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MBA-II semester
MB0029
Financial Management
SET 1
Q1. Why wealth maximization is superior to profit maximization in today’s context? Justify
your answer.
2. Through the process of discounting it takes care of the quality of cash flows.
Distant cash flows are uncertain. Converting distant uncertain cash flows into
comparable values at base period facilitates better comparison of projects.
There are various ways of dealing with risk associated with cash flows. These
risks are adequately considered when present values of cash flows are taken
to arrive at the net present value of any project.
8. Since listing ensures liquidity to the shares held by the investors, shareholders
can reap the benefits arising from the performance of company only when
they sell their shares.
Ans.:
Amount (A) =?
80000=A {1.593742/0.259374}
A =80000/ 6.144567
A = 13019.63 yearly
4. Sources of finance available: Sources of finance could be grouped into debt and
equity.
Debt is cheap but risky whereas equity is costly. A firm should aim at optimum
capital structure that would achieve the least cost capital structure. A large firm with
a diversified product mix may manage higher quantum of debt because the firm may
manage higher financial risk with a lower business risk. Selection of sources of
finance is closely linked to the firm’s capacity to manage the risk exposure.
6. Matching the sources with utilization: The prudent policy of any good financial
plan is to match the term of the source with the term of investment. To finance
fluctuating working capital needs the firm resorts to short terms finance. All fixed
assets financed investments are to be financial by long term sources. It is a cardinal
principle of financial planning.
Ans.:
Cost of Retained Earnings
Cost of retained earnings (ks) is the return stockholders require on the company’s
common stock.
There are three methods one can use to derive the cost of retained earnings:
a) Capital-asset-pricing-model (CAPM) approach
b) Bond-yield-plus-premium approach
c) Discounted cash flow approach
a) CAPM Approach
To calculate the cost of capital using the CAPM approach, you must first estimate the
risk-free rate (rf), which is typically the U.S. Treasury bond rate or the 30-day Treasury-
bill rate as well as the expected rate of return on the market (rm).
The next step is to estimate the company’s beta (bi), which is an estimate of the stock’s
risk. Inputting these assumptions into the CAPM equation, you can then calculate the
cost of retained earnings.
B) Bond-Yield-Plus-Premium Approach
this is a simple, ad hoc approach to estimating the cost of retained earnings. Simply take
the interest rate of the firm’s long-term debt and add a risk premium (typically three to
five percentage points):
ks = D1 + g;
P0
where:
D1 = next year’s dividend
g = firm’s constant growth rate
P0 = price
(F+P)/2
Where kd is post tax cost of debenture capital,
I is the annual interest payment per unit of debenture,
T is the corporate tax rate,
F is the redemption price per debenture,
P is the net amount realized per debenture,
N is maturity period
13.5(0.52) + (1.8)/ 13.5*.48+2/7
6.51
(2+1.8)/2 1.9
=3.43
(b) 13.5(1-.52) + (2-2.2)/4 13.5*.48-.2/4
(2+2.2)/2 2.1
=6.43/.21=3.06
Ans.: Miller and Modigliani Approach Miller and Modigliani criticize that the cost of equity
remains unaffected by leverage up to a reasonable limit and KO being constant at all degrees of
leverage. They state that the relationship between leverage and cost of capital is elucidated as in
NOI approach. The assumptions for their analysis are:
• Perfect capital markets: Securities can be freely traded, that is, investors are free to
buy and sell securities (both shares and debt instruments), there are no hindrances on
the borrowings, no presence of transaction costs, securities infinitely divisible, availability
of all required information at all times.
• Investors behave rationally, that is, they choose that combination of risk and return
that is most advantageous to them.
• Homogeneity of investors risk perception, that is, all investors have the same
perception of business risk and returns.
• Taxes: There is no corporate or personal income tax.
• Dividend pay-out is 100%, that is, the firms do not retain earnings for future activities.
Basic propositions: The following three propositions can be derived based on the above
assumptions: Proposition I: The market value of the firm is equal to the total market value of
equity and total market value of debt and is independent of the degree of leverage. It can be
expressed as: Expected NOI Expected overall capitalization rate V + (S+D) which is equal to
O/Ko which is equal to NOI/Ko V + (S+D) = O/Ko = NOI/Ko Where V is the market value of the
firm, S is the market value of the firm’s equity, D is the market value of the debt, O is the net
operating income, Ko is the capitalization rate of the risk class of the firm.
Error!
The basic argument for proposition I is that equilibrium is restored in the market by the arbitrage
mechanism. Arbitrage is the process of buying a security at lower price in one market and selling
it in another market at a higher price bringing about equilibrium. This is a balancing act. Miller and
Modigliani perceives that the investors of a firm whose value is higher will sell their shares and in
return buy shares of the firm whose value is lower. They will earn the same return at lower outlay
and lower perceived risk. Such behaviors are expected to increase the share prices whose
shares are being purchased and lowering the share prices of those share which are being sold.
This switching operation will continue till the market prices of identical firms become identical.
Proposition II: The expected yield on equity is equal to discount rate (capitalization rate)
applicable plus a premium.
Ke = KO + [(KO—KD) D/S]
Proposition III: The average cost of capital is not affected by the financing decisions as
investment and financing decisions are independent.
Q4. How to estimate cash flows? What are the components of incremental cash flows?
Incremental Principle