Final Exam

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____

____

____

____

____

1. Offspring that result from crosses between parents with different traits
a. are true-breeding.
c. make up the parental generation.
b. make up the F2 generation.
d. are called hybrids.
2. The chemical factors that determine traits are called
a. alleles.
c. genes.
b. traits.
d. characters.
3. Gregor Mendel concluded that traits are
a. not inherited by offspring.
b. inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.
c. determined by dominant factors only.
d. determined by recessive factors only.
4. A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F 1 plant will be tall is
a. 25%.
c. 75%.
b. 50%.
d. 100%.
5. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
a. hybrid.
c. heterozygous.
b. homozygous.
d. dominant.

Tt
T

TT

Tt

TT

Tt

TT

Tall

Short

Figure 111
____

6. In the Punnett square shown in Figure 111, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from
the cross?
a. About half are expected to be short.
c. About half are expected to be tall.
b. All are expected to be short.
d. All are expected to be tall.

____

____

____

____

____

____

____

____

7. Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are
called
a. multiple alleles.
c. polygenic inheritance.
b. incomplete dominance.
d. multiple genes.
8. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a white chicken (WW) produces all speckled offspring (BBWW). This
type of inheritance is known as
a. incomplete dominance.
c. codominance.
b. polygenic inheritance.
d. multiple alleles.
9. Variation in human skin color is an example of
a. incomplete dominance.
c. polygenic traits.
b. codominance.
d. multiple alleles.
10. Gregor Mendels principles of genetics apply to
a. plants only.
c. pea plants only.
b. animals only.
d. all organisms.
11. Why did Thomas Hunt Morgan use fruit flies in his studies?
a. Fruit flies produce a large number of offspring.
b. Fruit flies take a long time to produce offspring.
c. Fruit flies share certain characteristics with pea plants.
d. Fruit flies have a long lifespan.
12. If an organisms diploid number is 12, its haploid number is
a. 12.
c. 24.
b. 6.
d. 3.
13. Gametes have
a. homologous chromosomes.
b. twice the number of chromosomes found in body cells.
c. two sets of chromosomes.
d. one allele for each gene.
14. Gametes are produced by the process of
a. mitosis.
c. crossing-over.
b. meiosis.
d. replication.

Figure 113
____ 15. What is shown in Figure 113?
a. independent assortment
c. crossing-over
b. anaphase I of meiosis
d. replication
____ 16. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of
a. diploid cells.
c. 2N daughter cells.

b. haploid cells.
d. body cells.
____ 17. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of
a. two genetically identical cells.
c. four genetically identical cells.
b. four genetically different cells.
d. two genetically different cells.
____ 18. Averys experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by
a. RNA.
c. proteins.
b. DNA.
d. carbohydrates.
____ 19. What did Griffith observe when he injected a mixture of heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria and live
harmless bacteria into mice?
a. The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
b. The mice developed pneumonia.
c. The harmless bacteria died.
d. The mice were unaffected.

Figure 121
____ 20. Figure 121 shows the structure of a(an)
a. DNA molecule.
c. RNA molecule.
b. amino acid.
d. protein.
____ 21. Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a. ribose + phosphate group + thymine
b. ribose + phosphate group + uracil
c. deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
____ 22. Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of
a. adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine molecules.
b. pyrimidines in DNA is about equal to the percentage of purines.
c. purines in DNA is much greater than the percentage of pyrimidines.
d. cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of guanine molecules.
____ 23. In eukaryotes, DNA
a. is located in the nucleus.
c. is located in the ribosomes.
b. floats freely in the cytoplasm.
d. is circular.
____ 24. RNA contains the sugar
a. ribose.
c. glucose.
b. deoxyribose.
d. lactose.
____ 25. Unlike DNA, RNA contains

a. adenine.
c. phosphate groups.
b. uracil.
d. thymine.
____ 26. Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?
a. ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
b. deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
c. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine
d. phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine
____ 27. How many main types of RNA are there?
a. 1
c. hundreds
b. 3
d. thousands
____ 28. What is produced during transcription?
a. RNA molecules
c. RNA polymerase
b. DNA molecules
d. proteins

Figure 122
____ 29. What does Figure 122 show?
a. anticodons
b. the order in which amino acids are linked
c. the code for splicing mRNA
d. the genetic code
____ 30. How many bases are needed to specify three amino acids?
a. 3
c. 9
b. 6
d. 12
____ 31. Why is it possible for an amino acid to be specified by more than one kind of codon?
a. Some codons have the same sequence of nucleotides.
b. There are 64 different kinds of codons but only 20 amino acids.
c. Some codons do not specify an amino acid.
d. The codon AUG codes for the amino acid methionine and serves as the start codon for
protein synthesis.

____ 32. What happens during the process of translation?

a. Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
b. The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
c. Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
d. Copies of DNA molecules are made.
____ 33. Genes contain instructions for assembling
a. purines.
c. proteins.
b. nucleosomes.
d. pyrimidines.
____ 34. Which type of RNA functions as a blueprint of the genetic code?
a. rRNA
c. mRNA
b. tRNA
d. RNA polymerase
____ 35. A mutation that involves one or a few nucleotides is called a(an)
a. chromosomal mutation.
c. point mutation.
b. inversion.
d. translocation.
____ 36. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?
a. 2
c. 44
b. 23
d. 46
____ 37. Which of the following are shown in a karyotype?
a. homologous chromosomes
c. autosomes
b. sex chromosomes
d. all of the above
____ 38. In humans, a male has
a. one X chromosome only.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
d. two Y chromosomes.
____ 39. Human females produce egg cells that have
a. one X chromosome.
c. one X or one Y chromosome.
b. two X chromosomes.
d. one X and one Y chromosome.
____ 40. What is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female?
a. 10%
c. 50%
b. 25%
d. 75%
____ 41. A human female inherits
a. two copies of every gene located on the X chromosome.
b. twice as many sex chromosomes as a human male inherits.
c. one copy of every gene located on the Y chromosome.
d. all of the same genes that a human male inherits.
____ 42. Which of the following is caused by a dominant allele?
a. Huntington disease
c. Tay-Sachs disease
b. PKU
d. none of the above
____ 43. Which of the following genotypes result in the same phenotype?
a. IAIA and IAIB
c. IBIB and IAIB
B B
B
b. I I and I i
d. IBi and ii
____ 44. If a man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B produce an offspring, what might be the
offsprings blood type?
a. AB or O
c. A, B, AB, or O
b. A, B, or O
d. AB only
____ 45. Most sex-linked genes are located on
a. the autosomes.

____ 46.

____ 47.

____ 48.

____ 49.

____ 50.

____ 51.

____ 52.

____ 53.

____ 54.

____ 55.

b. the X chromosome only.

c. the Y chromosome only.
d. both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.
Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because
a. fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only.
b. the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome.
c. the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome.
d. males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Females cannot have hemophilia.
b. A colorblind boy received the allele for colorblindness from his mother.
c. A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
d. The mother of a colorblind boy must be colorblind.
Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes represents a female?
a. XY
c. XXXY
b. XXY
d. XX
Darwin noticed that many organisms seemed well suited to
a. being preserved as fossils.
b. providing humans with food.
c. surviving in the environment they inhabited.
d. swimming from South America to the Galapagos Islands.
The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the Galpagos Islands displayed different structural
adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the
a. similarities of the birds embryos.
c. length of the birds necks.
b. birds different-shaped beaks.
d. number of eggs in each birds nest.
In an experiment, suppose that the wings of fruit flies were clipped short for fifty generations. The fifty-first
generation emerged with normal-length wings. This observation would tend to disprove the idea that
evolution is based on
a. inheritance of natural variations.
b. inheritance of acquired characteristics.
c. natural selection.
d. survival of the fittest.
In 1859, Charles Darwin published his revolutionary scientific ideas in a work titled
a. Principles of Geology.
b. Essay on the Principle of Population.
c. Evolution in Malaysia.
d. On the Origin of Species.
The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. Most
biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of
a. the needs of the organisms.
c. the struggle for existence.
b. a common ancestor.
d. the inheritance of acquired traits.
Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record as
a. evidence that Earth was thousands of years old.
b. a detailed record of evolution.
c. interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species.
d. evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.
Which statement is in agreement with Darwins theory of evolution?
a. More offspring are produced than can possibly survive.
b. The organisms that are the fittest are always largest and strongest.

____ 56.

____ 57.

____ 58.

____ 59.

____ 60.

____ 61.

____ 62.

____ 63.

____ 64.

c. The number of offspring is not related to fitness.

d. Acquired characteristics that are inherited are the cause of evolution.
Most fossils form in
a. rusty water.
c. sedimentary rock.
b. volcanic rock.
d. the sap of ancient trees.
The fossil record shows that
a. most organisms that ever lived on Earth are now extinct.
b. fossils occur in a particular order.
c. modern organisms have unicellular ancestors.
d. all of the above
After Precambrian Time, the basic divisions of the geologic time scale, from larger to smaller are
a. eras and periods.
c. relative and absolute dates.
b. periods and eras.
d. billions of years and millions of years.
The Mesozoic Era occurred
a. before Precambrian Time.
c. after the Paleozoic Era.
b. during Precambrian Time.
d. after the Cenozoic Era.
Earths most recent era is the
a. Paleozoic.
c. Cenozoic.
b. Mesozoic.
d. Precambrian.
Fossilized evidence of Earths first forms of life would consist of
a. vertebrates from the Precambrian.
c. eukaryotes from the Precambrian.
b. invertebrates from the Precambrian.
d. prokaryotes from the Precambrian.
Which of these labels for fossils in a museum display contains an error?
a. Dinosaur (Middle Mesozoic)
b. Early Mammal (Middle Paleozoic)
c. Early Human (Late Cenozoic)
d. Early Marine Invertebrate (Early Paleozoic)
Which system regulates and controls growth, development, and metabolism?
a. endocrine system
c. integumentary system
b. lymphatic system
d. skeletal system
How many organ systems make up the human body?
a. 4
c. 8
b. 5
d. 11

Modified True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the statement true.
____ 65. A trait is a specific characteristic that varies from one individual to another. _________________________
____ 66. An organism with a dominant allele for a particular form of a trait will sometimes exhibit that trait.
_________________________
____ 67. The probability that a gamete produced by a pea plant heterozygous for stem height (Tt) will contain the
recessive allele is 100%. _________________________
____ 68. If an organism has 16 chromosomes in each of its egg cells, the organisms diploid number is 32.
_________________________
____ 69. Mitosis results in two cells, whereas meiosis results in one cell. _________________________
____ 70. In a human karyotype, 44 of the chromosomes are autosomes. _________________________

____ 71. In a human karyotype, 23 chromosome pairs are similar in size and shape. _________________________
____ 72. In humans, the mother determines the sex of the offspring. _________________________
____ 73. A person who has Down syndrome has two copies of chromosome 21. _________________________
____ 74. In Charles Darwins time, many people thought that Earth and its living things were formed about a few
thousand years ago. _________________________
____ 75. The fossil record, although incomplete, provides evidence about the history of life and illustrates that most
species have remained unchanged over time. _________________________

Final Exam
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
OBJ:
2. ANS:
OBJ:
3. ANS:
OBJ:
4. ANS:
OBJ:
5. ANS:
OBJ:
6. ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
7. ANS:
OBJ:
8. ANS:
OBJ:
9. ANS:
OBJ:
10. ANS:
OBJ:
11. ANS:
OBJ:
12. ANS:
OBJ:
13. ANS:
OBJ:
14. ANS:
OBJ:
15. ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
16. ANS:
OBJ:
17. ANS:
OBJ:
18. ANS:
OBJ:
19. ANS:
OBJ:
20. ANS:
OBJ:
21. ANS:

D
11.1.1
C
11.1.2
B
11.1.2
B
11.2.1
B
11.2.2
D
11.2.2
application
B
11.3.2
C
11.3.2
C
11.3.2
D
11.3.3
A
11.3.3
B
11.4.1
D
11.4.1
B
11.4.2
C
11.4.2
application
B
11.4.3
B
11.4.3
B
12.1.1
B
12.1.1
A
12.1.2
D

PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:

1
II
1
II
1
II
1
I | A.2
1
I
1
I

DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:

L2
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.5.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.2.e
KEY:
L3
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L3
REF:
BL.3.a | BL.2.g

p. 264
application
p. 265
knowledge
p. 265
comprehension
p. 269
synthesis
p. 268
knowledge
p. 268

PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:

1
III
1
III
1
III
1
III
1
III
1
C.1.f
1
C.1.f
1
C.1.f
1
C.1.f

DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
KEY:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:

L1
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.3
KEY:
L2
REF:
comprehension
L2
REF:
BL.2.a
KEY:
L3
REF:
BL.2.a
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.2.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.2.a | BL.5.a

p. 272
knowledge
p. 272
comprehension
p. 273
application
p. 274
knowledge
p. 274

PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:
PTS:

1
C.1.f
1
C.1.f
1
B.2 | G.3
1
B.2 | G.3
1
B.2 | C.2.a
1

DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:

L1
BL.2.a
L2
BL.2.a
L1
BL.5.e
L2
BL.5.e
L1
BL.5.a
L2

p. 278
knowledge
p. 278
application
p. 289
knowledge
p. 288
comprehension
p. 294
knowledge
p. 291

REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:
REF:

p. 275
application
p. 275
synthesis
p. 276
knowledge
p. 276 | p. 277

22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.

OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:

12.1.2
NAT:
B
PTS:
12.1.2
NAT:
A
PTS:
12.2.1
NAT:
A
PTS:
12.3.1
NAT:
B
PTS:
12.3.1
NAT:
C
PTS:
12.3.1
NAT:
B
PTS:
12.3.2
NAT:
A
PTS:
12.3.3
NAT:
knowledge
D
PTS:
12.3.4
NAT:
C
PTS:
12.3.4
NAT:
comprehension
B
PTS:
12.3.4
NAT:
synthesis
B
PTS:
12.3.5
NAT:
C
PTS:
12.3.6
NAT:
C
PTS:
12.3.6
NAT:
comprehension
C
PTS:
12.4.1
NAT:
knowledge
D
PTS:
14.1.1
NAT:
knowledge
D
PTS:
14.1.1
NAT:
comprehension
C
PTS:
14.1.2
NAT:
knowledge
A
PTS:
14.1.2
NAT:
application
C
PTS:
14.1.2
NAT:
A
PTS:

B.2 | C.2.a
1
B.2 | C.2.a
1
I | C.2.a
1
V | C.2.a
1
V | C.2.a
1
V | C.2.a
1
V | C.2.a
1
II

STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:

BL.5.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.5.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.1.c
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.5.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.5.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.5.a
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.5.a
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.5.a | BL.5.b

1
C.1.c | C.2.a
1
C.1.c | C.2.a

DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:

L1
REF: p. 303
BL.4.b
KEY: knowledge
L2
REF: p. 302
BL.4.c | BL.4.b

1
C.1.c | C.2.a

DIF: L3
REF: p. 303
STA: BL.4.c | BL.4.b

1
I
1
C.1.c | C.2.c
1
C.1.c | C.2.c

DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:

1
C.1.d

DIF: L1
REF: p. 307
STA: BL.4.c | BL.5.a

1
C.2.a | C.2.c

DIF: L1
REF: p. 341
STA: BL.3.d | BL.3.a

1
C.2.a | C.2.c

DIF: L2
REF: p. 341
STA: BL.3.d | BL.2.f | BL.3.a

1
C.2.a | C.2.c

DIF: L1
REF: p. 341
STA: BL.3.a | BL.2.f

1
C.2.a | C.2.c

DIF: L2
REF: p. 342
STA: BL.3.a | BL.2.f

1
C.2.a | C.2.c
1

DIF: L2
STA: BL.3
DIF: L3

L2
REF:
BL.4.a
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.4
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.5.a | BL.4.a

analysis
p. 294
analysis
p. 295
comprehension
p. 300
knowledge
p. 300
comprehension
p. 300
analysis
p. 300
knowledge
p. 301

p. 304
comprehension
p. 306
knowledge
p. 306

REF: p. 342
KEY: comprehension
REF: p. 341

42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.

OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
KEY:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:

14.1.2
NAT:
A
PTS:
14.1.4
NAT:
B
PTS:
14.1.4
NAT:
application
C
PTS:
14.1.4
NAT:
B
PTS:
14.2.2
NAT:
C
PTS:
14.2.2
NAT:
B
PTS:
14.2.2
NAT:
D
PTS:
14.2.4
NAT:
C
PTS:
15.1.1
NAT:
B
PTS:
15.1.1
NAT:
comprehension
B
PTS:
15.2.2
NAT:
D
PTS:
15.3.1
NAT:
knowledge
B
PTS:
15.3.4
NAT:
analysis
B
PTS:
15.3.4
NAT:
knowledge
A
PTS:
15.3.5
NAT:
application
C
PTS:
17.1.1
NAT:
D
PTS:
17.1.1
NAT:
A
PTS:
17.1.3
NAT:
C
PTS:
17.1.3
NAT:
C
PTS:
17.1.3
NAT:
D
PTS:
17.1.3
NAT:
B
PTS:
17.1.3
NAT:

C.2.a | C.2.c
1
C.1.d | C.2.c
1
C.1.d | C.2.c

STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:

BL.4
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.3.a | BL.2.g

synthesis
p. 346
knowledge
p. 344

1
C.1.d | C.2.c
1
C.1.d
1
C.1.d
1
C.1.d
1
C.1.d
1
C.3.b | D.3
1
C.3.b | D.3

DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
KEY:
DIF:
STA:

L2
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L1
REF:
BL.2.f
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L3
REF:
BL.3.a
KEY:
L2
REF:
BL.2.f
KEY:
L1
REF:
knowledge
L2
REF:
BL.7.d | BL.6.g

p. 344
analysis
p. 350
knowledge
p. 350
analysis
p. 350
evaluation
p. 352
application
p. 370
p. 372

1
DIF: L3
C.3.b | D.3
STA: BL.8 | BL.7
1
DIF: L1
C.3.a | C.3.c | C.3.d

REF:
KEY:
REF:
STA:

1
DIF: L2
C.3.a | C.3.c | C.3.d

REF: p. 382
STA: BL.8.e

1
DIF: L1
C.3.a | C.3.c | C.3.d

REF: p. 382
STA: BL.8.e | BL.8.g

1
DIF: L2
C.3.a | C.3.a | C.3.d | C.6.c

REF: p. 380
STA: BL.8.a | BL.8.b

1
C.3.a | C.3.c
1
C.3.a | C.3.c
1
C.3.a | G.3
1
C.3.a | G.3
1
C.3.a | G.3
1
C.3.a | G.3
1
C.3.a | G.3

REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:

DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:

L1
BL.8.g
L2
BL.8.f
L2
BL.8.g
L1
BL.8.g
L1
BL.8.g
L3
BL.8.g
L3
BL.8.g

p. 376
evaluation
p. 379
BL.8

p. 418
knowledge
p. 417
analysis
p. 421
comprehension
p. 421
knowledge
p. 421
knowledge
p. 421 | p. 422
evaluation
p. 421
analysis

63. ANS:
OBJ:
64. ANS:
OBJ:

A
35.1.1
D
35.1.1

PTS:
NAT:
PTS:
NAT:

1
C.1.f
1
C.1.f

DIF:
STA:
DIF:
STA:

L2
BL.9.c
L1
BL.9

REF:
KEY:
REF:
KEY:

p. 893
comprehension
p. 891
comprehension

MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE
65. ANS:
REF:
KEY:
66. ANS:

T
p. 264
OBJ: 11.1.1
comprehension
F, always

PTS: 1
NAT: G.3
67. ANS: F

PTS: 1
NAT: II

DIF: L2
STA: BL.3

DIF: L2
STA: BL.3.a

REF: p. 265
OBJ: 11.1.3
KEY: comprehension

DIF: L2
NAT: I | A.2

REF:
STA:
PTS:
NAT:

p. 267 | p. 268
BL.3.a
KEY: application
1
DIF: L2
C.1.f
STA: BL.2

REF:
KEY:
PTS:
NAT:

p. 278
knowledge
1
C.2.a | C.2.c

50%
PTS:
OBJ:
68. ANS:
REF:
KEY:
69. ANS:

1
11.2.1
T
p. 275
analysis
F, four cells

PTS:
NAT:
70. ANS:
REF:
KEY:
71. ANS:

1
DIF: L1
C.1.f
STA: BL.2.a
T
p. 341
OBJ: 14.1.1
comprehension
F, 22

OBJ: 11.4.1

OBJ: 11.4.3
DIF: L2
STA: BL.3.a

PTS: 1
NAT: C.2.a | C.2.c
72. ANS: F, father

DIF: L2
STA: BL.3.a

REF: p. 341
OBJ: 14.1.1
KEY: comprehension

PTS: 1
NAT: C.2.a | C.2.c
73. ANS: F, three

DIF: L2
STA: BL.2

REF: p. 342
KEY: application

OBJ: 14.1.2

PTS: 1
NAT: C.1.d
74. ANS: T
REF: p. 373
75. ANS: F
changed
evolved

DIF: L1
STA: BL.2

OBJ: 14.2.4

OBJ: 15.2.1

REF:
KEY:
PTS:
NAT:

DIF: L2

REF: p. 417

PTS: 1

p. 352
knowledge
1
C.3.b | D.3

DIF: L2
KEY: comprehension

OBJ: 17.1.1

NAT: C.3.a | C.3.c

STA: BL.8.g

KEY: comprehension