PREBOARD EXAMINATION

OBSTETRICS & GYNECOLOGY

SET B
1. It is considered as the landmark for female catheterization
a. Fourchette
b. Clitoris
c. Bartholin's glands
d. Vestibule
2. It is a lower genital tract infection characterized by the presence of thin, white,
homogeneous, fishy-smelling vaginal discharge and presence of clue cells in PAP smear.
a. Bacterial Vaginosis
b. Trachomatis
c. Clamydia
d. Syphilis
3. Fever, foul lochial discharge and subinvolution of the uterus are signs of:
a. puerperal psychosis
b. puerperal sepsis
c. postpartum hemorrhage
d. hypertensive disorder
4. Which of the following is not included on the 3 Cs of delivery?
A. Clean Surface
B. Clean Hands
C. Clean scissors
D. Clean Cord
5. Which of the following hormonal methods of the family planning is NOT recommended
for breastfeeding mothers?
a. minipills
c. cervical cap
b. implants
d. combined oral contraception
6. A woman using diaphragm for contraception should be instructed to leave it in place for
at least how long after intercourse?
a. 1 hour
b. 6 hours

c. 12 hours
d. 28 hours
7. Your patient just had an easy vaginal delivery and you inspected the placental which was
complete and well contracted uterus yet your patient is bleeding profusely, your next
move is:
a. Inspect for laceration
c. Check for clotting defect
b. Part of uterus
d. Inject oxytocin
8. The most frequently encountered anemia during pregnancy is
a. Anemia of chronic disease
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Folic acid anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
9. All the methods does not prevents STIs except
a. Oral contraceptive
c. Condom
b. IUD
d. DMPA
10. The contraceptive pill prevents pregnancy by preventing
a. The sperm to enter the uterus
b. Ovulation
c. Implantation
d. Menstruation
11. Midwife Celine is aware that periodic relaxation and contraction of the uterine muscles
cause pain and cramping after birth. Which of the following patients is more likely to
experience severe pain after giving birth?
a. A gravida 3 para 2002 patient whos breast feeding
b. A gravida 1 para 1001 patient whos bottle feeding
c. A gravida 2 para 1102 patient whos bottle feeding
d. A gravida 2 para 1001 patient whos breast-feeding
12. Laceration that require extensive repair known as complete tear which involves anterior
rectal wall is:
a. 4th degree
c. 1st degree
b. 3rd degree
d. 2nd degree
13. The midwife should prevent postpartum hemorrhage, which is defined as the loss of how
many ml of blood during the 1st 24 hrs post delivery?
a. 500-1000
c. 400
b. 300-500
d. 200
14. Post partum bleeding with a soft relaxed uterus is usually due to:
a. Presence of uterine tear
b. Laceration of birth canal

c. Presence of retained placental fragment

d. Atony of the uterine
15. A 30 weeks pregnant mother comes to the RHU for severe head ache. You will:
a. Give analgesic
c. Take her BP
b. Give her sedative
d. Ask her to wait 2hrs for the doctor
16. Laceration which involves vaginal mucosa, the fourchette and perineal skin is:
a. 4th degree
c. 1st degree
b. 3rd degree
d. 2nd degree
17. Which of the following is first sign of placental separation?
a. Chadwicks sign
c. Lengthening of the cord
b. Calkins sign
d. Sudden gush of blood
18. Which of the following are derived from ectoderm?
a. Brain
b. Skeleton
c. Intestine
d. Liver
19. A perineal laceration involving the vaginal mucosa, subcutaneous tissue and muscle
including anal sphincter is?
a. 3rd degree
c. 2nd degree
b. 1st degree
d. 4th degree
20. The pt with IUD inserted 3 yrs ago complained she could not feel the strings. You should:
a. Give contraceptive pill
b. Check string with speculum and exam
c. Send her to a doctor
d. Advise withdrawal method
21. When midwife Rose see her patient having seizue. The first thing that a midwife should
do in an eclamptic convulsive seizure is to?
a. Prepare to inject the anti seizure drug MgSO4
b. Secure a patent airway by removing button of patient clothing
c. Insert a padded tounge depressor
d. Check her vital signs especially patient blood pressure
22. Cheesy whitish vaginal discharge with pruritus is caused by
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Monilia albicans
c. staphylococcus aureus
d. Trichomonasvaginalis
23. Which of the following abnormalities is associated with post partum hemorrhage?
a. placenta bipartite
c. placenta succenturiala
b. placenta duplex
d. placenta triplex

24. Change in the consistency of the lower uterine segment causing extreme softening is
referred as:
a. Hegars sign
b. Chadwicks sign
c. Goodels sign
d. Vaginal sign
25. During a prenatal visit the pregnant woman is complaining of itchy, foul-smelling vaginal
discharges that are frothy and cream-colored. This is a hallmark sign of:
a. Moniliasis
b. Candidiasis
c. Syphilis
d. Trimochoniasis
26. Jessa presents a visible sign of a cauliflower-like cells that occur near her genitals. This
is a:
a. condylomata
b. clamydia
c. trichomoniasis
d. syphilis
27. Which of the following is unnecessary equipment to be included in the home delivery
kit?
A. Boiled razor blade
B. 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
C. Flashlight
D. Rectal and oral thermometer
28. Which of the following statements about the clitoris is correct?
a. among women, there is marked similarity in the shape and consistency of clitoris
b. comparable to the scrotum in males
c. the landmark for female catheterization
d. pad of fatty tissues that protects the pubic bones
29. Attributes of the lower segment
a. Retracts during labor
b. Actively contracts
c. Derived from the body of the uterus
d. Develops gradually during pregnancy
30. The landmark used in determining the station is:
a. Ischial spine
c. Ischial promontory
b. Ischial tuberosity
d. Ischial prominence

31. A midwife in a labor room is performing vaginal assessment on a pregnant client in

labor. The midwife notes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina.
Which of the following is the initial midwifery action?
a. Gently push the cord into the vagina
b. Place the client in Trendelenburgs position
c. Find the closest telephone and page the physician stat
d. Call the delivery room to notify the staff that the client will be transported
immediately
32. Midwife must be knowledgeable that the anatomical structure that forms the lower
uterine segment rich in stratified squamo-columnar epithelial cells is?
a. Vagina
b. Hymen
c. Cervix
d. Clitoris
33. The most important estrogen in non-pregnant females who are between the menarche and
menopause stages of life and the major estrogen in humans is?
a. Esbestrol
b. Estriol
c. Estrone
d. Estradiol
34. The presence of a white cheesy patches & itchiness of genitalia is a characteristics of?
a. Trichomoniasis
b. Moniliasis
c. Gonorrhea
d. Chlamydia
35. Which is the main ligament that support of the uterus?
A. Cardinal

C. Utero ovarian

B. Broad ligament

D. Infundibulo pelvic

36. A fetus born dead with a crown-heel length of 22 cm is considered?

A. An abortus

C. A still birth

B. Preterm neonatal death

D. A neonate

37. The most dreaded complication of hydatidiform mole is:

A. Chorio carcinoma
C. Corpus luteum cyst
B. Infertility
D. Recurrent H mole
38. Which of the following comprises the external parts of the female reproductive organ?
A. Mons veneris, labia majora, anus, fossa navicularis
B. Vestibule, prepuce, labia minora, clitoris
C. Introitus, meatus, uterus, Batholins gland
D. Vagina, Skene glands, perineum, cervix
39. A client asks the midwife what a third degree laceration is. She was informed that she had
one. The midwife explains that this is
a. That extended their anal sphincter
b. Through the skin and into the muscles
c. That involves anterior rectal wall
d. That extends through the perineal muscle
40. The most common normal position of the fetus in utero is
a. Transverse position
b. Vertical position
c. Oblique position
d. None of the above
41. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience shortness of breath. This
complaint maybe explained as
a. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because the fetus is using more oxygen
b. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards
c. The woman is having allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones
d. The woman maybe experiencing complication of pregnancy
42. Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?
a. Fetal movement felt by mother
b. Enlargement of the uterus
c. (+) pregnancy test
d. (+) ultrasound
43. What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the
pregnancy?
a. Lightening
b. Ballotement
c. Pseudocyesis
d. Quickening
44. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will prevent which prenatal discomfort?

a. Backache
b. Vertigo
c. Leg cramps
d. Nausea
45. From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, a healthy mother should have prenatal
check up every
a. week
b. 2 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks
46. In the Batholonews rule of 4, when the level of the fundus is midway between the
umbilicus and xyphoid process the estimated age of gestation (AOG) is
a. 5th month
b. 6th month
c. 7th month
d. 8th month
47. The following are ways of determining expected date of delivery (EDD) when the LMP
is unknown
a. Naegeles rule
b. Quickening
c. Mc Donalds rule
d. Batholomews rule of 4
48. If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of delivery (EDD) is
a. Oct. 7
b. Oct. 24
c. Nov. 7
d. Nov. 8
49. Which of the following is an abnormal vital sign in postpartum?
A.Pulse rate between 50-60/min
B.BP diastolic increase from 80 to 95mm Hg
C.BP systolic between 100-120mm Hg
D.Respiratory rate of 16-20/min
50. The nursing intervention to relieve pain in breast engorgement while the mother
continues to breastfeed is
A.Apply cold compress on the engorged breast
B.Apply warm compress on the engorged breast
C.Massage the breast
D.Apply analgesic ointment
51. Breast self examination is best done by the woman on herself every month during
A.The middle of her cycle to ensure that she is ovulating
B.During the menstrual period
C.Right after the menstrual period so that the breast is not being affected by the

increase in hormones particularly estrogen

D.Just before the menstrual period to determine if ovulation has occurred
52. Midwife Julia plans to instruct the postpartum client about methods to prevent breast
engorgement. Which of the following measures would the midwife include in the
teaching plan?
a. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side on the first day
b. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple shields
c. Breast-feeding the neonate at frequent intervals
d. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours
53. A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor delivery area. Assessment reveals that she
is in early part of the first stage of labor. Her pain is likely to be most intense:
a. Around the pelvic girdle
b. Around the pelvic girdle and in the upper arms
c. Around the pelvic girdle and at the perineum
d. At the perineum
54. Normal lochial findings in the first 24 hours post-delivery include:
a. Bright red blood
b. Large clots or tissue fragments
c. A foul odor
d. The complete absence of lochia
55. After completing a second vaginal examination of a client in labor, the midwife
determines that the fetus is in the right occiput anterior position and at 1 station. Based
on these findings, the midwife knows that the fetal presenting part is:
a.1 cm below the ischial spines.
b.directly in line with the ischial spines.
c.1 cm above the ischial spines.
d.in no relationship to the ischial spines.
56. When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia, the midwife
understands that this drug is given to:
a.Prevent seizures
b.Reduce blood pressure
c.Slow the process of labor
d.Increase diuresis
57. The following are signs that the placenta has detached EXCEPT:
A.Lengthening of the cord
B.Uterus becomes more globular
C.Sudden gush of blood
D.Mother feels like bearing down

58. The normal dilatation of the cervix during the first stage of labor in a nullipara is
A.1.2 cm./hr
B.1.5 cm./hr.
C.1.8 cm./hr
D.2.0 cm./hr
59. At what stage of labor is the mother is advised to bear down?
A.When the mother feels the pressure at the rectal area
B.During a uterine contraction
C.In between uterine contraction to prevent uterine rupture
D.Anytime the mother feels like bearing down
60. The following are measures to stimulate lactation EXCEPT
A.Frequent regular breast feeding
B.Breast pumping
C.Breast massage
D.Application of cold compress on the breast
61. When the uterus is firm and contracted after delivery but there is vaginal bleeding, the
midwife should suspect
A.Laceration of soft tissues of the cervix and vagina
B.Uterine atony
C.Uterine inversion
D.Uterine hypercontractility
62. The following are interventions to make the fundus contract postpartally EXCEPT
A.Make the baby suck the breast regularly
B.Apply ice cap on fundus
C.Massage the fundus vigorously for 15 minutes until contracted
D.Give oxytocin as ordered
63. The following are nursing interventions to relieve episiotomy wound pain EXCEPT
A.Giving analgesic as ordered
B.Sitz bath
C.Perineal heat
D.Perineal care
64. The following are important considerations to teach the woman who is on low dose
(mini-pill) oral contraceptive EXCEPT:
A.The pill must be taken everyday at the same time
B.If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she must take 2 pills for added
protection
C.If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she needs to take another temporary method
until she has consumed the whole pack

D.If she is breast feeding, she should discontinue using mini-pill and use the progestinonly type
65. In sympto-thermal method, the parameters being monitored to determine if the woman is
fertile or infertile are:
A.Temperature, cervical mucus, cervical consistency
B.Release of ovum, temperature and vagina
C.Temperature and wetness
D.Temperature, endometrial secretion, mucus
66. Spinnabarkeit is an indicator of ovulation which is characterized as:
A.Thin watery mucus which can be stretched into a long strand about 10 cm
B.Thick mucus that is detached from the cervix during ovulation
C.Thin mucus that is yellowish in color with fishy odor
D.Thick mucus vaginal discharge influence by high level of estrogen
67. According to the Philippine Midwifery Law, a registered midwife is allowed to handle
mothers in labor and delivery with the following considerations:
1. The pregnancy is normal.;
2. The labor and delivery is uncomplicated;
3. Suturing of perineal laceration is allowed provided the midwife had special training;
4. As a delivery room midwife she is not allowed to insert intravenous fluid unless she
had special training for it.
A.1 and 2
B.1, 2, and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1, 2, and 4
68. Postpartum blues is said to be normal provided that the following characteristics are
present. These are
1. Within 3-10 days only;
2. Woman exhibits the following symptoms- episodic tearfulness, fatigue, oversensitivity,
poor appetite;
3. Maybe more severe symptoms in primapara
A.All of the above
B.1 and 2
C.2 only
D.2 and 3
69. The role of the fetus in pregnancy is that of a
a. More or less passive passenger
b. Symbion

c. Dynamic force, producing bioactive agents essential to pregnancy

d. Producer of progesterone
70. The mean duration of normal pregnancy from the first day of the last normal menstrual
gestational age?
a. 250 days
c. 270 days
b. 260 days
d. 280 days
71. After delivery, which of the following portions of the decidua remains to give rise to the
new endometrium?
a. decidua parietalis c. decidua capsularis
b. decidua vera
d. decidua basalis
72. The identification of which of the following in amniotic fluid suggests that respiratory
distress syndrome is less likely to develop.
a. Phosphatidylglycerol
c. sphingomyelin
b. Lecithin
d. phosphatidylinositol
73. During pregnancy, which portion of the uterus form the lower uterine segment?
a. external cervical os c. fundus
b. isthmus
d. cornus
74. Which of the following statements about inflammation of the Bartholins gland is
correct?
a. an abscess may result in a puerperial infection
b. drainage should be accomplished at the time of delivery
c. the principal organism found in Bartholin gland abscesses is Neisseria gonorrhea
d. oral antibiotics may be as effective as drainage of an abscess
75. The temperature elevation seen just before or during ovulation is primarily caused by
a. intraperitoneal irritation from the released ovum
b. a thermogenic effect of FSH
c. a thermogenic effect of progesterone
d. a thermogenic effect of estrogen
e. a sympathetic neutral response to ovum release
76. The IUD is not recommended for women who:
a. all of these
b. are pregnant
c. have never had children d. have multiple sexual partners
77. An absolute contraindication to breast feeding is:
a. psychotic mother
c. an unconscious morbid mother
b. pregnancy of the mother
d. mother suffering from leprosy
78. Inability to recognize danger signs of pregnancy will result in:

a. delay in seeking care

b. delay in reaching appropriate health facility
c. delay in receiving appropriate care in health facility
d. delay in recovery
79. Effleurage a technic used to displace pain, is described as
A. Light abdominal massage
B. Focusing on an object to block sensory input
C. The prophylaxis method
D. The psychosexual method
80. If the patient enjoys the following types of exercise, the most desirable form during
pregnancy is
A. cycling
C.swimming
B. roller skating
D. tennis
81. What is Lauras age of gestation during their home visit last August 17, if her LMP was
on January 14, 2012?
A. 30 5/7
B. 30 6/7
C. 29-30 weeks
D. 31 weeks and 6 days
82. Patricias fundic height was measured 25 cm by Amber. Using the McDonalds Rule,
Ambers finding of the AOG in months is
A. 6.
B. 7.
C. 8.
D. 9.
83. Using the Naegeles Rule, Emilyns LMP was on February 18, 2012. What is her
expected date of delivery?
A. 11-25-2012
B. 9-25-2012
C. 12-25-2012
D. 11-27-2012
84. When giving her obstetrical history, your pregnant client tells you that she has two prior
pregnancies. She has a miscarriage with the first pregnancy at 8 weeks. The second
pregnancy was twin girls who were born at 34 weeks, but died 3 days later. The midwife
should record that the client is
A. Gravida 2 Para 3.
C. Gravida 3 Para 0
B. Gravida 3 Para 2
D. Gravida 3 Para 1
85. Which of the following emotional reactions suggests postpartum blues?
A. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
B. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion
C. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness
D. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism
86. The midwife determines fetal presentation and position by performing Leopolds
maneuvers. The second maneuver in this procedure is used to determine

A.the descent of the presenting part into the pelvis

B. the location of the fetal back.
C. whether the head or buttock lie in the pelvic inlet.
D. whether the fetal head or buttocks occupies the uterine fundus.
87. Harlene is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and determines that the fetal back
is located towards the clients left side, the small part towards the right side, and that
there is a vertex presentation. The midwife should initially begin auscultating the heart
rate in the mothers
A. right upper quadrant.
C. left upper quadrant.
B. right lower quadrant.
D. left lower quadrant
88. A pregnant client calls a clinic and tells the midwife that she is experiencing leg cramps
and is awakened by the cramps at night. To provide relief from the leg cramps, the
midwife tells the client to
A. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur.
B. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur.
C. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the when the cramps occur.
D. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur.
89. The midwife assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of
the following assessments would warrant notification of the physician?
A.
B.
C.
D.

A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client

A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum
Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after delivery
A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery

90. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4F, with a uterus that is tender when
palpated, remains unusually large, and not descending as normally expected. Which of
the following should the midwife assess next?
A. Lochia
B. Breasts
C. Incision
D. Urine
91. Passage of the fetus through the birth canal involves different position changes. Place the
position changes below in the sequence that they occur.
1. Internal rotation
2. Descent
3. Flexion
4. External rotation
5. Extension
6. Expulsion
A.1, 2,3,4,5,6
B. 2,3,1,5,4,6
C. 2,4,5,6,1,3
D. 2,3,1,4,5,6

92. A midwife assists in the vaginal delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery the
midwife observes the umbilical cord lengthen and a spurt of blood from the vagina. The
midwife documents these observations as signs of
A. Hematoma
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine atony
D. Placental
separation
93. A midwife is preparing to assess the uterine fundus of a client in the immediate
postpartum period. When the midwife locates the fundus, she notes that the uterus feels
soft and boggy. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate
initially?
A. Elevate the mothers leg
C. Massage the fundus until it is firm
B. Encourage the mother to void D. Push on the uterus to assist in expressing clots
94. Methergine or Pitocin is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum haemorrhage. Before
administration of these medications, the priority nursing assessment is to check the
A. Uterine tone
C. amount of lochia
B. Blood pressure
D. deep tendon reflexes
95. On which of the postpartum days can the client expect lochia serosa?
A. Days 3 and 4 postpartum
C. days 10 -14 postpartum
B. Days 3 and 10 postpartum
D. days 14 - 42 postpartum
96. Barbara had been experiencing regular, coordinated contractions with cervical dilatation
moving from 4-6 cm in the last half hour, and her membranes are still intact. Barbara is in
what stage of labor?
A. Latent phase of the second stage of labor
B. Active phase of the first stage of labor
C. Placental stage or the third stage of labor
D. Second stage of labor
97. Which assessment findings would lead the midwife to suspect that a pregnant woman is
in the transition phase of the first stage of labor?
1. Cervix is dilated 9cm.
2. Contractions occur every 2 mins
3. Contractions last about 30 secs
4. Cervix is dilated 3 cm
5. Women resists being touched
A. 1, 2,3
B. 1, 3, 5
C. 1,2,5
D. ,2,4,5
98. The midwife is assessing the lochia on a 1 day Postpartum patient. The midwife notes
that the lochia is red and has a foul smelling odor. The midwife determines that this
assessment finding is
A. Normal
C. Indicates the need for increasing oral
fluids
B. Indicates the presence of infection
D. Indicates the need for increasing
ambulation

99. A woman with uncontrolled hypertension visits the midwife in the clinic to ask for a
contraceptive pills, the midwife defer to dispense the pills because under contraception
medical eligibility the woman will be classified under?
A. Category 1
B. Category 2
C. Category 3
D. Category 4

100.
Category 3 of the Medical Eligibility Criteria for Use of Contraceptive Devices,
Medications, and Techniques is?
a. A condition which represents an unacceptable health risk if the contraceptive
method is used
b. A condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive
method
c. A condition where the theoretical or proven risks usually outweigh the
advantages of using the method
d. A condition where the advantages of using the method generally outweigh the
theoretical or proven risks