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Chapter 023 Infectious Diseases Affecting the

Genitourinary System Key


1.

Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?


D. Ig
G

2.

Normal biota of the urethra include all of the following except


D. Escherichia
coli

3.

Normal biota of the ureters and bladder include


E. None of the choices are
correct

4.

Lactobacillis in the female reproductive tract


A. Is
protective

5.

The predominant microorganism in the female reproductive tract during


childbearing years is
D. Lactobacill
us

6.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female
reproductive tract during childbearing years?
A. Vaginal pH is
neutral

7.

The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is


B. Escherichia
coli

8.

All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infections except
E. Diarrhe
a

9.

Which of the following organisms causes urinary tract infections?


A. Proteus
mirabilis

10.

Infection of the urinary bladder is called


C. Cystiti
s

11.

The most common mode of disease transmission in UTIs is


E. Endogenous
transfer

12.

The best prevention for UTIs is


E. Both B and D are
correct

13.

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their


C. Urin
e

14.

Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics except


E. Can be transmitted by animal
bites

15.

Leptospirosis
C. Can be contracted from the
environment

16.

Schistosomiasis requires
C. Predisposes victims to bladder
cancer

17.

The most common mode of transmission of Schistosoma haematobium is


B. Contaminated
water

18.

Trichomonas vaginalis
E. All of the choices are
correct

19.

The most common cause of vaginitis is


A. Candida
albicans

20.

Candida albicans is a
A. Fungu
s

21.

Trichomonas vaginalis is a
D. Protozo
a

22.

Which of the following is not true of prostatitis?


C. The specific agent is easy to
determine

23.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
E. All of the choices are
correct

24.

All of the following pertain to gonorrhea except


A. A chancre-type lesion develops at the portal
of entry

25.

The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is


D. Fimbria
e

26.

Pelvic inflammatory disease results from infection of


E. Both fallopian tubes and
ovaries

27.

The leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is


B. Chlamydi
a

28.

Pelvic inflammatory disease often leads to


D. Infertili
ty

29.

Which of the following is classified as a discharge disease?


D. Schistosoma
haematobium

30.

The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except


D. Elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for
making ATP

31.

Chlamydia trachomatis causes


E. All of the choices are
correct

32.

The most common reported STD in the United States is


B. Chlamydi
a

33.

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of


B. Chlamydi
a

34.

The best way to directly observe spirochetes is


B. Darkfield
microscopy

35.

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes?


A. All
pathogenic

36.

Treponena pallidum
E. All of the choices are
correct

37.

The chancre of syphilis


D. Develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated
central crater

38.

The secondary stage of syphilis


C. Is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in
the blood

39.

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy and a red to brown
rash occur?
B. Secondar
y

40.

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of


syphilis?
C. Tertiar
y

41.

Syphilitic tumors called _____ develop in the liver, skin, bone and cartilage during
the tertiary stage of syphilis.
B. Gumma
s

42.

The Tuskegee Study gathered information on


D. Syphili
s

43.

The rash of secondary syphilis


D. Can last for
months

44.

The latency period of syphilis is


D. 20 years or
longer

45.

Which of the following has not been an effective treatment for syphilis?
E. Ampicill
in

46.

Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2?
A. Interfer
on

47.

Chancroid
D. Is caused by Haemophilus
ducreyi

48.

Herpes zoster is the causative agent for


C. Shingle
s

49.

Herpes simplex I
E. None of the choices are
correct

50.

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes


E. All of the choices are
correct

51.

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is


C. Encephalit
is

52.

All of the following are true for HSV-2 (genital herpes) except
B. Virus is only shed from active
lesions

53.

All of the following pertain to genital warts except


A. Are not common in the United
States

54.

Warts are caused by


C. Non-enveloped DNA
viruses

55.

Which group is at greatest risk for Group B Streptococcus infection?


B. neonate
s

56.

Even after a positive test for a microbial cause, prostatitis is unresponsive to


antibiotic therapy. Why?
C. Mixed biofilms are hard
to kill

57.

Which of the following are characteristics that can be utilized to distinguish


between vaginitis and vaginosis?
D. All of
these

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