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TEST - 13

TS

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1 The key difference(s) between Reserved Forests and Protected Forests is/are that
1. All activities are permitted unless restricted in protected forests, whereas in reserved
forests all activities are restricted unless permitted
2. Reserved forests are declared by Union government whereas protected forests are
declared by state governments.
3. Reserved forests are owned by private individuals, protected forests are not.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

Justification: Rights to all activities like hunting, grazing, etc. in reserved forests
are banned unless specific orders are issued otherwise. In protected areas, rights to
activities like hunting and grazing are sometimes given to communities living on the
fringes of the forest, who sustain their livelihood partially or wholly from forest
resources or products. So, 1 is correct.
Both can be declared by the state government. So, 2 is wrong.

SI

Unclassed forests (not reserved or protected) are other forests and wastelands
belonging to both government and private individuals and communities. So, 3 is also
wrong.
Q Source: 12th NCERT: Geography: India, People and Economy: Glossary

IN

2 The Veda Samaj worked to


1. Abolish caste distinctions
2. Rationalize superstitious Hindu practices
3. Open Universities that promote the study of Eastern mysticism
4. Promote the idea of God Trinity
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
User Answer :

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TEST - 13

Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning: It was established in Madras (Chennai) in 1864.

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It was inspired by the Brahmo Samaj and worked to abolish caste distinctions and
promote widow remarriage and women's education. So, 1 is correct.
Its members believed in one God. They condemned the superstitions and rituals of
orthodox Hinduism. So, 2 and 4 are incorrect.
Q Source: 8th NCERT: History - Part 2

TS

3 Water absorption through roots can be increased by keeping the plants


A. Covered with a plastic bag
B. In LED light
C. Under the fan
D. In dark shade
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification & Learning: Transpiration is the process by which moisture is carried


through plants from roots to small pores on the underside of leaves, where it changes
to vapor and is released to the atmosphere.

IN

SI

Increased movement of the air around a plant will result in a higher transpiration
rate. This is somewhat related to the relative humidity of the air, in that as water
transpires from a leaf, the water saturates the air surrounding the leaf.
If there is no wind, the air around the leaf may not move very much, raising the
humidity of the air around the leaf.
Wind will move the air around, with the result that the more saturated air close to
the leaf is replaced by drier air. So, (c) is correct.
If a plant is kept in conditions (a), (b) or (d), transpiration rate would not increase.
Q Source: 6th Science NCERT

4 Consider the following statements.

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TEST - 13

The nearest major town is Joshimath.


There is no settlement in the national park.
It is encompassed in the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.
It is in the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
It is known for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers.
The above refer to?
A. Dudhwa National Park
B. Valley of Flowers National Park
C. Gangotri National Park
D. Indravati National Park
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

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1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

TS

Justification: Dudhwa is in U.P, whereas Joshimath is in Uttarakhand. So, (a) is


eliminated.
While Gangotri park is in Uttarakhand, Harsil is the nearest town and it is not in the
UNESCO network. So, (c) is also eliminated.

Indravati is in MP, so (d) is also wrong.

Learning: Located in West Himalayas, it is home to rare and endangered animals,


including the Asiatic black bear, snow leopard, musk deer, brown bear, red fox and
blue sheep.

SI

Flowers like orchids, poppies, primulas, marigold, daisies and anemones carpet the
ground at the national park.

IN

Q Source: Test 13 Syllabus - National Parks

5 Consider the following statements about the United Nations High Commissioner for
Refugees (UNHCR).
1. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group (UNDP).
2. It can protect and support refugees even at the request of a national government.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :

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TEST - 13

Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning: It is a United Nations agency mandated to protect and
support refugees.

IA
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It is a member of the United Nations Development Group. Initially it was


established to help people displaced by World War II. But later it became the
principal agency that has helped displaced persons all over world.
It is mandated to protect and support refugees at the request of a government
or the UN itself and assists in their voluntary repatriation, local integration or
resettlement to a third country.

TS

Q Source: Frequently in news due to the Refugee crisis in Syria and Europe

IN

SI

6 Maintaining a Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is NOT mandatory for which of the following
banks in India?
1. Banks with capital base above or below a certain limit as prescribed by RBI
2. Banks that lend majority of their capital to farmer cooperatives or vulnerable
sections
3. Banks that have sponsored a rural bank to promote financial inclusion and
development
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: Maintaining CRR is compulsory for all banks irrespective of the
conditions mentioned in statements 1, 2 and 3.
CRR is the amount that the banks have to keep with the RBI. The banks do not earn
any interest rate on this CRR, which the banks also called dead asset.
CRR has been reduced from as high as 23% to less than 4% in the past few decades.
Q Source: 12th NCERT: Macroeconomics

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TEST - 13

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7 Prithvi-II developed by DRDO under India's prestigious Integrated Guided Missile


Development Program is a surface-to-surface medium range ballistic missile. What do you
understand by ballistic missiles?
A. Most of the trajectory of these missiles is unpowered and governed by gravity
and air resistance
B. Missiles that are aerodynamically guided in a powered flight
C. Missiles that spend most of their flight out of the atmosphere
D. Missiles that are launched at a steep trajectory and can caused heavy damage
to its target
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

TS

Learning: A ballistic missile is a missile (rocket) that follows a ballistic trajectory


with the objective of delivering one or more warheads to a predetermined target.

A ballistic missile is only guided during relatively brief periods of flight (there are
unguided ballistic missiles as well, although these may well be considered rockets),
and most of its trajectory is unpowered and governed by gravity and air resistance if
in the atmosphere.

This contrasts to a cruise missile, which is aerodynamically guided in powered


flight.

SI

Long range intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBM) are launched at a steep, suborbital flight trajectory and spend most of their flight out of the atmosphere. Shorter
range ballistic missiles stay within the Earth's atmosphere.

IN

Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/nuclear-capable-prithviii-missile-testfired/a
rticle6911901.ece

8 'State of the World's Forests' report is published by


A. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
B. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
C. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
D. United Nations Development Programme (UND)
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

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TEST - 13

Learning: The State of the World's Forests reports on the status of forests, recent
major policy and institutional developments and key issues concerning the forest
sector.
Some of its observations in 2014 report were:

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Forest products make a significant contribution to the shelter of at least 1.3


billion people, or 18 percent of the world's population.
A major contribution of forests to food security and health is the provision of
woodfuel to cook and sterilize water.
The formal forest sector employs some 13.2 million people across the world
and at least another 41 million are employed in the informal sector.
Recognition of the value of forest services, such as erosion protection and
pollination, is essential to sound decision-making.

TS

Q Source: Test-13 Syllabus - International Reports

IN

SI

9 Sovereign rights over Antarctic territory is exercised by


1. USA
2. Chile
3. Australia
4. UK
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification: Antarctica is a global common and so no one nation exercises


sovereignty over the territory.
It is governed under 1959 Antarctic Treaty, an international treaty, that bars
countries from owning or exploiting its land. Since its signing by 45 nations, claims
of seven countries for territory in the region were suspended.
Q Source: Page 121: Chapter 8: 12th NCERT: Contemporary World Politics

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TEST - 13

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10 What does Baudhayana Sulabautra relate to?


A. Lengths of sides of a right-angled triangle
B. Earth's movement around the Sun
C. Mathematical paradox of zero
D. Calculation of orbital period of planets
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

Learning: The Baudhayana Sulbasutra is noted for containing several early


mathematical results, including an approximation of the square root of 2 and the
statement of a version of the Pythagorean theorem.

TS

The Baudhayana sutras are a group of Vedic Sanskrit texts which cover dharma,
daily ritual, mathematics, etc.
They belong to the Taittiriya branch of the Krishna Yajurveda school and are among
the earliest texts of the sutra genre

Q Source: CSP 2008

IN

SI

11 Most of the explosions in mines happen due to the occurrence of?


A. Methane and air
B. Oxygen and acetylene
C. Hydrogen and oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide and methane
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning: Methane explosions occur in mines when a build-up of
methane gas, a by-product of coal, comes into contact with a heat source, and there
is not enough air to dilute the gas to levels below its explosion point.
This produces water, carbon dioxide and a lot of amount of heat.
The heat generated by this process raises the temperature of the air within the mine,
which causes it to expand in volume. Since hot air cannot expand easily
underground, pressure builds in the mine. If this pressure is high enough, it can
cause the air ahead of the combustion zone to compress and cause a shock wave,

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TEST - 13

Q Source: CSP 2008

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12 Which state of India shares boundary with maximum number of other Indian states and
Union Territories (UTs)?
A. Assam
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Jharkhand
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

TS

Justification: Uttar Pradesh shares boundary with Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh,


Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar as well as
Delhi.
Among the Southern states Karnataka shares maximum number of boundaries with
AP, Telangana, Goa, MH, Kerala and TN.

Assam shares boundary with WB, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland,


Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura.

Q Source: Previous year UPSC papers

IN

SI

13 Consider the following about Chipko movement.


1. It was introduced primarily against exploitation of tenants.
2. One of its major objectives was to nationalize all peasant forest land in India.
3. It focussed on conservation of traditional values of Indian culture.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: It was primarily a forest conservation movement. It occurred at a time
when there was hardly any environmental movement in the developing world.

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TEST - 13

The Garhwal Himalayas became its centre for a rising ecological awareness to show
how reckless deforestation had denuded much of the forest cover, resulting in the
devastating Alaknanda River floods of 1970.
The name of the movement comes from the word 'embrace', as the villagers hugged
the trees, and prevented the contractors' from felling them.

IA
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Q Source: Page 168: Chapter 9: 11th NCERT: Indian Economic Development

SI

TS

14 The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 confers a right to the citizens to know how
the taxpayer's money is being spent by the Government. Consider the following about it.
1. Right to Information has been given the status of a fundamental right under Article
19 of the Constitution.
2. It applies to all States and Union Territories of India except Jammu & Kashmir.
3. RTI includes NGOs which are substantially financed by the government.
4. It does not cover the Judiciary.
5. Information received in confidence from foreign Government is exempt from
disclosure.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification: It has been given the status of a fundamental right under Article 19(1)
of the Constitution. Article 19 (1) under which every citizen has freedom of speech
and expression and have the right to know how the government works, what role
does it play, what are its functions and so on.
RTI Act extends to the whole of India (except the State of Jammu and Kashmir), all
bodies, which come under Government notification including NGOs, which are
owned, controlled or are substantially financed by the Government. So, 2 and 3 are
correct.
It covers all constitutional authorities, including the executive, legislature and
judiciary; any institution or body established or constituted by an act of Parliament
or a state legislature. So, 4 is incorrect.

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TEST - 13

Read about the exclusions here


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Right_to_Information_Act,_2005#Exclusions
Q Source: 10 years of RTI in 2015

TS

IA
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15 Consider the following statements.


1. Assertion (A): Unlike the Council of Ministers, the constitution does not mention
the powers and functions of the cabinet.
2. Reason (R): The cabinet does not find any mention in the constitution.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification: The word cabinet was inserted in the constitution in Article 352 in
1978 by the 44th CA Act.

However, it only defines the cabinet, not its powers and functions. So, A is correct,
and R is incorrect.

SI

Union Cabinet is the supreme decision-making body in India. Only the Prime
Minister and ministers of the rank of "Cabinet Minister" are members of the
Cabinet.

IN

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

16 Consider the following about the Bahmani architecture.


1. The Bahmanis were influenced by the style of the Delhi Sultanate.
2. The military architecture of Europe influenced Bahmani designs.
3. Some monuments of Bijapur showcase Bahmani architecture.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

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TEST - 13

User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

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Learning: As Muhammad bin Tughlaq transferred his capital to Daulatabad and


then back to Delhi, the artisans migrated to Bijapur and their two styles of
architecture, the Persian and that of Delhi got a new fusion style.
The Persian style of architecture affected them. The Persian architects as well as
their artisans planned all the architecture of various structures. However, the military
architecture i, e, forts etc were modelled on medieval European style.
Persian influence is apparently visible in the Jama Masjid at Gulbarga, Chand Minar
at Daulatabad and Gawan's Madrasa at Bidar.

TS

Charminar of Hyderabad is a remarkable structure of Bahmani architecture.


Q Source: UPSC CSP 2011-13

IN

SI

17 Why loosening of soil is important for agriculture?


1. It allows the roots to breathe easily.
2. The loosened soil helps in the growth of earthworms and microbes present in the
soil.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification: Loose soil has more air trapped in it than tight soil. Roots get more
oxygen and loose space this way and grow properly. So, 1 is correct.
Tight soil prohibits the growth of microbes as well as their movement. Loosening of
soil allows for microbe action which decomposes organic matter to form humus in
the soil. So, 2 is correct.
Learning: Since only a few centimetres of the top layer of soil supports plant
growth, turning and loosening of soil brings the nutrient-rich soil to the top so that

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11

TEST - 13

plants can use these nutrients.


Q Source: 8th NCERT: Science

TS

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18 Consider the following statements.


1. Pulses and vegetables can be grown during Kharif period
2. Oilseeds cannot be grown during Rabi period.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

Justification: Arhar, Moong etc can be grown during Kharif season. So, 1 is
correct.

Mustard is grown during Rabi season. So, 2 is incorrect.

SI

Learning: The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger
millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc. The
rabi crops include wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed,
mustard (oilseeds) etc.
Q Source: 9th NCERT: Geography

IN

19 Consider the following statements.


1. Its population is largely found in the North-eastern India.
2. It is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List.
3. It is associated with wet grasslands, swamps and densely vegetated river valleys.
4. It feeds on some food crops causing considerable damage to them.
The above refer to?
A. White-bellied heron
B. Namdapha flying squirrel
C. Elvira rat
D. Wild Water Buffalo
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D

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TEST - 13

Answer Justification :
Learning: They are native to the Indian Subcontinent and Southeast Asia.
The global population has been estimated at 3,400 individuals, of which about 91%
live in India, mostly in Assam. So, 1 is correct.

IA
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Wild water buffalos are both diurnal and nocturnal.

Apart from grass, they also eat herbs, fruits, and bark, as well as browsing on trees
and shrubs. They also feed on crops, including rice, sugarcane, and jute, sometimes
causing considerable damage. So, 4 is correct.

TS

It is included in CITES Appendix III, and is legally protected in Bhutan, India,


Nepal, and Thailand.
Q Source: Important Species - Test 13 Syllabus

IN

SI

20 How is the World Bank Group (WBG) President selected?


A. Nominated by the largest shareholder of WBG subject to confirmation by the
Board of Governors
B. Elected on a majority basis by the shareholder member states of the WBG
C. Elected by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) on a two-thirds
majority basis
D. Appointed by the UN Secretary General subject to approval by the Board of
Governors
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning: Traditionally, the Bank President has always been a U.S. citizen
nominated by the President of the United States, the largest shareholder in the bank.
The nominee is subject to confirmation by the Board of Governors, to serve for a
five-year, renewable term.
The president is responsible for chairing the meetings of the Boards of Directors and
for overall management of the World Bank Group.
Jim Yong Kim is the President currently.
Q Source: Important International bodies - Test 13 Syllabus

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TEST - 13

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21 Consider the following statements about the impeachment of the President of India.
1. Impeachment proceedings can only be started by the Lok Sabha first.
2. Nominated members of Lok sabha take part in the impeachment of the President.
3. The Supreme Court investigates the charges labeled against the President for
impeachment.
Which of these is /are true?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. 1 and 3
D. Only 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

TS

Justification: All the MPs whether elected or nominated take part in the election of
the President. So, 2 is correct.
Impeachment proceedings can be started by either house of the Parliament. So, 1 is
wrong.

The concerned house investigates the charges, not the Supreme Court of India. So, 3
is wrong.

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

IN

SI

22 Which of the following was/were the recommendations of the Simon Commission setup
in 1927?
1. India's constitution would be a federal constitution.
2. Elections to the legislative assemblies will be based on Universal adult franchise.
3. The government of India should have complete control over the high court.
4. Separate electorates should be abolished.
5. The provincial governments should devolve financial powers to the local bodies.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

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TEST - 13

Justification: As per the commission, there should be a constitutional


reconstruction in the form of a federal constitution. The provinces should be given
full autonomy including law.
Other major recommendations include:

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The number of members of provincial legislative council should be increased.


Governor-general should have complete power to appoint the members of the
cabinet.
The governor should have discretionary power to relate to internal security
and administrative powers to protect the different communities.
The government of India should have complete control over the high court.

TS

Learning: There were no Indian members in the commission. No universal


franchise was proposed and the position of governor-general remained unaffected.
There was no provision to abolish separate electorate but it was rather extended to
other communities as well. No financial devolution was proposed.

So, 2, 4 and 5 are incorrect.

Q Source: 10th NCERT: History

IN

SI

23 Availing facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage is the


A. Fundamental Right of a Child
B. Duty of the State
C. Legal right of a Child
D. Constitutional right of a Child
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification: Article 350A: It shall be the endeavour of every State and of every
local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the
mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic
minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he
considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.
It is a directive principle outside of part IV of the constitution. It is a duty of the
state, and not a right of the citizen.

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TEST - 13

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

TS

IA
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24 DRDO has decided to conduct captive flight trials of an advanced Anti-Radiation


Missile (ARM). What will ARM be used for?
1. Targeting enemy's air defence capabilities by attacking radars and communication
facilities
2. Attacking underwater submarines that are clandestinely attached with warships
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning: An anti-radiation missile (ARM) is a missile designed to detect and
home in on an enemy radio emission source.

Typically, these are designed for use against an enemy radar, although jammers and
even radios used for communications can also be targeted in this manner.

SI

The ARM missile will be inducted into Indian Armed Forces till 2018 after
successfully conducting a number of developmental trials. On its induction, India
will join other few nations including the US and Germany having ARMs.

IN

Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/captive-flight-trials-of-antiradiati
on-missile-soon/article8245955.ece

25 Apart from selected MPs, Public Account Committee (PAC) members is/are
1. Finance Secretary, Union Government
2. Eminent citizens from Industry and Trade
3. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
4. Governor, RBI
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. None of the above

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TEST - 13

User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:CAG assists the committee; he is not its member. So, 3 is wrong.

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RBI Governor may be called upon by the PAC for justification, assistance etc. He is
also not its member. So, 4 is wrong.
The Committee consists of not more than 22 members comprising 15 members
elected by Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. So, 1 and 2 are wrong.
Learning:

TS

Elections are held according to the principle of proportional representation by means


of single transferable vote and not more than 7 members of Rajya Sabha elected by
that House in like manner are associated with the Committee.
The Chairman is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members of Lok Sabha.

A Minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of the Committee.

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian Constitution at Work

IN

SI

26 What do you understand by the term 'Inflation tax'?


A. Inflation caused by deficit financing which erodes peoples' income thus
acting as a tax.
B. Low tax rates set by the government leading to high consumption and
inflation
C. Taxation policy that changes with the rate of inflation in the economy
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning: Inflation tax is not an actual legal tax paid to a government; instead
"inflation tax" refers to the penalty for holding cash at a time of high inflation.
When the government prints more money or reduces interest rates, it floods the
market with cash, which raises inflation in the long run. If an investor is holding
securities, real estate or other assets, the effect of inflation may be negligible. If a
person is holding cash, though, this cash is worth less after inflation has risen.

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TEST - 13

The degree of decrease in the value of cash is termed the inflation tax for the way it
punishes people who hold assets in cash, which tend to be lower- and middle-class
wage earners.

Q Source: Past year UPSC CSP papers

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It is noteworthy that even deficit financing can act as a tax on people which actually
was intended to boost demand in the economy.

TS

27 East India Company's monopoly of India trade was abolished by the


A. Charter Act of 1853
B. Charter Act of 1813
C. Pitt's India Act
D. Regulating Act of 1773
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

Learning: It was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom which renewed
the charter issued to the British East India Company, and continued the Company's
rule in India.

However, the Company's commercial monopoly was ended, except for the tea trade
and the trade with China. Reflecting the growth of British power in India,

IN

SI

The Act expressly asserted the Crown's sovereignty over British India.
It allotted a financial grant to promote education in Indian masses.
This act permitted Christian missionaries to propagate English and preach
their religion.

Q Source: 8th NCERT: History - Part I

28 Consider the following statements about the Chola administration.


1. Assertion (A): Villages were not considered autonomous units during the Chola
administration.
2. Reason (R): Only those will royal lineage or background were eligible for election
to village councils which managed the village's affairs.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

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C. A is incorrect, but R is correct.


D. Both A and R are incorrect
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

IA
S

Justification: The Chola Empire was divided into mandalams and each mandalam
into valanadus and nadus. In each nadu there were a number of autonomous villages.
A village was divided into thirty wards and each was to nominate its members to the
village council.
The qualifications to become a ward member were:

TS

Ownership of at least one fourth veli of land.


Own residence.
Above thirty years and below seventy years of age.
Knowledge of Vedas.

So, clearly both A and R are wrong.

Q Source: 11th TamilNadu History Textbook

IN

SI

29 Which of the following are the functions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
1. Stabilizing the rate of inflation
2. Performing developmental functions
3. Stabilizing excess volatility in the exchange rate of rupee
4. Regulating the rate of lending and borrowing via banks in India
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: Main functions are:
Monetary Authority: Formulates, implements and monitors the monetary
policy to maintain price stability and ensuring adequate flow of credit to

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TEST - 13

TS

IA
S

productive sectors.
Regulator and supervisor of the financial system: Prescribes broad parameters
of banking operations within which the country's banking and financial
system functions to maintain public confidence in the system, protect
depositors' interest and provide cost-effective banking services to the public.
Manager of Foreign Exchange: Manages the Foreign Exchange Management
Act, 1999 to facilitate external trade and payment and promote orderly
development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.
Issuer of currency: Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not
fit for circulation.
Developmental role: Performs a wide range of promotional functions to
support national objectives.
Related Functions: Banker to the Government: performs merchant banking
function for the central and the state governments; also acts as their banker.
Banker to banks
Q Source: 12th NCERT: Macroeconomics

SI

30 After consolidating their position in India, the Delhi Sultans introduced certain reforms
in the land revenue administration. Concerning it, what were 'Inam Lands'?
A. Lands assigned to officials as payment for their services
B. Land from which revenues collected were spent for the maintenance of royal
court and royal household
C. Land assigned or granted to religious leaders or religious institutions
D. Land gifted to peasants for increasing production and yield of crops
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification: Option (a) is similar to Iqta lands.


Option (b) is Khalisa land.
Learning: There were mainly three categories of land - Iqta, Khalisa, Inam and the
rest given to Zamindars.
An iqta holder was expected to collect the revenue and deduct from in the amount
granted to him, the balance was to be remitted to the central government
The second category of land was the Khalsa, or the royal land. It was under the
direct supervision and control of the government.

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TEST - 13

It was probably managed through agents or amils. Another class of land was the one
which was left with the traditional rajas or Zamindars.
Q Source: 11th TamilNadu History Textbook

TS

IA
S

31 Which of the following can be the problem(s) associated with the use or consumption of
Hard water?
1. It is a significant health hazard and can worsen the condition of most diseases in
humans.
2. Dye does not absorb evenly on cloth washed with soap using hard water.
3. It can lead to the inefficient operation or failure of water-using appliances.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

Justification: Statement 1: Hard water is not a health hazard. In fact, the National
Research Council (National Academy of Sciences) states that hard drinking water
generally contributes a small amount toward total calcium and magnesium human
dietary needs. However, it can potentially affect the state of cardiovascular diseases.

SI

Statement 2: A precipitate adheres onto the fibre of the cloth as gummy mass upon
washing with hard water. So, dye is not absorbed easily.

IN

Statement 3: Heated hard water forms a scale of calcium and magnesium minerals
(limescale deposits) that can contribute to the inefficient operation or failure of
water-using appliances. Pipes can become clogged with scale that reduces water
flow
Q Source: 10th NCERT: Science

32 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to Malwa and Deccan
schools of paintings?
A. Malwa paintings represent a synthesis of the indigenous and the patronized
Persian style.
B. Malwa and Deccan were done in miniature styles.

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C. Both of them were confined to illustrations on books and manuscripts.


D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

IA
S

Learning: The miniature painting style, which flourished initially in the Bahmani
court and later in the courts of Ahmadnagar, Bijapur and Golkonda is popularly
known as the Deccan school of Painting.
Malwa is a Central Indian Region where the painting traditions flourished in
different places right from the pre-Mughal times. Mandu was the main center in the
early era of pre-Mughal times where "Kalpsutra" was painted in 1439 A.D.

TS

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Culture

IN

SI

33 South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) includes


1. Bhutan
2. Maldives
3. Pakistan
4. Myamnar
5. Afghanistan
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. All except 4
B. All except 5
C. All except 1 and 2
D. All except 3 and 4
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

Learning: SAFTA in 2004 created a free trade area in Afghanistan, Bangladesh,


Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
The foreign ministers of the region signed a framework agreement on SAFTA to
reduce customs duties of all traded goods to zero by the year 2016.
The basic principles underlying SAFTA are:
Overall reciprocity and mutuality of advantages
Negotiation of tariff reform

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TEST - 13

Recognition of the special needs of the Least Developed Contracting States


etc.
Q Source: International treaties/agreements ' Test 13 Syllabus

TS

IA
S

34 Taxation policies affect which of the following components in the Indian economy?
1. Level of domestic investment
2. Foreign investment
3. Savings
4. Inflation
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification: Tweaking taxes affect the level of savings in the economy. Savings
affect investment.

SI

Foreign investments will be affected negatively if corporation and service taxes are
very high in the country. However, investor friendly tax policies such as GST will
attract greater domestic as well as foreign investment. So, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Increasing taxes in the country will lead to lower disposable income and lesser
demand thus being counter-inflationary. So, 4 is correct.

IN

Q Source: 12th NCERT: Macroeconomics

35 The C. Rajagopalachari's formula was related with


A. Partition of India
B. Reform of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
C. Three language formula
D. Reorganization of states on linguistic basis
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

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Learning: It was a proposal formulated by Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari to solve


the political deadlock between the All India Muslim League and Indian National
Congress on independence of India from the British.

IA
S

The League's position was that the Muslims and Hindus of British India were
of two separate nations and hence the Muslims had the right to their own
nation when India obtained independence.
He devised a proposal for the Congress to offer the League the Muslim
Pakistan based on plebiscite of all the people in the regions where Muslims
made a majority.
Although the formula was opposed even within the Congress party, Gandhi
used it as his proposal in his talks with Jinnah in 1944. However, Jinnah
rejected the proposal and the talks failed.

TS

Q Source: Based on past year UPSC papers ' Qs on C Rajagopalachari

IN

SI

36 Millettia pinnata can be used to produce bio-diesel. Consider the following about it.
1. It is native to India.
2. It can be grown in arid regions as well as on high altitudes in Himalayas.
3. Wood obtained from the tree is stronger than steel.
4. Oil and residue of the plant are very healthy and are generally consumed naturally
without processing.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: It is naturally distributed in tropical and temperate Asia,
from India to Japan to Thailand to Malesia to north and north-eastern Australia to
some Pacific islands.
Statement 2: It has been propagated and distributed further around the world in
humid and subtropical environments from sea-level to 1200m, although in the
Himalayan foothills it is not found above 600m.
Withstanding temperatures slightly below 0 'C and up to about 50 'C and annual
rainfall of 50'2,50 cm, the tree grows wild on sandy and rocky soils, including

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TEST - 13

oolitic limestone, and will grow in most soil types, even with its roots in salt water.
Statement 3: The wood is said to be beautifully grained but splits easily when sawn
thus relegating it to firewood, posts, and tool handles.

IA
S

Statement 4: While the oil and residue of the plant are toxic and will induce nausea
and vomiting if ingested, the fruits and sprouts, along with the seeds, are used in
many traditional remedies.
Q Source: Based on past year UPSC papers ' Pongamia Pinnata

TS

37 The Brundtland Commission Report 1987 is related to


A. Organized Crime
B. Nuclear Proliferation
C. Sustainable Development
D. International Arm Trade
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Learning: Brundtland Report also known as 'Our Common Future' came from the
United Nations World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED).

SI

The Brundtland Commission Report recognised that human resource development in


the form of poverty reduction, gender equity, and wealth redistribution was crucial
to formulating strategies for environmental conservation.

IN

It also recognised that environmental-limits to economic growth in industrialised


and industrialising societies existed.
Q Source: 9th NCERT: Geography

38 A person with zero income may not be able to avail drinking water in a society based on
which of these economic systems?
A. Socialistic model
B. Capitalistic model
C. Mixed economic model
D. Communist model
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B

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Answer Justification :
Justification: In extreme capitalism, markets are left free without regulation. Only
those who have the ability to pay can enjoy goods or services.

IA
S

In such a society, drinking water will also be commodified and sold in the market
based on the forces of supply and demand. If a person has zero income, he will not
be able to purchase drinking water.
However, this is a hypothetical case, and today many capitalist societies have some
or the other form of fundamental social security measures for basic health, water,
sanitation and education.

TS

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian Economic Development

SI

39 Which of the following practice(s) help stop soil erosion?


1. Mulching
2. Mixed farming
3. Crop rotation
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification: Statement 1: Mulching is when the bare ground between plants is


covered with a layer of organic matter like straw. It helps to retain soil moisture,
protects the soil from erosion and reduces compaction from the impact of heavy
rains thus stopping soil erosion.
Statement 2: Combining crops and livestock also has the potential to maintain
ecosystem function and health and help prevent agricultural systems from becoming
too brittle, or over connected, by promoting greater biodiversity, and therefore
increased capability to absorb shocks to the natural resource base
Statement 3: Crop rotation allows conservation and rejuvenation of the nutrient base
of soil.

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TEST - 13

Q Source: 8th NCERT: Geography

IA
S

40 Why the Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the South-west monsoon season?
1. It is located in the Southern most end of India.
2. It is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

TS

Justification: Since the monsoon winds blow parallel to the coasts, they do not
cause precipitation or rain. So, 2 is correct.

The TN coasts also lie in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the
south-west Monsoon. Thus, they remain largely dry during the summer monsoon.

Even Kerala is located in the southern most end but receives a good amount of
rainfall in the summer monsoon. So, 1 is incorrect.
Q Source: 11th NCERT: India Physical Geography

IN

SI

41 Consider the following statements.


1. Assertion (A): The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the
tropical to the tundra.
2. Reason (R): In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing
altitude leads to a corresponding change in natural vegetation.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A. A is correct, and R may partly explain A.
B. A is correct, but R cannot be a reason behind A.
C. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning:Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas. It is

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succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000


m.
In the higher hill ranges of northeastern India, hilly areas of West Bengal and
Uttaranchal, evergreen broad leaf trees such as oak and chestnut are predominant.

IA
S

Between 1,500-1,750 m, pine forests are also well-developed in this zone, with Chir
Pine as a very useful commercial tree
Q Source:11th NCERT: India Physical Geography

TS

42 The single largest component of the annual budget under revenue expenditure generally
is
A. Defence Services
B. Interest Payments and Prepayment Premium
C. Grants to State governments and Union Territories (UTs)
D. Pensions
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

Learning:Please refer to http://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2015-16/bag/bag3.pdfto see all


major heads under Revenue Expenditure.
Receipts are herehttp://indiabudget.nic.in/ub2015-16/bag/bag2.pdf

SI

Focus on other components too, for e.g. taxes. Many budget based questions are
asked in UPSC.

IN

Q Source:12th NCERT: Macroeconomics and annual budget

43 Consider the following about the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
1. It is a statutory body headed by the Union Minister for Law and Justice.
2. It organizes Lok Adalats for speedy resolution of cases.
3. It provides free legal services only to disabled citizens or those Below Poverty Line
(BPL).
4. A District Legal Services Authority is constituted in every District.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only

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TEST - 13

C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

IA
S

Justification:Statement 1 and 4: It is headed by the Chief Justice of India.


There is a provision for similar mechanism at state and district level also headed by
Chief Justice of High Courts and Chief Judges of District courts respectively.
Statement 3: Eligible persons for getting free legal services

TS

Women and children;


Members of SC/ST
Industrial workmen
Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial
disaster.
Disabled persons.
Person in custody
Persons whose annual income does not exceed Rs. 1,00,000/-

Q Source:Past year UPSC papers

IN

SI

44 Consider the following about the Karbi tribe.


1. The Karbis are known for their Matrilineal society.
2. These tribes largely follow Animism.
3. Some members of the tribe live in areas administered under the Sixth Schedule of
the constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: The Karbis are a Patrilineal society and is composed of
five major clans which are further sub-divided into sub-clans.

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TEST - 13

Statement 2: Animism is the worldview that non-human entities'such as animals,


plants, and inanimate objects'possess a spiritual essence

Q Source: Past year UPSC papers

IA
S

Statement 3: The Karbis are the principal tribal community in the Karbi Anglong
district of Assam, a district administered as per the provisions of the Sixth Schedule
of the Constitution of India, having an autonomous district of their own since 1951.

TS

45 Which among the following industries is the largest consumer of water in India?
A. Fertilizer
B. Sugar
C. Thermal power plants
D. Pulp and Paper
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Learning:Most TPPs in India are owned by the government. Indian TPPs are one of
the highest consumers of water as compared to their global counterparts. On an
average, for every 1000 Kwh power, Indian TPPs consume as much as 80 cubic
meters of water. The water consumption in the modern TPPs in developed countries
is less than 10 cubic meters for every 1000 Kwh.

SI

Read this to know about water usage industry wise and nation wise.
http://www.cseindia.org/dte-supplement/industry20040215/misuse.htm

IN

Q Source:UPSC past year papers

46 Ganges shark is critically endangered because


1. They need to migrate to salt water to reproduce offsprings.
2. They are misinterpreted as large catfish and killed as they damage local ecosystem.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D

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Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: It is bull sharks that migrate to salt water to reproduce,
not Ganges shark. Ganges shark is found in a very narrow range of habitat. So, 1 is
wrong.

IA
S

However, construction of dams and barrages have affected their migratory patterns
and threatened their life cycles.
Statement 2: It is wrong. They are misterpreted for bull sharks. Catfishes look very
different from this shark. Overfishing, habitat degradation from pollution, increasing
river use and management, local killing for meat, gillnet and oil etc are reasons for
their population decline.

TS

Q Source: Species mentioned in previous year UPSC CSP questions

IN

SI

47 Consider the following statements.


1. Assertion (A): The storage life of a fresh fruit is influenced by its respiratory
activity.
2. Reason(R): Metabolic activity in fresh fruits continues for a short period even after
harvest.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R cannot be an appropriate explanation of A.
C. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning:Respiration is the chemical process by which fruits and
vegetables convert sugars and oxygen into carbon dioxide, water, and heat.
Metabolic activity in fresh fruits and vegetables continues for a short period after
harvest.
The energy required to sustain this activity comes from the respiration process.
Respiration involves the oxidation of sugars to produce carbon dioxide, water and
heat. The storage life of a commodity is influenced by its respiratory activity.
By storing a commodity at low temperature, respiration is reduced and senescence is

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delayed, thus extending storage life.


Q Source:Improvisation: UPSC CSP papers

TS

IA
S

48 Consider the following statements.


1. When the moon's orbit is closest to the earth, tidal range is lower than normal.
2. When the earth is closest to the Sun tidal range is greater than normal.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

Justification:Tidal range is affected by the gravitational forces of the Sun and


Moon. The closer they are to earth, higher is the tidal range.

When earth is closest to both Sun and Moon, unusually high tides occur. It also
occurs when earth is closest to any one of these.

Q Source:11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

IN

SI

49 If RBI wishes to increase money supply in Indian economy, it would


1. Decrease Reverse repo rate
2. Increase Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
3. Issue orders to public to keep all private financial savings in bank accounts
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: Reverse repo rate is basically the rate that banks get for
parking their funds with the RBI. Reducing this rate makes the bank park their
money somewhere else and not with RBI. For it is less attractive to them. Money

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TEST - 13

parked outside RBI circulated by the banks would become a part of the money
supply.
Statement 2: Increasing CRR sucks liquidity from the banking system and increases
the idle deposits of banks with RBI.

Q Source:12th NCERT: Macroeconomics

IA
S

Statement 3: Banking deposits and the money held by the public form a part of the
money supply. Even if a customer deposits money in bank, it will not change the
total money supply, but only its liquidity.

SI

TS

50 Consider the following statements about rock formation.


1. Magnetically susceptible minerals get aligned to the earth's magnetic field during
the period of rock formation.
2. Foliated metamorphic rocks are formed within the Earth's interior under extremely
high pressures that are unequal in different directions.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification: Statement 1: This comes due to geomagnetism. Magnetic response of


rocks is determined by amounts and susceptibilities of constituent minerals.
Sedimentary rocks have very low susceptibility to magnetic field of earth. So, there
is little alignment in their constituents in response to earth's magnetic field. For
ultramafic rocks it is the highest.
Statement 2: Foliation refers to repetitive layering in metamorphic rocks.
When the pressure is greater in one direction than in the others (directed pressure), it
causes the minerals in the original rock to reorient themselves with the long and flat
minerals aligning perpendicular to the greatest pressure direction. This reduces the
overall pressure on the rock and gives it a stripped look.
Q Source: Geomagnetism and rock formation topics in 11th NCERT: Fundamentals
of Physical Geography

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TEST - 13

IA
S

51 Katabatic winds occur due to


A. Density differences in wind at different altitudes
B. Differential warming of the ocean surface near coasts
C. Local thunderstorms guided by high convection rates
D. Seasonal land breeze in the interior of continents
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

Learning: These are downslope winds flowing from high elevations of mountains,
plateaus, and hills down their slopes to the valleys or planes below.
A katabatic wind originates from radiational cooling of air atop a plateau, a
mountain, glacier, or even a hill.

TS

Since the density of air is inversely proportional to temperature, the air will flow
downwards, warming approximately adiabatically as it descends.

The temperature of the air depends on the temperature in the source region and the
amount of descent.

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography ' Glossary

IN

SI

52 High sulphur dioxide in air has which of the following harmful effects?
1. It can cause irritation to the eyes resulting in tears and redness.
2. Its high concentration leads to stiffness of flower buds and their falling off from
plants.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification & Learning: Sulphur dioxide irritates the skin and mucous
membranes of the eyes, nose, throat, and lungs. So, 1 is correct.
High concentrations of SO2 can cause inflammation and irritation of the respiratory
system, particularly during heavy physical activity. The resulting symptoms may

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TEST - 13

include pain when taking a deep breath, coughing, throat irritation, and breathing
difficulties.
Q Source: 11th Science NCERT: Chapter 14: Environmental Chemistry

TS

IA
S

53 Lead can be found in


1. Paints
2. Batteries
3. Some colours of Ink
4. Exhaust emissions
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Learning: Lead was used in paint to add colour, improve the ability of the paint to
hide the surface it covers, and to make it last longer.

SI

Lead seldom occurs naturally in water supplies like rivers and lakes. Lead enters
drinking water primarily as a result of the corrosion, or wearing away, of materials
containing lead in the water distribution system and household or building plumbing
Q Source: Past year UPSC CSP papers

IN

54 Rainfall is more over the oceans than on the landmasses of the world because
A. Oceans receive larger solar insolation per unit area than land
B. Ocean water is salty.
C. Oceans are huge sources of water as compared to land.
D. Frequent cyclones occur over the oceans as compared to land.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification: Option (a): Oceans receive lesser solar insolation per unit area due to
the cloudiness over them. Clouds reflect back solar insolation.

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TEST - 13

Option (d): Cyclones occur due to intense evaporation and existence of low pressure
zone. They are one of the phenomena associated with high rainfall on oceans, not its
cause.
Since there is more water in oceans and wind movement is unable to carry all
cloudiness to land, rainfall is greater in oceans.

IA
S

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

TS

55 Consider the following statements about the legislative process in the states.
1. The status of legislative councils in passing ordinary bills is weaker than Rajya
Sabha.
2. There is no provision of joint sitting in case of a disagreement between the two
houses in the states.
3. If the Governor accepts the changes made by the legislative council which were not
accepted by the assembly, then the bill is deemed to be passed.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification: The Governor cannot accept a bill which has not been passed by the
assembly. Doing so would be unconstitutional. So, 3 is incorrect.

IN

Joint sitting provision is not there, because the assembly has overriding powers with
respect to passing any bill in the state. So, the Council is much weaker than the
assembly. Thus, 1 and 2 are correct.
Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

56 The early atmosphere on earth in the course of its evolution largely contained
A. Water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little of
free oxygen
B. Abundant oxygen, water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane and ammonia
C. Carbon dioxide, methane and very little of free ammonia and nitrogen
D. Sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide, methane, water vapour and very little of free

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TEST - 13

ammonia
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

IA
S

Learning: During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released
from the interior solid earth.
This started the evolution of the present atmosphere. The early atmosphere largely
contained water vapour, nitrogen carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little
of free oxygen.
The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called
degassing. Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases.

TS

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

IN

SI

57 Consider the following statements.


1. Its topography supports scrub-thorn arid forests, rocky landscapes, dry deciduous
forests, rocks, grasses and hilly cliffs.
2. Some of the rarest feathered species like grey partridge, white-throated kingfisher
and Indian peafowl are found here.
3. It is the location of several sites of historical importance like the 16th-century
Kankwadi fort.
The above refer to?
A. Sariska Tiger Reserve
B. Simlipal National Park
C. Jim Corbett National Park
D. Ranthambore National Park
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning: It is located in the Alwar district of the state of Rajasthan.
The area of Sariska, being a part of the Aravalli Range, is rich in mineral resources,
such as copper. In spite of the Supreme Court's 1991 ban on mining in the area,
marble mining continues to threaten the environment.
The dominant tree in the forests is dhok.

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TEST - 13

Pandupol in the hills in the centre of the reserve is believed to be one of the retreats
of Pandavas.
Q Source: Test 13 Syllabus ' National Parks

TS

IA
S

58 Which of these organism(s) migrate in search of more hospitable climates?


1. Insects
2. Mammals
3. Fishes
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification & Learning: Statement 1: Dragonflies, beetles, butterflies and moths


are common insect migrants. In some cases the individuals that migrate in one
direction may not return and the next generation may instead migrate in the opposite
direction. This is a significant difference from bird migration.

SI

Statement 2: Gazelles, Zebra, Whales, Dolphin are some common mammal


migrants. Mass migration occurs in mammals with a kind of annual circular pattern
of movement in many cases.

IN

Statement 3: Most fish species are relatively limited in their movements, remaining
in a single geographical area and making short migrations for wintering, to spawn,
or to feed. A few hundred species migrate long distances, in some cases of
thousands of kilometres. About 120 species of fish, including several species of
salmon, migrate between saltwater and freshwater.
Q Source: 6th Science NCERT

59 At the international level, Geographical Indication (GI) tag is governed by the


A. Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
B. Agreement on Trans-national Resources (AOTNR)
C. International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
D. World Heritage List, UNESCO

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TEST - 13

User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

IA
S

Learning: Geographical Indication (GI) Geographical Indication is an insignia on


products having a unique geographical origin and evolution over centuries with
regards to its special quality or reputation attributes.
It is a mark of authenticity and ensures that registered authorised users (or at least
those residing inside the geographic territory) are allowed to use the popular product
name, e.g. Hyderabadi Biryani.

TS

At international level, GI is governed by World Trade Organisation's


(WTO's) Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(TRIPS).
TRIPS requires WTO members to provide copyright rights, covering content
producers including performers, producers of sound recordings and
broadcasting organizations; geographical indications, including appellations
of origin; industrial designs; integrated circuit layout-designs; patents; new
plant varieties; trademarks etc.
In India, GI registration is governed by the Geographical Indications of goods
(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999. Darjeeling tea was the first product
in India accorded with GI tag.

SI

Q Source: Frequently in News and CSP 2015

IN

60 Weak muscles and feeling very little energy to work is a symptom of the deficiency of
A. Vitamin A
B. Iodine
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin K
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification: Vitamin A deficiency can cause vision related problems, even loss of
vision sometimes. So, (a) is incorrect.
Iodine deficieny causes goitre and mental disability in children. So, (b) is incorrect.
Vitamin B1, also called as Thiamine, deficiency may lead to chronic diseases such

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TEST - 13

as Beriberi which is a neurological and cardiovascular disease. Muscle weakness


and energy deficit in body etc are other symptoms associated with its deficiency.
Very small amounts of vitamin B1 are found in virtually all foods.

IA
S

Q Source: 6th Science NCERT

TS

61 Consider the following about the powers of the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
1. She prorogues an ongoing session of the Lok Sabha.
2. She approves all the bills before it is sent for Presidential assent.
3. She heads the appointments committee of the Cabinet and in Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification: President prorogues the session, i.e. ends it. Speaker can only adjourn
it for some time. So, 1 is wrong.
She only notifies whether a bill is money bill or not.2 is wrong.

SI

The PM heads the appointments committee of the Cabinet. There is no appointments


committee in the Lok Sabha. So, 3 is wrong.

IN

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian Constitution at work

62 What do you understand by the term 'Hidden Hunger'?


A. Deficiency of micronutrients, proteins and vitamins despite getting a calorie
rich diet
B. Percentage of hungry people that go unaccounted in official surveys
C. A phenomenon that exists in social classes that are economically well off but
lack in nutrition and health related aspects
D. Malnourishment of foetus during pregnancy of weak and malnourished
mothers
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A

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Answer Justification :
Learning: More than 840 million people in the world do not have adequate food to
meet their daily food and nutritional requirements.

IA
S

A far greater number' three billion people ' suffer from micronutrient, protein and
vitamin deficiencies or 'hidden hunger' because they cannot afford to buy enough
fruits, vegetables, legumes, fish and meat.
Diets lacking essential micronutrients ' particularly iron, vitamin A, iodine and zinc '
increase the risk for disease, reduce lifespan and reduce mental abilities.
Q Source: Frequently in news and asked in past year UPSC papers

TS

63 Which of the following can be the reason(s) for greater biological productivity at the
tropics as compared to the higher latitudes?
A. Higher solar energy is available at tropics
B. Less extreme seasonal variation as compared to the higher latitudes
C. Remained undisturbed for longer durations than higher latitudes
D. All of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification: Option (a): There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which
contributes to higher productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater
diversity.

IN

Option (b): Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal,
relatively more constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche
specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity and
Option (c): Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions
subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained
relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time
for species diversification.
Q Source: 12th Biology NCERT

64 A constitutional amendment bill

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TEST - 13

Can only be initiated by the President of India


Must be introduced in the Lok Sabha first
Is subject to the casting vote of the Chairman of the house
Cannot be introduced by private MPs
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 4 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

IA
S

1.
2.
3.
4.

TS

Justification: Statement 1: Only certain category of CA bills need the prior


permission of the President, for e.g. major tax reforms.
Statement 2: It can be introduced in either house.

Statement 3: Speaker has the casting vote only in case of a tie or undecisive
situations. Otherwise, if the MPs clear the bill, it is sent to the President.
Statement 4: Any MP can introduce a CA bill.

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

IN

SI

65 What is/are the remedies available to a common citizen against the excesses of the
executive branch of Government?
1. Get the executive order declared void after a Judicial Review
2. Appeal to the High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution
3. Approach tribunals made for the specific purpose
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: Article 13 gives Judiciary the power to review legislative acts and
administrative rules. So, 1 is correct.

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Article 32 and 226 give judiciary the power to correct excesses that have led to the
violation of the fundamental rights of a citizen by the state. So, 2 is correct.
Tribunals are established under Article 323 of the Constitution for granting relief
and settling disputes regarding taxation, competitive practices, service matters etc.
So, 3 is correct.

IA
S

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

TS

66 The Union Cabinet has approved a proposal to notify the Trade Facilitation Agreement
(TFA) of the World Trade Organization (WTO). Consider the following about the TFA.
1. It is the WTO's first-ever multilateral accord that aims to simplify customs
regulations for the cross-border movement of goods.
2. It will make it easier for developing countries to trade with the developed world in
global markets.
3. It was an outcome of the Bali package.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

SI

Learning: Developed countries would abolish hard import quotas on agricultural


products from the developing world and instead would only be allowed to charge
tariffs on amount of agricultural imports exceeding specific limits.

IN

It also aims to reduce red-tapism to facilitate trade by reforming customs


bureaucracies and formalities.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=136486

67 Consider the following statements.


1. Assertion (A): The Governor exercises more discretion that the President does in
their respective spheres of influences.
2. Reason (R): The constitutional provisions explicitly limit the overall discretion of
the President, which is not so clearly defined for the Governor.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

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TEST - 13

IA
S

A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.


B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
C. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: Article 74(1) clearly prescribes that the President is bound by the
advice of the council of Ministers. However, in the case of Governor, the respective
provision does not make the advice of the council of ministers in state binding on
him.
Article 163 is clear in this regard:

TS

There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to
aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his function, except in so far as
he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of
them in his discretion.
If any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects
which the Governor is by or under this Constitution required to act in his
discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and
the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question
on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.

SI

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

IN

68 Consider the following about the administration of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
1. No emergency due to internal disturbances can be declared in J&K without the
concurrence of the State.
2. The union government cannot impose a financial emergency in the State.
3. Amendments to the Indian Constitution can only apply in concurrence with the
government of J&K.
4. The Government of India is responsible for the external security of J&K.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
User Answer :

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TEST - 13

Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: According to Article 370, the concurrence of the State is required for
making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and Concurrent lists.

IA
S

The remaining differences between the other States and the State of J&K are that no
emergency due to internal disturbances can be declared in J&K without the
concurrence of the State.
The union government cannot impose a financial emergency in the State and the
Directive Principles do not apply in J&K.

TS

Finally, amendments to the Indian Constitution (under Art. 368) can only apply in
concurrence with the government of J&K.
Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

IN

SI

69 Consider the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP).
1. The inheritance of DPSP in the Indian constitution is British colonial legacy.
2. Legislations or rules are always required for implementing DPSP.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification: DPSP is not self-enforceable. It requires the parliament to make laws
to implement them.
They were inherited from the British Instrument of instructions given to the
governors and governor-generals under the Government of India Act 1935.
Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work
70 Under WTO's provision of 'aggregate measure of support', which of the following

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45

would qualify?
1. Subsidies on Irrigation
2. Subsidies on Power
3. Credit subsidies
4. Minimum Support Price (MSP) regime
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

IA
S

TEST - 13

TS

Learning: WTO agreement envisages two kinds of support to agriculture, viz.


domestic support and export subsidies.

The domestic support is further classified into five categories: (a) aggregate measure
of support (AMS) which includes product specific and non-product specific support
(b) green box support (c) blue box support (d) de minimus support and (e) special
and differential (S&D) treatment box.

Out of these, WTO agreement requires reduction only in AMS and export subsidies,
whereas, support under all other heads is exempted.

SI

AMS includes (a) sum total of subsidies on inputs like fertiliser, water, credit, power
etc and (b) market price support measured by calculating the difference between
domestic administered market price and external reference price (world price)
multiplied by quantity of production eligible to get applied administered price.

IN

Q Source: Past year UPSC CSP papers

71 Cripps mission was sent to India to


A. Discuss the modalities of partition of India
B. Negotiate Indian National Congress' (INC) stand in the Round Table
Conferences
C. Address the issue of war crimes and extra-judicial killings by the British
D. Secure full Indian cooperation and support for British efforts in World War
II.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D

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TEST - 13

Answer Justification :
Background:The British feared that the destabilizing of India might encourage a
Japanese invasion, and would reduce the number of men who volunteered to fight
the war.

IA
S

Japan in 1942 had overrun Malaya and was into Burma; the threat of an invasion of
India was real.
British wanted the cooperation and support of Indian political leaders in order to
recruit more Indians into the British Indian Army, which was fighting in the Middle
East theatre.
Mission:

TS

The war cabinet of Britain sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India in 1942 to elicit
cooperation from the Indians.
It promised for the fulfillment of past promises to self government to Indian
people.
The proposal of the Cripps mission was that: "India would be a dominion
associated with the United kingdom".

SI

It promised that immediately after the war is stopped, steps would be taken up to set
up an elected body charged with the task of making the constitution for India and
provisions would be made so that the Indian states could participate in the framing
of the constitution.
Q Source: 10th NCERT: History

IN

72 In the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the vote of each country is weighed by its
A. Money contribution to the IMF
B. Size of GDP
C. Diplomatic and military might
D. An index weighting all of (a), (b) and (c)
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Learning: International Monetary Fund (IMF) is one of the biggest moneylenders
for any country in the world.

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TEST - 13

Its 188 member states (as in 2012) do not have equal voting rights. The vote of each
country is weighed by how much money it has contributed to the IMF.

IA
S

Majority of the voting power in the IMF is in the hands of only ten countries (US,
Japan, Germany, France, UK, China, Italy, Saudi Arabia, Canada and Russia). The
remaining 178 countries have very little say in how these international organisations
take decisions. The World Bank has a similar system of voting.
Q Source: Important International bodies - Test 13 Syllabus

TS

73 Consider the following about Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).


1. They have been established by an Act of Parliament.
2. It does not receive any grant or support from the government and is sponsored by a
parent commercial bank.
3. RRBs operate in all districts in India.
4. RRBs are allowed to mobilize deposits only from rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 3 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification:Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in 1975 under the


provisions of an Ordinance and followed by Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976. So, 1
is correct.

IN

It was done with a view to develop the rural economy and to create a supplementary
channel to the 'Cooperative Credit Structure' with a view to enlarge institutional
credit for the rural and agriculture sector.
The Government of India, the concerned State Government and the bank, which had
sponsored the RRB contributed to the share capital of RRBs in the proportion of
50%, 15% and 35%, respectively. So, 2 is incorrect.
The area of operation of the RRBs is limited to notified few districts in a State. So, 3
is also incorrect.
The RRBs mobilise deposits primarily from rural/semi-urban areas and provide

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TEST - 13

loans and advances mostly to small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers,
rural artisans and other segments of priority sector. So, 4 is incorrect too.
Q Source: RRBs are asked frequently in UPSC questions

TS

IA
S

74 Consider the following statements in relation to the Article 371-A of the constitution
making special provisions for Nagaland.
1. The Nagaland state assembly can declare that a law made by the Parliament is not
applicable to it on religious and social grounds.
2. The Nagaland state assembly can override the laws of the Parliament concerning
transfer of land and its resources.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification:As per Article 371 (1), notwithstanding anything in this Constitution,


no Act of Parliament in respect of

SI

religious or social practices of the Nagas,


Naga customary law and procedure,
administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to
Naga customary law,
ownership and transfer of land and its resources,

IN

shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by
a resolution so decides.
Q Source: Naga affairs are frequently in news and 11th NCERT: Indian constitution
at Work

75 Consider the following statements.


1. Tropical cyclones originate only over the seas.
2. In the tropical latitudes, tropical cyclones generally move from east to west.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only

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TEST - 13

IA
S

B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification:The tropical cyclones originate only over the seas and they dissipate
on reaching the land. It is because they are supported by the moisture from the sea.
So, 1 is correct.

TS

On the equatorward side of the subtropical ridge, general easterly winds prevail.
Also, there is an axis of high pressure called the subtropical ridge that extends eastwest poleward of the storm. They steer the tropical cyclones to the west from the
east. So, 2 is correct.
Q Source:11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

IN

SI

76 India is the world's largest arms importer. Which two countries follow immediately in
the ranking of total arms imports?
1. China
2. Australia
3. Ukraine
4. Myanmar
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 4
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification:Top arms importers are: India (14%), China (4.7%), Australia (3.6%),
Pakistan (3.3%), Vietnam (2.9%) and South Korea (2.6%).
India's arms imports remain three times greater than those of its rivals
Pakistan and China. Its biggest suppliers are Russia, United States (US),
Israel and France.
This indicates India's failure to build a strong domestic defence-industrial
base (DIB) and Indian arms industry has failed to produce competitive

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TEST - 13

indigenously-designed weapons.
Earlier China used to be top on the imports chart but in past few decades it
has gradually built a stronger DIB. China has emerged as the world's third
largest arms exporter after United States and Russia.

IA
S

Q Source:Current Affairs

TS

77 The passing of Election Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2016 in the Parliament would
A. Clarify provisions of the criminal justice system in case of convicted MPs
and MLAs
B. Give voting rights to people who became Indian citizens following the
exchange of enclaves between India and Bangladesh
C. Enlarge the powers of Election Commission to investigate paid news and fake
accounts submitted by political parties
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

Learning: The historic land boundary agreement signed between India and
Bangladesh had altered the geography and demography of the district of Cooch
Behar in West Bengal.

SI

Under this agreement, 51 Bangladeshi enclaves (Chhitmahals) were added in the


Indian Territory and 111 Indian enclaves in Bangladesh territory.

IN

Since the newly acquired area has become the part of Indian territory, it was
necessary to make delimitation exercise within the limited constituency area of
Cooch Behar before the ensuing 2016 West Bengal State Assembly elections.
Q Source:http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=136631

78 The Union Cabinet has approved the LIGO-India project for research on
A. Gravitational waves
B. Neutrinos
C. Higgs Boson
D. Anti-matter
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

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TEST - 13

Learning:LIGO-India project is piloted by Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)


and Department of Science and Technology (DST). It will give impetus to scientific
research in the country.
It will establish a state-of-the-art Gravitational Wave Observatory in India in
collaboration with the US based LIGO Laboratory run by Caltech and MIT.

IA
S

It will also bring considerable opportunities in cutting edge technology in India's


scientific industry as domestic players will engaged in the construction of 8
kilometre long beam tube at ultra-high vacuum of observatory on a levelled terrain.

TS

Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indian-gravitational-wave-observatory-ge
ts-union-cabinet-approval/article8248745.ece

SI

79 Consider the following statements.


1. Assertion (A): The system of monarchy cannot exist in a Parliamentary democracy.
2. Reason (R): In a democracy representatives are elected based on popular vote.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
C. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification:Democracy is of two types - republic (where the head of state is


elected, like India), and monarchy (where the head of state is hereditary).
UK practices Monarchy (crown) and yet it is a Parliamentary democracy.
Q Source:11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

80 Japan has recently launched ASTRO-H space observation satellite to probe


A. Expansion of the Solar system
B. Mystery of the Black holes
C. Generation and decay of space dust
D. Possibility of finding water on Pluto
User Answer :

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TEST - 13

Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Learning:It is a powerful orbiting observatory developed by the Japan Aerospace
Exploration Agency (JAXA) for studying extremely energetic processes in the
universe.

IA
S

It will orbit earth at an altitude of about 580 kilometres and observe X-rays
emanating mainly from black holes and galaxy clusters.
Q Source: http://science.nasa.gov/missions/astro-h/

SI

TS

81 Consider the following about Wassenaar Arrangement.


1. It concerns with transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and
technologies.
2. It is a sub-treaty under the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR).
3. India is a member of the Wassenaar Arrangement.
4. It does not extend to web-based systems.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification:Statement 1: It promotes transparency and greater responsibility in


transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies, thus preventing
destabilising accumulations. The aim is also to prevent the acquisition of these items
by terrorists.
Statement 2: Australia Group, Nuclear Suppliers Group and Missile Technology
Control Regime are different arrangements than Wassenar.
Statement 3: India and China are non-participating states.
Statement 4: New technologies (amendment in 2013) placed under the export
control regime include "intrusion software"-software designed to defeat a computer
or network's protective measures so as to extract data or information-as well as IP
network surveillance systems.

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TEST - 13

Q Source: International treaties - Test 13 syllabus

TS

IA
S

82 The National Capital Goods Policy 2016 will focus on


1. Increasing imports of capital goods to satisfy domestic demand and revive economic
growth
2. Make standards mandatory in order to reduce sub-standard machine imports
3. Opening Export processing zones (EPZs) in select countries to manufacture capital
goods to reduce cost
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification: Statement 1: It instead aims at increasing exports of capital goods


from the current 27% to 40 % of production, and increasing share of domestic
capital goods production in terms of demand from 60% to 80% in order to make
India a net exporter of capital goods.

SI

Statement 2: It also seeks to make standards mandatory in order to reduce substandard machine imports and provide opportunity to local manufacturing units and
launch scheme of skill development for Capital Goods sector.
Statement 3: There is no such proposal in the policy.

IN

Q Source:http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=136430

83 Which of the following organization(s) is/are specialized agencies of the United Nations
(UN)?
1. World Trade Organization (WTO)
2. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
3. World Health Organization (WHO)
4. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only

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TEST - 13

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

IA
S

Learning: WTO is a related organization (to the UN) founded in 1995 pertaining to
the GATT. It is not its specialized agency as 2, 3 and 4 are.
Other specialized agencies are IAEA, IMO, ILO, World Bank Group, WIPO etc.
The complete list is here
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_United_Nations_organizations#Specialised_or
ganisations_and_agencies

TS

Q Source: Test-13 Syllabus - International Bodies

SI

84 Consider the following statements:


1. Indian economy nearly stagnated under colonial rule.
2. Foreign investment was discouraged in the early decades post-independence.
3. Central economic planning in India started only after independence.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

IN

Justification: Central economic planning started with the setting up of the National
Planning Committee (1938). So, 3 is wrong.
Foreign investment was discouraged because of the colonial experience of Drain of
wealth and the stagnant performance of the economy under the colonial rule. It grew
by zero % between 1600 and 1870, and a meagre 0.2 % between 1870 to 1947.
So, 1 and 2 are correct.
Q Source:11th NCERT: Indian Economic Development

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TEST - 13

IA
S

85 Consider the following statements:


1. Crude Oil and Cement related industries are a part of 'core industries' in India.
2. Steel has the highest weightage in the Index of Industrial production (IIP) amongst
the 'core industries'.
Which of the above is/are true?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

TS

Justification: Eight core industries are - Iron and Steel, Cement, Crude Oil, Natural
Gas, Fertilizers, Oil refining, Electricity and Coal. They together have a weight of
37.90% in the IIP.
Out of these electricity has the highest weightage amongst them of nearly 10.32%.
Steel has the second highest weightage of nearly 6.68 %.

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian Economic Development and Past year UPSC CSP
papers

IN

SI

86 Consider the following statements about the source of capital for the states in India.
1. Finance commission does not generally determine capital related issues of the state
and is confined to revenue matters and grants-in-aid only.
2. The FRBM Act has restricted the freedom of the states to borrow for fulfilling their
plan expenditure.
Which of the above is/are true?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: Although the constitution does not define revenue and
capita related matters, the job of finance commission is restricted. The capital
related issues of the states are taken care of by the Planning Commission which is

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56

TEST - 13

seen to eclipse the role of a constitutional body FC.

Q Source: 12th NCERT: Macroeconomics

IA
S

Statement 2: The FRBM Act does restrict the fiscal deficit of states by giving them a
direction. But, it gives them further freedom to borrow from the markets in case they
have enacted their own fiscal responsibility legislations. They can thus fulfill their
plan expenditure. So, 2 is wrong.

TS

87 What was/were the change(s) introduced in the Indian governance by the Government
of India Act 1858?
1. The act abolished the rule of East Indian Company, and established that of British
crown.
2. All civil, military and executive powers were to be vested in the bureaucracy.
3. It increased the legislative autonomy of the Princely states and British provinces.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :

SI

Justification:The Company's territories in India were to be vested in the Queen, the


Company ceasing to exercise its power and control over these territories. India was
to be governed in the Queen's name. So, 1 is correct.

IN

The administration of the country was now highly centralized. All civil, military and
executive powers vested in the Governor in council, who in turn was responsible to
Secretary of State. So, both 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Learning:There was also a provision of creation of an Indian Civil Service under
the control of the Secretary of State.
This act abolished the Dual Government (Board of Control and Board of
Directors in the company) introduced by the Pitt's India act.
Q Source:8th NCERT: History

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Learning:APMC operate on two principles:

IA
S

88 Agricultural produce market committees (APMC) are established by the


A. Authorized Local area Vendors (ALAVs)
B. Farmer Produce Organizations (FPOs)
C. State Government
D. Local Government
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

TS

Ensure that farmers are not exploited by intermediaries (and money lenders)
who compel farmers to sell their produce at the farm gate for an extremely
low price.
All food produce should first be brought to a market yard and then sold
through auction.
Each state which operates APMC markets geographically divide the state and
markets (mandis) are established at different places within the state.

Farmers are required to sell their produce via auction at the mandi in their region.
Traders require a license to operate within a mandi.

Wholesale and retail traders (e.g. shopping mall owners) and food processing
companies cannot buy produce directly from a farmer.

SI

Q Source:Past year UPSC CSP papers

IN

89 In which of the following cases of constitutional amendment, the Supreme Court can
possibly declare the bill as null and void for violating the basic structure of the
constitution?
1. An amendment which declares the Parliament to be supreme and above the
Judiciary.
2. An amendment which makes India a police state instead of a welfare state.
3. An amendment which gives the Parliament substantial judicial powers.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :

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TEST - 13

Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:The basic structure of the constitution contains these, amongst others:
Welfare state; Separation of powers; Supremacy of the constitution.

IA
S

All these three cases try to disturb the basic structure. Thus they can be termed void
by the Supreme Court.
Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian constitution at Work

TS

90 Which of the following CANNOT be the reason(s) for the downfall of the Hindu
Empires in India to the incoming Muslim rulers?
1. The Hindu states were tied under a common federation thus devoid of exercising
power.
2. Their military methods were out of date and inferior to those of Muslims.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

IN

SI

Justification & Learning: The most important cause for the downfall of Hindu
states was that they lacked unity. There was no formal coordination mechanism.
They were divided by factions. For e.g. the Rajput princes exhausted one another by
their mutual conflicts. So, 1 cannot be the reason.
Also, many Hindu states were declining in power. Their military methods were out
of date and far inferior to those of Muslims. Indians continued to rely on elephants
while the Muslims possessed quick-moving cavalry. So, 2 can be a reason.
Other reasons can be:
The Muslims soldiers had better organization and able leaders.
Their religious zeal and their greed for the greater wealth of India provided
stimulus to them.
Among the Hindus, the duty of fighting was confined to a particular class, the
Kshatriyas.

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TEST - 13

Moreover, the Hindus were always on the defensive, which was considered to
be a weak position in war affairs then.
Q Source: 11th TamilNadu History Textbook

TS

IA
S

91 Consider the following about the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
1. It is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions to member
states.
2. All decisions of the UNSC must be approved by the UN General Assembly to be
enforced.
3. It recommends new states for admission as member states of the United Nations
(UN).
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification: Decisions that are vetoed by the P-5 cannot be submitted for the
review of the UNGA. Also, the UNSC is the authority under the UN charter to take
action in situations

SI

threatening international peace and security, e.g. Syria crisis. So, 2 is incorrect.

IN

Decisions taken under Chapter VII, such as economic sanctions or other sections
like international security, are binding on UN members; the Security Council is the
only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions. The UNGA can only
make recommendations in this regard. So, 1 is correct.
Q Source: Test-13 Syllabus - International Bodies

92 The Earth's geomagnetic field is a combination of several magnetic fields generated by


various sources which include?
1. Movement of conducting material inside the Earth's core
2. Electric current flowing in the ionized upper atmosphere
3. Currents flowing within the earth's crust
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

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TEST - 13

IA
S

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: More than 90% of the field is generated by the movement of conducting
material inside the Earth's core, which is often referred to as the Main Field. Other
important sources of the geomagnetic field include electric current flowing in the
ionized upper atmosphere and currents flowing within the earth's crust.

TS

There are also local anomalies produced by mountain ranges, ore deposits,
geological faults, and artificial products such as trains, aircraft, power lines etc.
Q Source: Geomagnetism topic in 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical
Geography

IN

SI

93 Consider the following statements about the Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI).
1. It derives its authority solely from executive orders.
2. It registers stock exchanges and mutual funds.
3. It promotes financial literacy in the country.
4. It is tasked with the inspection and audit of stock exchanges.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Justification: It was initially a non-statutory body setup by a government order. It
was afterwards given powers under the SEBI Act, 1992. So, 1 is wrong.
It is the principal agency in India which regulates the security market and promotes
investor education.
This link (though not authoritative) explains the functions of SEBI in detail.

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TEST - 13

http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/education/sebi-the-purpose-objective-and-functio
ns-of-sebi/8762/
Q Source:Past year UPSC CSP papers

TS

IA
S

94 Which of the following form part of the revenue expenditure of the Government of
India?
1. Expenditure on social security
2. Grants given to foreign countries and Indian states
3. Subsidies forwarded to all sectors of the economy
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :

Justification: Loans given to Indian states qualify as capital expenditure. But grants
to either an Indian or a foreign state qualify as revenue expenditure.

Generally, expenditure incurred on normal running of the government departments


and maintenance of services is treated as revenue expenditure.

SI

Examples of revenue expenditure are salaries of government employees, interest


payment on loans taken by the government, pensions, subsidies, grants, rural
development, education and health services, etc.

IN

Q Source: 12th NCERT: Macroeconomics

95 Which of the following CANNOT be the cause(s) for the Decline of Buddhism in India?
1. Revival of Brahmanism and the rise of Bhagavatism
2. Use of Sanskrit instead of common man's language Pali
3. Destruction of monasteries by Turkish invaders
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None of (a), (b) or (c) is correct.

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TEST - 13

User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: The revival of Brahmanism and the rise of Bhagavatism
led to the fall of popularity of Buddhism.

IA
S

Statement 2: The use of Pali, the language of the masses as the language of
Buddhism was given up from the 1st century A.D. The Buddhists began to adopt
Sanskrit, the language of the elite.
Also, after the birth of Mahayana Buddhism, the practice of idol worship and
making offerings led to the deterioration of moral standards.

TS

Statement 3: Moreover, the attack of the Huns in 5th and 6th centuries and the
Turkish invaders in 12th century destroyed the monasteries.
Q Source: 11th Tamilnadu History Textbook

IN

SI

96 Which of the following are responsible for bringing changes on the surface of the earth?
1. Gravitational force
2. Tectonic forces
3. Electromagnetic radiation
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Justification:Statement 1: Gravity causes movement of ocean current, induces
landslides, influences river movements etc causing dynamic change on landscape of
earth.
Statement 2: Tectonic forces can build mountains as well as large rifts.
Statement 3: Sun's radiation, i.e. light, is electromagnetic in nature. All landform
and life on earth ultimately comes from the Sun.

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Q Source:11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

IA
S

97 CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna


and Flora) is an international agreement between
1. Governmens
A. Governments
B. NGOs
C. Conservation Centres
D. Regional Environment Bodies
User Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :

TS

Learning: It aims to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals


and plants does not threaten their survival. Roughly 5,000 species of animals and
28,000 species of plants are protected.
Bears, dolphins, cacti, corals, orchids and aloes are some examples.

Q Source: 9th NCERT: Geography

IN

SI

98 Coalbed Methane in India can be found in


1. Jharkhand
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. West Bengal
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: India has the fifth-largest coal reserves in the world, estimated at more
than 300 billion tonnes by the Ministry of Coal as in 2014.
This means significant potential for CBM exploitation.
The exploration of CBM in India is spread over a sedimentary area of 26,000 square

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TEST - 13

kilometres and is already ongoing, mainly regions such as Jharkhand, West Bengal
and Madhya Pradesh.
Q Source:http://envfor.nic.in/sites/default/files/cc/cop8/moefbk/use.pdf

TS

IA
S

99 Consider the following about the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).
1. It is a scientific intergovernmental group established by the UNFCCC.
2. Membership of the IPCC is open to all member countries of the United Nations
(UN).
3. It conducts authoritative research on climate related issues.
4. It monitors climate related parameters such as Mean Sea Level (MSL).
5. Its recommendations are binding on all members of the UNEP.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
User Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :

Justification: IPCC is the leading international body for the assessment of climate
change.

SI

It was established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the
World Meteorological Organization (WMO) in 1988 to provide the world with a
clear scientific view on the current state of knowledge in climate change and its
potential environmental and socio-economic impacts. So, 1 is wrong.

IN

The IPCC reviews and assesses the most recent scientific, technical and socioeconomic information produced worldwide relevant to the understanding of climate
change. It does not conduct any research nor does it monitor climate related data or
parameters. So, 3 and 4 are wrong.
As an intergovernmental body, membership of the IPCC is open to all member
countries of the United Nations (UN) and WMO. Currently 195 countries are
Members of the IPCC. So, 2 is correct.
Q
Source:http://www.moef.gov.in/sites/default/files/treaties/international-treaties.html

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TEST - 13

TS

IA
S

100 Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) aims to eliminate or


restrict the production and use of POPs. Which of the following is/are POPs listed under
the convention?
1. Heptachlor
2. DDT
3. Endosulfan
4. Mercury
5. Lead
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
A. 1, 4 and 5 only
B. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
User Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Learning: Heptachlor is used as a termiticide (including in the structure of houses
and underground), for organic treatment and in underground cable boxes.

Endosulfan is an off-patent organochlorine insecticide and acaricide that is being


phased out globally.

DDT and other pesticides had been shown to cause cancer and that their agricultural
use was a threat to wildlife, particularly birds.

SI

Unlike the persistent organic pollutants (POPs), metals Mercury do not accumulate
in fat. Hence, they are not POPs.

IN

Q
Source:http://www.moef.gov.in/sites/default/files/treaties/international-treaties.html

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