OYWD

CODE-A

08/06/2016

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Maximum Marks : 360

Time : 1 Hour 30 Minutes

UNIT TEST

(ONE YEAR COURSE FOR MEDICAL - 2017)

Test-2
Topics covered :
Physics

Chemistry

Biology

Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Solution
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering plants - The Pistil, Ovule, Embryo Sac, Female Gametophyte
Development, Pollination, Agents of Pollination; Embryo Development; Fruit; Apomixis and
Polyembryony, Human Reproduction - Fertilization,Embryonic Development, Placenta,
Parturition and Lactation

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1.

In a uniform electric field the potential of origin is

V
V and
at each of the points (a,0,0), (0,b,0),
2
(0,0,c). The potential at (a,b,c) will be
V
3V
(1)
(2)
2
2
V
(3)
(4) V
2

2.

A circular ring of radius R with uniformly distributed

positive charge Q on its circumference is fixed in
xy plane with its centre at origin O. A particle of
mass m and charge q is at origin. It is slightly
disturbed towards along the +z axis. Kinetic
energy of the particle when it reaches at z R 3 ,
1
is (where K
)
4 0
(1)

KQq
2R

(2)

(3)

KQq
R

(4)

3.

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 100F is

connected to a power supply of 200V.
A di-electric slab of dielectric constant 5 is now
inserted into gap. The work done by the supply
during this process is
(1) 10 J
(2) 16 J
(3) 14 J
(4) 20 J

4.

The equivalent capacitance of combination of

capacitors shown between P and Q is
C
C

(1) C

KQq

(3)

3R
KQq
4R

(1)

C
2

(2) 2C
(4) 3C

One Year Medical 2017

5.

Unit Test-2 (OYWD)

A point charge q is at a distance r from the centre

O of an uncharged spherical conducting shell of
inner and outer radii equal to a and b respectively,
if (r<a) then potential at the centre is

6.

7.

q 1 1 1

4 0 r a b

(2)

q
4 0 r

(3)

q
4 0

(4)

q
4 0

1 1 1

a b r

Qr
R

(2)

(3)

2QR
r

(4) Q

10V

N
A

QR
r

(2) 7.5V, 2.5V

(4) 7.5V, 2.5V

11. Two identical large metal plates each having

identical face area are given charges +q1 and +q2
respectively. If these plates are arranged adjacent
to each other to form a capacitor of capacitance C,
then potential difference between these plates is
(q1 > q2)
(1)

q1 q2
C

(2)

(3)

q1 q2
4C

(4)

30

10cms

(1) 50 N/C
(3) 200 N/C

(1) 10V, 0V
(3) 5V, 5V

90V
80V
70V
60V
50V
x

B
C

If the figure shows parallel equipotential surfaces

which are at same separation, then the magnitude
of electric field is
y

2C

10. Four identical capacitors are connected in series

with a 10V battery as shown. The point N is
earthed. The potential of point A and B are

There are two concentric hollow conducting

spherical shell of radii r and R (R>r). The charge
on the outer shell is Q. What charge should be
given to the inner shell, so that the potential at a
point P, at a distance 2R from the common centre,
is zero?
(1)

In the arrangement shown the battery is

disconnected and dielectric slab of dielectric
constant K is inserted between the plates of
capacitor with capacitance C so as to completely
fill the space. What is the new potential difference
acorss capacitor with capacitance 2C.?
(1) zero
(2) V
V
3V
(3)
(4)

2K
K 2

r
q
a

(1)

1 1 1

r a b

V
9.

q1 q2
2C

2 q1 q2
C
S

(2) 100 N/C

(4) 400 N/C

12.

8.

An electric field is given by E y i x j N/C. The

work done in mov ing a 1C charge f rom

With reference to given circuit diagram, the circuit

was initially at steady state. If the switch S is now
closed. The heat generated in connecting wires will
be

rA 2 i 2 j m to rB 4 i j m is

(1) 4 J
(2) 4 J

(3) 8 J

E2C
2
3E2C
(3)
2
(1)

(4) zero

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2)

(2) 2E2C
(4) zero

One Year Medical 2017

Unit Test-2 (OYWD)

4
times its
3
d
original value if a dielectric slab of thickness t
2
is inserted between the plates (d-separation
between the plates). The dielectric constant of the
slab is

17. Self potential energy of a uniformly charged Nonconducting sphere having charge q and radius R is

13. Capacitance of a capacitor becomes

d
4

1 q2
8 0 R
1 q2
.
(3)
4 0 R

(2)

18. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices

of a right angled isosceles triangle as shown. Net
electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q
is equal to

d
4

(1) 2
(3) 6

1
3 q2

4 0 5 R
1
3q

(4)
4 0 5 R

(1)

(2) 4
(4) 8

Q
a

14. The capacitance of capacitor with two large parallel

plates of plate area A 1 and A2 (A1 < A2) at a
distance d is
A2

(1)

A1

A
(1) 0 1
d
A A2
(3) 0 1
d

(2)

2 2
(4) +q

20. The work done in moving an electron of charge e and

mass m from A to B along the circular path shown
by arrow in the vertical plane in field of point charge
Q is (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

4F

A
4F

(3)

3 5 F
2 20 F

4F

(2)
(4)

1 2 5 F
2 5 F

Q +
r

(1) 2mgr

16. For the circuit shown in figure, potential difference

across plate of capacitor 4F, is

(3) 2mgr

12V

4 F

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4V
2V
8V
10 V

2q

19. At one point on the axis of an electric dipole

(1) The electric field E is zero
(2) The electric potential V is zero
(3) Neither E nor V is zero
(4) Both E and V is zero

A
(2) 0 2
d
A1 A 2
(4) 0
d

15. With reference to given circuit diagram, find the

equivalent capacitance of infinite ladder network
between points A and B if each of the capacitors
used is of 4F.

(1)

1 2
(3) 2q
d

+q

+q

(2)
2Qe
r

2Qe
r

(4) zero

21. In an electron gun, electrons are accelerated through

a potential difference of V Volt beginning from rest.
Taking electric charge and mass to be respectively
e and m, the maximum velocity attained by them is

8F

6V

2eV
m
2m
(3)
eV

(1)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(3)

2eV
m
2
V
(4)
2lm

(2)

One Year Medical 2017

Unit Test-2 (OYWD)

22. Capacity of an isolated conducting sphere is

increased n times when it is enclosed by an
earthed concentric conducting shell. The ratio of
their radii (outer : inner) is

(1)

n2
n 1

(2)

(3)

2n
2n
1

2n 1
(4)

n1

n
n 1

CHEMISTRY
28. At 50C the total vapour pressure of a solution
containing 1 mole of A and 2 moles of B is 300
mm of Hg. When 1 more mole of A is added to the
solution, the total vapour pressure increases to
400mm of Hg. What will be the vapour pressure of
pure liquid A (in mm of Hg unit) (consider A and B
forming an ideal solution)?
(1) 700
(2) 100
(3) 500
(4) 400

23. For [CrCl3.x NH3], elevation in boiling point of one

molal solution is triple of one molal aqueous
solution of urea. Assuming 100% ionisation of
complex molecule, what will be the value of x?
[Co-ordination number of Cr3+ = 06]
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
24. The mass of glucose that would be dissolved in 50g
of water in order to produce the same lowering of
vapour pressure as it is produced by dissolving 1g
of urea in the same quantity of water is
(1) 1 g
(2) 3 g
(3) 6 g
(4) 18 g

29. The vapour pressure of a solution of two liquids,

A (P = 80 mm of Hg, XA = 0.4) and B (P = 120
mm of Hg. XB = 0.6) is found to be 100 mm. It
shows that the solution exhibits
(1) ve deviation from ideal behaviour
(2) + ve deviation from ideal behaviour
(3) Ideal behaviour
(4) Cant be predicted as data is insufficient

25. 3g urea is dissolved in 45g of water. The relative

lowering of vapour pressure is
(1) 0.05
(2) 0.04
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.01

30. Which liquid pair form minimum boiling Azeotrope?

(1) Acetone & chloroform (2) Benzene & methanol

26. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) A solution of water and ethanol is ideal in
nature
(2) Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solution
(3) Evaporation can take place only at the boiling
point
(4) Intermolecular interactions are negligible in an
ideal solution

(3) Water & Nitric Acid

31. The Given graph shows variation of vapour pressure

with temperature for solvent and its solution with a
non volatile electrolyte. Curve corresponding to
solvent and solution respectively
(A) (B)

1 atm
our
Vapsure
s
pre

27. The ratio of vapour pressure of two miscible liquids

A and B in pure state are in the ratio 1:3
respectively at a temperature, nA mole A and nB
mole of B are mixed to form an ideal solution. If
the ratio of mole of A and B in vapour phase was
found to be 4:3. The ratio of mole of A and B in
which they are mixed was?
4
(1)
5

(3)

2
3

(1) (A), (B)

(3) (A), (A)

Temperature
(2) (B), (A)
(4) (B), (B)

32. The solubility of a gas in water at 300K under a

pressure of 100 atm is 4103 kg/L1. Therefore,
the mass of the gas dissolved in kg, in 250ml of
water under a pressure of 250 atm and 300K is
(1) 2.5103
(2) 2.0103
(3) 1.25103
(4) 5.0103

(2) 4

(4)

(4) Water & HCl

1
3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(4)

One Year Medical 2017

Unit Test-2 (OYWD)

37. A solute forms a pentamer when dissolved in a

solvent. The Vant Hoff factor for the solute will be
(consider 100% degree of association)
(1) 0.2
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.5

33. Solubility of O2 gas in water follows Henrys Law.

W hen the solubility is plotted against partial
pressure as a definite temperature, the following
plot is obtained
T4

Solubility
of O2 in
water

T3
T2
T1

38. The boiling point of equimolal aqueous solution will

be highest for

Partial pressure
of O2

(2) Ca(NO3)

(3) La(NO3)

(4) C6H12O6

39. Which Thermodynamic relation is true regarding an

Ideal solution?
(1) mixH = ve
(2) mixV = ve
(3) mixH = 0
(4) mixS = 0

Which of the following sequence of temperature is

correct?
(1) T1=T2=T3=T4
(2) T1>T2>T3>T4
(3) T1<T2<T3<T4
(4) T1>T2<T3>T4

40. The plot of vapour pressure vs. temperature is given

below

34. Two solutions S1 and S2 containing 0.1 M NaCl

(aq) and 0.05 M BaCl 2 (aq) are separated by
semipermeable membrane. Which among the
following statement is correct?
S1
0.1M
NaCl

(1) C6H5NH3Cl

our
Vapsure
s
pre

P0
P1
P2

nt
ve
sol
re
u
-I
B P
on
luti - II
d
o
li
S
So D
on
luti
C
So

S2
0.05M
BaCl2

T0, T1, T2
represents
freezing point

T2 T1 T0
Temperature

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

W hich of the f ollowing statement is correct

regardling the freezing point?
(1) Solution - I has got lowest freezing point
(2) Solution - II has got lowest freezing point
(3) Both solution - I and II got same freezing point
(4) Pure solvent has got lowest freezing point

S1 and S2 are isotonic

S1 is hypertonic while S2 is hypotonic
S1 is hypotonic while S2 is hypertonic
Osmosis will take place from S1 to S2

35. A certain non-volatile substance (Non-electrolyte)

contains 40%C, 6.7%H, 53.3%O. An aqueous
solution containing 5% by mass of the solute boils
at 100.15C. Molecular formula of the compound is
K b 0.52 K m
(1) CH2O
(2) C2H4O2
(3) C6H12O6
(4) C16H22O11

41. Which one of the following solution shows +ve

deviation from Raoults law?
(1) Acetone-Aniline
(2) Water-HCl
(3) CHCl3-C6H6
(4) CCl4-CHCl3
42. According to William Henry the solubility of a gas
in liquid depends on the pressure of the gas. If m
is the molality of the gas and P is its pressure
then which of the following plot is in accordance
with the law?

36. A solution containing 0.1g of a nonvolatile organic

substance P (molecular mass 100) in 100g of
benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by
0.2C, while a solution containing 0.1g of another
non-volatile substance Q in the same amount of
benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by
0.4C. What is the ratio of molecular masses of P
and Q?
(1) 1:2
(2) 2:1
(3) 1:4
(4) 4:1

(1)

(2)

log m

log m

log p

(3)

(4)

log m

log p

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(5)

log p
log m

log p

One Year Medical 2017

Unit Test-2 (OYWD)

43. When a solution containing non-volatile solute is

diluted with water
(1) Its osmotic pressure increases
(2) Its boiling point increases
(3) Its freezing point decreases
(4) Its vapour pressure increases

(1) 75%
(3) 25%

(2) 50%
(4) 85%

45. W hich of the following is used as synthetic

semipermeable membrane?
(1) Eggs membrane
(2) Gelatinous Cu2[Fe(CN)6]
(3) Parchsement paper
(4) All of these

44. 0.004M Na2SO 4 solution is isotonic with 0.01M

glucose, degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is

BIOLOGY
46. Which one is typical ovule in angiosperms?
(1) Orthotropous
(2) Anatropous
(3) Amphitropous
(4) Circinotropous

(c) Out of 4 megaspores from megospore mother

cell, the functional one remains at micropylar
end only.
(d) Single megaspore mother cell may produce a
monosporic, bisporic or tetrasporic embryo sac

47. Read the statements carefully and find the correct

option
(A) Typical female gametophyte in angiosperms is
monosporic type
(B) Largest cell in embryo sac is egg
(C) Egg apparatus is formed by one egg and two
synergids
(D) Secondary nucleus in mature embryo sac is
diploid

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

51. -cellulosic fibrous thickening is present in/on

(1) Epidermis
(2) Tapetum
(3) Inner tangential wall of endothecium
(4) Outer tangential wall of endothecium

(E) Vegetative cells of embryosac are synergids

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Both a and b
c and d
a and d
Only c

A, B, C are correct
B, C, D are correct
A, C, D are correct
B and E are correct

52. Choose the correct match between column A and

B
A
B

48. In a monosporic embryo sac the number of mitotic

generation which occur before its maturity is
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
49. Find the odd one out with respect to number of
ovules
(1) Papaya
(2) Wheat
(3) Rice
(4) Mango

a.

Synergid

i)

Vegetative cell

b.

Egg

ii)

Nucleus at micropylar end

c.

Antipodal cell iii) Develops

into
endosperm cell

d.

Central cell

primary

iv) Nucleus at chalazal end

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
53. Find how many are triploid structures in the given
box?

50. Which one is incorrect regarding megaspore

mother cell?
(a) Has dense cytoplasm
(b) Prominent nucleus

Integument, Placenta,PEN,Embryo,
Aleurone layer, Endosperm, Perisperm
(1) 6
(3) 4

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(6)

(2) 5
(4) 3

One Year Medical 2017

Unit Test-2 (OYWD)

54. Incompatible pollen on stigma may be rejected by

the later, if the pollen is from _____ species or
from _____ plant
(1) Same, other
(2) Other, same
(3) Other, different
(4) More than one option is correct

Degenerating
synergids

Degenerating
Antipodals

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

55. How many statements are incorrect?

(A) Cleistogamy leads to limited genetic diversity
(B) Geitonogamy is not prevented in monoecious
plants
(C) Xenogamy always needs human interference
(D) Cleistogamous flowers are bisexual

Both are Haploids

Both are Diploids
a-Triploid and b-Diploid
a-Triploid and b-Haploid

62. Which structure gives mechanical and chemical

guidance to reach pollen tube to the ovule?
(1) Filiform apparatus
(2) Obturator
(3) Placenta
(4) Style

(E) Cleistogamy occurs in China rose

(1) 5
(3) 3

63. White kernel of coconut is a common example of

(1) Free nuclear endosperm
(2) Cellular endosperm
(3) Helobial endosperm
(4) More than one option is correct

(2) 4
(4) 2

56. Choose odd one with respect to inbreeding devices

(1) Homogamy
(2) Cleistogamy
(3) Monocliny
(4) Dicliny

64. Find the incorrect match

Plant
Nature of endosperm
(1) Maize
Proteinaceous
(2) Date palm
Hemicellulosic
(3) Oenothera
Triploid endosperm
(4) Castor
Oily endosperm
65. Plants in which both cleistogamous as well as
chasmogamous flowers are not found is :
(1) Commelina
(2) Oxalis
(3) Viola
(4) Arachis

57. Number of gametes involved in double fertilization

is
(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
58. Choose the incorrect match
A
B
(1) Anemophily
Feathery stigma
(2) Zostera
Epihydrophily
(3) Adansonia
Chiropterophily
(4) Santalum
Ophiophily
59. Which one is not a floral reward for pollinator?
(1) Nectar
(2) Pollen
(3) Fruit
(4) Safe place to lay
eggs

66. Find the incorrect match with respect to monocot

embryo
A
B
(1) Scutellum
Cotyledon
(2) Epiblast
Rudiment of 2nd cotyledon
(3) Coleorhiza
Plumule
(4) Tigellum
Embryonic axis

60. Which one is a genetic mechanism to prevent self

pollination?
(1) Dicliny
(2) Dichogamy
(3) Self sterility
(4) Heterogamy

67. Seed viability is the highest in

(1) Lupinus arcticus
(2) Lotus
(3) Phoenix dactylifera (4) Both (1) and (3)

61. Find ploidy of a and b from given figure after double

fertilisation

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(7)

One Year Medical 2017

Unit Test-2 (OYWD)

68. Polyembryony in orange is due to contribution of

(1) Endosperm, Integument and Endosperm
(2) Diploid zygote, Nucellus and Integument
(3) Diploid zygote, Endosperm and Nucellus
(4) Diploid egg, Endosperm and Integument

74. Embryonic endoderm is formed from

(1) Hypoblast
(2) Epiblast
(3) Amnioblast
(4) Primitive streak
75. How many of the following are endodermal in origin?
(a) Heart
(b) Mid gut
(c) Lungs
(d) Kidney
(e) Pancreas
(f) Reproductive system
(g) Blood vessels
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7

69. Fertilization of ovum occurs in the

(1) Uterine cavity
(2) Isthmus
(3) Ampullary - isthmic junction
(4) Infundibulum
70. Acrosomal reaction is the
(1) Fusion of the plasma membrane of sperm and
ovum
(2) Digestion of only acrosomal part of sperm
during its encounter with the ovum
(3) Breaking of acrosomal membrane and release
of enzymes to dissolve corona radiata and
zona pellucida layer permitting the sperm to
fuse with the oolemma of ovum
(4) Contact of acrosome with the egg leading to
the formation of cone of reception

76. How many of the following statements are correct

about placenta?
(i) Acts as an endocrine gland
(ii) Provides a platform for mixing of maternal and
foetal blood
(iii) Helps in transport of nutrients
(iv) Secretes antibodies for protection against small
pox, diptheria, measles, etc.
(v) Secretes relaxin that facilitates parturition
(1) (i), (iii), (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) All are correct

71. Which of the following provides fast block to

prevent polyspermy during fertilization?
(1) Influx of Ca2+
(2) Formation of the fertilization cone
(3) Depolarisation of membrane of ovum
(4) Release of cortical granules into the perivitelline
space of ovum

77. Which of the following best defines a teratogen?

(1) A life support system which protects the foetus
(2) Hormone secreted during pregnancy
(3) An agent which stimulates organogenesis in
foetus
(4) A factor that causes malformations of organs
in the developing embryo

72. Entry of the sperm into the ovum leads to

breakdown of (A)____ and turning on (B)____
which results in the completion of meiosis II and
formation of (C)____ and a haploid (D)____.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(1)

MPF

APC

Second polar body

Ootid

(2)

ZP3

MPF

Second polar body

Ovum

(3)

Acrosome Acrosin Fertilization

Zygote

(4)

Zona
Pellucida

Second
polar body

Oocyte First polar body

78. Plasma samples were collected from a woman in

her third trimester of pregnancy. How many of the
following hormonal levels will be higher than
normal?
(a) Progesterone
(b) hPL
(c) Secretin
(d) Thyroxine
(e) Insulin
(f) Cortisol
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 4

(D)

79. Human placenta is

(1) Haemochorial, metadiscoidal, deciduous
(2) Endotheliochorial, discoidal, deciduous
(3) Epitheliochorial, zonary, non-deciduous
(4) Haemochorial, discoidal, non-deciduous

73. All of the following structures are necessary for

blastocyst implantation except
(1) Endometrium
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Syncytiotrophoblast (4) Cytotrophoblast

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(8)

One Year Medical 2017

Unit Test-2 (OYWD)

80. Excretion of foetal waste is facilitated by

(1) Amnion
(2) Trophoblast
(3) Placenta
(4) Yolk sac

85. W hich of the f ollowing is incorrect about

colostrum?
(1) Contains various immunological components
(2) Contains high quantities of carbohydrate, fat
and vitamin C
(3) Rich in calories
(4) Secreted for few days after parturition

81. Eggs of human are

(1) Mesolecithal, isolecithal and determinate
(2) Megalecithal, telolecithal and indeterminate
(3) Alecithal, isolecithal and indeterminate
(4) Mesolecithal, telolecithal and determinate

86. Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine

mechanism which involves several hormones
except
(1) Prolactin
(2) Estrogen
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Cortisol

b:Sperm

82.

c:Zone pellucida

Ovum

a:Cells of corona radiata

87. Foetal Ejection Reflex is initiated by

(1) Fully developed foetus only
(2) Fully developed placenta only
(3) Fully developed placenta and foetus
(4) Completion of 266 days of gestation

d:Perivitelline space

Select the enzyme responsible for digestion of (c)

and facilitating the fusion of (b) with ovum.
(1) ZP3
(2) Acrosin
(3) Sperm lysin
(4) Corona Penetrating Enzyme

88. First movement of foetus and appearance of hair

on head is observed during
(1) Second month
(2) Third month
(3) Fifth month
(4) Eighth month
89. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Milk ejecting hormone :
(2) Gravidex hormone
:
(3) Birth hormone
:
(4) Pregnancy hormone :

83. Which of the following pairs of hormones are

responsible for production and ejection of milk
respectively?
(1) Prolactin and oxytocin
(2) Estrogen and prolactin
(3) Oestrogen and progesterone
(4) Oxytocin and relaxin

Oxytocin
Progesterone
Oxytocin
Progesterone

90. Effect of teratogens is maximum in

(1) First trimester
(2) Second trimester
(3) Third trimester
(4) Both second and third trimester

84. Which of the following represents the secondary

egg membrane in human?
(1) Albumen
(2) Vitelline membrane
(3) Corona radiata
(4) Zona pellucida

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(9)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(10)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(11)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(12)