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DETAILED SOLUTION

IIFT 2008

1.
School

Name of
student

State

Lancer

Leelavati
Not from
Leelavati

Rank
Not 1st

Columbus Not Badal

After 3000 packets the total revenue decreases, the


optimum revenue would be achieved at 3000 packets.
Hence, option 2.

Not in Andhra
Pradesh

3.
Guard

Rahman
Maharashtra

3rd

Karnataka

Not 1st

Tabulating the given information that we have, we get


the above table.
The name of student from Columbus school is not
Badal, it implies that Badal must be from Lancer school
and Binod must be from Columbus.
Leelavati school is not in Maharashtra it implies that
Rahman is not from Maharashtra and did not secure
3rd rank.
Also,
The contestant from Maharashtra stood 3rd and the
candidate from Karnataka is not 1st implies that the
candidate from Andhra Pradesh must have stood 1st
and the one from Karnataka 2nd.
Rahman stood 1st and the position of Badal and
Binod cannot be determined with the given
information.
From the given options only option 1 can be true.
Hence, option 1.

1
2
3
Let us assume she initially had Rs. x with her, then the
amount she paid to each of the guard would be:
She was left with Rs. 1 in the end,

Thus she had Rs. 36 in the beginning.


Hence, option 2.
4.

Consider option 1: Prof. Chaudhury must be assigned


HRM or Finance or no assignment but cannot be
assigned Development studies.
Consider option 2: Does not violate any condition.
Consider option 3: Both Prof. Das and Prof. Fotedar
cannot be given assignments together.
Consider option 4: Prof. Chaudhury cannot be assigned
Trade Policy.
Hence, option 2.

5.

Options 1, 2 and 3 do not violate any condition.


Option 4:
Prof. Das is assigned Trade Policy, Prof. Banik has to
be assigned Psychology.
Hence, option 4.

Note : Since both the options 1 or 3 could have been


correct according to the original paper, therefore
option 3 has been changed and is not the same as in the
original paper.
2.
No. of packets

Rate Revenue

2000

20

40000

2200

19

41800

2400

18

43200

2600

17

44200

2800

16

44800

3000

15

45000

3200

14

44800

TF-MS-PP-04-0409

Amount in Amount paid


Amount Left
her purse to the Guard

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IIFT 2008
6.

We have:

Order

Amount
Order
Name
spent
1
Aradhana Not 2517
2

Chandrima

Deepika

Heena

Sumitra

1
2
3

Remarks
Spent the smallest
amount

Not 1340
Spent more than
Deepika
Spent the largest
amount

Consider case 1: 2517, 2234, 1340, 1193 and 1139


In this case Sumitra must have spent Rs. 2517 and
Chandrima must have spent Rs. 1139 as they are the
highest and lowest amounts.

Deepika must have spent Rs. 1193, then Heena


should have spent Rs. 1340 and Aradhana would have
spent Rs. 2234.

1
2
3

Amount
spent
Aradhana 2234
Chandrima 1139
Deepika
1193
Name

Heena

1340

Sumitra

2517

2517

Sumitra

2571

Rs. 1139 was spent by Chandrima.


Hence, option 1.

8.

Rs. 1193 was spent by Deepika.


Hence, option 3.

9.

Tabulating the given information:


Number of guards
1
2
3

Remarks
Not 2517
Smallest
Not 1340
Spent more
than Deepika
Largest

Heena

Not 2517
Smallest
Not 1340
Spent more than
Deepika
Largest

7.

This information can now be tabulated as:


Order

Remarks

The woman who spent 2234 had arrived before the


woman who spent 1193, in this case it would mean
violation of this condition.
This case is not possible.
Only case 1 will hold good.
The amounts spent by the women are as follows:
1) Aradhana Rs. 2234
2) Chadrima Rs. 1139
3) Deepika Rs. 1193
4) Heena Rs. 1340
5) Sumitra Rs. 2517
Heena spent Rs. 1340.
Hence, option 2.

Amounts spent are: 2517, 2234, 1340, and 1193


Case 1: If Rs. 2517 is the highest amount spent then the
least amount spent would be Rs. 1139
Case 2: If Rs. 1193 is the least amount spent, then the
highest amount spent would be Rs. 2571

Deepika cannot spend Rs. 2234 as it is given that


Heena spent more than Deepika.

Amount
spent
Aradhana
1340
Chandrima 1193
Deepika
2234
Name

Red
Green
Turn right 2 kmph
Turn left 4 kmph
Stop
10 kmph

In case of Kartikay:
Signal
Number

Start

Consider Case 2: 2571, 2517, 2234, 1340 and 1193


Sumitra must have spent Rs. 2571 and Chandrima
must have spent Rs. 1193 as they are the highest and
lowest amounts.
Now,
Heena spent more than Deepika, Heena could not
have spent 1340.
Deepika did not spend 1340, it implies that Aradhana
spent 1340 and then Heena would have spent 2517
and Deepika would have spent 2234.

1
2
3
4
5

Red caps

Green caps

No. of
No. of
Direction
Speed
guards
guards
2
nil
North
1
kmph
4
2
Turn left
2
kmph
4
1
Turn right nil
kmph
10
1
Turn right
3
kmph
4
2
Turn left
2
kmph
3
Stop

Duration Distance
30 mins

1 km

15 mins

1 km

30 mins

2 km

24 mins

4 km

15 mins

1 km

Total distance travelled by Kartikay is 9 kms.


Hence, option 1.

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10.

12.

Signal
Number

Start
1
2
3
4
5

Red caps

Birth
order
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8

Green caps

No. of
No. of
Direction
Speed
guards
guards
2
0
North
1
kmph
Turn right
4
1
2
(East)
kmph
Turn right
4
1
nil
(South)
kmph
Turn right
10
1
3
(West)
kmph
Turn left
4
2
2
(South)
kmph
3
Stop

Duration Distance
30 mins

1 km

15 mins

1 km

30 mins

2 km

24 mins

4 km

15 mins

1 km

11.

Start
1
2
3
4
5

Red caps

Green caps

No. of
No. of
Direction
Speed
guards
guards
2
0
South
1
kmph
Turn left
4
2
2
(East)
kmph
Turn right
4
1
nil
(South)
kmph
Turn right
10
1
3
(West)
kmph
Turn left
4
2
2
(South)
kmph
3
Stop

Duration Distance
30 mins

1 km

15 mins

1 km

30 mins

2 km

24 mins

4 km

15 mins

1 km

Thus Kartikay would have travelled 1 + 2 + 1 = 4 km


towards South
And he would have travelled 4 1 = 3 km towards
West
Thus, his final position would be 3 km towards West
and 4 km towards South.
Hence, option 3.

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

M
M
M
F
F
M
M
F

School
Name
Saurav
Trinity
Mahi/ Nilesh Mansarover
Nilesh/ Mahi Mansarover
Kuntala
Trinity
Tamanna
St. Stefan
Arun
St. Stefan
Rohit
St. Stefan
Janki
Trinity
Name

Game
Chess
Cricket
Cricket
Chess
Football
Hockey
Chess

From the given information we have:


Sons: Arun (Ar), Mahi (Ma), Rohit (Ro), Nilesh (Ni) and
Saurav (Sa).
Daughters: Tamanna (Ta), Kuntala (Ku) and Janki (Ja).
St. Stefan: 3 children: Offers any sports: Tamanna,
Rohit.
Mansarover: 2 children: Offers only cricket: Mahi and
Nilesh.
Trinity: 3 children: Offers only chess: Kuntala.
Mansarover and Trinity offer only Cricket and chess
respectively, it implies that Arun who plays football
must be in St. Stefan.
This means that Saurav and Janki must be in Trinity.
Mahi and Nilesh were born in succession, it implies
that they can occupy only slots 2 and 3 in any order.
Kuntala was the eldest daughter, she needs to occupy
slot 4, and hence Tamanna would be 5th.
The only place left for Arun is 6th.
Arun is the 6th child.
Hence, option 3.

Kartikay would have travelled 1 + 2 1 = 2 km


towards South
And he would have travelled 4 1 = 3 km towards
West
His final position would be 3 km towards west and 2
km towards south.
Hence, option 1.

Signal
Number

Sex

13. Saurav is a student of Trinity school.


Hence, option 1.
14. From the given information Tamannas game cannot be
determined.
Hence, option 4.
15. The only pair that was not born in succession was
Kuntala and Arun.
Hence, option 2.
16. From I and II, the conclusion which can be drawn is,
Some drivers are engineers or Some engineers are
drivers.
From I and III: No conclusion is possible since all
parameters are different.
From II and III: No conclusion is possible since the
middle term, Engineers, is not distributed.
Only conclusion 4 follows.
Hence, option 2.

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17. From I and II, the conclusion that can be derived is
Some barbers are not businessmen. Conclusion: 4
From II and III, the conclusion possible is Some
Traders are not Fashion designers. Conclusion: 2.
Looking at the options none of them fits in the above
satisfying them.
Hence, option 4.
18. Let Pritus father be Mr. Z.
Pritus fathers sisters grandfather is Pritus great
grandfather.
Let him be Mr. X.
The only son of Mr. X is Pritus grandfather or
granduncle.
Let him be Mr. Y.
Mr. Y is Mr. Zs father or uncle.
Let the wife of Mr. Y be Mrs. A.
Mrs. A is grandmother of Pritu or grandaunt of Pritu.
Now Priya is the daughter of daughter of Mrs. A or
granddaughter of Mrs. A.
Now, if Sushma is the sister of Pritu, then she becomes
either a real sister of Priya or a cousin sister of Priya.
Hence, option 4.
19. Kamaljeet fulfilled all the conditions except 3 as he
scored 56% marks.
There is no alternative to condition 3, thus he cannot
be admitted.
Hence, option 2.
20. Gaurav had fulfilled all the conditions except 2 since he
is 37 years old.
The alternative to this is that the candidate must be
admitted under the sponsor quota if he has got at least
10 years of experience in supervisory cadre.
Gaurav has got 12 years of experience in supervisory
cadre thus he can be admitted under sponsor quota.
Hence, option 4.
21. The film Dainandini fulfils all the criteria and must be
selected.
Hence, option 1.
22. The film Bhadrasalem fulfils all the conditions except
condition 3.
There is no information on the director clearing the
course.
The given data is not sufficient to make a decision.
Hence, option 2.
23. The film Ek Baar Achanak has not fulfilled condition 1
as it was submitted on 30th November 2007.
It cannot be selected.
Hence, option 4.

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

24. The machine is arranging the numbers in the


increasing order of the sum of the digits on the
number.
Input: 245 (11), 316 (10), 436 (13), 519 (15), 868 (22),
710 (8), 689 (23).
The number in the bracket indicates the sum of digits
of the given number.
Step 1: 710 (8), 316 (10), 436 (13), 519 (15), 868 (22),
245 (11), 689 (23).
The machine has swapped 710 (8) with 245 (11).
Step 2: 710 (8), 316 (10), 245 (11), 519 (15), 868 (22),
436 (13), 689 (23).
Thus it has swapped 436 (13) with 245 (11).
Step 3: 710 (8), 316 (10), 245 (11), 436 (13), 868 (22),
519 (15), 689 (23).
Thus it has swapped 436 (13) with 519 (15).
Step 4: 710 (8), 316 (10), 245 (11), 436 (13), 519 (15),
868 (22), 689 (23).
Thus it has swapped 519 (15) with 868 (22).
Going by the logic mentioned above,
Input: 655 (16), 436 (13), 764 (17), 799 (25), 977 (23),
572 (14), 333 (9).
Step 1: 333 (9), 436 (13), 764 (17), 799 (25), 977 (23),
572 (14), 655 (16).
Step 2: 333 (9), 436 (13), 572 (14), 799 (25), 977 (23),
764 (17), 655 (16).
Step 3: 333 (9), 436 (13), 572 (14), 655 (16), 977 (23),
764 (17), 799 (25).
This is the required sequence which is achieved in Step
3.
Hence, option 1.
25. Input: 544 (13), 653 (14), 325 (10), 688 (22), 461 (11),
231 (6), 857 (20).
Step 1: 231 (6), 653 (14), 325 (10), 688 (22), 461 (11),
544 (13), 857 (20).
Step 2: 231 (6), 325 (10), 653 (14), 688 (22), 461 (11),
544 (13), 857 (20).
Step 3: 231 (6), 325 (10), 461 (11), 688 (22), 653 (14),
544 (13), 857 (20).
Step 4: 231 (6), 325 (10), 461 (11), 544 (13), 653 (14),
688 (22), 857 (20).
Step 5: 231 (6), 325 (10), 461 (11), 544 (13), 653 (14),
857 (20), 688 (22).
Total 5 steps would be required.
Hence, option 2.
26. Cannot be determined as the process backward is not
possible.
Hence, option 4.
27. Input: 653 (14), 963 (18), 754 (16), 345 (12), 364 (13),
861 (15), 541 (10).

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IIFT 2008
Step 1: 541 (10), 963 (18), 754 (16), 345 (12), 364
(13), 861 (15), 653 (14).
Step 2: 541 (10), 345 (12), 754 (16), 963 (18), 364
(13), 861 (15), 653 (14).
Step 3: 541 (10), 345 (12), 364 (13), 963 (18), 754
(16), 861 (15), 653 (14).
Hence, option 3.
28. Input: She was interested in doing art film.
Step 1: art she was interested in doing film.
Step 2: art was she interested in doing film.
Step 3: art was in she interested doing film.
Step 4: art was in film she interested doing.
Step 5: art was in film doing she interested.
The words get arranged according to the last alphabet
of each word in the reverse order.
Input: he is going out to search air.
Step 1: out he is going to search air.
Step 2: out is he going to search air.
Step 3: out is air he going to search.
Step 4: out is air to he going search.
Step 5: out is air to search he going.
Step 6: out is air to search going he.
Hence, option 2.
29. Step 2: not is the casino considering legal action.
Step 3: not is casino the considering legal action.
Step 4: not is casino action the considering legal.
Step 5: not is casino action legal the considering.
Thus the required sequence is achieved in Step 5.
This is not given in any of the options.
Hence, option 4.
30. Input: Father needs to check on the boy.
Step 1: boy Father needs to check on the.
Step 2: boy needs Father to check on the.
Step 3: boy needs Father to on check the.
Thus, only 3 steps are required to get to the final
output.
Hence, option 4.

Saurav is pointing to the brother of his sisters


maternal grandmothers only daughter, i.e. his
mothers only brother. His mothers brother means his
uncle.
Yuvraj is not pointing out Saurav it has to be Saurav
who is pointing towards Yuvraj.
Yuvraj is Sauravs maternal uncle.
Hence, option 2.
33. Z units are produced at a total cost of Rs. R where

Now, the variable cost Rv for producing Z units is given


by,

The average variable cost for Z units is given by,

Z = 25
Hence, option 3.
34. H1, H2, H3, , Hn, are n Harmonic means between a and
b ( a), implies that the required Harmonic series is:
a, H1, H2, H3, H4, , Hn, b

31. On thickness parameter we have:


Anil is fatter than Debu but thinner than Bibek.
Debu is fatter than Eswar.
Charu is thinner than Debu but fatter than Eswar.
Thus the descending order of fatness is as follows,
Bibek > Anil > Debu > Charu > Eswar.
The thinnest person is Eshwar.
Hence, option 4.

32. Yuvraj is pointing to the brother of his sisters


maternal grandmothers only daughter, i.e. his
mothers only brother. His mothers brother means his
uncle.

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Similarly,

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Now considering options, we see that only option 4


satisfies equation (ii).

Hence, option 4.

37. As a, b, c are in H.P.,

Hence, option 2.

log (a + c) + log (a 2b + c) = log [(a + c)2 2b(a + c)]


= log [(a + c)2 4ac)]
= log (a c)2
= 2 log (a c)
= 2 log(c a)
( c > a)
Hence, option 3.

35. We have:
(n + 2)C8 : (n 2)P4 = 57 : 16

(n + 2)(n + 1)(n)(n 1) = 19 3 7 6 5 4 3
Now consider options.
Option 1: n = 20
(n + 2) = 22, but our product is not a multiple of 22.
Option 2: n = 22
But our product is not a multiple of 22.
Option 3: n = 15
(n + 2) = 17, but our product is not a multiple of 17.
None of the options gives the correct value of n.
Hence, option 4.

38. 12 22 = (1 2)(1 + 2) = 3
32 42 = (3 4)(3 + 4) = 7
52 62 = (5 6)(5 + 6) = 11
72 82 = (7 8)(7 + 8) = 15
And so on till 20012 20022 = 4003
The given expression = (3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + + 4003)
+ 20032

= 2007006
Hence, option 1.
39. 2 men can be selected in 9C2 ways from 9 men and 2
women to be selected should not be the wives of the 2
men selected.
These 2 women can be selected from the remaining 7
women in 7C2 ways.
4 players of the game can be selected in 9C2 7C2 =
756 ways
But, the number of mixed doubles games that can be
played among 2 men and 2 women is 2.
The number of ways in which a mixed doubles game
can be played = 9C2 7C2 2 = 1512
Hence, option 2.

36. As a, b and c are in A.P.,

As a2, b2 and c2 are in G.P., so b4 = a2c2

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

40. The interior angles are 120, 125, 130, 135, 140
and so on and the corresponding exterior angles are
60, 55, 50, 45, 40 and so on.
Now the sum of exterior angles needs to be 360.
60 + 55 + 50 + 45 + 40 + 35 + 30 + 25 + 20
= 360

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The number of sides would be 9.
Hence, option 3.
41. The initial position of the ladder is as shown below:

Hence, option 2.
44. ax2 + bx + c = 0
Let the roots of the given equation are and 2.

25

24

2b2 = 9ac
Hence, option 1.

7
By Pythagoras theorem,

The final position would be:

45. Let the time taken to go of 30 km upstream be 3x


hours. Then the time taken to go 40 km upstream is 4x
hours.
Let the time taken to go 44 km downstream be 4y
hours. Then the time taken to go 55 km downstream is
5y hours.
Then we have:
3x + 4y = 10
(i)
4x + 5y = 13
(ii)
Solving for x and y, we have,
x = 2 and y = 1

25

12

481 ~
~ 22

The foot must be drawn out by approximately 22 7


= 15 metres
Hence, option 4.
42. The term 3600840049 can be written as:
36(108) + 84(104) + 49 = 600072
The term 6407522209 can be written as:
64(108) + 752(104) + 2209 = 800472

Hence, option 3.
46.

Similarly,

Hence, option 1.

43. The arithmetic mean of n numbers is greater than or


equal to their geometric mean.
As a, b and c are in Arithmetic Progression, their
arithmetic mean = b

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Now in next year, since the increase in salary was 20%
for all of the employees, it means that the SD will have
gone up by 20%.
Standard Deviation after 20% raise = 400 + 20% of
400 = 400 + 80 = Rs. 480
The new SD would be 480.
Hence, option 2.

Hence, option 2.
47. Let P be the pole.
As P lies on the circumference and AB is the diameter,
m APB = 90

P
x+

7
x

13

Now, (x + 7)2 + x2 = 132 = 169


x2 + 7x 60 = 0
(x + 12)(x 5) = 0
Solving for x, we get,
x = 5 and x + 7 = 12
Hence, option 3.

50. We have,
Let us take 200 people forming 4 groups (say A, B, C
and D) containing 50 people each.
As 1 person in 100 suffers, so 2 persons will be
suffering from 200 people.
These 2 people (suffering) will be either from 1 group
or 2 groups.
Case 1: 2 people (suffering) from 1 group
There 2 suffering people are either from group A or B
or C or D.
So there are 4 possibilities.
In this case, operator will have to perform 54 tests i.e.
4 pooled tests for 4 groups and 50 individual tests for
group containing 2 suffering people.
Case 2: 2 people (suffering) from 2 groups
There 2 suffering people are either from groups (A and
B) or (A and C) or (A and D) or (B and C) or (B and D)
or (C and D).
So there are 6 possibilities.
In this case, operator will have to perform 104 tests i.e.
4 pooled tests for 4 groups and 100 individual tests for
2 groups containing 2 suffering people.

Hence, option 3.
51. If the number selected does not appear on any of the
three dice then the person loses 1, i.e. he does not
win.

48. The total length of the spiral

Hence, option 2.
49. The mean salary was Rs. 1,500 and standard deviation
(SD) was Rs. 400. Since after 1 year each employee got
a raise of Rs. 100, it would mean that the SD would still
remain same.

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

Hence, option 3.

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52. First let us begin by tabulating the given data as shown
below:
Present Coverage
Claimed Coverage
Probability
that
claim is true

Jagan
55%

Bhola
40%
60%

James
25%
75%

0.60

0.20

Choices are:
1. 5 year contract to Jagan.
2. 1 year contract to Bhola and then to Bhola or
Jagan for next four years.
3. 1 year contract to James and then to James or
Jagan for next four years.
Market Credentials:
Profit potential for the current year: 5 crores
Profit potential for next four years: 15 crores
Expected value of profits for each of the choices:
Choice 1: 55% of 20 crores = 11 crores
Choice 2: With 60% coverage:
60% of 20 crores = 12 crores
As Probability is 0.6, Expected value = 12 0.6 = 7.2
crores
If the contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year
onwards, then:
1st year: 40% of 5 crores = 2 crores
2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores
Expected value = 0.4(8.25 + 2) = 4.1 crores
Total Expected value = 7.2 + 4.1 = 11.3 crores
Choice 3: With 75% coverage:
75% of 20 crores = 15 crores
As probability is 0.2, Expected value = 15 0.2 = 3
crores
If contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year onwards,
then:
1st year: 25% of 5 crores = 1.25 crores
2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores
Expected value = 0.8 9.5 crores = 7.6 crores
Total expected value = 3 + 7.6 = 10.6 crores
Hence, option 2.

55% of 20 crores = 11 crores


As probability is 0.7, Expected value = 11 0.7 = 7.7
crores
If contract is awarded to Jagan from 2nd year onwards,
then:
1st year: 25% of 5 crores = 1.25 crores
2nd year onwards = 55% of 15 crores = 8.25 crores
Expected value = 0.3 9.5 crores = 2.85 crores
Total expected value = 7.7 + 2.85 = 10.55 crores
Option 1: Choice 1 is more profitable than Choice 2:
False
Option 2: Choice 2 is more profitable than Choice 3:
True
Option 3: Choice 3 is more profitable than Choice 1:
False
Hence, option 2.
55. To get the prize the customer must uncover two
pictures which match each other before uncovering
any of No Prize pictures. The other signs then become
insignificant.
These five signs can occur in 120 ways.
In 12 of these permutations, the two matching pictures
occur before No Prize sign.
The probability of winning = 12/120 = 0.1
Hence, option 1.
56. Since there are 3 pairs of shoes, so shoes can be
selected in 3 ways.
The lower wear can be selected in 7 ways.
The upper wear can be selected in 27 ways (6 + 3 + 6
3).
The jacket can be selected in 3 ways (2 ways for 2
jackets and one way when he does not wear a jacket).
The total number of ways = 3 7 27 3 = 1701
ways
Hence, option 4.
57. We have,

53. Option 1: Choice 1 is more profitable than Choice 2:


False
Option 2: Choice 3 is more profitable than Choice 2:
False
Option 3: Choice 3 is more profitable than Choice 1:
False
Hence, option 4.
54. In choice 1: Expected value = 11 crores
In choice 2: Expected value = 11.3 crores
Choice 3: With 55% coverage:

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60. Consider statement 1

Total Covered Covered wagons as %


of total wagons
Year Wagons wagons

1993
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005

Tan 3x = 1
Hence, option 3.
58. The figure would be as shown below (not drawn to
scale).

Number
337562
312405
291360
280791
272127
263981
252944
234397
222193
216717
214760
227752
222379

Number
157581
138642
121946
114065
106634
102217
96371
86024
75768
71950
68467
67870
64417

46.68
44.38
41.85
40.62
39.19
38.72
38.10
36.70
34.10
33.20
31.88
29.80
28.97

And in ADC, we have,

As can be seen from the above table, the percentage of


covered wagons did consistently drop from 1993
2005, but it did not increase in year 2003 when
compared to previous year
This statement is false.

From (i) and (ii), we get,

Consider statement 2:

Now, BD = DC, then by Apollonius theorem in ABC, we


have,

Total
Year Wagons
Hence, option 1.

1993
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005

59. Since in case of Hemi-sphere, radius is same as height,


it implies that the height for all the three shapes is
same, i.e. equal to r.
Assuming the base radius to be r in all the three cases,
we then have,
In case of cylinder: The curved surface area = 2 r2
In case of hemisphere: The curved surface area = 2 r2

Hence, option 4.

Number
337562
312405
291360
280791
272127
263981
252944
234397
222193
216717
214760
227752
222379

Special
Special wagons as % of
type
total wagons
wagons
Number
50282
14.90
49208
15.75
47927
16.45
46225
16.46
45341
16.66
43853
16.61
42242
16.70
40316
17.20
38884
17.50
37275
17.20
37650
17.53
39401
17.30
36454
16.39

The special wagons expressed as a percentage of total


wagons was highest in 2003.
The given option is true.
Hence, option 2.

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IIFT 2008
61. Again from table given in the solution of the previous
question, it can be readily seen that this would hold
good for the pair 2000 and 2002, where the required
percentage for both of these years was 17.20%.
Hence, option 3.

For open high sided wagons,

62.

Annual growth rate in 2003

Annual growth rate in 1

2 7
2 7

0 2

Departmental
Total Departmental
Year
wagons as
Wagons
wagons
% of total wagons

07 5
0371
0371

0 44
Thus, statement 2 is true.

2002 216717

9536

4.40

2003 214760

10718

4.99

Consider statement 3:

2004 227752

11388

5.00

2005 222379

10964

4.93

It was maximum in the year 2001 as can be seen from


table below.
Statement 3 is false.

It was highest in 2004.


Hence, option 3.

Year
1994
1995
1996
1997
1998
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005

63. The calculation is as shown below;

For special type wagons,

Average wagon
Growth rate
capacity (Tonnes)
36.2
3.72%
36.9
1.93%
37.8
2.44%
39.1
3.44%
40.5
3.58%
42.3
4.44%
43.8
3.55%
45.9
4.79%
46.6
1.53%
46.5
0.215
46.8
0.65%
47.7
1.92%

Hence, option 3.
65. Consider statement 1:

We see that option 1 had seen the lowest annual


growth rate.

Consider statement 2:

Hence, option 1.
64. Consider statement 1:
Annual growth rate of covered wagons in
Consider statement 3:
Annual growth rate of covered wagons in 2000
024

371
371

10 73

Consider statement 4:

Thus, statement 1 is true.


Consider statement 2:

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IIFT 2008
The highest annual growth rate amongst these
occurred in case of statement 2.
Hence, option 2.

Sum of revenue of P, Q and S in 1994 = 675 + 160 + 264


= Rs. 1099 whereas the revenue of R in 1994 is Rs.
1716
Statement 2 is false.
Consider statement 3:
Revenue of P and Q together in 1993 = 342 + 240 = Rs.
582, whereas the revenue of S in 1993 is Rs. 417
Statement 3 is true.
Hence, option 3.

66. Observing the given chart carefully it becomes evident


that the growth rate was highest in 1992.
Hence, option 2.
67.
Year 90 91 92 93 94 95 Total Average Stability
P

45 25 40 38 75 55 278

46.33

0.93

98 40 108 60 40 70 416

69.33

1.02

72 92 106 62 132 120 584

97.33

1.39

S 115 158 165 139 88 95 760 126.67

1.645

71. The results are as follows

The stability was maximum for product S as can be


seen from the above table.
Hence, option 4.
68.
Year
Rs.
9
Rs.
Q
4
Rs.
R
13
Rs.
S
3
P

Total

1990

1991

1992

1993

1994

1995

45 405 25 225 40 360 38 342 75

675 55 495

98 392 40 160 108 432 60 240 40

160 70 280

72 936 92 1196 106 1378 62 806 132 1716 120 1560


115 345 158 474 165 495 139 417 88
2078

2055

2665

1805

We see that option 3 has the highest value.


Hence, option 3.

264 95 285

2815

2620

The total revenue was minimum in 1993


Hence, option 3.

72. The growth rate for each of the statement is as shown


below:

69.
Year
P
Q
R
S

Total Revenue
2502
1664
7592
2280

The table above shows the total revenue from each


product using the table from the solution of the
previous question.
Product Q fetched the least revenue.
Hence, option 2.
70. Using the table from the above answer:
Consider statement 1:
In 1991, product R fetched the highest revenue,
Statement 1 is false.
Consider statement 2:
We see that option 1 has the least value.
Hence, option 1.

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IIFT 2008
73. Consider statement 1:

Statement 1 is false.

= 10 75 0 = 37
Statement 3 is false.
Hence, option 3.
75. Consider statement 1:
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Haryana in 2006
= 5577 2 5 = 2 2
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Punjab in 2007
= 22 340 = 2
Statement 1 is false.
Consider statement 2:
The increase in FDI
Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is false.

Consider statement 2:

inflow

was

highest

for

Consider option: 3:
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Bihar in 2003
= 34 52 = 2 4
Annual increase in FDI inflow in Karnataka in 2001
= 3553 32 = 254
Statement 3 is true.

Statement 2 is false.
Consider statement 3:

Hence, option 3.
76.

Statement 3 is true.
Hence, option 3.
74. Consider statement 1:
Annual increase in FDI in Bihar in 2001
= 55 5 = 4 27
Annual increase in FDI in Rajasthan in 2007
= 10034 5077 = 4 57
Statement 1 is true.
Consider statement 2:
Statement 4 has the lowest value.
Hence, option 4.
77. Consider statement 1:

Statement 2 is true.
Consider statement C:
Annual increase in FDI in Madhya Pradesh in 2004
= 177 1 13 1 = 3 70
Annual increase in FDI in Maharashtra in 2005

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

Statement 1 is false.

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IIFT 2008
Consider statement B:

Statement 2 is true.
Consider statement 3:
Statement 2 is false.
Consider statement 3:

Statement 3 is true.
Consider statement 4:
Statement 3 is true.
Hence, option 3.
78.
Statement 4 is false.
Hence, option 4.
80. Consider statement 1:
Absolute annual increase in exports from Asia in 2003
= 2138300 1807800 = 330500
Absolute annual increase in exports from Asia in 2006
= 3577700 3059000 = 518700
Statement 1 is true.
Consider statement 2:
Absolute annual increase in exports from Germany in
2001 = 571645 551818 = 19827
Absolute annual increase in exports from US in 2003 =
724771 693103 = 31668
Statement 2 is false.
Hence, option 2.

Statement 2 has the highest value.


Hence, option 2.
79. Consider statement 1:

Statement 1 is true.
Consider statement 2:

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IIFT 2008
81.

84.
Year
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004
2005
2006
2007
2008
2009
2010

Unit
Per Unit
Revenue Units Profit Cost
Price
Cost
10
700
70
0
700
10
14
1400
100 100 1300
13
12
1200
100 300 900
9
12
900
75
150 750
10
11
1100
100
0 1100
11
8
400
50
150 250
5
10
200
20
100 100
5
14
700
50
200 500
10
10
600
60
0
600
10
10
800
80
400 400
5
15
900
60
300 600
10

Year Unit Price

The table above shows the complete analysis of cost.


We see that the cost per unit is highest in the year
2001.
Hence, option 2.
82. From the table given in the solution of the above
question, the total units sold in the period 20002010
= 765
Average is 69.55 or 70 units.
Hence, option 2.
83.

Price per
unit
Cost per
unit
Total
profit
Revenue

Max
Value

Min
Value

Average
Volatility
Value

15

11.45

0.611

13

8.91

0.898

400

154.55

2.588

1400

200

809.09

1.483

Per Unit
Cost

Units Profit

2000

10

70

-140

2001

11.2

13

100

-180

2002

9.6

100

60

2003

9.6

10

75

-30

2004

8.8

11

100

-220

2005

50

100

2006

10

20

80

2007

14

12

50

100

2008

10

12

60

-120

2009

10

80

320

2010

15

12

60

180

The table above shows the new price per unit and cost
per unit.
We see that there is loss for 5 years.
Hence, option 3.
85. Cumulative Profit before the change is Rs. 1700
Cumulative Profit after the change is Rs. 150
Change in cumulative profit is Rs. 1700 Rs. 150 =
Rs. 1550
Hence, option 2.
86.

The table above shows the volatility of each parameter.


We see that volatility is maximum for Total Profit.
Hence, option 3.

Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that the direct


model was not at all being exploited by any of their
competitors.
Option 2 is incorrect as the analysis points out that the
warehouse sends the product to the dealer.
Option 3 is incorrect as the author states that the norm
of the industry is to push the production of the factory
to the customers. It does not depend upon the
customer feedback.
Option 4 is correct whenever the production exceeds
the demand, manufacturers put down the prices to
push sales.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

87. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that direct


model helped the company to achieve a stellar
performance with regards to efficiency in raw material.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author states this in the
fifth paragraph by saying, The quality of information
is inversely ... in this case excess inventory.
Option 3 is eliminated as the author states this in the
8th paragraph by saying, We also learned to take into
account ... limited variety of expensive parts.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

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88. Options 1 and 2 are eliminated as the market cannot be
matched with warehouse or stockpiles.
Option 4 is incorrect as the author states that the
conventional manufacturing process requires to
maintain stockpiles. Also, distributors cannot be
matched with velocity as they need to be matched with
warehouses.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
89. The author states that it was their company alone
which incorporated information gathering process and
customer feedbacks which enabled them to market
products with latest available technologies.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
90. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that there
were always more pirates than enough in the
Caribbean seas but he does not state that there were
more pirates at Belize than in the Caribbean seas.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author confesses that he
was not an experienced sailor and that he would sink
the ship in less than an hour if he was given charge.
Option 3 is incorrect as the author states that they used
to consider corporal Charker as the most authoritarian
non commissioned officer.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
91. Option 3 is false as the author states that although they
not seen the notorious pirate gang, they had heard so
much about them that reinforcements were sent for.
All the other options are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
92. Option 4 is the correct answer as the author states this
in the first sentence of the 7th paragraph.
All the other options are false.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
93. Option 4 is incorrect because the author was the one
walking around the harbour with Corporal Charker. It
can be inferred from the last line that Gill is the name
of the author. The name of the sergeant was Drooce.
All the other options are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
94. Option 1 is incorrect as the author states that on the
26th January, the moon was only two days old.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author states that
according to Conseil, the Captain of Nautilus was a
person who returned contempt for indifference.
Option 4 is incorrect as from the chronicle; it is clear
that the Nautilus was not in the vicinity of Island
Crespo, but had just left Keeling Island for the Indian
Peninsula.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

95. Option 2 is false because the author states that the


second officer came to take the altitude of the sun
before the 21st January. It is however unclear on which
day this event occurred.
All the other options are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
96. The author describes the tentacles of the molluscs, the
snouts of the Isabella sharks, cocos of the coral
formations and the colourless infusorias that adhere to
themselves for several leagues.
Hence the correct answer is option 1.
97. Option 1 is eliminated as Nautilus was travelling at that
speed between 21st and 23rd January and not 22nd and
24th January.
Option 2 is incorrect as the author saw the molluscs on
25th January and not 26th January.
Option 3 is incorrect as the author fancied (imagined)
the boat to be owned by the PO Company and
travelling from Ceylon to Sydney.
Option 4 is explained in the second paragraph of the
passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
98. A rumble is a deep, heavy, muffled sound.
A fracas is a riotous brawl.
An aquifer is any geological formation containing or
conducting ground water.
A chalice is a bowl shaped drinking vessel.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
99. Briny means salty.
Puerile means childishly foolish.
Prophylactic means defending or protecting from
disease or infection.
Vitriolic means something highly caustic or severe or
a strong and erosive acid.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
100. A maelstrom is a large powerful whirlpool.
Alacrity is cheerful readiness or promptness.
Slighting is treating as of small importance.
Acclivity is an upward slope of ground.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
101. Since the Hon. Ige was confronted with incivility, the
word in the blank should have a negative connotation.
This eliminates options 2 and 4.
Proscription is an act of banishing. Since Justice Ige
cannot banish the cads and only curses them, this
option is eliminated.
Malediction means to utter a curse.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

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102. Prophesy is the verb which means to predict
something.
Prophecy is the noun which means a prediction.
The first blank needs a verb and the second blank
needs a noun.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
103. The public figure is said to be facing inquiry into
allegations of having obtained money by deception, the
person has to be troubled or engaged in a struggle or
conflict. This eliminates options 1 and 4.
Endangered is generally used to denote a threat with
extinction. The threat here is of a much larger degree
and hence can be eliminated.
Embattle means to be engaged in a struggle or
conflict.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
104. Lugubrious is mournful. His listeners will not enjoy
his mournful wit. Moreover, satire is sarcastic and
ironic but not mournful. Thus, options 1 and 3 are
eliminated.
Smarted means to cause a sharp and superficial
pain. The victims cannot smart and suffer at the same
time. Hence, option 2 is also eliminated.
Trenchant wit is caustic and cutting wit. To wince
is to draw back or tense the body as from pain.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
105. The
sentence
talks
about
the
Presidents
Administration and not the President, the pronoun that
can be used is it only. This eliminates options 1 and 4.
Option 3 is incorrect as it talks about the president
losing the vote and not the Presidents Office. This
eliminates option 3 as well.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
106. The verb indicate should agree with the rise and not
negative attitude and should, therefore, should be
singular. This eliminates option 1.
Option 3 is eliminates as the word that is not required
after therefore.
Option 4 is incorrect because of the tense used. The
sentence talks about an on-going process and the
present continuous tense is needed.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
107. Options 2 and 4 are incorrect as the correct usage
would be a single sentence.
Option 3 puts forward the same idea as option 1 but
option 1 is better expressed.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

108. The use of chemical spill as a subject is awkward in


option 2. It seems as if the chemical spill were a person
causing the delay.
There is nothing incorrect about options 3 and 4.
But the directions of the question are clear. The
original sentence is correct and there is no reason to
alter it.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
109. Travesty is a literary or artistic composition, so
inferior in quality as to be an imitation of its model.
Paragon is a model or pattern of excellence. Hence
the relation between the two is that of approximate
opposites.
Disqualification can be the effect of ineptitude which
means quality or condition of being without skill.
Hence, option 2 is eliminated.
A sentinel is a person or a thing that watches or
stands as if watching. Creed is any system or
codification of belief. Since these words are not
opposites of each other, option 3 is incorrect.
Conundrum
is
anything
that
puzzles.
Accountability is not the opposite of conundrum and
hence, option 4 is also eliminated.
Autonomy
is
independence
or
freedom.
Subordinate is an inferior or a dependent person or
thing. These two words are opposites of each other.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
110. Contrite means to be filled with a sense of guilt.
Obdurate means to be stubbornly resistant to moral
influence. These two words are opposites of each
other.
Grief and lament are approximate synonyms of each
other. Thus, option 1 is eliminated.
Sophisticated and cultured are synonyms of each other
and hence, option 3 is incorrect.
Since favourable and assenting are synonyms, option 4
is eliminated.
Aphoristic means giving or making a brief statement
of a principle which is available to all. Esoteric is that
which is known by a restricted number of people.
These two are opposites.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
111. A peccadillo is a very minor or slight sin or offense; a
trifling fault. A flaw is a feature that mars the
perfection of something; defect; fault. Therefore the
relationship is synonymous in nature.
Clandestine is something executed with secrecy.
Since openness is an antonym of clandestine, option 1
is eliminated.

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Forensics is the art or study of argumentation and
courts of law. Judiciary means pertaining to the
judicial branch or system or to judges. These words
are not synonyms but one is used in another. Forensics
cannot lead to judiciaries. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
An invasion is an entrance as if to take possession or
overrun against any form of enemy. A putsch is a
plotted attempt to overthrow a government. Since,
they are not synonyms and since an invasion cannot
lead to a putsch; option 4 is incorrect.
A nick is a small notch, groove, chip, or the like, cut
into or existing in something. A score is a notch,
scratch, or incision; a stroke or line.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
112. A mutter is an utterance of indistinct words in a low
tone.
A definition is not necessarily easy. Hence, option 1 is
incorrect.
Blunder and polished cannot be related and thus,
option 2 is eliminated.
To expedite is to speed up the process. It may not
necessarily complete the process. Hence, option 4 is
incorrect.
To articulate is to speak well in distinct syllables.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
113. Requiem is a musical service or a dirge for the
repose of the dead.
Humility is the quality of being humble.
Prerequisite means required beforehand.
Reign means royal rule.
Resolution means a formal expression of opinion or
intention made, usually after voting, by a formal
organization, a legislature, a club, or other group.
None of these words are opposite in meaning to
requiem.
Hence, the correct answer is option 5.
Note: Fifth option has been added to reduce the
ambiguity seen in the question.
114. Aspersion is a damaging or a derogatory remark or
criticism.
Infamy is evil fame or reputation.
Restriction is confinement.
Tradition is something that is handed down.
Obeisance is a movement of body expressing deep
respect or deferential courtesy.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
115. Stolidity is the ability to remain not easily stirred or
moved emotionally.
Posterity means all descendants of one generation.

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

Proximity is nearness in place, time, order,


occurrence or relation.
Agility is the power of moving quickly and easily.
Sobriety is the state or quality of being sober.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
116. Options 2 and 4 are eliminated as the paragraph
cannot start with statement I. Statement I states even
more, which suggests a continuing idea.
Statement IV talks of a contraction which has been
introduced in Statement II. Statement IV cannot come
before Statement II.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
117. Statement I cannot start the paragraph as it talks about
at the time. Since the statement is talking about a
specific time, it needs to be introduced before using
this statement. Thus, options 2 and 4 are eliminated.
Statement III states that he says. This person needs to
be introduced before using this statement and since
there is only one person mentioned in all statements
put together; statement I should precede statement III.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
118. Option 3 is eliminated as statement II talks about its
effects. Since the cause of this effect should be
introduced before using this statement, statement II
cannot start the paragraph.
Statement V talks about formate which is further
explained in statement II. Thus, statement II should
follow statement V.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
119. Disinterested means unbiased.
Uninterested means not interested.
With these definitions, only S2 and S4 are the
sentences where the word has been used correctly.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
120. To use on the contrary correctly, the sentence must
have two contradicting ideas.
Intelligence and Impatience are not contradicting
ideas. Hence, S2 is incorrect.
It is not contradicting if a cosmopolitan city is
expensive. Thus, S3 is also incorrect.
Being rich and being in debt are two contradicting
ideas, thus, S1 is correct.
Passing and failing are two contradicting ideas and
hence, S4 is correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
121. China is not a member of the G8 group of countries.
Hence, option 2.

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IIFT 2008
122. UNESCO launched the Education For All (EFA)
movement.
Hence, option 4.
123. Mexico is a member of the OECD group.
Hence, option 3.
124. The correct match is
Year
1
2
3
4

1976
1992
1964
2012

iii
iv
ii
i

Olympic host
cities
Montreal
Barcelona
Tokyo
London

Hence, option 4.
125. The correct match is
IPL Franchise

1
2
3
4

Owner
Reliance
Mumbai Indians iii
Industries
Royal Challengers i
UB group
Chennai Super Kings iv India Cements
Delhi Daredevils
ii GMR Holdings

Hence, option 2.
126. Albania is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers
Group.
Hence, option 4.
127. The correct match is

1
2
3
4

Bharat Ratna
Year
recipients
Pandit Ravi Shankar ii 1999
Ustad Bismillah Khan iii 2001
M S Subbulakshmi iv 1998
Satyajit Ray
i 1992

Hence, option 1.

131. Accidental Empires: How the Boys of Silicon Valley


Make Their Millions, Battle Foreign Competition, and
Still Cant Get a Date is written by Robert X Cringely.
Hence, option 2.
132. Storting is Parliament of Norway and Riksdag is the
Parliament of Sweden.
Hence, option 2.
133. View from the outside: Why good economics works for
everyone is written by P. Chidambaram.
Hence, option 1.
134. Maastricht Treaty was signed by the European nations
to enter into a monetary union.
Hence, option 3.
135. Bajaj has a tie up with a Germen insurer.
Hence, option 3.
136. Tata Chemicals has acquired General Chemical
Industrial Products Inc. of USA in 2008.
Hence, option 1.
137. Anti-Naxalite Force is not part of the Central Police
Forces under the Union Government of India.
Hence, option 4.
138. The correct order in terms of decreasing length of land
border shared with India is Bangladesh, China,
Pakistan, Nepal, and Myanmar.
Hence, option 4.
139. The IAEA was established in 1957. France conducted
its first nuclear weapons test in 1960 and China
conducted its first nuclear test in 1964.
Hence, option 3.
140. Daulagiri, the seventh highest mountain peak in the
world, is located in Nepal.
Hence, option 1.
141. The correct match is
Organization

128. Siouguluan River flows in Taiwan not Malaysia.


Hence, option 4.
129. International Monetary Fund is headquartered at
Washington D.C, USA.
Hence, option 3.
130. In 1994 the Hockey World cup, hosted in Sydney, was
won by Pakistan.
Hence, option 3.

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

NABARD

NCDC

SCARDB

NAFED

Purpose
Refinancing agricultural
ii
credit
Financial assistance for
i
warehousing
iv
Land development
Inter-state sale of
iii
agricultural products

Hence, option 1.

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142. The correct order in terms of decreasing sex ratio is
Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and
Orissa.
Hence, option 1.

149. The correct match is


Diseases
i. Black heart
ii. Red Rot
iii. Karnal Bunt
iv. Powdery Mildew

143. The correct match is


Artists
i. N. Rajam
ii. Satish Vyas
iii. Vilayat Khan
iv. Asad Ali Khan

Instruments
b. Violin
a. Santoor
d. Sitar
c. Rudra Vina

Plants
d. Potatoes
c. Sugarcane
b. Wheat
a. Peas

Hence, option 2.
150. In April 2008 ISRO launched the satellite
CARTOSAT-2A form Sriharikota.
Hence, option 2.

Hence, option 2.
144. The correct match is
Sobriquets
i. Emerald Island
ii. Island of pearls
iii. Holy land
iv. Land of thunderbolt

Primary Names
b. Ireland
a. Bahrain
d. Palestine
c. Bhutan

Hence, option 3.
145. In 2007, Indra Nooyi was awarded Padma Bhushan by
Government of India.
Hence, option 1.
146. The antibiotic penicillin is obtained from Penicillium
fungi.
Hence, option 2.
147. The correct match is
Railway Zone
i. South-East Central
ii. North-East Frontier
iii. North Eastern
iv. West Central

Head Quarter
c. Bilaspur
b. Maligaon
d. Gorakhpur
a. Jabalpur

Hence, option 1.
148. The correct match is
Inventions/Discoveries
i. Cassette(Audio)
ii. Super Computer
iii. Cloning(Mammal)
iv. HIV

Inventors/ Discoverer
a. Philips Co.
b. J. H. Van Tassel
c. Wilmut et al
d. Mortagnier

Hence, option 1.

TF-MS-PP-04-0209

204

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