Académique Documents
Professionnel Documents
Culture Documents
IIFT 2008
1.
School
Name of
student
State
Lancer
Leelavati
Not from
Leelavati
Rank
Not 1st
Not in Andhra
Pradesh
3.
Guard
Rahman
Maharashtra
3rd
Karnataka
Not 1st
1
2
3
Let us assume she initially had Rs. x with her, then the
amount she paid to each of the guard would be:
She was left with Rs. 1 in the end,
5.
Rate Revenue
2000
20
40000
2200
19
41800
2400
18
43200
2600
17
44200
2800
16
44800
3000
15
45000
3200
14
44800
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6.
We have:
Order
Amount
Order
Name
spent
1
Aradhana Not 2517
2
Chandrima
Deepika
Heena
Sumitra
1
2
3
Remarks
Spent the smallest
amount
Not 1340
Spent more than
Deepika
Spent the largest
amount
1
2
3
Amount
spent
Aradhana 2234
Chandrima 1139
Deepika
1193
Name
Heena
1340
Sumitra
2517
2517
Sumitra
2571
8.
9.
Remarks
Not 2517
Smallest
Not 1340
Spent more
than Deepika
Largest
Heena
Not 2517
Smallest
Not 1340
Spent more than
Deepika
Largest
7.
Remarks
Amount
spent
Aradhana
1340
Chandrima 1193
Deepika
2234
Name
Red
Green
Turn right 2 kmph
Turn left 4 kmph
Stop
10 kmph
In case of Kartikay:
Signal
Number
Start
1
2
3
4
5
Red caps
Green caps
No. of
No. of
Direction
Speed
guards
guards
2
nil
North
1
kmph
4
2
Turn left
2
kmph
4
1
Turn right nil
kmph
10
1
Turn right
3
kmph
4
2
Turn left
2
kmph
3
Stop
Duration Distance
30 mins
1 km
15 mins
1 km
30 mins
2 km
24 mins
4 km
15 mins
1 km
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10.
12.
Signal
Number
Start
1
2
3
4
5
Red caps
Birth
order
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
Green caps
No. of
No. of
Direction
Speed
guards
guards
2
0
North
1
kmph
Turn right
4
1
2
(East)
kmph
Turn right
4
1
nil
(South)
kmph
Turn right
10
1
3
(West)
kmph
Turn left
4
2
2
(South)
kmph
3
Stop
Duration Distance
30 mins
1 km
15 mins
1 km
30 mins
2 km
24 mins
4 km
15 mins
1 km
11.
Start
1
2
3
4
5
Red caps
Green caps
No. of
No. of
Direction
Speed
guards
guards
2
0
South
1
kmph
Turn left
4
2
2
(East)
kmph
Turn right
4
1
nil
(South)
kmph
Turn right
10
1
3
(West)
kmph
Turn left
4
2
2
(South)
kmph
3
Stop
Duration Distance
30 mins
1 km
15 mins
1 km
30 mins
2 km
24 mins
4 km
15 mins
1 km
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M
M
M
F
F
M
M
F
School
Name
Saurav
Trinity
Mahi/ Nilesh Mansarover
Nilesh/ Mahi Mansarover
Kuntala
Trinity
Tamanna
St. Stefan
Arun
St. Stefan
Rohit
St. Stefan
Janki
Trinity
Name
Game
Chess
Cricket
Cricket
Chess
Football
Hockey
Chess
Signal
Number
Sex
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17. From I and II, the conclusion that can be derived is
Some barbers are not businessmen. Conclusion: 4
From II and III, the conclusion possible is Some
Traders are not Fashion designers. Conclusion: 2.
Looking at the options none of them fits in the above
satisfying them.
Hence, option 4.
18. Let Pritus father be Mr. Z.
Pritus fathers sisters grandfather is Pritus great
grandfather.
Let him be Mr. X.
The only son of Mr. X is Pritus grandfather or
granduncle.
Let him be Mr. Y.
Mr. Y is Mr. Zs father or uncle.
Let the wife of Mr. Y be Mrs. A.
Mrs. A is grandmother of Pritu or grandaunt of Pritu.
Now Priya is the daughter of daughter of Mrs. A or
granddaughter of Mrs. A.
Now, if Sushma is the sister of Pritu, then she becomes
either a real sister of Priya or a cousin sister of Priya.
Hence, option 4.
19. Kamaljeet fulfilled all the conditions except 3 as he
scored 56% marks.
There is no alternative to condition 3, thus he cannot
be admitted.
Hence, option 2.
20. Gaurav had fulfilled all the conditions except 2 since he
is 37 years old.
The alternative to this is that the candidate must be
admitted under the sponsor quota if he has got at least
10 years of experience in supervisory cadre.
Gaurav has got 12 years of experience in supervisory
cadre thus he can be admitted under sponsor quota.
Hence, option 4.
21. The film Dainandini fulfils all the criteria and must be
selected.
Hence, option 1.
22. The film Bhadrasalem fulfils all the conditions except
condition 3.
There is no information on the director clearing the
course.
The given data is not sufficient to make a decision.
Hence, option 2.
23. The film Ek Baar Achanak has not fulfilled condition 1
as it was submitted on 30th November 2007.
It cannot be selected.
Hence, option 4.
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Step 1: 541 (10), 963 (18), 754 (16), 345 (12), 364
(13), 861 (15), 653 (14).
Step 2: 541 (10), 345 (12), 754 (16), 963 (18), 364
(13), 861 (15), 653 (14).
Step 3: 541 (10), 345 (12), 364 (13), 963 (18), 754
(16), 861 (15), 653 (14).
Hence, option 3.
28. Input: She was interested in doing art film.
Step 1: art she was interested in doing film.
Step 2: art was she interested in doing film.
Step 3: art was in she interested doing film.
Step 4: art was in film she interested doing.
Step 5: art was in film doing she interested.
The words get arranged according to the last alphabet
of each word in the reverse order.
Input: he is going out to search air.
Step 1: out he is going to search air.
Step 2: out is he going to search air.
Step 3: out is air he going to search.
Step 4: out is air to he going search.
Step 5: out is air to search he going.
Step 6: out is air to search going he.
Hence, option 2.
29. Step 2: not is the casino considering legal action.
Step 3: not is casino the considering legal action.
Step 4: not is casino action the considering legal.
Step 5: not is casino action legal the considering.
Thus the required sequence is achieved in Step 5.
This is not given in any of the options.
Hence, option 4.
30. Input: Father needs to check on the boy.
Step 1: boy Father needs to check on the.
Step 2: boy needs Father to check on the.
Step 3: boy needs Father to on check the.
Thus, only 3 steps are required to get to the final
output.
Hence, option 4.
Z = 25
Hence, option 3.
34. H1, H2, H3, , Hn, are n Harmonic means between a and
b ( a), implies that the required Harmonic series is:
a, H1, H2, H3, H4, , Hn, b
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Similarly,
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IIFT 2008
Hence, option 4.
Hence, option 2.
35. We have:
(n + 2)C8 : (n 2)P4 = 57 : 16
(n + 2)(n + 1)(n)(n 1) = 19 3 7 6 5 4 3
Now consider options.
Option 1: n = 20
(n + 2) = 22, but our product is not a multiple of 22.
Option 2: n = 22
But our product is not a multiple of 22.
Option 3: n = 15
(n + 2) = 17, but our product is not a multiple of 17.
None of the options gives the correct value of n.
Hence, option 4.
38. 12 22 = (1 2)(1 + 2) = 3
32 42 = (3 4)(3 + 4) = 7
52 62 = (5 6)(5 + 6) = 11
72 82 = (7 8)(7 + 8) = 15
And so on till 20012 20022 = 4003
The given expression = (3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + + 4003)
+ 20032
= 2007006
Hence, option 1.
39. 2 men can be selected in 9C2 ways from 9 men and 2
women to be selected should not be the wives of the 2
men selected.
These 2 women can be selected from the remaining 7
women in 7C2 ways.
4 players of the game can be selected in 9C2 7C2 =
756 ways
But, the number of mixed doubles games that can be
played among 2 men and 2 women is 2.
The number of ways in which a mixed doubles game
can be played = 9C2 7C2 2 = 1512
Hence, option 2.
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40. The interior angles are 120, 125, 130, 135, 140
and so on and the corresponding exterior angles are
60, 55, 50, 45, 40 and so on.
Now the sum of exterior angles needs to be 360.
60 + 55 + 50 + 45 + 40 + 35 + 30 + 25 + 20
= 360
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The number of sides would be 9.
Hence, option 3.
41. The initial position of the ladder is as shown below:
Hence, option 2.
44. ax2 + bx + c = 0
Let the roots of the given equation are and 2.
25
24
2b2 = 9ac
Hence, option 1.
7
By Pythagoras theorem,
25
12
481 ~
~ 22
Hence, option 3.
46.
Similarly,
Hence, option 1.
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Now in next year, since the increase in salary was 20%
for all of the employees, it means that the SD will have
gone up by 20%.
Standard Deviation after 20% raise = 400 + 20% of
400 = 400 + 80 = Rs. 480
The new SD would be 480.
Hence, option 2.
Hence, option 2.
47. Let P be the pole.
As P lies on the circumference and AB is the diameter,
m APB = 90
P
x+
7
x
13
50. We have,
Let us take 200 people forming 4 groups (say A, B, C
and D) containing 50 people each.
As 1 person in 100 suffers, so 2 persons will be
suffering from 200 people.
These 2 people (suffering) will be either from 1 group
or 2 groups.
Case 1: 2 people (suffering) from 1 group
There 2 suffering people are either from group A or B
or C or D.
So there are 4 possibilities.
In this case, operator will have to perform 54 tests i.e.
4 pooled tests for 4 groups and 50 individual tests for
group containing 2 suffering people.
Case 2: 2 people (suffering) from 2 groups
There 2 suffering people are either from groups (A and
B) or (A and C) or (A and D) or (B and C) or (B and D)
or (C and D).
So there are 6 possibilities.
In this case, operator will have to perform 104 tests i.e.
4 pooled tests for 4 groups and 100 individual tests for
2 groups containing 2 suffering people.
Hence, option 3.
51. If the number selected does not appear on any of the
three dice then the person loses 1, i.e. he does not
win.
Hence, option 2.
49. The mean salary was Rs. 1,500 and standard deviation
(SD) was Rs. 400. Since after 1 year each employee got
a raise of Rs. 100, it would mean that the SD would still
remain same.
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Hence, option 3.
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52. First let us begin by tabulating the given data as shown
below:
Present Coverage
Claimed Coverage
Probability
that
claim is true
Jagan
55%
Bhola
40%
60%
James
25%
75%
0.60
0.20
Choices are:
1. 5 year contract to Jagan.
2. 1 year contract to Bhola and then to Bhola or
Jagan for next four years.
3. 1 year contract to James and then to James or
Jagan for next four years.
Market Credentials:
Profit potential for the current year: 5 crores
Profit potential for next four years: 15 crores
Expected value of profits for each of the choices:
Choice 1: 55% of 20 crores = 11 crores
Choice 2: With 60% coverage:
60% of 20 crores = 12 crores
As Probability is 0.6, Expected value = 12 0.6 = 7.2
crores
If the contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year
onwards, then:
1st year: 40% of 5 crores = 2 crores
2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores
Expected value = 0.4(8.25 + 2) = 4.1 crores
Total Expected value = 7.2 + 4.1 = 11.3 crores
Choice 3: With 75% coverage:
75% of 20 crores = 15 crores
As probability is 0.2, Expected value = 15 0.2 = 3
crores
If contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year onwards,
then:
1st year: 25% of 5 crores = 1.25 crores
2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores
Expected value = 0.8 9.5 crores = 7.6 crores
Total expected value = 3 + 7.6 = 10.6 crores
Hence, option 2.
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60. Consider statement 1
1993
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
Tan 3x = 1
Hence, option 3.
58. The figure would be as shown below (not drawn to
scale).
Number
337562
312405
291360
280791
272127
263981
252944
234397
222193
216717
214760
227752
222379
Number
157581
138642
121946
114065
106634
102217
96371
86024
75768
71950
68467
67870
64417
46.68
44.38
41.85
40.62
39.19
38.72
38.10
36.70
34.10
33.20
31.88
29.80
28.97
Consider statement 2:
Total
Year Wagons
Hence, option 1.
1993
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
Hence, option 4.
Number
337562
312405
291360
280791
272127
263981
252944
234397
222193
216717
214760
227752
222379
Special
Special wagons as % of
type
total wagons
wagons
Number
50282
14.90
49208
15.75
47927
16.45
46225
16.46
45341
16.66
43853
16.61
42242
16.70
40316
17.20
38884
17.50
37275
17.20
37650
17.53
39401
17.30
36454
16.39
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61. Again from table given in the solution of the previous
question, it can be readily seen that this would hold
good for the pair 2000 and 2002, where the required
percentage for both of these years was 17.20%.
Hence, option 3.
62.
2 7
2 7
0 2
Departmental
Total Departmental
Year
wagons as
Wagons
wagons
% of total wagons
07 5
0371
0371
0 44
Thus, statement 2 is true.
2002 216717
9536
4.40
2003 214760
10718
4.99
Consider statement 3:
2004 227752
11388
5.00
2005 222379
10964
4.93
Year
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
Average wagon
Growth rate
capacity (Tonnes)
36.2
3.72%
36.9
1.93%
37.8
2.44%
39.1
3.44%
40.5
3.58%
42.3
4.44%
43.8
3.55%
45.9
4.79%
46.6
1.53%
46.5
0.215
46.8
0.65%
47.7
1.92%
Hence, option 3.
65. Consider statement 1:
Consider statement 2:
Hence, option 1.
64. Consider statement 1:
Annual growth rate of covered wagons in
Consider statement 3:
Annual growth rate of covered wagons in 2000
024
371
371
10 73
Consider statement 4:
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The highest annual growth rate amongst these
occurred in case of statement 2.
Hence, option 2.
45 25 40 38 75 55 278
46.33
0.93
98 40 108 60 40 70 416
69.33
1.02
97.33
1.39
1.645
Total
1990
1991
1992
1993
1994
1995
675 55 495
160 70 280
2055
2665
1805
264 95 285
2815
2620
69.
Year
P
Q
R
S
Total Revenue
2502
1664
7592
2280
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73. Consider statement 1:
Statement 1 is false.
= 10 75 0 = 37
Statement 3 is false.
Hence, option 3.
75. Consider statement 1:
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Haryana in 2006
= 5577 2 5 = 2 2
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Punjab in 2007
= 22 340 = 2
Statement 1 is false.
Consider statement 2:
The increase in FDI
Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is false.
Consider statement 2:
inflow
was
highest
for
Consider option: 3:
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Bihar in 2003
= 34 52 = 2 4
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Karnataka in 2001
= 3553 32 = 254
Statement 3 is true.
Statement 2 is false.
Consider statement 3:
Hence, option 3.
76.
Statement 3 is true.
Hence, option 3.
74. Consider statement 1:
Annual increase in FDI in Bihar in 2001
= 55 5 = 4 27
Annual increase in FDI in Rajasthan in 2007
= 10034 5077 = 4 57
Statement 1 is true.
Consider statement 2:
Statement 4 has the lowest value.
Hence, option 4.
77. Consider statement 1:
Statement 2 is true.
Consider statement C:
Annual increase in FDI in Madhya Pradesh in 2004
= 177 1 13 1 = 3 70
Annual increase in FDI in Maharashtra in 2005
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Statement 1 is false.
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Consider statement B:
Statement 2 is true.
Consider statement 3:
Statement 2 is false.
Consider statement 3:
Statement 3 is true.
Consider statement 4:
Statement 3 is true.
Hence, option 3.
78.
Statement 4 is false.
Hence, option 4.
80. Consider statement 1:
Absolute annual increase in exports from Asia in 2003
= 2138300 1807800 = 330500
Absolute annual increase in exports from Asia in 2006
= 3577700 3059000 = 518700
Statement 1 is true.
Consider statement 2:
Absolute annual increase in exports from Germany in
2001 = 571645 551818 = 19827
Absolute annual increase in exports from US in 2003 =
724771 693103 = 31668
Statement 2 is false.
Hence, option 2.
Statement 1 is true.
Consider statement 2:
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81.
84.
Year
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
2006
2007
2008
2009
2010
Unit
Per Unit
Revenue Units Profit Cost
Price
Cost
10
700
70
0
700
10
14
1400
100 100 1300
13
12
1200
100 300 900
9
12
900
75
150 750
10
11
1100
100
0 1100
11
8
400
50
150 250
5
10
200
20
100 100
5
14
700
50
200 500
10
10
600
60
0
600
10
10
800
80
400 400
5
15
900
60
300 600
10
Price per
unit
Cost per
unit
Total
profit
Revenue
Max
Value
Min
Value
Average
Volatility
Value
15
11.45
0.611
13
8.91
0.898
400
154.55
2.588
1400
200
809.09
1.483
Per Unit
Cost
Units Profit
2000
10
70
-140
2001
11.2
13
100
-180
2002
9.6
100
60
2003
9.6
10
75
-30
2004
8.8
11
100
-220
2005
50
100
2006
10
20
80
2007
14
12
50
100
2008
10
12
60
-120
2009
10
80
320
2010
15
12
60
180
The table above shows the new price per unit and cost
per unit.
We see that there is loss for 5 years.
Hence, option 3.
85. Cumulative Profit before the change is Rs. 1700
Cumulative Profit after the change is Rs. 150
Change in cumulative profit is Rs. 1700 Rs. 150 =
Rs. 1550
Hence, option 2.
86.
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88. Options 1 and 2 are eliminated as the market cannot be
matched with warehouse or stockpiles.
Option 4 is incorrect as the author states that the
conventional manufacturing process requires to
maintain stockpiles. Also, distributors cannot be
matched with velocity as they need to be matched with
warehouses.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
89. The author states that it was their company alone
which incorporated information gathering process and
customer feedbacks which enabled them to market
products with latest available technologies.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
90. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that there
were always more pirates than enough in the
Caribbean seas but he does not state that there were
more pirates at Belize than in the Caribbean seas.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author confesses that he
was not an experienced sailor and that he would sink
the ship in less than an hour if he was given charge.
Option 3 is incorrect as the author states that they used
to consider corporal Charker as the most authoritarian
non commissioned officer.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
91. Option 3 is false as the author states that although they
not seen the notorious pirate gang, they had heard so
much about them that reinforcements were sent for.
All the other options are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
92. Option 4 is the correct answer as the author states this
in the first sentence of the 7th paragraph.
All the other options are false.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
93. Option 4 is incorrect because the author was the one
walking around the harbour with Corporal Charker. It
can be inferred from the last line that Gill is the name
of the author. The name of the sergeant was Drooce.
All the other options are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
94. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that on the
26th January, the moon was only two days old.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author states that
according to Conseil, the Captain of Nautilus was a
person who returned contempt for indifference.
Option 4 is incorrect as from the chronicle; it is clear
that the Nautilus was not in the vicinity of Island
Crespo, but had just left Keeling Island for the Indian
Peninsula.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
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102. Prophesy is the verb which means to predict
something.
Prophecy is the noun which means a prediction.
The first blank needs a verb and the second blank
needs a noun.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
103. The public figure is said to be facing inquiry into
allegations of having obtained money by deception, the
person has to be troubled or engaged in a struggle or
conflict. This eliminates options 1 and 4.
Endangered is generally used to denote a threat with
extinction. The threat here is of a much larger degree
and hence can be eliminated.
Embattle means to be engaged in a struggle or
conflict.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
104. Lugubrious is mournful. His listeners will not enjoy
his mournful wit. Moreover, satire is sarcastic and
ironic but not mournful. Thus, options 1 and 3 are
eliminated.
Smarted means to cause a sharp and superficial
pain. The victims cannot smart and suffer at the same
time. Hence, option 2 is also eliminated.
Trenchant wit is caustic and cutting wit. To wince
is to draw back or tense the body as from pain.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
105. The
sentence
talks
about
the
Presidents
Administration and not the President, the pronoun that
can be used is it only. This eliminates options 1 and 4.
Option 3 is incorrect as it talks about the president
losing the vote and not the Presidents Office. This
eliminates option 3 as well.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
106. The verb indicate should agree with the rise and not
negative attitude and should, therefore, should be
singular. This eliminates option 1.
Option 3 is eliminates as the word that is not required
after therefore.
Option 4 is incorrect because of the tense used. The
sentence talks about an on-going process and the
present continuous tense is needed.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
107. Options 2 and 4 are incorrect as the correct usage
would be a single sentence.
Option 3 puts forward the same idea as option 1 but
option 1 is better expressed.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
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Forensics is the art or study of argumentation and
courts of law. Judiciary means pertaining to the
judicial branch or system or to judges. These words
are not synonyms but one is used in another. Forensics
cannot lead to judiciaries. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
An invasion is an entrance as if to take possession or
overrun against any form of enemy. A putsch is a
plotted attempt to overthrow a government. Since,
they are not synonyms and since an invasion cannot
lead to a putsch; option 4 is incorrect.
A nick is a small notch, groove, chip, or the like, cut
into or existing in something. A score is a notch,
scratch, or incision; a stroke or line.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
112. A mutter is an utterance of indistinct words in a low
tone.
A definition is not necessarily easy. Hence, option 1 is
incorrect.
Blunder and polished cannot be related and thus,
option 2 is eliminated.
To expedite is to speed up the process. It may not
necessarily complete the process. Hence, option 4 is
incorrect.
To articulate is to speak well in distinct syllables.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
113. Requiem is a musical service or a dirge for the
repose of the dead.
Humility is the quality of being humble.
Prerequisite means required beforehand.
Reign means royal rule.
Resolution means a formal expression of opinion or
intention made, usually after voting, by a formal
organization, a legislature, a club, or other group.
None of these words are opposite in meaning to
requiem.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.
Note: Fifth option has been added to reduce the
ambiguity seen in the question.
114. Aspersion is a damaging or a derogatory remark or
criticism.
Infamy is evil fame or reputation.
Restriction is confinement.
Tradition is something that is handed down.
Obeisance is a movement of body expressing deep
respect or deferential courtesy.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
115. Stolidity is the ability to remain not easily stirred or
moved emotionally.
Posterity means all descendants of one generation.
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IIFT 2008
122. UNESCO launched the Education For All (EFA)
movement.
Hence, option 4.
123. Mexico is a member of the OECD group.
Hence, option 3.
124. The correct match is
Year
1
2
3
4
1976
1992
1964
2012
iii
iv
ii
i
Olympic host
cities
Montreal
Barcelona
Tokyo
London
Hence, option 4.
125. The correct match is
IPL Franchise
1
2
3
4
Owner
Reliance
Mumbai Indians iii
Industries
Royal Challengers i
UB group
Chennai Super Kings iv India Cements
Delhi Daredevils
ii GMR Holdings
Hence, option 2.
126. Albania is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers
Group.
Hence, option 4.
127. The correct match is
1
2
3
4
Bharat Ratna
Year
recipients
Pandit Ravi Shankar ii 1999
Ustad Bismillah Khan iii 2001
M S Subbulakshmi iv 1998
Satyajit Ray
i 1992
Hence, option 1.
TF-MS-PP-04-0209
NABARD
NCDC
SCARDB
NAFED
Purpose
Refinancing agricultural
ii
credit
Financial assistance for
i
warehousing
iv
Land development
Inter-state sale of
iii
agricultural products
Hence, option 1.
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IIFT 2008
142. The correct order in terms of decreasing sex ratio is
Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and
Orissa.
Hence, option 1.
Instruments
b. Violin
a. Santoor
d. Sitar
c. Rudra Vina
Plants
d. Potatoes
c. Sugarcane
b. Wheat
a. Peas
Hence, option 2.
150. In April 2008 ISRO launched the satellite
CARTOSAT-2A form Sriharikota.
Hence, option 2.
Hence, option 2.
144. The correct match is
Sobriquets
i. Emerald Island
ii. Island of pearls
iii. Holy land
iv. Land of thunderbolt
Primary Names
b. Ireland
a. Bahrain
d. Palestine
c. Bhutan
Hence, option 3.
145. In 2007, Indra Nooyi was awarded Padma Bhushan by
Government of India.
Hence, option 1.
146. The antibiotic penicillin is obtained from Penicillium
fungi.
Hence, option 2.
147. The correct match is
Railway Zone
i. South-East Central
ii. North-East Frontier
iii. North Eastern
iv. West Central
Head Quarter
c. Bilaspur
b. Maligaon
d. Gorakhpur
a. Jabalpur
Hence, option 1.
148. The correct match is
Inventions/Discoveries
i. Cassette(Audio)
ii. Super Computer
iii. Cloning(Mammal)
iv. HIV
Inventors/ Discoverer
a. Philips Co.
b. J. H. Van Tassel
c. Wilmut et al
d. Mortagnier
Hence, option 1.
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