Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region IV-A (CALABARZON)
Division of Cavite
DEPED MUNICIPALITY OF SILANG
DISTRICT ACHIEVEMENT TEST
SCIENCE AND HEALTH VI
DIRECTIONS: Read each sentence carefully and choose the letter of the correct answer. Write your
answer on your answer sheet.
1. Below is a simple diagram of the heart. Which labeled part/s pump/s blood to the lungs?
A. I
C. III
B. II
D. IV

III
I

II

IV

2. What is the function of the veins?

A. They carry blood away from the heart
B. They carry blood rich in oxygen to the tissues
C. They carry blood from the different parts of the body back to the heart
D. They carry blood containing carbon dioxide from the heart to the lungs
3. Which arrow path traces the flow of the blood that carries carbon dioxide from the body to the
heart and lungs?
A. veins
right auricle
right ventricle
pulmonary arteries
lungs
B. veins
right ventricle
right auricle
pulmonary arteries
lungs
C. pulmonary veins
left auricle
left ventricle
lung
D. pulmonary artery
left auricle
left ventricle
aorta
lungs
4. Which of the following is the function of the circulatory system?
A.
To distribute body cells and tissues
B.
To repair body cells and tissues of the body.
C.
To protect the body from the heat and foreign bodies.
D.
To distribute oxygen and nutrients to body cells and collect their waste.
5. Which of the following is a disease of the heart which develops in a baby before birth?
A. Rheumatic heart disease
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Hemophilia
D. Anemia
6. Why are white blood cells called the soldiers of the body?
A. They protect the body from injury.
B. They destroy bacteria that enter the body.
C. They control the heart from beating too fast.
D. They guard the red cells from becoming too many.

7. Which part of the brain controls the muscular coordination of the body?
A. cerebrum
C. brainstem
B. cerebellum
D. hypothalamus
8. Your new classmate is shy and does not mingle with the group. As anew friend, you help him
meet and find new friends. You invite him to play games with classmates. What needs are
being met?
A.
Mental needs
C.
Social needs
B.
Physical needs
D.
Emotional needs
9. The nervous system is the bodys communication network. The descriptions labelled I-III below
show how the nervous system works. Which of the following description is the correct sequence on
how the nervous system works?
I. The brain processes the messages and sends a response back to other parts of the body
through other nerve cells
II. The nerve cells in the brain receive messages from all over the body
III. Nerves run throughout the body carries message to the brain through the spinal cord
A. I, II,III
C. III, I, II
B. II, I, III
D. III, II, I
10. An object moving quickly towards our face may cause our eyes to blink or shut. Which of the
following functions of the nervous system does this behavior refer to?
A. Learned responses
C. Reflex reactions
B. Short-term memory
D. Stimulus
11. Which part of the nervous system is found throughout the body?
A. neuron
C. vertebrum
B. cerebrum
D. cerebellum
12. In what way does the nervous system function as a two-way communication system in the
body?
A. The brain receives messages through sensory nerves, and sends out messages through
motor nerves.
B. The spinal cord contains bodies of nerve cells where messages to the brain pass through.
C. It has brain that consists of two hemispheres the left and the right hemisphere.
D. It has two vital organs: the brain and the spinal cord.
13. Which of the following best describes an ecosystem?
A. It includes all the living organisms living in a particular area
B. It is a relationship in which two organisms compete for survival
C. It is a relationship among all the plants and animals in the place and their environment
D. It includes all the non-living components of a place that affect the growth and survival of
living organisms.
Refer to the diagram of the food web below to answer questions 14-18

14. Which of the following represents a food chain from the food web shown?
A. hawk
lizard
grass
mouse
B. mouse
snake
hawk
C. grass
mouse
snake
hawk
D. grass
grasshopper
lizard
rabbit
snake
15. Which are the first order consumers in the food web shown?
A. mouse, snake, hawk
B. grasshopper, lizard, snake
C. grasshopper, rabbit, mouse
D. grass, grasshopper, rabbit, snake
16. Based on the diagram, what is food web?
A. A collection of plants and animals
B. A complex food interrelationship among organisms
C. An interrelationship of the living things and the physical environment
D. An order of food relationship that starts from the consumer to the producers
17. Which of the following organisms in the food web is the producer?
A. grasshopper
C. rabbit
B. snake
D. grass
18. Which of the following statements about the diagram is correct?
A. Animals can live without plants.
B. The bigger an organism, the more energy it needs.
C. The source of energy in the food web is the plants.
D. The farther an organism is from the source of energy, the more energy it gets from
the source.
19. Which pair shows a predator-prey relationship?
A. quiapo
grasshopper
B. frog
mosquito
C. duck
turtle
D. grasshopper
snail
20. Some animals live in trees which provide them food. For example, the ants live in an
acacia tree and feed on its sap. When other insects go to this tree, the ants bite them, thus
protecting the tree from other animals. What kind of relationship exists between the ants and
the tree?
A. parasitism
B. commensalism
C. mutualism
D. competition
Bromthymol blue (BTB) solution is a chemical indicator for the presence of carbon dioxide. Its
blue color changes to yellow if carbon dioxide is present. Study the set ups below.

21. In set up A, the color of the BTB solution is changed to yellow the next day. In set up B,
the color of the BTB solution remained the same. Why did these happen?
A. BTB solution was consumed by the snails.
B. BTB solution automatically changes to yellow after 24 hours.
C. Snails produced oxygen and it reacted with the BTB solution.
D. Snails produced carbon dioxide and it reacted with the BTB solution.
For items 22-24, refer to the diagram

22. During the day, what gas exchange takes place between the sea grass and marine
animals?
A. Sea grass and marine animals give off carbon dioxide
B. Sea grass gives off oxygen; marine animals take in oxygen
C. Marine animals give off carbon dioxide; sea grass takes in oxygen
D. Marine animals give off oxygen; sea grass takes in oxygen
23. Based on the diagram, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The availability of oxygen is maintained by the sea grasses
B. Carbon dioxide inhaled by animals becomes oxygen released in the air
C. Sunlight is needed by animals to convert oxygen to carbon dioxide
D. Sunlight is not needed for exchange of gases to take place
24. Based on the diagram, which of the following is TRUE during night time?
A. There is less carbon dioxide than oxygen
B. There is more carbon dioxide than oxygen
C. The amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide will not change
D. Oxygen will not be enough for the animals the following day
25. What happens when there is too much carbon dioxide in the air?
A. People can breathe air
B. Plants can produce more fruits
C. The temperature will become normal
D. Heat will be trapped and the air become warmer
26. Your mother brought Kilo raw mangoes from the market. She placed them in a basket.
After 3 days, the green mangoes turned yellowish in color. What changes took place?
A. Physical change
C. Energy change
B. Chemical change
D. Electrical change
For item 27, refer to the box below.
I melting wax
II melting ice
27. Which statement is true about the changes in the two given examples?
A. I is physical change, II is chemical change.
C. I and II are physical changes.
B. I is chemical change, II is physical change.
D. I and II are chemical changes.

28. Which of the following physical changes happens during evaporation?

A. Change from liquid to gas
B. Change from liquid to ice
C. Change from ice to liquid
D. Change from gas to liquid
29. Which of the following show chemical change in matter?

II

III

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
30. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are gases used as coolants in air conditioners and
refrigerators. In what way are these materials harmful?
A. they pollute the air
B. they destroy living organisms
C. they react with moisture in the air and form acid rain
D. they damage the ozone layer of the earths atmosphere
31. Which of the following effects of throwing non-biodegradable waste into the rivers are the
most dangerous?
I. Aquatic organisms are poisoned.
II. Water becomes unsafe for drinking.
III. Water becomes unsafe for swimming.
IV. Water becomes unsuitable for washing clothes.
A. I & II
B. I & IV
C. II & III
D. II &IV
32. Gaseous wastes of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide are emitted into the atmosphere
by some industrial plants or factories. Why is these gases considered harmful to the
environment?
I. They deplete the ozone layer and cause global warming
II. They react with moisture in the atmosphere and form acid rain
III. They combine with other gases and induce occurrence of lightning
IV. They accumulate in the atmosphere and develop greenhouse effect.
A. I & II
B. II & III
C. III & IV
D. I & IV
33. Many farm and forestlands are converted into housing areas. If more lands are used for
residential purposes, how would this affect the environment?
A. Improved health and sanitation
B. Decreased garbage problem
C. More production of food/crops
D. Reduced habitat of wild plants and animals

34. Which of the following explains the dangers of oil spills on water?

A. Oil covers the water that prevent sunlight from reaching photosynthesizing organisms
resulting to no food for the animals.
B. Oil settles at the bottom of the water adding up nutrients needed by the animals
C. Oil dissolves in water containing minerals needed by photosynthesizing plants
D. Oil covers the water which becomes alternate food for the animals
35. To conserve our environment, composting is highly encouraged. What is the effect of
composting?
A. Dead organisms are decomposed and become worms.
B. Living organisms complete their life cycles and become soil.
C. Dead organisms are decomposed and enrich the soil making plants grow healthy
D. Living organisms eat the soil and produce more energy to sustain the balance in the
ecosystem.
36. What kind of energy enables the plants to make food?
A. mechanical energy
B. chemical energy
C. light energy
D. electrical energy
37. Which forms of energy do flames from a burning candle release?
A. Electrical and mechanical
C. Heat and nuclear
B. Chemical and electrical
D. Light and heat
38. What form of energy is produced when an electric fan is in use?
A. Radiant
C. Chemical
B. Electrical
D. Mechanical
39. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Chemical energy enables the radio to produce sound
B. Electrical energy enables the bicycle to run
C. Mechanical energy enables the kite to fly
D. Mechanical energy causes the fruits to rot
40. Which two objects are related in such a way that the first object possesses chemical
energy causing the second object to move?
A. Wind, kite
C. Flat iron, clothes
B. Fruit, man
D. Electric fan, papers
41. Rio observed that after switching on an electric hair dryer, the air becomes warmer. She
noticed that the blades inside the dryer rotate, and emit warm air. What forms of energy are
involved?
A. Electrical
heat
mechanical
B. Mechanical
heat
electrical
C. Electrical
mechanical
heat
D. Chemical
heat
electrical
42. Heat energy can be transferred. When you heat water in the kettle, the water at the bottom
of the kettle gets hot first and rises up. The cold water at the top sinks down until all the water
gets hot. What kind of heat transfer is involved?
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. transformation

43. A large fruit falls from a tree. What makes it move faster and faster as it approaches the
ground?

A. Inertia
B. Force of gravity

C. Force of the wind

D. Distance from the ground

44. In which situation/s are the forces on the objects balanced?

I. Book resting on a table
II. Rolling ball slowing down
III. Coconut is falling
A. I Only
C. I and II
B. II only
D. II and III
45. Karlo was pushing the refrigerator as hard as he could. He could only move it slowly. His
brother helped him and they were able to move it fast. Which of the following factors cause the
refrigerator to move fast?
A. The increased force exerted by the floor on the refrigerator
B. The increased force exerted on the refrigerator
C. The decreased weight of the refrigerator
D. The decreased force of gravity
46. While sitting on a wooden chair, you push a heavy table, and your chair moves backward.
Which statement explains this?
A. Objects at rest tend to remain at rest
B. Objects in motion tend s to remain in motion
C. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
D. Balance forces acting on an object do not make the object move
47. What factor causes the motion of the car to slow down as it is moving up the slope of a
mountain?
A. The gravity of the earth that pulls the car down the slope
B. The force of the car that decreases as it goes up the slope
C. The weight of the car that increases as it moves up a mountain
D. The frictional force between the road and the wheels of the car that decreases as it
moves up a mountain
48. A ball was dropped from three different heights on the same wooden floor. Below is the
result of the experiment.
Trials
Drop height (cm)
Bounce height (cm)
1
105
90
2
95
80
3
80
60
Which of the following factors affected the bounce height of the ball?
A. Surface of the floor
C. The manner the ball is dropped
B. Weight and size of the ball
D. Height at which the ball is dropped
49. Jervy found that it was easier to push a cart barefooted than when she was wearing
shoes along the cemented floor. What caused this difference?
A. Surface of the floor is smooth
B. Mass of the wheelbarrow and the load
C. Friction is greater between the wheels of the cart and the shoes
D. Friction between the bare feet and the ground is greater than with shoes
50. The inner core is the hottest interior layer of the earth. Why?
A. It is where heating of iron and nickel takes place so intensely
B. It is composed of very hot tectonic plates
C. It is where the ring of fire is formed
D. It is composed of very hot gases
51. Which statement describes the Earths mantle layer?

A.
B.
C.
D.

It is the earths largest layer covering about 67% of its mass.

It is the outermost and the thinnest layer of the earth
It is the earths innermost layer
It is made of iron and nickel

52. The earths crust moves constantly although its movement is not felt by the people. Why is
the earths crust in constant motion?
A. It is composed of big bodies of water like the oceans
B. It has a strong magnetic field
C. It floats on a mantle of hot liquid rocks that move constantly
D. It is divided into smaller hot plates
53. The diagram below shows the layer of the earth. Which part of the earth is believed to be
mainly composed of molten iron because of its very high temperature?
I
II
III
IV

A. IV

B. III

C. II

D. I

54. The continental and oceanic parts of the earths crust are composed of several large and
small moving rock layers called crustal plates. Which of these plates is the largest which
covers about One-fifth of the earths surface?
A. Pacific Plate
B. North American Plate
C. African Plate
D. South American Plate
55. Why do earthquakes occur?
A. Because of the formation of mountains
B. Because of the waves coming from the ocean
C. Because of the spreading of the oceanic plates
D. Because of the movement of crustal plates along a fault
56. An earthquake has its epicenter in Bataan. How will intensity and magnitude of the
earthquake compare as one move farther away from Bataan?
A. Magnitude decreases and intensity increases
B. Intensity decreases and magnitude remains the same
C. Intensity decreases and magnitude increases.
D. Both intensity and earthquake decreases
57. An earthquake was of intensity 1. Which situation could be observed? It was _______
A. not felt by mother but it was felt by a seismologist
B. observed by the grade VI class
C. felt by a few persons who are at rest
D. felt by several persons at rest
58. What happens when a strong earthquake occurs under the sea?
A. volcanic eruption
B. landslide
C. high tide
59. Which of the following places will likely be affected by tsunami?
A. valley
B. plateau
C. coastal area

60. What is the difference between active and inactive volcano?

D. tsunami
D. mountainous area

A. Active volcano show volcanic activity every now and then same as inactive volcano
B. Active volcano did not have erupt for along time while inactive erupt every now and then
C. Active volcano shows volcanic activity every now and then while inactive volcano did not
erupted for 600 years
D. Active volcano shows volcanic activity for 300 years while inactive volcano did not shows
any volcanic activity
61. Why does magma rise to the surface and the surrounding rocks around it do not?
A. Magma is hot
B. Magma cause pressure
C. Surrounding rocks is lighter or less dense than the magma
D. Magma is lighter or less dense than the surrounding rocks.
62. Which is true about a volcanic eruption?
A. most of the gas that goes out of a volcano is carbon dioxide
B. when heavy rain accompanies an eruption, a mudflow may occur
C. magma is pushed from the interior of Earth to the surface because a build up of
temperature in the mantle
D. none of these
63. Which of the following does NOT show the beneficial effect of volcanic eruption?
A. Heat energy can be harnessed to generate electricity
B. Pyroclastic materials are blown from the crater
C. Lava rocks are used as construction materials
D. Volcanic materials make the soil fertile
64. When are volcanic eruption considered beneficial?
I. When they make the surrounding area fertile
II. When they hasten the growth of certain micro organisms
III. When they build new land form such as volcanic island
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III
65. Which government agency monitors and issues warning on volcanic activities?
A. PHILVOCS
C. DENR
B. PAGASA
D. DSWD
66. Which of the following are characteristics of stars?
I. They generate their own light
II. They twinkle
III. They have different colors
IV. They reflect light
A. I and II
C. II and III
B. I and III
D. II and IV
For items 67-68 refer to the table below.
The tale shows the color and temperature of some stars:
Star
Color
Temperature 0C
Antares
Red
3000
Arcturus
Orange
4000
Sun
Yellow
6000
Vega
White
11000
Rigel
Bluish white
20000
67. Which is the coolest Star?
A. Sun
B. Antares
C. Vega
D. Rigel
68. Which of the following shows the relation between the color and temperature of stars?

A.
B.
C.
D.

The larger the star, the cooler it is

The yellow stars are the coolest stars
The white stars are the hottest stars
The bluish white stars are the hottest stars

69. Why do stars appear to twinkle as seen from the earth at night?
A. Earths movement around the sun bends the light
B. Light coming from the stars flickers
C. Pockets of air including dusts move in front of the light
D. Earths rotation bends the light
70. Which of the following tells the importance of constellations?
A. It tells our fortune.
B. It is used to forecast weather.
C. It determines whether we experience acid rain or not.
D. It helps in the reduction of carbon dioxide in our atmosphere
71. Our solar system is a part of the Milky way. What kind of galaxy is the Milky Way?
A. spiral galaxy
B. irregular galaxy
C. elliptical galaxy
D. regular galaxy
72. Which of the following theories of the universe state that in the beginning all matter was
used into one ball which later exploded and become galaxies which are moving apart from one
another?
A. Big Bang Theory
B. Steady-State Theory
C. Pulsating Theory
D. Nebular Theory
73. Why was Pioneer 10 sent into space?
A. To study the atmosphere of Jupiter
B. To investigate the atmosphere of Venus
C. To discover possible life forms in Mars
D. To examine the soil in Saturn
74. Which of the following are problems encountered by astronauts in outer space?
I. weightlessness
II. oxygen and food
III. space suits and cabins
IV. temperature and pressure
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV
75. Modern day astronomers use various kinds of telescopes to gather information about stars
and other heavenly bodies. Which of the following telescopes does not use light since it is not
affected by clouds and electric light that may distract the viewing?
A. reflecting telescope
B. refracting telescope
C. radio telescope
D. Kech telescope

ANSWER KEY:

1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. B
23. A
24. C
25. D

26.B
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. D
31. A
32. A
33. D
34. A
35. C
36. C
37. D
38. D
39. C
40. B
41. C
42. C
43. B
44. A
45. B
46. C
47. D
48. D
49. D
50. A

51. A
52. C
53. A
54. D
55. B
56. B
57. A
58. D
59. C
60. C
61. D
62. C
63. B
64. B
65. A
66. B
67. B
68. D
69. C
70. B
71. A
72. A
73. A
74. C
75. C

Prepared by:
VERNA D. AMBAT
Municipal Science Key Teacher
Noted:
VILMA V. AMBITA
Principal II
Municipal Science Key Administrator