CRIMINALISTICS

Dr. Ariel C. Manlusoc

Personal Identification
A system of recognizing and identifying a particular person based on his/her
characteristics as differentiate from others.
1. A system of identification which was used earlier than the fingerprint system,
made by measuring various bony structure of human body. Developed by Alphonse
Bertillion.
a. Portrait Parle
c. Tattoo
b. Anthropometry d. Photography
2. Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight of a person who is almost a
stranger.
a. 100 yards
c. 16-17 yards
b. 25 yards
d. 10-13 yards
100 yards = never seen even once, 16 17 yards = moonlight and 10 -13 yards =
starlight.
3. Is the basic principle involve in personal Identification which states that the
greater the number of similarity or difference the greater the probability for the
identity or non identity to be conclusive.
a. Law of individuality
b. Law of multiplicity of evidence
c. Law of infallibility
d. Law of constancy
a, c, and d are principles of fingerprint identification.
4. Which of the following personal Identification is not easy to change?
a. Hair
c. Speech
b. Dress
d. personal paraphernalia
=hair, dress and paraphernalia are easily removal and changeable.
5. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of Identification.
a. DNA fingerprinting
c. Dactyloscopy
b. Fingerprint Identification
d. Photography
=DNA fingerprinting admits of certain exception such as identical twin.
6. Identification of person can be done either by Comparison or by____?
a. Exclusion
c. Examination
b. Experimentation
d. Inclusion
=Comparison and Exclusion or Elimination
7. A system of Identification best used in case of burned body.
a. Fingerprint
c. Skeletal Identification
b. Odontology
d. Photography
System of identification that can be used to burned body: (1) DNA fingerprinting, (2)
Forensic Odontology, (3) Forensic Anthropology Skeletal Identification.
8. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives recognition to the science
of fingerprint?
a. People Vs. Medina c. People Vs. Jennings
b. Miranda Vs. Arizona
d. West Case
People vs. Jennings (U.S. case used 14 points of similarity)
West case = defeats the Anthropometry System. It is a case of two person who are
physically identical but have different fingerprint.
9. Known as the Father of Modern Fingerprint, whose system of classification was
spread in almost all English speaking country.
a. Juan Vucitich
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
b. Francis Galton
d. William Herschel
Juan Vucetich = his system of classification was accepted by Spanish Speaking
Countries.
Francis Galton = undertook the first definitive study and classification of F.P.,
statistical study to prove uniqueness of F.P. and wrote the book Finger Prints.
William Herschel = first application of F.P. for identification and developed
Chiroscopy.
10. Is the person who discover the two main layer of the friction skin (Epidermis and
Dermis) and to whom one of the thin layer of the friction skin was named.
a. Herman Welckerc. Marcelo Malpighe

b. Nehemiah Grew d. Dr. Henry Faulds

Herman Welcker = proved the principle of permanency by printing is palm twice
with a lapse of 41 years.
Nehemiah Grew = the first to wrote a treaty on the study of ridges and sweat pores
Dr. Henry Faulds = a surgeon who gives value to latent prints.
11. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of fingerprints in
August 8, 1882, by using his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering
with the pay order he issued.
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
b. Capt James Parke
c. Gilbert Thompson
d. Dr. Henry P. De Forest
Dr. Henry P. De Forest =Utilized the first Municipal Civil use of fingerprint for
Criminal Registration.
Capt. James L. Parke = Advocate the first state and penal use of fingerprint adopted
in SingSing prison
Sgt. John Kenneth Ferrier = First fingerprint instructor at St. Louis Police Dept.
Missouri.
12. Is the person known for being the U.S. public enemy number one, who attempt
to destroy his friction by applying a corrosive acid.
a. Robert James Pitts
c. Roscoe Pitts
b. John Dillenger
d. John Augustus
Robert James Pitts = used surgery to destroy his friction ridges. Known as the Man
without fingerprint. Also known by the name Roscoe Pitts.
John Augustus = father of probation. He developed the first formal law on probation
in the city of Massachusetts.
13. Is the scientific study of the prints of the soles of the feet?
a. Poroscopy
c. Podoscopy
b. Chiroscopy
d. Dactyloscopy
Chiroscopy (Greek word Cheir a hand, Skopien to examine) study of the
prints of the palms of the hand.
Podoscopy (Greek word Podo the foot, and Skopien to the study of the
footprints.
Poroscopy (Greek word poros a pare, and Skopien to examine) study of the
arrangement of the sweat pores.
Ridgeoscopy = study of Ridges or friction ridges.
Edgeoscopy = study of the sides of the finger.
14. Is the science of fingerprint identification
a. dactyloscopy
c. dactylomancy
b. dactylography d. dactylo-analysis
Dactyloscopy (derived from the Latin words Dactyl = finger and Skopien to
study or examine) is the practical application of the science of fingerprints.
Dactylography is the scientific study of fingerprint as a means of identification.
Dactylomancy is the scientific study of fingerprint for purposes of personality
interpretation.
15. The word finger was derived from what Latin word?
a. dermis
c. digitus
b. dactyl
d. skopien
Dactyloscopy = derived from Latin word dactyl and skopien.
Polydactyl = born with more than the regular number of fingers.
Macrodactyl = enlarged finger.
Microdactyl = reduced/small finger.
Ectodactyl = missing finger at birth.
Syndactyl = side fussion of the finger.
16. The principle in fingerprint study that states that fingerprint cannot be forged.
Fingerprint is a reliable and a positive means of identification.
a. principle of infallibility
b. principle of permanency
c. principle of individuality
d. Law of multiplicity of evidence
Dogmatic Principles of F.P. Identification
1. Individuality = based on Statistical probability that no two persons have the same
fingerprint. (1:64,000,000,000 Francis Galton).
2. Infallability = reliable, positive, not easy to be forged.

3. Permanency/Constancy = F.P. is unchangeable. (Herman Welcker)

17. What is the main layer of the epidermis, which covers the surface on which
ridges are visible?
a. dermis
c. stratum corneoum
b. stratum mucusom
d. sanguinal stratum
Epidermal Skin/Friction Skin/ Papillary Skin
= hairless skin, strips of skin without coloring pigments.
Two Main layers of the friction skin:
Epidermis =outer layer
Dermis =inner layer
Epidermis is divided into: stratum corneum and stratum mucosum
18. Friction skin may be damage permanently when which of its layer was damage?
a. dermis
c. dermal papillae
b. epidermis
d. generating layer
Epidermis = if damage will leave temporary damage.
19. How deep is the cut in order to produced permanent scar?
a. more than 1 cm
c. 1 m
b. more than 1mm
d. 1dm
20. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called pores) in an inked finger
impression?
a. sweat pores
c. furrows
b. ridges
d. sweat duct
.
21. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin (found
between ridges).
a. pores
c. indentions
b. furrows
d. duct
Component parts of Friction skin
1. Ridge Surface
a. Friction Ridges or ridges = elevated portion/hill like/black-lines.
b. Furrows = depressed portion/canal-like/ white space.
2. Sweat Pores= tiny/small openings/ tiny white dots.
3. Sweat Duct = passage way of sweat.
4. Sweat Glands= the producer of sweat.
22. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there? (types)
a. three
b. Two
c. Eight
d. Nine
Groups = three (3) Loop, Arch and Whorl
23. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow
to the other side with a rise in the center?
a. loop
c. tented arch
b. plain archd. exceptional arch
24. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or two of the three
basic characteristics of the loop?
a. Plain archc. central pocket loop
b. tented arch
d. accidental whorl
Arch (5%) = Two types (2): plain (A) and tented arch (T) --- (a) uptrust, (b) angle,
and (c) Incomplete loop type.
= no ridge count.
Loop (65)= Two types :radial and ulnar loop.
= core, dellta, a sufficient recurve, at least 1 ridge count.
Whorl (30%)= Four types (4) plain whorl (W), central pocket loop whorl (C), double
loop whorl (D) and accidental whorl (X).
= two or more deltas and at least one circuiting ridge.
25. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should have _______ridge count.
a. 1
b. at least 1
c. 2
d. 3
26. What type of a pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridges makes a turn
through one complete circuit?
a. arch b. accidental whorl c. loop d. whorl
27. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows
towards the little finger?
a. loop
b. radial loop
c. ulnar loop
d. tented arch
Radial loop (radius bone) (RH = /, LH = \) = towards the thumb.

Ulnar loop (ulna bone) (RH = \, LH = /) = towards the little finger.

28. The diagonal sign / means ________.
a. right hand ulnar
c. left hand radial
b. left hand ulnar d. none
29. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more deltas, one or more ridge
forming a complete circuitry and when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to
right delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as the most common
type of whorl.
a. plain whorl
c. central pocket loop whorl
b. double loop whorl
d. accidental whorl
Plain Whorl = lines from left to right delta cross/touch at least one circuiting ridge.
Central pocket loop whorl = lines from left to right delta does not cross/touch at
least one circuiting ridge.
Double loop whorl = two separate loop/shoulders.
Accidental whorl = combination of two patterns, except with plain arch.
30. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not included in the
combination?
a. ulnar loop
b. plain whorl
c. tented arch
d. plain arch
31. The core and delta are also termed as _____?
a. inner terminus c. outer terminus
b. focal point
d. pattern area
Focal points also called Fingerprint terminus
Core inner terminus
Delta outer terminus
32. Is a point along a ridge formation, which is found in front or near the center of
the diverging typelines.
a. core
c. island ridge
b. delta
d. Convergence
33. What is the rule where there are two or more possible bifurcation deltas which
conform to the definition of delta?
a. the one nearest the core should be chosen
b. the one away from the core should be counted
c. the one which does not open towards the core is counted
d. the one towards the core should be counted
34. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it
counted?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. Six
35. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously running side by side?
a. bifurcation
c. convergence
b. divergence
d. enclosure
36. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a period?
a. lake
c. ending ridge
b. island ridge
d. incipient ridge
Basic types of ridges: ridge dot, ending ridge, short ridge and bifurcation.
Convergence = two separate ridges that meets at certain point. (meeting of two
separate ridges).
Divergence = two ridges that spreads apart.
(Spreading of two separate
ridges)
Bifurcation = single ridge that splits into two or more forming a Y-shape.
Enclosure = a single ridge that splits into two ridges and meets to form the original
ridge.
37. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that meets to form the original
figure?
a. bifurcation
c. island ridge
b. lake ridge
d. convergence
38. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the direction from which it
started.
a. diverging ridge
c. recurving ridge
b. converging ridge
d. bifurcation
39. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge curves inward.
a. sufficient recurve
c. appendage
b. obstruction ridge
d. shoulder of loop

40. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge which has spoiled the
inner line of flow from the inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found
in the second type of central pocket loop.
a. bar
c. uptrust
b. appendage
d. obstruction
Appendage is a short ridge found at the top or summit of a recurve.
Rod or Bar is a short of long ridge found inside the recurve and directed towards
the core or parallel to the recurve.
Uptrust = a horizontal ridge that makes a sufficient rise at the center.
41. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the line flow below the right
delta and there are three intervening ridge.
a. meeting whorl
c. outer whorl
b. inner whorl
d. central pocket loop whorl
Meeting whorl = there are two or less intervening ridge/s.
Inner whorl = with three (3) intervening ridge and the tracing flows above/inside
the right delta.
42. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular ridge which is not
included as a ridge count even if it has been cross by the imaginary line.
a. ending ridge
c. incipient ridge
b. intervening ridge
d. enclosure
43. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and which resembles a fork
structure
a. divergence
c. convergence
b. bifurcation
d. enclosure
44. Ridge forms in the persons fingers and feet during its infants stage which
usually starts:
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
d. 5th to 6th months before birth
3rd to 4th months of the fetus life or 5th to 6ht months before birth.
Epidermis = temporary destruction
Dermis = permanent destruction
cut of more than 1mm = permanent scar.
45. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene between the delta and
core of a loop?
a. ridge tracing
c. ridge counting
b. ridge tracking
d. ridge summing
Ridge tracing = between tracing ridge and right delta.
Intervening ridge = ridges between tracing ridge and right delta.
Ridge count = ridges between delta and core.
4. 6What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled impression?
a. both little finger
c. both thumb finger
b. all finger except thumb d. both index finger
Types of fingerprint impression on the FP Card
1. Rolled impression = taken individually by rolling the finger from the tip to the
end of the first joint. Used for classification purposes.
2. Plain Impression = taken simultaneously by simply pressing the ten fingers. It
serves as guide or reference in checking the rolled impression.
47. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the fingerprint ink to the slab?
a. Fingerprint brush c. Fingerprint lifting tapes
b. Fingerprint roller d. fingerprint card
Fingerprint card =where F.P. is recorded (8X8)
Ink slab = metal/glass plate where ink is spread.
48. Is the process of placing the letter symbols under each pattern as the results of
the interpretation of all ten fingers.
a. classification formula
b. reference classification (additional classification formula)
c. blocking out
d. fingerprint identification
49. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch.
a. T
b. A
c. P
d. W

50. Is the division in the classification formula which is always represented by

numerical value depending upon a whorl pattern appearing in each finger.
a. primary
b. key
c. final d. Major
Primary div. = derived from the sum of the numerator and denominator plus the
pre-established fraction of 1/1.
51. In assigning a number value to whorl pattern, what finger should be given a
value of 4 when a whorl pattern appears therein:
a. left little finger and right thumb
b. right thumb and left little finger
c. right little finger and left thumb
d. left thumb and right
52. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the fingers of the left hand
are loops, what will be the primary division?
a. 25/29
c. 24/28
b. 29/25
d. 28/24
P = 1/1 + the sum of N/D = 25/29
2 4
6
8 10 (fingers)
16
8
0
0
0
16
8
4
0
0
1
3
5
7
9 (fingers)
53. What patterns are included in the secondary division in deriving the small letter
category.
a. ulnar loop, plain arch and tented arch
b. radial loop, ulnar and arch
c. radial, plain arch and tented arch
d. radial, ulnar, plain arch
54. What would be the secondary divisions if all the right hand fingers are radial
loops while all the left hand fingers are tented arches.
a. 3Rr b. rR3r
c. R3r
d. R4r
3Tt
tT3t
T3t
T4t
Secondary div. = combination of Capital Letters (index fingers) and small letters
(from T, M, R, and L fingers = r,a,t).
55. What is the interpretation for a ridge count on the left index that reaches 8.
a. exceptional
c. radial loop
b. inner loop
d. outer loop
Sub-secondary = derived by ridge counting loop and ridge tracing whorl
appearing in the Index, Middle and Ring fingers.
Loops = Inner (I) or Outer (0)
Index (9), Middle (10), and Ring (13)
Whorls = Meeting (M), Inner (I), and Outer (O)
Arches = Dash (-)
56. In interpreting a loop pattern, what is the numerical value of S in the left hand?
a. 1 to 11
c. 1 to 17
b. 18 to 22
d. 12 to 16
57. In a loop pattern, when the number of the ridges on the left thumb is 17 or
more, it constitutes as:
a. exceptional
c. isolation
b. alteration
d. Conditional
Major Div. = derived from both thumb fingers.
Loops = R. C. = S, M, L
Whorls = R.T. = M,O,I
Arches = Dash (-)
58. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central pocket loop whorl in the little finger it
is derived by:
a. getting the ridge count of the top loop (double loop whorl)
b. treating it as ulnar loop
c. getting the least ridge count (accidental whorl)
d. getting the delta opposite each hand
59. What division in the classification formula is derived from both little finger and is
place at the extreme right of the classification formula.
a. key b. final c. major d. secondary
60. The key division is the division in the classification which is located at the
extreme left of the classification formula and it is taken by getting the ridge count of
_______?

a. loop pattern
c. first loop
b. first radial loop
d. first whorl
Key div = derived from the ridge count of the First Loop, EXCEPT the little finger.
= If there were no loops, get the ridge count of the First Whorl.
= Only numerator.
61. In case of a missing digits or an amputated finger, what will be the classification
of said missing finger?
a. The same as the corresponding digit of the other hand
b. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
c. Mutilated finger
d. None
One finger is missing/amputated = interpreted as the same as the corresponding
digit of the other hand.
Both are amputated or missing = plain whorl with meeting tracing.
If all fingers are missing/amputated the formula:
FPC = M 32 W MMM
M 32 W MMM
62. Prints found at the scene of the crime.
a. suspected prints
b. molded prints
c. latent prints
d. prints made by contamination with colored
substance.
Latent prints
1. visible (molded prints or made by contamination with colored
substance)
2. Invisible = made from sweat.
63. Prints which were left in the place accidentally or unconsciously?
a. chance prints
c. fragmentary prints
b. smudge prints
d. latent prints
Smudge = prints made by sliding motion of the fingers.
Fragmentary = partial prints.
Latent prints = prints found at the scene of the crime.
64. What method of developing latent prints in paper is best to be used being easy
to apply and less destructive to the paper.
a. iodine fuming
c. ninhydrin method
b. silver nitrate method d. dusting method
Dusting = traditional/simplest method of developing prints in the crime scene.
65. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of a
latent fingerprint impression dusted with black powder on a green background?
a. yellow filter
c. red filter
b. green filter
d. blue filter
66. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of a
latent fingerprint impression dusted with gray powder on a yellow background?
a. yellow filter
c. red filter
b. green filter
d. violet filter
Opposite Colors:
Blue Orange
Green Red
Yellow Violet
67. The identification of two impression can be established primarily through:
a. formation of different types of pattern
b. formation of the two terminus
c. unexplained similarity of ridges
d. similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative positions
(a and b are used for classification)
68. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed latent print?
a. Fingerprint lifting tapes
b. Evidence Identification tags
c. Fingerprint transfer card
d. Post-mortem fingerprint equipment
69. In case of split thumb, which should be classified?
a. get the smaller one
B. get the outer one

C. get the bigger one

D. get the inner one
70. In case of wounded finger, how should fingerprint be taken?
a. Just take the subject fingerprint.
b. dont print said finger and left the rolled impression box empty.
c. dont print the finger and write in the box wounded
71. What modern method of developing print is best use when all conventional
methods becomes ineffective?
a. iodine fuming c. ninhydrin method
b. laser method
d. dusting method
72. Prints made by blood, dust or dirt or other coloring substances:
a. visible prints
c. invisible prints
b. chance prints
d. fragmentary prints
73. In filing classified fingerprint card what should be the first attempt to be made:
a. primary numerator
b. secondary numerator
c. primary denominator
d. secondary denominator
74. What division of the classification formula is left blank if all fingers are
amputated.
a. Mayor and key c. key and final
b. Key and primary d. final and major
75. Is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?
a. Mutilated finger
c. Amputated finger
b. Fragmentary finger
d. Deformities
76. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are missing or cut.
a. 1/1
c. 31/31
b. 32/32
d. 16/16
77. Reagents commonly used in liquid method are the following, except:
a. Silver nitrate
c. victoria blue e. none
b. Ninhydrin
d. tetra methyl benzidine
78. The type of latent print which is made from blood, dust or dirt?
a. Chance prints
c. Visible prints
b. semi-visible
d. fragmentary
79. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin method?
a. immersion
c. dusting
b. spraying
d. brushing
80. Once the latent print has been visualized, it must be preserved by:
a. Developing the latent print
b. Lifting the impression
c. Photography
d. Brushing it
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY
= it is the application of the principles of photography to law or
administration of justice.
Police photography = the application of photography to police work. Also
known in its old usage as black and white photography.
1. The word Photography was coined by _____?
a. John F. W. Herschel
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre (Daguerreo type)
c. Henry Fox Talbot (Talo or Calo type)
d. Leonardo Da Venci
2. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in police work?
a. for identification
c. for preservation
b. for record purpose
d. for court presentation
Personal Identification = first used of photography in police work.
3. The theory of light which states that it is produced as an energy made by action
of some small particles such as electron and protons.
a. Wave theory
c. Corpuscular theory
b. Modified wave theory d. spectrum theory
e. Quantum theory
Wave theory (Huygens) = up & down travel
Corpuscular (Newton) =
Modified wave (Maxwell & Herts)= magnetism

Quantum (Einstein) = light as energy (photon)

4. It is characterized as the bending of light.
a. reflection
c. refraction
b. dispersion
d. defraction
Reflection = bouncing of light.
Defraction = lights fall around the object.
Dispersion = the spread of light as it bends forming the light spectrum.
5. In Photographing the scene of the crime, what view should be used in order to
show the best feature of the nature of the crime scene?
a. medium
c. close-up
b. general
d. extreme close-up
General view = (long range) over-all view.
Medium view = (medium range)
Close-up = (short range) details of crime scene.
Extreme close-up =details of physical evidence.
6. Is an electromagnetic energy which travels with the speed of 186, 000 miles per
second
a. light
b. energy c. rays
d. radiation
Rays = refers to the property of light characterized by its direction of travel.
Radiation = refers to the emission of energy in the form of particles or waves.
7. Light travels in a form of a wave according to wave theory of Huygens. What is
that unit of light wavelength which is express in ten millionth part of a millimeter.
a. Millimicron
c. Nanometer
b. Angstrom
d. Micron
Millimicron / Nanometer = one millionth part of mm.
Micron = equivalent to one thousand part of millimicron.
8. Is the action of light when passing a transparent object.
a. Absorbed
c. reflected
b. transmitted
d. refracted
Reflected = bouncing of light.
Absorbed = light that is block by the surface where it falls such as black cloth
(opaque)
Transmitted = light that passed through usually in a transparent object such as
plain glass.
9. Is the condition of the sunlight where object in an open space cast a transparent
or bluish shadow.
a. bright light
c. dull sunlight
b. hazy sunlight
d. none of these
Dull sunlight = thick clouds covers the sun, no shadow will be produced.
Hazy sunlight = thin clouds covers the sun.
Bright sunlight = clear sky, well defined shadow, glossy object.
10. An artificial light source which contains in its tube certain powders capable of
illuminating with some support from small amount of electricity. It is commonly used
in the house or commercial establishment.
a. Incandescent lamp
c. fluorescence lamp
b. photo flood lamp
d. flash bulb
Sources of light
1. Natural light source such as sunlight, starlight, lightning etc.
2. Artificial /Man-made light (short duration and long continuous) Flash bulb,
Incandescent lamp, Fluorescent lamp, spotlight or reflectorized light.
11. Light in which there wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the
retina of the human eye?
a. visible
c. invisible
b. natural
d. artificial or man-made
Visible light = light with the wavelength of 400 to 700 millimicron.
Invisible light = (X-ray, ultra-violet light, and Infra-red light etc.)
12. What color will be produced by the combination of a red and blue color?
a. magenta
c. yellow
b. cyan
d. Green
Primary colors == Blue, Green and Red
Blue + Green = cyan
Green + Red = yellow
Blue + Red = magenta
Secondary = cyan, yellow and magenta

13. How many photographic rays are there?

a. three
b. five c. four
d. nine
14. What photographic rays have the longest wavelength?
a. infra-red
c.ultra-violet
b. visible rays
d. x-rays
Four (4) photographic rays
X-ray (roentgen rays) = .01 to 30 millimicron.
Ultra-violet light (black light) =30 to 400 mill.
Visible light = 400 to 700 millimicron.
Infra-red (heat rays) = 700 to 1000 millimicron
15. Is a type of an artificial light which makes sympathetic inks visible?
a. ultra-violet
c. infra-red
b. transparent light
d. oblique light
16. What determine the amount of light a flash unit will yield at a given distance?
a. luminescence
b. wattage
c. guide number
d. light meter
Light meter = an accessory of a camera which measures the amount of reflected
light.
17. Laser light is also referred to as ______?
a. ultra-violet
c. visible
b. coherent
d. Heat
Concurrent = light with scattered illumination.
Coherent = light that is aligned.
18. Hologram refers to a :
a. 1 dimensional image in a film.
b. 2- dimensional image in a film
c. 3 dimensional image in a film
d. 4 dimensional image in a film
3D image (length, height and width)
19. Sidelight photography is usually done to show ________in a questioned
document.
A. Stamped out writing
C. Watermarks
B. Faded writing
D. Erasures
Direct light = support photographing.
Oblique light = from one side at a very low angle.
Side light = from one side.
Transmitted light =from the back/bottom, used for examination of watermarks, fiber
arrangement and sequence of strokes.
20. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography to_________.
a. record the image
b. . Exclude all unwanted and unnecessary lights
c. makes the image visible
d. makes the image permanent
21. How many parts does a camera generally has, with all other parts treated as
accessories?
a. five
c. six
b. four
d. Three
22. What (lens with five sides) lens system of the camera reflects the light passing
the lens and mirror making the image possible to be viewed from the viewfinder.
a. pentaprism
c. condenser
b. shutter
d. filter
Condenser = is that part of the enlarger that ensures even illumination of the light
to the negative.
Filter = is a piece of plastic or glass used to subtract or control light passing through
it.
23. Is that part of the camera which controls the passage of light reaching the
sensitized material? It compared to the eyelid of the human eye.
a. lens
c. shutter
b. lens opening
d. film plane
Lens opening = is the ratio between the focal length and the diameter of the whole
lens expressed in F-number. It is the control for depth of field.
24. Is that part of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of
the area coverage of a given lens.

a. lens
c. view finder
b. shutter
d. pentaprism
25. Is a camera accessory designed to fix the camera focus and avoid its unusual
movement during the process of photographing?
a. cable release
c. stand
b. tripod
d. camera strap
26. What problem is usually encountered by a photographer in using a flash unit?
a. neutral density
c. synchronization
b prospective
d. Parallax
Synchronization = timing between the shutter and the flash.
Parallax = omission of an object. Image viewed in the view finder is not exactly
produce in the photograph.
27. To readily determine the degree of magnification of a subject in a photograph
________ should be place beside the subject.
A. Ruler
C. rangefinder
B. Scale bed
D. Gray-scale
28. Why must the taking of photographs from an unusual camera position in crime
photography be avoided?
a. it distorts the focus
b. it distorts the perspective
c. it distorts the magnification
d. it distorts the texture
Focus and magnification is affected by distance.
29. What type of a camera is ideal to police photography?
a. view finder type c. single lens reflex (SLR)
b. twin lens reflex (TLR) d. press/view camera
SLR = is an interchangeable lens type of camera.
View finder = simplest /cheapest
TLR = one lens for focusing/ one for forming.
View or Press = biggest and expensive.
30. What type of a film has the longest range of sensitivity in the electromagnetic
spectrum called?
a. orthochromatic film
c. blue-sensitive film
b. panchromatic film
d. infra-red film
Film = is a sheet of celluloid or glass coated with an emulsion of silver halides
suspended in gelatin which retains on invisible image when exposed to light.
Black & White Film =ortho or pan
Colored (negative type---color or reversal -- chrome)
31. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic form?
a. ISO
b. DIN
c. ASA
d. GNP
ASA American Standard Association
10, 20, 30 , 40 , 50, 100, 200, 400, 800, 1000
DIN - Deutche Industre Normen
3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36
ISO = International Standard Organization.
32. Assuming all conditions will be the same, which film gives the finest of grains?
a. ASA 1000
b. ASA 100
c. ASA 200
d. ASA 400
Film speed/emulsion speed = the higher the number the more sensitive or faster
the film.
Finest grains = the lower the number the finer the grains.
33. In Police Photography, what is the ideal weight for enlarging paper?
a. double weight
c. medium weight
b. single weight
d. light weight
Double weight is for portrait form.
34. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal exposed film?
a. # 1
b. # 3
c. # 2
d. # 4
# 0 for extremely overexposed and # 1 for overexposed
# 3, #4 and #5 are for underexposed
35. What photo paper according to its chemical content is best suited for police
photography?
a. Chloride paper
c. Chloro-bromide
b. Bromide paper d. Iodide paper
Silver chloride = is best for contact printing.

36. A convex lens is capable of?

a. reducing the object
b. making the object appear hairy
c. enlarging the object
d. reducing the size of the picture
Convex = thicker at the center.
(positive/converging lens)
Concave = thinner at the center.
(negative/diverging lens)
37. Zoom lens is composed of?
a. Positive lens
c. negative lens
b. a and c
d. none
38. Is a lens defect which enable the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical lines
in a plane at the same time
a. Coma
c. Distortion
b. Astigmatism
d. Chromatic aberration
Coma / lateral aberration = straight line becomes blurred.
Distortion = a defect not in blurredness but in shape. (barrel/pinchusion)
Chromatic aberration = defects in color.
39. What type of a lens is used in a simplest and cheapest type of a camera?
a. rapid rectillinear lens c. meniscus lens
b. anastigmat lens
d. achromatic lens
e. Apochromatic lens
Meniscus = no correction
Rapid rectillinear = corrected from distortion.
Anastigmat = corrected from astigmatism
Achromatic = corrected from chromatic aberration.
40. What kind of diaphragm opening should a photographer used in order to get a
wider depth of field?
a. wider
c. shorter
b. smaller
d. Longer
F-Number = focal length/diameter of the whole lens
f 2.8, f -4, f-5.6,
f-8, f-11,
f-16
The smaller the f-number the bigger the lens opening.
41. What lens has a variable focal length?
a. wide angle lens c. telephotolens
b. normal focus lens
d. zoom lens
Wide angle/short focus = less than 35mm focal length. Increase the area coverage
but reduce the size of the object.
Normal/medium focus = based on human vision. (more than 35mm but not more
than two times the diagonal half of the negative).
Telephoto/long focus = reduced the area coverage but enlarged the size of the
object.
42. The determining factor of the size of an image as well as the area of coverage of
a given camera lens is the?
a. focal length
c. Diaphragm opening
b. hyper-focal distance d. Depth of field
43. A type of a lens that would make an object to be exaggeratedly closes to the
photographer and is ideal in stake out surveillance photography.
a. short focus lens
c. telephoto lens
b. normal focus lens
d. wide angle lens
44. What is the range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object that
is sharp
when the lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
a. focal length
c. depth of field
b. hyperfocal distance
d. Focusing
Focal length = is the distance from the optic center of the lens to film plane once
the lens is focus in an infinite position.
Focal distance = distance from the camera lens to the nearest object.
Hyperfocal distance = the nearest distance between the optic center of the lens to
the nearest object that would give the maximum depth of field.
45. When one uses a Photographic filter in taking a photograph, he is actually
__________light rays or color from the light to reach the film.
a. adding
b. multiplying
c. subtracting
d.
Dividing

46. A filter used in photographing fingerprints on a shiny or highly polished surfaced

because it reduces or eliminates glare is known as:
A. Neutral density
C. Color
B. Polarizing
D. Contrast filter
47. Is the light condition where object in an open space cast a deep and uniform
shadow.
a. Bright sunlight
c. Hazy sunlight
b. Dull sunlight
d. dark sunlight
Sources of light:
Natural light = used in outdoor photography.
Artificial light or man-made light = used for indoor and at night photography.
Condition of sunlight:
Bright sunlight
Hazy sunlight = cast transparent or bluish shadow.
Dull sunlight = cast no shadow.
48. If the basic exposure for a given film in bright sunlight is l/125, f11, the exposure
setting at dull sunlight would be?
a. 1/125 f4
c. 1/125 f8
b. 1/125 f5.6
d. 1/125 f16
BS = 1/125 , f-11
HS= 1/125 , f-8
DS = 1/125 , f-5.6
49. The part of enlarger that will assure the even illumination of the negative when
enlarging is the:
A. Lamp house
C. Condenser
B. Bellows
D. Focusing speed
50. What is the recommended size of photographic evidence?
a. 5 x 7 inches
c. 2 x 2 inches
b. Passport size
d. 4 x 8 inches
51. What is the usual time of fixing of a negative or a photograph?
a. five to six minutes
b. ten to fifteen twelve
c. one to one and half minutes
d. twenty to thirty minutes
5- 6 minutes = Developing time for D-76
1 1 minutes = developing time for dektol
52. Is the reducers or the developing agents.
a. Elon, Hydroquinone
c. sodium sulfate
b. sodium carbonate
d. potassium bromide
Sodium sulfate = preservative
Potasium alum/ Potassium bromide = hardener.
53. The need for long and continuous washing in water of a negative or finished
print is to remove the presence of___________ because its presence will result to the
early fading.
A. Sodium sulfite
C. Acetic acid
B. Potassium alum
D. Hypo
Sodium thiosulfate (Hypo) = the fixing or dissolving agent.
Acetic acid = neutralizer
54. Error in the processing step like overdevelopment could be remedied by the
sued of a:
A. reducer
c. Bleacher
b. intensifier
d. stain remover
Intensifier = for underdeveloped.
Stain remover = for stained sensitized material
53. What is that process of eliminating unwanted portions of a negative during
enlarging process?
a. dodging
c. burning-in
b. vignetting
d. Cropping
Cropping = omitting an object.
Burning in =additional exposure on the desired portion of a negative.
Vignetting = gradual fading of the image towards the side.
55. What is the functions of the boric acid and acetic acids in the fixer?
a. as preservative
c. as hardener
b. as neutralizer d. as dissolving agent

56. The chemical that will dissolve all the unexposed and undeveloped silver halides
after development is the?
a. acetic acid
c. hypo
b. sodium sulfate d. potassium alum
57. What shutter speed will freeze a moving object?
a. B-shutter
c. Fast shutter
b. Slow shutter
d. moderate shutter
Fast shutter = freeze a moving object.
B-shutter = used when taking photograph at night or when the source of light is
low. Used together with cable release and tripod.
58. How much light will the combination of 1/125, f-4 has compare to 1/250, f-5.6.
a. equal b. 2 times c. four times d. 6 times
1/125, f -4 = 1/250, f-5.6
59. That part of the camera responsible for transmitting the light to form the image
(Image forming device).
a. Light tight box c. Lens
b. shutter
d. view finder
60. It is the process of taking a magnified (enlarged) photograph of small object
obtained by attaching an extended tube lens to a camera.
a. Photomicrography
b. Photomacrography
c. Microphotography
d. Photomacrograph
Photomicrography = Taking a magnified photograph of small object through
attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound microscope so as to show a minute
details of the physical evidence. (Photomicrograph = a photograph of the minute
details of small object)
Photomacrogaphy = Taking a magnified (enlarged) photograph of small
object by attaching an extended tube lens (macro lens) to the camera.
(Photomacrograph = enlarged photograph of small object)
Microphotography = is the process of reducing into a small strips of film a
scenario. It is first used in filmmaking.
61. Is a magnified photograph of small object obtained by attaching a camera to the
ocular of a compound microscope.
a. Photomicrography c. Photomicrograph
b. Microphotograph
d. Photomacrograph
Photomicrography and photomacrography are process.
Photomacrograph = is an enlarged photograph.
Microphotograph = is a reduced photograph. making big object small.
62. Is that part of the sensitized which is sensitive to light.
a. emulsion
c. base
b. Anti halation
d. coating
Anti halation = designed to prevent further reflexes by absorbing excess light.
63. Is that substance present in the emulsion surface of the film or photo paper
which is sensitive to light.
a. silver nitrate
c. silver chloride
b. silver halides
d. silver bromide
64. Taking photograph in back lighting will produce what image?
a. Good image
c. fare image
b. Bad image
d. better image
** what is required in front lighting**
65. What is meant by total take?
a. photograph the crime scene in all angles.
b. Photograph only important evidence.
c. Photograph the crime scene
d. Photograph the body of the crime.
Forensic Ballistics
= it is the science of firearms identification by means of an ammunition fired from
them
1. The word forensic means _______?
a. Forum
b. public discussion

c. market place
d. In connection with administration of justice
The word forensic was derived from the Latin word forum meaning a market
place, a place where people gathered for public discussion.
2. The person accredited as successful inventor of gun powder.
a. Horace smith
b. Alexander John Forsyth
c. Berthhold Schwartz
d. Col Calvin H. Goddard
Calvin H. Goddard = father of modern ballistics.
Horace Smith= founder of Smith and Wesson company.
3. It is the science of mobility of the projectile.
a. forensic ballistics
c. applied physics
b. ballistics
d. applied science
4. Is that branch of ballistics which treats of the motion of the projectile while it is in
its flight?
a. Interior
b. terminal
c. exterior
d. forensic
Interior = before leaving the gun muzzle.
Exterior = upon leaving the gun muzzle.
Terminal = upon reaching/hitting the target.
5. Is a Greek word from which the word ballistics was derived which means to
throw
a. Ballistics
c. Ballein or ballo
b. Catapult
d. Ballista
Ballista = is a gigantic catapult (Roman war machine) designed to throw stone to
the enemy.
6. It refers to the motion of the projectile once it enters a rifled barrel of a gun.
a. Direct
c. Transnational
b. Rotatory
d. Twist
Direct = forward movement.
Rotatory = twist of the bullet either to the R or L.
Translational = change in the motion of the bullet.
7. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell.
a. hammer
c. trigger
b. primer
d. flash hole
Trigger = release the hammer.
Hammer = push the firing pin.
Firing pin = hits the primer.
Primer = imparts ignition to the gun powder
Flash hole = where the primer imparts ignition to the gun powder.
8. Is the rearward reaction of the firearm in relation to the forward movement of the
bullet upon firing?
a. percussion action
c. back fire
b. recoil
d. ricochet
Percussion action = is the ignition of the priming mixture.
Jump = upward reaction of the gun.
9. Is the stillness or the steadiness of the bullet in flight? (Straight travel in flight)
a. key hole shot
c. yaw
b. ricochet
d. gyroscopic action
Recochet =bouncing of bullet as a result of not penetrating or hitting a hard object.
Yaw = unstable rotation motion of bullet.
Key hole shot = thumbling of bullet in flight hitting the target sideways.
10. The actual pattern or curve path of the bullet in flight.
a. curve
c. gyroscopic action
b. trajectory
d. drop of bullet
11. Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time, expressed in ft/sec?
a. muzzle velocity c. muzzle blast
b. velocity
d. Trajectory
Muzzle blast = noise or sound generated at the muzzle point.
Muzzle velocity = the speed at which the bullet leaves the muzzle.
12. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot. Where the bullet
travel straight.

a. Maximum range c. Maximum effective range

b. Accurate range d. Effective range
Range = imaginary straight distance between muzzle and the target.
Effective range = distance where bullet is lethal.
Maximum effective range = farther distance where bullet is still lethal.
Maximum range= farthest possible distance of travel.
13. Is the size of the bullet grouping on the target?
a. Terminal penetration c. Terminal accuracy
b. Terminal energy
d. Muzzle velocity
Terminal penetration = depth of entry of the bullet to the target.
Muzzle velocity = speed at which the bullet leaves the gun muzzle.
Terminal energy = the effect or the impact of the bullet to the target (striking
power).
14. What type of a firearm propels a projectile with more than one inch diameter?
a. small arms
c. artillery
b. machine gun
d. Cannon
Artillery =more than one inch
Small Arms = less than one inch
Machine gun = automtic/continuous firing
Shoulder arm = carry/fired with the aid of the shoulder.
Hand gun = can be fired in one hand.
15. A type of a firearm in which the mechanism is so arranged that makes it capable
of continuous firing in a single press of a trigger and while the trigger is press.
a. machine gun
c. sub-machine gun (SMG)
b. grease gun
d. shoulder arm
SMG and grease gun are the same.
16. What type of a firearm is designed to propel a projectile by means of
compressed air or strong string?
a. air rifle
c. Springfield armory
b. carbine
d. musket
17. A type of a firearm which propels a number of lead pellets in one charge to a
smooth bore barrel.
a. rifle
c. machine gun
b. shotgun
d. Musket
Smooth bore = without rifling
a. musket =muzzle loading/ancient weapon
b. shotgun = breech loading/a number of lead pellets.
Rifled bore = with rifling
a. rifle
b. carbine = short barrel rifle (less than 22)
18. What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry. (riding a horse)
a. carbine
c. pistol
b. revolver
d. rifle
Revolver = ideal for horse riding.
19. What type of a hand firearm has a rotating cylinder that serves as the magazine
and which successively places cartridge into position for firing.
a. pistol
c. rifle
b. revolver
d. Carbine
20. A type of a firearm in which pressure upon the trigger will both cock and release
the hammer.
a. single action
c. single shot
b. double action
d. repeating arms
Single action =requires manual cocking.
21. What type of a firearm contains rifling (land and grooves) only a few inch from
the muzzle point?
a. cylinder type
c. rifled bore
b. choke
d. Paradox
22. What type of a firearm is fed by chamber?
a. single shot F/A
c. bolt action
b. slid action
d. repeating arms
Cylinder type = equal diameter
Choke type = reducing diameter
Paradox = with rifling a few inch from the muzzle point.

23. Generally applied to all home made gun, just as the one used by juvenile
delinquent in United States.
a. zip gun
c. freakish gun
b. grease gun
d. paltik
24. A copper jacketed type of a bullet is usually fired from a:
a. rifle
b. pistol
c. revolver
d. pistol and
revolver
Freakish gun = a tool in which F/A mechanism is attached.
Paltik = the counter part of zip gun in the Phils.
25. Known as the smallest pistol in the world.
a. Colibre
c. senorita
b. cal 22
d. Kolibre
26. Is that part of a firearm which houses all the other parts.
a. housing
c. frame
b. casing
d. chamber
27. The mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the empty shells from the
chamber?
a. Ejector
c. Extractor
b. Firing pin
d. Extractor pin
Extractor = causes the empty shell to be withdrawn/pull out from the chamber.
Ejector = causes the empty shell to be thrown out of the firearm.
28. In case that cartridge case are found at the scene of firing it only means
that_____firearm was used.
a. single shot
c. bold action
b. automatic
d. double action
29. What is that condition in firing at which the cartridge took several seconds
before it
discharged upon firing? (delayed in the discharged of the cartridge).
a. mis-fire
c. hang fire
b. backfire
d. Backshot
Misfire = failure to discharged.
Hangfire = delay in the discharged of firearm.
30. What is the steel block that closes the rear of the bore against the force of the
charge?
a. breechface
c. breechblock
b. hammer
d. chamber
Breechface = the flat surface where the base of the shell comes in contact when
fired.
Chamber = part of the f/a where cartridge is placed when ready to be fired.
31. Type of primer consisting of two flash hole or vent.
a. Berdan
c. Battery
b. Boxer
d. none
Boxer=one flash hole; Battery= shotgun primer.
32. Father of percussion ignition.
a. Alexander John Forsyth
b. Roger Bacon
c. Bethold Schwartz
d. Veillie
Veillie = developed smokeless powder for rifle.
33. Primers are used for igniting the propellant charge by means of a blow from the
firing pin on the primer cup producing flames that passes through the:
a. Anvil
c. Vent/ flash hole
b. Paper disc
d. Primer cup
Anvil = solid metallic support.
Paper disc= thin foil/animal skin which protect the priming mixture from moist.
Primer cup = gilding metal cup which holds the priming mixture.
34. Is a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, primer, gun powder and shell:
a. ammunition
c. shotgun cartridge
b. cartridge
d. missile
Ammunition =loaded shell.
Shotgun cartridge = consists of pellet, gunpowder, primer, shell and wads.
35. Is that type of ammunition which does not have bullet used in film-making:
a. dummy
c. drill

b. blank
d. live
36. Is the type of cartridge with a rim diameter which is smaller than the diameter
of the body of the cartridge?
a. Belted type
c. Rimless
b. Rebated
d. Rimmed type
37. Is the type of cartridge in which is the priming mixture is not found at the cavity
rim of the cartridge case?
a. Pin fire
c. Center fire
b. Rimmed type
d. Rim fire
38. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
a. .730
b. .729
c. .726 d. .724
39. European made firearm are usually referred in millimeter in determining
calibers, when you talk of 9mm you are referring to?
a. .38 cal
c. .45 cal
b. .357 cal
d. .30 cal
40. A metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball propel from a firearm.
a. bullet
b. slug
c. projectile d. missile
e. all of these
Projectile = metallic and non metallic ball propel from a firearm.
Bullet = projectile usually fired from small arms.
Slug =other term/police term for bullet.
Shot = also referred to as slug/commonly used in shotgun.
Missile = used for artillery.
41. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which emits a bright flame at its
base and usually colored red-tip.
a. armor piercing
c. tracer
b. incendiary
d. explosive
Armor piercing = used in light metallic target/harden metal core.
Incendiary = design to set fire upon impact (blue tip)
Explosive = design to fragment.
42. A type of a bullet made in order to inflict greater damage used by India.
(expanding bullet)
a. Dum-Dum
c. expanding bullet
b. baton round
d. explosive
e. mushroom bullet
Expanding bullet = hallow point & soft point also called mushroom bullet.
43. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to prevent leading is known
as:
a. Plated bullet
c. Metal cased bullet
b. Jacketed bullet
d. Metal point bullet
44. Shots consisting of a small lead ball or pellets which are made by dropping with
the exception of the very largest sizes which are made by molding are known as:
a. Soft shots
c. Buck shots
b. Drop shots
d. Chilled shots
45. A miscellaneous type of design as anti riot, basically made from rubber at a
larger caliber.
a. Discarding sabot
c. Baton Round
b. Flechette
d. Frangible
Discarding Sabot = design for greater velocity.
Flechette = a number of nail type or neddle-like projectile.
46. Is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which serves as the projector
for the propellant against moisture?
a. Bullet
c. Cartridge case
b. Primer
d. Paper disc
47. Is that part of the cartridge case which characterized by a cylindrical grooves
that prevents the bullet from being push down to the cartridge?
a. Crimp
c. Shoulder
b. Neck
d. Cannelure
Crimp = prevent loss/pull out.
48. A cylindrical groove around the body of a bullet which may contains lubricating
substances and which can be the basis in determining its manufacturer.
a. Body
c. ogive
b. Bullet crimp
d. bullet cannelure.
49. Black powder basically composed of:

a. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.

b. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
c. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 % sulfur.
d. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulfur.
50. A form of smokeless powder made from sticks or cords?
a. balistite
c. cordite
c. powder B
d. nitroglycerine
51. The dont MAC rule in collection of physical evidence stands for: Mutilate, Alter
and ____?
a. Cut
c. contaminate
b. Consume
d. conserve
52. Is the part of the cartridge case which holds the primer securely in a central
position and providing a solid support for the primer anvil?
a. Flash hole
c. Extractor groove
b. Primer pocket
d. Rim
Rim = limits the forward movement of the cartridge to the cylinder.
53. The caliber of a bullet is measured through?
a. Two opposite lands
b. Measuring the base diameter
c. using the caliper
d. using a micrometer
54. Is the helical groove mark found inside the bore of the barrel designed to impart
rotation motion of the bullet
a. lands
c. rifling
b. grooves
d. pitch of rifling
55. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the
barrel of a firearm with identical class characteristics as that of:
a. Browning
c. Colt
b. Smith and Wesson
d. Steyer
62. The pitch of rifling (rate of twist) in the barrel of a firearm is called as____?
a. land
b. one complete revolution of bullet
c. groove
d. range
57. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of rifling of a firearm?
a. calipher
c. tortion balance
b. helixometer
d. Chronograph
Caliper = measure caliber
Chronograph = measure velocity.
.
58. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the _________?
a. outside near open mouth
b. side or body of the
shell
c. inside near open mouth
d. any of the
above
59. Fired bullet found at the scene of the crime are usually marked at the ______.
a. Ogive
c. Base
e. none of the above
b. Nose
d. Any of the above
60. Fired bullet/fired shell are usually mark with:
a. Initial of the investigator
b. Initials of investigator and date of recovery.
c. Letter t plus the last two digit of the firearm.
d. Letter t-1, t-2., plus the last two digit of the firearm use.
61. It is the list of the people who have handled the physical evidence from the time
of its discovery until their final disposition in court.
a. Evidence list
c. Chain link
b. Chain of events d. chain of custody
62. The basis in shell identification is________?
a. firing pin marks
b. breech face marks
c. Firing pin and/or
breech face marks
d. extractor and ejector marks

63. Individual marks found at the interior portion of the bullet due to poor alignment
of the cylinder with bore of the firearm.
a. skid marks
c. stripping marks
b. shaving marks d. slippage marks
Skid mark = due to forward movement of the bullet to the bore before it rotates.
64. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel is that it is
useful in directly identifying the:
a. bullet which caused the fatal wound
b. person who fired the particular firearm
c. gun from which a bullet was fired
d. possible direction of shot
65. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the crime scene?
a. picking it through the handle
b. picking it through the barrel
c. inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger guard
d. inserting a rod at the barrel
.
66. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to:
a. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the barrel
b. Oversized barrel
c. Oily barrel
b. badly worn-out (stripping mark)
67. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are determinable even before
the manufacture of the firearm?
Class Characteristics
c. Individual Characteristics
b. Repetitive mark d. accidental mark
68. Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are examined and compared under
the comparison microscope at the same time, level and direction and magnification
and same image?
a. Pseudo match
c. Juxtaposition
b. false match
d. Sodo match
69. Is the process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object done by
attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound microscope?
a. Photomacrography
c. Photomicrography
b. Microphotography
d. Macrophotography
70. When the draws of the revolver is completed, the index finger should?
a. touch the outside of the trigger guard
b. grasp the stock
c. be straighten along the barrel
d. be inside the trigger guard
71 . What is the secret of good shooting form?
a. relaxed and natural position
b. keeping the thumb along the hammer
c. proper sighting of the target
d. firing slowly and carefully
72. Are small grooves, channels or ridges on the surface of the bullet due to the tool
marks or other irregularities in the interior surface of the bore?
a. Land marks
c. Groove marks
b. Striation
d. Accidental marks
73. Is an instrument used in determining the caliber of the bullet by getting a
equivalent weight?
a. Caliper
c. Micrometer
b. Torsion Balance d. Flat-form balance
74. Is a type of a powder used in modern cartridges being powerful?
a. Corrosive
c. Non-corrosive
b. Black
d. Smoke less
75. An optical instrument used or designed to make simultaneous comparison of
two specimens?
a. Comparison microscope
c. Chronograph
b. Micrometer
d. Shadowgraph
76. Instrument used in obtaining test bullet:
a. caliper
b. bullet comparison microscope
c. bullet recovery box

d. water tank
77. A pointed instrument use in marking fired bullet/fired shell.
a. pointer
c. stylus
b. marker
d. driller
78.Firearms includes muskets, carbine shotgun etc. as mention in _______of the
Revised Administrative Code.
a. sec.788 b. sec.787 c. sec.878 d.sec.877
79. The law which prohibits possession of firearms/ammunition.
a. P.D. 1866
c. R.A. 8294
b. P.D. 1688
d. R.A. 9284
80. Low power gun are those firearms that uses projectile not more than 9mm or .38
cal. Except:
a. Magnum .22
c. magnum 357
b. Magnum 40
d. a and c only
Questioned Document
1. A document completely written and signed by one person is known
as____________.
a. Halograpic document
b. all of the above
c. Questioned document
d. disputed document
e. None of the above
Holograph = latin word holo and graph meaning hand writing.
2. It serves as the focal points of all document examination and it is where the
document examiner relies as to the determination of the appropriate examination
and the extent of the problem involved.
a. Questioned document c. disputed document
b. Standard document
d. evidential document
Questioned document
Collected/procured
Document
Standard
Requested/dictated
3. An autopsy report is an example of what kind of evidence?
a. documentary
c. experimental
b. testimonial
d. object/Real
4. Specimen of writing which was executed in the regular course of ones activities.
a. requested
c. collected
b. executed at one time d. day to day standard
5. When document examiner as well as police are dealing with documents, the most
common problem they encountered are those concerning.
a. origin
c. authorship
b. counterfeit
d. content (alteration)
6. Refers to the study of ones handwriting in attempting to determine ones
personality.
a. Agraphia
b. Chromatography
c. graphology
d. handwriting identification
Agraphia = a kind of disease in the brain which makes the person unable to write.
7. Known Father of Questioned Document
a. Albert S. Osborn
c. John Augustus
b. Dr. Hans Gross
d. Orway Hilton
8. Is the combination of the basic designs of letter and the writing movement
involved in the writing?
a. copy book form c. writing movement
b. system of writing
d. line quality
Copy book form = the illustration of the basic designs of letter/fundamental to the
writing system.
Writing movement = refers to the mobility/motion of the pen.
9. Is the visible record of the written strokes resulting from a combination of
various factors associated to the motion of the pen. Is the overall quality of the
strokes.
a. movement
c. line quality

b. writing habits d. significant writing habits

Writing habits = any repeated elements of writing.
Significant writing habits = sufficiently unique and ell-fixed.
Writing = visible result.
Handwriting = visible effect.
10. Refers to the usual or normal deviations found in a repeated specimen of
individuals handwriting.
a. Natural variation
c. transitory change
b. permanent damage d. temporary defect
Transitory change = changes which are only temporary.
11. In document examination when referring to contemporary documents this refers
to______?
a. Document which is more than 5 years before and after.
b.Document which are not more than 5 years before and after
c. Document which are more than 30 years
d. Document which are not more than 20 years
12. A type of a document which bears the seals of the office issuing and the
authorized signature to such document.
a. Public document c. private document
b. Official document d. commercial document
13. What is the first step in the procurement of handwriting exemplars?
a. Request for standard specimen
b. Study of the questioned specimen
c. Determine the writing instrument and paper used
d. Arrange for normal writing condition
14. Is a specimen of writing prepared with deliberate intent of altering the usual
writing habits in the hope of hiding his identity.
a. disguised writing
c. handlettering
b. cursive
d. block capital
15. Refers to properties or marks, elements or qualities which serve to distinguish.
Known as the basis of identification.
a. Characteristics c. individual characteristics
b. class characteristics d. sample
Class/common/general characteristics or Gross = can be found in a group of writing.
16. A specimen of writing which was executed without intention of changing the
usual writing habits. It is executed normally by the writer.
a. Natural writing
c. disguised writing
b. Guided writing
d. assisted writing
17. Writing forms can either be a disconnected or joined letter writings. What
specimen of writing is characterized by disconnected style?
a. Hand lettering
c. cursive writing
b. Manuscript form
d. rounded
Cursive = letters are joined.
Connection = strokes joining two successive letters in a word.
18. A genuine signature which was used in the preparation of a simulated or traced
forgery.
a. Authentic signature
c. standard signature
b. Model signature
d. evidential signature
19. It refers to the group of muscles which is responsible for the formation of the
upward strokes.
a. Flexor b. Cortex
c. Lumbrical
d. extensor
20. If John Loud is known for ball-point pen, who is for the fountain pen?
a. Lewis Watterman
c. Laszlo Biro
b. John Parker
d. Lewis Parker
21. Is a type of writing movement that gives a great freedom of movement. Also
considered as the most skillful type of movement.
a. finger movement
c. hand movement
b. forearm movement d. whole arm movement
22. Is an irregularity in strokes characterized by shaky or wavering stroke which is
perfectly apparent even without magnification?
a. tremor
c. tremor of illiteracy
b. tremor of old age
d. tremor of fraud
Tremor of illiteracy = due to lack of skills.
Tremor of fraud = due to copying/imitation

23. A sign of forgery in guided hand signature is;

a. Good pen control
c. Uneven alignment
b. Disconnected stroked
d. Slanting strokes
Sign of genuine guided writing = abrupt change in direction.
24. A modern pen nib which contains a reservoir of ink in a specially designed back
or chamber is described as (used to prevent forgery).
a. ball point pen
c. pencil
b. fountain pen
d. fiber pen
25. What is that which widens the ink strokes due to the added pressure on a
flexible pen point.
a. pen pressure
c. shading
b. pen lifting
d. retouching
Pen pressure = average/usual force applied in writing.
Pen emphasis = periodic increased in pressure/intermittently forcing the pen
against paper surface.
Retouching = goes back over a defective stroke.
26. Are meant to those grace lines, superfluous strokes and are useful only for
ornamentation and are not essential to the legibility of the signatures and usually
occurs among writers who attempt to express some phase of their personalities.
a. diacritical marks
c. idiosyncrasies
b. embellishments
d. flourishing strokes
Diacritics = strokes added to complete certain letters.
27. What was done, when one retouches or goes back over a defective portion of a
writing stroke?
a. retracing
c. patching
b. pressuring
d. shading
28. What is that interruption in a stroke, caused by sudden removal of the writing
instrument from the paper surface?
a. tremor
c. retouching
b. pen lifting
d. hiatus
Hiatus = obvious gap.
29. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the beginning and continues
beyond the end of a vanishing point and are found on free natural writing and as a
rule are important indication of genuineness.
a. Ending stroke c. Terminal stroke
b. Flying start and finish d. Pen movement
30. Strokes which goes back over another writing strokes and which is slightly to
occur due to lack of movement control.
a. retouching
c. retracing
b. shading
d. patching
31. Is outer portion of a curve bend or crook?
a. humps
b. staff/stem/shank
c. whirl
d. central part
Whirl = long upward strokes.
Staff/stem/shank = long downward strokes.
Central part = the body of the letter.
32. What is that introductory up and down stroke found in almost all capital letters.
a. hitch
c. beard
b. humps
d. buckle knot
Hitch introductory backward stroke.
33. Forged signature made by free hand movement and constant practice is called:
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Simple forgery d. spurious signature
34. A traced forgery of signature is not really a writing but a,
a. Retouching
c. Drawing
b. Patching
d. tremor of fraud
35. What type of forgery is made when the writers exerts no effort to effect
resemblance or facsimile between the forged and the genuine signatures?
a. simple
c. simulated
b. traced
d. spurious
36. A type of forgery which involves fraudulent signature executed by actually
following the outline of a genuine signature with a writing instrument?
a. carbon outline process
c. lasered
b. indention process
d. traced

37. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a signature is forgery, but it is

very difficult on the other hand to established who committed the forgery because:
a. the forger might be a left handed
b. imitation is one of the most effective means to disguise ones handwriting
c. it might be a traced forgery
d. there should be no sufficient standard available
38. Philippine Paper bills are printed in what process.
a. Letter process
b. Intaglio process
c. Off-set process
d. Lithographic process
e. All of the above
39. Paper, which has been treated in such a way as to minimize the change of a
successful forgery by erasure, whether mechanical or chemical, being carried out on
any document of which it forms the basis called.
a. Chemical paper
b. Safety paper
c. Tested paper
d. Polyethylene coated paper
40. . What is that indelible ink whose marking substance is composed of mixture of
aniline ink and graphite?
a. stencil
c. nut gall ink
b. printers ink
d. copy pencil
41. What is the first step in the procurement of typewriting exemplars?
a. procurement of the suspected typewriter
b. acquisition of typewriting exemplars
c. study of the questioned typewriting
d. preparation of exemplars
42. Is one of the most expensive instruments used for examination of documents
that would show three dimensional enlargements.
a. polarizing light c. stereoscopic microscope
b. infra-red gadget d. ultra-violet light
43. What is that type of signature which has been made in a particular date, time,
place and at a particular purpose of recording it.
a. model signature
c. evidential signature
b. standard signature d. guided signature
44. Is a light examination in which the source of illumination strikes the surface of
the
paper from the back or at the bottom, usually designed in identification of
water
markings?
a. direct light
c. side light
b. oblique light
d. transmitted light
45. An illegible form of a writing which is characterized by partially visible
depression appearing underneath the original writing.
a. invisible writing c. indented writing
b. obliterated writing
d. contact writing
46. A type of conventional typewriter in which the characters are normally space 12
in one horizontal
a. pica
c. elite
b. proportional spacing machine
d. computer
47. Is a typeface defect in which the letters are printed to the right or left of its
proper position.
a. vertical mal alignment
c. horizontal mal
alignment
b. twisted letter
d. off-its feet
48. What is that substance which is capable of bleaching an ink.
a. Sympathetic Ink c. Superimposing Ink
b. Ink Eradicator
d. Invisible ink
49. Is the type of light examination best used in deciphering an obliterated writing
and charred document.
a. Ultra violet light
c. Infra-red light
b. transmitted light
d. x-ray
50. Is a type of an abnormality/defects in typewriter that can easily be corrected by
simply cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.

a. temporary defect
c. permanent defect
b. clogged type face
d. actual breakage
Polygraphy
= scientific method of detecting deception done with the aid of polygraph machine.
= also known as instrumental interrogation/ lie detector test.
1. The word Polygraph was derived from What word?
a. Poly and Graph
c. Greek
b. Many writing chart
d. Latin
Polygraph was derived from Greek word poly = many or several and graph
means writing chart
2. The first man noted for the used of the word Polygraph
a. Thomas Jefferson
c. Galileo Galilee
b. Cesare Lombroso
d. Sir James Mackenzie
3. Is the person who devise an instrument that can record changes of blood
pressure, pulse beat and respiration simultaneously which he called the Bread
board Lie Detector.
a. Cesare Lombroso
c. Sir James Mackenzie
b. John A. Larson
d. Leonarde Keeler
4. A person who makes a great improvement on the polygraph machine in the year
1926.
a. John A. Larson
c. John E. Reid
b. Richard O. Arthur
d. Leonarde Keeler
Cesare Lombroso = 1st scientific lie detection (1895)
Sir James Makenzie= Published in two British Journal the word Ink Polygraph (A
heart specialist)
John E. Reid = (1942-46) developed the reid polygraph with muscular resistance,
SAT and Guilt Complex test.
5. An Australian Magistrate who described the work of investigator/detectives as
Search for Truth
a. Leonarde Keeler
c. Sir James Makenzie
b. Dr. Hans Gross
d.William Moulton Marston
6. The person who made the first suggestion for using the Psycho Galvanic reaction
for detecting deception and we stated that galvanic skin phenomenon is under the
influence of exciting mental impressions and the will has no effect upon it.
a. Veraguth
c. Sticker
b. Harold Burtt
d. Vittorio Bennussi
William M. Marston Systolic B.P. & discontinuous tech.
Harold Burtt respiration & systolic B.P.
Sticker Activity of Sweat Glands & Electro dermal R.
7. He devised a quantitative analysis on a polygraph chart and the test called
Backster Zone Comparison Technique. (numerical scoring)
a. Cleve Backster
c. C.D. Lee
b. Richard D. Arthur
d. Galilleo
Richard D. Arthur = developed two (2) galvanic skin resistance.
C.D. Lee = developed psychograph machine
Galilleo = developed the first instrument to record pulse beat called pulselogium
8. Is an ancient method of detecting deception practice in Bengal, India where
accused to proved his innocent would touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal.
a. boiling water ordeal
c. red hot iron ordeal
b. ordeal of balance
d. Ordeal of heat and fire
9. The Raid polygraph differs from the keelers in the following respect except:
a. An adjustable and portable chair is employed wherein metal bellows are inserted
in the chair arm rests.
b. The chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the machine to form
closed pneumatic systems.
c. Three additional recordings are made by this method
d. There is no need of using corrugated rubber tubing.
10. It is the act of deceiving usually accompanied by uttering falsehood?
a. lying
c. deception
b. Misleading
d. lie
11. Which of the following is true about Polygraph machine?
a. It is a machine that can diagnose subject.
b. It is capable of interpreting and drawing conclusion.
c. It is a lie detector machine.

d. It is a machine that detects physiological responses.

12. The polygraph machine should be _________ in relation to the credibility and
competence of the examiner?
a. Indirectly proportion
b. Supplementary to investigation
c. Substitute to investigation
d. Directly proportion
Polygraphy is an aid and never a substitute for investigation.
13. The following notions about polygraph machine are wrong, EXCEPT.
a. It rings a bell
b. It has a dial indicator
c. It flash a light
d. It is like an X-ray
14. Is the scientific basis of the polygraph test which states that the polygraph
machine is an instrument capable of making records of various human functioning
simultaneously in a chart paper.
a. mechanical leg basic premise
b. physiological leg basic premise
c. psychological leg basic premise
d. psycho motor leg basic premise
15. A type of deceit for the purpose of humor, when the falsehood is generally
understood, is often regarded as not immoral and is widely practiced by humorists
and comedians.
a. White lie
c. Jocose lie
b. Emergency lie
d. Malicious lie
White lie (officious)=where the lie is harmless, and there are circumstances where
there is an expectation to be less than totally honest through necessity or
pragmatism.
Emergency lie =is a strategic lie told when the truth may not be told because, for
example, harm to a third party would result.
16. A Hindu book of science and health which is considered one of the earliest
reference on detecting deception.
a. Ayur Vida
b. Dharmasatra of Gautama
c. Vasistra of Dharmasastra
d. Omerta
Dharmasastra of Gautama = explains the nature of lying.
Vasistra of Dharmasastra = justifies lying.
Omerta = Code of Silence (MAFIA)
17. Considered to be the ancient method of crime detection.
a. Methods of Ordeal
b. Trial by Combat
c. Boiling Water ordeal
d. The Ordeal of rice chewing
18. Which of the following is a major component of the polygraph machine?
a. Blood pressure cuff
b. Pen and inking system
c. keymograph
d. cardiosphygmograph
Major Components
1. Cardiosphygmograph = detects B.P. and P.B.
2. Galvanograph = detects skin resistance.
3. Pneumograph = detects breathing or respiration.
Major Section
1. Cardiosphygmograph
2. Galvanograph
3. Pneumograph
4. Keymograph = driving mechanism (6 12 inches)
5. Pen and Inking System = designed to make a permanent record of the
polygraph test.
19. Is that part of the pneumograph component which was attached to the body of
the subject with the usual length of 10 inches.
a. beaded chain
b. finger electrode plate

c. rubber convulated tube

d. blood pressure cuff
20. Is that section of the polygraph machine designed to run the paper at a regular
speed of 6 inches per minutes.
a. keymograph
c. pen and inking system
b. pnuemograph
d. galvanogaph
21. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which placed above the brachial
artery.
a. arm cuff
c. Wrist cuff
b. infant cuff
d. hand cuff
Wrist cuff = attached above the radial artery.
22. This is a galvanograph attachment section EXCEPT:
a. sets of electrodes
b. stretched band
c. electrodes jelly
d. rubber tube
23. The size of the galvanograph recording pen is ______?
a. 5 inches
c. 7 inches
b. 6 inches
d. 10 inches
5 inches = for pneumograph and cardiosphygmograph recording.
24. The polygraph chart rolled paper has an average length of?
a. 100 yards
c. 100 ft
b. 100 meters
d. 100 km
25. Is the sum total of the dissimulation which the child acquires from his
surrounding once he learn to go out and socialized with his neighborhood.
a. Personality
c. Heredity
b. Environment
d. Education
26. What should be the attitude of a polygraph examiner in confronting subject in a
polygraph test.
a. arrogant
c. authoritative
b. cordial but firm
d. antagonistic
PER-SON-AL-ITY = the sum total of H2E
Heredity = transmission of physical and mental traits of the parents to the offspring
upon conception.
Education = formal process of learning in an accredited/ recognized institution.
27. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector examination are all ___
and this creates a set of distortion.
a. Terrified
c. convenient
b. nervous
d. confident
28. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the examiner do?
a. reschedule the examination
b. prolong the period of the pre-test interview.
c. call for a doctor or request for an ambulance.
d. do not continue with the pre test and ask the subject for his available date
for reschedule.
29. Is a short horizontal line in a cardio tracing located at the middle of the diastolic
stem.
a. Dicrotic
c. Diastotic
b. Diastolic
d. Systolic
Systolic B.P = the upward blood pressure.
Diastolic B.P. = the downward blood pressure.
30. Is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test.
a. 60 65
c. 6- 12
b. 70 75
d. 13- 15
13- 15 cyclic rate of respiration.
31. In polygraph test Questions are usually answaerable by:
a. yes
c. neither yes nor no
b. no
d. a or b
32. The following are disqualified to be subject of polygraph test, EXCEPT.
a. minor
c. nervous
b. imbecile
d. insane
33. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the start of the test?
a. X/60/1.5 A
C. XX/60/1.5 A
b. X/50/2.5 A
D. XXX/60/2.5 A

34. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long complicated questions
because this will:
a. Give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer.
b. Enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer.
c. Renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
d. Embraces him and cause him to answer he does not know
35. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the investigator to:
a. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment
b. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement
c. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist
d. Devote adequate time for an interviewees evaluation.
36. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the atmosphere during the
interrogation?
a. interrogators behavior
b. the type of crime involved
c. questioning style of the interrogator
d. the subjects personal history
37. Who determines the guilt of the subject in a polygraph test?
a. Examiner
c. Judge
b. Prosecutor
d. Investigator
38. Is the stage in the conduct of the polygraph test, which is designed to prepare
or condition the subject for the actual test.
a. Initial Interview
b. Pre-test Interview
c. Instrumentation
d. Post test Interview/Interrogation
Stages in the Conduct of Polygraph Examination
Initial interview =between subject & Investigator.
= designed to obtain information.
1. Pre-test Interview includes: appraisal of constitutional rights, taking subject
consent, Filing-up of the PDS and determine the Physical, mental,
psychological condition of the subject.
2. Actual test/Instrumentation = begin with the attachment of the various
component parts.
3. Post-test Interview/Interrogation = after test.
39. It is conducted for the purpose of obtaining confession or an admission from the
subject once deception is observed.
a. initial interview c. Pre-test interview
b. Instrumentation d. post-test interview
or interrogation
40. Refers to any outside force coming from the environment, which could excite a
receptor or any of his organs.
a. Stimulus
c. Reaction
b. Response
d. Emotion
Stimulus = refers to any force or motion coming from the environment and which
reach an organism has the tendency to arouse.
Fear = it refers to an emotional response to specific danger that appears to be
beyond a persons defensive power.
Response =the reaction to a stimulus, in response to, in answer to.
Reaction = an action in mental attitude evoke by external influence.
41. Is the type of question designed to
established normal response from the subject?
a. relevant
c. irrelevant
b. control
d. knowledge
42. Did you shoot Rose last night? is an example of what question?
a. irrelevant question
c. control question
b. relevant question
d. none of the above
Irrelevant = not related to the facts in issue. Always answerable by yes and
design to established the norms of the subject.
Relevant = to establish specific response.
43. Is that type of questions given to determine information known or the subject
possess regarding the crime or the criminal or his whereabouts?
a. evidence connecting question
b. knowledge question

c. sacrifice questions
d. control questions
44. Is a type of test designed to overly responsive subject, consisting of questions
that are purely fictitious incident of a similar nature to the one that is under
investigation.
a. general question test c. peak of tension test
b. guilt complex test
d. silent answer test
General Question test = series of relevant and irrelevant answerable by either yes
or no.
Peak of tension test = there is only one relevant questions usually at the center and
a series of irrelevant question (padding question).
SAT= (silent answer test) no verbal response is required.
Guilt Complex test = used fictitious incident to overly responsive subject.
Yes test, No test, Card test, mixed test.
45. Is a force questioning of a person who is reluctant to give an information.
a. Interview
c. Confession
b. Interrogation
d. Admission
46. Is a self incriminating statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Admission
c. Interview
b. Confession
d. Interrogation
Interview = simple questioning of victim or witnesses who are willing to give
information.
Interrogation = forceful/rigid/vigorous questioning.
47. Of the following which is a kind of polygraph machine?
a. Stoelting polygraph
c. keeler's polygraph
b. Laffayette polygraph
d. all of these
48. Is that part of the galvanograph component which converts electrical to
mechanical current:
a. Amplifier unit c. finger electrode assembly
b. resonance control d. sensitivity knob
49. In any interrogation the belief that man is fallable human being should not be
overlooked and therefore polygraph examiners are always subject to _________?
a. precision of diagnosis c. errors
b. certainty of interpretations
d. none of these
50. Refers to the brief confrontation between the subject and the polygraph
examiner done every after taking each chart.
a. initial interview
c. Pre-test interview
b. chart probing
d. post-test interview or
interrogation
Forensic Medicine
1. Is a poisonous gas which smells like a rotten egg?
a. H2S
c. CO2
b. CO
d. H2O
CO is a poisonous gas that liberates from the unburned part of the ordinary
cumbustibles.
2. In the schematic outline on the isolation and identification of some common
poisons, the specimen should first be:
a. alkaline solution (Na(OH))
b. distilled with or without stem
c. ether-extracted
d. mixed with chemical antidotes.
3. Is the normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a normal built person.
a. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
b. 2.5 to 3.5 cc
c. 3.5 to 5.5 cc
d. 3.5 to 4.5 cc
400 to 500 millions = number of average spermatozoa per ejaculation.
Aspermia = semen without spermatozoa
Oligospermia =lack of sperm counts
4. What is known as the reproduction of an impression made on soft surface by
utilizing casting materials.
a
. dry fussion
c. moulage
b. metallic aides
d. plaster of paris
5. What will be the possible child of a man with Group A and Type M blood with
woman of Group B, type N blood.
a. AB, N
b. B,N c. O, M
d. AB, MN

Anti -A (blue) and anti B (yellow) used for blood grouping

6. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial numbers? (Stainless
steel, lead, cast iron are examples).
a. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
b. etching solution
c. colloidal magnesium
d. borax solution
7. What is the last stage in the toxicological examination?
a. qualification
c. quantification
b. multiplication
d. division
8. Person who is qualified to conduct toxicological examination?
a. Physician
c. forensic examiner
b. medico-legal
d. forensic pathologist
9. Gun powder residue maybe determined by?
a. Takayama test
c. paraffin test
b. Diphenylamine
d. Florence test
Nitrate = produced deep blue speaks
Nitrite = produced green speaks
10. Is the chemical substance found in all cells whose composition have been
passed on from parents to their children.
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. Genotype
d. Phenotype
11.To confirm the presence of blood we look for?
a. white crystalline
b. Salmon pink, haemochromogen
c. white cloudy precipitate
d. Dark brown rhomboid crystals
12. It is a biological test for blood?
a. benzidine test
c. takayama test
b. blood grouping/typing d. precipitin test
Bezidine = preliminary test for blood (deep blue)
Takayama = confirmatory test (micro-chemical)
13. 11. A mercury fulminate is as example of what explosive?
a. Low
c. high
b. primary
d. None
14. What is the principal active component of opium which comes in white
crystalline
powder and light tablets.
a. heroin
b. Morphine
c. cocaine
d. shabu
Opium poppy morphine
-- codeine
-- heroin
15. Types of drugs that relieves pain and often induce sleep.
a. narcotics
b. Stimulants
c. sedatives
d. neurotics
16. A preliminary test in blood in a solution of 1 to 300,000 dilution is:
a. Benzidine
c. guiacum
b. Phenolphthalein
d. leucomalachine Green
Phenolphthalein = reddish pink result (1:80,000)
17. __________are drugs which affects sensation, thinking, self awareness and
emotion. It
may be mild or overwhelming depending on dose and quality of
drugs.
a. Narcotics
b. Hallucinogens
c. sedatives
d. stimulants
18. Which one is not included in street name of MARIJUANA?
a. Mary Jane
c. Brownies
b. snow
d. Flower
THC- Tetrahydrocannabinol = the active component of marijuana responsible for its
hallucinogenic effect.
19. The center core of a strand of the hair, which form the bulk of the fiber.
a. cuticle b. Cortex c. medulla d. Shalf
20. The cuticle of the animal hair is:

a. rounded
c. oblong
b. serrated
d. circular
21. It is the ratio between the width of the medulla and the width of the whole hair?
a. medulary index c. medula
b. medulary ratio
d. medula radius
22. In 1858, who published the first textbook in legal medicine?
a. Dr. Rafael Genard y Mas
b. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles
c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
d. Dr. Mariano Lara
23. A gait similar to that of a duck is?
a. paretic
c. spastic
b. waddling
d. cows
24. On what months of the fetus life the Hair of eyebrow and eye-lashes begin to
appear?
a. 4th months
c. 3rd months
th
b. 5 months
d. 6th months
rd
3 = nails begins to appear.
4th = hair on the head starts to grow.
5th = Nails are distinct. Skin shows sebaceous secretion. Dental gum appears at the
mandible.
25. It is a complete and persistent cessation of vital reactions such as respiration,
circulation and almost all brain functions.
a. death
c. apparent death
b. somatic death d. mollecular death
26. Which of the following is a more conclusive sign of death
a. cessation of respiration
b. cooling of the body
c. cessation of heart function and circulation
d. heating of the body
27. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in
the dependent portion of the body.
a. Rigor mortis
c. livor mortis
b. algor mortis
d. none of the above
28. Molecular death is a kind of death where:
a. there is loss of life of the individual cells of the body
b. It occurs immediately after death
c. It is usually pronounced by the physician
d. There is a transient loss of vital functions of the body
29. The elements of violent death are the following EXCEPT one.
a. That the victim at the time the injuries were inflicted was in normal health
b. That death maybe expected from physical injuries
c. That death ensued within a reasonable time
d. That death ensued from a lingering illness
30. X and Y are husband and wife, X has a mistress, Miss W, to whom he has a son
(C ), a 2 years old baby. What kind of death is involved if X killed his illegitimate
child (C).
a. Homicidal death
c. Murder
b. Parricidal death
d. Infanticidal death
31. What if it is Y who killed (C)?
a. Homicidal deathc. Murder
b. Parricidal death d. Infanticidal death
32. The sum total of all reaction of tissues or organs for which the activities of the
living cells are necessary.
a. physical reaction
c. chemical reaction
b. vital reaction
d. inflammation
33. Is the breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler component associated
with the evolution of foul smelling gases and accompanied by the change of color of
the body
a. putrefaction
c. maceration
b. auto digestion
d. saponification
34. What is a waxy substance derived from the body fat and is caused by hydrolysis
and hydrogenation of adipose tissue.
a. adipocere
c. saponification

b. lipo
d. none of these
35. Deaths due to injuries inflicted in the body by some forms of outside force.
a. violent death
c. sudden death
b. natural death
d. none of these
36. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early
putrefactive changes or some internal changes. It is usually observed in the first two
hours of death
a. post mortem caloricity c. algor mortis
b. heat stiffening
d. rigor mortis
37. The act or practice of killing or bringing about the death of a person who suffers
from incurable disease or condition.
a. Euthanasia
c. pathological death
b. suicide
d. none of these
38. The following judicial executions were exercised in the Philippines except.
a. judicial hanging
c. electrocution
b. musketry
d. lethal injection
39. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death, Cadaveric
spasm will suggest _____?
a. duration of death
c. age of the victim
b. cause of death
d. none of the above
40. Stage of muscular change, which occurs 3-6 hours after death characteristics by
stiffening of the muscles.
a. livor mortis
c. secondary flascidity
b. algor mortis
d. post-mortem rigidity
41. Post mortem lividity or livor mortes is a very good basis for determining the
a. time of death
b. relative position of the assailant
c. position maintained by the body after death
d. cause of death
42. The following are muscle changes after death except:
a. primary flascidity
c. rigor mortis
b. secondary flascidity
d. post-mortem lividity
43. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body, which is always to occur in case of
death. What is that condition characterized by spontaneous stiffening of certain
group of muscles.
a. heat stiffening
c. cold stiffening
b. livor mortis
d. cadaveric spasm
44. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of intense fire___
a. charring
c. exhumation
b. cremation
d. baking
45. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and no longer
responds to mechanical or electrical stimulus due to dissolution of protein.
a. Primary flaccidity
b. Post mortem rigidity
c. stage of secondary flaccidity
d. Putrefaction
e. decomposition
46. Moggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how
many days from death.
a
. l day
c. 3 days
b. 2 days
d. 4 days
47. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours after
death?
a. 24 hours
c. 36 hours
b. 12 hours
d. 48 hours
48. Period of time wherein human bone will not exhibit change according to
Alphonse Bertillon.
a. 10 years
c. 30 years
b. 20 years
d. 40 years
49. Average time of decomposition for tropical countries such as Philippines
a. 12 24 hours
c. 36 48 hours
b. 24 48 hours
d. 48 72 hours
50. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which caused it.
a. defense wound

b. self inflicted wound

c. patterned wound
d. mutilated wound
51. Wound produced by a butchers knife.
a. punctured wound
c. lacerated wound
b. hack wound
d. incised wound
52. It is a formation of a soft freoble brownish white greasy substance in the soft
tissues after death.
a. Mummification
c. Putrefaction
b. saponification
d. decomposition
53. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents
a. 2 3 hours
c. 4 5 hours
b. 3 4 hours
d. 5 6 hours
54. A person who is considered dead if no rate of fall of body temperature is about
a. 10 - 15F
c. 15 20F
b. 20 25 F
d. 25 30 F
55. Period of time wherein the body would b e completely skeletonized under
normal conditions in tropical countries
a. 1 month
c. 6 months
b. 3 months
d. 12 months
56. As a general rule, if there is no heart action for a period of ___death is regarded
as certain.
a. 5 minutes
c. 7 minutes
b. 6 minutes
d. 8 minutes
57. Stages in blood changes where blood goes to the dependent portion of the body
but not yet solidify.
a. livor mortis
c. hypostatic lividity
b. diffusion lividity d. cadaveric spasm
58. An adult has only ____bones
a. 200
b. 202
c. 204
d. 206
59. The following are indication of gunshot wound of entrance.
a. that the size is smaller than the exit
b. that the edge is inverted
c. that the shape is round or oval
d. that the edge is everted
e. a, b, and c only
60. Vital reaction is/are present on the following EXCEPT:
a. Ante Mortem injuries c. Stab wound over the body
b. fist blow over the body d. Post mortem injuries
61. It is a physical injury wherein the victim is ill treat or incapacitated for work or
require medical attendance for a period of one to 9 days.
a. slight physical
b. less serious physical injury
c. serious physical injury
d. mutilation
62. Stab wound is produced by
a. sharp edges and sharp pointed instrument
b. sharp edged instrument
c. blunt instrument
d. Sharp pointed instrument
sharp edge instrument = incised wound
blunt = lacerated wound
rough object = abrasion
sharp pointed = punctured wound
63. Solution of the natural continuity of any tissue of the living body is called
a. fracture
c. wound
b. dislocation
d. contusion
64. Points to be considered in reporting of wound
a. character of wound
b. location of wound
c. number of wound
d. measurement of wound
e. all of the above

65. A wound which is the result of instinctive reaction of self protection is what
special type of wound.
a. defense
c. offensive
b. self inflicted wound
d. Patterned
66. When the head is free and mobile, a blow on the back of the head may produce
laceration in the front part of the brain. This is what type of inury.
a. direct or coup injury c. remote
b. contre-coup injury
d. coup-contrecoup injury
Coup injury = the wound/injury is found in the site of application of force.
Contre coup = opposite the site
Coup-contre coup = on the site and opposite site.
Locus minoris = not on the site nor opposite but on the weak part of the body.
Extensive injury = great destruction or scatered wound/injury
66. wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will endanger ones
life
a. non-mortal wound
c. trauma
b. mortal wound
d. coup injury
67. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of
the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning that the
distance of the body to the gun is approximately.
a. 6 inches
c. 18 inches
b. 12 inches
d. 24 inches
68. A physical injury which is found at the site and also at the opposite of the
application of force
a. extensive injury c. contre-coup injury
b. coup injury
d. coup-contre coup
injury
69. When the person was stabbed by an ice-pick, what wound would be exhibited.
a. punctured wound
c. lacerated wound
b. hack wound
d. incised wound
70. DNA is found in all nucleats cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of
life. What does it stands for.
a. Deonatural acide
b. deoxyribonucleic acid
c. dynamic natural antibody
d. deocxyribonuclic acid
71. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval which allowed the
development of complications which becomes the cause of death.
a.
Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b.
Immediate or primary cause of death
c.
Cardio-respiratory arrest
a. Nocturnal death
72. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has occurred more than
24 hours hence are useful to approximate the time of death.
a. flies
b. earthworms
c. bees d. butterflies
73. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained physician.
a. Autopsy
c. medical examination
b. embalming
d. post-mortem
examination
74. In the determination of the sex of the skeleton, the following bones must be
studied, except.
a. sacrum
c. sternum
b. skull
d. none of these
75. What test determines cessation of respiration?
a. Winslows test c. Diaphanus test
b. magnus test
d. none of these
76. Legal medicine is that branch of medicine which deals with the application of
medical knowledge to the purpose of _____.
a. law and justice
b. determination of cause of death
c. identifying the victim
d. none of these

77. Medical jurisprudence is that branch of _____which deals with the regulation and
organization of medical profession.
a. law
c. justice
b. medicine
d. jurisprudence
78. The following are methods of approximating the height of a person, except.
a. two times the length from the vertex of the skull to the coccyx.
b. Two times the length of one arm plus 12 inches for the clavicle and 1.5
inches for the sternum
c. The distance between the tips of the middle fingers of both hands with the
arms extended laterally.
d. None of these
79. Refers to the stiffening of the muscles due to the sohdification the body is
exposed to freezing temperature.
a. cold stiffening
c. froze stiffening
b. iced stiffening
d. none of these
80. The following are important of cadaveric lividity, EXCEPT.
a. sign of death
b. determines whether the position of the body has been changed
c. may indicate the cause of death
d. none of these
81. EXCEPT one, the following are characteristics of cadaveric spasm
a. a natural phenomena which occur after death
b. appears immediately after death
c. involves only a group of muscles
d. all of these
82.Is a form of ligature strangulation in which the force applied to the neck is
derived from the gravitational drag of the weight of the body?
a. hanging
c. lynching
b. strangulation by ligature
d. none of these
83. Smothering means ________
a. blockage of the external air-passages
b. blockage of the upper airways
c. deprivation of oxygen
d. none of these
84. ______is associated with the failure of the arterial blood to become normally
saturated with oxygen.
a. Anoxic death
b. anemic anoxic death
c. stagnant anoxic death
d. none of these
85. It is produced by compression of the neck by means of a ligature which is
tightened by a force other than the weight of the body.
a. strangulation by ligature
c. throttling
b. hanging
d. gagging
86. This is a form of asphyxial death whereby the constrict force applied in the neck
is the hand.
a. Throttling
c. mugging
b. gagging
d. none of these
87. According to Phopel, there are five level of stiffening of the joints. What level is
that where some stiffening allows relaxed repetitive movement of the hands?
a. level IV
c. level III
b. level II
d. level I
88. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles occurring at the moment of death,
usually
associated with violent death due to extreme nervous tension, or even
fatigue?
a.
heat stiffening
c. cadaveric spasm
b. Rigor mortis
d. cold stiffening
89. What is the other name for cells clump?
a. overlapping
c. clumping
b. agglutinate
d. constipation
90. What kinds of skin is dry, and dead, peeled away from the surface skin?
a. slight skin
c. incipient ridge
b. burned skin
d. scarf skin

91. Rigor mortis is very important in determining the approximate time of death for
it starts at about 2 to 6 hrs and completes at ______?
a. 36 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 12 hrs
d. 48 hrs
92. In which instance can you get more evidence of poisoning?
a. When the victim survive
b. When the victim died
c. When the suspect was arrested
d. When the victim is aware of the poisoning
93. When there is poisoning?
a. When the substance was introduced to the body.
b. When the poison combined with the food.
c. When the substance is absorbed by the body and act chemically.
d. When the substance is introduced to the body and absorbs.
94. Is a pathological classification of death which is characterized by increasing
dypsnea.
a. Coma
c. Syncope
b. Asphyxia
d. Somatic
95. What causes the pink color of blood and tissue of a gunshot wound of entry?
a. Carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
b. cellulose nitrite d. Hydrogen disulfide
96. It is a type of virginity in which a woman has awareness and had sexual
indulgence but the hymen is considered in tact
a. Virgo Intacta
c. Moral Virginity
b. Demi Virgin
d. Physical Virginity
97. Which of the following is a potential biological agent?
a. Viagra
c. Antrax
b. Hydrogen
d. Smallpox
CRIMINALISTICS

Dr. Ariel C. Manlusoc

Personal Identification
A system of recognizing and identifying a particular person based on his/her
characteristics as differentiate from others.
1. A system of identification which was used earlier than the fingerprint system,
made by measuring various bony structure of human body. Developed by Alphonse
Bertillion.
a. Portrait Parle
c. Tattoo
b. Anthropometry d. Photography
2. Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight of a person who is almost a
stranger.
a. 100 yards
c. 16-17 yards
b. 25 yards
d. 10-13 yards
100 yards = never seen even once, 16 17 yards = moonlight and 10 -13 yards =
starlight.
3. Is the basic principle involve in personal Identification which states that the
greater the number of similarity or difference the greater the probability for the
identity or non identity to be conclusive.
a. Law of individuality
b. Law of multiplicity of evidence
c. Law of infallibility
d. Law of constancy
a, c, and d are principles of fingerprint identification.
4. Which of the following personal Identification is not easy to change?
a. Hair
c. Speech
b. Dress
d. personal paraphernalia
=hair, dress and paraphernalia are easily removal and changeable.
5. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of Identification.
a. DNA fingerprinting
c. Dactyloscopy
b. Fingerprint Identification
d. Photography
=DNA fingerprinting admits of certain exception such as identical twin.
6. Identification of person can be done either by Comparison or by____?

a. Exclusion
c. Examination
b. Experimentation
d. Inclusion
=Comparison and Exclusion or Elimination
7. A system of Identification best used in case of burned body.
a. Fingerprint
c. Skeletal Identification
b. Odontology
d. Photography
System of identification that can be used to burned body: (1) DNA fingerprinting, (2)
Forensic Odontology, (3) Forensic Anthropology Skeletal Identification.
8. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives recognition to the science
of fingerprint?
a. People Vs. Medina c. People Vs. Jennings
b. Miranda Vs. Arizona
d. West Case
People vs. Jennings (U.S. case used 14 points of similarity)
West case = defeats the Anthropometry System. It is a case of two person who are
physically identical but have different fingerprint.
9. Known as the Father of Modern Fingerprint, whose system of classification was
spread in almost all English speaking country.
a. Juan Vucitich
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
b. Francis Galton
d. William Herschel
Juan Vucetich = his system of classification was accepted by Spanish Speaking
Countries.
Francis Galton = undertook the first definitive study and classification of F.P.,
statistical study to prove uniqueness of F.P. and wrote the book Finger Prints.
William Herschel = first application of F.P. for identification and developed
Chiroscopy.
10. Is the person who discover the two main layer of the friction skin (Epidermis and
Dermis) and to whom one of the thin layer of the friction skin was named.
a. Herman Welckerc. Marcelo Malpighe
b. Nehemiah Grew d. Dr. Henry Faulds
Herman Welcker = proved the principle of permanency by printing is palm twice
with a lapse of 41 years.
Nehemiah Grew = the first to wrote a treaty on the study of ridges and sweat pores
Dr. Henry Faulds = a surgeon who gives value to latent prints.
11. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of fingerprints in
August 8, 1882, by using his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering
with the pay order he issued.
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
b. Capt James Parke
c. Gilbert Thompson
d. Dr. Henry P. De Forest
Dr. Henry P. De Forest =Utilized the first Municipal Civil use of fingerprint for
Criminal Registration.
Capt. James L. Parke = Advocate the first state and penal use of fingerprint adopted
in SingSing prison
Sgt. John Kenneth Ferrier = First fingerprint instructor at St. Louis Police Dept.
Missouri.
12. Is the person known for being the U.S. public enemy number one, who attempt
to destroy his friction by applying a corrosive acid.
a. Robert James Pitts
c. Roscoe Pitts
b. John Dillenger
d. John Augustus
Robert James Pitts = used surgery to destroy his friction ridges. Known as the Man
without fingerprint. Also known by the name Roscoe Pitts.
John Augustus = father of probation. He developed the first formal law on probation
in the city of Massachusetts.
13. Is the scientific study of the prints of the soles of the feet?
a. Poroscopy
c. Podoscopy
b. Chiroscopy
d. Dactyloscopy
Chiroscopy (Greek word Cheir a hand, Skopien to examine) study of the
prints of the palms of the hand.
Podoscopy (Greek word Podo the foot, and Skopien to the study of the
footprints.
Poroscopy (Greek word poros a pare, and Skopien to examine) study of the
arrangement of the sweat pores.
Ridgeoscopy = study of Ridges or friction ridges.

Edgeoscopy = study of the sides of the finger.

14. Is the science of fingerprint identification
a. dactyloscopy
c. dactylomancy
b. dactylography d. dactylo-analysis
Dactyloscopy (derived from the Latin words Dactyl = finger and Skopien to
study or examine) is the practical application of the science of fingerprints.
Dactylography is the scientific study of fingerprint as a means of identification.
Dactylomancy is the scientific study of fingerprint for purposes of personality
interpretation.
15. The word finger was derived from what Latin word?
a. dermis
c. digitus
b. dactyl
d. skopien
Dactyloscopy = derived from Latin word dactyl and skopien.
Polydactyl = born with more than the regular number of fingers.
Macrodactyl = enlarged finger.
Microdactyl = reduced/small finger.
Ectodactyl = missing finger at birth.
Syndactyl = side fussion of the finger.
16. The principle in fingerprint study that states that fingerprint cannot be forged.
Fingerprint is a reliable and a positive means of identification.
a. principle of infallibility
b. principle of permanency
c. principle of individuality
d. Law of multiplicity of evidence
Dogmatic Principles of F.P. Identification
1. Individuality = based on Statistical probability that no two persons have the same
fingerprint. (1:64,000,000,000 Francis Galton).
2. Infallability = reliable, positive, not easy to be forged.
3. Permanency/Constancy = F.P. is unchangeable. (Herman Welcker)
17. What is the main layer of the epidermis, which covers the surface on which
ridges are visible?
a. dermis
c. stratum corneoum
b. stratum mucusom
d. sanguinal stratum
Epidermal Skin/Friction Skin/ Papillary Skin
= hairless skin, strips of skin without coloring pigments.
Two Main layers of the friction skin:
Epidermis =outer layer
Dermis =inner layer
Epidermis is divided into: stratum corneum and stratum mucosum
18. Friction skin may be damage permanently when which of its layer was damage?
a. dermis
c. dermal papillae
b. epidermis
d. generating layer
Epidermis = if damage will leave temporary damage.
19. How deep is the cut in order to produced permanent scar?
a. more than 1 cm
c. 1 m
b. more than 1mm
d. 1dm
20. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called pores) in an inked finger
impression?
a. sweat pores
c. furrows
b. ridges
d. sweat duct
.
21. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin (found
between ridges).
a. pores
c. indentions
b. furrows
d. duct
Component parts of Friction skin
1. Ridge Surface
a. Friction Ridges or ridges = elevated portion/hill like/black-lines.
b. Furrows = depressed portion/canal-like/ white space.
2. Sweat Pores= tiny/small openings/ tiny white dots.
3. Sweat Duct = passage way of sweat.
4. Sweat Glands= the producer of sweat.
22. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there? (types)

a. three
b. Two
c. Eight
d. Nine
Groups = three (3) Loop, Arch and Whorl
23. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow
to the other side with a rise in the center?
a. loop
c. tented arch
b. plain archd. exceptional arch
24. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or two of the three
basic characteristics of the loop?
a. Plain archc. central pocket loop
b. tented arch
d. accidental whorl
Arch (5%) = Two types (2): plain (A) and tented arch (T) --- (a) uptrust, (b) angle,
and (c) Incomplete loop type.
= no ridge count.
Loop (65)= Two types :radial and ulnar loop.
= core, dellta, a sufficient recurve, at least 1 ridge count.
Whorl (30%)= Four types (4) plain whorl (W), central pocket loop whorl (C), double
loop whorl (D) and accidental whorl (X).
= two or more deltas and at least one circuiting ridge.
25. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should have _______ridge count.
a. 1
b. at least 1
c. 2
d. 3
26. What type of a pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridges makes a turn
through one complete circuit?
a. arch b. accidental whorl c. loop d. whorl
27. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows
towards the little finger?
a. loop
b. radial loop
c. ulnar loop
d. tented arch
Radial loop (radius bone) (RH = /, LH = \) = towards the thumb.
Ulnar loop (ulna bone) (RH = \, LH = /) = towards the little finger.
28. The diagonal sign / means ________.
a. right hand ulnar
c. left hand radial
b. left hand ulnar d. none
29. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more deltas, one or more ridge
forming a complete circuitry and when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to
right delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as the most common
type of whorl.
a. plain whorl
c. central pocket loop whorl
b. double loop whorl
d. accidental whorl
Plain Whorl = lines from left to right delta cross/touch at least one circuiting ridge.
Central pocket loop whorl = lines from left to right delta does not cross/touch at
least one circuiting ridge.
Double loop whorl = two separate loop/shoulders.
Accidental whorl = combination of two patterns, except with plain arch.
30. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not included in the
combination?
a. ulnar loop
b. plain whorl
c. tented arch
d. plain arch
31. The core and delta are also termed as _____?
a. inner terminus c. outer terminus
b. focal point
d. pattern area
Focal points also called Fingerprint terminus
Core inner terminus
Delta outer terminus
32. Is a point along a ridge formation, which is found in front or near the center of
the diverging typelines.
a. core
c. island ridge
b. delta
d. Convergence
33. What is the rule where there are two or more possible bifurcation deltas which
conform to the definition of delta?
a. the one nearest the core should be chosen
b. the one away from the core should be counted
c. the one which does not open towards the core is counted
d. the one towards the core should be counted
34. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it
counted?

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. Six
35. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously running side by side?
a. bifurcation
c. convergence
b. divergence
d. enclosure
36. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a period?
a. lake
c. ending ridge
b. island ridge
d. incipient ridge
Basic types of ridges: ridge dot, ending ridge, short ridge and bifurcation.
Convergence = two separate ridges that meets at certain point. (meeting of two
separate ridges).
Divergence = two ridges that spreads apart.
(Spreading of two separate
ridges)
Bifurcation = single ridge that splits into two or more forming a Y-shape.
Enclosure = a single ridge that splits into two ridges and meets to form the original
ridge.
37. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that meets to form the original
figure?
a. bifurcation
c. island ridge
b. lake ridge
d. convergence
38. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the direction from which it
started.
a. diverging ridge
c. recurving ridge
b. converging ridge
d. bifurcation
39. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge curves inward.
a. sufficient recurve
c. appendage
b. obstruction ridge
d. shoulder of loop
40. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge which has spoiled the
inner line of flow from the inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found
in the second type of central pocket loop.
a. bar
c. uptrust
b. appendage
d. obstruction
Appendage is a short ridge found at the top or summit of a recurve.
Rod or Bar is a short of long ridge found inside the recurve and directed towards
the core or parallel to the recurve.
Uptrust = a horizontal ridge that makes a sufficient rise at the center.
41. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the line flow below the right
delta and there are three intervening ridge.
a. meeting whorl
c. outer whorl
b. inner whorl
d. central pocket loop whorl
Meeting whorl = there are two or less intervening ridge/s.
Inner whorl = with three (3) intervening ridge and the tracing flows above/inside
the right delta.
42. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular ridge which is not
included as a ridge count even if it has been cross by the imaginary line.
a. ending ridge
c. incipient ridge
b. intervening ridge
d. enclosure
43. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and which resembles a fork
structure
a. divergence
c. convergence
b. bifurcation
d. enclosure
44. Ridge forms in the persons fingers and feet during its infants stage which
usually starts:
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
d. 5th to 6th months before birth
3rd to 4th months of the fetus life or 5th to 6ht months before birth.
Epidermis = temporary destruction
Dermis = permanent destruction
cut of more than 1mm = permanent scar.
45. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene between the delta and
core of a loop?
a. ridge tracing
c. ridge counting
b. ridge tracking
d. ridge summing

Ridge tracing = between tracing ridge and right delta.

Intervening ridge = ridges between tracing ridge and right delta.
Ridge count = ridges between delta and core.
4. 6What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled impression?
a. both little finger
c. both thumb finger
b. all finger except thumb d. both index finger
Types of fingerprint impression on the FP Card
1. Rolled impression = taken individually by rolling the finger from the tip to the
end of the first joint. Used for classification purposes.
2. Plain Impression = taken simultaneously by simply pressing the ten fingers. It
serves as guide or reference in checking the rolled impression.
47. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the fingerprint ink to the slab?
a. Fingerprint brush c. Fingerprint lifting tapes
b. Fingerprint roller d. fingerprint card
Fingerprint card =where F.P. is recorded (8X8)
Ink slab = metal/glass plate where ink is spread.
48. Is the process of placing the letter symbols under each pattern as the results of
the interpretation of all ten fingers.
a. classification formula
b. reference classification (additional classification formula)
c. blocking out
d. fingerprint identification
49. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch.
a. T
b. A
c. P
d. W
50. Is the division in the classification formula which is always represented by
numerical value depending upon a whorl pattern appearing in each finger.
a. primary
b. key
c. final d. Major
Primary div. = derived from the sum of the numerator and denominator plus the
pre-established fraction of 1/1.
51. In assigning a number value to whorl pattern, what finger should be given a
value of 4 when a whorl pattern appears therein:
a. left little finger and right thumb
b. right thumb and left little finger
c. right little finger and left thumb
d. left thumb and right
52. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the fingers of the left hand
are loops, what will be the primary division?
a. 25/29
c. 24/28
b. 29/25
d. 28/24
P = 1/1 + the sum of N/D = 25/29
2 4
6
8 10 (fingers)
16
8
0
0
0
16
8
4
0
0
1
3
5
7
9 (fingers)
53. What patterns are included in the secondary division in deriving the small letter
category.
a. ulnar loop, plain arch and tented arch
b. radial loop, ulnar and arch
c. radial, plain arch and tented arch
d. radial, ulnar, plain arch
54. What would be the secondary divisions if all the right hand fingers are radial
loops while all the left hand fingers are tented arches.
a. 3Rr b. rR3r
c. R3r
d. R4r
3Tt
tT3t
T3t
T4t
Secondary div. = combination of Capital Letters (index fingers) and small letters
(from T, M, R, and L fingers = r,a,t).
55. What is the interpretation for a ridge count on the left index that reaches 8.
a. exceptional
c. radial loop
b. inner loop
d. outer loop
Sub-secondary = derived by ridge counting loop and ridge tracing whorl
appearing in the Index, Middle and Ring fingers.

Loops = Inner (I) or Outer (0)

Index (9), Middle (10), and Ring (13)
Whorls = Meeting (M), Inner (I), and Outer (O)
Arches = Dash (-)
56. In interpreting a loop pattern, what is the numerical value of S in the left hand?
a. 1 to 11
c. 1 to 17
b. 18 to 22
d. 12 to 16
57. In a loop pattern, when the number of the ridges on the left thumb is 17 or
more, it constitutes as:
a. exceptional
c. isolation
b. alteration
d. Conditional
Major Div. = derived from both thumb fingers.
Loops = R. C. = S, M, L
Whorls = R.T. = M,O,I
Arches = Dash (-)
58. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central pocket loop whorl in the little finger it
is derived by:
a. getting the ridge count of the top loop (double loop whorl)
b. treating it as ulnar loop
c. getting the least ridge count (accidental whorl)
d. getting the delta opposite each hand
59. What division in the classification formula is derived from both little finger and is
place at the extreme right of the classification formula.
a. key b. final c. major d. secondary
60. The key division is the division in the classification which is located at the
extreme left of the classification formula and it is taken by getting the ridge count of
_______?
a. loop pattern
c. first loop
b. first radial loop
d. first whorl
Key div = derived from the ridge count of the First Loop, EXCEPT the little finger.
= If there were no loops, get the ridge count of the First Whorl.
= Only numerator.
61. In case of a missing digits or an amputated finger, what will be the classification
of said missing finger?
a. The same as the corresponding digit of the other hand
b. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
c. Mutilated finger
d. None
One finger is missing/amputated = interpreted as the same as the corresponding
digit of the other hand.
Both are amputated or missing = plain whorl with meeting tracing.
If all fingers are missing/amputated the formula:
FPC = M 32 W MMM
M 32 W MMM
62. Prints found at the scene of the crime.
a. suspected prints
b. molded prints
c. latent prints
d. prints made by contamination with colored
substance.
Latent prints
1. visible (molded prints or made by contamination with colored
substance)
2. Invisible = made from sweat.
63. Prints which were left in the place accidentally or unconsciously?
a. chance prints
c. fragmentary prints
b. smudge prints
d. latent prints
Smudge = prints made by sliding motion of the fingers.
Fragmentary = partial prints.
Latent prints = prints found at the scene of the crime.
64. What method of developing latent prints in paper is best to be used being easy
to apply and less destructive to the paper.
a. iodine fuming
c. ninhydrin method
b. silver nitrate method d. dusting method
Dusting = traditional/simplest method of developing prints in the crime scene.

65. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of a
latent fingerprint impression dusted with black powder on a green background?
a. yellow filter
c. red filter
b. green filter
d. blue filter
66. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve the contrast of a
latent fingerprint impression dusted with gray powder on a yellow background?
a. yellow filter
c. red filter
b. green filter
d. violet filter
Opposite Colors:
Blue Orange
Green Red
Yellow Violet
67. The identification of two impression can be established primarily through:
a. formation of different types of pattern
b. formation of the two terminus
c. unexplained similarity of ridges
d. similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative positions
(a and b are used for classification)
68. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed latent print?
a. Fingerprint lifting tapes
b. Evidence Identification tags
c. Fingerprint transfer card
d. Post-mortem fingerprint equipment
69. In case of split thumb, which should be classified?
a. get the smaller one
B. get the outer one
C. get the bigger one
D. get the inner one
70. In case of wounded finger, how should fingerprint be taken?
a. Just take the subject fingerprint.
b. dont print said finger and left the rolled impression box empty.
c. dont print the finger and write in the box wounded
71. What modern method of developing print is best use when all conventional
methods becomes ineffective?
a. iodine fuming c. ninhydrin method
b. laser method
d. dusting method
72. Prints made by blood, dust or dirt or other coloring substances:
a. visible prints
c. invisible prints
b. chance prints
d. fragmentary prints
73. In filing classified fingerprint card what should be the first attempt to be made:
a. primary numerator
b. secondary numerator
c. primary denominator
d. secondary denominator
74. What division of the classification formula is left blank if all fingers are
amputated.
a. Mayor and key c. key and final
b. Key and primary d. final and major
75. Is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?
a. Mutilated finger
c. Amputated finger
b. Fragmentary finger
d. Deformities
76. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are missing or cut.
a. 1/1
c. 31/31
b. 32/32
d. 16/16
77. Reagents commonly used in liquid method are the following, except:
a. Silver nitrate
c. victoria blue e. none
b. Ninhydrin
d. tetra methyl benzidine
78. The type of latent print which is made from blood, dust or dirt?
a. Chance prints
c. Visible prints
b. semi-visible
d. fragmentary
79. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin method?
a. immersion
c. dusting
b. spraying
d. brushing
80. Once the latent print has been visualized, it must be preserved by:

a. Developing the latent print

b. Lifting the impression
c. Photography
d. Brushing it
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY
= it is the application of the principles of photography to law or
administration of justice.
Police photography = the application of photography to police work. Also
known in its old usage as black and white photography.
1. The word Photography was coined by _____?
a. John F. W. Herschel
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre (Daguerreo type)
c. Henry Fox Talbot (Talo or Calo type)
d. Leonardo Da Venci
2. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in police work?
a. for identification
c. for preservation
b. for record purpose
d. for court presentation
Personal Identification = first used of photography in police work.
3. The theory of light which states that it is produced as an energy made by action
of some small particles such as electron and protons.
a. Wave theory
c. Corpuscular theory
b. Modified wave theory d. spectrum theory
e. Quantum theory
Wave theory (Huygens) = up & down travel
Corpuscular (Newton) =
Modified wave (Maxwell & Herts)= magnetism
Quantum (Einstein) = light as energy (photon)
4. It is characterized as the bending of light.
a. reflection
c. refraction
b. dispersion
d. defraction
Reflection = bouncing of light.
Defraction = lights fall around the object.
Dispersion = the spread of light as it bends forming the light spectrum.
5. In Photographing the scene of the crime, what view should be used in order to
show the best feature of the nature of the crime scene?
a. medium
c. close-up
b. general
d. extreme close-up
General view = (long range) over-all view.
Medium view = (medium range)
Close-up = (short range) details of crime scene.
Extreme close-up =details of physical evidence.
6. Is an electromagnetic energy which travels with the speed of 186, 000 miles per
second
a. light
b. energy c. rays
d. radiation
Rays = refers to the property of light characterized by its direction of travel.
Radiation = refers to the emission of energy in the form of particles or waves.
7. Light travels in a form of a wave according to wave theory of Huygens. What is
that unit of light wavelength which is express in ten millionth part of a millimeter.
a. Millimicron
c. Nanometer
b. Angstrom
d. Micron
Millimicron / Nanometer = one millionth part of mm.
Micron = equivalent to one thousand part of millimicron.
8. Is the action of light when passing a transparent object.
a. Absorbed
c. reflected
b. transmitted
d. refracted
Reflected = bouncing of light.
Absorbed = light that is block by the surface where it falls such as black cloth
(opaque)
Transmitted = light that passed through usually in a transparent object such as
plain glass.
9. Is the condition of the sunlight where object in an open space cast a transparent
or bluish shadow.
a. bright light
c. dull sunlight
b. hazy sunlight
d. none of these

Dull sunlight = thick clouds covers the sun, no shadow will be produced.
Hazy sunlight = thin clouds covers the sun.
Bright sunlight = clear sky, well defined shadow, glossy object.
10. An artificial light source which contains in its tube certain powders capable of
illuminating with some support from small amount of electricity. It is commonly used
in the house or commercial establishment.
a. Incandescent lamp
c. fluorescence lamp
b. photo flood lamp
d. flash bulb
Sources of light
1. Natural light source such as sunlight, starlight, lightning etc.
2. Artificial /Man-made light (short duration and long continuous) Flash bulb,
Incandescent lamp, Fluorescent lamp, spotlight or reflectorized light.
11. Light in which there wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the
retina of the human eye?
a. visible
c. invisible
b. natural
d. artificial or man-made
Visible light = light with the wavelength of 400 to 700 millimicron.
Invisible light = (X-ray, ultra-violet light, and Infra-red light etc.)
12. What color will be produced by the combination of a red and blue color?
a. magenta
c. yellow
b. cyan
d. Green
Primary colors == Blue, Green and Red
Blue + Green = cyan
Green + Red = yellow
Blue + Red = magenta
Secondary = cyan, yellow and magenta
13. How many photographic rays are there?
a. three
b. five c. four
d. nine
14. What photographic rays have the longest wavelength?
a. infra-red
c.ultra-violet
b. visible rays
d. x-rays
Four (4) photographic rays
X-ray (roentgen rays) = .01 to 30 millimicron.
Ultra-violet light (black light) =30 to 400 mill.
Visible light = 400 to 700 millimicron.
Infra-red (heat rays) = 700 to 1000 millimicron
15. Is a type of an artificial light which makes sympathetic inks visible?
a. ultra-violet
c. infra-red
b. transparent light
d. oblique light
16. What determine the amount of light a flash unit will yield at a given distance?
a. luminescence
b. wattage
c. guide number
d. light meter
Light meter = an accessory of a camera which measures the amount of reflected
light.
17. Laser light is also referred to as ______?
a. ultra-violet
c. visible
b. coherent
d. Heat
Concurrent = light with scattered illumination.
Coherent = light that is aligned.
18. Hologram refers to a :
a. 1 dimensional image in a film.
b. 2- dimensional image in a film
c. 3 dimensional image in a film
d. 4 dimensional image in a film
3D image (length, height and width)
19. Sidelight photography is usually done to show ________in a questioned
document.
A. Stamped out writing
C. Watermarks
B. Faded writing
D. Erasures
Direct light = support photographing.
Oblique light = from one side at a very low angle.
Side light = from one side.
Transmitted light =from the back/bottom, used for examination of watermarks, fiber
arrangement and sequence of strokes.

20. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography to_________.

a. record the image
b. . Exclude all unwanted and unnecessary lights
c. makes the image visible
d. makes the image permanent
21. How many parts does a camera generally has, with all other parts treated as
accessories?
a. five
c. six
b. four
d. Three
22. What (lens with five sides) lens system of the camera reflects the light passing
the lens and mirror making the image possible to be viewed from the viewfinder.
a. pentaprism
c. condenser
b. shutter
d. filter
Condenser = is that part of the enlarger that ensures even illumination of the light
to the negative.
Filter = is a piece of plastic or glass used to subtract or control light passing through
it.
23. Is that part of the camera which controls the passage of light reaching the
sensitized material? It compared to the eyelid of the human eye.
a. lens
c. shutter
b. lens opening
d. film plane
Lens opening = is the ratio between the focal length and the diameter of the whole
lens expressed in F-number. It is the control for depth of field.
24. Is that part of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of
the area coverage of a given lens.
a. lens
c. view finder
b. shutter
d. pentaprism
25. Is a camera accessory designed to fix the camera focus and avoid its unusual
movement during the process of photographing?
a. cable release
c. stand
b. tripod
d. camera strap
26. What problem is usually encountered by a photographer in using a flash unit?
a. neutral density
c. synchronization
b prospective
d. Parallax
Synchronization = timing between the shutter and the flash.
Parallax = omission of an object. Image viewed in the view finder is not exactly
produce in the photograph.
27. To readily determine the degree of magnification of a subject in a photograph
________ should be place beside the subject.
A. Ruler
C. rangefinder
B. Scale bed
D. Gray-scale
28. Why must the taking of photographs from an unusual camera position in crime
photography be avoided?
a. it distorts the focus
b. it distorts the perspective
c. it distorts the magnification
d. it distorts the texture
Focus and magnification is affected by distance.
29. What type of a camera is ideal to police photography?
a. view finder type c. single lens reflex (SLR)
b. twin lens reflex (TLR) d. press/view camera
SLR = is an interchangeable lens type of camera.
View finder = simplest /cheapest
TLR = one lens for focusing/ one for forming.
View or Press = biggest and expensive.
30. What type of a film has the longest range of sensitivity in the electromagnetic
spectrum called?
a. orthochromatic film
c. blue-sensitive film
b. panchromatic film
d. infra-red film
Film = is a sheet of celluloid or glass coated with an emulsion of silver halides
suspended in gelatin which retains on invisible image when exposed to light.
Black & White Film =ortho or pan
Colored (negative type---color or reversal -- chrome)

31. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic form?

a. ISO
b. DIN
c. ASA
d. GNP
ASA American Standard Association
10, 20, 30 , 40 , 50, 100, 200, 400, 800, 1000
DIN - Deutche Industre Normen
3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36
ISO = International Standard Organization.
32. Assuming all conditions will be the same, which film gives the finest of grains?
a. ASA 1000
b. ASA 100
c. ASA 200
d. ASA 400
Film speed/emulsion speed = the higher the number the more sensitive or faster
the film.
Finest grains = the lower the number the finer the grains.
33. In Police Photography, what is the ideal weight for enlarging paper?
a. double weight
c. medium weight
b. single weight
d. light weight
Double weight is for portrait form.
34. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal exposed film?
a. # 1
b. # 3
c. # 2
d. # 4
# 0 for extremely overexposed and # 1 for overexposed
# 3, #4 and #5 are for underexposed
35. What photo paper according to its chemical content is best suited for police
photography?
a. Chloride paper
c. Chloro-bromide
b. Bromide paper d. Iodide paper
Silver chloride = is best for contact printing.
36. A convex lens is capable of?
a. reducing the object
b. making the object appear hairy
c. enlarging the object
d. reducing the size of the picture
Convex = thicker at the center.
(positive/converging lens)
Concave = thinner at the center.
(negative/diverging lens)
37. Zoom lens is composed of?
a. Positive lens
c. negative lens
b. a and c
d. none
38. Is a lens defect which enable the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical lines
in a plane at the same time
a. Coma
c. Distortion
b. Astigmatism
d. Chromatic aberration
Coma / lateral aberration = straight line becomes blurred.
Distortion = a defect not in blurredness but in shape. (barrel/pinchusion)
Chromatic aberration = defects in color.
39. What type of a lens is used in a simplest and cheapest type of a camera?
a. rapid rectillinear lens c. meniscus lens
b. anastigmat lens
d. achromatic lens
e. Apochromatic lens
Meniscus = no correction
Rapid rectillinear = corrected from distortion.
Anastigmat = corrected from astigmatism
Achromatic = corrected from chromatic aberration.
40. What kind of diaphragm opening should a photographer used in order to get a
wider depth of field?
a. wider
c. shorter
b. smaller
d. Longer
F-Number = focal length/diameter of the whole lens
f 2.8, f -4, f-5.6,
f-8, f-11,
f-16
The smaller the f-number the bigger the lens opening.
41. What lens has a variable focal length?
a. wide angle lens c. telephotolens
b. normal focus lens
d. zoom lens

Wide angle/short focus = less than 35mm focal length. Increase the area coverage
but reduce the size of the object.
Normal/medium focus = based on human vision. (more than 35mm but not more
than two times the diagonal half of the negative).
Telephoto/long focus = reduced the area coverage but enlarged the size of the
object.
42. The determining factor of the size of an image as well as the area of coverage of
a given camera lens is the?
a. focal length
c. Diaphragm opening
b. hyper-focal distance d. Depth of field
43. A type of a lens that would make an object to be exaggeratedly closes to the
photographer and is ideal in stake out surveillance photography.
a. short focus lens
c. telephoto lens
b. normal focus lens
d. wide angle lens
44. What is the range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object that
is sharp
when the lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
a. focal length
c. depth of field
b. hyperfocal distance
d. Focusing
Focal length = is the distance from the optic center of the lens to film plane once
the lens is focus in an infinite position.
Focal distance = distance from the camera lens to the nearest object.
Hyperfocal distance = the nearest distance between the optic center of the lens to
the nearest object that would give the maximum depth of field.
45. When one uses a Photographic filter in taking a photograph, he is actually
__________light rays or color from the light to reach the film.
a. adding
b. multiplying
c. subtracting
d.
Dividing
46. A filter used in photographing fingerprints on a shiny or highly polished surfaced
because it reduces or eliminates glare is known as:
A. Neutral density
C. Color
B. Polarizing
D. Contrast filter
47. Is the light condition where object in an open space cast a deep and uniform
shadow.
a. Bright sunlight
c. Hazy sunlight
b. Dull sunlight
d. dark sunlight
Sources of light:
Natural light = used in outdoor photography.
Artificial light or man-made light = used for indoor and at night photography.
Condition of sunlight:
Bright sunlight
Hazy sunlight = cast transparent or bluish shadow.
Dull sunlight = cast no shadow.
48. If the basic exposure for a given film in bright sunlight is l/125, f11, the exposure
setting at dull sunlight would be?
a. 1/125 f4
c. 1/125 f8
b. 1/125 f5.6
d. 1/125 f16
BS = 1/125 , f-11
HS= 1/125 , f-8
DS = 1/125 , f-5.6
49. The part of enlarger that will assure the even illumination of the negative when
enlarging is the:
A. Lamp house
C. Condenser
B. Bellows
D. Focusing speed
50. What is the recommended size of photographic evidence?
a. 5 x 7 inches
c. 2 x 2 inches
b. Passport size
d. 4 x 8 inches
51. What is the usual time of fixing of a negative or a photograph?
a. five to six minutes
b. ten to fifteen twelve
c. one to one and half minutes
d. twenty to thirty minutes
5- 6 minutes = Developing time for D-76
1 1 minutes = developing time for dektol
52. Is the reducers or the developing agents.

a. Elon, Hydroquinone
c. sodium sulfate
b. sodium carbonate
d. potassium bromide
Sodium sulfate = preservative
Potasium alum/ Potassium bromide = hardener.
53. The need for long and continuous washing in water of a negative or finished
print is to remove the presence of___________ because its presence will result to the
early fading.
A. Sodium sulfite
C. Acetic acid
B. Potassium alum
D. Hypo
Sodium thiosulfate (Hypo) = the fixing or dissolving agent.
Acetic acid = neutralizer
54. Error in the processing step like overdevelopment could be remedied by the
sued of a:
A. reducer
c. Bleacher
b. intensifier
d. stain remover
Intensifier = for underdeveloped.
Stain remover = for stained sensitized material
53. What is that process of eliminating unwanted portions of a negative during
enlarging process?
a. dodging
c. burning-in
b. vignetting
d. Cropping
Cropping = omitting an object.
Burning in =additional exposure on the desired portion of a negative.
Vignetting = gradual fading of the image towards the side.
55. What is the functions of the boric acid and acetic acids in the fixer?
a. as preservative
c. as hardener
b. as neutralizer d. as dissolving agent
56. The chemical that will dissolve all the unexposed and undeveloped silver halides
after development is the?
a. acetic acid
c. hypo
b. sodium sulfate d. potassium alum
57. What shutter speed will freeze a moving object?
a. B-shutter
c. Fast shutter
b. Slow shutter
d. moderate shutter
Fast shutter = freeze a moving object.
B-shutter = used when taking photograph at night or when the source of light is
low. Used together with cable release and tripod.
58. How much light will the combination of 1/125, f-4 has compare to 1/250, f-5.6.
a. equal b. 2 times c. four times d. 6 times
1/125, f -4 = 1/250, f-5.6
59. That part of the camera responsible for transmitting the light to form the image
(Image forming device).
a. Light tight box c. Lens
b. shutter
d. view finder
60. It is the process of taking a magnified (enlarged) photograph of small object
obtained by attaching an extended tube lens to a camera.
a. Photomicrography
b. Photomacrography
c. Microphotography
d. Photomacrograph
Photomicrography = Taking a magnified photograph of small object through
attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound microscope so as to show a minute
details of the physical evidence. (Photomicrograph = a photograph of the minute
details of small object)
Photomacrogaphy = Taking a magnified (enlarged) photograph of small
object by attaching an extended tube lens (macro lens) to the camera.
(Photomacrograph = enlarged photograph of small object)
Microphotography = is the process of reducing into a small strips of film a
scenario. It is first used in filmmaking.
61. Is a magnified photograph of small object obtained by attaching a camera to the
ocular of a compound microscope.
a. Photomicrography c. Photomicrograph

b. Microphotograph
d. Photomacrograph
Photomicrography and photomacrography are process.
Photomacrograph = is an enlarged photograph.
Microphotograph = is a reduced photograph. making big object small.
62. Is that part of the sensitized which is sensitive to light.
a. emulsion
c. base
b. Anti halation
d. coating
Anti halation = designed to prevent further reflexes by absorbing excess light.
63. Is that substance present in the emulsion surface of the film or photo paper
which is sensitive to light.
a. silver nitrate
c. silver chloride
b. silver halides
d. silver bromide
64. Taking photograph in back lighting will produce what image?
a. Good image
c. fare image
b. Bad image
d. better image
** what is required in front lighting**
65. What is meant by total take?
a. photograph the crime scene in all angles.
b. Photograph only important evidence.
c. Photograph the crime scene
d. Photograph the body of the crime.
Forensic Ballistics
= it is the science of firearms identification by means of an ammunition fired from
them
1. The word forensic means _______?
a. Forum
b. public discussion
c. market place
d. In connection with administration of justice
The word forensic was derived from the Latin word forum meaning a market
place, a place where people gathered for public discussion.
2. The person accredited as successful inventor of gun powder.
a. Horace smith
b. Alexander John Forsyth
c. Berthhold Schwartz
d. Col Calvin H. Goddard
Calvin H. Goddard = father of modern ballistics.
Horace Smith= founder of Smith and Wesson company.
3. It is the science of mobility of the projectile.
a. forensic ballistics
c. applied physics
b. ballistics
d. applied science
4. Is that branch of ballistics which treats of the motion of the projectile while it is in
its flight?
a. Interior
b. terminal
c. exterior
d. forensic
Interior = before leaving the gun muzzle.
Exterior = upon leaving the gun muzzle.
Terminal = upon reaching/hitting the target.
5. Is a Greek word from which the word ballistics was derived which means to
throw
a. Ballistics
c. Ballein or ballo
b. Catapult
d. Ballista
Ballista = is a gigantic catapult (Roman war machine) designed to throw stone to
the enemy.
6. It refers to the motion of the projectile once it enters a rifled barrel of a gun.
a. Direct
c. Transnational
b. Rotatory
d. Twist
Direct = forward movement.
Rotatory = twist of the bullet either to the R or L.
Translational = change in the motion of the bullet.
7. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell.
a. hammer
c. trigger
b. primer
d. flash hole
Trigger = release the hammer.
Hammer = push the firing pin.

Firing pin = hits the primer.

Primer = imparts ignition to the gun powder
Flash hole = where the primer imparts ignition to the gun powder.
8. Is the rearward reaction of the firearm in relation to the forward movement of the
bullet upon firing?
a. percussion action
c. back fire
b. recoil
d. ricochet
Percussion action = is the ignition of the priming mixture.
Jump = upward reaction of the gun.
9. Is the stillness or the steadiness of the bullet in flight? (Straight travel in flight)
a. key hole shot
c. yaw
b. ricochet
d. gyroscopic action
Recochet =bouncing of bullet as a result of not penetrating or hitting a hard object.
Yaw = unstable rotation motion of bullet.
Key hole shot = thumbling of bullet in flight hitting the target sideways.
10. The actual pattern or curve path of the bullet in flight.
a. curve
c. gyroscopic action
b. trajectory
d. drop of bullet
11. Is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time, expressed in ft/sec?
a. muzzle velocity c. muzzle blast
b. velocity
d. Trajectory
Muzzle blast = noise or sound generated at the muzzle point.
Muzzle velocity = the speed at which the bullet leaves the muzzle.
12. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot. Where the bullet
travel straight.
a. Maximum range c. Maximum effective range
b. Accurate range d. Effective range
Range = imaginary straight distance between muzzle and the target.
Effective range = distance where bullet is lethal.
Maximum effective range = farther distance where bullet is still lethal.
Maximum range= farthest possible distance of travel.
13. Is the size of the bullet grouping on the target?
a. Terminal penetration c. Terminal accuracy
b. Terminal energy
d. Muzzle velocity
Terminal penetration = depth of entry of the bullet to the target.
Muzzle velocity = speed at which the bullet leaves the gun muzzle.
Terminal energy = the effect or the impact of the bullet to the target (striking
power).
14. What type of a firearm propels a projectile with more than one inch diameter?
a. small arms
c. artillery
b. machine gun
d. Cannon
Artillery =more than one inch
Small Arms = less than one inch
Machine gun = automtic/continuous firing
Shoulder arm = carry/fired with the aid of the shoulder.
Hand gun = can be fired in one hand.
15. A type of a firearm in which the mechanism is so arranged that makes it capable
of continuous firing in a single press of a trigger and while the trigger is press.
a. machine gun
c. sub-machine gun (SMG)
b. grease gun
d. shoulder arm
SMG and grease gun are the same.
16. What type of a firearm is designed to propel a projectile by means of
compressed air or strong string?
a. air rifle
c. Springfield armory
b. carbine
d. musket
17. A type of a firearm which propels a number of lead pellets in one charge to a
smooth bore barrel.
a. rifle
c. machine gun
b. shotgun
d. Musket
Smooth bore = without rifling
a. musket =muzzle loading/ancient weapon

b. shotgun = breech loading/a number of lead pellets.

Rifled bore = with rifling
a. rifle
b. carbine = short barrel rifle (less than 22)
18. What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry. (riding a horse)
a. carbine
c. pistol
b. revolver
d. rifle
Revolver = ideal for horse riding.
19. What type of a hand firearm has a rotating cylinder that serves as the magazine
and which successively places cartridge into position for firing.
a. pistol
c. rifle
b. revolver
d. Carbine
20. A type of a firearm in which pressure upon the trigger will both cock and release
the hammer.
a. single action
c. single shot
b. double action
d. repeating arms
Single action =requires manual cocking.
21. What type of a firearm contains rifling (land and grooves) only a few inch from
the muzzle point?
a. cylinder type
c. rifled bore
b. choke
d. Paradox
22. What type of a firearm is fed by chamber?
a. single shot F/A
c. bolt action
b. slid action
d. repeating arms
Cylinder type = equal diameter
Choke type = reducing diameter
Paradox = with rifling a few inch from the muzzle point.
23. Generally applied to all home made gun, just as the one used by juvenile
delinquent in United States.
a. zip gun
c. freakish gun
b. grease gun
d. paltik
24. A copper jacketed type of a bullet is usually fired from a:
a. rifle
b. pistol
c. revolver
d. pistol and
revolver
Freakish gun = a tool in which F/A mechanism is attached.
Paltik = the counter part of zip gun in the Phils.
25. Known as the smallest pistol in the world.
a. Colibre
c. senorita
b. cal 22
d. Kolibre
26. Is that part of a firearm which houses all the other parts.
a. housing
c. frame
b. casing
d. chamber
27. The mechanism of a firearm which withdraws the empty shells from the
chamber?
a. Ejector
c. Extractor
b. Firing pin
d. Extractor pin
Extractor = causes the empty shell to be withdrawn/pull out from the chamber.
Ejector = causes the empty shell to be thrown out of the firearm.
28. In case that cartridge case are found at the scene of firing it only means
that_____firearm was used.
a. single shot
c. bold action
b. automatic
d. double action
29. What is that condition in firing at which the cartridge took several seconds
before it
discharged upon firing? (delayed in the discharged of the cartridge).
a. mis-fire
c. hang fire
b. backfire
d. Backshot
Misfire = failure to discharged.
Hangfire = delay in the discharged of firearm.
30. What is the steel block that closes the rear of the bore against the force of the
charge?
a. breechface
c. breechblock
b. hammer
d. chamber

Breechface = the flat surface where the base of the shell comes in contact when
fired.
Chamber = part of the f/a where cartridge is placed when ready to be fired.
31. Type of primer consisting of two flash hole or vent.
a. Berdan
c. Battery
b. Boxer
d. none
Boxer=one flash hole; Battery= shotgun primer.
32. Father of percussion ignition.
a. Alexander John Forsyth
b. Roger Bacon
c. Bethold Schwartz
d. Veillie
Veillie = developed smokeless powder for rifle.
33. Primers are used for igniting the propellant charge by means of a blow from the
firing pin on the primer cup producing flames that passes through the:
a. Anvil
c. Vent/ flash hole
b. Paper disc
d. Primer cup
Anvil = solid metallic support.
Paper disc= thin foil/animal skin which protect the priming mixture from moist.
Primer cup = gilding metal cup which holds the priming mixture.
34. Is a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, primer, gun powder and shell:
a. ammunition
c. shotgun cartridge
b. cartridge
d. missile
Ammunition =loaded shell.
Shotgun cartridge = consists of pellet, gunpowder, primer, shell and wads.
35. Is that type of ammunition which does not have bullet used in film-making:
a. dummy
c. drill
b. blank
d. live
36. Is the type of cartridge with a rim diameter which is smaller than the diameter
of the body of the cartridge?
a. Belted type
c. Rimless
b. Rebated
d. Rimmed type
37. Is the type of cartridge in which is the priming mixture is not found at the cavity
rim of the cartridge case?
a. Pin fire
c. Center fire
b. Rimmed type
d. Rim fire
38. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
a. .730
b. .729
c. .726 d. .724
39. European made firearm are usually referred in millimeter in determining
calibers, when you talk of 9mm you are referring to?
a. .38 cal
c. .45 cal
b. .357 cal
d. .30 cal
40. A metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball propel from a firearm.
a. bullet
b. slug
c. projectile d. missile
e. all of these
Projectile = metallic and non metallic ball propel from a firearm.
Bullet = projectile usually fired from small arms.
Slug =other term/police term for bullet.
Shot = also referred to as slug/commonly used in shotgun.
Missile = used for artillery.
41. A type of a bullet designed to be fired at night which emits a bright flame at its
base and usually colored red-tip.
a. armor piercing
c. tracer
b. incendiary
d. explosive
Armor piercing = used in light metallic target/harden metal core.
Incendiary = design to set fire upon impact (blue tip)
Explosive = design to fragment.
42. A type of a bullet made in order to inflict greater damage used by India.
(expanding bullet)
a. Dum-Dum
c. expanding bullet
b. baton round
d. explosive
e. mushroom bullet
Expanding bullet = hallow point & soft point also called mushroom bullet.

43. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to prevent leading is known
as:
a. Plated bullet
c. Metal cased bullet
b. Jacketed bullet
d. Metal point bullet
44. Shots consisting of a small lead ball or pellets which are made by dropping with
the exception of the very largest sizes which are made by molding are known as:
a. Soft shots
c. Buck shots
b. Drop shots
d. Chilled shots
45. A miscellaneous type of design as anti riot, basically made from rubber at a
larger caliber.
a. Discarding sabot
c. Baton Round
b. Flechette
d. Frangible
Discarding Sabot = design for greater velocity.
Flechette = a number of nail type or neddle-like projectile.
46. Is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which serves as the projector
for the propellant against moisture?
a. Bullet
c. Cartridge case
b. Primer
d. Paper disc
47. Is that part of the cartridge case which characterized by a cylindrical grooves
that prevents the bullet from being push down to the cartridge?
a. Crimp
c. Shoulder
b. Neck
d. Cannelure
Crimp = prevent loss/pull out.
48. A cylindrical groove around the body of a bullet which may contains lubricating
substances and which can be the basis in determining its manufacturer.
a. Body
c. ogive
b. Bullet crimp
d. bullet cannelure.
49. Black powder basically composed of:
a. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
b. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
c. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 % sulfur.
d. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulfur.
50. A form of smokeless powder made from sticks or cords?
a. balistite
c. cordite
c. powder B
d. nitroglycerine
51. The dont MAC rule in collection of physical evidence stands for: Mutilate, Alter
and ____?
a. Cut
c. contaminate
b. Consume
d. conserve
52. Is the part of the cartridge case which holds the primer securely in a central
position and providing a solid support for the primer anvil?
a. Flash hole
c. Extractor groove
b. Primer pocket
d. Rim
Rim = limits the forward movement of the cartridge to the cylinder.
53. The caliber of a bullet is measured through?
a. Two opposite lands
b. Measuring the base diameter
c. using the caliper
d. using a micrometer
54. Is the helical groove mark found inside the bore of the barrel designed to impart
rotation motion of the bullet
a. lands
c. rifling
b. grooves
d. pitch of rifling
55. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the
barrel of a firearm with identical class characteristics as that of:
a. Browning
c. Colt
b. Smith and Wesson
d. Steyer
62. The pitch of rifling (rate of twist) in the barrel of a firearm is called as____?
a. land
b. one complete revolution of bullet
c. groove
d. range
57. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of rifling of a firearm?

a. calipher
c. tortion balance
b. helixometer
d. Chronograph
Caliper = measure caliber
Chronograph = measure velocity.
.
58. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the _________?
a. outside near open mouth
b. side or body of the
shell
c. inside near open mouth
d. any of the
above
59. Fired bullet found at the scene of the crime are usually marked at the ______.
a. Ogive
c. Base
e. none of the above
b. Nose
d. Any of the above
60. Fired bullet/fired shell are usually mark with:
a. Initial of the investigator
b. Initials of investigator and date of recovery.
c. Letter t plus the last two digit of the firearm.
d. Letter t-1, t-2., plus the last two digit of the firearm use.
61. It is the list of the people who have handled the physical evidence from the time
of its discovery until their final disposition in court.
a. Evidence list
c. Chain link
b. Chain of events d. chain of custody
62. The basis in shell identification is________?
a. firing pin marks
b. breech face marks
c. Firing pin and/or
breech face marks
d. extractor and ejector marks
63. Individual marks found at the interior portion of the bullet due to poor alignment
of the cylinder with bore of the firearm.
a. skid marks
c. stripping marks
b. shaving marks d. slippage marks
Skid mark = due to forward movement of the bullet to the bore before it rotates.
64. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel is that it is
useful in directly identifying the:
a. bullet which caused the fatal wound
b. person who fired the particular firearm
c. gun from which a bullet was fired
d. possible direction of shot
65. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the crime scene?
a. picking it through the handle
b. picking it through the barrel
c. inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger guard
d. inserting a rod at the barrel
.
66. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to:
a. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the barrel
b. Oversized barrel
c. Oily barrel
b. badly worn-out (stripping mark)
67. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are determinable even before
the manufacture of the firearm?
Class Characteristics
c. Individual Characteristics
b. Repetitive mark d. accidental mark
68. Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are examined and compared under
the comparison microscope at the same time, level and direction and magnification
and same image?
a. Pseudo match
c. Juxtaposition
b. false match
d. Sodo match
69. Is the process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object done by
attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound microscope?
a. Photomacrography
c. Photomicrography
b. Microphotography
d. Macrophotography
70. When the draws of the revolver is completed, the index finger should?

a. touch the outside of the trigger guard

b. grasp the stock
c. be straighten along the barrel
d. be inside the trigger guard
71 . What is the secret of good shooting form?
a. relaxed and natural position
b. keeping the thumb along the hammer
c. proper sighting of the target
d. firing slowly and carefully
72. Are small grooves, channels or ridges on the surface of the bullet due to the tool
marks or other irregularities in the interior surface of the bore?
a. Land marks
c. Groove marks
b. Striation
d. Accidental marks
73. Is an instrument used in determining the caliber of the bullet by getting a
equivalent weight?
a. Caliper
c. Micrometer
b. Torsion Balance d. Flat-form balance
74. Is a type of a powder used in modern cartridges being powerful?
a. Corrosive
c. Non-corrosive
b. Black
d. Smoke less
75. An optical instrument used or designed to make simultaneous comparison of
two specimens?
a. Comparison microscope
c. Chronograph
b. Micrometer
d. Shadowgraph
76. Instrument used in obtaining test bullet:
a. caliper
b. bullet comparison microscope
c. bullet recovery box
d. water tank
77. A pointed instrument use in marking fired bullet/fired shell.
a. pointer
c. stylus
b. marker
d. driller
78.Firearms includes muskets, carbine shotgun etc. as mention in _______of the
Revised Administrative Code.
a. sec.788 b. sec.787 c. sec.878 d.sec.877
79. The law which prohibits possession of firearms/ammunition.
a. P.D. 1866
c. R.A. 8294
b. P.D. 1688
d. R.A. 9284
80. Low power gun are those firearms that uses projectile not more than 9mm or .38
cal. Except:
a. Magnum .22
c. magnum 357
b. Magnum 40
d. a and c only
Questioned Document
1. A document completely written and signed by one person is known
as____________.
a. Halograpic document
b. all of the above
c. Questioned document
d. disputed document
e. None of the above
Holograph = latin word holo and graph meaning hand writing.
2. It serves as the focal points of all document examination and it is where the
document examiner relies as to the determination of the appropriate examination
and the extent of the problem involved.
a. Questioned document c. disputed document
b. Standard document
d. evidential document
Questioned document
Collected/procured
Document
Standard
Requested/dictated
3. An autopsy report is an example of what kind of evidence?
a. documentary
c. experimental
b. testimonial
d. object/Real

4. Specimen of writing which was executed in the regular course of ones activities.
a. requested
c. collected
b. executed at one time d. day to day standard
5. When document examiner as well as police are dealing with documents, the most
common problem they encountered are those concerning.
a. origin
c. authorship
b. counterfeit
d. content (alteration)
6. Refers to the study of ones handwriting in attempting to determine ones
personality.
a. Agraphia
b. Chromatography
c. graphology
d. handwriting identification
Agraphia = a kind of disease in the brain which makes the person unable to write.
7. Known Father of Questioned Document
a. Albert S. Osborn
c. John Augustus
b. Dr. Hans Gross
d. Orway Hilton
8. Is the combination of the basic designs of letter and the writing movement
involved in the writing?
a. copy book form c. writing movement
b. system of writing
d. line quality
Copy book form = the illustration of the basic designs of letter/fundamental to the
writing system.
Writing movement = refers to the mobility/motion of the pen.
9. Is the visible record of the written strokes resulting from a combination of
various factors associated to the motion of the pen. Is the overall quality of the
strokes.
a. movement
c. line quality
b. writing habits d. significant writing habits
Writing habits = any repeated elements of writing.
Significant writing habits = sufficiently unique and ell-fixed.
Writing = visible result.
Handwriting = visible effect.
10. Refers to the usual or normal deviations found in a repeated specimen of
individuals handwriting.
a. Natural variation
c. transitory change
b. permanent damage d. temporary defect
Transitory change = changes which are only temporary.
11. In document examination when referring to contemporary documents this refers
to______?
a. Document which is more than 5 years before and after.
b.Document which are not more than 5 years before and after
c. Document which are more than 30 years
d. Document which are not more than 20 years
12. A type of a document which bears the seals of the office issuing and the
authorized signature to such document.
a. Public document c. private document
b. Official document d. commercial document
13. What is the first step in the procurement of handwriting exemplars?
a. Request for standard specimen
b. Study of the questioned specimen
c. Determine the writing instrument and paper used
d. Arrange for normal writing condition
14. Is a specimen of writing prepared with deliberate intent of altering the usual
writing habits in the hope of hiding his identity.
a. disguised writing
c. handlettering
b. cursive
d. block capital
15. Refers to properties or marks, elements or qualities which serve to distinguish.
Known as the basis of identification.
a. Characteristics c. individual characteristics
b. class characteristics d. sample
Class/common/general characteristics or Gross = can be found in a group of writing.
16. A specimen of writing which was executed without intention of changing the
usual writing habits. It is executed normally by the writer.

a. Natural writing
c. disguised writing
b. Guided writing
d. assisted writing
17. Writing forms can either be a disconnected or joined letter writings. What
specimen of writing is characterized by disconnected style?
a. Hand lettering
c. cursive writing
b. Manuscript form
d. rounded
Cursive = letters are joined.
Connection = strokes joining two successive letters in a word.
18. A genuine signature which was used in the preparation of a simulated or traced
forgery.
a. Authentic signature
c. standard signature
b. Model signature
d. evidential signature
19. It refers to the group of muscles which is responsible for the formation of the
upward strokes.
a. Flexor b. Cortex
c. Lumbrical
d. extensor
20. If John Loud is known for ball-point pen, who is for the fountain pen?
a. Lewis Watterman
c. Laszlo Biro
b. John Parker
d. Lewis Parker
21. Is a type of writing movement that gives a great freedom of movement. Also
considered as the most skillful type of movement.
a. finger movement
c. hand movement
b. forearm movement d. whole arm movement
22. Is an irregularity in strokes characterized by shaky or wavering stroke which is
perfectly apparent even without magnification?
a. tremor
c. tremor of illiteracy
b. tremor of old age
d. tremor of fraud
Tremor of illiteracy = due to lack of skills.
Tremor of fraud = due to copying/imitation
23. A sign of forgery in guided hand signature is;
a. Good pen control
c. Uneven alignment
b. Disconnected stroked
d. Slanting strokes
Sign of genuine guided writing = abrupt change in direction.
24. A modern pen nib which contains a reservoir of ink in a specially designed back
or chamber is described as (used to prevent forgery).
a. ball point pen
c. pencil
b. fountain pen
d. fiber pen
25. What is that which widens the ink strokes due to the added pressure on a
flexible pen point.
a. pen pressure
c. shading
b. pen lifting
d. retouching
Pen pressure = average/usual force applied in writing.
Pen emphasis = periodic increased in pressure/intermittently forcing the pen
against paper surface.
Retouching = goes back over a defective stroke.
26. Are meant to those grace lines, superfluous strokes and are useful only for
ornamentation and are not essential to the legibility of the signatures and usually
occurs among writers who attempt to express some phase of their personalities.
a. diacritical marks
c. idiosyncrasies
b. embellishments
d. flourishing strokes
Diacritics = strokes added to complete certain letters.
27. What was done, when one retouches or goes back over a defective portion of a
writing stroke?
a. retracing
c. patching
b. pressuring
d. shading
28. What is that interruption in a stroke, caused by sudden removal of the writing
instrument from the paper surface?
a. tremor
c. retouching
b. pen lifting
d. hiatus
Hiatus = obvious gap.
29. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the beginning and continues
beyond the end of a vanishing point and are found on free natural writing and as a
rule are important indication of genuineness.
a. Ending stroke c. Terminal stroke
b. Flying start and finish d. Pen movement

30. Strokes which goes back over another writing strokes and which is slightly to
occur due to lack of movement control.
a. retouching
c. retracing
b. shading
d. patching
31. Is outer portion of a curve bend or crook?
a. humps
b. staff/stem/shank
c. whirl
d. central part
Whirl = long upward strokes.
Staff/stem/shank = long downward strokes.
Central part = the body of the letter.
32. What is that introductory up and down stroke found in almost all capital letters.
a. hitch
c. beard
b. humps
d. buckle knot
Hitch introductory backward stroke.
33. Forged signature made by free hand movement and constant practice is called:
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Simple forgery d. spurious signature
34. A traced forgery of signature is not really a writing but a,
a. Retouching
c. Drawing
b. Patching
d. tremor of fraud
35. What type of forgery is made when the writers exerts no effort to effect
resemblance or facsimile between the forged and the genuine signatures?
a. simple
c. simulated
b. traced
d. spurious
36. A type of forgery which involves fraudulent signature executed by actually
following the outline of a genuine signature with a writing instrument?
a. carbon outline process
c. lasered
b. indention process
d. traced
37. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a signature is forgery, but it is
very difficult on the other hand to established who committed the forgery because:
a. the forger might be a left handed
b. imitation is one of the most effective means to disguise ones handwriting
c. it might be a traced forgery
d. there should be no sufficient standard available
38. Philippine Paper bills are printed in what process.
a. Letter process
b. Intaglio process
c. Off-set process
d. Lithographic process
e. All of the above
39. Paper, which has been treated in such a way as to minimize the change of a
successful forgery by erasure, whether mechanical or chemical, being carried out on
any document of which it forms the basis called.
a. Chemical paper
b. Safety paper
c. Tested paper
d. Polyethylene coated paper
40. . What is that indelible ink whose marking substance is composed of mixture of
aniline ink and graphite?
a. stencil
c. nut gall ink
b. printers ink
d. copy pencil
41. What is the first step in the procurement of typewriting exemplars?
a. procurement of the suspected typewriter
b. acquisition of typewriting exemplars
c. study of the questioned typewriting
d. preparation of exemplars
42. Is one of the most expensive instruments used for examination of documents
that would show three dimensional enlargements.
a. polarizing light c. stereoscopic microscope
b. infra-red gadget d. ultra-violet light
43. What is that type of signature which has been made in a particular date, time,
place and at a particular purpose of recording it.
a. model signature
c. evidential signature
b. standard signature d. guided signature

44. Is a light examination in which the source of illumination strikes the surface of
the
paper from the back or at the bottom, usually designed in identification of
water
markings?
a. direct light
c. side light
b. oblique light
d. transmitted light
45. An illegible form of a writing which is characterized by partially visible
depression appearing underneath the original writing.
a. invisible writing c. indented writing
b. obliterated writing
d. contact writing
46. A type of conventional typewriter in which the characters are normally space 12
in one horizontal
a. pica
c. elite
b. proportional spacing machine
d. computer
47. Is a typeface defect in which the letters are printed to the right or left of its
proper position.
a. vertical mal alignment
c. horizontal mal
alignment
b. twisted letter
d. off-its feet
48. What is that substance which is capable of bleaching an ink.
a. Sympathetic Ink c. Superimposing Ink
b. Ink Eradicator
d. Invisible ink
49. Is the type of light examination best used in deciphering an obliterated writing
and charred document.
a. Ultra violet light
c. Infra-red light
b. transmitted light
d. x-ray
50. Is a type of an abnormality/defects in typewriter that can easily be corrected by
simply cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.
a. temporary defect
c. permanent defect
b. clogged type face
d. actual breakage
Polygraphy
= scientific method of detecting deception done with the aid of polygraph machine.
= also known as instrumental interrogation/ lie detector test.
1. The word Polygraph was derived from What word?
a. Poly and Graph
c. Greek
b. Many writing chart
d. Latin
Polygraph was derived from Greek word poly = many or several and graph
means writing chart
2. The first man noted for the used of the word Polygraph
a. Thomas Jefferson
c. Galileo Galilee
b. Cesare Lombroso
d. Sir James Mackenzie
3. Is the person who devise an instrument that can record changes of blood
pressure, pulse beat and respiration simultaneously which he called the Bread
board Lie Detector.
a. Cesare Lombroso
c. Sir James Mackenzie
b. John A. Larson
d. Leonarde Keeler
4. A person who makes a great improvement on the polygraph machine in the year
1926.
a. John A. Larson
c. John E. Reid
b. Richard O. Arthur
d. Leonarde Keeler
Cesare Lombroso = 1st scientific lie detection (1895)
Sir James Makenzie= Published in two British Journal the word Ink Polygraph (A
heart specialist)
John E. Reid = (1942-46) developed the reid polygraph with muscular resistance,
SAT and Guilt Complex test.
5. An Australian Magistrate who described the work of investigator/detectives as
Search for Truth
a. Leonarde Keeler
c. Sir James Makenzie
b. Dr. Hans Gross
d.William Moulton Marston
6. The person who made the first suggestion for using the Psycho Galvanic reaction
for detecting deception and we stated that galvanic skin phenomenon is under the
influence of exciting mental impressions and the will has no effect upon it.
a. Veraguth
c. Sticker
b. Harold Burtt
d. Vittorio Bennussi

William M. Marston Systolic B.P. & discontinuous tech.

Harold Burtt respiration & systolic B.P.
Sticker Activity of Sweat Glands & Electro dermal R.
7. He devised a quantitative analysis on a polygraph chart and the test called
Backster Zone Comparison Technique. (numerical scoring)
a. Cleve Backster
c. C.D. Lee
b. Richard D. Arthur
d. Galilleo
Richard D. Arthur = developed two (2) galvanic skin resistance.
C.D. Lee = developed psychograph machine
Galilleo = developed the first instrument to record pulse beat called pulselogium
8. Is an ancient method of detecting deception practice in Bengal, India where
accused to proved his innocent would touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal.
a. boiling water ordeal
c. red hot iron ordeal
b. ordeal of balance
d. Ordeal of heat and fire
9. The Raid polygraph differs from the keelers in the following respect except:
a. An adjustable and portable chair is employed wherein metal bellows are inserted
in the chair arm rests.
b. The chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the machine to form
closed pneumatic systems.
c. Three additional recordings are made by this method
d. There is no need of using corrugated rubber tubing.
10. It is the act of deceiving usually accompanied by uttering falsehood?
a. lying
c. deception
b. Misleading
d. lie
11. Which of the following is true about Polygraph machine?
a. It is a machine that can diagnose subject.
b. It is capable of interpreting and drawing conclusion.
c. It is a lie detector machine.
d. It is a machine that detects physiological responses.
12. The polygraph machine should be _________ in relation to the credibility and
competence of the examiner?
a. Indirectly proportion
b. Supplementary to investigation
c. Substitute to investigation
d. Directly proportion
Polygraphy is an aid and never a substitute for investigation.
13. The following notions about polygraph machine are wrong, EXCEPT.
a. It rings a bell
b. It has a dial indicator
c. It flash a light
d. It is like an X-ray
14. Is the scientific basis of the polygraph test which states that the polygraph
machine is an instrument capable of making records of various human functioning
simultaneously in a chart paper.
a. mechanical leg basic premise
b. physiological leg basic premise
c. psychological leg basic premise
d. psycho motor leg basic premise
15. A type of deceit for the purpose of humor, when the falsehood is generally
understood, is often regarded as not immoral and is widely practiced by humorists
and comedians.
a. White lie
c. Jocose lie
b. Emergency lie
d. Malicious lie
White lie (officious)=where the lie is harmless, and there are circumstances where
there is an expectation to be less than totally honest through necessity or
pragmatism.
Emergency lie =is a strategic lie told when the truth may not be told because, for
example, harm to a third party would result.
16. A Hindu book of science and health which is considered one of the earliest
reference on detecting deception.
a. Ayur Vida
b. Dharmasatra of Gautama
c. Vasistra of Dharmasastra
d. Omerta

Dharmasastra of Gautama = explains the nature of lying.

Vasistra of Dharmasastra = justifies lying.
Omerta = Code of Silence (MAFIA)
17. Considered to be the ancient method of crime detection.
a. Methods of Ordeal
b. Trial by Combat
c. Boiling Water ordeal
d. The Ordeal of rice chewing
18. Which of the following is a major component of the polygraph machine?
a. Blood pressure cuff
b. Pen and inking system
c. keymograph
d. cardiosphygmograph
Major Components
1. Cardiosphygmograph = detects B.P. and P.B.
2. Galvanograph = detects skin resistance.
3. Pneumograph = detects breathing or respiration.
Major Section
1. Cardiosphygmograph
2. Galvanograph
3. Pneumograph
4. Keymograph = driving mechanism (6 12 inches)
5. Pen and Inking System = designed to make a permanent record of the
polygraph test.
19. Is that part of the pneumograph component which was attached to the body of
the subject with the usual length of 10 inches.
a. beaded chain
b. finger electrode plate
c. rubber convulated tube
d. blood pressure cuff
20. Is that section of the polygraph machine designed to run the paper at a regular
speed of 6 inches per minutes.
a. keymograph
c. pen and inking system
b. pnuemograph
d. galvanogaph
21. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which placed above the brachial
artery.
a. arm cuff
c. Wrist cuff
b. infant cuff
d. hand cuff
Wrist cuff = attached above the radial artery.
22. This is a galvanograph attachment section EXCEPT:
a. sets of electrodes
b. stretched band
c. electrodes jelly
d. rubber tube
23. The size of the galvanograph recording pen is ______?
a. 5 inches
c. 7 inches
b. 6 inches
d. 10 inches
5 inches = for pneumograph and cardiosphygmograph recording.
24. The polygraph chart rolled paper has an average length of?
a. 100 yards
c. 100 ft
b. 100 meters
d. 100 km
25. Is the sum total of the dissimulation which the child acquires from his
surrounding once he learn to go out and socialized with his neighborhood.
a. Personality
c. Heredity
b. Environment
d. Education
26. What should be the attitude of a polygraph examiner in confronting subject in a
polygraph test.
a. arrogant
c. authoritative
b. cordial but firm
d. antagonistic
PER-SON-AL-ITY = the sum total of H2E
Heredity = transmission of physical and mental traits of the parents to the offspring
upon conception.
Education = formal process of learning in an accredited/ recognized institution.

27. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector examination are all ___
and this creates a set of distortion.
a. Terrified
c. convenient
b. nervous
d. confident
28. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the examiner do?
a. reschedule the examination
b. prolong the period of the pre-test interview.
c. call for a doctor or request for an ambulance.
d. do not continue with the pre test and ask the subject for his available date
for reschedule.
29. Is a short horizontal line in a cardio tracing located at the middle of the diastolic
stem.
a. Dicrotic
c. Diastotic
b. Diastolic
d. Systolic
Systolic B.P = the upward blood pressure.
Diastolic B.P. = the downward blood pressure.
30. Is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test.
a. 60 65
c. 6- 12
b. 70 75
d. 13- 15
13- 15 cyclic rate of respiration.
31. In polygraph test Questions are usually answaerable by:
a. yes
c. neither yes nor no
b. no
d. a or b
32. The following are disqualified to be subject of polygraph test, EXCEPT.
a. minor
c. nervous
b. imbecile
d. insane
33. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the start of the test?
a. X/60/1.5 A
C. XX/60/1.5 A
b. X/50/2.5 A
D. XXX/60/2.5 A
34. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long complicated questions
because this will:
a. Give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer.
b. Enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer.
c. Renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
d. Embraces him and cause him to answer he does not know
35. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the investigator to:
a. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment
b. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement
c. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist
d. Devote adequate time for an interviewees evaluation.
36. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the atmosphere during the
interrogation?
a. interrogators behavior
b. the type of crime involved
c. questioning style of the interrogator
d. the subjects personal history
37. Who determines the guilt of the subject in a polygraph test?
a. Examiner
c. Judge
b. Prosecutor
d. Investigator
38. Is the stage in the conduct of the polygraph test, which is designed to prepare
or condition the subject for the actual test.
a. Initial Interview
b. Pre-test Interview
c. Instrumentation
d. Post test Interview/Interrogation
Stages in the Conduct of Polygraph Examination
Initial interview =between subject & Investigator.
= designed to obtain information.
1. Pre-test Interview includes: appraisal of constitutional rights, taking subject
consent, Filing-up of the PDS and determine the Physical, mental,
psychological condition of the subject.
2. Actual test/Instrumentation = begin with the attachment of the various
component parts.
3. Post-test Interview/Interrogation = after test.

39. It is conducted for the purpose of obtaining confession or an admission from the
subject once deception is observed.
a. initial interview c. Pre-test interview
b. Instrumentation d. post-test interview
or interrogation
40. Refers to any outside force coming from the environment, which could excite a
receptor or any of his organs.
a. Stimulus
c. Reaction
b. Response
d. Emotion
Stimulus = refers to any force or motion coming from the environment and which
reach an organism has the tendency to arouse.
Fear = it refers to an emotional response to specific danger that appears to be
beyond a persons defensive power.
Response =the reaction to a stimulus, in response to, in answer to.
Reaction = an action in mental attitude evoke by external influence.
41. Is the type of question designed to
established normal response from the subject?
a. relevant
c. irrelevant
b. control
d. knowledge
42. Did you shoot Rose last night? is an example of what question?
a. irrelevant question
c. control question
b. relevant question
d. none of the above
Irrelevant = not related to the facts in issue. Always answerable by yes and
design to established the norms of the subject.
Relevant = to establish specific response.
43. Is that type of questions given to determine information known or the subject
possess regarding the crime or the criminal or his whereabouts?
a. evidence connecting question
b. knowledge question
c. sacrifice questions
d. control questions
44. Is a type of test designed to overly responsive subject, consisting of questions
that are purely fictitious incident of a similar nature to the one that is under
investigation.
a. general question test c. peak of tension test
b. guilt complex test
d. silent answer test
General Question test = series of relevant and irrelevant answerable by either yes
or no.
Peak of tension test = there is only one relevant questions usually at the center and
a series of irrelevant question (padding question).
SAT= (silent answer test) no verbal response is required.
Guilt Complex test = used fictitious incident to overly responsive subject.
Yes test, No test, Card test, mixed test.
45. Is a force questioning of a person who is reluctant to give an information.
a. Interview
c. Confession
b. Interrogation
d. Admission
46. Is a self incriminating statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
a. Admission
c. Interview
b. Confession
d. Interrogation
Interview = simple questioning of victim or witnesses who are willing to give
information.
Interrogation = forceful/rigid/vigorous questioning.
47. Of the following which is a kind of polygraph machine?
a. Stoelting polygraph
c. keeler's polygraph
b. Laffayette polygraph
d. all of these
48. Is that part of the galvanograph component which converts electrical to
mechanical current:
a. Amplifier unit c. finger electrode assembly
b. resonance control d. sensitivity knob
49. In any interrogation the belief that man is fallable human being should not be
overlooked and therefore polygraph examiners are always subject to _________?
a. precision of diagnosis c. errors
b. certainty of interpretations
d. none of these

50. Refers to the brief confrontation between the subject and the polygraph
examiner done every after taking each chart.
a. initial interview
c. Pre-test interview
b. chart probing
d. post-test interview or
interrogation
Forensic Medicine
1. Is a poisonous gas which smells like a rotten egg?
a. H2S
c. CO2
b. CO
d. H2O
CO is a poisonous gas that liberates from the unburned part of the ordinary
cumbustibles.
2. In the schematic outline on the isolation and identification of some common
poisons, the specimen should first be:
a. alkaline solution (Na(OH))
b. distilled with or without stem
c. ether-extracted
d. mixed with chemical antidotes.
3. Is the normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a normal built person.
a. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
b. 2.5 to 3.5 cc
c. 3.5 to 5.5 cc
d. 3.5 to 4.5 cc
400 to 500 millions = number of average spermatozoa per ejaculation.
Aspermia = semen without spermatozoa
Oligospermia =lack of sperm counts
4. What is known as the reproduction of an impression made on soft surface by
utilizing casting materials.
a
. dry fussion
c. moulage
b. metallic aides
d. plaster of paris
5. What will be the possible child of a man with Group A and Type M blood with
woman of Group B, type N blood.
a. AB, N
b. B,N c. O, M
d. AB, MN
Anti -A (blue) and anti B (yellow) used for blood grouping
6. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial numbers? (Stainless
steel, lead, cast iron are examples).
a. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
b. etching solution
c. colloidal magnesium
d. borax solution
7. What is the last stage in the toxicological examination?
a. qualification
c. quantification
b. multiplication
d. division
8. Person who is qualified to conduct toxicological examination?
a. Physician
c. forensic examiner
b. medico-legal
d. forensic pathologist
9. Gun powder residue maybe determined by?
a. Takayama test
c. paraffin test
b. Diphenylamine
d. Florence test
Nitrate = produced deep blue speaks
Nitrite = produced green speaks
10. Is the chemical substance found in all cells whose composition have been
passed on from parents to their children.
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. Genotype
d. Phenotype
11.To confirm the presence of blood we look for?
a. white crystalline
b. Salmon pink, haemochromogen
c. white cloudy precipitate
d. Dark brown rhomboid crystals
12. It is a biological test for blood?
a. benzidine test
c. takayama test
b. blood grouping/typing d. precipitin test
Bezidine = preliminary test for blood (deep blue)
Takayama = confirmatory test (micro-chemical)
13. 11. A mercury fulminate is as example of what explosive?
a. Low
c. high

b. primary
d. None
14. What is the principal active component of opium which comes in white
crystalline
powder and light tablets.
a. heroin
b. Morphine
c. cocaine
d. shabu
Opium poppy morphine
-- codeine
-- heroin
15. Types of drugs that relieves pain and often induce sleep.
a. narcotics
b. Stimulants
c. sedatives
d. neurotics
16. A preliminary test in blood in a solution of 1 to 300,000 dilution is:
a. Benzidine
c. guiacum
b. Phenolphthalein
d. leucomalachine Green
Phenolphthalein = reddish pink result (1:80,000)
17. __________are drugs which affects sensation, thinking, self awareness and
emotion. It
may be mild or overwhelming depending on dose and quality of
drugs.
a. Narcotics
b. Hallucinogens
c. sedatives
d. stimulants
18. Which one is not included in street name of MARIJUANA?
a. Mary Jane
c. Brownies
b. snow
d. Flower
THC- Tetrahydrocannabinol = the active component of marijuana responsible for its
hallucinogenic effect.
19. The center core of a strand of the hair, which form the bulk of the fiber.
a. cuticle b. Cortex c. medulla d. Shalf
20. The cuticle of the animal hair is:
a. rounded
c. oblong
b. serrated
d. circular
21. It is the ratio between the width of the medulla and the width of the whole hair?
a. medulary index c. medula
b. medulary ratio
d. medula radius
22. In 1858, who published the first textbook in legal medicine?
a. Dr. Rafael Genard y Mas
b. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles
c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
d. Dr. Mariano Lara
23. A gait similar to that of a duck is?
a. paretic
c. spastic
b. waddling
d. cows
24. On what months of the fetus life the Hair of eyebrow and eye-lashes begin to
appear?
a. 4th months
c. 3rd months
th
b. 5 months
d. 6th months
rd
3 = nails begins to appear.
4th = hair on the head starts to grow.
5th = Nails are distinct. Skin shows sebaceous secretion. Dental gum appears at the
mandible.
25. It is a complete and persistent cessation of vital reactions such as respiration,
circulation and almost all brain functions.
a. death
c. apparent death
b. somatic death d. mollecular death
26. Which of the following is a more conclusive sign of death
a. cessation of respiration
b. cooling of the body
c. cessation of heart function and circulation
d. heating of the body
27. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in
the dependent portion of the body.
a. Rigor mortis
c. livor mortis
b. algor mortis
d. none of the above

28. Molecular death is a kind of death where:

a. there is loss of life of the individual cells of the body
b. It occurs immediately after death
c. It is usually pronounced by the physician
d. There is a transient loss of vital functions of the body
29. The elements of violent death are the following EXCEPT one.
a. That the victim at the time the injuries were inflicted was in normal health
b. That death maybe expected from physical injuries
c. That death ensued within a reasonable time
d. That death ensued from a lingering illness
30. X and Y are husband and wife, X has a mistress, Miss W, to whom he has a son
(C ), a 2 years old baby. What kind of death is involved if X killed his illegitimate
child (C).
a. Homicidal death
c. Murder
b. Parricidal death
d. Infanticidal death
31. What if it is Y who killed (C)?
a. Homicidal deathc. Murder
b. Parricidal death d. Infanticidal death
32. The sum total of all reaction of tissues or organs for which the activities of the
living cells are necessary.
a. physical reaction
c. chemical reaction
b. vital reaction
d. inflammation
33. Is the breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler component associated
with the evolution of foul smelling gases and accompanied by the change of color of
the body
a. putrefaction
c. maceration
b. auto digestion
d. saponification
34. What is a waxy substance derived from the body fat and is caused by hydrolysis
and hydrogenation of adipose tissue.
a. adipocere
c. saponification
b. lipo
d. none of these
35. Deaths due to injuries inflicted in the body by some forms of outside force.
a. violent death
c. sudden death
b. natural death
d. none of these
36. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early
putrefactive changes or some internal changes. It is usually observed in the first two
hours of death
a. post mortem caloricity c. algor mortis
b. heat stiffening
d. rigor mortis
37. The act or practice of killing or bringing about the death of a person who suffers
from incurable disease or condition.
a. Euthanasia
c. pathological death
b. suicide
d. none of these
38. The following judicial executions were exercised in the Philippines except.
a. judicial hanging
c. electrocution
b. musketry
d. lethal injection
39. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death, Cadaveric
spasm will suggest _____?
a. duration of death
c. age of the victim
b. cause of death
d. none of the above
40. Stage of muscular change, which occurs 3-6 hours after death characteristics by
stiffening of the muscles.
a. livor mortis
c. secondary flascidity
b. algor mortis
d. post-mortem rigidity
41. Post mortem lividity or livor mortes is a very good basis for determining the
a. time of death
b. relative position of the assailant
c. position maintained by the body after death
d. cause of death
42. The following are muscle changes after death except:
a. primary flascidity
c. rigor mortis
b. secondary flascidity
d. post-mortem lividity

43. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body, which is always to occur in case of
death. What is that condition characterized by spontaneous stiffening of certain
group of muscles.
a. heat stiffening
c. cold stiffening
b. livor mortis
d. cadaveric spasm
44. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of intense fire___
a. charring
c. exhumation
b. cremation
d. baking
45. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and no longer
responds to mechanical or electrical stimulus due to dissolution of protein.
a. Primary flaccidity
b. Post mortem rigidity
c. stage of secondary flaccidity
d. Putrefaction
e. decomposition
46. Moggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how
many days from death.
a
. l day
c. 3 days
b. 2 days
d. 4 days
47. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours after
death?
a. 24 hours
c. 36 hours
b. 12 hours
d. 48 hours
48. Period of time wherein human bone will not exhibit change according to
Alphonse Bertillon.
a. 10 years
c. 30 years
b. 20 years
d. 40 years
49. Average time of decomposition for tropical countries such as Philippines
a. 12 24 hours
c. 36 48 hours
b. 24 48 hours
d. 48 72 hours
50. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which caused it.
a. defense wound
b. self inflicted wound
c. patterned wound
d. mutilated wound
51. Wound produced by a butchers knife.
a. punctured wound
c. lacerated wound
b. hack wound
d. incised wound
52. It is a formation of a soft freoble brownish white greasy substance in the soft
tissues after death.
a. Mummification
c. Putrefaction
b. saponification
d. decomposition
53. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents
a. 2 3 hours
c. 4 5 hours
b. 3 4 hours
d. 5 6 hours
54. A person who is considered dead if no rate of fall of body temperature is about
a. 10 - 15F
c. 15 20F
b. 20 25 F
d. 25 30 F
55. Period of time wherein the body would b e completely skeletonized under
normal conditions in tropical countries
a. 1 month
c. 6 months
b. 3 months
d. 12 months
56. As a general rule, if there is no heart action for a period of ___death is regarded
as certain.
a. 5 minutes
c. 7 minutes
b. 6 minutes
d. 8 minutes
57. Stages in blood changes where blood goes to the dependent portion of the body
but not yet solidify.
a. livor mortis
c. hypostatic lividity
b. diffusion lividity d. cadaveric spasm
58. An adult has only ____bones
a. 200
b. 202
c. 204
d. 206
59. The following are indication of gunshot wound of entrance.
a. that the size is smaller than the exit

b. that the edge is inverted

c. that the shape is round or oval
d. that the edge is everted
e. a, b, and c only
60. Vital reaction is/are present on the following EXCEPT:
a. Ante Mortem injuries c. Stab wound over the body
b. fist blow over the body d. Post mortem injuries
61. It is a physical injury wherein the victim is ill treat or incapacitated for work or
require medical attendance for a period of one to 9 days.
a. slight physical
b. less serious physical injury
c. serious physical injury
d. mutilation
62. Stab wound is produced by
a. sharp edges and sharp pointed instrument
b. sharp edged instrument
c. blunt instrument
d. Sharp pointed instrument
sharp edge instrument = incised wound
blunt = lacerated wound
rough object = abrasion
sharp pointed = punctured wound
63. Solution of the natural continuity of any tissue of the living body is called
a. fracture
c. wound
b. dislocation
d. contusion
64. Points to be considered in reporting of wound
a. character of wound
b. location of wound
c. number of wound
d. measurement of wound
e. all of the above
65. A wound which is the result of instinctive reaction of self protection is what
special type of wound.
a. defense
c. offensive
b. self inflicted wound
d. Patterned
66. When the head is free and mobile, a blow on the back of the head may produce
laceration in the front part of the brain. This is what type of inury.
a. direct or coup injury c. remote
b. contre-coup injury
d. coup-contrecoup injury
Coup injury = the wound/injury is found in the site of application of force.
Contre coup = opposite the site
Coup-contre coup = on the site and opposite site.
Locus minoris = not on the site nor opposite but on the weak part of the body.
Extensive injury = great destruction or scatered wound/injury
66. wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will endanger ones
life
a. non-mortal wound
c. trauma
b. mortal wound
d. coup injury
67. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of
the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning that the
distance of the body to the gun is approximately.
a. 6 inches
c. 18 inches
b. 12 inches
d. 24 inches
68. A physical injury which is found at the site and also at the opposite of the
application of force
a. extensive injury c. contre-coup injury
b. coup injury
d. coup-contre coup
injury
69. When the person was stabbed by an ice-pick, what wound would be exhibited.
a. punctured wound
c. lacerated wound
b. hack wound
d. incised wound
70. DNA is found in all nucleats cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of
life. What does it stands for.

a. Deonatural acide
b. deoxyribonucleic acid
c. dynamic natural antibody
d. deocxyribonuclic acid
71. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval which allowed the
development of complications which becomes the cause of death.
a.
Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b.
Immediate or primary cause of death
c.
Cardio-respiratory arrest
a. Nocturnal death
72. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has occurred more than
24 hours hence are useful to approximate the time of death.
a. flies
b. earthworms
c. bees d. butterflies
73. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained physician.
a. Autopsy
c. medical examination
b. embalming
d. post-mortem
examination
74. In the determination of the sex of the skeleton, the following bones must be
studied, except.
a. sacrum
c. sternum
b. skull
d. none of these
75. What test determines cessation of respiration?
a. Winslows test c. Diaphanus test
b. magnus test
d. none of these
76. Legal medicine is that branch of medicine which deals with the application of
medical knowledge to the purpose of _____.
a. law and justice
b. determination of cause of death
c. identifying the victim
d. none of these
77. Medical jurisprudence is that branch of _____which deals with the regulation and
organization of medical profession.
a. law
c. justice
b. medicine
d. jurisprudence
78. The following are methods of approximating the height of a person, except.
a. two times the length from the vertex of the skull to the coccyx.
b. Two times the length of one arm plus 12 inches for the clavicle and 1.5
inches for the sternum
c. The distance between the tips of the middle fingers of both hands with the
arms extended laterally.
d. None of these
79. Refers to the stiffening of the muscles due to the sohdification the body is
exposed to freezing temperature.
a. cold stiffening
c. froze stiffening
b. iced stiffening
d. none of these
80. The following are important of cadaveric lividity, EXCEPT.
a. sign of death
b. determines whether the position of the body has been changed
c. may indicate the cause of death
d. none of these
81. EXCEPT one, the following are characteristics of cadaveric spasm
a. a natural phenomena which occur after death
b. appears immediately after death
c. involves only a group of muscles
d. all of these
82.Is a form of ligature strangulation in which the force applied to the neck is
derived from the gravitational drag of the weight of the body?
a. hanging
c. lynching
b. strangulation by ligature
d. none of these
83. Smothering means ________
a. blockage of the external air-passages
b. blockage of the upper airways
c. deprivation of oxygen

d. none of these
84. ______is associated with the failure of the arterial blood to become normally
saturated with oxygen.
a. Anoxic death
b. anemic anoxic death
c. stagnant anoxic death
d. none of these
85. It is produced by compression of the neck by means of a ligature which is
tightened by a force other than the weight of the body.
a. strangulation by ligature
c. throttling
b. hanging
d. gagging
86. This is a form of asphyxial death whereby the constrict force applied in the neck
is the hand.
a. Throttling
c. mugging
b. gagging
d. none of these
87. According to Phopel, there are five level of stiffening of the joints. What level is
that where some stiffening allows relaxed repetitive movement of the hands?
a. level IV
c. level III
b. level II
d. level I
88. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles occurring at the moment of death,
usually
associated with violent death due to extreme nervous tension, or even
fatigue?
a.
heat stiffening
c. cadaveric spasm
b. Rigor mortis
d. cold stiffening
89. What is the other name for cells clump?
a. overlapping
c. clumping
b. agglutinate
d. constipation
90. What kinds of skin is dry, and dead, peeled away from the surface skin?
a. slight skin
c. incipient ridge
b. burned skin
d. scarf skin
91. Rigor mortis is very important in determining the approximate time of death for
it starts at about 2 to 6 hrs and completes at ______?
a. 36 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 12 hrs
d. 48 hrs
92. In which instance can you get more evidence of poisoning?
a. When the victim survive
b. When the victim died
c. When the suspect was arrested
d. When the victim is aware of the poisoning
93. When there is poisoning?
a. When the substance was introduced to the body.
b. When the poison combined with the food.
c. When the substance is absorbed by the body and act chemically.
d. When the substance is introduced to the body and absorbs.
94. Is a pathological classification of death which is characterized by increasing
dypsnea.
a. Coma
c. Syncope
b. Asphyxia
d. Somatic
95. What causes the pink color of blood and tissue of a gunshot wound of entry?
a. Carbon monoxide
c. carbon dioxide
b. cellulose nitrite d. Hydrogen disulfide
96. It is a type of virginity in which a woman has awareness and had sexual
indulgence but the hymen is considered in tact
a. Virgo Intacta
c. Moral Virginity
b. Demi Virgin
d. Physical Virginity
97. Which of the following is a potential biological agent?
a. Viagra
c. Antrax
b. Hydrogen
d. Smallpox