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SUMMER 2016

REMEDIAL EXAM-HEALTH ASSESSMENT


NAME _________________________________________________

SCORE _______

MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS: Choose the best answer for each of the following multiplechoice questions.
1. While assessing the skin, hair and nails of a 4 year old, the nurse can anticipate that
the child will have:
a. Smooth-textured skin
b. Fine downy hairs on his
body

c. A thin layer of subcutaneous


fat
d. Functioning apocrine gland

2. Which of the following the nurse includes in a presentation on childhood growth and
development to a group of new parents?
a. A childs head reaches 90% of its full growth by 6 years of age
b. Half of the childs post natal brain growth is achieved by 3 years of age
c. During the school-aged years, the cranium grows faster than the face
d. Lymphoid tissue reaches adult size by 4 years of age
3. To locate the apical impulse of a 3 year old child, the nurse should plan to place the
stethoscope at the childs
a. 5th intercostal space
b. 4th intercostal space

c. 3rd intercostal space


d. 2nd intercostal space

4. Using the Tanner Sexual maturity Rating for Breast Development, the nurse
determines that the client has enlargement of the breasts and areolae, with no
separation of contours. The client is in Tanner Stage
a. Two
b. Three

c. Four
d. Five

5. A mother brings her two 12 year old son for a routine physical examination. The
nurse instruct the mother that the peak growth spurt in boys usually occurs by age
a. 15 years
b. 14 years

c. 13 years
d. 12 years

6. In communicating to a 4 year old child the nurse should


a. Touch the child gently but frequently during the interview
b. Stand in front of the child so the child can see the nurse
c. Use standard medical terminology so the child is not confused
d. Talk to the child in simple terms at the childs eye level
7. While communicating with an ill 5 year old child, one of the most valuable
communication techniques that the nurse can use is
a. Direct communication
b. Indirect communication

c. Close-ended question
d. Play

8. The nurse is caring for toddler who injured himself in a fall, the nurse should
a. Play a game with the child
b. Tell the client it is okay to cry in the clinic
c. Allow the child to identify the nurse with the parent
d. Use demonstrations when providing health teaching to the child
9. Communicating to an 11 year old child who was hospitalized after an auto accident ,
the nurse should
a. Allow the child to engage in
the discussion

b. Provide simple explanations


c. Use peer explanations
d. Use simple questions

10. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized child with blood disorder. While communicating
with the client the nurse should

a. Give the client control whenever possible


b. Provide simple explanations
c. Use concrete technology
d. Provide concrete answers to questions
11. The nurse explain to the mother of a 5 year old child that permanent teeth usually
begin to erupt by age
a. 7 years
b. 6 years
c.

d. 6 years
e. 5 years

12. The nurse explain to the mother of a 11 year old daughter that menstruation usually
begins about
a. 1 year after the onset of puberty
b. 18 months after the onset of puberty
c. 24 months after the onset of puberty
d. 30 months after the onset of puberty
13. The nurse is preparing to assess the gross motor development of a 4 year old child.
The nurse should ask the child to
a. Balance on alternate feet
with eyes closed

b. Hop on one foot


c. Skip a rope
d. Throw a ball

14. The nurse plans to assess a cognitive development of a 3 year old child whether or
not the child can
a. Classify complex objects
b. Quantify objects

c. Sort objects
d. Make simple classifications

15. The mother asks the nurse when an 18 month old child should begin toilet training.
The nurse should explain to the mother that
a. Bladder training usually begins at 18 months
b. Nighttime bladder control is usually achieved by 3 years of age
c. Bowel training is usually started when the child is 3 years of age
d. She can begin bowel training as soon as the child appears ready
16. The nurse observes that the childs nails are concave in shape. The nurse should
assess the child for a deficiency of
a. Magnesium
b. Vitamin C

c. Zinc
d. Iron

17. A 4 year old child with a temperature of a 37.7 degree Celsius and observes that the
child has Kopliks spots on his buccal mucosa. The nurse should explain to the clients
parents that the child is most likely exhibiting signs of
a. Measles
b. Mumps

c. Chicken pox
d. Tonsillitis

18. To perform Hirschberg test to a 5 year old child the nurse should
a. Ask the child to cover one eye
b. Shine a light directly into the pupils
c. Use an opthalmoscope to check the eyes
d. Ask the child to name various colors
19. The anterior fontanelle of a neonate closes between
a. 2 and 3 months
b. 4 and 6 months

c. 7 and 11 months
d. 12 an d 18 months

20. The nurse is planning to instruct a first time mother about her newborn that her
newborn
a. Will develop permanent teeth in the jaw by 6 years of age
b. Who drools is preparing for tooth eruption
c. Will have deciduous teeth by 3 months
d. Is an obligatory nose breather
21. Normal breathing pattern for a full-term infant may include

a. Abdominal breathing with a rate of 80 to 100 breathes/minute


b. Chest breathing with nasal flaring of 20 to 30 breathes/minute
c. Shallow and irregular breathing with a rate of 80 to 100 breaths/minute
d. Abdominal/ chest breathing movement at a rate of 30 to 60 breathes/minute
22. The Moro Reflex is
a. A response to sudden stimulation of an abrupt change in position
b. Fanning of the toes
c. Stepping of the feet
d. Extension of one arm and legs when turning the head
23. While assessing a young infants musculoskeletal system, the nurse anticipates that
the anterior curve in the cervical region will developed by
a. 9 to 12 months
b. 6 to 8 months

c. 3 to 4 months
d. 1 to 2 months

24. The nurse is assessing a 1 year old infant who weighed 3.6 kg (8 pounds) at birth.
When the nurse prepares to weight the infant, the nurse anticipates that this infant
should weigh approximately
a. 7.2 kg (16 lb)
b. 9.07 kg (20 lb)

c. 10.8 kg (24 lb)


d. 12.7 kg (28 lb)

25. A mother of 2 month old son who has been bottle feeding her infant asks the nurse
When can I start giving him solid foods? The nurse should instruct the mother that
solid foods can be introduced when the infant is
a. 2 to 4 months old
b. 4 to 6 months old

c. 6 to 8 months old
d. 8 to 10 months old

26. The nurse observes a newborn with an irregular shaped red patch on the back of the
neck, the nurse should explain to the mother that this is termed
a. Stork bite
b. Port wine stain

c. Hemangioma
d. Caf au lait spot

27. The nurse observes a yellow-white retention cysts in the newborns mouth. The nurse
should explain to the infants parents that these spots are usually indicative of
a. Epstein pearls
b. Thrush

c. Allergic reactions
d. Dehydration

28. The nurse is preparing to inspect a newborns inner ear with an otoscope. The nurse
should pull the pinna
a. Down and back
b. Up and back

c. Down and forward


d. Sideways and forward

29. While assessing the abdomen of a pregnant client, the nurse observes striae
gravidarum. The nurse should instruct the client after delivery, the striae gravidarum
will
a. Disappear if a special
ointment is used

b. Fade to a white or silvery


color
c. Completely disappear
d. Remain the same

30. While assessing the abdomen of a pregnant woman, the nurse observes a dark line
from the clients umbilicus to the mons pubis. The nurse should explain to the client
that this is called
a. Linea nigra
b. Chloasma

c. Melanin
d. Epulis

31. During pregnancy a relaxation of the ligaments and joints is caused by the increase
in

a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen

c. Chorionic gonadotropin
d. Lactation hormone

32. The nurse is caring for client who is 24 weeks pregnant who is secreting colostrum for
the past few days. The nurse should instruct the client that colostrum secretion
a. Does not normally occur until delivery of the baby
b. May be indicative of a problem with the breasts
c. Is normal for some women in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters
d. May be indicative of preterm labor ensuing
33. One cardiac change that commonly occurs in pregnant client is
a. A decrease in the heart rate of the client
b. An increase in maternal blood volume by 40% to 50%
c. A decrease in plasma volume by 20%
d. Physiologic hypertension that stabilizes by 24 weeks gestation
34. As pregnancy progresses, the abdominal muscles may stretch to the point of
separation. This condition is termed
a.
b.
c.
d.

Herniation
McDonald sign
Goodell sign
Diastasis recti abdominis

35. The nurse has instructed a pregnant client about changes that may occur to the
clients gastrointestinal system during pregnancy. The nurse determines that the
client needs further instructions when the client says
a. As a result of pregnancy, diarrhea may occur more often.
b. Gastric motility is decrease from the pressure of the fetus.
c. Constipation may occur because gastric tone is decreased.
d. Gallstone formation may occur because of prolonged emptying time of the
gallbladder.
36.
37.
38.

39.

40. While interviewing a pregnant client, the nurse determines that the client has pica.
The nurse should assess the clients
a. Blood sugar
b. Teeth and gums

c. Nutritional status
d. Emotional status

41. During pregnancy the uterus enlarges as a result of hypertrophy of existing


myometrial cells and hyperplasia of new cells. This growth is due to
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone

c. Growth hormone
d. Lactation hormone

42. The nurse is caring for pregnant client who is approximately 20 weeks gestation. The
nurse is planning to measure the clients fundal height. At 20 weeks gestation, the
nurse should locate the top of the fundus
a. At the top of symphysis pubis
b. Midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
c. At the level of the umbilicus
d. Above the level of the umbilicus
43. A pregnant client who is at approximately 36 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she
experiences dizziness while in bed. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid
which position?
a. Side-lying
b. Left lateral

c. Prone
d. Supine

44. A client who is of normal weight just learned that she is 10 weeks pregnant. The
client asks the nurse about weight gain during pregnancy. The nurse should instruct
the client that the recommended weight gain is
a. 15 to 20 pounds
b. 20 to 25 pounds

c. 25 to 35 pounds
d. 35 to 45 pounds

45. A pregnant client at 12 weeks gestation has been vomiting severely for the past 5
days visit the clinic. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible
a. Hyperemesis gravidarum
b. Viral infection

c. Fetal anomalies
d. Peptic ulcer

46. A pregnant client tells the nurse that she has had two spontaneous abortions before
this pregnancy. The nurse should refer the client to a physician for possible
a. Incompetent cervix
b. Substance abuse

c. Rh incompatibility
d. Hyperthyroidism

47. A pregnant client near term is admitted to the hospital with scant vaginal bleeding,
mild contractions, very firm uterus, and pain on palpation of uterus. The client tells
the nurse that she uses cocaine occasionally. The nurse should assess the client for
signs and symptoms of
a. Oigohydramnios
b. Polyhydramnios

c. Placenta previa
d. Abruption placenta

48. A pregnant client visits the clinic at 36 weeks gestation. The nurse weighs the client
and determines that the client has gained 5 pounds in 1 week. The nurse should
assess the clients
a. Dietary patterns
b. Edema of the lower
extremities

c. Urinary patterns
d. Blood pressure

49. The nurse is planning to perform Leopolds maneuvers on a pregnant client. To


perform the first maneuver, the nurse should place his or her hands on the
a. Upper quadrant of the maternal abdomen
b. Lateral side of the maternal abdomen

c. Presenting part
d. Top of symphysis pubis
50. While caring for a pregnant client at 8 weeks gestation, the client asks the nurse,
When can you hear the babys heartbeat? The nurse should instruct the client that
when a Doppler device is used, the earliest time when the fetal heart rate can be
heard is the gestational age of
a. 10 weeks
b. 14 weeks

c. 18 weeks
d. 22 weeks

51. While assessing a pregnant client, the nurse detects fetal heart rate decelerations
that occur after a contraction. The nurse should notify the clients physician because
this maybe indicative of
a. Fetal demise
b. Cardiac disease

c. Head compression
d. Poor placental perfusion

52.
53. The nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate of a pregnant client near term.
When the nurse hears the fetal heart rate above the maternal umbilicus, the fetus is
most likely in which position?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Transverse
Breech
Vertex
Face

54. While assessing a pregnant client at 36 weeks gestation, the nurse observes that the
clients face is edematous and she has 3+ reflexes with mild clonus. The nurse
should refer the client to a physician for possible
a.
b.
c.
d.

Hydatidiform mole
Multiple gestation
Pregnancy-induced hypertension
Hyperthyroidism

55. The nurse is caring for client at 14 weeks gestation and determines that the
measurement between the clients ischial tuberosities is 10.5cm. The nurse should
a. Estimate the size of the fetus
b. Refer the client to a physician for small pelvic size
c. Measure the pubic arch to validate the measurement
d. Instruct the client that a vaginal delivery is likely

e.