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CODE

TEST - 6
COURSE NAME : VIKAAS (JA) & VIPUL (JB)

COURSE CODE : CLINIC CLASSES

TARGET : JEE (IITs) 2014


Date : 26-02-2013

Duration : 1 Hour

Max. Marks : 80

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

CHEMISTRY (CHEMICAL BONDING - 1)


INSTRUCTIONS
2.

No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

3.

Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.

4.

The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.

5.

Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

6.

Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.

7.

Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.

B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS :


Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.
8.

Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken
the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS
in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).

9.

Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball
point pen.

10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
12. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the
ORS.
13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will
be taken as final.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :
14. The question paper consists of 1 parts. The part consists of Two Sections.
15. For each question in SectionI, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect
answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
16. For each question in SectionII, you will be awarded 5 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING


INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 22 questions.

CHEMISTRY

PART - II : CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type


This section contains 15 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.

The number of p-bp repulsion present in ClF3 at nearly 90 angle.


(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3

(D) 4

2.

The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species NF3, BF3, PF5 and [SiF6]2 is:
(A) sp2, sp3, sp3d2, sp3d
(B) sp3, sp2, sp3d, sp3d2
2
3
3
3
2
(C) sp , sp , sp d, sp d
(D) sp3, sp2, sp3d2, sp3d3

3.

In which of the following sets the central atom of each member involves sp3 hybridisation ?
(A) O4 , Cl4 , F4+
(B) XeO3 , XeO4 , XeF4
(C) SO3, SO32 , SO42
(D) PCl4+ , BF4 , ClO4

In which of the following groups all the members have linear shape ?
(A) NO2 , N3, ICl2+
(B) N3 , I3 , NO2+
(C) XeF2, C2H2, SO2

(D) CO2, BeCl2, SnCl2

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

JA&JBTEST6260213C0-1

CHEMISTRY

5.

Which reactions involves a change in the electronpair geometry (i.e. hybridisation) for the under lined
geometry ?
(A) BF3 + F BF4
(B) NH3 + H+ NH4+
(C) 2 SO2 + O2 2 SO3
(D) H2O + H+ H3O+

6.

How many types of bond length are present in oxalate ion ?


(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3

(D) 4

7.

When PCl5(g) is heated, two chlorine atoms are dissociated from two positions which are
(A) one axial and one equitorial
(B) Both axial
(C) Both equitorial
(D) From any of two positions out of five positions

8.

Which of the following contains both electrovalent and covalent bonds ?


(A) CH4
(B) H2O2
(C) NH4Cl

(D) none

9.

The average charge on each O atom and average bond order of IO bond in IO65 is(A) 1 and 1.67
(B) 5/6 and 1.67
(C) 5/6 and 1.33
(D) 5/6 and 1.167

10.

In O2F2, which of the following statement is incorrect.


(A) OF bond length in O2F2 is longer than OFbond length in OF2.
(B) The O.N. of oxygen in O2F2 is +1.
(C) The OO bond length in O2F2 is longer than OO bond length in H2O2.
(D) None of these

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

JA&JBTEST6260213C0-2

CHEMISTRY

11.

Amongst the following, the total number of species which does/do not exist is :
SF6, BF63, SF4, OF4, AlF63, PH5, PCl5, NCl5, SCl6
(A) 9
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8

12.

The number of POP bonds in tricyclic metaphosphoric acid is :


(A) zero

(B) two

(C) three

(D) four

13.

In NO3 ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom are
(A) 2,2
(B) 3,1
(C) 1,3
(D) 4,0

14.

Which of the following arrangements is correct on the basis of the increasing p-character of the hybrid
orbitals of the central atoms in the following :
(I) ClO2
(II) CS2
(III) SnCl2
(A) I > III > II
(B) II > I > III
(C) I > II > IIII
(D) III > I > II

15.

An ionic bond A+ B is most likely to be formed when :


(A) the ionization energy of A is high and the electron affinity of B is low
(B) the ionization energy of A is low and the electron affinity of B is high
(C) the ionization energy of A and the electron affinity of B is high
(D) the ionization energy of A and the electron affinity of B is low

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

JA&JBTEST6260213C0-3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - II

Multiple Correct Answer Type


This section contains 7 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

16.

Which of the following species are correctly matched with their geometries according to the VSEPR theory?
(A) BrF6+ octahedral.
(B) SnCl5 trigonal bipyramidal.

(C) ClF2 linear.


(D) IF4+ see-saw.

17.

There is SS linkage in :
(A) S2O32
(B) S2O42

(C) S2O52

(D) S2O72

18.

Select that pair(s) in which bond angle of first member is less than second one.
(A) BrO3, ClO3
(B) AsI3, SbI3
(C) SbBr3, SbI3
(D) NF3, NH3

19.

Which of the following statement is true for IO2F2 ?


(A) The electrons are located at the corners of a trigonal bipyramidal but one of the equatorial pairs is
unshared.
(B) It has sp3d hybridisation and is Tshaped.
(C) Its structure is similar to SF4.
(D) It has sp3d hybridisation and is See-saw in shape.

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

JA&JBTEST6260213C0-4

CHEMISTRY

20.

Which of the following are not isomorphous to each other


(A) BaSO4 and KMnO4
(B) KNO3 and NaClO4
(C) K2CO3 and K2SO3
(D) Na2CO3 and Mg(NO3)2

21.

Which of the factors affect bondlength ?


(A) Size of atoms making the bond
(B) Bond order
(C) Oxidation number of central atom
(D) Percentage s-character in the orbitals used in making the bond

22.

To which of the following species is the octet rule is not applicable ?


(A) BrF5
(B) SF6
(C) IF7
(D) CO2

Space for Rough Work

RESONANCE

JA&JBTEST6260213C0-5

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