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CRTP Series

Quantitative Aptitude
Percentages, Average & Mixtures, Profit & Loss
1. A number, when 35 is subtracted from it, reduces to its 80%. What is four-fifth of that number?
a) 70
b) 19
c) 140
d) 120
2. A candidate who gets 30% of the marks in a test fails by 50 marks. Another candidate who gets 320
marks fails by 30 marks. Find the maximum marks.
a) 1200
b) 900
c) 1000
d) 800
3. A jogger wants to save 1/4th of his jogging time. He should increase his sped by how much
percentage?
a) 25.00%
b) 33.33%
c) 16.67%
d) 42.00%
4. In a class of 50 students, the score of 30% of students is above Salman. What percentage of students
have score below Salman?
a) 66%
b) 68%
c) 69%
d) 70%
5. A trader, frauds by 10% while buying and 10% while selling the same. What is the total gain he
obtained during the transaction, if he pretends to sell at cost?
a) 10%
b) 20.22%
c) 22.22%
d) 25%
6. A shopkeeper labels the price of article 15% above the cost price. If he allow Rs. 51.20 discount on an
article of Rs. 1024, find his profit percent.
a) 10%
b) 12%
c) 9.25%
d) 9.75%

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7. The total population of a village is 5000. The number of male and female increases by 10% and 15%
respectively and consequently the population of the village become 5600. What was the number of
male in the village?
a) 4000
b) 3000
c) 2000
d) 1000
8. A man sold two cows for Rs. 210 at a total profit of 5%. He sold one cow at a loss of 10% and another
at a profit of 10%. What is the price of each cow (in Rs.)?
a) 130 & 60
b) 120 & 80
c) 150 & 50
d) 155 & 55
9. A merchant sells an item at a 20 percent discount, but still makes a gross profit of 20 percent of the
cost. What percent of cost would be the gross profit on the item had been if it had been sold without
the discount?
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 47.77%
10. The profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 832 is equal to the loss incurred when the same article
is sold for Rs. 448. What should be the sale price for making 50% profit?
a) Rs. 1000
b) Rs. 920
c) Rs. 1200
d) Rs. 960
11. One quantity of what costing Rs. 9.30 per kg is mixed with another quantity of wheat costing Rs.
10.80 per kg, then what will be the ratio in which they must b mixed so that the net cost is Rs. 10 per
kg?
a) 5:7
b) 7:8
c) 8:7
d) 13:19
12. A certain quantity of petrol is found to be adulterated to the extent of 10%. What proportion of the
adulterated petrol should be replaced with pure petrol to take the purity level to 98%?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 80%
d) 76%
13. There are 150 weights. Some are 1 kg weights and some are 2 kgs weights. The sum of weights is
260. What is the number of 1 kg weights?
a) 65
b) 50
c) 40
d) 20
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14. Fresh fruit contains 68% water and dry fruit contains 20% water. How much dry fruit can be
obtained from 100 kg of fresh fruit?
a) 32 Kg
b) 52 Kg
c) 40Kg
d) 82 Kg
15. A 5 litres jug contains 4 liters of salt water solution which contains 15% salt in it. If 1.5 liters of the
solution spills out of the jug and the jug is then filled to capacity with water, then what percent of
the resulting solution in the jug is salt?
a) 12%
b) 9.5%
c) 8.5%
d) 7.5%
16. The average age of 40 students in a class is 16. The average age of girls is 15.4 and average age of
boys is 16.2. Find the number of boys in the class.
a) 30
b) 20
c) 15
d) None of the above
Ratio, Proportion & Variation, Partnership
17. In a business P and Q invested amounts in the ratio 3:4, whereas the ratio between amounts
invested by P and R was 6:7. If Rs. 106,501.50 was their profit, how much amount did Q receive?
a) Rs. 34,630
b) Rs. 35,500
c) Rs. 30,450
d) Rs. 40,572
18. The ratio of incomes of C and D is 3:4 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4:5. Find the ratio of
their savings if the savings of C is one fourths of his income?
a) 13:17
b) 12:19
c) 8:11
d) 19:12
19. The age of R and S are in the ratio 5:6. After 4 years their age ratios are 7:8. What is the present age
of S?
a) 13 yrs
b) 11 yrs
c) 12 yrs
d) 10 yrs
20. Two solutions have milk and water in the ratio 7:5 and 6:11. Find the proportion in which these two
solutions should be mixed so that the resulting solution has 1 part milk and 2 parts water?
a) 35:3
b) 4:51
c) 21:36
d) None of the above
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21. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio : 1/3 : and its perimeter is 104 cm. What is the length of
the longest side?
a) 52 cm
b) 32 cm
c) 48 cm
d) 36 cm
22. In a partnership, A invests 1/6 of the capital for 1/6 of the time, B invests 1/3 of the capital for 1/3 of
the time and C, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of Rs. 4600, what is the Bs
share?
a) Rs. 790
b) Rs. 200
c) Rs. 800
d) Rs. 650

Simple Interest & Compound Interest


23. At a certain rate of simple interest a certain sum of money doubles itself in ten years. It will become
four times of itself in how many more years?
a) 20 years
b) 30 years
c) 15 years
d) 10 years
24. Mr. M lends 40% of a sum at 15% pa, 50% of the rest sum at 10% pa and the rest at 18% pa rate of
interest. What would be the rate of interest if the interest is calculated on the whole sum?
a) 14.00%
b) 14.40%
c) 14.33%
d) 13.33%
25. What will Rs. 1500 amount to in three years if it is invested in 20% pa compound interest, interest
being compound annually?
a) Rs. 3592
b) Rs. 2752
c) Rs. 3252
d) Rs. 2592
26. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest earned at the end of 3 rd years
on a sum of money at a rate of 10% per annum is Rs. 77.50. What is the sum?
a) Rs. 2000
b) Rs. 2500
c) Rs. 3000
d) Rs. 3500

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Equations
27. The satisfying values of x for the equation

1
1 1 1
are
x pq x p q

a) (p, q)
b) (-p, -q)
c) (p, -p)
d) (-p, q)
28. Solve for ( x, y ) : 47 x 41y 53 and 41x 47 y 35
a) (1,2)
b) (5,4)
c) (8,7)
d) None of the above
29. The sum of two numbers is 52 and their difference is 2. The numbers are:
a) 17, 15
b) 12, 10
c) 27, 25
d) None of the above
30. The diagonal of a rectangle is 5 cm and one of the side is 4 cm. Its area is: (in sq. cm)
a) 20
b) 12
c) 10
d) None of the above
31. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 10. If 18 be subtracted from it the digits in the
resulting number will be equal. The number is:
a) 37
b) 75
c) 73
d) None of the above
32. The fourth part of a number exceeds the sixth part by 4. The number is:
a) 84
b) 44
c) 48
d) None of the above
33. Ten years ago the age of a father was four times of his son. Ten years hence the age of the father will
be twice that of his son. The present age of the father and the son are.
a)
(50,20)
b)
(60,20)
c)
(55,25)
d)
None of these
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34. Y is older than x by 7 years 15 years back Xs age was of Ys age. Their present ages are:
a) (X = 36, Y = 43)
b) (X = 50, Y = 43)
c) (X = 43, Y = 50)
d) (X = 40, Y = 47)
35. The area of a rectangular field is 2000 sq. m and its perimeter is 180 m. Form a quadratic equation
by taking the length of the field as x and solve it to find the length and breadth of the field. The
length and breadth are
a)
(205m, 80m)
b)
(50m, 40m)
c)
(40m, 50m)
d)
none
36. The sides of an equilateral triangle are shortened by 12 units 13 units and 14 units respectively and a
right angle triangle is formed. The side of the equilateral triangle is
a)
17 units
b)
16 units
c)
15 units
d)
18 units
37. Jayesh is as much younger to Anil as he is older to Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and
Prashant is 48 years, what is the age of Jayesh?
a) 20
b) 24
c) 30
d) Cant be determined
38. The roots of the equation x2 + (2p 1) x + p2 = 0 are real if
a)
p1
b)
p4
c)
p
d)
p
39. If one rot of 5x2 + 13x + p = 0 be reciprocal of the other then the value of p is
a)
-5
b)
5
c)
1/5
d)
1/5
40. The solution of the cubic equation x3 6x2 + 11x 6 = 0 is given by the triplet :
a)
(-1, 1 -2)
b)
(1, 2, 3)
c)
(-2, 2, 3)
d)
(0, 4, -5)
41. The equation 3x3 + 5x2 = 3x + 5 has got 3 roots and hence the factors of the left hand side of the
equation 3x3 + 5x2 - 3x - 5 = 0 are
a)
x 1, x 2, x 5/3
b)
x 1, x + 1, 3x + 5
c)
x + 1, x 1, 3x 5
d)
x 1, x + 1, x 2
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Time and Work


42. It is often said, Rome was not built in a day. But if there are 3000 walls in Rome and each wall has
2000 bricks and it takes 2 seconds for one worker to fix a brick, than how much time would have
been taken to build Rome if there were 100 such workers?
a) Less than 1 day
b) 1 2 days
c) 2 3 days
d) More than 3 days
43. Worker W produces k units in 5 hours. Workers V and W, work independently but at the same
time, produce k units in 2 hours. How long would it take V alone to produce k units?
a) 1 hr
b) 2 hrs
c) 2 hrs 30 mins
d) 3 hrs 20 mins
44. 20 laborers can do a work in 20 days, if everybody works for 6 hours daily. Then 25 laborers can do
the same work in 12 days by working daily for how many hours?
a) 4 hours
b) 6 hours
c) 8 hours
d) 10 hours
45. Working independently, Tulsi can do a certain job in 12 days. Working independently, Aanandi can
do the same job in 9 days. If Tulsi works independently at the job for 8 days and then Aanandi
works independently, how many hours will it take Aanandi to complete the remainder of the job?
a) 3 days
b) 1 day
c) 2/3rd of the day
d) 3/4th of the day
46. Ann and Benn can together complete a piece of work in 12 days. Ann alone can complete it in 20
days. If Benn does the work only half a day daily, then in how many days Ann and Benn together
will finish the job?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 20
47. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the same work in 4
days. 6 men start working on the job and after working for two days, all of them stop working. How
many women should be put on the job to complete the remaining work, if it is to be completed in 3
days?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 20
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48. Anita and Sunita can complete a work in 10 and 15 days respectively. Anita starts the work, and after
2 days, Sunita joins her. But Sunita leaves her after 2 days. How many more days will Anita now
have to work to complete the work?
a) 3
b) 3.67
c) 4.66
d) 5
49. A can have a piece of work done in 8 days. B can work three times faster than A, C can work five
times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together?
a) 3 days
b) 8/9 days
c) 4 days
d) Data Insufficient
50. There are two pipes in a tank. Pipe A is for filling the tank and pipe B is for emptying the tank. If A
can fill the tank in 10 hours and B can empty the tank in 15 hours then find out how many hours it
will take to completely fill a half empty tank?
a) 15 hours
b) 20 hours
c) 30 hours
d) 33.33 hours
51. A can do a work in 90 days, B in 40 days and C in 12 days. They worked for a day each in turn, i.e. A
worked alone for the first day, B for the second day and C for the third day, then again A and so on.
After finishing the work, they got Rs. 480. Wages were divided in proportion to the work done by
them. What is As share?
a) Rs. 48
b) Rs. 56
c) Rs. 120
d) Rs. 176
Time, Speed and Distance
52. A motor boat whose speed is 15 kph in still water goes 30 km downstream and comes back in a total
time of 4 hrs 30 min, then what is the speed of stream in kph?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
53. Two cars are running on a highway, such that the speed of one is thrice of other. Both of them
started from same point and have same destination, but the faster one started after the slower one
has covered some part of journey. What fraction of journey slower one has covered when faster one
started to reach at the same time?
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c)
d) 1/6
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54. Two trains are 2 km apart. Speed of on train is 20 mps and the other train is running at 30 mps.
Length of the trains is 200m and 300m respectively. In how much time do the trains cross each
other?
a) 30 sec
b) 50 sec
c) 60 sec
d) 120 sec
55. Going at 12 steps per minute, a lion covers 240 m. if the step size of lion is 5 times that of deer, how
much distance deer covers in an hour if deer takes 10 steps in a minute?
a) 2.4 Km
b) 1.2 Km
c) 3.6 Km
d) 4.8 Km
56. The charges of a hired car are Rs. 7 per km for the first 80 km, Rs. 5 per km for the next 60 km and
Rs. 11 for every 5 km for further journey. If the charges for a journey is Rs. 1212, what is the distance
travelled in the journey?
a) 200 km
b) 240 km
c) 300 km
d) 360 km
57. The boy goes to school, reaches the railway station at his 1/3 of his journey and a mill at of his
journey. The time taken for him to walk between the railway station and the mill is 5 mins. Also he
reaches the railway station at 7:35 am. So when does he start from his house?
a) 7:05 am
b) 7:15 am
c) 7:20 am
d) 7:00 am
58. A train A leaves Amritsar at 5 am and reaches Delhi at 9 am. Another train D leaves Delhi at 7 am
and reaches Amritsar at 10:30 am. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
a) 8:26 am
b) 8:00 am
c) 7:56 am
d) 7:36 am
59. A lawyer goes for a daily walk and climbs up a hill at 2 kph. He comes back down the slope and
reaches at the bottom of the hill. If he covers 4.8 km in 2 hours, how much is his speed when he
came down the hill?
a) 2 kph
b) 3 kph
c) 4 kph
d) 2.7 kph

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60. A boat takes 19 hours for travelling downstream from point A to a point B and coming back to a
point C midway between A and B. if the velocity of the stream is 4 kph and the sped of the boat in
still water is 14 kph, what is the distance between A and B?
a) 160 km
b) 220 km
c) 180 km
d) 200 km
61. Three persons, A, B, C start running round a circular track at the same time. If they complete one
round in 15, 18 and 120 minutes respectively, after how much time will they meet again at the
starting point?
a) 3 hrs
b) 6 hrs
c) 9 hrs
d) None of the above

Permutation & Combination


62. There are 12 points in a plane out of which 5 are collinear. Find the number of straight lines formed
by joining them.
a) 57
b) 45
c) 55
d) 48
63. In how many ways can 4 boys and 5 girls be seated in a row so that they are sitting alternatively?
a) 2400
b) 1200
c) 2800
d) 2880
64. There are 3 sections with 5 questions each, if three questions are selected from each section, then in
how many ways this selection can be done?
a) 1000
b) 1100
c) 1200
d) 1296
65. A set of football matches is to b organized in a round-robin fashion, i.e. every participating team
plays a match against very other once and only once. If 21 matches are totally played, how many
teams participated?
a) 10
b) 6
c) 7
d) 12

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66. A student can select on of 6 different mathematics books, one of 3 different chemistry books and
one of 4 different science books. In how many different ways can a student select a book of
mathematics, a book of chemistry and a book of science?
a) 74
b) 12
c) 14
d) 72
67. In the 4 digits 1, 2, 3, 4, how many 4 digits numbers are possible which are divisible by 4?
Repetitions are allowed.
a) 64
b) 72
c) 48
d) None of the above
68. There are two sections in a question paper each contain five questions. A student has to answer 6
questions. Maximum number of questions that can b answered from any section is 4. How many
ways he can attempt the paper?
a) 50
b) 100
c) 120
d) 200
Probability
69. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or a king of heart
is:
a) 1/13
b) 2/13
c) 1/26
d) 1/52
70. Out of forty students, there are 14 who are taking physics and 29 who are taking calculus. What is
the probability that a randomly chosen student from this group is taking only the calculus class?
a) 0.55
b) 0.65
c) 0.60
d) 0.75
71. If Amit speaks the truth 80% of the time, Ankita speaks the truth 60% of the times, what is the
probability that they tell the truth at the same time?
a) 0.64
b) 0.48
c) 0.75
d) 0.80

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72. A man has to decide among 10 lotteries to pick one. The probability that one of these have a prize is
1/3. If the number of lottery is of 3 digit, what are his chances that he will win the lottery?
a) 1/10
b) 1/1000
c) 1/30
d) 3/1000
73. A group consists of equal number of men and women. Of them 10% of men and 45% of women are
unemployed. If a person is randomly selected from the group, find the probability for the selected
person to be an employee.
a) 9/20
b) 29/40
c) 7/45
d) 19/24
74. There are two boxes, one containing 10 rd balls and the other containing 10 green balls. You are
allowed to move the balls between the boxes so that when you choose a box at random and a ball at
random from the chosen box, the probability of getting red is maximized. This maximum
probability is:
a)
b) 3/7
c) 14/19
d) 37/38

Set Theory
75. Out of 100 students, 75 students major in physics, 83 major in chemistry, 10 not a major in these
subjects. Find the number of students majoring in both the subjects.
a) 63
b) 60
c) 68
d) 69
76. In a class 80% have passed English, 70% passed Hindi, 10% did not passed either. If 144 students
passed both, what is the total strength of the class?
a) 235
b) 245
c) 240
d) 280
77. Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments Guitar, Violin and
Flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above
instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total
number of those who can play Violin alone or Flute alone?
a) 44
b) 45
c) 30
d) 38

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78. In a school competition, 24 students participated in a dance, 11 participated in drama, 25


participated in vocal solo song, 7 participated in both dance and drama, 4 participated in both
drama and vocal solo song, 12 participated in dance and vocal solo song and 3 students participated
in all the three. If totally there were 50 students, then the number of students who participated in
none of the three competition is:
a) 25
b) 20
c) 15
d) 10
79. The number of non-empty subsets of the set {1, 2, 3, 4} is:
a) 15
b) 16
c) 14
d) 12

Venn Diagrams
Of the 50 villas in a condominium, just one villa has no CNN or ESPN or MTV. Only 19 of them have all
the three channels. All but 20 have ESPN and all but 4 have CNN. There are 27 villas with both these
channels. Of the 32 villas with MTV, 20 also have ESPN and 31 have CNN.
80. Approximately what percentage of the villas with MTV are those without any facility?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
81. The number of villas having only MTV is:
a) 1
b) 9

c) 10

d) 0

82. The ratio of the number of villas having only ESPN to the number o0f villas having both MTV and
CNN but not ESPN is:
a) 1:6
b) 6:1
c) 4:1
d) 3:1
83. The number of villas having only ESPN is:
a) 0
b) 3

c) 5

d) 2

84. The ratio of the respective number of villas without ESPN, without CNN and without MTV is:
a) 10:2:9
b) 6:1:9
c) 10:1:9
d) 9:2:10
85. What percentage of villas has all the three channels?
a) 35%
b) 42%

c) 38%

d) 51%

86. All but __________ have MTV.


a) 18
b) 21

c) 32

d) 29

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Study the following number diagram carefully and answer accordingly:


Set A

Set B

96

33
22

43

52
53

79

96
43
63

68

57

50

87. Find the difference between the total of the numbers of set B and the total of the numbers, which
are exclusively in set A.
a) 175
b) 235
c) 225
d) 165
88. What is the sum of odd numbers of set A and set B?
a) 261
b) 371

c) 461

d) 162

89. What is the ratio of the sum of even numbers exclusively in set A and the sum of odd numbers
exclusively in set B?
a) 6:7
b) 3:2
c) 4:5
d) 6:5

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Cubes
A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on all of its surfaces and then divided into various smaller cubes of
side 1 cm each. The smaller cubes so obtained are separated. Now fill in the table:
90. Total cubes so obtained
91. Value of n
92. Smaller cubes with 3 surfaces painted
93. Smaller cubes with 2 surfaces painted
94. Smaller cubes with 1 surface painted
95. Smaller cubes with no surface painted
Number Series
96. Complete the given series 2 , - 16, -54, -128, ____
a) -250
b) -300

c) 260

d) -150

97. 0, 11, 26, 45, ___


a) 55

b) 65

c) 68

d) 54

98. 9, 6, 16, 10, 30, 18, ___


a) 36

b) 60

c) 58

d) 48

99. 18, 10, 6, 4, 3, ___


a) 3

b) 2

c) 2.5

d) 1.5

100. 4, 9, 20, 43, 90, ____


a) 180

b) 184

c) 185

d) 187

101. 2, 5, 14, 41, 122,_____


a) 354

b) 365

c) 370

d) 395

102. 15, 15, 14, 16, 12, 18, 9, 21, ___, ___
a) 12, 22
b) 5, 20

c) 6, 25

d) 5, 25

103. 15, 16, 34, 105, ____, 2125


a) 210
b) 340

c) 424

d) 494

104. 0, 2, 4, 8, 14, 24, __


a) 40
b) 35

c) 32
d) 30

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Number System
105. Which of the following numbers are completely divisible by 11?
I.
3245682
II.
283712
III.
438416
IV.
36894
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) I, II & III
d) All of the above
106. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digit is
36. What is the difference between the sum and the difference of the digits of the number, if the
ratio between the digits of the number is 1:2?
a) 16
b) 8
c) 4
d) None of the above
107. What is the largest number that divides all three numbers 23400, 272304, 205248 without leaving
a remainder?
a) 96
b) 24
c) 48
d) 72
108. Find the least number when divided by 7 gives the remainder 6, when divided by 6 gives remainder
5, when divided by 5 gives remainder 4 and so on.
a) 524
b) 523
c) 419
d) None of the above
109. If 0.0xyxyxy = 2/55, what is the value of (x).(y)?
a) 10
b) 18
c) 27
d) 36
110. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12 seconds, respectively.
In 30 minutes, how many times they toll together?
a) 16
b) 10
c) 4
d) 15
111. If a six digit number 93p25q is divisible by 88, then the values of p and q are ____ respectively.
a) 4 and 6
b) 6 and 8
c) 8 and 6
d) 2 and 8
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112. The LCM of two numbers is 80 and the product of the two numbers is 320. How many such
possible pairs of numbers exist?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) More than 3
113. Find the sum of prime factors of 561.
a) 12
b) 31
c) 41
d) 40
114. What is the least number that must be added to 594638 to make it a perfect square?
a) 1346
b) 647
c) 197
d) 1244
115. Find the smallest number which must be subtracted from 735231 in order to obtain a multiple of
11.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) None of the above
116. If the sum of a number of two digits and a number formed by reversing the digits is 99, then what
is the sum of the digits of the original number?
a) 9
b) 18
c) 81
d) Cant be determined
117. If x and y are positive integers such that 13x + 4y = 100, then (x + y) equals:
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
118. The remainder obtained when any prime number greater than 6 is divided by 6 must be:
a) Either 1 or 2
b) Either 1 or 3
c) Either 1 or 5
d) Either 3 or 5
119. Which of the following numbers can never be sum of 2 prime numbers?
a) 23
b) 16
c) 5
d) 9

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Miscellaneous Algebra & Arithmetic


120. An inventor asked for one grain of wheat for the first square on the chessboard, 2 for the second,
four for the third and so on. How many would he have asked for the 20th square?
a) 1048576
b) 131072
c) 262144
d) 524288
121. If a square of an integer has tens place digit is odd then what will the square have in its units digit?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) Cant be determined
122. If the product of four consecutive positive integers is 358800, then the sum of these four integers
is:
a) 90
b) 94
c) 98
d) 102
123. A society collected Rs. 7396. Each member contributed as many rupees as there were members.
Find the number of members.
a) 96
b) 86
c) 76
d) 84
124. There are few students in a class. Each student gave as many paise as contribution to the flood
relief fund that was the square of the number of students. The total contribution was Rs. 297.91.
Find the number of students in the class.
a) 961
b) 321
c) 31
d) None of the above
125. The cost of manufacturing x toys by ABC Toy Ltd. is given by C = 2500 + 100x, and the revenue
from selling these is given by R = 150x. How many toys must be produced and sold in order to
realize a profit?
a) 51 or more
b) 50 or more
c) 49 or more
d) 49 or less
126. Ganesh works at a book store and is paid at the rate of Rs. 6.25 per hour. How many hours should
he work in order to make at least Rs. 500?
a) 40
b) 79
c) 80
d) 81
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127. In the equation x2 px + q = 0, if p is taken as 10 instead of 8, the roots become different instead of
equal. What are the roots of the equation when p = 17?
a) 8, 9
b) 16, 1
c) 10, 7
d) 17, 0
128. A beggar was sitting beneath the Smart Building. He thought of smoking branded (Classic)
cigarettes. But he didnt have enough money to buy a single cigarette of that brand. He was capable
of making one cigarette from 4 butts (necessity is the mother of invention). He strived for butts
whole night and collected 43 butts. How many Classic cigarette he can smoke in all?
a) 10
b) 13
c) 14
d) None of the above

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CRTP Series
Logical Reasoning
Coding Decoding
1.

In a code language if TRAINS is coded as RTIASN, how PISTOL will be coded in the same
language?
a) SITLOP
b) IPSTLO
c) SIPTLO
d) IPTSLO

2.

In a code language if SUGAR is coded as PKLTN and TEA is coded as QGT, how would you code
GREAT in the same code language?
a) ENGTP
b) LNGTK
c) LNGTQ
d) LNGQT

3.

In a code language, if BEAT is coded as 5642 and SWEET is coded as 66912, how would you code
TEASE?
a) 96162
b) 56264
c) 96625
d) 55296

4.

If TEMPLE is coded as VHQURL, how would you code CHURCH?


a) EKYWIO
b) EKUWIO
c) EKYWIN
d) EKYWJO

5.

If TEMPLE is coded as VHQNIA, how would you code CHURCH?


a) EKYWIN
b) EKYQZD
c) EKYPZD
d) EKYQWD

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Comparison of Ranks
6. In an examination Amit scores more than Aman and less than Rohit. Sudha scores more than Rohit
and less than Geeta. Who among them scored the highest marks?
a) Aman
b) Geeta
c) Rohit
d) Sudha
7.

In an examination Amit scores more than Aman and less than Rohit. Sudha scores more than Rohit
and Geeta scores more than Rohit. Who among them gets the maximum marks?
a) Geeta
b) Sudha
c) Amit
d) None

8.

Roshan is taller than Hardik who is shorter than Susheel. Niza is taller than Harry but shorter than
Hardik. Sushil is shorter than Roshan. Who is the tallest?
a) Roshan
b) Harry
c) Niza
d) None

9.

Among five boys, Vasant is taller than Manohar, but not as tall as Raju. Jayant is taller than Dutta,
but shorter than Manohar. Who is the tallest in the group?
a) Raju
b) Manohar
c) Vasant
d) None

Direction Sense Test


10. A travels 7 km north, then turns right and walks 3 km. he again turns to his right and moves 7 km
forward. How far is A away from his place of starting?
a) 7 km
b) 3 km
c) 6 km
d) 14 km
11. Rita drives to north of her place of stay at A and finds after travelling 25 km that she has driven in
the wrong direction. She then turns to the right and drives 6 km and then turns right and drives
straight another 17 km. How far is she from her starting point?
a) 10 km
b) 2 km
c) 25 km
d) 4 km
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12. R travels 10 km north, turns left and travels 4 km and then again turns right and covers another 5
km. he then turns to his right and covers another 4 km. How far is he from his starting point?
a) 4 km
b) 5 km
c) 15 km
d) 10 km
13. A taxi driver commenced his journey from a point and drove 10 km towards north, turned to his left
and drove another 5 km. After waiting to meet one of his friends, he turned to his right and drove
another 10 km. Which direction is he facing now?
a) North
b) East
c) West
d) South
Sitting Arrangement
14. Six persons are sitting in a circle facing the centre of the circle. Parikh is between Babita and
Narinder. Asha is between Chitra and Pankaj. Chitra is to the immediate left of Babita. Who is to
the immediate right of Babita?
a) Parikh
b) Chitra
c) Pankaj
d) None
15. Four men A B C D and four women W X Y Z are sitting round a table facing each other, such that:
i.
No two men or women are sitting together
ii.
W is to the right of B
iii.
Y is facing X and is to the left of A
iv.
C is to the right of Z
Who are the two persons sitting adjacent to D?
a) W and Z
b) W and Y
c) X and W
d) None
Five persons are sitting in a row. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is intelligent and other one
is fair. A fat person is sitting to the right of a weak person. A tall person is to the left of the fair person
and the weak person is sitting between the intelligent and the fat person.
16. Tall person is at which place counting from the right?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) None
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17. Person to the left of weak person possesses which of the following characteristics?
a) Tall
b) Fat
c) Intelligent
d) Fair
18. Which of the following persons is sitting at the centre?
a) Fat
b) Intelligent
c) Tall
d) Weak

Blood Relation Test


19. A woman said to a man, The sister of your only brother is my mother. How is the woman related
to the man?
a) Mother
b) Daughter
c) Sister
d) Niece
20. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man said, The son of her sisters father is the maternal
uncle of my son. How the sister of that woman is related to the son of that man?
a) Mother
b) Mothers sister
c) Mother or mothers sister
d) Grandmother

There are six persons A, B, C, D, E, F. C is the sister of F. B is the brother of Es husband. D is the father
of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, one mother and three brothers in the family.
21. Who is Es husband?
a) B

b) C

c) A

d) D

22. Who is the mother?


a) A

b) B

c) C

d) E

23. How many male members are there?


a) 1
b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

24. How is F related to E?


a) Husband

c) Father

d) Uncle

b) Son

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Syllogism Deductive Logic


Question below contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three; choose the set in
which the statements are logically related.
25. A) Anil Kumble is a Manager.
B) All Managers play Chess.
C) All Managers do castling

a) ABC

D) Anil Kumble plays Chess.


E) Managers are fond of cakes.
F) Cakes are good for health.

b) AEF

c) EFD

d) BAD

Each question below contains three rows of sentences broken into three segments. Choose the option in
which the third segment is a logical conclusion from the first two segments.
26. A. All women are greedy. Emily is greedy. Emily is a woman.
B. No fruits are green. Mangoes are green. Mangoes are not fruits.
C. Some singers are actors. All directors are actors. Some directors are singers.
a) A, C

b) A, B

c) A

d) B

27. A. ITC is a multinational. ITC pays well. Multinationals pay well.


B. Some airplanes fly. All birds fly. Some birds are airplanes.
C. All boys wear T- shirts. Rohan is wearing a T- shirt. Rohan is a boy.
a) A

b) A & B

c) C

d) None

A main statement is followed by four statements. Mark the pair of statement which logically follows
from the main statement.
28. Rahul scratches his head when he thinks.
A] Rahul was thinking.
C] Rahul was scratching his head.
a) AD

b) CA

29. You will reach school only if you take a taxi.


A] You have reached the school.
C] You havent reached the school.
a) BA

b) CB

B] Rahul was not thinking.


D] Rahul was not scratching his head.
c) AC

d) None

B] You have taken a taxi.


D] You havent taken a taxi.
c) BC

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d) None

In question below there are some statements followed by four conclusions A, B, C and D. You have to
take the given statement to be true even if they do not conform to the commonly known facts. Read all
the conclusions and then decide which of them is/are logically deducible from the given premises.
30. Premises

Some chemists are druggists.


All druggists are psychologists.
Some psychologists are scientists.

Conclusions

A] Some chemists are psychologists.


B] Some psychologists are druggists.
C] Some druggists are scientists.
D] Some scientists are chemists.

a) A & C

b) B & C

c) A & B

d) A, C & D

Analytical Reasoning
A Utopia based multinational company has a factory in each of the five countries, India, Panama,
England, Australia and Sri Lanka outside Utopia.
At the recently concluded board meeting at its headquarters in Uzbek, the board decided to appoint 5
directors, A, B, C, D and E in charge of five plants, tough not necessarily in the same order. Each
director was to be in charge of only one of these plants. The assignments were made taking into
consideration the personal likes and dislikes of the directors.

A does not like to work in Panama


B does not like to work in Sri Lanka
C does not like to work in India
D does not like to work in England
E does not like to work in Australia
E was not posted to Panama
D did not work in Sri Lanka
C could not get a Visa to work in Australia
B had overstayed on an earlier occasion in England and will not get a Visa
A an Indian and cannot be posted in his home country
Ds girlfriend hails from Australia and was therefore, posted in Australia

31. Which of the following could have been posted to Sri Lanka?
a) A or E
b) E or D
c) A or C
32. Where will A be posted if E is posted to Sri Lanka?
a) England
b) Australia

d) A or C or E

c) India

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d) a) or b)

33. If E is posted to Sri Lanka, how many different posting are possible taking into consideration all the
conditions set in the question.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) > 3

GRID BUILDING EXERCISE:


Case 1
The employees of a small finance company are Mr. Black, Mr. White, Mrs. Coffee, Miss Ambrose, Mr.
Kelly and Miss Earnshaw. The positions they occupy are manager, assistant manager, cashier,
stenographer, teller and clerk, though not necessarily in the same order. The assistant manager is the
managers grandson. The cashier is the stenographers son-in-law. Mr. Black is a bachelor. Mr. White is
twenty two years old. Miss Ambrose is the tellers step sister. Mr. Kelly is the managers neighbour.
Case 2
Amy, Bella, Carol, Daina were a lifeguard, a lawyer, a pilot or a professor. Each wore a white, yellow,
pink or blue dress. The lifeguard beat Bella at tennis, and Carol and the pilot often played bridge with
the women in pink and blue dresses. Amy and the professor envied the woman in the blue dress, but
this was not the lawyer, as she always wore a white dress.

There are four people Amit, Bobby, Carol and Daly who are among them a Lawyer, Dentist, Engineer
and Clerk. They own a car each of he colours Pink, Blue, Green and Yellow, not respectively in the given
order. Two of them are married wile one is single and the other divorced. Amit is the lawyer and is
married. Carol drives a green car and is single. The clerk is divorced.
34. If the dentist drives a yellow car then Daly is a:
a) Clerk
b) Engineer

c) Density

35. If Bobby is the dentist and is married then:


a) Bobby drives a blue car
b) Dally is divorced

c) Carol is the engineer


d) Both b) and c) above

36. If the engineer is single and Amit drives a pink car, then
a) Bobby is the dentist
c) Daly is the clerk
b) Bobby is the clerk
d) None of these
37. If Bobby drives the blue car and Daly is the clerk then:
a) Bobby is the dentist
c) Bobby is married
b) Daly drives yellow car
d) All of these

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d) None

PPC presently employs three Managers (A, B and C) and five recruitment agents (D, E, F, G and H). The
company is planning to open a new office in Rock Hill to manage placement of software professionals in
the USA. It is planning to relocate two of the three managers and three of the five recruitment agents to
the office at Rock Hill. As it is an organization, which is highly people oriented the management wants
to ensure that the individuals who do not function well together should not be made as a part of the
team going to the USA. The following information was available to the HR department of PPC.

Managers A and C are at each others throat and therefore cannot be sent as a team to the new
office.
C and E are excellent performers in their own right. However, they do not function together as a
team. They should be separated.
D and G had a major misunderstanding during the last office picnic. After the picnic these two
have not been in speaking terms and should therefore not to be sent as a team.
D and F are competing for a promotion, which is due in another three months. They should not
be a team.

38. If A is to be moved as one of the Managers, which of the following cannot be a possible working
unit?
a) ABDEH
b) ABFGH
c) ABDGH
d) ABEGH
39. If C and F are moved to the new office, how many combinations are possible?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3

d) 5

40. Given the group dynamics of the Managers and the Recruitment Agents, which of the following is
sure to find berth in the Rock Hill office?
a) H
b) B
c) G
d) E
41. If C is sent to the Rock Hill office which member of the staff cannot go with C?
a) B
b) G
c) D

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d) F

CRTP Series
English Usage
Verbal Ability & Critical Reasoning
1.

ADVICE is ___.
a) A verb
b) An adjective
c) A noun
d) Both a verb and a noun

2.

Choose the grammatically correct sentence:


a) Two and two become four
b) Two and two make four
c) Two and two add four
d) Two and two are four

3.

Choose the grammatically incorrect sentence:


a) They belong to Africa
b) She is an European
c) He is of Asian origin
d) They migrated from India to Australia

4.

Out of the following four sentences, select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and
usage.
a) Since the report lacked needed information, it would not had been useful to them.
b) Since the report lacked needed information, it was of no use to them.
c) The report was useless to them because there were no needed information in it.
d) Since the report did not contain the needed information, it was not real useful to them.

5.

Choose the statement where underlined word is used correctly.


a) The actor got himself ensured against any accident.
b) The minister insured the victims that everything would be all right.
c) The teacher insured students of good results.
d) He ensured that the company will not have to bear any loss.

6.

Choose the statement where underlined word is used correctly.


a) All personnel are being given the day off.
b) Being religious is a personnel aspect.
c) The industrialist load a personnel jet.
d) I write my experience in my personnel diary.

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7.

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word: AWKWARD.
a) Suitable
b) Graceful
c) Incept
d) Dreadful

8.

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word: EDUCE.
a) Exert
b) Educate
c) Extend
d) Extract

9.

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word: PRIMEVAL.
a) Primitive
b) Modern
c) Antique
d) Historic

10.

Choose the word from the options given that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word:
FREQUENCY.
a) Gradualness
b) Rarity
c) Periodicity
d) Persistency

11.

Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
given word: AMALGAMATE.
a) Merge
b) Collect
c) Split
d) Separate

12.

Which of the following options is the closet in the meaning of the word: NADIR?
a) Medium
b) Integration
c) Lowest
d) Highest

13.

Which of the following options is the closet in the meaning of the word: INEXPLICABLE.
a) Infallible
b) Indelible
c) Incomprehensible
d) Inextricable

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14.

Which of the following options is the closet in meaning of the word: CIRCUITOUS
a) Indirect
b) Cyclic
c) Confusing
d) Crocked

15.

What is the adverb for the given word: MISOGYNOUS?


a) Misogynity
b) Misogynously
c) Misogynousness
d) Misogynous

16.

The word similar in meaning to DREARY is:


a) Hard
b) Cheerful
c) Dreamy
d) Dismal

17.

Which one of the following options is the closet in meaning to the word: LATITUDE?
a) Coercion
b) Eligibility
c) Meticulousness
d) Freedom

18.

Which word is not a synonym for the word: VERNACULAR?


a) Regional
b) Indigent
c) Indigenous
d) Colloquial

19.

Complete the sentence: Universalism is to particularism as diffuseness is to _______.


a) Generality
b) Adaptation
c) Specificity
d) Neutrality

20.

Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair MEDICINE:
HEALTH.
a) Education: Knowledge
b) Science: Experiment
c) Money: Happiness
d) Wealth: Peace

21.

Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair CHILDREN:
PEDIATRICIAN.
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a)
b)
c)
d)

Adult: Orthopedist
Kidney: Nephrologists
Females: Gynecologist
Skin: Dermatologist

22.

Select the pair that best expresses the relation in the pair GLADIATOR: ARENA.
a) Dancer: Stage
b) Commuter: Train
c) Teacher: Classroom
d) Lawyer: Courtroom

23.

Select the pair that best expresses the relation in the pair UNEMPLOYED: WORKER.
a) Wit: Jester
b) Unaware: Sleeper
c) Fallow: Land
d) Renovated: House

24.

Select the pair that best expresses the relation in the pair WATER: PIPE.
a) Sea: Beach
b) Music: Instrument
c) Electricity: Wire
d) Cart: Road

25.

Choose the correct verb to fill in the blank: Let us ____.


a) Atheist
b) Introvert
c) Altruist
d) Alternate

26.

Choose the most suitable one word substitute for the expression: Connotation of a road or way.
a) Viaticum
b) Ravenous
c) Pertinacious
d) Clandestine

27.

Choose the most appropriate word, to complete the sentence: Apparent lifelessness _______
dormant life.
a) Supports
b) Harbors
c) Leads to
d) Affects

28.

Fill in the blank: Dare ______ mistakes.


a) Committing
b) Commit
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c) To commit
d) Committed
29.

Fill in the blanks: Didnt you buy ______ when you went shopping?
a) No paper
b) Any paper
c) Much paper
d) A few paper

30.

Which of the following combinations is incorrect?


a) Flippancy Lightness
b) Profligate Extravagant
c) Wheedle Roundabout
d) Acquiescence Submission

31.

Which of the following option is the closet in the meaning to the sentence: She enjoyed herself
immensely at the party.
a) She had a terrific time at the party.
b) She had a terrible time at the party.
c) She had a horrible time at the party.
d) She had a terrifying time at the party.

32.

Select the alternative meaning of the underlined part of the sentence: The chain snatchers took to
their heels when the police party arrived.
a) Took shelter in a backyard
b) Took to flight
c) Open indiscriminate fire
d) Unconditionally surrendered

33.

What is a generic term that include, various items of clothing such as a skirt, a pair of trousers and
a shirt?
a) Apparel
b) Fabric
c) Fiber
d) Textile

34.

Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the sentence: If the
athlete had wanted to come first in the race, he _______ several hours every day.
a) Practiced
b) Should have practiced
c) Should practice
d) Should b practicing

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35.

Fill in the blank with the correct idiom/phrase: That boy from the town was a _____ in the sleepy
village.
a) Fish out of water
b) Bird from the flock
c) Sheep from the heap
d) Dog out of herd

36.

Ankita and Arjun shared a secret and promised to each other that it would remain between them.
Ankita expressed herself in one of the following ways as given in the choices below. Identify the
correct way as per English.
a) It would remain with me.
b) It would remain between you and I.
c) It would remain between you and me.
d) It would remain between I and you.

37.

Choose the most appropriate word, to complete the sentence: One of his biggest ____ was his
ability to forgive.
a) Vice
b) Virtues
c) Strength
d) Choices

38.

Choose the most appropriate word, to complete the sentence: He could not understand th judges
awarding her the first prize, because he thought that her performance was quite _______.
a) Superb
b) Mediocre
c) Medium
d) Exhilarating

39.

Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word COHERENT.


a) Sticky
b) Rambling
c) Friendly
d) Well-connected

40.

Fill in the blank: Were you a bird, you _______ in the sky.
a) Should fly
b) Shall fly
c) Shall have flown
d) Would fly

41.

Fill in the blank: I contemplated ______ Singapore for my vacation but decided against it.
a) To visit
b) Having to visit
c) Visiting
d) For a visit
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42.

Fill in the blanks: If she ____ how to calibrate the instrument, she _____ done the experiment.
a) Had known, could have
b) Knew, had
c) Knows, will have
d) Should have known, would have

43.

Fill in the blank: It was her view that the countrys problems had been _____ by foreign
technocrats, so that to invite them to come back would be counter-productive.
a) Identified
b) Analyzed
c) Ascertained
d) Exacerbated

44.

Fill in the blank: Who ________ was coming to see us this evening?
a) You said
b) Did you say
c) Did you say that
d) Had you said

45.

Fill in the blank: After the discussion, Ankit said to me, Please revert! He expects me to _____.
a) Retreat
b) Get back to him
c) Retract
d) Move in reverse

46.

Fill in the blank: Maheshs dog is the one ___ was hurt in the stampede.
a) That
b) Which
c) Whom
d) Who

47.

Fill in the blank: If we manage to ____ our natural resources, we would leave a better planet for
our children.
a) Cherish
b) Uphold
c) Restrain
d) Conserve

48.

Fill in the blank: The value of one U.S. dollar is 66 Indian Rupees today, compared to 59 last year.
The Indian Rupee has ______.
a) Depreciated
b) Stabilized
c) Appreciated
d) Depressed
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49.

Which of the following options is the closet in meaning to the phrase underlined in the sentence:
It is fascinating to see life forms cope with varied environmental conditions.
a) Adopt to
b) Adapt to
c) Accept with
d) Adept in

50.

Which of the following options is the closet in meaning to the word underlined in the sentence: In
a democracy, everybody has the freedom to disagree with the government.
a) Decent
b) Dissent
c) Decadent
d) Descent

51.

Fill in the blank: His rather casual remarks on politics ____ his lack of seriousness about the
subject.
a) Conserve
b) Cherish
c) Betrayed
d) Masked

52.

Fill in the blanks: She could not ____ the thought of ___ the election to her bitter rival.
a) Bear, losing
b) Bear, loosing
c) Bare, loosing
d) Bare, losing

53.

Fill in the blank: Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his _____ was
impressive.
a) Beggary
b) Nomenclature
c) Nonchalance
d) Jealousy

54.

Fill in the blank: She will feel much better if she ______.
a) Will get some rest
b) Will be getting some rest
c) Is getting some rest
d) Gets some rest

55.

Fill in the blank: If your are trying to make a strong impression on your audience, you cannot do
so being understated, tentative or _____.
a) Hyperbolic
b) Restrained
c) Indifferent
d) Argumentative
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56.

Fill in the blank: Communication and interpersonal skills are ___ important in their own ways.
a) Each
b) Both
c) Either
d) All

57.

Fill in the blank: If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.
a) Should take
b) Should have taken
c) Shall take
d) Will have taken

58.

Fill in the blank: _____ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.
a) Hunger
b) Contentment
c) Ambition
d) Perseverance

59.

Fill in the blank: Dhoni, as well as the other team members of Indian team ______ present on
the occasion.
a) Has
b) Have
c) Was
d) Were

60.

Fill in the blank: Friendship, no matter how __ it is, has its limitation.
a) Intimate
b) Pleasant
c) Cordial
d) Secret

61.

Complete the sentence: Frogs _____.


a) Hiss
b) Croak
c) Patter
d) Roar

62.

Fill in the blank: Many ancient cultures attributed disease to supernatural causes, However,
modern science has largely helped _____ such notions.
a) Impel
b) Propel
c) Repel
d) Dispel

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63.

Fill in the blank: The aircraft ___ take off as soon as its flight plan was filed.
a) Was allowed to
b) Is allowed to
c) Will be allowed to
d) Has been allowed to

64.

Fill in the blank: The official answered ____ that the complaints of the citizen would be looked
into.
a) Respectively
b) Respectably
c) Respectfully
d) Reputably

65.

Fill in the blank: The principal presented the chief guest with a _____, as token of appreciation.
a) Moment
b) Momento
c) Memento
d) Momentum

66.

Fill in the blank: Despite several _____ the mission succeeded in its attempt to resolve the
conflict.
a) Attempts
b) Meetings
c) Delegations
d) Setbacks

67.

Fill in the blank: A person suffering from Alzheimers disease ____ short-term memory loss.
a) Is experiencing
b) Experiences
c) Experienced
d) Inexperienced

68.

Fill in the blank: Under ethical guidelines recently adopted by the Indian Medical Association,
human genes are to be manipulated only to correct disease for which ____ treatments are
unsatisfactory.
a) Similar
b) Available
c) Most
d) Uncommon
Fill in the blank: Extreme focus on syllabus and studying for tests has become such a dominant
concern of Indian students that they close their minds of anything ____ to the requirements of
the exam.
a) Useful
b) Outside
c) Extraneous
d) Related

69.

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70.

While receiving the award, the scientist said, I feel vindicated. Which of the following is closet in
meaning to the word vindicated?
a) Chastened
b) Punished
c) Substantiated
d) Appreciated

71.

In a press meet on the recent scam, the minister said, The buck stops here. What did the
minister convey by the statement?
a) He wants all the money
b) He will assume final responsibility
c) He will resist all enquires
d) He will return the money

72.

Which of the following options is the closet in meaning to the sentence: As a woman, I have no
country?
a) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.
b) Womens solidarity knows no national boundaries.
c) Women have no country.
d) Women are not citizens of any country.

73.

Which one of the following is the best inference from the statement: You can always give me a
ring whenever you need?
a) Because a friend in need is a friend in deed
b) Because you need not pay towards the telephone bills when you give m a ring
c) Because I have a better telephone facility
d) Because I have a nice caller tune

74.

Which one of the following is the best inference from the statement: There were different streams
of freedom movements in colonial India carried out by the moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists,
and so on.?
a) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous
b) Nationalism in India merged in the context of colonialism
c) The emergence of nationalism in colonial India led to our Independence
d) Nationalism in India is homogenous

75.

Which one of the following is the best inference from the statement: Humpty Dumpty sits on a
wall every day while having lunch. The wall sometimes breaks. A person sitting on the wall falls if
the wall breaks.?
a) Humpty Dumpty does not fall sometimes while having lunch
b) Humpty Dumpty never falls during dinner
c) When Humpty Dumpty does not sit on the wall, the wall does not break
d) Humpty Dumpty always falls while having lunch

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76.

Choose the most appropriate phrase from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
India is a post-colonial country because
a) India has helped other countries gain freedom
b) India does not follow any colonial practices
c) It was a former British colony
d) Indian Information Technology professionals have colonized the world

77.

India is a country of rich heritage and cultural diversity. Which one of the following facts best
supports the claim mad in the above sentence?
a) India has a population of over 1.1 billion.
b) India is home to 22 official languages and thousands of dialects.
c) India is a union of 28 states and over 7 union territories.
d) The Indian cricket team draws players from over ten states.

78.

Choose the grammatically incorrect sentence:


a) The committee initially asked for a funding of Fifty Lakh rupees, but later settled for a lesser
sum.
b) This countrys expenditure is not less than that of Sri Lanka.
c) This countrys expenditure on education reforms is very less.
d) They gave us the money back less the service charges of Five Hundred rupees.

79.

One of the parts (a, b, c, d) in the sentence given below contains an error. Which one of the
following is incorrect?
I requested that he should b given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.
a) Requested that
b) The driving test
c) Should b given
d) Instead of tomorrow

80. A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.
The word closest in meaning to comprehension is:
a) Meaning
b) Understanding
c) Stability
d) Concentration

81.

***
Tanya is older than Eric. Cliff is older than Tanya. Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, then the third statement is:
a) Uncertain
b) True
c) False
d) Data Insufficient
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82.

Abhishek is elder to Savan. Savan is younger to Anshul. The correct relations is:
a) Abhishek is elder to anshul
b) Abhishek and Anshul are of same age
c) Anshul is elder to Abhishek
d) No conclusion can be drawn

83.

Given below are two statements followed by two conclusions. Assuming these statements to be
true, decide which on logically follows:
Statements:
I.
No manager is a leader.
II.
All leaders are executives.
Conclusions:
I.
No manager is an executive.
II.
No executive is a manager.
a)
b)
c)
d)

84.

The given statement is followed by some courses of action. Assuming the statement to be true,
decide the correct option.
Statement:
There has been a significant drop in the water level in the lakes supplying water to the city.
Course of action:
I.
The water supply authority should impose a partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.
II.
The government should appeal to all the residents through mass media for minimal use of
water.
III.
The government should ban the water supply in lower areas.
a)
b)
c)
d)

85.

Only conclusion II follows


Only conclusion I follows
Both conclusions I and II follow
Neither conclusion I nor II follows

I and III follow


I and II follow
II and III follow
I, II & III follow

All professors are researchers.


Some scientists are professors
Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above arguments?
a) All professors are scientists
b) Some researchers are scientists
c) All scientists are researchers
d) No conclusion follows
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86.

If ROAD is written as URDG, then SWAN should b written as:


a) VXDQ
b) UXDQ
c) VZDQ
d) VZDP

87.

Read the statements:


I.
All women are entrepreneurs
II.
Some women are doctors
Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the above statements?
a) All entrepreneurs are women
b) Some entrepreneurs are doctors
c) All doctors are entrepreneurs
d) All women are doctors

88. Find the odd one from the following group:


W,E,K,O
I,Q,W,A
F,N,T,X
a) W,E,K,O
b) N,V,B,D
c) I,Q,W,A
d) F,N,T,X

N,V,B,D

89.

In which of the following options will th expression P < M be definitely true?


a) P = A < R < M
b) M > S < P < F
c) M < R > P > S
d) Q < M < F = P

90.

Find the next term in the sequence: 13M 17Q 19S ___
a) 23W
b) 23V
c) 21V
d) 21W

91.

If KCLFTSB stands for best of luck and SHSWDG stands for good wishes, which of the following
indicates ace the exam?
a) XMHTC
b) MXHTC
c) XMHCT
d) MCHTX

92.

Find the odd one from the following group:


Q,W,Z,B
B,H,K,M
W,C,G,J
a) W,C,G,J

M,S,V,X

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b) Q,W,Z,B
c) B,H,K,M
d) M,S,V,X
93.

Given below are two statements followed by two conclusions. Assuming these statements top be
true, decide which one logically follows.
Statements:
I.
All film stars are playback singers.
II.
All film directors are film stars.
Conclusions:
I.
All film directors are playback singers.
II.
Some film stars are film directors.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Only conclusion I follows


Only conclusion II follow
Both conclusions I and II follow
Neither conclusion follows

94.

Based on the given statements, select the most appropriate option to solve the given question.
If two floors in a certain building are 9 feet apart, how many steps are there in a set of stairs that
extends from the first floor to the second floor of the building?
Statements
I.
Each step is foot high.
II.
Each step is 1 foot wide.
a) Statement I and II together are not sufficient.
b) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient.
c) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient.
d) Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.

95.

In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the
group. Which of the following statement is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?
I.
Shiv is younger to Riaz
II.
Shiv is elder to Som
a)
b)
c)
d)

96.

Statement I alone
Statement II alone
Both statement I & II are required
Both statement are not sufficient

Lights of four colors (red, blue, yellow and green) are hung on a ladder. On every step of the
ladder there are two lights. If one of the lights is red, the other light on that step will always be
blue. If one of the lights on a step is green, the other light on that step will always be yellow. Which
of the following statements is not necessarily correct?
a) The number of red lights is equal to the number of blue lights.
b) The sum of the red and green lights is equal to the sum of the yellow and blue lights.
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c) The sum of the red and blue lights is equal to the sum of the green and yellow lights.
d) The number of green lights is equal to the number of yellow lights.
97.

Find the odd one is the following group:


(ALRVX), (EPBZV), (ITZDF), (OYEIK)
a) ALRVX
b) EPBZV
c) ITZDF
d) OYEIK

98.

For submitting tax returns, all residents males with annual income below Rs. 10 lakh should fill up
Form P and all resident females with income blow Rs. 8 lakh should fill up Form Q. All people
with incomes above Rs. 10 lakh should fill up Form R, except non residents with income above Rs.
15 lakhs, who should fill up Form S. all others should fill Form T. An example of a person who
should fill Form T is:
a) A resident male with annual income of Rs. 9 lakh.
b) A non-resident male with annual income of Rs. 16 lakh.
c) A resident female with annual income of Rs. 9 lakh.
d) A non-resident female with annual income of Rs. 16 lakh.

99.

In the following question, the first and the last sentence of the passage are in order and numbered
1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into 4 parts and numbered as 2, 3, 4 and 5. These 4 parts
are not arranged in proper order. Read the sentences and arrange them in a logical sequence to
make a passage and choose the correct sequence from the given options.
1. One Diwali, the family rises early in the morning.
2. The whole family, including the young and the old enjoy doing this,
3. Children let off fireworks later in the night with their friends.
4. At sunset, the lamps are lit and the family performs various rituals,
5. Father, mother, and children visit relatives and exchange gifts and sweets.
6. Houses look so pretty with lighted lamps all around.
a) 4, 5, 2, 3
b) 5, 2, 4, 3
c) 2, 5, 3, 4
d) 3, 5, 4, 2

100. A dance program is scheduled for 10:00 a.m. Some students are participating in the program and
they need to come an hour earlier than the start of the event. These students should be
accompanied by a parent. Other students and parents should come in time for the program. The
instruction you think that is appropriate for this is:
a) Participating students should come before 9:00 a.m. Parents who accompany them should
come at 9:00 a.m. All others should come at 10:00 a.m.
b) Students who are not participating should come by 10:00 a.m. and they should not bring their
parents. Participating students should come at 9:00 a.m.
c) Participating students should come at 9:00 a.m. accompanied by a parent, and other parents
and students should come by 10:00 a.m.
d) Students should come at 9:00 a.m. and parents should come at 10:00 a.m.
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