environment
unpleasant.
The Nature of Managerial Decision Making
Decision Making - The process by which managers respond to opportunities & threats
by analysing options & making determinations about specific organizational goals &
courses of action.
Process of Decision Making
Programmed Decision Making- Routine, Virtually automatic decision making that
follows established rules or guidelines.
Non Programmed Decision Making- Non routine decision making that occurs in
response to unusual, unpredictable opportunities & threats.
The Classical Model
Classical Decision Making Model- A prescriptive approach to decision making based
on the assumption that the decision maker can identify & evaluate all possible
alternatives & their consequences & rationally choose the most appropriate course of
action.
Optimum Decision The most appropriate decision in light of what managers believe
to be the most desirable future consequences for the organization.
The Administrative Model
Administrative Model- An approach to decision making that explains why decision
making is inherently uncertain & risky& why managers usually make satisfactory rather
than optimum decision.
Three Important Concepts:
Bounded Rationality cognitive limitations that constrain ones ability to
interpret, process, and act on information.
Incomplete Information
Ambiguous information Information that can be interpreted
In multiple and often conflicting ways.
Ambiguous Information - Information that can be interpreted in multiple & often
conflicting ways.
Cognitive Biases in Decision Making
The Four Sources of Bias:
Prior Hypothesis Bias A cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to base
decisions on strong prior beliefs even if evidence shows that those beliefs are
wrong.
Representativeness Bias A cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to
generalize inappropriate from a small sample or from a single vivid event or
episode.
Illusion of Control A source of cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to
overestimate ones own ability to control activities & events.
Escalating Commitment A source of cognitive bias resulting from the

tendency to commit additional resources to a project event if evidence shows that
the project is falling.
Group Decision Making- Managers can improve the quality of group decision making
by using techniques such as: Devils Advocacy Dialectical Inquiry.
Organizational Learning and Creativity
Organizational Learning- the Process through which managers seeks to improve
employees desire & ability to understand & manage the organization & its task
environment.
Learning Organization- An organization in which managers try to maximize the ability
of individuals & groups to think & behave creatively & thus minimize the potential for
organizational learning to take place.
Creativity - A decision makers ability to discover original & novel ideas that lead to
feasible alternative courses of action.
Promoting Group Creativity
Brainstorming is a group problem-solving technique in which managers meets
face to caf to generate a debate a wide variety of alternatives from which to
make a decision.
Nominal Group Technique a decision making techniques in which group
members write down ideas & solutions, read their suggestions to whole group,
and discuss & then rank the alternatives.
Delphi Technique A decision- making technique in which group members do
not meet face-to-face but respond in writing to questions posed by the group
leader.
The Nature of Planning Process
Planning Identifying & selecting appropriate goals & courses of action; one of
the four principal functions of management.
Strategy A cluster of decision about what goals to pursue, what actions to take
& how to use resources to achieve goals.
Mission Statement A broad declaration of an organizations purpose that
identifies the organizations products & customers & distinguishes the
organization from its competitors.
Strategy Formulation Analysis of an organizations current situation followed
by the development of strategies to accomplish its mission & achieve its goals.
SWOT Analysis A planning exercise in which managers identify organizational
( S ) strengths
(W) weaknesses, environment
(O) opportunities and
( T ) threat
Planning and Strategy Formulation
Corporate Level Strategy - A plan of action to manage the growth & development of an
organization so as to maximize its long-run ability to create value.
Business Level Strategy- A plan of action to take advantage of favourable
opportunities & find ways to counter threats so as to complete effectively in an industry
Functional Level Strategy - A plan of action to improve the ability of an organizations
departments to create value.
Designing Organizational Structure
Organizational Structure a formal system of task & reporting relationships that
coordinates & motivates organizational members so that they work together to achieve
organizational goals.
Organizational Design The process by which managers make specific organizing
choices that result in particular kind of organizational structure.
Grouping Tasks into jobs
Job Design The process by which managers decide how to divide tasks into
specific jobs.
Job Enlargement Increasing the number of different tasks in a given job by
changing the division of labor.
Job Enrichment Increasing the degree of responsibility a worker has over the
or her job.
Grouping Jobs in Functions and Divisions
Functional Structure An organizational structure composed of all the

departments that an organization requires to produce its good or services.
Divisional Structure An organizational structure composed of separate
business units within which are the functions that work together to produce a
specific product for a specific customer.
Coordinating Functions and Divisions
Allocating Authority to coordinate the activities of people, functions and
divisions.
Authority The power to hold people accountable for their actions and to make
decisions concerning the use of organizational resources.
Hierarchy of Authority An organizations chain of command, specifying the
relative authority of each manager.
Span of Control The number of subordinates who report directly to a manager.
Control Systems and IT
Control Systems
Formal target-setting, monitoring, evaluation, & feedback systems that provide
managers with information about how well the organizations strategy and structure are
working.
Three characteristics:
1 It is flexible enough to allow managers to respond as necessary to unexpected
events;
2 It provides accurate information & gives a true picture of organizational
performance;
3 It provides information in a timely manner.
Control and Information Systems- Was developed to measure performance at each
stage in the process of transforming inputs into finished goods & services.
Financial Measure of Performance
Profit ratios measure how the well the managers are using the organizations
resources to generate profits. Return on Investment (ROI)
Liquidity ratios measure how well the managers have protected the
organizational resources to be able to meet short-term obligations.
Leverage ratios to what extent have managers used barrowed funds to
finance investments.
Activity ratios measures how efficiently managers are turning inventory over
so that excess inventory is not carried.
Operating Budget- A budget that states how the managers intend to use organizational
resources to achieve organizational goals.
behaviour Control- Work to design the if managers also establish control systems that
allow them to motivate & shape employee behaviour.
Bureaucratic Control- Control of behaviour by means of a comprehensive system of
rules & standard operating procedure.
Organizational Culture and Clan Control
Organizational Culture The set of values, norms, standards of behaviour & common
expectations that control the ways in which individuals & groups in an organization
interact with one another & work to achieve organizational goals.
Clan Control The control exerted on individuals & groups in an organization by
shared values, norms, standards of behaviour& expectations.
Organization Change - The movement of an organization away from its present state
and toward some desired future state to increase its efficiency & effectiveness.
Human Resource Management - Activities those managers engage in to attract &
retain employees & to ensure that they perform at a high level & contribute to the
accomplishment of organization goals.
Strategic Human Resource Management - The process by which managers design
the components of a human resource management system to be consistent with each
other, with other elements of organizational architecture, & with the organizations
strategy & goals.
Motivation and Performance
Motivation Psychological forces that determine the direction of persons behaviour in
an organization, a persons level of effort, and a persons level of persistence.
Intrinsically motivated behaviour behaviour that is performed for its own sake.
Extrinsically motivated behaviour behaviour that is performed to acquire materials

or social rewards or to avoid punishment.
Training and Development
Training Teaching organization members how to perform their current jobs and
helping them acquire the knowledge and skills they need to be effective performers.
Development Building the knowledge and skills of organization members so that they
will be prepared to take on new responsibilities and challenges.
Needs Assessment An assessment of which employees need training or
development and what type of skills or knowledge they need to acquire.
Types of Training
Classroom Instruction The employees acquire knowledge and skills in a
classroom setting.
On-the-Job Training Training that takes place in the work setting as
employees perform their job tasks.
Performance Appraisal and Feedback
Performance Appraisal
The evaluation of employees job performance & contributions to their
organizations.
Performance Feedback - The process through which managers share performance
appraisal information with subordinates an opportunity to reflect on their own
performance, & develop, with subordinates, plans for the future.
The Nature of Motivation
Motivation Psychological forces that determine the direction of a persons behaviour
in an organization, a persons level of effort, and a person level of persistence.
Intrinsically motivated behaviour behaviour that is performed for its own sake.
Extrinsically motivated behaviour behaviour that is performed to acquire material or
social rewards or to avoid punishment.
Outcome Anything person gets from a job or organization.
The Nature of Leadership
Leadership The process by which an individual exerts influence over other people &
inspires, motivates, & directs their activities to help achieve group or organizational
goals.
Leader An individual who is able to exert influence over other people to help achieve
group or organizational goals.
Personal leadership Style- The specific ways in which a manager chooses to
influence other people- shapes the way the manager approaches planning, organizing,
& controlling.
Sources of Managerial Power
Legitimate Power The authority that a manager has by virtue of his or her
position in an organizations hierarchy.
Reward Power The ability of a manager to give or withhold tangible &
intangible rewards.
Coercive Power The ability of a manager to punish others.
Expert Power Power that is based on the special knowledge, skills, &
expertise that a leader possesses.
Referent Power Power that comes from subordinates and co-workers
respect, admiration, and loyalty.
Empowerment Expanding employees tasks and responsibilities.
The behaviour Model
Consideration -behaviour indicating that a manager trusts, respects, and cares about
subordinates.
Initiating structure behaviour that managers engage in to ensure that gets done,
subordinates perform their jobs acceptably, and the organization is efficient and
effective.
Contingency Model Leadership
Relationship-oriented leaders Leaders whose primary concern is to develop
good relationships with their subordinates and to be liked by them
Task-oriented leaders Leaders whose primary concern it to ensure that
subordinates perform at a high level.
Leader-member relations The extent to which followers like, and are loyal to
their leader; a determinant of how favourable a situation is for leading.
Task structure The extent to which the work to be performed is clear-cut so

that a leaders subordinates know what needs to be accomplished and how to go
about doing it ; a determinant of how favourable a situation is for leading.
Position power The amount the legitimate, reward, and coercive power that a
leader has by virtue of his or her position in an organization; a determinant of
how favourable a situation is for leading.
Transformational Leadership Leadership that makes subordinates aware of the
importance of their jobs and performance to the organization and aware of their own
needs for personal growth and that motivates subordinates to work for the good of the
organization.
Gender Leadership- Female and male managers do not differ in the leadership
behaviours that they perform, contrary to stereotypes suggesting that women are more
relationship-oriented and men more tasks oriented.
Emotional Intelligence Leadership- The moods and emotions leaders experience on
the job, and their ability to effectively manage these feelings, can influence their
effectiveness as leaders.
Communication and Management
Communication The sharing of information between two or more individuals or
groups to reach a common understanding.
Good Communication is necessary for managers to learn new about
technologies, implement them in their organizations, and train workers in how to
use them.
The Communication Process
Sender The person or group wishing to share information.
Message The information that a sender wants to share.
Encoding Translating a message into understandable symbols or language.
Noise Anything that hampers any stage of the communication process.
Receiver The person or group for which the message is intended.
Medium The pathway through which an encoded message is transmitted to a
receiver.
Decoding interpreting and trying to make sense of a message.
Organizational Conflict- The discord that arises when the goals, interests, or values of
different individuals or groups are incompatible & those individuals or groups block or
thwart one anothers attempts to achieve their objectives.
Negotiation- A method of conflict resolution in which the two parties in conflict consider
various alternative ways to allocate resources to each other in order to come up with a
solution acceptable to them both.
Third Party Negotiator An impartial individual with expertise in handling conflicts and
negotiations who helps parties in conflict reach an acceptable solution.
Mediator A third party negotiator is who facilitates negotiations but has no authority to
impose a solution.
Arbitrator A third party negotiator who can impose what he or she thinks is a fair
solution to a conflict that both parties are obligated to abide by.
Organizational Politics- Activities that manager engage in to increase their power & to
use power effectively to achieve their goals & overcome resistance or opposition.
Political Strategies Tactics that managers use to increase their power and to use
power effectively to influence & gain the support of other people while overcoming
resistance or opposition.
Planning and Programming
Planning- is setting the direction for something some system and then working to
ensure the system follows that direction.
Strategic Planning- is long-term and with a far reaching impact. The commonly agreed
timeline for these types of plans is more than five (5) years in duration. This is usually
done at the executive levels.
Environmental Analysis - The assessment of external factors; physical environment,
geographical location and the social climate - in order to cope with the rapid changes in
the environment.
Strategies- The major course of action that an organization takes to achieve its "goals"
- taking in consideration the opportunities the organization may exploit, and the threats it
must address.
Components- Strategic Alternatives - set of strategic options from which an

organization can derive their preferred choice.
MEDIUM-TERM PLANNING - These are plans whose timelines are between those of
strategic plans and tactical plans usually between one (1) to three (3) years. There are
some texts which include medium-term plans as among the strategic plan, as it shapes
the organization partially.
Tactical Planning- is short-term and usually has limited impact. This is also referred to
as a near term plan. The commonly agreed timeline for these types of plans is less than
one (1) year. This is usually done at the ground levels of the organization.
Inputs- include resources such as raw materials, money, technologies and people
Process-Inputs are aligned, moved along and carefully coordinated, ultimately to
achieve the goals set for the system.
Outputs- tangible results produced by processes in the system, such as products or
services for beneficiaries
Projects- any piece of work that is undertaken or attempted; "he prepared for great
undertakings. A planned undertaking.
ACTION
Basic Records Management
Records- all recorded information, regardless of media or characteristics, made or
received and maintained by an organization in the pursuance of its legal obligation or
transaction of its business.
1. Time Value - refers to the specific period of usefulness of records.
a. Temporary - when they have served the purposes for which they were created
or when action on them has been accomplished or terminated (PDS, Certificate of
Appearance, Press releases, Minutes of Staff Meeting)
b. Permanent - when the records have administrative, legal, archival, research or
historical significance and are worthy of preserving (Decision, Minutes of Board
Meeting, Balance Sheets, Annual Report, Directives/Issuances, Committee Report
Programs of the Agency)
2. Utility Value - refers to the nature of the usefulness of the records to the
organizations operations.
a. Administrative value - the value of records that is determined by their use as
administrative tools to accomplish the mission of the organization (PDS, Minutes of Staff
Meeting).
b. Fiscal - the value of records that is determined by their use as administrative tools to
discharge the financial obligation of the organization (Trial Balance, Balance sheets,
Advice on allotment.
2. Utility Value
c. Legal - the value of records that express legal decision, opinion and those that
generally give protection to the civil, legal, property and other rights of an individual, it
contains evidence of legally enforceable rights of a person (Resolution, Decision,
Contract).
d. Archival - the value of records that reflects a significant historical event or
historical documents that could be used as basis of research (Turn-over and
Assumption of Office of the CPNP).
. Utility Value
e. Historical - the value that provides complete records of the past and current
activities, the value referring to policies, plans, rules and procedures which the
organization or one of the component part adopted to carry out its functions and
responsibilities (Transformation Plan, One PNP).
f. Research - the value that provides actual or potential usefulness for studies of
methods, operation, data or experience and investigation for use in the conduct of
further
scientific
researches
(Report
on
test
and
evaluation
of
Equipment/firearms/vehicles/clothing)
Records Managers - charged with the responsibility of the total records
management program.
Supervisory Personnel - assist the manager in the implementation of records
management.
Operating Personnel - persons responsible in carrying the day to day operation

of the agency or routine work
Files Management- Is the management of official records that are properly and
adequately classified and arranged according to a GUIDE.
Coding writing the symbol on the upper right hand corner of the paper.
Cross-referencing determining the subjects if more than one subject or related to the
previous records.
Sorting and assembling use of sorting devise if there are many papers to be filedplace materials for file on trays.
Storing be consistent in the arrangement of your folders. Folders and papers should
be neatly filed, neither folding nor overlapping. Avoid thick folders.
Archives- The non-current documents in whatever form of a public or private institution
which are deemed worthy of permanent preservation of their information they contain.
Records Disposition- The systematic transfer of non-current records from an office to
records storage area. The identification and preservation of permanent records and the
destruction of valueless records.
Records Disposition Program- is a pre-determined, well arranged and coordinated
plan of activities for the retention, preservation and destruction of records in an agency
or institution.
Top Management Support- It must provide the necessary tools, facilities and
equipment and supplies from the program.
Program Directives- A circular or directive from top management announcing the
program should be issued.
-
G00D LUCK -

Reviewer Psoac Revised

Transféré par

Informations du document

Copyright

Formats disponibles

Partager ce document

Partager ou intégrer le document

Options de partage

Avez-vous trouvé ce document utile ?

Ce contenu est-il inapproprié ?

Droits d'auteur :

Formats disponibles

Reviewer Psoac Revised

Transféré par

Droits d'auteur :

Formats disponibles

REVIEWER COMPRE PSOAC CLASS 135

1. What is Clash or competition?

5. Door is a reference point imaginary in taking photo

14. In alternative circumstances, intoxication is aggravating when it is not habitual and

24. In sedition, if there are other crimes committed, it is

C) Prima Facie Evidence

53. It is a specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a specific period of

91. _______________________________ - is the final product of the intelligence Cycle

c) The COMELEC created a committee to evaluate bids for the

a) Yes, because the issue is of transcendental importance:

c) The central government delegates powers to the local government

a) Once every five (5) years

243. It is a process of screening out/or eliminating undesirable applicants and

304. Validity of search warrant

e Police Visibility Patrols.

373. Once a recommendations has been approved by the Commander, it automatically

389. It is a sudden condition or state of affairs calling for immediate action.

d. National Support Unit Conference

462. Which of the following is HE?

d. Mechanical, Radiological, Explosive, Nuclear

c. Cyber Crimes against Property

d. Cyber-crimes against government

_________ the felonious taking of records without permission.

a. Top Secret Documents

b. Secret Documentsd. Restricted Documents

515. _________- opening a closed document.

25. _______ -refers to the PNP, BFP, BJMP, NAPOLCOM, PPSC

Continuity- It is necessary that coverage be continuous so that the shape of what

Disciplinary Action includes verbal reprimand for pouring performance of insecure

Unity of Command A reporting relationships in which an employee receives

Escalating Commitment A source of cognitive bias resulting from the

(W) weaknesses, environment

(O) opportunities and

Functional Structure An organizational structure composed of all the

Extrinsically motivated behaviour behaviour that is performed to acquire materials

Task structure The extent to which the work to be performed is clear-cut so

Components- Strategic Alternatives - set of strategic options from which an

Operating Personnel - persons responsible in carrying the day to day operation

Vous aimerez peut-être aussi