IASbaba Prelims in 60 Days [DAY 1]

Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Constitution of India and select the
incorrect statement/s from the codes given below:
1. Constitution authorises the Parliament to alter the areas or boundaries of the existing
states without the consent of concerned state legislature or union territory.
2. Constitution does not guarantee any state of its territorial integrity or continued
existence
3. Constitution declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states can
be passed by a simple majority
Choose the appropriate code
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None
Q.1) Solution (d)

Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or
names of the existing states without the consent of concerned state legislature or union
territory. In other words, Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its
will. Hence, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by
the Constitution.
Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new
states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or
names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the
Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple
majority and by the ordinary legislative process.

Source: Refer Chapter 5: Union and its Territory, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.2) Which among the following are the features of Government of India Act of 1935?

1. It introduced responsible governments in provinces

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2. It created a new office, Secretary of State for India

3. It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India
4. It provided for the establishment of Supreme Court, which was set up in 1937
Choose the correct code
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
1 and 3
1, 2 and 4
1, 3 and 4

Q.2) Solution (b)

GoI Act, 1935 introduced responsible governments in provinces, that is, the governor
was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature.
It was GoI Act, 1858 which created a new office, Secretary of State for India, who was
vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration.
GoI Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the
currency and credit of the country.
GoI Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of Federal Court (not Supreme Court),
which was set up in 1937. It was Regulating Act of 1773 which provided for the
establishment of Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774)

Source: Refer Chapter 1: Historical Background, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.3) According to Dr B R Ambedkar, which among the following is a novel feature of the Indian
Constitution?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Directive Principles of State Policy

Fundamental Rights
Preamble
Judicial Review

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Q.3) Solution (a)

According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a novel feature of

the Indian Constitution.
Dr. Ambedkar said The directive principles are like instruments of instructions which were
issued to the Governor in General and Governors of colonies and to those of India by the
British Government under the 1935 Act under the Draft Constitution. It is proposed to issue
such instructions to the president and governors. The text of these instruments of the
instructions shall be found in scheduled IV to the Constitution of India. What are called
directive principles is that they are instructions to the Legislature and the Executive. Such a
thing is, to my mind, to be welcomed.
The Directive Principles commit the State to promote the welfare of the people by affirming
social, economic and political justice, as well as to fight economic inequality.

Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.4) In which of the following points is the Indian Constitution similar to that of Canadian
Constitution?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Federation with a strong Centre

Office of Governor
Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre

Choose the correct codes

a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
1, 3 and 4
All of the above

Q.4) Solution (c)

The following are the features borrowed by Indian Constitution from the Canadian Constitution
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1) Federation with a strong Centre

2) Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre
3) Appointment of state governors by the Centre (not Office of Governor)
4) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
Office of Governor was borrowed from Government of India Act of 1935

Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.5) Which one of the following Acts of British India established a system of double
government?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Government of India Act of 1919

Indian Councils Act of 1909
Government of India Act of 1935
Pitts India Act of 1784

Q.5) Solution (d)

The Pitts India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of
the Company.
It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body
called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of
double government.
It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and
military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.

Source: Refer Chapter 1: Historical Background, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.6) Consider the following statements with regard to States and Union Territories. Which of
the following statement is/are incorrect?

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1. Union of India is a wider expression than the Territory of India.

2. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers
with the Centre.
3. The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly
administered by the Central government.
Choose the correct codes
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
None

Q.6) Solution (a)

Territory of India is a wider expression than the Union of India because the latter includes
only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and
territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.
The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with
the Centre.
The union territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly
administered by the Central government.

Source: Refer Chapter 5: Union and its Territory, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Q.7) In which case, the Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution is founded on the
bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Kesavananda Bharati case

Berubari case
Golaknath case
Minerva Mills case

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Q.7) Solution (d)

It was in the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that the Indian
Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and
the Directive Principles.

Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
Q.8) Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with Acts and Regulations of the state
legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Schedule Eight
Schedule Nine
Schedule Eleventh
Schedule Twelfth

Q.8) Solution (b)

Ninth Schedule deals with Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land
reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other
matters.
This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it
from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after
April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.

Source: Refer Chapter 3: Salient Features of the Constitution, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.9) Which one of the following Acts of British India introduced for the first time
bicameralism and direct elections in the country?
a) Indian Council Act of 1892
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b) Government of India Act of 1919

c) Government of India Act of 1935
d) Indian Independence Act of 1947

Q.9) Solution (b)

Government of India Act of 1919 which is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

introduced for the first time bicameralism and direct elections in the country.
Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an
Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
The majority of members of both the Houses were chosen by direct election.

Source: Refer Chapter 1: Historical Background, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.10) Match the following

Type of Writ
1. Habeas Corpus
2. Certiorari
3. Mandamus
4. Quo-Warranto

Meaning
A. we command
B. to be certified
C. you may have the body
D. what is your authority

Select the correct code

a)
b)
c)
d)

1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A

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Q.10) Solution (c)

Types of Writs
There are five types of writs in the Indian Constitution - Habeas Corpus, Certiorari, QuoWarranto, Mandamus and Prohibition.
1. Writ of Habeas Corpus This writ literally means you may have the body. This writ is issued to produce a person
physically before the court who has been imprisoned or detained by the law and to set him free
if there is no legal justification of his detention.
2. Writ of Certiorari
This writ literally means 'to be certified. This writ is issued by the higher court to the lower
court for quashing the order already passed by the lower court or removing a suit from the
lower court to higher court for speedy disposal.
3. Writ of Quo- Warranto
This writ literally means by what warrants? or what is your authority. It is a writ issued by the
Supreme Court or High Court with a view to restrain a person or authority from holding a public
office to which he is not entitled. The writ requires the concerned person or authority to
explain to the Court by what authority he/it holds the office.
4. Writ of Mandamus
This writ literally means we command. It is a a judicial writ issued by the Supreme Court or a
High Court as a command to an interior court or tribunal or a person to perform a public or
statutory duty.
5. Writ of Prohibition

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This writ is popularly known as Stay Order. This writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court
to stop proceeding in a case on the ground of over-stepping of jurisdiction or absence of
jurisdiction. It is issued before the judgement or order is made in such cases.
Source: Refer Chapter 3 and Chapter 7: Salient Features of the Constitution and Fundamental
Rights, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.11) Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroys authority over
his executive council by substituting Portfolio or departmental system for corporate
functioning?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Indian Council Act, 1861

Government of India Act, 1858
Indian Council Act, 1892
Indian Council Act, 1909

Q.11) Solution (a)

Indian Council Act, 1861 empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more
convenient transaction of business in the council.
It also gave a recognition to the portfolio system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859.
Under this, a member of the Viceroys council was made in-charge of one or more
departments of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the
council on matters of his department(s).

Source: Refer Chapter 1: Historical Background, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.12) Consider the following statements with regard to the Constitution

1. The Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race,
caste, sex or place of birth but not on the ground of residence.

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2. The Constitution of India has introduced the system of single citizenship and provided
uniform rights for the people of India to promote the feeling of fraternity and unity
among them and to build an integrated Indian nation.
Which among the above statements is/are true?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2only
Both 1 and 2
Nether 1 nor 2

Q.12) Solution (c)

The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds
of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means
that the state can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that
do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian
citizens. For example, a state may offer concession in fees for education to its residents.
The Constitution of India, like that of Canada, has introduced the system of single
citizenship and provided uniform rights (except in few cases) for the people of India to
promote the feeling of fraternity and unity among them and to build an integrated Indian
nation.
Despite this, India has been witnessing the communal riots, class conflicts, caste wars,
linguistic clashes and ethnic disputes. Thus, the cherished goal of the founding fathers and
the Constitution-makers to build an united and integrated Indian nation has not been fully
realized.

Source: Refer Chapter 6: Citizenship, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.13) The detailed provisions regarding acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship are
contained in the Citizenship Act which was passed by
a)
b)
c)
d)

The Indian Parliament in 1955

The Indian Parliament in 1950
The British Parliament in August 1948
The Constituent Assembly in 1949

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Q.13) Solution (a)

The Constitution empowered the Parliament to enact a law to provide for acquisition and
loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which has been
amended in 1986, 1992, 2003 and 2005.

Source: Refer Chapter 6: Citizenship, Indian Polity by Laxmikanth

Q.14) Consider the statements regarding loss of citizenship:

1. If a person voluntarily renounces Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person
also loses his citizenship.
2. When a citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian
citizenship automatically terminates. This provision does not apply during a war in which
India is engaged.
3. The citizenship is terminated if the citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with
the enemy during a war.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

Q.14) Solution (d)

If a person voluntarily renounces Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses
his citizenship. However, when such a child attains the age of eighteen, he may resume Indian
citizenship.
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Refer Laxmikanth Loss of citizenship

Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional provisions of Citizenship:

1. The Part II of the Indian Constitution deals with Citizenship.
2. Detailed provisions of acquisition and loss of citizenship are mentioned in the
Constitution.
3. Any law made regarding citizenship is considered as a Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 and 3
3 only
None of the above

Q.15) Solution (b)

The constitution neither contains any permanent nor elaborate provisions regarding citizenship.
It empowers the parliament to enact a law to deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of
citizenship. Laws made by the parliament regarding citizenship are not considered as
Constitutional amendment.

Q.16) Which of the statements regarding Overseas Citizen of India cardholder are correct?
1. They get a multiple entry, multipurpose lifelong visa for visiting India.
2. They get parity with NRIs in respect of economic, financial and education fields except
acquisition of agricultural lands.

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3. They are required to register with local police authorities once their stay in India
exceeds 180 days for the first time.
Select the correct code from the following:
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

Q.16) Solution (a)

OCIs dont need to get registered with local police station.

Q.17) Consider the following statements with respect to Asiatic Lion

1. The Gir Forest, in Gujarat, is the last natural range wild Asiatic lions.
2. It is critically endangered as per IUCN red list

Select the correct answer

a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both
None

Q.17) Solution (a)

It is endangered as per IUCN red list

Click here

Q.18) India successfully test-fires advanced interceptor missile from Abdul kalam Island.
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Select the correct option with respect to Abdul kalam Island.

a)
b)
c)
d)

It is the new name of Sri Hari Kota located in Andhra Pradesh.

It is located in French Guinea
It is an island located off Odisha coast.
It is located in Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Q.18) Solution (c)

Click here
Abdul Kalam Island, formerly known as Wheeler Island, is an island off the coast of
Odisha, India,
approximately 150
kilometres (93 mi) from the
state
capital Bhubaneswar. The Integrated Test Range maintaining a missile testing facility is
located in the island.

Q.19) Consider the following statements with respect to Porpoises

1.
2.
3.
4.

Porpoises are group of Marine amphibians

Vaquita marina is the worlds smallest porpoise
They are critically endangered
They are endemic to Gulf of California and Mexico

Select the correct option

a)
b)
c)
d)

1, 2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1,2,3 and 4 only

Q.19) Solution (b)

Porpoises are a group of fully aquatic marine mammals.

Click here

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Q.20) Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary accounted for a large number of fatalities over the past six
months. Chinnar Wild life sanctuary is located in which of the following state/UT of India
a)
b)
c)
d)

Karnataka
Tamil Nadu
Puducherry
Kerala

Q.20) Solution (d)

Click here

Q.21) Consider the following statements about the Fiscal Policy.

1. Fiscal policy is the use of government spending and taxation to influence the economy
2. The most immediate effect of fiscal policy is to change the aggregate demand for goods
and services.
3. Fiscal policy is said to be loose or expansionary when revenue is higher than spending.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
All

Q.21) Solution (a)

Fiscal policy is said to be tight or contractionary when revenue is higher than spending
(i.e., the government budget is in surplus).
Click here

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Q.22) The High Court of Rajasthan has declared the practice of Santhara as illegal. Which of
the statements correctly explains Santhara?
a)
b)
c)
d)

It is a ritual of sacrificing Bulls in front of Goddess Kali in local annual festival.

It is a Jain custom of voluntary death by performing fast until death.
It is the name given to the performance of Child marriage in Rajasthan.
It is a practice of honour killing of a couple if a girl and a boy of same village gets
married to each other.

Q.22) Solution (b)

Santhara is a Jain custom of embracing voluntary death it involves practitioners taking an oath
to stop eating until they die of starvation. According to Jains, this is a way to purge oneself of
bad karma and attain moksha.
Every year a question comes from indigenous ancient religions. Since Santhara was in news it
becomes important. A related question on Jainism can be asked like- which famous mauryan
ruler is believed to have performed Santhara. (Chandragupta Maurya)

Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding the scheme Sakhi:

1. The scheme is meant to help women suffering from sexual, mental or emotional
harassments.
2. It is an initiative of Union Government under the Nirbhaya Fund for women safety.
3. Women will be provided vocational training to make them feel confident and earn
livelihood as a part of Skill India initiative.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
1 and 2
3 only
All of the above

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Q.23) Solution (b)

A scheme called Sakhi, was inaugurated to help the women, who are suffering from sexual,
mental and emotional harassments(Including eve-teasing, domestic violence and rape). It is an
initiative of Union Government under the Nirbhaya Fund for women safety pertaining to
strategic areas of prevention, protection and rehabilitation. The Objective of this scheme is to
provide necessary help to women victims and others, who are suffering from any kind of
harassment.

Q.24) The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the US Agency for
International Development (USAID) have launched a new joint project named SERVIR-Mekong.
Which of the following statements regarding this project are correct?
1. The SERVIR program helps governments and development stakeholders in incorporating
Earth observations and geospatial technologies into natural disaster response to
improve food security, safeguard human health and manage water and natural
resources.
2. It is recently launched for five South Asian countries namely Burma, Cambodia, Laos,
Thailand and Vietnam.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.24) Solution (a)

The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the US Agency for International
Development (USAID) have launched a new joint project named SERVIR-Mekong to strengthen
regional environmental monitoring in five countries of Southeast Asia namely Burma,
Cambodia, Laos, Thailand and Vietnam.

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It was launched in the Asian Disaster Preparedness Center in Bangkok, Thailand. Under this
project, researchers will draw from a continuous stream of space-based climate, weather and
other Earth observation data from Nasa and its partners. The main focus of this project is to
host vital issues in the Mekong river basin region in those five countries which is also called as
Rice Bowl of Asia.

Q.25) Consider the following statements:

1. Bank of Baroda has introduced Maharaja Sayyaji Rao Gaekwad award.
2. The award will be conferred to such personality every year which has made significant
contribution in creating awareness and spreading Marathi language amongst people.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Q.25) Solution (b)

Bank of Baroda has introduced Maharaja Sayajirao Bhasha Samman an award in the
memory of its founder Maharaja Sir Sayajirao Gaekwad III.
Sayajirao Gaekwad III the erstwhile ruler of Baroda state had played a vital role in economic
growth of the country and propagating the use of Hindi.
"The award will be conferred upon such a personality every year who has made significant
contribution for creating awareness and spreading Hindi among public at large,"

Q.26) Consider the following statements regarding Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan:

1. The campaign has been launched by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
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2. The campaign focuses on making public buildings accessible to Persons with Disabilities
(PWDs).
3. The campaign also focuses on enhancing the accessibility and usability of Public
Transport, and information & communication.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)

1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 3
All of the above

Q.26) Solution (d)

The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the Accessible India Campaign
(Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan) that focuses on building accessible government buildings for persons
with disabilities (PwDs).
The campaign was initiated by the government to increase the accessibility of the physical
environment in the country. In addition, the campaign focuses on enhancing the accessibility
and usability of Public Transport, and information & communication.

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