Bros Encephalo N

What are the 2 major clinical consequences of
hyperlipidemia?
What are the 2 major clinical consequences of

hyperlipidemia?
Atherosclerosis and Acute Pancreatitis
[...]
Methicillin, nafcillin and oxacillin are all examples of Beta- Methicillin, nafcillin and oxacillin are all examples of [...]lactamase-resistant penicillins.
resistant penicillins.
I met a nasty ox with a beta-lactam ring around its
neck.
Darifenacin is a selective M3 blocker.
Darifenacin is a selective [...] blocker.
Tachyphylaxis is used to describe an acute, rapid

development of drug tolerance.
[...] is used to describe an acute, rapid development of

drug tolerance.
Pilocarpine is a direct muscarinic agonist with a receptor

affinity of M3=M2=M1
Pilocarpine is a direct muscarinic agonist with a receptor

affinity of [...]
Donepezil is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor.
Donepezil is a reversible [...] inhibitor.
Scopolamine is a muscarinic blocker.
Scopolamine is a [...] blocker.
Homatropine is commonly used in opthalmology where is Homatropine is commonly used in opthalmology where is
causes mydriasis and cycloplegia.
causes [...] and cycloplegia.
Homatropine is commonly used in opthalmology where is Homatropine is commonly used in opthalmology where is
causes mydriasis and [...].
Carbachol can be used to treat open angle glaucoma.
Carbachol can be used to treat [...].
Carbachol is a carbon copy of Acetylcholine

Physostigmine is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor.
Physostigmine is a reversible [...] inhibitor.
Neostigmine is reversible cholinesterase inhibitor.
Neostigmine is reversible [...] inhibitor.
Drug induced SLE is commonly seen in patients who are

slow acetylators and have taken
either Procainamide, Isoniazid, or Hydralazine.

slow acetylators and have taken either [...], Isoniazid,
or Hydralazine.
Drug induced SLE is commonly seen in patients who are Drug induced SLE is commonly seen in patients who are
slow acetylators and have taken either Procainamide, [...],
or Hydralazine.

either Procainamide, Isoniazid, or [...].
Benzotropine is a muscarinic blocker.
Benzotropine is a [...] blocker.
Nicotine activates nicotinic receptors.
Nicotine activates [...] receptors.
Acetylcholine is a direct muscarinic agonist that acts on

M1, M2, M3 receptors.
Acetylcholine is a direct muscarinic agonist that acts on

[...] receptors.
Pralodoxime is a cholinesterase reactivator.
Pralodoxime is a [...] reactivator.
Physostigmine is used to treat open angle glaucoma.
Physostigmine is used to treat [...].
Atropine is a competitive muscarinic blocker.
Atropine is a competitive [...] blocker.
It blocks all muscarinics.

Large doses of nicotine result in depolarization blockade.
Large doses of nicotine result in [...].
Muscarine is a direct muscarinic agonist with a receptor

affinity of M3=M2=M1. It is ingested and commonly
found in mushrooms.
Muscarine is a direct muscarinic agonist with a receptor

affinity of [...]. It is ingested and commonly found in
mushrooms.
Bethanechol is a direct muscarinic agonist that has a

receptor affinity of M3 > M2 > M1.
Bethanechol is a direct muscarinic agonist that has a

receptor affinity of [...].
Acetylcholine can be used to treat open angle glaucoma.
Acetylcholine can be used to treat [...].
Carbachol is a direct muscarinic agonist that has a

receptor affinity of M3 = N > M2 > M1.
Carbachol is a direct muscarinic agonist that has a

receptor affinity of [...].
Homatropine is a muscarinic blocker.
Homatropine is a [...] blocker.
Edrophonium is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor.
Edrophonium is a reversible [...] inhibitor.
What is the treatment for Lead toxicity?
What is the treatment for Lead toxicity?
EDTA; Dimercaprol; Succimer; Penicillamine
[...]
How does Norepinephrine change blood pressure?
How does Norepinephrine change blood pressure?
Increase
[...]
This is through alpha-1 mediated vasoconstriction and

an increase in MAP.
Remember, norepinephrine does not bind to beta-2
receptors and hence does not cause vasodilation.
What is the common suffix for viral DNA polymerase
inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for viral DNA polymerase

inhibitors?
-ovir
[...]
e.g. Acyclovir
What is the hematological toxicity of Primaquine?
What is the hematological toxicity of Primaquine?
G6PD Deficiency
[...]
Norepinephrine and phenylephrine are the adrenergics of

choice to treat vasodilatory shock.
[...] and phenylephrine are the adrenergics of choice to

treat vasodilatory shock.
Neurogenic, septic, etc shock

Norepinephrine and phenylephrine are the adrenergics of Norepinephrine and [...] are the adrenergics of choice to
choice to treat vasodilatory shock.
treat vasodilatory shock.
Neurogenic, septic, etc shock
How does St. John's Wort influence cytochrome p450
activity?
How does St. John's Wort influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Increase
[...]
Clearance (CL) is a pharmacokinetic measure that is

defined as the volume of plasma cleared of a drug per
unit time.
[...] is a pharmacokinetic measure that is defined as the

volume of plasma cleared of a drug per unit time.
Carvidilol is a(n) a1-beta adrenergic blocker.
Carvidilol is a(n) [...] adrenergic blocker.
Which adrenergic is the drug of choice to treat

Anaphylaxis?
Which adrenergic is the drug of choice to treat

Anaphylaxis?
Epinephrine
[...]
What is the equation for the half-life of a drug?
What is the equation for the half-life of a drug?

[...]
Where Vd = volume of distribution; CL = clearance
What is the hematological toxicity of Phenytoin?
What is the hematological toxicity of Phenytoin?
Megaloblastic anaemia
[...]
What is the value of Km in a Michaelis-Menten kinetics

system?
What is the value of Km in a Michaelis-Menten kinetics

system?
[S] at 1/2 Vmax
[...]
Remember, Km is inversely related to the affinity of the

enzyme for the substrate. (i.e. Km = 1/affinity)
Remember, Vmax is directly proportional to the
concentration of the enzyme.
What is the hematological toxicity of Colchicine?
What is the hematological toxicity of Colchicine?
Agranulocytosis;
[...]
What is the MOA of Metoprolol?
What is the MOA of Metoprolol?
Selective beta-1 antagonism
[...]
Beta-blockers that start with a letter in the first half of

the alphabet (A-M) are selective for beta-1 receptors.
Which G-protein class is associated with M2 cholinergic
receptors?

receptors?
Gi
[...]
Which beta-blocker is associated with Dyslipidemia as a

side effect?
Which beta-blocker is associated with Dyslipidemia as a

side effect?
Metoprolol
[...]
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Terbutaline bind?
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Terbutaline bind?
b2
[...]
Which G-protein class is associated with activation of

Protein Kinase A?

Protein Kinase A?
Gs
[...]
What is the common suffix for Ergosterol synthesis

inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for Ergosterol synthesis

inhibitors?
-azole
[...]
e.g. Ketoconazole
How does blood pressure change with Epinephrine
administration after alpha-adrenergic blockade?
[...]

administration after alpha-adrenergic blockade?
Decrease
Remember, Epinephrine activates all adrenergic
receptors.
How does chronic alcohol influence cytochrome p450
activity?
How does chronic alcohol influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Increase
[...]
Atenolol is a selective b1 adrenergic blocker.
Atenolol is a selective [...] adrenergic blocker.
Which histamine receptor mediates the contraction of

bronchioles?
Which histamine receptor mediates the contraction of

bronchioles?
H1
[...]
Tyramine is converted to Octopamine in adrenergic

[...] is converted to Octopamine in adrenergic neurons. It
neurons. It is then stored in vesicles and released in place
is then stored in vesicles and released in place of NE.
of NE.
The b2 adrenergic receptor weakly increases insulin
release from the pancreas.
The [...] adrenergic receptor weakly increases insulin

release from the pancreas.
What is the GI toxicity of Orlistat?
What is the GI toxicity of Orlistat?
Diarrhea
[...]
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of fibrates?
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of fibrates?
Myopathy
[...]
How does Gemfibrozil influence cytochrome p450

activity?
How does Gemfibrozil influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Decrease
[...]
Which selective alpha-2 adrenergic blocker is used to

treat depression?
Which selective alpha-2 adrenergic blocker is used to

treat depression?
Mirtazapine
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Colchicine?
What is the GI toxicity of Colchicine?
Diarrhea
[...]
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Cyclosporine?
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Cyclosporine?
Hyperuricemia/Gout
[...]
Which histamine receptor mediates increases in gastric

acid secretion?
Which histamine receptor mediates increases in gastric

acid secretion?
H2
[...]
Jimson weed (Datura) is a weed known to cause

Gardeners pupil, a condition characterized by
mydriasis due to alkaloids in the plant.
[...] is a weed known to cause Gardeners pupil, a

condition characterized by mydriasis due to alkaloids in
the plant.
For anyone that's played Assassin's Creed: think of the

Datura powder bombs!
Ejaculation in males is mediated through the a1 adrenergic
receptor.
Ejaculation in males is mediated through the [...]

adrenergic receptor.
What is the common suffix for viral protease inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for viral protease inhibitors?
-navir
[...]
e.g. Ritonavir
What is the hematological toxicity of Propylthiouracil?
What is the hematological toxicity of Propylthiouracil?
Agranulocytosis; Aplastic anaemia
[...]
What is the hematological toxicity of Aspirin?
What is the hematological toxicity of Aspirin?
Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency
[...]
Labetalol is an alpha-beta adrenergic blocker that has

[...] is an alpha-beta adrenergic blocker that has alphaalpha-antagonist and partial beta-agonist function. It is also antagonist and partial beta-agonist function. It is also a
a local anaesthetic.
local anaesthetic.
First-order elimination is an order of elimination that
involves elimination of a constant fraction of drug per
unit time.
[...] is an order of elimination that involves elimination of a

constant fraction of drug per unit time.
Hence, Cp decreases exponentially with time.

Flow-dependent elimination.
Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine are cholinesterase
inhibitors that do not penetrate the CNS.
[...] and Pyridostigmine are cholinesterase inhibitors that

do not penetrate the CNS.

inhibitors that do not penetrate the CNS.
Neostigmine and [...] are cholinesterase inhibitors that do

not penetrate the CNS.
Dobutamine and Dopamine are the

adrenergics/sympathomimetics of choice to treat
cardiogenic shock.
[...] and Dopamine are the adrenergics/sympathomimetics

of choice to treat cardiogenic shock.
Dobutamine and Dopamine are the

cardiogenic shock.
Dobutamine and [...] are the

cardiogenic shock.
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Epinephrine bind?
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Epinephrine bind?
All (b1, b2, b3, a1, a2)
[...]
Much higher affinity for beta-receptors than alpha.

Alpha-receptor effects however will predominate at
high doses.
What is the common suffix for humanized monoclonal
antibodies?
What is the common suffix for humanized monoclonal

antibodies?
-zumab
[...]
e.g. Daclizumab
Mycetism is poisoning due to mushrooms that contain [...] is poisoning due to mushrooms that contain muscarine.
muscarine. Symptoms appear within 30 minutes: salivation,
Symptoms appear within 30 minutes: salivation,
lacrimation, bronchospasm, bradycardia, tremors, coma. lacrimation, bronchospasm, bradycardia, tremors, coma.
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)?

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)?
Hyperglycemia
[...]
Which G-protein class is associated with activation of the Which G-protein class is associated with activation of the
cAMP/Protein Kinase A signalling cascade?
cAMP/Protein Kinase A signalling cascade?
Gs
[...]
What is the cutaneous toxicity of 5-Fluorouracil?
What is the cutaneous toxicity of 5-Fluorouracil?
Photosensitivity
[...]
Ephedrine is an indirect sympathomimetic that is used to

treat nasal congestion.
[...] is an indirect sympathomimetic that is used to treat

nasal congestion.
Which G-protein class is associated with increases in

intracellular [cAMP]?
Which G-protein class is associated with increases in

intracellular [cAMP]?
Gs
[...]
Metoprolol is a selective b1 adrenergic blocker.
Metoprolol is a selective [...] adrenergic blocker.
Which adrenergic agonist is known to be able to worsen

ischemia when it is administered?
Which adrenergic agonist is known to be able to worsen

ischemia when it is administered?
Isoproterenol
[...]
What is the common suffix for beta-2 adrenergic agonists? What is the common suffix for beta-2 adrenergic agonists?
-buterol
[...]
e.g. Albuterol
Esmolol is a selective b1 adrenergic blocker. It is only
administered parenterally.
Esmolol is a selective [...] adrenergic blocker. It is only

administered parenterally.
How does Isoproterenol influence blood pressure?
How does Isoproterenol influence blood pressure?
Decrease
[...]
Remember, Isoproterenol is a non-specific betaagonist. It causes beta-2 mediates vasodilation and

hence a decrease in MAP. It also activated beta1 receptors at the heart, thereby causing tachycardia
directly (as well as reflexively).
How do macrolide antibiotics influence cytochrome p450 How do macrolide antibiotics influence cytochrome p450
activity?
activity?
Decrease
[...]
What is the common suffix for dihydropyridine Ca channel What is the common suffix for dihydropyridine Ca channel
blockers?
blockers?
-dipine
[...]
e.g. Amlodipine
What is the treatment for Salicylate (acidic drug) toxicity? What is the treatment for Salicylate (acidic drug) toxicity?
NaHCO3 to alkalinize the urine; Dialysis
[...]
Which phase of drug metabolism yields slightly polar,

water-soluble and active metabolites?
Which phase of drug metabolism yields slightly polar,

water-soluble and active metabolites?
Phase I
[...]
Involves reduction, oxidation and hydrolysis of drugs

with cytochrome P450 enzymes.
The b2 adrenergic receptor is the major mediator of the
increases in hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
The [...] adrenergic receptor is the major mediator of the

increases in hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
Which G-protein class is associated with H2 histamine

receptors?

receptors?
Gs
[...]
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Tricyclic

Antidepressants?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Tricyclic

Antidepressants?
Torsades the pointes
[...]
How does noncompetitive inhibition change Vmax?
How does noncompetitive inhibition change Vmax?
Decrease
[...]
Noncompetitive inhibition = decreased Vmax;

unchanged Km; decreased efficacy
e.g. allosteric inhibition
Ammonium chloride is a treatment for weak base drug
overdose and functions by acidifying the urine, thereby
trapping the weakly basic drug.
[...] is a treatment for weak base drug overdose and

functions by acidifying the urine, thereby trapping the
weakly basic drug.
For weakly basic drugs:

Which type of drug is associated with low volume of
distribution?
Which type of drug is associated with low volume of

distribution?
Large/charged molecules; plasma protein bound drugs
[...]
Direct Coombs-positive hemolytic anaemia is a

hematological complication of alpha-Methyldopa use.
[...] is a hematological complication of alpha-Methyldopa

use.
The b2 adrenergic receptor increases Ca2+ sequestration, The [...] adrenergic receptor increases Ca2+ sequestration,
glycogenolysis and K+ uptake at skeletal muscle.
glycogenolysis and K+ uptake at skeletal muscle.
What is the treatment for Streptokinase and Urokinase

toxicity?
What is the treatment for Streptokinase and Urokinase

toxicity?
Aminocaproic Acid
[...]
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Niacin?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Niacin?
Cutaneous flushing
[...]
What is the MOA of Atenolol?
What is the MOA of Atenolol?
Selective beta-1 adrenergic antagonism
[...]

Which class of antiarrhythmics are associated with
Torsade de Pointes as toxicity?
Which class of antiarrhythmics are associated with

Torsade de Pointes as toxicity?
Class III and Class IA
[...]
What is the common suffix for bacterial protein synthesis

inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for bacterial protein synthesis

inhibitors?
-cycline
[...]
e.g. Tetracycline
Doneprezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor that is selective for [...] is a cholinesterase inhibitor that is selective for ChE's
ChE's in the brain. As such, it is used to treat Alzheimer's
in the brain. As such, it is used to treat Alzheimer's
Disease.
Disease.
corticosteroids?

corticosteroids?
Hyperglycemia
[...]
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Sumatriptan?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Sumatriptan?
Coronary vasospasm
[...]
What is the treatment for Heparin toxicity?
What is the treatment for Heparin toxicity?
Protamine sulfate
[...]
What is the CNS toxicity of Enflurane?
What is the CNS toxicity of Enflurane?
Seizures
[...]
What is the equation for the bioavailability (F) of a drug?
What is the equation for the bioavailability (F) of a drug?

[...]
Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine are 3

cholinesterase inhibitors that are used to treat Alzheimer
Disease.
[...], Rivastigmine and Galantamine are 3 cholinesterase

inhibitors that are used to treat Alzheimer Disease.

Disease.
Donepezil, [...] and Galantamine are 3 cholinesterase


Disease.
Donepezil, Rivastigmine and [...] are 3 cholinesterase

What is the treatment for Tri-cyclic Antidepressants

(acidic drugs) toxicity?
What is the treatment for Tri-cyclic Antidepressants

(acidic drugs) toxicity?
NaHCO3 to alkalinize the plasma
[...]
How does atropine influence GI motility?
How does atropine influence GI motility?
Decrease
[...]
Darifenacin is a muscarinic blocker used to treat

overactive bladder (urge incontinence).
[...] is a muscarinic blocker used to treat overactive

bladder (urge incontinence).
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Pyrazinamide?
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Pyrazinamide?
Hyperuricemia/Gout
[...]
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome is a cutaneous complication

associated with Sulfa drugs.
[...] is a cutaneous complication associated with Sulfa

drugs.
Bethanecol is a cholinergic drug used to treat

postoperative/neurogenic ileus and urinary
retention by activating bladder and bowel smooth
muscle.
[...] is a cholinergic drug used to treat

postoperative/neurogenic ileus and urinary
retention by activating bladder and bowel smooth
muscle.
Resistant to AChE.
"Bethany, chol me to activate your bowel and
bladder."
Phenytoin, Ethanol and Aspirin are three drugs that are
known to exhibit zero-order elimination.
[...], Ethanol and Aspirin are three drugs that are known to
exhibit zero-order elimination.

Phenytoin, [...] and Aspirin are three drugs that are known
to exhibit zero-order elimination.

Phenytoin, Ethanol and [...] are three drugs that are known
to exhibit zero-order elimination.
Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 adrenergic agonist used in

ocular procedures as it causes mydriasis.
[...] is an alpha-1 adrenergic agonist used in ocular

procedures as it causes mydriasis.
Atropine is typically used in ophthalmology where it


causes [...] and cycloplegia.


causes mydriasis and [...].
Which G-protein class is associated with alpha-2

adrenergic receptors?

Gi
[...]
Which G-protein class is associated with D2 dopamine

receptors?

receptors?
Gi
[...]
Which 2 beta-blockers are commonly used as Class II

Antiarrhythmics?
Which 2 beta-blockers are commonly used as Class II

Antiarrhythmics?
Metoprolol; Esmolol
[...]
Organophosphate are irreversible cholinesterase

inhibitors.
[...] are irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors.
What is the hematological toxicity of Methotrexate?
What is the hematological toxicity of Methotrexate?
[...]
Which direct cholinergic agonist is used in the challenge

test for the diagnosis of asthma?
Which direct cholinergic agonist is used in the challenge

test for the diagnosis of asthma?
Methacholine
[...]
It stimulates muscarinic receptors in the airway when

inhaled.
Hence the "Methacholine challenge."
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Vancomycin?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Vancomycin?
Cutaneous flushing
[...]
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of betablockers?
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of betablockers?
Hyperglycemia
[...]
Which G-protein class is associated with the activation of Which G-protein class is associated with the activation of
Phospholipase C?
Phospholipase C?
Gq
[...]
Timolol is a beta-blocker used to treat Glaucoma as it

decreases the secretion of aqueous humour.
[...] is a beta-blocker used to treat Glaucoma as it

decreases the secretion of aqueous humour.
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Isoproterenol bind? To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Isoproterenol bind?
b1, b2, b3
[...]
What is the CNS toxicity of Tramadol?
What is the CNS toxicity of Tramadol?
Seizures
[...]
The M3 muscarinic receptor causes strong

bronchoconstriction and lung secretion.
The [...] muscarinic receptor causes strong

bronchoconstriction and lung secretion.
Dobutamine is a(n) b1 selective adrenergic agonist.
Dobutamine is a(n) [...] selective adrenergic agonist.
What is the GI toxicity of Valproic Acid?
What is the GI toxicity of Valproic Acid?
Focal to massive hepatic necrosis; Pancreatitis
[...]
Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that is used in

cardiac stress testing.
[...] is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that is used in cardiac

stress testing.
How do reversible competitive inhibitors change Km?
[...]
How do reversible competitive inhibitors change Km?

Increase
Reversible competitive inhibition = increase Km;
unchanged Vmax; decreased potency
What is the common suffix for alpha-1 adrenergic
antagonists?
What is the common suffix for alpha-1 adrenergic

antagonists?
-zosin
[...]
e.g. Prazosin
What is the common suffix for beta-blockers?
What is the common suffix for beta-blockers?
-olol
[...]
e.g. Propanolol
Zero-order elimination is an order of drug elimination that
is capacity-limited.
[...] is an order of drug elimination that is capacitylimited.
How does Ritonavir influence cytochrome p450 activity? How does Ritonavir influence cytochrome p450 activity?
Decrease
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Acetaminophen?
What is the GI toxicity of Acetaminophen?
Focal to massive hepatic necrosis
[...]
How many half-lives does it take for a drug to reach

steady state if it is being infused at a constant rate?
How many half-lives does it take for a drug to reach

steady state if it is being infused at a constant rate?
4-5
[...]
The overall time it takes to reach the steady-state

concentration is primarily dependent on t1/2 and is
independent of dose and dosing frequency.
SLE-like syndrome is an autoimmune-like complication of [...] is an autoimmune-like complication of Procainamide
Procainamide use.
use.
What is the common suffix for Angiotensin-II receptor
blockers?
What is the common suffix for Angiotensin-II receptor

blockers?
-sartan
[...]
e.g. Losartan
What is the treatment for Mercury toxicity?
What is the treatment for Mercury toxicity?
Dimercaprol (BAL); Succimer
[...]
DiMERCaprol for MERCury poisoning.

What is the renal toxicity of Lithium?
[...]
What is the renal toxicity of Lithium?

Diabetes Insipidus
Which alpha-adrenergic blocker is used to treat the
urinary symptoms of BPH?
Which alpha-adrenergic blocker is used to treat the

urinary symptoms of BPH?
Selective alpha-1 blockers (Prazosin, Terazosin,

Doxazosin, Tamsulosin)
[...]
What is the MOA of Mirtazapine?
What is the MOA of Mirtazapine?
Alpha-2 adrenergic blockade
[...]
How does Ciprofloxacin influence cytochrome p450

activity?
How does Ciprofloxacin influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Decrease
[...]
How does Grapefruit Juice influence cytochrome p450

activity?
How does Grapefruit Juice influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Decrease
[...]
Which dopamine receptor functions to modulate

neurotransmitter release, especially at the brain?
Which dopamine receptor functions to modulate

neurotransmitter release, especially at the brain?
D2
[...]
To which fluid compartment do drugs with

medium volume of distribution spread?
To which fluid compartment do drugs with

medium volume of distribution spread?
ECF
[...]
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Tomixifen? What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Tomixifen?
Hot flashes
[...]
How does blood pressure change with Phenylephrine

before alpha-adrenergic blockade?

before alpha-adrenergic blockade?
Increase
[...]
via alpha-1 adrenergic activation.

What is the MOA of Esmolol?
Selective beta-1 adrenergic antagonism
[...]

Fanconi Syndrome is a renal complication of expired

tetracycline antibiotics that presents with glucose, amino
acids, uric acid, phosphate and bicarbonate in the urine
instead of being reabsorbed.
[...] is a renal complication of expired tetracycline

antibiotics that presents with glucose, amino acids, uric
acid, phosphate and bicarbonate in the urine instead of
being reabsorbed.
Epinephrine is the adrenergic of choice to treat

anaphylactic shock.
[...] is the adrenergic of choice to treat anaphylactic shock.
What is the common suffix for viral Neuraminidase

inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for viral Neuraminidase

inhibitors?
-ivir
[...]
e.g. Oseltamivir
What is the common suffix for Barbiturates?
What is the common suffix for Barbiturates?
-barbital
[...]
e.g. Phenobarbital
Methacholine is a direct cholinergic agonist that is used in [...] is a direct cholinergic agonist that is used in challenge
challenge tests to diagnose asthma as it stimulates
tests to diagnose asthma as it stimulates muscarinic
muscarinic receptors in the airway when inhaled.
receptors in the airway when inhaled.
Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that is used to
treat hypertensive urgency by binding to alpha-2
autoreceptors.
[...] is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that is used to treat

hypertensive urgency by binding to alpha-2
autoreceptors.
It does not decrease renal blood flow.

Timolol is a non-selective beta adrenergic blocker that is
commonly used for open angle glaucoma.
Timolol is a non-selective [...] adrenergic blocker that is

commonly used for open angle glaucoma.
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Ergot Alkaloids?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Ergot Alkaloids?
Coronary vasospasm
[...]
Which cholinesterase inhibitor was historically used to

diagnose myasthenia gravis?
Which cholinesterase inhibitor was historically used to

diagnose myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium
[...]
Now, Anti-Acetylcholine Receptor Antibody (antiAChR Ab) tests are used.

What is the treatment for Gold toxicity?
What is the treatment for Gold toxicity?
Penicillinamine; Dimercaprol; Succimer
[...]
How does irreversible competitive inhibition change

Km?

Km?
No change
[...]
Irreversible competitive inhibition = decreased Vmax;

What is the hematological toxicity of Sulfa drugs?
What is the hematological toxicity of Sulfa drugs?
[...]
Sweat glands and the adrenal medulla are 2 parts of the [...] and the adrenal medulla are 2 parts of the sympathetic
sympathetic nervous system that are innervated by
nervous system that are innervated by
cholinergic neurons.
Sweat glands and the adrenal medulla are 2 parts of the
sympathetic nervous system that are innervated by
Sweat glands and the [...] are 2 parts of the sympathetic

nervous system that are innervated by
What is the hematological toxicity of Heparin?
What is the hematological toxicity of Heparin?
Thrombocytopenia
[...]
What is the common suffix for proton pump inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for proton pump inhibitors?
-prazole
[...]
e.g. Omeprazole
What is the treatment for Warfarin toxicity?
What is the treatment for Warfarin toxicity?
Vitamin K; Plasma if the patient is actively bleeding
[...]
What is the MOA of Prazosin?
What is the MOA of Prazosin?
Alpha-1 adrenergic antagonism
[...]
Phenylephrine is the adrenergic used to treat nasal

congestion and bleeding.
[...] is the adrenergic used to treat nasal congestion and

bleeding.
Platelet aggregation is stimulated by a2 adrenergic

receptors.
Platelet aggregation is stimulated by [...] adrenergic

receptors.
Clonidine and Methyldopa are the adrenergics used to

treat hypertension through the activation of central a2
receptors.
[...] and Methyldopa are the adrenergics used to treat

hypertension through the activation of central a2 receptors.
What is the renal toxicity of Cyclophosphamide?
What is the renal toxicity of Cyclophosphamide?
Hemorrhagic cystitis; SIADH
[...]
Hemorrhagic cystitis is prevented by Mesna coadministration.

Selective a1-adrenergic blockers are primarily used to
treat HTN and urinary incontinence in BPH.

treat [...] and urinary incontinence in BPH.
Remember, selective a1-adrenergic blockers end in osin

e.g. Prazosin, trazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin
treat HTN and urinary incontinence in BPH.

treat HTN and [...]
Remember, selective a1-adrenergic blockers end in osin

e.g. Prazosin, trazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin
How does Mirtazapine change serum cholesterol levels?
How does Mirtazapine change serum cholesterol levels?
Increase
[...]
What is the hematological toxicity of Dapsone?
What is the hematological toxicity of Dapsone?
Agranulocytosis; Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency
[...]
Edrophonium is a cholinesterase inhibitor that can be used

[...] is a cholinesterase inhibitor that can be used to
to diagnose myasthenia gravis as it is extremely short diagnose myasthenia gravis as it is extremely short acting.
acting.
The M3 muscarinic receptor causes a strong increase in
GI motility, a decrease in sphincter tone and gallbladder
contraction.
The [...] muscarinic receptor causes a strong increase in

GI motility, a decrease in sphincter tone and gallbladder
contraction.
How do Sulfonamides influence the activity of cytochrome How do Sulfonamides influence the activity of cytochrome
p450?
p450?
Decrease
[...]
How does Phenytoin influence cytochrome p450 activity? How does Phenytoin influence cytochrome p450 activity?
Increase
[...]
Which selective alpha-1 adrenergic blocker is not used to Which selective alpha-1 adrenergic blocker is not used to
treat Hypertension?
treat Hypertension?
Tamsulosin
[...]
Prazosin is a selective alpha-1 blocker that is used to treat

PTSD.
[...] is a selective alpha-1 blocker that is used to treat

PTSD.
How does Atropine influence respiratory secretions?
How does Atropine influence respiratory secretions?
Decrease
[...]
Which type of enzyme inhibition causes a decrease in

potency of the drug?
Which type of enzyme inhibition causes a decrease in

potency of the drug?
Reversible competitive inhibition
[...]

The a1 adrenergic receptor is responsible for most
vasocontriction and smooth muscle contraction.
The [...] adrenergic receptor is responsible for most

vasocontriction and smooth muscle contraction.
What is the treatment for Organophosphate poisoning?
What is the treatment for Organophosphate poisoning?
Atropine + Pralidoxime
[...]

receptors?

receptors?
Gq
[...]
What is the equation for the Clearance (CL) of a drug?
What is the equation for the Clearance (CL) of a drug?

[...]
What is the MOA of Betaxolol?
What is the MOA of Betaxolol?
[...]

Epinephrine is the adrenergic of choice to treat anaphylaxis [...] is the adrenergic of choice to treat anaphylaxis and
and angioedema.
angioedema.
How does Isoproterenol influence heart rate?
How does Isoproterenol influence heart rate?
Increase
[...]
Remember, Isoproterenol is a non-specific betaagonist.

Hence it causes increased HR both directly and via
reflexive action from the decrease in BP.
How does a noncompetitive antagonist change the
efficacy of a drug?
How does a noncompetitive antagonist change the

efficacy of a drug?
Decrease
[...]
Shits the curve down.

This makes perfect sense, brah. The antagonist doesn't
compete with the agonist in order to block the drug's
effect. Hence, the maximal effect that drug can elicit is
significantly reduced as an increase in drug
concentration cannot overcome the noncompetitive
inhibitor.
alpha-Methyldopa is an indirect central alpha-2 agonist
that is used to treat hypertension in pregnancy.
[...] is an indirect central alpha-2 agonist that is used to

treat hypertension in pregnancy.
Hence, it is safe to use in pregnancy.

The b1 adrenergic receptor is the main receptor at the
heart.
The [...] adrenergic receptor is the main receptor at the

heart.
Isoproterenol is an adrenergic agonist that is used for

electrophysiologic evaluation of tachyarrhythmias.
[...] is an adrenergic agonist that is used for

electrophysiologic evaluation of tachyarrhythmias.
Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that treats

[...] is a cholinesterase inhibitor that treats
postoperative/neurogenic ileus and urinary retention. postoperative/neurogenic ileus and urinary retention.
Neostigmine is the Bethanechol of cholinesterase
inhibitors.
Selective a1-blockers have a toxicity of 1st dose
orthostatic hypotension.
Selective a1-blockers have a toxicity of [...].
What is the treatment for Cyanide toxicity?
What is the treatment for Cyanide toxicity?
Nitrite + thiosulfate; Hydroxocobalamin
[...]
Pralidoxime is a cholinesterase reactivator used to treat

organophosphate poisoning.
[...] is a cholinesterase reactivator used to treat

organophosphate poisoning.
What is the GI toxicity of Alcohol?
What is the GI toxicity of Alcohol?
Pancreatits
[...]
Clonidine is a(n) [...] selective adrenergic agonist.
Clonidine is a(n) a2 selective adrenergic agonist.

Remember, Clonidine activates a2 autoreceptors and
a2 central receptors to decrease central adrenergic
tone.
Seizures are a neurological complication of Isoniazid use [...] are a neurological complication of Isoniazid use due to
due to the Vit B6 deficiency that the drug causes.
the Vit B6 deficiency that the drug causes.
Relaxation of uterine muscle in both the pregnant and non- Relaxation of uterine muscle in both the pregnant and nonpregnant uteruses are mediated by the b2 adrenergic
pregnant uteruses are mediated by the [...] adrenergic
receptor.
receptor.
Which G-protein class is associated with beta-2

Gs
[...]
Phenylephrine is a(n) a1 selective adrenergic agonist.
Phenylephrine is a(n) [...] selective adrenergic agonist.
What is the treatment for Amphetamines (basic drugs)?
What is the treatment for Amphetamines (basic drugs)?
Ammonium chloride (NH4Cl)
[...]
Functions to acidify the urine, thereby keeping

Amphetamines inside the kidney tubules to be
excreted.
Isoproterenol is the adrenergic of choice to treat torsade [...] is the adrenergic of choice to treat torsade de pointes.
de pointes.
What is the treatment for Arsenic toxicity?
What is the treatment for Arsenic toxicity?
Penicillinamine; Dimercaprol; Succimer
[...]
Orthostatic hypotension is a systemic complication of [...] is a systemic complication of Phenoxybenzamine and

Phenoxybenzamine and other alpha-adrenergic blockers
other alpha-adrenergic blockers administration that
administration that presents as a decrease in blood
presents as a decrease in blood pressure upon a change in
pressure upon a change in posture.
posture.
Remember, Phenoxybenzamine irreversibly blocks
alpha adrenergic receptors.
alpha-1 receptors mediate vasoconstriction.
Which alpha-2 agonist is used to treat ethanol and opioid Which alpha-2 agonist is used to treat ethanol and opioid
withdrawal?
withdrawal?
Clonidine
[...]
What is the common suffix for Macrolide antibiotics?
What is the common suffix for Macrolide antibiotics?
-thromycin
[...]
e.g. Azithromycin
Which alpha-adrenergic receptor functions to increase
platelet aggregation?
Which alpha-adrenergic receptor functions to increase

platelet aggregation?
alpha-2
[...]
Which histamine receptor mediates pain?
[...]
Which histamine receptor mediates pain?

H1
Norepinephrine is an adrenergic agonist used to treat
hypotension, however it decreases renal perfusion.
[...] is an adrenergic agonist used to treat hypotension,

however it decreases renal perfusion.
What is the treatment for Methanol poisoning?
What is the treatment for Methanol poisoning?
Fomepizole > ethanol; Dialysis
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Metformin?
What is the GI toxicity of Metformin?
Diarrhea
[...]
Bioavailability (F) is a pharmacokinetic measure defined as [...] is a pharmacokinetic measure defined as the fraction
the fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic
of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation
circulation unchanged.
unchanged.
What is the common suffix for PDE-5 Inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for PDE-5 Inhibitors?
-afil
[...]
e.g. Sildenafil
What is the treatment for Copper toxicity?
What is the treatment for Copper toxicity?
Penicillinamine
[...]
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Niacin?
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Niacin?
Hyperuricemia/Gout; Myopathy
[...]
Which CNS side effects are associated with betablockers?
Which CNS side effects are associated with betablockers?
Seizures, sedation, sleep alteration
[...]
What is the equation for the Volume of Distribution (Vd)

of a drug?
What is the equation for the Volume of Distribution (Vd)

of a drug?
[...]

lacrimal gland secretion.

lacrimal gland secretion.
The M3 muscarinic receptor causes vasodilation.
The [...] muscarinic receptor causes vasodilation.

sweat gland secretion.

sweat gland secretion.
Bethanechol is a direct muscarinic agonist used to treat

postoperative nonobstructive ileus, neurogenic ileus and
urinary retention.
[...] is a direct muscarinic agonist used to treat

postoperative nonobstructive ileus, neurogenic ileus and
urinary retention.
Bethanechol = bowels and bladder

Apraclonidine is a(n) a2 selective adrenergic agonist. It is Apraclonidine is a(n) [...] selective adrenergic agonist. It is
administered ophthalmically.
administered ophthalmically.
What is the equation for Therapeutic Index?
What is the equation for Therapeutic Index?

[...]
How does Amiodarone influence cytochrome p450

activity?
How does Amiodarone influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Decrease
[...]
What is the hematological toxicity of Chloramphenicol?
What is the hematological toxicity of Chloramphenicol?
Aplastic anaemia; Gray Baby Syndrome
[...]
Which type of drug is associated with medium volume of Which type of drug is associated with medium volume of
distribution (Vd)?
distribution (Vd)?
Small, hydrophilic molecules
[...]
What is the MOA of Propanolol?
What is the MOA of Propanolol?
Nonselective beta adrenergic antagonism
[...]
Beta-blockers that start with a letter in the 2nd half of

the alphabet (N-Z) are non-selective beta adrenergic
blockers.
The M3 muscarinic receptor causes strong erection
indirectly via NO.
The [...] muscarinic receptor causes strong erection

indirectly via NO.
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Antipsychotics?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Antipsychotics?
Torsade de pointes
[...]
Which vasopressin receptor functions to increase H2O

permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of
the kidney?
Which vasopressin receptor functions to increase H2O

permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of
the kidney?
V2
[...]
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Phenylephrine bind? To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Phenylephrine bind?
a1
[...]
What is the common suffix for AChE Inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for AChE Inhibitors?
-stigmine
[...]
e.g. Neostigmine
Isoproterenol is a(n) b1, b2, b3 adrenergic agonist.
Isoproterenol is a(n) [...] adrenergic agonist.
What are the CNS toxicities of Metoclopramide?
What are the CNS toxicities of Metoclopramide?
Parkinson like syndrome & Tardive dyskinesia
[...]
Phenoxybenzamine toxicity involves orthostatic

hypotension and reflex tachycardia.
Phenoxybenzamine toxicity involves [...] and reflex

tachycardia.

hypotension and reflex tachycardia.

hypotension and [...].
Pharmacokinetics is a pharmacological subfield that

explores the effects of the body on a drug.
[...] is a pharmacological subfield that explores the effects

of the body on a drug.
ADME: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism,

Excretion
Which type of enzyme inhibitor does not resemble the
substrate?
Which type of enzyme inhibitor does not resemble the

substrate?
Noncompetitive inhibitor
[...]

SLE-like syndrome is an autoimmune-like complication of [...] is an autoimmune-like complication of sulfa drug use.
sulfa drug use.
The M3 muscarinic receptor causes strong contraction of The [...] muscarinic receptor causes strong contraction of
the spincter pupillae and ciliary muscles.
the spincter pupillae and ciliary muscles.
Carbachol is a cholinergic drug used to relieve intraocular
pressure.
[...] is a cholinergic drug used to relieve intraocular

pressure.
What is the renal toxicity of Demeclocycline?
What is the renal toxicity of Demeclocycline?
Diabetes Insipidus
[...]
What is the respiratory toxicity of Methotrexate?
What is the respiratory toxicity of Methotrexate?
Pulmonary fibrosis
[...]

Vmax?

Vmax?
Decrease
[...]
Irreversible competitive inhibition = decreased Vmax;

What is the common suffix for inhalational general
anaesthetics?
What is the common suffix for inhalational general

anaesthetics?
-ane
[...]
e.g. Halothane
Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that is used to
reverse postoperative neuromuscular blockade.
[...] is a cholinesterase inhibitor that is used to reverse

postoperative neuromuscular blockade.
Timolol is a non-selective beta-blocker primarily used to

treat open angle glaucoma.
Timolol is a non-selective beta-blocker primarily used to

treat [...].
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Thiazides?
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Thiazides?
Hyperuricemia/Gout
[...]
Metoprolol, Carvedilol and Bisoprolol are beta-blockers

commonly used after myocardial infarction that decrease
patient mortality.
[...], Carvedilol and Bisoprolol are beta-blockers

patient mortality.

patient mortality.
Metoprolol, [...] and Bisoprolol are beta-blockers

patient mortality.

patient mortality.
Metoprolol, Carvedilol and [...] are beta-blockers

patient mortality.
What is the common suffix for

antiparasitics/antihelminthics?
What is the common suffix for

antiparasitics/antihelminthics?
-bendazole
[...]
e.g. mebendazole
What is the respiratory toxicity of Amiodarone?
What is the respiratory toxicity of Amiodarone?
Pulmonary fibrosis
[...]
Cinchonism is a neurological complication associated with

Quinidine and Quinine use that presents with tinnitus,
blurred vision, headache, vertigo and confusion.
[...] is a neurological complication associated with

Quinidine and Quinine use that presents with tinnitus,
blurred vision, headache, vertigo and confusion.
What is the common suffix for Prostaglandin analogs?
What is the common suffix for Prostaglandin analogs?
-prost
[...]
e.g. Latanoprost
What is the common suffix for local anaesthetics?
What is the common suffix for local anaesthetics?
-caine
[...]
e.g. Lidocaine
What is the MOA of alpha-methyldopa?
What is the MOA of alpha-methyldopa?
Converted into Methylnorepinephrine which acts at central

alpha-2 receptors, thereby decreasing adrenergic tone
[...]
It is a false neurotransmitter that is taken up by

adrenergic neurons.
Adenylate Cyclase?

Adenylate Cyclase?
Gs
[...]

inhibitors that are used to treat myasthenia gravis.
[...] and Pyridostigmine are cholinesterase inhibitors that

are used to treat myasthenia gravis.

inhibitors that are used to treat myasthenia gravis.
Neostigmine and [...] are cholinesterase inhibitors that are

used to treat myasthenia gravis.
What is the treatment for Ethylene Glycol (antifreeze)

poisoning?
What is the treatment for Ethylene Glycol (antifreeze)

poisoning?
Fomepizole > ethanol; Dialysis
[...]
What is the skeletal toxicity of Heparin?
[...]
What is the skeletal toxicity of Heparin?

Osteoporosis
What is the MOA of Phenoxybenzamine?
What is the MOA of Phenoxybenzamine?
Irreversible, non-selective alpha adrenergic blockade
[...]
The M2 receptor is the major muscarinic receptor at the

heart.
The [...] receptor is the major muscarinic receptor at the

heart.
What is the treatment for Beta-Blocker induced

hypoglycemia?
What is the treatment for Beta-Blocker induced

hypoglycemia?
Glucagon
[...]
What is the CNS toxicity of Antipsychotics?
What is the CNS toxicity of Antipsychotics?
Parkinson-like syndrome; Tardive Dyskinesia
[...]
What is the MOA of Ephedrine?
What is the MOA of Ephedrine?
Triggers the release of catecholamines (E, NE, D)
[...]
Which class of antibiotics is associated with teeth

discolouration?
Which class of antibiotics is associated with teeth

discolouration?
Tetracyclines
[...]
What is the treatment for Carbon Monoxide poisoning?
What is the treatment for Carbon Monoxide poisoning?
100% O2; Hyperbaric O2
[...]
The a2 adrenergic receptor strongly decreases insulin

secretion from the pancreas.
The [...] adrenergic receptor strongly decreases insulin

Lineweaver-Burk plot is a reciprocal plot of MichaelisMenten enzyme kinetic values.
[...] is a reciprocal plot of Michaelis-Menten enzyme

kinetic values.
Remember, Km is the inverse of enzyme affinity

(1/affinity).
Remember, Vmax is directly proportional to the
concentration of the enzyme.
Pharmacodynamics is a subfield of pharmacology that
explores the effects of a drug on the body.
[...] is a subfield of pharmacology that explores the

effects of a drug on the body.
i.e. receptor binding, efficacy, potency, toxicity, MOA,

etc.
How does Isoniazid influence cytochrome p450 activity?
How does Isoniazid influence cytochrome p450 activity?
Decrease
[...]
Which 2 sympathomimetics are used to treat cardiogenic

heart failure?
[...]
Which 2 sympathomimetics are used to treat cardiogenic

heart failure?
Dobutamine; Dopamine
SLE-like syndrome is an autoimmune-like complication of [...] is an autoimmune-like complication of Phenytoin use.
Phenytoin use.
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Protease
Inhibitors?
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Protease

Inhibitors?
Hyperglycemia
[...]
Epinephrine is the adrenergic used during cardiopulmonary

resuscitation (CPR)
[...] is the adrenergic used during cardiopulmonary

resuscitation (CPR)
Tamsulosin is a selective a1 adrenergic blocker.
Tamsulosin is a selective [...] adrenergic blocker.
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Adenosine?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Adenosine?
Cutaneous flushing
[...]
Physostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat

anticholinergic toxicity as it crosses the BBB.
[...] is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat

anticholinergic toxicity as it crosses the BBB.
"Physostigmine 'phyxes' atropine overdose."

Which antimuscarinic is used to treat bradycardia?
Which antimuscarinic is used to treat bradycardia?
Atropine
[...]
What is the hematological toxicity of Ibuprofen?
What is the hematological toxicity of Ibuprofen?
[...]
What is the cutaneous toxicity of Sulfonamides?
What is the cutaneous toxicity of Sulfonamides?
Photosensitivity
[...]
Norepinephrine is an a-b agonist with a receptor affinity

of a1 > a2 > b1.
Norepinephrine is an a-b agonist with a receptor affinity

of [...].
Amphetamines are a type of sympathomimetic that is used

to treat ADHD.
[...] are a type of sympathomimetic that is used to treat

ADHD.
Half-life (t1/2) is a pharmacokinetic measure that is

defined as the time required to reduce the amount of a
drug in a body by half via elimination.

time required to reduce the amount of a drug in a body by
half via elimination.
Stems from first order drug elimination.

Adrenocortical Insufficiency is an endocrine complication
of HPA suppression secondary to glucocorticoid
withdrawal.
[...] is an endocrine complication of HPA suppression

secondary to glucocorticoid withdrawal.
How does Phenobarbitol influence cytochrome p450

activity?
How does Phenobarbitol influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Increase
[...]
What is the renal toxicity of SSRIs?

[...]
What is the renal toxicity of SSRIs?

SIADH
What is the hematological toxicity of NSAIDs?
What is the hematological toxicity of NSAIDs?
Aplastic anaemia
[...]
What is the treatment for Iron toxicity?
What is the treatment for Iron toxicity?
Deferoxamine; Deferasirox
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Didanosine?
What is the GI toxicity of Didanosine?
Pancreatitis
[...]
The M3 muscarinic receptor causes moderate exocrine

The [...] muscarinic receptor causes moderate exocrine

What is the hematological toxicity of Penicillin?
What is the hematological toxicity of Penicillin?
Direct coombs-positive hemolytic anaemia
[...]
What is the hematological toxicity of Clozapine?
What is the hematological toxicity of Clozapine?
Agranulocytosis
[...]
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Tacrolimus? What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Tacrolimus?
Hyperglycemia
[...]
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Norepinephrine

bind to, in order of descending affinity?
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Norepinephrine

bind to, in order of descending affinity?
a1 > a2 > b1
[...]
Nebivolol is a combined beta-adrenergic agonist and

antagonist that has combined cardiac-selective beta1 blockade and beta-3 activation.
[...] is a combined beta-adrenergic agonist and antagonist

that has combined cardiac-selective beta1 blockade and beta-3 activation.
Beta-3 receptor activates Nitric Oxide Synthase in the

vasculature.
How does noncompetitive inhibition change Km?
How does noncompetitive inhibition change Km?
No change
[...]

Methyldopa is converted to methylnorepinephrine in
[...] is converted to methylnorepinephrine in adrenergic
adrenergic neurons. It then activates central a2 receptors neurons. It then activates central a2 receptors to decrease
to decrease central adrenergic tone.
central adrenergic tone.
adrenergic neurons. It then activates central a2 receptors adrenergic neurons. It then activates central [...] receptors
How does a competitive antagonist change the potency of How does a competitive antagonist change the potency of
a drug?
a drug?
Decreased; therefore, curve shifts to the right
[...]
(i.e. more of that drug is now requried to achieve the

desired effect)
Overcome by increased substrate concentration.
What is the treatment for Tissue Plasminogen Activator
toxicity?
What is the treatment for Tissue Plasminogen Activator

toxicity?
Aminocaproic Acid
[...]

Clomiphene?

Clomiphene?
Hot flashes
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Isoniazid (INH)?
What is the GI toxicity of Isoniazid (INH)?
Hepatitis
[...]
Which antimuscarinic drug is used to treat Parkinsons

Disease?
Which antimuscarinic drug is used to treat Parkinsons

Disease?
Benztropine
[...]
What is the MOA of Terazosin?
What is the MOA of Terazosin?
Alpha-1 adrenergic antagonism
[...]
What is the MOA of Acebutolol?
What is the MOA of Acebutolol?
[...]

How does Modafinil influence cytochrome p450 activity? How does Modafinil influence cytochrome p450 activity?
Increase
[...]
What is the connective tissue toxicity of Glucocorticoids? What is the connective tissue toxicity of Glucocorticoids?
Fat redistribution
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Clindamycin?
What is the GI toxicity of Clindamycin?
Pseudomembranous colitis
[...]
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of IFN-alpha?
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of IFN-alpha?
Myopathy
[...]
Salmeterol is a(n) b2 selective adrenergic agonist.
Salmeterol is a(n) [...] selective adrenergic agonist.
Neostigmine and Bethanechol can be used to treat

neurogenic bladder.
[...] and Bethanechol can be used to treat neurogenic

bladder.
Neostigmine and Bethanechol can be used to treat

neurogenic bladder.
Neostigmine and [...] can be used to treat neurogenic

bladder.
Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-adrenergic blocker

primarily used to treat Pheochromocytoma as a preoperative preparation or when the tumour is
metastatic/inoperable.
[...] is an alpha-adrenergic blocker primarily used to treat

Pheochromocytoma as a pre-operative preparation or
when the tumour is metastatic/inoperable.
Phentolamine is an alpha-blocker given to patients on

MAO inhibitors that have eaten tyramine-containing foods.
[...] is an alpha-blocker given to patients on MAO

inhibitors that have eaten tyramine-containing foods.
Remember, Phentolamine is a reversible, nonselective alpha-blocker.

What is the common suffix for PPAR-gamma activators
(antidiabetics)?
What is the common suffix for PPAR-gamma activators

(antidiabetics)?
-glitazone
[...]
e.g. Rosiglitazone
What is the renal toxicity of Furosemide?
What is the renal toxicity of Furosemide?
Interstitial nephritis
[...]

detrusor muscle motility and tone.

detrusor muscle motility and tone.
Which is the oral complication of Cyclosporine?
Which is the oral complication of Cyclosporine?
Gingival hyperplasia
[...]

Protein Kinase C following Phospholipase C activation?

Protein Kinase C following Phospholipase C activation?
Gq
[...]
What is the CNS toxicity of Imipenem/Cilastatin?
What is the CNS toxicity of Imipenem/Cilastatin?
Seizures
[...]
What is the equation for the Loading dose of a drug?
What is the equation for the Loading dose of a drug?

[...]
Which phase of drug metabolism is lost first in geriatric

patients?
Which phase of drug metabolism is lost first in geriatric

patients?
Phase 1
[...]


Gs
[...]
What is the MOA of Timolol?

[...]
What is the MOA of Timolol?

blockers.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are the adrenergics
involved with local anaesthesia and the triggering of local
vasoconstriction.
[...] and [...] are the adrenergics involved with local

anaesthesia and the triggering of local vasoconstriction.
Metoprolol and Esmolol are selective b1-blockers used to [...] and Esmolol are selective b1-blockers used to treat
treat Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT).
Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT).
Metoprolol and Esmolol are selective b1-blockers used to
Metoprolol and [...] are selective b1-blockers used to

Mirtazapine is a selective alpha-2 adrenergic blocker that [...] is a selective alpha-2 adrenergic blocker that is used
is used to treat depression.
to treat depression.
Cocaine is an indirect sympathomimetic that causes local
vasoconstriction and is used as a local anaesthetic.
[...] is an indirect sympathomimetic that causes local

vasoconstriction and is used as a local anaesthetic.
Zero-Order Elimination is an order of drug elimination that

involves a constant rate of elimination regardless of Cp.
[...] is an order of drug elimination that involves a

constant rate of elimination regardless of Cp.
Hence Cp decreases linearly with time.

Ephedrine is an indirect sympathomimetic used to treat
urinary incontinence and hypotension.
[...] is an indirect sympathomimetic used to treat urinary

incontinence and hypotension.
Which histamine receptor mediates pruritis?
Which histamine receptor mediates pruritis?
H1
[...]
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Daunorubicin and

Doxorubicin?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Daunorubicin and

Doxorubicin?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
[...]
What is the connective tissue toxicity of Protease

Inhibitors?
What is the connective tissue toxicity of Protease

Inhibitors?
Fat redistribution
[...]
How does Atropine influence GI secretions?
How does Atropine influence GI secretions?
Decrease
[...]
Which vasopressin receptor mediates vascular smooth

muscle contraction?
Which vasopressin receptor mediates vascular smooth

muscle contraction?
V1
[...]
Volume of Distribution (Vd) is a pharmacokinetic measure

that is defined as the theoretical volume occupied by the
total absorbed drug amount at the plasma concentration.

theoretical volume occupied by the total absorbed drug
amount at the plasma concentration.
Hence, the Vd of plasma protein-bound drugs can be

altered by liver and kidney disease (liver/kidney
disease = decreased protein binding = decreased Vd)
How does Cimetidine influence cytochrome p450 activity? How does Cimetidine influence cytochrome p450 activity?
Decrease
[...]
What is the hematological toxicity of Benzene?
What is the hematological toxicity of Benzene?
Aplastic anaemia
[...]
Amphetamines are a type of indirect sympathomimetic that [...] are a type of indirect sympathomimetic that is used to
is used to treat narcolepsy.
treat narcolepsy.
What is the common suffix for H2 (histidine) receptor
antagonists?
What is the common suffix for H2 (histidine) receptor

antagonists?
-tidine
[...]
e.g. Cimetidine
What is the hematological toxicity of oral contraceptives? What is the hematological toxicity of oral contraceptives?
Thrombotic complications
[...]
The b2 adrenergic receptor is responsible for most

vasodilation and bronchodilation.
The [...] adrenergic receptor is responsible for most

vasodilation and bronchodilation.
What is the treatment for Methemoglobin poisoning?
What is the treatment for Methemoglobin poisoning?
Methylene blue; Vitamin C
[...]

Sulfonamides?

Sulfonamides?
Hypothyroidism
[...]
What is the respiratory toxicity of Busulfan?
What is the respiratory toxicity of Busulfan?
Pulmonary fibrosis
[...]
Edrophonium is a cholinesterase inhibitor clinically used to [...] is a cholinesterase inhibitor clinically used to diagnose
diagnose myasthenia gravis.
myasthenia gravis.
What is the GI toxicity of Cephalosporins?
What is the GI toxicity of Cephalosporins?
[...]

Amiodarone?

Amiodarone?
Hypothyroidism
[...]
Sotalol is a nonselective beta adrenergic blocker.
Sotalol is a nonselective [...] adrenergic blocker.
What is the GI toxicity of Corticosteroids?
What is the GI toxicity of Corticosteroids?
Pancreatitis
[...]
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Albuterol bind?
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Albuterol bind?
b2
[...]
Mast cell degranulation is inhibited through b2 adrenergic Mast cell degranulation is inhibited through [...] adrenergic
receptors.
receptors.
What is the common suffix for Typical antipsychotics?
What is the common suffix for Typical antipsychotics?
-azine
[...]
e.g. Thioridazine
What is the GI toxicity of Erythromycin?
What is the GI toxicity of Erythromycin?
Acute cholestatic hepatitis; Jaundice; Diarrhea
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Amanita phalloides (death cap What is the GI toxicity of Amanita phalloides (death cap
mushrooms)?
mushrooms)?
[...]

associated with Allopurinol.
[...] is a cutaneous complication associated with

Allopurinol.
What is the treatment for Digitalis toxicity?
What is the treatment for Digitalis toxicity?
Anti-Digoxin FAb
[...]
What is the CNS toxicity of Bupropion?
What is the CNS toxicity of Bupropion?
Seizures
[...]
How does a partial agonist change the efficacy of a

drug?
How does a partial agonist change the efficacy of a

drug?
Decrease
[...]
The partial agonist acts at the same site as the

agonist, but with a lower maximal effect. Hence the
overall drug effect is reduced (i.e. decreased efficacy).
Remember, potency is an independent variable.
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Macrolide
antibiotics?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Macrolide

antibiotics?
Torsade de pointes
[...]
How does Nevirapine influence cytochrome p450

activity?
How does Nevirapine influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Increase
[...]
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Salmeterol bind?
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Salmeterol bind?
b2
[...]
What is the common suffix for Chimeric Monoclonal
antibodies?
[...]
What is the common suffix for Chimeric Monoclonal

antibodies?
-ximab
e.g. Basiliximab
How many half-lives does it take to reach 90% of the
steady-state level?
How many half-lives does it take to reach 90% of the

steady-state level?
3.3
[...]
What is the cutaneous toxicity of Amiodarone?
What is the cutaneous toxicity of Amiodarone?
Photosensitivity
[...]
How does Quinidine influence cytochrome p450 activity? How does Quinidine influence cytochrome p450 activity?
Decrease
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Azathioprine?
What is the GI toxicity of Azathioprine?
Pancreatitis
[...]
Which G-protein class is associated with an increase in

intracellular [Ca2+] via IP3 action?
Which G-protein class is associated with an increase in

intracellular [Ca2+] via IP3 action?
Gq
[...]
Which antimuscarinic drug is used to treat motion

sickness?
Which antimuscarinic drug is used to treat motion

sickness?
Scopolamine
[...]
How do reversible competitive inhibitors change

Vmax?
How do reversible competitive inhibitors change

Vmax?
No change
[...]

Pilocarpine is a direct cholinergic agonist used to stimulate [...] is a direct cholinergic agonist used to stimulate sweat,
sweat, tears and saliva secretion.
tears and saliva secretion.
"You cry, sweat and drool onto your pillow(-carpine)
at night."
Amphetamines is a mixed-acting adrenergic that stimulates [...] is a mixed-acting adrenergic that stimulates the release
the release of monoamine NTs (NE, D, 5-HT) from their of monoamine NTs (NE, D, 5-HT) from their storage
storage vesicles. It also blocks catecholamine reuptake.
vesicles. It also blocks catecholamine reuptake.
What is the hematological toxicity of Sulfonamides?
What is the hematological toxicity of Sulfonamides?
[...]
[...] is a cutaneous complication associated with Penicillin.

associated with Penicillin.
What is the common suffix for bacterial peptidoglycan
synthesis inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for bacterial peptidoglycan

synthesis inhibitors?
-cillin
[...]
e.g. Penicillin
Benztropine is an antimuscarinic that is used to treat
Parkinson Disease.
[...] is an antimuscarinic that is used to treat Parkinson

Disease.
"Park my benz, brah."

Which type of drug is associated with high volume of
distribution (Vd)?
Which type of drug is associated with high volume of

distribution (Vd)?
Small lipophilic drugs, especially those bound to tissue

proteins
[...]
What is the MOA of Carvedilol?
What is the MOA of Carvedilol?
Nonselective alpha and beta adrenergic antagonism
[...]
Drugs that end in a suffix other than -olol are nonselective alpha and beta antagonists.
e.g. Carvedilol and Labetalol
What is the MOA of Amphetamines?
What is the MOA of Amphetamines?
Triggers the release of catecholamines (E, NE, D); Blocks

catecholamine reuptake
[...]
Which beta-2 adrenergic agonist is used to treat longterm asthma or COPD?
Which beta-2 adrenergic agonist is used to treat longterm asthma or COPD?
Salmeterol
[...]
What is the MOA of Doxazosin?
What is the MOA of Doxazosin?
[...]
What is the bioavailability (F) of a drug administered

intravenously?
What is the bioavailability (F) of a drug administered

intravenously?
100%
[...]
Foral < 100%; varies depending on incomplete

absorption and first-pass metabolism
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Ca2+ channel
blockers?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Ca2+ channel

blockers?
Cutaneous flushing
[...]
What is the common suffix for HMG-CoA reductase

inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for HMG-CoA reductase

inhibitors?
-statin
[...]
e.g. Atorvastatin
Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 agonist that is used to treat
hypotension via vasocontriction.
[...] is an alpha-1 agonist that is used to treat hypotension

via vasocontriction.
Prazosin is a selective a1 adrenergic blocker.
Prazosin is a selective [...] adrenergic blocker.
Glycopyrrolate is an antimuscarinic that is administered

orally to treat drooling and peptic ulcers.
[...] is an antimuscarinic that is administered orally to treat

drooling and peptic ulcers.
The M2 receptor strongly decreases conduction and

refractoriness at the AV node

refractoriness at the [...]

The [...] receptor strongly decreases conduction and

What is the common suffix for SSRIs?
What is the common suffix for SSRIs?
-etine
[...]
e.g. Fluoxetine
Atropine, homatropine and tropicamide are 3
antimuscarinics that are used clinically to produce
mydriasis and cycloplegia.
[...], homatropine and tropicamide are 3 antimuscarinics

that are used clinically to produce mydriasis and
cycloplegia.

Atropine, [...] and tropicamide are 3 antimuscarinics that

are used clinically to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia.

Atropine, homatropine and [...] are 3 antimuscarinics that

are used clinically to produce mydriasis and cycloplegia.
What is the cutaneous toxicity of Tetracycline antibiotics? What is the cutaneous toxicity of Tetracycline antibiotics?
Photosensitivity
[...]
What is the MOA of Cocaine?
What is the MOA of Cocaine?
Inhibition of catecholamine reuptake
[...]
Never give a patient beta-blockers if cocaine

intoxication is suspected as it can lead to unopposed
alpha-1 activation and extreme hypertension
(remember, alpha-1 receptors mediate
vasoconstriction).
How does an irreversible competitive
antagonist change the efficacy of a drug?
How does an irreversible competitive

antagonist change the efficacy of a drug?
Decrease
[...]
i.e. the curve shifts downwards

This is the same idea as the noncompetitive
antagonist. However here, despite the antagonist
competing for the same binding site, the binding is
irreversible. Hence an increase in drug concentration
cannot overcome the antagonist.
What is the hematological toxicity of Methyldopa?
What is the hematological toxicity of Methyldopa?
Direct Coombs-positive hemolytic anaemia
[...]
Glycopyrrolate is an antimuscarinic drug administered

parenterally to reduce airway secretions in
preparation for surgery.
[...] is an antimuscarinic drug administered

parenterally to reduce airway secretions in
preparation for surgery.
How does Rifampin influence cytochrome p450 activity?
How does Rifampin influence cytochrome p450 activity?
Increase
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Halothane?
What is the GI toxicity of Halothane?
[...]
First-order elimination is an order of drug elimination that [...] is an order of drug elimination that involves a rate of
involves a rate of elimination that is directly proportional elimination that is directly proportional to the drug
to the drug concentration.
concentration.
Phenoxybenzamine is an irreversible non-selective alpha
adrenergic blocker with an affinity of a1 > a2.
[...] is an irreversible non-selective alpha adrenergic

blocker with an affinity of a1 > a2.
What is the hematological toxicity of Nitrofurantoin?
What is the hematological toxicity of Nitrofurantoin?
[...]
Which class of antibiotics is associated with tendonitis,

tendon rupture and/or cartilage damage?
Which class of antibiotics is associated with tendonitis,

tendon rupture and/or cartilage damage?
Fluoroquinolones
[...]
Ipratropium and tiotropium are 2 antimuscarinic drugs

used to treat COPD and asthma.
[...] and tiotropium are 2 antimuscarinic drugs used to treat

COPD and asthma.
Ipratropium and tiotropium are 2 antimuscarinic drugs

used to treat COPD and asthma.
Ipratropium and [...] are 2 antimuscarinic drugs used to

treat COPD and asthma.
Bicarbonate is a treatment for weak acid drug

overdose that functions by alkalinizing the urine, thereby
trapping the weakly acidic drug.
[...] is a treatment for weak acid drug overdose that

functions by alkalinizing the urine, thereby trapping the
weakly acidic drug.
For weak acid drugs:

What is the common suffix for ACE inhibitors?
What is the common suffix for ACE inhibitors?
-pril
[...]
e.g. captopril
Which alpha-adrenergic receptor functions to
decrease sympathetic outflow?
Which alpha-adrenergic receptor functions to

decrease sympathetic outflow?
alpha-2
[...]
[...] is a pharmacodynamic measure defined as the
amount of drug needed for a given effect.
Potency is a pharmacodynamic measure defined as the

amount of drug needed for a given effect.
Increased potency = increased affinity for the
receptor.
Potency is an independent variable (vs. efficacy).
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Lithium?
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Lithium?
Hypothyroidism
[...]
Which beta-2 adrenergic agonist is used to treat

acute asthma?
Which beta-2 adrenergic agonist is used to treat

acute asthma?
Albuterol
[...]
Atropine is an anticholinergic used to treat cholinesterase

inhibitor poisoning along with Pralidoxime.
[...] is an anticholinergic used to treat cholinesterase

inhibitor poisoning along with Pralidoxime.
What is the MOA of Tamsulosin?
What is the MOA of Tamsulosin?
[...]
What is the MOA of Clonidine?
Agonist at alpha2-autoreceptors, thereby decreasing

adrenergic tone
[...]
What is the common suffix for non-depolarizing

paralytics?
What is the common suffix for non-depolarizing

paralytics?
-curium; -curonium
[...]
e.g. Atracurium
Which is the oral complication of Nifedipine?
Which is the oral complication of Nifedipine?
[...]
Propanolol is a non-selective beta adrenergic blocker. It

has a local anaesthetic effect.
Propanolol is a non-selective [...] adrenergic blocker. It

has a local anaesthetic effect.
What is the MOA of Pindolol?
What is the MOA of Pindolol?
[...]

blockers.
Metyrosine is an indirect acting antiadrenergic that
inhibits Tyrosine Hydroxylase, the rate limiting enzyme in
catecholamine biosynthesis.

inhibits [...], the rate limiting enzyme in catecholamine
biosynthesis.

[...] is an indirect acting antiadrenergic that

How do beta-blockers influence Renin secretion?
[...]
How do beta-blockers influence Renin secretion?

Decrease
Due to beta-1 receptor antagonism at JGA cells.
receptors?

receptors?
Gs
[...]
Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist used

preoperatively in Pheochromocytoma to prevent
hypertensive crisis during the surgery.
[...] is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist used

preoperatively in Pheochromocytoma to prevent
hypertensive crisis during the surgery.
Phenoxybenzamine is an irreversible, non-selective

alpha-blocker.
Epinephrine is an adrenergic with a receptor affinity
of b1=b2=b3 >> a1=a2
Epinephrine is an adrenergic with a receptor affinity of [...]
Which G-protein class is associated with V2 vasopressin

receptors?

receptors?
Gs
[...]
What is the respiratory toxicity of Bleomycin?
What is the respiratory toxicity of Bleomycin?
Pulmonary fibrosis
[...]
Pindolol is a nonselective beta adrenergic blocker. It has a Pindolol is a nonselective [...] adrenergic blocker. It has a
local anaesthetic effect.
local anaesthetic effect.
Which phase of drug metabolism involves conjugation of
drugs into very polar and inactive metabolites?
Which phase of drug metabolism involves conjugation of

drugs into very polar and inactive metabolites?
Phase II
[...]
Glucuronidation, acetylation, sulfation.

Which type of enzyme inhibition is able to be overcome by Which type of enzyme inhibition is able to be overcome by
an increase in substrate concentration?
an increase in substrate concentration?
Reversible competitive inhibition
[...]

How does Norepinephrine change heart rate?
How does Norepinephrine change heart rate?
Bradycardia (via reflexive decrease)
[...]
Norepinephrine: causes alpha-1 mediated

vasocontriction --> increased BP --> reflexive
bradycardia
SLE-like syndrome is an autoimmune-like complication of [...] is an autoimmune-like complication of Isoniazid (INH)
Isoniazid (INH) use.
use.
What is the common suffix for 5-HT1B/1D agonists?
What is the common suffix for 5-HT1B/1D agonists?
-triptan
[...]
e.g. Sumatriptan
Albuterol is a(n) b2 selective adrenergic agonist.
Albuterol is a(n) [...] selective adrenergic agonist.
What is the renal toxicity of Ifosfamide?
What is the renal toxicity of Ifosfamide?
Hemorrhagic cystitis
[...]
Prevented by Mesna coadministration.

How does a competitive antagonist change efficacy of a
drug?
How does a competitive antagonist change efficacy of a

drug?
No change
[...]
The maximal effect of the drug is still the same,

however more drug will be needed to achieve it.
How does acute alcohol abuse influence cytochrome
p450 activity?
How does acute alcohol abuse influence cytochrome

p450 activity?
Decrease
[...]
SLE-like syndrome is an autoimmune-like complication of

Hydralazine use.
[...] is an autoimmune-like complication of Hydralazine

use.

receptors?

receptors?
Gq
[...]
Pilocarpine is a direct muscarinic agonist used to treat

open angle glaucoma and xerostomia as it stimulates
sweating, tearing and salivation.
[...] is a direct muscarinic agonist used to treat open angle

glaucoma and xerostomia as it stimulates sweating, tearing
and salivation.
Pilocarpine lets you cry, drool and sweat onto your

pillow
Therapeutic window is a pharmacodynamic measure of
the clinical drug's effectiveness for a patient.
[...] is a pharmacodynamic measure of the clinical drug's

effectiveness for a patient.
What is the treatment for Antimuscarinic and

Anticholinergic toxicity?
What is the treatment for Antimuscarinic and

Anticholinergic toxicity?
Physostigmine salicylate
[...]
The aim in therapy is to control the hyperthermia.

Botulinum toxin is a toxin from Clostridium
[...] is a toxin from Clostridium botulinum that prevents
botulinum that prevents the release of neurotransmitters at the release of neurotransmitters at all cholinergic terminals.
all cholinergic terminals.
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Cocaine?
What is the cardiovascular toxicity of Cocaine?
Coronary vasospasm
[...]
What is the MOA of Phentolamine?
What is the MOA of Phentolamine?
Reversible, nonselective alpha-adrenergic blockade
[...]
What is the hematological toxicity of Cimetidine?
What is the hematological toxicity of Cimetidine?
Thrombocytopenia
[...]

after alpha-adrenergic blockade?

after alpha-adrenergic blockade?
No change; Phenylephrine's action is suppressed by the

alpha-blockade
[...]
Remember, Phenylephrine is a pure alpha-1 agonist.

Through which adrenergic receptor does Norepinephrine Through which adrenergic receptor does Norepinephrine
cause an increase in systolic and diastolic pressure?
cause an increase in systolic and diastolic pressure?
Alpha-1 (via vasoconstriction)
[...]
What is the common suffix for Bisphosphonates?
What is the common suffix for Bisphosphonates?
-dronate
[...]
e.g. Pamidronate
What is the treatment for Opioid toxicity?
What is the treatment for Opioid toxicity?
Naloxone
[...]
What is the hematological toxicity of Carbamazepine?
What is the hematological toxicity of Carbamazepine?
Agranulocytosis; Aplastic anaemia
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of diuretics?
What is the GI toxicity of diuretics?
Pancreatitis
[...]
What is the respiratory toxicity of ACE inhibitors?
What is the respiratory toxicity of ACE inhibitors?
Dry cough
[...]
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Furosemide?
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of Furosemide?
Hyperuricemia/Gout
[...]
Bethanechol and Pilocarpine are direct cholinergic agonists [...] and Pilocarpine are direct cholinergic agonists that are
that are resistant to AChE.
resistant to AChE.
Bethanechol and Pilocarpine are direct cholinergic agonists Bethanechol and [...] are direct cholinergic agonists that
that are resistant to AChE.
are resistant to AChE.
What is the renal toxicity of Methicillin?
[...]
What is the renal toxicity of Methicillin?

How does Griseofulvin influence cytochrome p450
activity?
How does Griseofulvin influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Increase
[...]
Which dopamine receptor functions to relax renal

vascular smooth muscle?
Which dopamine receptor functions to relax renal

D1
[...]
Clonidine is an adrenergic used to treat tobacco, alcohol

or opioid withdrawal.
[...] is an adrenergic used to treat tobacco, alcohol or

opioid withdrawal.
What is the hematological toxicity of Methimazole?
What is the hematological toxicity of Methimazole?
Agranulocytosis; Aplastic Anaemia
[...]
What is the common suffix for pituitary hormones?
What is the common suffix for pituitary hormones?
-tropin
[...]
Neostigmine is used to treat myasthenia gravis,

postoperative nonobstructive ileus, urinary retention and
postoperative NMJ blockade
[...] is used to treat myasthenia gravis, postoperative

nonobstructive ileus, urinary retention and postoperative
NMJ blockade
What is the renal toxicity of Carbamazepine?
What is the renal toxicity of Carbamazepine?
SIADH
[...]
What is the common suffix for Benzodiazepines?
What is the common suffix for Benzodiazepines?
-zepam; -zolam
[...]
e.g. Diazepam; Midazolam

Scopolamine is an antimuscarinic drug used to treat motion
sickness.
[...] is an antimuscarinic drug used to treat motion

sickness.
What is the GI toxicity of Ampicillin?
What is the GI toxicity of Ampicillin?
[...]
What is the MOA of Nadolol?
What is the MOA of Nadolol?
[...]

blockers.
Which type of enzyme inhibition does not involve binding
at the active site?
[...]
Which type of enzyme inhibition does not involve binding

at the active site?
Noncompetitive inhibition
Carbachol is a cholinergic drug used to treat glaucoma and [...] is a cholinergic drug used to treat glaucoma and cause
cause pupillary constriction.
pupillary constriction.
What is the hematological toxicity of Isoniazid (INH)?
What is the hematological toxicity of Isoniazid (INH)?
[...]

receptors?

receptors?
Gq
[...]
Efficacy is a pharmacodynamic measure defined as the

maximal effect a drug can produce.
[...] is a pharmacodynamic measure defined as the

maximal effect a drug can produce.
Mesna is a drug that is coadministered with

[...] is a drug that is coadministered with
Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide to prevent hemorrhagic Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide to prevent hemorrhagic
cystitis.
cystitis.
administration before alpha-adrenergic blockade?

administration before alpha-adrenergic blockade?
Increase
[...]
What is the equation for the maintenance dose of a drug? What is the equation for the maintenance dose of a drug?
[...]
In renal/liver disease, the maintenance dose
decreases but the loading dose is unchanged.
Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that treats heart [...] is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that treats heart failure
failure and yields greater inotropic effects than
and yields greater inotropic effects than chronotropic.
chronotropic.
Pilocarpine is a dirct cholinergic agonist used to treat
closed-angle glaucoma by contracting the pupillary
sphincter muscle.
[...] is a dirct cholinergic agonist used to treat closedangle glaucoma by contracting the pupillary sphincter
muscle.
Which is the oral complication of Verapamil?
Which is the oral complication of Verapamil?
[...]
What is the common suffix for TCAs?
What is the common suffix for TCAs?
-ipramine; -triptyline
[...]
e.g. Imipramine; Amitryptiline
Zero-order elimination is an order of elimination that

involves elimination of a constant amount of drug per
unit time.
[...] is an order of elimination that involves elimination of a

constant amount of drug per unit time.
Cocaine is a mixed-acting adrenergic that blocks the

reuptake of catecholamines in the CNS and PNS.
[...] is a mixed-acting adrenergic that blocks the reuptake

of catecholamines in the CNS and PNS.
Which histamine receptor functions to increase vascular

permeability?
Which histamine receptor functions to increase vascular

permeability?
H1
[...]

associated with anti-epileptic drugs.
[...] is a cutaneous complication associated with antiepileptic drugs.
Which alpha-1 adrenergic agonist is used to treat

rhinitis via vasocontriction?
Which alpha-1 adrenergic agonist is used to treat

rhinitis via vasocontriction?
Phenylephrine
[...]
Scopolamine is a muscarinic blocker used to treat motion [...] is a muscarinic blocker used to treat motion sickness.
sickness.
Which beta-2 agonist is used to reduce premature
uterine contractions?
Which beta-2 agonist is used to reduce premature

uterine contractions?
Terbutaline
[...]
Which indirect central alpha-2 adrenergic agonist is used

to treat Hypertension in pregnancy?
Which indirect central alpha-2 adrenergic agonist is used

to treat Hypertension in pregnancy?
alpha-Methyldopa
[...]
Epinephrine and Apraclonidine are adrenergics used to

[...] and Apraclonidine are adrenergics used to treat open

angle glaucoma.
Epinephrine and Apraclonidine are adrenergics used to

Epinephrine and [...] are adrenergics used to treat open

angle glaucoma.
Hyperthermia is a potential complication of Atropine use

due to the significant decrease in sweating.
[...] is a potential complication of Atropine use due to the

significant decrease in sweating.
Which is the oral complication of Phenytoin?
Which is the oral complication of Phenytoin?
[...]
To which fluid compartment do drugs with high volume of To which fluid compartment do drugs with high volume of
distribution spread?
All tissue, including fat
[...]
How does Atropine influence urinary urgency in cystitis?
How does Atropine influence urinary urgency in cystitis?
Decrease
[...]
Acute angle-closure glaucoma is a potential ocular

complication of Atropine use in the elderly due to the
mydriasis caused.
[...] is a potential ocular complication of Atropine use in

the elderly due to the mydriasis caused.
Pralidoxime is a drug used to treat cholinesterase inhibitor

[...] is a drug used to treat cholinesterase inhibitor
poisoning with Atropine as it regenerates AChE if given poisoning with Atropine as it regenerates AChE if given
early.
early.
What is the treatment for Benzodiazepine toxicity?
What is the treatment for Benzodiazepine toxicity?
Flumanezil
[...]
What is the GI toxicity of Acarbose?
What is the GI toxicity of Acarbose?
Diarrhea
[...]
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Niacin?
What is the endocrine/reproductive toxicity of Niacin?
Hyperglycemia
[...]
Which G-protein class is associated with activation of the Which G-protein class is associated with activation of the
IP3/DAG signalling cascade?
IP3/DAG signalling cascade?
Gq
[...]
Remember, IP3 increases intracellular [Ca].

Organophosphate are a type of irreversible AChE
inhibitor that can cause cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning,
especially in farmers.
[...] are a type of irreversible AChE inhibitor that can

cause cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning, especially in
farmers.
Causes DUMBBELSS:
- Diarrhea
- Urination
- Miosis
- Bronchospasm
- Bradycardia
- Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS
- Lacrimation
- Sweating
- Salivation
Which type of cholinergic receptors are found at all
autonomic ganglia?
Which type of cholinergic receptors are found at all

autonomic ganglia?
Nicotinic (NN)
[...]
What is the treatment for Acetaminophen toxicity?
What is the treatment for Acetaminophen toxicity?
N-acetylcysteine
[...]
It functions to replenish glutathione which is used up

by NAPQI.
Doxazosin is a selective a1 adrenergic blocker.
Doxazosin is a selective [...] adrenergic blocker.
What is the common suffix for Cholinergic agonists?
What is the common suffix for Cholinergic agonists?
-chol
[...]
e.g. bethanechol

receptors?

receptors?
Gq
[...]
Metoprolol and Esmolol are 2 beta-1 selective antagonists

that can treat SVT by decreasing AV node conduction
velocity.
[...] and Esmolol are 2 beta-1 selective antagonists that

can treat SVT by decreasing AV node conduction
velocity.
Metoprolol and Esmolol are 2 beta-1 selective antagonists Metoprolol and [...] are 2 beta-1 selective antagonists that
that can treat SVT by decreasing AV node conduction
can treat SVT by decreasing AV node conduction
velocity.
velocity.
How does Carbamazepine influence cytochrome p450
activity?
How does Carbamazepine influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Increase
[...]
What is the renal toxicity of NSAIDs?
What is the renal toxicity of NSAIDs?
[...]
To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Dobutamine bind? To which adrenergic receptor(s) does Dobutamine bind?
b1
[...]


Gq
[...]
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of

Hydroxychloroquine?
What is the musculoskeletal toxicity of

Hydroxychloroquine?
Myopathy
[...]
Epinephrine and selective b2 agonists are adrenergics used [...] and [...] agonists are adrenergics used to treat asthma
to treat asthma and COPD.
and COPD.
To which fluid compartment do drugs with low volume of To which fluid compartment do drugs with low volume of
Blood (4-8 L)
[...]
SLE-like syndrome is an autoimmune-like complication of [...] is an autoimmune-like complication of Etanercept use.

Etanercept use.
Which histamine receptor functions to increase nasal and
bronchial mucus production?
Which histamine receptor functions to increase nasal and

bronchial mucus production?
H1
[...]
Which vasopressin receptor is found at the kidneys?
Which vasopressin receptor is found at the kidneys?
V2
[...]
Bronchial muscle relaxation is mediated through b2

adrenergic receptors.
Bronchial muscle relaxation is mediated through [...]

adrenergic receptors.
Oxybutynin, Darifenacin and Solifenacin are 3

antimuscarinic drugs used to reduce urgency in mild
cystitis and bladder spasms.
[...], Darifenacin and Solifenacin are 3 antimuscarinic

drugs used to reduce urgency in mild cystitis and
bladder spasms.
Other agents include tolterodine, fesoterodine and

trospium.
Oxybutynin, [...] and Solifenacin are 3 antimuscarinic

bladder spasms.

trospium.
Oxybutynin, Darifenacin and [...] are 3 antimuscarinic

bladder spasms.

trospium.
Benzotropine is a muscarinic blocker used to treat
Parkinson's Disease.
[...] is a muscarinic blocker used to treat Parkinson's

Disease.
Park my Benz.
What is the MOA of Labetalol?
What is the MOA of Labetalol?
Nonselective alpha and beta adrenergic antagonism
[...]
Drugs that end in a suffix other than -olol are nonselective alpha and beta antagonists.
e.g. Carvedilol and Labetalol
How does Ketoconazole influence cytochrome p450
activity?
How does Ketoconazole influence cytochrome p450

activity?
Decrease
[...]
Urinary retention is a possible urinary complication of

Atropine use in men with BPH.
[...] is a possible urinary complication of Atropine use in

men with BPH.
Pilocarpine is a direct cholinergic agonist used to treat

open-angle glaucoma by contracting the ciliary muscle.
[...] is a direct cholinergic agonist used to treat openangle glaucoma by contracting the ciliary muscle.
Which muscarinic receptor is mainly found at the CNS

and enteric nervous system?
Which muscarinic receptor is mainly found at the CNS

and enteric nervous system?
M1
[...]
What is the treatment for AChE Inhibitor toxicity?
What is the treatment for AChE Inhibitor toxicity?
Atropine + Pralidoxime
[...]
Which adrenergic agonist is used to treat open-angle

glaucoma?
Which adrenergic agonist is used to treat open-angle

glaucoma?
Epinephrine
[...]
What is the ROA of Imiquimod?
What is the ROA of Imiquimod?
Topical
[...]
Zanamivir and Oseltamivir are anti-influenza agents that

can prevent and treat Influenza A, Influenza B, H1N1 and
H5N1 infections.
[...] and Oseltamivir are anti-influenza agents that can

prevent and treat Influenza A, Influenza B, H1N1 and
H5N1 infections.
Zanamivir and Oseltamivir are anti-influenza agents that

can prevent and treat Influenza A, Influenza B, H1N1 and
H5N1 infections.
Zanamivir and [...] are anti-influenza agents that can

prevent and treat Influenza A, Influenza B, H1N1 and
H5N1 infections.
Cidofovir must be administered with Probenecid which

inhibits active tubular secretion of Cidofovir, thereby
decreasing its nephrotoxicity.
Cidofovir must be administered with [...] which inhibits

active tubular secretion of Cidofovir, thereby decreasing
its nephrotoxicity.
Cidofovir must be administered with Probenecid which

inhibits active tubular secretion of Cidofovir, thereby
decreasing its nephrotoxicity.
[...] must be administered with Probenecid which inhibits

active tubular secretion of Cidofovir, thereby decreasing
its nephrotoxicity.
Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that inhibits

Transglycolase in gram-positive bacteria only.
[...] is a glycopeptide antibiotic that inhibits Transglycolase

in gram-positive bacteria only.
What type of antibiotic is Imipenem?
What type of antibiotic is Imipenem?
Carbapanem penicillin
[...]
What type of antiretroviral is Emtricitabine (FTC)?
What type of antiretroviral is Emtricitabine (FTC)?
NRTI
[...]
Clavulanate and Sulbactam are beta-lactamase inhibitors

that are used in combination with beta-lactam antibiotics.
[...] and Sulbactam are beta-lactamase inhibitors that are

used in combination with beta-lactam antibiotics.
Clavulanate and Sulbactam are beta-lactamase inhibitors Clavulanate and [...] are beta-lactamase inhibitors that are
that are used in combination with beta-lactam antibiotics.
used in combination with beta-lactam antibiotics.
What is the DOC for Entamoeba histolytica and
Giardia lamblia?
What is the DOC for Entamoeba histolytica and

Giardia lamblia?
Metronidazole
[...]
What is the MOA of the Entry Inhibitor retroviral

Enfuvirtide?
What is the MOA of the Entry Inhibitor retroviral

Enfuvirtide?
gp41 binding and steric hindrance, thereby preventing

conformational change and viral fusion
[...]
What is the DOC in Blastomycosis?
What is the DOC in Blastomycosis?
Itraconazole (except in CNS)
[...]
Trimethoprim is a diaminopyrimidine antibiotic that can

cause Aseptic Meningitis.
[...] is a diaminopyrimidine antibiotic that can cause

Aseptic Meningitis.
Aminoglycosides are antibiotics that target the 30S

ribosomal subunit and cause blockade of the initiation
complex and blockade of translocation.
[...] are antibiotics that target the 30S ribosomal subunit

and cause blockade of the initiation complex and
blockade of translocation.
Piperacillin is an antipseudomonal penicillin that is

susceptible to beta-lactamase.
[...] is an antipseudomonal penicillin that is susceptible to

beta-lactamase.
What kind of antibiotic is Nafcillin?
Beta-lactamase resistance penicillin
[...]
What is the MOA of Protease Inhibitor antiretrovirals?
What is the MOA of Protease Inhibitor antiretrovirals?
Competitive inhibition of Aspartyl Protease, thereby

preventing proteolytic cleavage of gag and pol precursor
proteins
[...]
What kind of antibiotic is Streptomycin?
What kind of antibiotic is Streptomycin?
Aminoglycoside
[...]
What generation Cephalosporin is Cefotetan?
What generation Cephalosporin is Cefotetan?
2nd
[...]
"FUR, FOX, TEA"

Ampicillin is a broad spectrum beta-lactam that is used
primarily for G+ bacteria. It is especially effective against
Enterococci.
[...] is a broad spectrum beta-lactam that is used

primarily for G+ bacteria. It is especially effective against
Enterococci.
Ampicillin "HELPSS kill Enterococci"

H. influenzae, E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes, Proteus
mirabilis, Salmonella, Shigella
Proguanil is an anti-plasmodial that selectively inhibits
protozoan Dihydrofolate Reductase.
[...] is an anti-plasmodial that selectively inhibits protozoan

Dihydrofolate Reductase.
What is the ROA of Dicloxacillin?
What is the ROA of Dicloxacillin?
Oral
[...]
"That hoe loves putting clox in her mouth"

What is the clinical use of Trifluridine?
What is the clinical use of Trifluridine?
HSV keratitis and conjunctivitis
[...]
What is the clinical use of Cidovofir?
What is the clinical use of Cidovofir?
CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients
[...]
What is the MOA of the Entry Inhibitor antiretroviral

Maraviroc?
What is the MOA of the Entry Inhibitor antiretroviral

Maraviroc?
CCR5 antagonism; blocking infection by CCR5 tropic

HIV
[...]
Proteus mirabilis, E. coli and Klebsiella sp. are the

gram-negative bacteria susceptible to 1st generation
Cephalosporins.
[...], E. coli and Klebsiella sp. are the gram-negative

bacteria susceptible to 1st generation Cephalosporins.

Cephalosporins.
Proteus mirabilis, [...] and Klebsiella sp. are the gramnegative bacteria susceptible to 1st generation
Cephalosporins.

Cephalosporins.
Proteus mirabilis, E. coli and [...] are the gram-negative

bacteria susceptible to 1st generation Cephalosporins.
Listeria, Atypical Bacteria, MRSA and Enterococci are

bacteria that are not affected by Cephalosporins.
[...], Atypical Bacteria, MRSA and Enterococci are

"LAME"

Listeria, Atypical Bacteria, [...] and Enterococci are

"LAME"
Listeria, Atypical Bacteria, MRSA and [...] are bacteria

that are not affected by Cephalosporins.
"LAME"
Sulfonamides are a group of antibiotics that are avoided in [...] are a group of antibiotics that are avoided in neonates
neonates and infants due to their ability to take up bilirubin and infants due to their ability to take up bilirubin binding
binding sites on Albumin, thereby exacerbating or
sites on Albumin, thereby exacerbating or facilitating any
facilitating any jaundice.
jaundice.
What antibiotic combination is used to treat
Staphylococcus aureus endocarditis?

Staphylococcus aureus endocarditis?
Beta-lactam + Gentamycin
[...]
Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside that is used against

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Yersinia pestis and
Francisella tularemia.
[...] is an aminoglycoside that is used against

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Yersinia pestis and
Francisella tularemia.
What is the MOA of Ganciclovir?
Inhibition of DNA Polymerase and DNA chain termination
[...]
What is the ROA of Nafcillin and Oxacillin?
What is the ROA of Nafcillin and Oxacillin?
Parenteral
[...]
What is the MOA of Famiclovir?
What is the MOA of Famiclovir?
Competitive inhibition of viral DNA Polymerase
[...]
Lower affinity than Acyclovir

Tobramycin is an Aminoglycoside that can be given in
nebulised form to treat Pseudomonas infections in cystic
fibrosis patients.
[...] is an Aminoglycoside that can be given in nebulised

form to treat Pseudomonas infections in cystic fibrosis
patients.
Probenecid is a drug that is co-administered with penicillin

to increase [penicillin]plasma through inhibition of tubular
penicillin secretion.
[...] is a drug that is co-administered with penicillin to

increase [penicillin]plasma through inhibition of tubular
penicillin secretion.
Acyclovir is phosphorylated into Acyclovir

Monophosphate by the viral enzyme Thymidine Kinase.
Acyclovir is phosphorylated into Acyclovir

Monophosphate by the viral enzyme [...].
Beta-lactams are antibiotics that target the bacterial cell

wall by inhibiting Transpeptidase
[...] are antibiotics that target the bacterial cell wall by

inhibiting Transpeptidase
What kind of antibiotic is Ampicillin?
Beta-lactam
[...]
Lamivudine is an NRTI antiretroviral that is also used in

the treatment of HBV infection.
[...] is an NRTI antiretroviral that is also used in the

treatment of HBV infection.
Cidovofir is an anti-CMV agent that does not require

phosphorylation to be activated.
[...] is an anti-CMV agent that does not require

phosphorylation to be activated.
What generation Cephalosporin is Cephalexin?
[...]
What group of bacteria are affected by Metronidazole?
What group of bacteria are affected by Metronidazole?
Anaerobes
[...]
Valganciclovir is the prodrug form of Ganciclovir.
[...] is the prodrug form of Ganciclovir.
Flucocytosine is an antifungal that enters fungi via a

permease and inhibits fungal RNA synthesis.
[...] is an antifungal that enters fungi via a permease and

inhibits fungal RNA synthesis.
Only used in combination therapy with other

antifungals.
What is the ROA for all 2nd generation Cephalosporins? What is the ROA for all 2nd generation Cephalosporins?
Parenteral
[...]
Cotrimoxazole (TMP-SMZ) is a combination antibiotic [...] is a combination antibiotic that is used as an alternative
that is used as an alternative in Listeria
in Listeria monocytogenes and Legionellosis.
monocytogenes and Legionellosis.
What kind of antibiotic is Dicloxacillin?
What kind of antibiotic is Dicloxacillin?
[...]
What is the clinical use of Acyclovir?
What is the clinical use of Acyclovir?
HSV and VZV infections
[...]
What type of antiretroviral is Enfuvirtide?
What type of antiretroviral is Enfuvirtide?
Entry inhibitor
[...]
What is the MOA of Nucleoside/Nucleotide RT Inhibitors What is the MOA of Nucleoside/Nucleotide RT Inhibitors
(NRTIs)?
(NRTIs)?
Competitive inhibition of RT causing DNA chain
termination
[...]
What is the MOA of Amantadine in Parkinson's Tx?
What is the MOA of Amantadine in Parkinson's Tx?
Triggers release of Dopamine from intact nerve terminals
[...]
Aminoglycosides are a type antibiotic that inhibit the 30S

ribosomal subunit and are commonly used with
penicillins/beta-lactams.
[...] are a type antibiotic that inhibit the 30S ribosomal

subunit and are commonly used with penicillins/betalactams.
What is the DOC for Trichomonas vaginalis?
What is the DOC for Trichomonas vaginalis?
Metronidazole
[...]
What is the MOA of Vancomycin?
Inhibition of Transglycolase in gram-positives
[...]
What is the DOC for Invasive Aspergillosis?
What is the DOC for Invasive Aspergillosis?
Voriconazole
[...]
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-positive cocci that

is very susceptible to Cephalosporin antibiotics.
[...] is a gram-positive cocci that is very susceptible to

Cephalosporin antibiotics.
What kind of antibiotic is Methicillin?
What kind of antibiotic is Methicillin?
[...]
Efflux pumps are a mechanism of resistant to

Tetracyclines. An example is the tetK protein in
Staphylococcus.
[...] are a mechanism of resistant to Tetracyclines. An

example is the tetK protein in Staphylococcus.
Macrolides are a type of antibiotic that inhibits CYP450

Enzymes.
[...] are a type of antibiotic that inhibits CYP450

Enzymes.
Rifampin is a strong inducer.

What is the periodicity of fevers yielded by Plasmodium What is the periodicity of fevers yielded by Plasmodium
vivax?
vivax?
Every 48 hours; Tertian Malaria.
[...].
Ceftiazedime is a 3rd generation Cephalosporin that is

associated with Neutropenia.
[...] is a 3rd generation Cephalosporin that is associated

with Neutropenia.
Which 3 anti-plasmodial drugs are contraindicated in a

patient with a G6PD Deficiency?
Which 3 anti-plasmodial drugs are contraindicated in a

patient with a G6PD Deficiency?
Chloroquine, Primaquine, Quinine.
[...].
CPQ
Cefepime is a 4th generation Cephalosporin that is useful
in Staphylococcus and Pseudomonas infection.s
[...] is a 4th generation Cephalosporin that is useful in

Staphylococcus and Pseudomonas infection.s
Doxycycline is a Tetracycline that is used for postexposure prophylaxis to Yersenia pestis and Tularemia.
[...] is a Tetracycline that is used for post-exposure

prophylaxis to Yersenia pestis and Tularemia.
What is the clinical use of Famiclovir?
What is the clinical use of Famiclovir?
Herpes Zoster infection
[...]
What is the MOA of Amantadine in Influenza Tx?
What is the MOA of Amantadine in Influenza Tx?
Inhibits the Influenza M2 channel protein, thereby blocking

viral uncoating and penetration
[...]
A-man-to-dine uncoats.
Tetracyclines are a type of antibiotic that are used with
Gentamycin to treat Brucellosis.
[...] are a type of antibiotic that are used with Gentamycin

to treat Brucellosis.
What type of antiretroviral is Zidovudine (ZDV)

(Azidothymidine; AZT)?
What type of antiretroviral is Zidovudine (ZDV)

(Azidothymidine; AZT)?
NRTI
[...]
Chloramphenicol are antibiotics that target the 50S

ribosomal subunit and block the transpeptidation reaction.

and block the transpeptidation reaction.
Zanamivir is an anti-influenza agent that should not be

given to patients with COPD or asthma.
[...] is an anti-influenza agent that should not be given to

patients with COPD or asthma.
How do Plasmodium spp. cause anaemia?
How do Plasmodium spp. cause anaemia?
RBC Hemolysis.
[...].
Ampicillin is an aminopenicillin whose absorption is

impaired by food intake.
[...] is an aminopenicillin whose absorption is impaired by

food intake.
Streptomycin and Gentamycin are aminoglycosides used

to treat Yersinia pestis.
[...] and Gentamycin are aminoglycosides used to treat

Yersinia pestis.

to treat Yersinia pestis.
Streptomycin and [...] are aminoglycosides used to treat

Yersinia pestis.
Which generation of Cephalosporin has the greatest

effectivity against Gram-negatives?
Which generation of Cephalosporin has the greatest

effectivity against Gram-negatives?
3rd
[...]
With each successive generation of Cephalosporin,

there is INCREASED activity against G- and
DECREASED activity against G+
Ceftazidime is a 3rd generation Cephalosporin used in
Pseudomonas infections.
[...] is a 3rd generation Cephalosporin used in

What is the periodicity of fevers elicited by Plasmodium

falciparum?

falciparum?
Every 36-48 hours; Irregular/Continuous fevers.
[...].
Aztreonam is a monobactam beta-lactam that is used to

treat G- rods.
[...] is a monobactam beta-lactam that is used to treat Grods.
Nifurtimox is the anti-protozoal drug of choice to treat

Chagas' Disease.
[...] is the anti-protozoal drug of choice to treat Chagas'

Disease.
Chloroquine is an anti-plasmodial commonly used for

prophylaxis against Chloroquine-sensitive
Plasmodium spp.
[...] is an anti-plasmodial commonly used for prophylaxis

against Chloroquine-sensitive Plasmodium spp.
What is the clinical use of Imiquimod?
What is the clinical use of Imiquimod?
Genital and perianal warts
[...]
Aminoglycosides are a type of antibiotic that are

commonly used in severe gram-negative
bacilli infections with disseminated septicemia.
[...] are a type of antibiotic that are commonly used in

severe gram-negative bacilli infections with
disseminated septicemia.
What is the drug of choice for Herpes Encephalitis?
What is the drug of choice for Herpes Encephalitis?
Acyclovir
[...]
How does Linezolid affect Lactic Acid levels?
How does Linezolid affect Lactic Acid levels?
Increase
[...]
Causes lactic acidosis.

Streptomycin and Amikacin are aminoglycosides used to
treat TB.
[...] and Amikacin are aminoglycosides used to treat TB.
Streptomycin and Amikacin are aminoglycosides used to

treat TB.

TB.
Macrolides and Quinupristin are antibiotics that target the

50S ribosomal subunit and block the translocation
reaction.
[...] and Quinupristin are antibiotics that target the 50S

ribosomal subunit and block the translocation reaction.
Macrolides and Quinupristin are antibiotics that target the

50S ribosomal subunit and block the translocation
reaction.
Macrolides and [...] are antibiotics that target the 50S

ribosomal subunit and block the translocation reaction.
Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor antiretroviral that also acts [...] is a protease inhibitor antiretroviral that also acts as a
as a potent inhibitor of CYP3A4. Hence it is given in
potent inhibitor of CYP3A4. Hence it is given in
combination with Lopanavir
Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor antiretroviral that also acts Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor antiretroviral that also acts
combination with [...]
Which antibiotic is the drug of choice for Enterobacter
infections?
Which antibiotic is the drug of choice for Enterobacter

infections?
Imipenem
[...]
What is the MOA of Clavulanate and Sulbactam?
What is the MOA of Clavulanate and Sulbactam?
Inhibition of Beta-Lactamase
[...]

Enterococcus endocarditis?

Enterococcus endocarditis?
Beta-lactam + Aminoglycoside
[...]
Tetracyclines are a type of antibiotic that are

[...] are a type of antibiotic that are contraindicated in
contraindicated in pregnancy and pre-pubertal children (< pregnancy and pre-pubertal children (< 8 y/o) due to the
8 y/o) due to the bone malformations that can occur.
bone malformations that can occur.
What type of antiretroviral is Abacavir (ABC)?
What type of antiretroviral is Abacavir (ABC)?
NRTI
[...]
beta-lactam
[...]
Anidulafungin is an Echinocandin antifungal that is given to [...] is an Echinocandin antifungal that is given to patients
patients with Candidemia.
with Candidemia.
All Echinocandins can be given.
Which beta-lactamase inhibitor has a wider spectrum of
activity?
Which beta-lactamase inhibitor has a wider spectrum of

activity?
Clavulanate
[...]
Which group of bacteria are Aminoglycosides mainly

active against?
Which group of bacteria are Aminoglycosides mainly

active against?
Aerobic G- bacteria
[...]
What is the significant adverse effect associated with

Piperacillin?

Piperacillin?
Hemorrhaging (due to interaction with platelet function)
[...]
What is the major adverse effect of Ganciclovir?
What is the major adverse effect of Ganciclovir?
Dose-limiting hematotoxicity
[...]
Linezolid is an antibiotic that targets the 50S ribosomal

subunit and blocks the initiation complex.
[...] is an antibiotic that targets the 50S ribosomal subunit

and blocks the initiation complex.
Clavulanate is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is given in

conjunction with beta-lactams to facilitate their action.
[...] is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is given in

conjunction with beta-lactams to facilitate their action.
Ceftriaxone is a 3rd generation cephalosporin that is

[...] is a 3rd generation cephalosporin that is avoided in
avoided in neonates as it competes for bilirubin binding
neonates as it competes for bilirubin binding sites on
sites on Albumin, thereby causing jaundice or exacerbating
Albumin, thereby causing jaundice or exacerbating
physiological jaundice.
physiological jaundice.
Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that is considered [...] is a glycopeptide antibiotic that is considered the silver
the silver bullet against gram-positive bactera.
bullet against gram-positive bactera.
Efavirenz is a NNRTI antiretroviral that is completely
contraindicated in pregnant women and strongly
discouraged in women of childbearing age.
[...] is a NNRTI antiretroviral that is completely

contraindicated in pregnant women and strongly
discouraged in women of childbearing age.
Women of childbearing age have to use 2+ methods of

contraception if on Efavirenz.
Valacyclovir is the prodrug form of Acyclovir.
[...] is the prodrug form of Acyclovir.
What is the MOA of Non-Nucleoside RT Inhibitors

(NNRTIs)?
What is the MOA of Non-Nucleoside RT Inhibitors

(NNRTIs)?
Direct binding to RT causing allosteric, noncompetitive

inhibition
[...]
What is the ROA of Aminoglycosides?
What is the ROA of Aminoglycosides?
Parenteral
[...]
What type of antiretroviral is Stavudine (D4T)?
What type of antiretroviral is Stavudine (D4T)?
NRTI
[...]
Which bacterial enzyme hydrolyzes the antibiotic

Imipenem?
Which bacterial enzyme hydrolyzes the antibiotic

Imipenem?
Dehydropeptidase-1 (DHP-1)
[...]
What type of antiretroviral is Efavirenz?
What type of antiretroviral is Efavirenz?
NNRTI
[...]
Echinocandins are a class of antifungals that are noncompetitive inhibitors of the fungal enzyme complex
beta(1-3)-D-Glucan Synthase, thereby disrupting fungal
cell wall growth.
[...] are a class of antifungals that are non-competitive

inhibitors of the fungal enzyme complex beta(1-3)-DGlucan Synthase, thereby disrupting fungal cell wall
growth.
All are IV and all end in -fungin (Anidulafungin,

Caspofungin, Micafungin).
Which antibiotic has the broadest activity?
Which antibiotic has the broadest activity?
Imipenem
[...]
Ganciclovir is initially phosphorylated by UL-97 in CMV

infected cells.
Ganciclovir is initially phosphorylated by [...] in CMV

infected cells.
Aztreonam is a monobactam antibiotic that is considered

the silver-bullet against gram negatives.
[...] is a monobactam antibiotic that is considered the

silver-bullet against gram negatives.
What is the MOA of Oseltamivir?
What is the MOA of Oseltamivir?
Inhibition of Influenza Neuraminidase; Destruction of

Influenza Hemagglutinin receptors
[...]
What kind of antibiotic is Gentamycin?
What kind of antibiotic is Gentamycin?
Aminoglycoside
[...]
Methenamine is a urinary antiseptic that is ineffective

against UTIs caused by Proteus as it makes the urine
alkaline.
[...] is a urinary antiseptic that is ineffective against UTIs

caused by Proteus as it makes the urine alkaline.
Which gruop of antibiotics is Chlamydial susceptible to?
Which gruop of antibiotics is Chlamydial susceptible to?
Tetracyclines and Macrolides
[...]
Specifically, drug of choice is Azithromycin single dose

(Macrolide). Doxycycline (Tetracycline) 2x daily for 7
days if Azithromycin is unavailable.
Methicillin is a beta-lactamase resistant penicillin that is [...] is a beta-lactamase resistant penicillin that is used for
used for susceptibility testing, especially in the identification susceptibility testing, especially in the identification of
of MRSA.
MRSA.
Cilastatin is a drug that is co-administered with Imipenem [...] is a drug that is co-administered with Imipenem as it
as it inhibits Dehydropeptidase-1 (DHP-1), a bacterial inhibits Dehydropeptidase-1 (DHP-1), a bacterial enzyme
enzyme that hydrolyzes Imipenem.
that hydrolyzes Imipenem.
What type of antiretroviral is Nevirapine?
What type of antiretroviral is Nevirapine?
NNRTI
[...]
What is the clinical use of Palivizumab?
What is the clinical use of Palivizumab?
Prophylaxis and treatment of RSV infection in high-risk

neonates and children
[...]
What generation Cephalosporin is Cefepime?
4th
[...]
Quinolones are antibiotics that inhibit cytoplasmic bacterial

Topoisomerase.
[...] are antibiotics that inhibit cytoplasmic bacterial

Topoisomerase.
What is the MOA of Docosanol?
What is the MOA of Docosanol?
Inhibition of the fusion of the viral envelope with host cell

membranes
[...]
Piperacillin is an anti-pseudomonal penicillin that is highly [...] is an anti-pseudomonal penicillin that is highly effective
effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa and other
against Pseudomonas aeruginosa and other gramgram-negative bacilli.
negative bacilli.
Trifluridine can cause ocular burning/stinging as a side
effect due to its ophthalmic ROA.
Trifluridine can cause [...] as a side effect due to its

ophthalmic ROA.
Which CYP enzyme is induced by Griseofulvin?
Which CYP enzyme is induced by Griseofulvin?
CYP3A4
[...]
Chloroquine is the drug of choice to treat acute malaria

caused by non-falciparum Plasmodium.
[...] is the drug of choice to treat acute malaria caused by

non-falciparum Plasmodium.
What type of antiretroviral is Lamivudine (3TC)?
What type of antiretroviral is Lamivudine (3TC)?
NRTI
[...]
[...] is the anti-protozoal used to treat Giardiasis.
Tinidazole is the anti-protozoal used to treat Giardiasis.

or any -azole
Which Carbapanem antibiotic has less CNS toxicity?
Which Carbapanem antibiotic has less CNS toxicity?
Meropenem
[...]
What type of antibiotic is Aztreonam?
What type of antibiotic is Aztreonam?
Monobactam
[...]
Aminopenicillin
[...]
What is the MOA of Zanamivir?
What is the MOA of Zanamivir?
Inhibition of Influenza Neuraminidase; Destruction of

Influenza Hemagglutinin receptors
[...]
What is the MOA of Chloramphenicol?
Inhibition of the 50S ribosomal subunit
[...]
What is the clinical use of Proguanil?
What is the clinical use of Proguanil?
Prophylaxis of chloroquine-resistant malaria.
[...].

to treat Tularemia (Francisella tularemia).
[...] and Gentamycin are aminoglycosides used to treat

Tularemia (Francisella tularemia).

to treat Tularemia (Francisella tularemia).

Tularemia (Francisella tularemia).
Tetracyclines are not effective against Proteus

and Pseudomonas
Tetracyclines are not effective against [...]

and Pseudomonas
No PP when you play tetris.

Tetracyclines are not effective against Proteus
and Pseudomonas
Tetracyclines are not effective against Proteus and [...]
No PP when you play tetris.

Cefotetan is a 2nd generation Cephalosporin that is
associated with Disulfiram-like reactions and
Hemorrhaging.
[...] is a 2nd generation Cephalosporin that is associated

with Disulfiram-like reactions and Hemorrhaging.
Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic bacteria that is

primarily killed by Clindamycin.
[...] is an anaerobic bacteria that is primarily killed by

Clindamycin.
What is the MOA of Tigecycline?
What is the MOA of Tigecycline?
[...]
Tetracyclines are antibiotics that target the 30S ribosomal

subunit and block aminoacyl-tRNA binding.

and block aminoacyl-tRNA binding.
Ceftriaxone and Cefotaxime are 3rd generation

cephalosporins that treat meningitis caused by
Haemophilus influenzae, Pneumococcus and
Meningococcus.
[...] and Cefotaxime are 3rd generation cephalosporins

that treat meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae,
Pneumococcus and Meningococcus.
Mainly due to good BBB penetration.
Ceftriaxone and Cefotaxime are 3rd generation

cephalosporins that treat meningitis caused by
Haemophilus influenzae, Pneumococcus and
Meningococcus.
Ceftriaxone and [...] are 3rd generation cephalosporins

that treat meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae,
Pneumococcus and Meningococcus.
Mainly due to good BBB penetration.

What generation Cephalosporin is Ceftriaxone?
3rd
[...]
What is the clinical use of Ganciclovir?
What is the clinical use of Ganciclovir?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
[...]
Also, long term prevention of Kaposi's Sarcoma in

AIDS patients
Which generation of Cephalosporins have the greatest
effectivity against gram-positives?
Which generation of Cephalosporins have the greatest

effectivity against gram-positives?
1st
[...]
With each successive generation of Cephalosporin,

there is INCREASED activity against G- and
DECREASED activity against G+
What type of antibiotic is Piperacillin?
What type of antibiotic is Piperacillin?
Antipseudomonal Penicillin
[...]
Which fungal enzyme is inhibited by Azoles?
Which fungal enzyme is inhibited by Azoles?
Ianosterol 14-demethylase, a CYP450 dependent enzyme
[...]
Vancomycin is an antibiotic that targets the bacterial cell

wall by inhibiting Transglycosylase.
[...] is an antibiotic that targets the bacterial cell wall by

inhibiting Transglycosylase.
What is the clinical use of Docosanol?
What is the clinical use of Docosanol?
Recurrent Herpes Labialis
[...]
What is the ROA of Penicillin G?
Parenteral only
[...]
What type of antibiotic is used to treat penicillin-sensitive

endocarditis?
What type of antibiotic is used to treat penicillin-sensitive

endocarditis?
Beta-lactam; penicillins
[...]
Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive, spore forming

bacteria that can be treated with Vancomycin due to its
poor oral bioavailability and tendency to stay in the GI
lumen.
[...] is a gram-positive, spore forming bacteria that can be

treated with Vancomycin due to its poor oral
bioavailability and tendency to stay in the GI lumen.
What kind of antibiotic is Amoxicillin?
What kind of antibiotic is Amoxicillin?
Aminopenicillin
[...]
90-95% of Staphylococcus strains are resistant to the

antibiotic Penicillin G due to beta-lactamase expression.
90-95% of Staphylococcus strains are resistant to the

antibiotic [...] due to beta-lactamase expression.
Griseofulvin is an antifungal that is used to treat

dermatophyte infections of the skin, hair, beard and nails.
[...] is an antifungal that is used to treat dermatophyte

infections of the skin, hair, beard and nails.
Cotrimoxazole is a combination antibiotic that involves

Sulfamethoxazole and Trimethoprim (TMP-SMZ).
[...] is a combination antibiotic that involves

Sulfamethoxazole and Trimethoprim (TMP-SMZ).
What kind of antibiotic is Oxacillin?
What kind of antibiotic is Oxacillin?
[...]
Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside that is superior against

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
[...] is an aminoglycoside that is superior against

What is the ROA of Phenoxymethyl Penicillin V?
What is the ROA of Phenoxymethyl Penicillin V?
Oral (as it is acid resistant)
[...]
What antibiotic combination is used to treat Viridans

Streptococcus endocarditis?
What antibiotic combination is used to treat Viridans

Streptococcus endocarditis?
Penicillin + Gentamycin
[...]
Neomycin is an aminoglycoside that is used as an adjunct [...] is an aminoglycoside that is used as an adjunct therapy
therapy in Hepatic Encephalopathy, typically with
in Hepatic Encephalopathy, typically with Lactulose.
Lactulose.
Terbinafine and Ciclopirox are antifungals used to treat
Onychomycosis and have high cure rates.
[...] and Ciclopirox are antifungals used to treat

Terbinafine and Ciclopirox are antifungals used to treat

Terbinafine and [...] are antifungals used to treat

Which CYP enzyme is inhibited by QuinupristinDalfopristin?
Which CYP enzyme is inhibited by QuinupristinDalfopristin?
CYP3A4
[...]
Fosfomycin is an antibiotic that targets the bacterial cell

wall by inhibiting Enolpyruvate Transferase.
[...] is an antibiotic that targets the bacterial cell wall by

inhibiting Enolpyruvate Transferase.
Cefazolin is a 1st generation cephalosporin used in surgical

prophylaxis.
[...] is a 1st generation cephalosporin used in surgical

prophylaxis.
What is the MOA of Acyclovir?
What is the MOA of Acyclovir?
Inhibition of DNA Polymerase, causing DNA chain

termination
[...]
Primaquine is the drug of choice to treat for dormant

malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium
ovale.
[...] is the drug of choice to treat for dormant malaria

caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale.
Remember, these species yield the dormant

hypnozoites.
Aztreonam is a monobactam antibiotic that only affects
gram-negative bacteria.
[...] is a monobactam antibiotic that only affects gramnegative bacteria.
What generation Cephalosporin is Cefazolin?
[...]
What antibiotic combination is used to treat MRSA
endocarditis?
[...]
What antibiotic combination is used to treat MRSA

endocarditis?
Vancomycin + Gentamycin
Vancomycin is a bactericidal antibiotic that inhibits the
bacterial enzyme Transglycolase by binding to nascent PG
pentapeptides.
[...] is a bactericidal antibiotic that inhibits the bacterial

enzyme Transglycolase by binding to nascent PG
pentapeptides.

bacterial enzyme Transglycolase by binding to nascent PG
pentapeptides.

bacterial enzyme [...] by binding to nascent PG
pentapeptides.
Monoamine Oxidase is a metabolic enzyme that is

inhibited by Linezolid through drug interaction and is
involved in the breakdown of monoamines.
[...] is a metabolic enzyme that is inhibited by Linezolid

through drug interaction and is involved in the breakdown
of monoamines.
Methenamine is a urinary antiseptic that decomposes in an [...] is a urinary antiseptic that decomposes in an acidic pH
acidic pH into formaldehyde, thereby killing bacteria.
into formaldehyde, thereby killing bacteria.
Ceftriaxone is a 3rd generation cephalosporin that is used [...] is a 3rd generation cephalosporin that is used to treat
to treat Acute Otitis Media caused by Pneumococcus and Acute Otitis Media caused by Pneumococcus and H.
H. influenzae.
influenzae.
Cefotetan and Cefoxitin are 2nd generation
[...] and Cefoxitin are 2nd generation Cephalosporins used
Cephalosporins used in mixed anaerobic infections such as in mixed anaerobic infections such as Peritonitis and Pelvic
Peritonitis and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease.
Inflammatory Disease.
Cefotetan and [...] are 2nd generation Cephalosporins
Cephalosporins used in mixed anaerobic infections such as used in mixed anaerobic infections such as Peritonitis and
Peritonitis and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease.
What is the MOA of Cidofovir?
Potent inhibition and alternative substrate for viral DNA

Polymerase
[...]
What is the DOC for Listeria monocytogenes?
What is the DOC for Listeria monocytogenes?
Ampicillin/Amoxicillin (Aminopenicillins)
[...]
What is the MOA of Palivizumab?
What is the MOA of Palivizumab?
Neutralization and prevention of RSV fusion by binding to

A-antigen viral protein on the fusion (F) surface of RSV
[...]
Which CYP enzyme is inhibited by the antifungal

Terbinafine?
Which CYP enzyme is inhibited by the antifungal

Terbinafine?
CYP2D6
[...]
What type of antiretroviral is Tenofovir?
What type of antiretroviral is Tenofovir?
NRTI
[...]
Ampicillin and Amoxicillin are aminopenicillins that are

susceptible to beta-lactamases.
[...] and [...] are aminopenicillins that are susceptible to

beta-lactamases.
What is the MOA of Nystatin?
Binds to Ergosterol, thereby forming polyene associated

pores through fungal cell membranes, thereby creating a
leaky membrane
[...]
Gray-Baby Syndrome is a serious adverse effect of

Chloramphenical that is commonly seen in babies.
[...] is a serious adverse effect of Chloramphenical that is

commonly seen in babies.
Nitrofurantoin is a urinary antiseptic that converts into a

[...] is a urinary antiseptic that converts into a highly
highly reactive intermediate that damages bacterial DNA in reactive intermediate that damages bacterial DNA in the
the renal tubules/urinary tract.
renal tubules/urinary tract.
Cephalosporins that are used to treat Bacteroides
fragilis.
[...] and Cefoxitin are 2nd generation Cephalosporins that

are used to treat Bacteroides fragilis.

Cephalosporins that are used to treat Bacteroides
fragilis.
Cefotetan and [...] are 2nd generation Cephalosporins that

are used to treat Bacteroides fragilis.
What is a serious adverse effect of Clindamycin?
What is a serious adverse effect of Clindamycin?
[...]
Which generation of Cephalosporins are the best at

crossing the BBB?
Which generation of Cephalosporins are the best at

crossing the BBB?
3rd
[...]
Hence, they are great for bacterial meningitis.

What type of antibiotic is Vancomycin?
What type of antibiotic is Vancomycin?
Glycopeptide
[...]
What is the DOC in Sporotrichosis?
What is the DOC in Sporotrichosis?
Itraconazole (except in CNS)
[...]
What generation Cephalosporin is Cefotaxime?
3rd
[...]
Cefepime is a 4th generation cephalosporin beta-lactam [...] is a 4th generation cephalosporin beta-lactam that is
that is primarily used to treat Pseudomonas spp. infection. primarily used to treat Pseudomonas spp. infection.
What adverse effect is linked to the aminoglycoside
Neomycin?
What adverse effect is linked to the aminoglycoside

Neomycin?
Nephrotoxicity
[...]
Histamine is a vaso-active hormone that is released

nonimmunologically in Red Man/Neck Syndrome
following Vancomycin administration, thereby causing
flushing and pruritis.
[...] is a vaso-active hormone that is released

nonimmunologically in Red Man/Neck Syndrome
following Vancomycin administration, thereby causing
flushing and pruritis.
What is the drug of choice for treating Influenza A in the

eldery?
What is the drug of choice for treating Influenza A in the

eldery?
Rimantadine; due to the decreased CNS effects
[...]
Red Man/Neck Syndrome is an adverse effect of

Vancomycin that involves flushing of the torso and itching
of the skin.
[...] is an adverse effect of Vancomycin that involves

flushing of the torso and itching of the skin.
[...] and Neisseria meningitidis are 2 gram-negative
bacteria affected by 2nd generation Cephalosporins in
addition to Proteus mirabilis, Escherichia coli and
Klebsiella sp.
Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria meningitidis are

2 gram-negative bacteria affected by 2nd generation
Cephalosporins in addition to Proteus mirabilis,
Escherichia coli and Klebsiella sp.
2nd gens are HNPEK
Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria meningitidis are
2 gram-negative bacteria affected by 2nd generation
Cephalosporins in addition to Proteus mirabilis,
Escherichia coli and Klebsiella sp.
Haemophilus influenzae and [...] are 2 gram-negative

bacteria affected by 2nd generation Cephalosporins in
addition to Proteus mirabilis, Escherichia coli and
Klebsiella sp.
2nd gens are HNPEK

Vancomycin is the antibiotic used to treat drug resistant
G+ bacteria (MRSA), beta-lactam resistant bacteria and
C. difficile infection.
[...] is the antibiotic used to treat drug resistant G+

bacteria (MRSA), beta-lactam resistant bacteria and C.
difficile infection.
Nitrofurantoin is a urinary antiseptic that is contraindicated [...] is a urinary antiseptic that is contraindicated in G6PD
in G6PD deficiency due to the hemolytic anaemia caused.
deficiency due to the hemolytic anaemia caused.
What is the ROA of Docosanol?
What is the ROA of Docosanol?
Topical
[...]
Griseofulvin is an antifungal that inhibits fungal mitosis via [...] is an antifungal that inhibits fungal mitosis via disruption
disruption of the mitotic spindle by interaction with
of the mitotic spindle by interaction with polymerized
polymerized microtubules.
microtubules.
Cephalexin is a 1st generation cephalosporin beta-lactam
used against Proteus, E. coli and Klebsiella.
[...] is a 1st generation cephalosporin beta-lactam used

against Proteus, E. coli and Klebsiella.
"PEcK"
Which proteins are mutated in Methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
Which proteins are mutated in Methicillin-resistant

Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)
[...]
What is the MOA of Aminoglycosides?
What is the MOA of Aminoglycosides?
[...]
What is the ROA for all 3rd generation Cephalosporins?
What is the ROA for all 3rd generation Cephalosporins?
Parenteral
[...]
What is the MOA of the triphosphate of Trifluridine?
What is the MOA of the triphosphate of Trifluridine?
Competitive inhibition of DNA polymerase with Thymidine

Triphosphate
[...]
Mefloquine or Doxycycline are anti-plasmodials used for

prophylaxis against Chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium
spp.
[...] or Doxycycline are anti-plasmodials used for

spp.
Mefloquine or Doxycycline are anti-plasmodials used for

spp.
Mefloquine or [...] are anti-plasmodials used for

spp.
Ceftriaxone is the antibiotic of choice to treat gonorrhea [...] is the antibiotic of choice to treat gonorrhea and acute
and acute otitis media.
otitis media.
Aside from Quinine/Quinidine, Pyrimethamine
Aside from Quinine/Quinidine, [...] and Sulfadoxine can be
and Sulfadoxine can be used to treat Chloroquine-resistant
used to treat Chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium
Plasmodium falciparum malaria.
falciparum malaria.
Aside from Quinine/Quinidine, Pyrimethamine

Aside from Quinine/Quinidine, Pyrimethamine and [...] can
and Sulfadoxine can be used to treat Chloroquine-resistant be used to treat Chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium
falciparum malaria.
What is the MOA of Macrolides (Erythromycin and
Azithromycin)?
What is the MOA of Macrolides (Erythromycin and

Azithromycin)?
Inhibition of the 50S subunit
[...]
What generation Cephalosporin is Cefoxitin?
2nd
[...]
"FUR, FOX, TEA"

Rimantadine is an anti-influenza agent that is 4-10x more
active than Amantidine in treating Influenza A infections.
[...] is an anti-influenza agent that is 4-10x more active

than Amantidine in treating Influenza A infections.
Chloroquine is the drug of choice to treat for Chloroquine- [...] is the drug of choice to treat for Chloroquine-sensitive
sensitive Plasmodium falciparum malaria.
Ampicillin and Amoxicillin are 2 Aminopenicillins that are
the DOC for Listeria monocytogenes.
[...] and Amoxicillin are 2 Aminopenicillins that are the

DOC for Listeria monocytogenes.
Ampicillin and Amoxicillin are 2 Aminopenicillins that are

the DOC for Listeria monocytogenes.
Ampicillin and [...] are 2 Aminopenicillins that are the

DOC for Listeria monocytogenes.
What is the MOA of the Integrase Inhibitor antiretroviral

Raltegravir?
What is the MOA of the Integrase Inhibitor antiretroviral

Raltegravir?
Inihibition of viral dsDNA integration into the host genome
[...]
Amikacin is an aminoglycoside that is resistant to

aminoglycoside-inactivating enzymes.
[...] is an aminoglycoside that is resistant to

aminoglycoside-inactivating enzymes.
What is the antibiotic used in penicillin-resistant

endocarditis?
What is the antibiotic used in penicillin-resistant

endocarditis?
Vancomycin
[...]
What is the ROA of Penciclovir?
What is the ROA of Penciclovir?
Topical
[...]
Zidovudine (or Azidothymidine) is the prototype NRTI

antiretroviral that not only treats HIV1/HIV2 but also
HTLV1/HTLV2.
[...] is the prototype NRTI antiretroviral that not only

treats HIV1/HIV2 but also HTLV1/HTLV2.
What is the ROA of Cephalexin?
What is the ROA of Cephalexin?
Oral
[...]
Azoles are a class of antifungal that inhibits Ergosterol

biosynthesis by inhibiting fungal Ianosterol 14demethylase, a CYP450 dependent enzyme.
[...] are a class of antifungal that inhibits Ergosterol

biosynthesis by inhibiting fungal Ianosterol 14demethylase, a CYP450 dependent enzyme.
Aztreonam is a monobactam antibiotic that can be used in [...] is a monobactam antibiotic that can be used in patients
patients with penicillin allergies as it only involves 1 beta- with penicillin allergies as it only involves 1 beta-lactam
lactam ring and hence binds differently.
ring and hence binds differently.
What is the drug of choice for Neonatal HSV infections?
What is the drug of choice for Neonatal HSV infections?
Acyclovir
[...]
Gray Baby Syndrome is a severe adverse effect of

[...] is a severe adverse effect of Chloramphenicol where
Chloramphenicol where neonates are unable to conjugate neonates are unable to conjugate the abx in the liver or are
the abx in the liver or are unable to excrete it at the
unable to excrete it at the kidneys. Therefore, there are
kidneys. Therefore, there are high levels of the drug in the
high levels of the drug in the blood causing shock,
blood causing shock, abdominal distention and cyanosis.
abdominal distention and cyanosis.
Sodium Stibogluconate is an anti-protozoal drug used to
treat all forms of Leishmaniasis.
[...] is an anti-protozoal drug used to treat all forms of

Leishmaniasis.
Nafcillin is a beta-lactam that is resistant to betalactamase.
[...] is a beta-lactam that is resistant to beta-lactamase.
What is a significant adverse effect associated with

Ampicillin?
What is a significant adverse effect associated with

Ampicillin?
Pseudomembranous Colitis
[...]
Dalfopristin is an antibiotic that targets the 50S ribosomal [...] is an antibiotic that targets the 50S ribosomal subunit
subunit and induces a change in the 50S ribosomal subunit.
and induces a change in the 50S ribosomal subunit.
What type of antiretroviral is Delaviridine?
What type of antiretroviral is Delaviridine?
NNRTI
[...]
Which antibiotic is the drug of choice to treat Syphilis?
Which antibiotic is the drug of choice to treat Syphilis?
Penicillin G
[...]
Linezolid is an antibiotic that can cause hypoglycemia if the

patient is taking anti-diabetics or insulin.
[...] is an antibiotic that can cause hypoglycemia if the

patient is taking anti-diabetics or insulin.
What is the clinical use of Penciclovir?
What is the clinical use of Penciclovir?
Recurrent Herpes Labialis
[...]
Nafcillin is the drug of choice for very severe S.

[...] is the drug of choice for very severe S.
aureus infections such as endocarditis, cellulitis and sepsis. aureus infections such as endocarditis, cellulitis and sepsis.
Cinchonism is an adverse effect yielded by the antiplasmodial drug Quinine. It includes GI distress, tinnitus,
dysphoria, blurred vision and postural hypotension.
[...] is an adverse effect yielded by the anti-plasmodial

drug Quinine. It includes GI distress, tinnitus, dysphoria,
blurred vision and postural hypotension.
Tolfanate is an antifungal that has unknown MOA but is

thought to inhibits Squalene Epoxidase like Terbinafine
and Ciclopirox.
[...] is an antifungal that has unknown MOA but is thought

to inhibits Squalene Epoxidase like Terbinafine and
Ciclopirox.
What is the MOA of Foscarnet?
Direct inhibition of viral DNA Polymerase, viral RNA

Polyermase and HIV Reverse Transcriptase
[...]
What is the ROA of Trifluridine?
What is the ROA of Trifluridine?
Ophthalmic
[...]
What is the MOA of Linezolid?
[...]
Quinine or Quinidine can be used to treat Chloroquineresistant Plasmodium falciparum malaria.
[...] or Quinidine can be used to treat Chloroquineresistant Plasmodium falciparum malaria.
It is administered via IM.

Quinine or [...] can be used to treat Chloroquine-resistant
Quinine or Quinidine can be used to treat Chloroquineresistant Plasmodium falciparum malaria.

It is administered via IM.
What is the MOA of Penciclovir?
What is the MOA of Penciclovir?
Competitive inhibition of viral DNA Polymerase; does not

cause chain termination
[...]
What type of antiretroviral is Raltegravir?
What type of antiretroviral is Raltegravir?
Integrase inhibitor
[...]
Ceftriaxone is a 3rd generation cephalosporin beta-lactam [...] is a 3rd generation cephalosporin beta-lactam that is
that is effective against penicillin resistant pneumococci.
effective against penicillin resistant pneumococci.
Two severe adverse effects of Chloramphenicol
are aplastic anaemia and Gray Baby Syndrome.
Two severe adverse effects of Chloramphenicol are [...]

and Gray Baby Syndrome.

are aplastic anaemia and Gray Baby Syndrome.

are aplastic anaemia and [...].
Rimantadine is an anti-Influenza agent with the same MOA

as Amantadine but with fewer CNS effects.
[...] is an anti-Influenza agent with the same MOA as

Amantadine but with fewer CNS effects.
What is the MOA of Clindamycin?
[...]
What is the clinical use of Foscarnet?
What is the clinical use of Foscarnet?
CMV, HSV and VZV infections where Ganciclovir or

Acyclovir fails
[...]
Sulfonamides are antibiotics that inhibit cytoplasmic

bacterial Didhydropteroate Synthetase.
[...] are antibiotics that inhibit cytoplasmic bacterial

Didhydropteroate Synthetase.
What type of antibiotic is Meropenem?
What type of antibiotic is Meropenem?
Carbapanem penicillin
[...]
Myelosuppression is a serious adverse effect of

Chloramphenicol and involves pancytopenia.
[...] is a serious adverse effect of Chloramphenicol and

involves pancytopenia.
Flucocytosine is an antifungal that can cause CNS toxicity,

[...] is an antifungal that can cause CNS toxicity,
myelosuppression, nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity.
myelosuppression, nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity.
Hence organ function and blood needs to be monitored. Hence organ function and blood needs to be monitored.
malariae?

malariae?
Every 72 hours; Quartan Malaria.
[...].
What is the drug of choice for Genital Herpes?
What is the drug of choice for Genital Herpes?
Acyclovir
[...]
What is the MOA of Amphotericin B?
What is the MOA of Amphotericin B?
Binds to Ergosterol and forms pores in the cell membrane,

thereby creating a leaky membrane
[...]
Which antibiotic is the DOC for Pneumocystis jiroveci? Which antibiotic is the DOC for Pneumocystis jiroveci?
Cotrimoxazole (TMP-SMZ)
[...]
Which antibiotic is the drug of choice for Gonorrhea?
Which antibiotic is the drug of choice for Gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
[...]
Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside with more severe and

common ototoxicity.
[...] is an aminoglycoside with more severe and common

ototoxicity.
Gentamycin is an aminoglycoside with more severe and

common nephrotoxicity.
[...] is an aminoglycoside with more severe and common

nephrotoxicity.
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that inhibits cytoplasmic

bacterial Dihydrofolate Reductase.
[...] is an antibiotic that inhibits cytoplasmic bacterial

Gentamycin is an Aminoglycoside that is used as a Single [...] is an Aminoglycoside that is used as a Single Daily
Daily Dose due to its concentraion dependent killing and Dose due to its concentraion dependent killing and long
long post-antibiotic effect.
post-antibiotic effect.
Nevirapine is a NNRTI antiretroviral that also acts as a
strong CYP450 inducer.
[...] is a NNRTI antiretroviral that also acts as a strong

CYP450 inducer.
Gentamycin is an aminoglycoside used to treat Brucellosis

with Doxycycline.
[...] is an aminoglycoside used to treat Brucellosis with

Doxycycline.
Terbinafine and Ciclopirox are antifungals that inhibit

Ergosterol biosynthesis through inhibition of the fungal
enzyme Squalene Epoxidase.
[...] and Ciclopirox are antifungals that inhibit Ergosterol

biosynthesis through inhibition of the fungal enzyme
Squalene Epoxidase.
The accumulation of Squalene is toxic to fungi and

disrupts the cell membrane.
Terbinafine and Ciclopirox are antifungals that inhibit
Ergosterol biosynthesis through inhibition of the fungal
enzyme Squalene Epoxidase.
Terbinafine and [...] are antifungals that inhibit Ergosterol

biosynthesis through inhibition of the fungal enzyme
Squalene Epoxidase.
The accumulation of Squalene is toxic to fungi and

disrupts the cell membrane.
What is the treatment for Amoebiasis (Entamoeba
histolytica)?

histolytica)?
Metronidazole.
[...].
What type of bacteria are commonly affected by

Clindamycin?
What type of bacteria are commonly affected by

Clindamycin?
Anaerobes
[...]
Benzathine Penicillin G is a type of Penicillin G that is used [...] is a type of Penicillin G that is used as a prophylaxis
as a prophylaxis against Rheumatic Fever and Rheumatic against Rheumatic Fever and Rheumatic Heart Disease.
Heart Disease.
Dehydropeptidase-1 (DHP-1) is a bacterial enzyme that
hydrolyzes the antibiotic Imipenem.
[...] is a bacterial enzyme that hydrolyzes the

antibiotic Imipenem.

hydrolyzes the antibiotic Imipenem.

hydrolyzes the antibiotic [...].
Ganciclovir is initially phosphorylated by Thymidine

Kinase in HSV infected cells.
Ganciclovir is initially phosphorylated by [...] in HSV

infected cells.
What is the severe adverse effect associated with

Metronidazole?

Metronidazole?
Disulfiram-like reactions
[...]
What type of antiretroviral is Didanosine (DDI)?
What type of antiretroviral is Didanosine (DDI)?
NRTI
[...]
What is the MOA of the monophosphate form of

Trifluridine?
What is the MOA of the monophosphate form of

Trifluridine?
Irreversible inhibition of Thymidylate Synthase
[...]
All Protease Inhibitor antiretrovirals have been known to All Protease Inhibitor antiretrovirals have been known to
cause central obesity and insulin resistance except
cause central obesity and insulin resistance except for [...].
for Atazanavir.
Aztreonam is a monobactam antibiotic that is used against [...] is a monobactam antibiotic that is used against hospital
hospital acquired gram-negative infections (esp.
acquired gram-negative infections (esp. Haemophilus
Haemophilus influenzae and Pseudomonas
influenzae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa).
aeruginosa).
What type of antiretroviral is Maraviroc?
What type of antiretroviral is Maraviroc?
Entry inhibitor
[...]
What is the DOC for MRSA?
What is the DOC for MRSA?
Vancomycin
[...]
What is the drug of choice for Dracunculiasis?
What is the drug of choice for Dracunculiasis?
Metronidazole
[...]
What is the MOA of Tetracyclines?
What is the MOA of Tetracyclines?
[...]
What is the antibiotic that is the DOC for Legionella?
What is the antibiotic that is the DOC for Legionella?
Azithromycin
[...]
Sulfonamide antibiotics are contraindicated in G6PD

Deficiency due to the hemolytic anaemia that occurs.
Sulfonamide antibiotics are contraindicated in [...] due to

the hemolytic anaemia that occurs.
What generation Cephalosporin is Cefuroxime?
[...]
"FUR, FOX, TEA"

Red man/neck syndrome is an adverse effect of the
antibiotic Vancomycin
Red man/neck syndrome is an adverse effect of the

antibiotic [...]
What is the most commonly used Aminoglycoside?
What is the most commonly used Aminoglycoside?
Gentamycin
[...]
What is the clinical use of Oseltamivir?
What is the clinical use of Oseltamivir?
Influenza A, Influenza B, H1N1 and H5N1 infection
[...]
Penicillin G is a narrow spectrum beta-lactam that is used [...] is a narrow spectrum beta-lactam that is used against
against most G+ bacteria. It can also cause
most G+ bacteria. It can also cause hypersensitivity
hypersensitivity reactions.
reactions.
Neomycin is an aminoglycoside that is highly

[...] is an aminoglycoside that is highly nephrotoxic and is
nephrotoxic and is hence only used topically or orally for hence only used topically or orally for GI infections due to
GI infections due to poor FORAL
poor FORAL
Doxycycline is a Tetracycline antibiotic that can be
administered in renal disease as it is excreted in the bile.
[...] is a Tetracycline antibiotic that can be administered in

renal disease as it is excreted in the bile.
Palivizumab is a humanized monoclonal Ab against the A- [...] is a humanized monoclonal Ab against the A-antigen
antigen viral protein on the fusion (F) surface protein of
viral protein on the fusion (F) surface protein of RSV.
RSV.
Tigecycline is an antibiotic that is not effective
against Proteus and Pseudomonas

against [...] and Pseudomonas
Do not PP on the Tiger.

against Proteus and Pseudomonas

against Proteus and [...]
Do not PP on the Tiger.

All beta-lactam antibiotics inhibit the bacterial
All beta-lactam antibiotics inhibit the bacterial enzyme [...]
enzyme Transpeptidase and activate bacterial Autolysins.
and activate bacterial Autolysins.
enzyme Transpeptidase and activate bacterial Autolysins.

enzyme Transpeptidase and activate bacterial [...].
Foscarnet is an anti-CMV drug that is an alternative to

Ganciclovir and is not a nucleoside analog.
[...] is an anti-CMV drug that is an alternative to

Ganciclovir and is not a nucleoside analog.
What significant adverse effect is associated with Nafcillin? What significant adverse effect is associated with Nafcillin?
Neutropenia
[...]

Methicillin?

Methicillin?
Nephrotoxicity (Acute Interstitial Nephritis)
[...]
For this reason it is no longer used therapeutically.

What is the MOA of Quinupristin-Dalfopristin?
What is the MOA of Quinupristin-Dalfopristin?
[...]

ovale?

ovale?
Every 48 hours; Tertian Malaria.
[...].
What is the main clinical use of Amantadine?
What is the main clinical use of Amantadine?
Tx of Inlfuenza A only
[...]
What generation Cephalosporin is Ceftiazidime?
What generation Cephalosporin is Ceftiazidime?
3rd
[...]
Linezolid is a reserve antibiotic that inhibits the 50S

ribosomal subunit in resistant bacteria such as MRSA,
VRSA, and VRE.
[...] is a reserve antibiotic that inhibits the 50S ribosomal

subunit in resistant bacteria such as MRSA, VRSA, and
VRE.
Amphotericin B is an antifungal that has a low therapeutic [...] is an antifungal that has a low therapeutic index due to
index due to it's non-selective binding to cholesterol
it's non-selective binding to cholesterol (ergosterol and
(ergosterol and human cholesterol).
human cholesterol).
What is the ROA of Cefazolin?
What is the ROA of Cefazolin?
Parenteral
[...]
Imipenem is a Carbapanem antibiotic that is effective

[...] is a Carbapanem antibiotic that is effective against
against many bacteria and is used to knock out infections many bacteria and is used to knock out infections that are
that are tough to treat.
tough to treat.
Cefepime is a 4th generation Cephalosporin that is used in
[...] is a 4th generation Cephalosporin that is used in

What is the DOC in Esophageal Candidiasis?
What is the DOC in Esophageal Candidiasis?
Fluconazole
[...]
Meropenem is a carbapanem antibiotic that does not need [...] is a carbapanem antibiotic that does not need to be
to be coadministered with Cilastatin.
coadministered with Cilastatin.
Ceftriaxone is a 3rd generation cephalosporin that treats
Typhoid Fever caused by Salmonella typhi.
[...] is a 3rd generation cephalosporin that treats Typhoid

Fever caused by Salmonella typhi.
Efavirenz is a NNRTI antiretroviral that causes insomnia

and dysphoric dreams as side effects.
[...] is a NNRTI antiretroviral that causes insomnia and

dysphoric dreams as side effects.
What is the MOA of Imiquimod?
TLR7 agonism, thereby stimulating mononuclear cells to

release IFN-a and proinflammatory cytokines
[...]
Osteonecrosis is a complication of Bisphosphonate

administration. Where does it commonly occur?
Osteonecrosis is a complication of Bisphosphonate

administration. Where does it commonly occur?
The jaw
[...]
The primary MOA of NSAIDs is the inhibition

of Cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes.
The primary MOA of NSAIDs is the inhibition of [...]

enzymes.
NSAIDs are such COX blockers

What is the antidote for Acetaminophen overdose?
What is the antidote for Acetaminophen overdose?
N-Acetylcysteine; regenerates glutathione
[...]
What is the duration of action of Tetracaine?
What is the duration of action of Tetracaine?
Short
[...]
Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to both

soluble and transmembrane TNF-a, thereby preventing its
proinflammatory action.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody that binds to both soluble

and transmembrane TNF-a, thereby preventing its
proinflammatory action.
Analgesic nephropathy is a severe adverse effect of

[...] is a severe adverse effect of Aspirin where chronic
Aspirin where chronic inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis leads to renal papillary
leads to renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial
necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis.
nephritis.
Glucocorticoids are anti-inflammatories that exhibit their
effects through the regulation of gene transcription.
[...] are anti-inflammatories that exhibit their effects

through the regulation of gene transcription.
Allopurinol is a chronic gout drug that is also used in

Lymphoma and Leukemia to prevent tumour lysisassociated urate nephropathy.
[...] is a chronic gout drug that is also used in Lymphoma

and Leukemia to prevent tumour lysis-associated urate
nephropathy.
Hyperventilation is a respiratory complication that arises in [...] is a respiratory complication that arises in Aspirin use
Aspirin use due to stimulation of the respiratory center.
due to stimulation of the respiratory center.
What side effect are associated with Colchicine?
What side effect are associated with Colchicine?
GI
[...]
Acetaminophen functions by inhibiting COX enzymes in

the CNS.
Acetaminophen functions by inhibiting [...] enzymes in the

CNS.
What do we use Colchicine to treat for?
What do we use Colchicine to treat for?
The pain associated with acute gout
[...]
What phase of platelet plug formation is inhibited by

Aspirin?
What phase of platelet plug formation is inhibited by

Aspirin?
Platelet Aggregation
[...]
Which NSAIDs are used to treat acute gout?
Which NSAIDs are used to treat acute gout?
Naproxen; Indomethacin
[...]
Toxic doses of the NSAID Aspirin can cause

uncompensated respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
Toxic doses of the NSAID [...] can cause uncompensated

respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
What is the MOA of Bleomycin?
Fragmentation of DNA via free radical formation
[...]
Which NSAID is used to close a Patent Ductus

Arteriosus?
Which NSAID is used to close a Patent Ductus

Arteriosus?
Indomethacin
[...]
The antipyretic, analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects of The antipyretic, analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects of
NSAIDs are attributed to their ability to
NSAIDs are attributed to their ability to inhibit [...]
inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
synthesis.
Hydroquinone and Mequinol are topical agents used to
treat hyperpigmentation by inhibiting melanin synthesis,
typically by blocking Tyrosine action.
[...] and Mequinol are topical agents used to treat

hyperpigmentation by inhibiting melanin synthesis, typically
by blocking Tyrosine action.
Hydroquinone and Mequinol are topical agents used to

treat hyperpigmentation by inhibiting melanin synthesis,
typically by blocking Tyrosine action.
Hydroquinone and [...] are topical agents used to treat

hyperpigmentation by inhibiting melanin synthesis, typically
by blocking Tyrosine action.
What is the MOA of Alefacept in the treatment of

Psoriasis?
What is the MOA of Alefacept in the treatment of

Psoriasis?
Binding to CD2 on cell surface
[...]
It is a dimeric fusion binding protein.

What is the MOA of Probenecid?
Inhibition of the reabsorption of Urate at the PCT
[...]
Corrosive Esophagitis is a GI complication of

Bisphosphonates that arises if patients do not take the
drug with water and remain upright for 30 minutes.
[...] is a GI complication of Bisphosphonates that arises if

patients do not take the drug with water and remain
upright for 30 minutes.
Most NSAIDs block both COX1 and COX2. Celecoxib Most NSAIDs block both COX1 and COX2. [...] is an
is an NSAID that selectively blocks COX2 only.
NSAID that selectively blocks COX2 only.
Allopurinol is a chronic gout drug that increases the

[...] is a chronic gout drug that increases the
concentrations of Azathioprine and 6-Mercaptopurine, as concentrations of Azathioprine and 6-Mercaptopurine, as
they are both metabolized by Xanthine Oxidase.
they are both metabolized by Xanthine Oxidase.
Glucocoritcoids are anti-inflammatories that bind to
cytoplasmic GCRs, thereby forming a homodimer that
binds to GREs on specific genes.
[...] are anti-inflammatories that bind to cytoplasmic

GCRs, thereby forming a homodimer that binds to GREs
on specific genes.
Vorinostat is an anti-neoplastic that acts through inhibition [...] is an anti-neoplastic that acts through inhibition of
of HDAT (Histone Deacetlyase Enzymes), thereby altering HDAT (Histone Deacetlyase Enzymes), thereby altering
and destabilizing chromatin structure.
and destabilizing chromatin structure.
Which toxic metabolite of Acetaminophen depletes
glutathione and forms toxic tissue adducts in the liver?
Which toxic metabolite of Acetaminophen depletes

glutathione and forms toxic tissue adducts in the liver?
NAPQI
[...]
What is the MOA of Bisphosphonates?
What is the MOA of Bisphosphonates?
Induction of apoptosis in osteoclasts
[...]
Acetaminophen is extensively metabolised in the liver.

Small amounts of it is converted to a toxic metabolite
known as N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone (NAPQI).
Acetaminophen is extensively metabolised in the liver.

Small amounts of it is converted to a toxic metabolite
known as [...].
Cocaine is a topical anaesthetic used for mucous

membranes.
[...] is a topical anaesthetic used for mucous membranes.
Renal Ischemia is a renal complication of NSAID use due [...] is a renal complication of NSAID use due to a lack of
to a lack of Prostaglandin synthesis and hence
Prostaglandin synthesis and hence vasocontriction of the
vasocontriction of the afferent arteriole.
afferent arteriole.
Prostaglandins vasodilate the afferent arteriole. This
is blocked by NSAIDs.
Aminolevulinic Acid/Methylamino-levulinate is a topical
agent used to photorejuvinate the skin or treat dermatic
keratosis though photodynamic production of ROS,
thereby leading to apoptosis of cells.
[...] is a topical agent used to photorejuvinate the skin or

treat dermatic keratosis though photodynamic production
of ROS, thereby leading to apoptosis of cells.
Indomethacin is the only NSAID that has an effect on the [...] is the only NSAID that has an effect on the adaptive
adaptive immune system. It decreases T and B cell
immune system. It decreases T and B cell proliferation.
proliferation.
Normal individuals will show a decrease in cortisol levels
Normal individuals will show a [...] in cortisol levels
following adminisration of a low-dose of Dexamethasone. following adminisration of a low-dose of Dexamethasone.
Piroxicam is an NSAID that has 9.5x higher risks of
[...] is an NSAID that has 9.5x higher risks of causing GI
causing GI bleeding, perforation, or ulceration than other bleeding, perforation, or ulceration than other NSAIDs.
NSAIDs.
What is the MOA of NSAIDs?
What is the MOA of NSAIDs?
Reversible inhibition of Cyclooxygenase (both COX1

and COX2), thereby blocking prostaglandin synthesis
[...]
Intravenous administration of Ibuprofen can be used to

close a patent Ductus Arteriosus.
Intravenous administration of Ibuprofen can be used to

close a patent [...].
Denileukin is an antineoplastic that treats advanced

[...] is an antineoplastic that treats advanced cutaneous or
cutaneous or peripheral T-cell lymphoma when there is > peripheral T-cell lymphoma when there is > 20% of T
20% of T cells expressin CD25.
cells expressin CD25.
Acetaminophen is an antipyretic/analgesic that reversibly
inhibits cyclooxygenase in the CNS as it is typically
inactivated peripherally.
[...] is an antipyretic/analgesic that reversibly inhibits

cyclooxygenase in the CNS as it is typically inactivated
peripherally.
Which leukocyte is attracted by LTB4?
Which leukocyte is attracted by LTB4?
Neutrophils
[...]
Neutrophils arrive B4 everyone else.

How does Allopurinol affect the concentrations of
Azathioprine and 6-Mercaptopurine?
How does Allopurinol affect the concentrations of

Azathioprine and 6-Mercaptopurine?
Increases both, as both are normally metabolized by

Xanthine Oxidase
[...]
What is the MOA of Retinoids in treating Acne Vulgaris? What is the MOA of Retinoids in treating Acne Vulgaris?
Agonism at RARs and RXRs, thereby decreasing cell
growth
[...]
Alendronate is a Bisphosphonate that binds to

hydroxyapatite in bone, thereby inhibiting osteoclast
activity.
[...] is a Bisphosphonate that binds to hydroxyapatite in

bone, thereby inhibiting osteoclast activity.
-dronates are all Bisphosphonates.

What type of anti-inflammatory is Indomethacin?
What type of anti-inflammatory is Indomethacin?
NSAID
[...]
Reye's Syndrome is a severe adverse effect of Aspirin

mainly seen in children or young adults with viral infection.
It is characterized by initial respiratory infection followed
by nausea, vomiting and laboratory signs of liver damage.
[...] is a severe adverse effect of Aspirin mainly seen in

children or young adults with viral infection. It is
characterized by initial respiratory infection followed by
nausea, vomiting and laboratory signs of liver damage.
Which GI disorder can be treated with Infliximab and

Adalimumab?
Which GI disorder can be treated with Infliximab and

Adalimumab?
Inflammatory Bowel Disease (Crohn Disease and

Ulcerative Colitis)
[...]
Which Seronegative Spondyloarthropathy can be treated Which Seronegative Spondyloarthropathy can be treated
with TNF-alpha inhibitors (Etanercept; Infliximab,
with TNF-alpha inhibitors (Etanercept; Infliximab,
Adalimumab)?
Adalimumab)?
Ankylosing Spondylitis
[...]
What GI complication is associated with Aspirin use?
What GI complication is associated with Aspirin use?
Gastric ulceration; upper GI bleed with chronic use
[...]
What is the MOA of Penicillamine?
What is the MOA of Penicillamine?
Suppression of T cells and circulating Rheumatoid Factor
[...]
Piroxicam is an NSAID that not only nonselectively

inhibits COX but also inhibits polymorphonuclear
luekocyte migration.
[...] is an NSAID that not only nonselectively inhibits

COX but also inhibits polymorphonuclear luekocyte
migration.
Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat

Rhematoid Arthritis, Crohn's Disease and other arthritic
disorders by binding to both soluble and transmembrane
TNF-a.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody used to treat Rhematoid

Arthritis, Crohn's Disease and other arthritic disorders by
binding to both soluble and transmembrane TNF-a.
What is the duration of action of Chloroprocaine?
What is the duration of action of Chloroprocaine?
Short
[...]
COX inhibition by NSAIDs results in the inhibition

of prostaglandin synthesis.
COX inhibition by NSAIDs results in the inhibition of [...]

synthesis.
Leukotrienes are unaffected.

Aspirin is an NSAID that irreversibly inhibits COX.
[...] is an NSAID that irreversibly inhibits COX.
The NSAID Aspirin is useful in the management of acute

The NSAID [...] is useful in the management of acute
myocardial infarction and in the prophylaxis of myocardial myocardial infarction and in the prophylaxis of myocardial
infarction, stroke, ischemic attack and unstable angina
infarction, stroke, ischemic attack and unstable angina
pectoris.
pectoris.
What is the MOA of Colchicine?
Binds to and stabilizes Tubulin, thereby inhibiting

microtubule polymerization and impairing leukocyte
chemotaxis/degranulation
[...]
Thrombosis is a hematological complication that has an [...] is a hematological complication that has an increased
increased risk of manifesting in Celecoxib use as it spares risk of manifesting in Celecoxib use as it spares platelet
platelet function as it is selective for COX2.
function as it is selective for COX2.
Cocaine is a topical local anaesthetic that is used in ENT
procedures due to its excellent penetration and local
vasoconstriction.
[...] is a topical local anaesthetic that is used in ENT

procedures due to its excellent penetration and local
vasoconstriction.
Which isoform of Cyclooxygenase is found at the gastric

mucosa?
Which isoform of Cyclooxygenase is found at the gastric

mucosa?
COX1
[...]
What is the duration of action of Cocaine?
What is the duration of action of Cocaine?
Short
[...]
What is the clinical, dermatological use of Clindamycin?
What is the clinical, dermatological use of Clindamycin?
Acne Vulgaris
[...]
What is the duration of action of Benzocaine?
What is the duration of action of Benzocaine?
Short
[...]
What is the MOA of Bisphosphonates (Alendronate; dronate)?
What is the MOA of Bisphosphonates (Alendronate; dronate)?
Binds to hydroxyapatite in bone, thereby inhibiting

osteoclast activity
[...]
What is the clinical use of Febuxostat?
What is the clinical use of Febuxostat?
Chronic Gout (or prevention)
[...]
Bisphosphonates are a type of drug that are used in

Osteoporosis, Hypercalcemia and Paget Disease of Bone
as they bind hydroxyapatite in bone to inhibit osteoclast
activity.
[...] are a type of drug that are used in Osteoporosis,

Hypercalcemia and Paget Disease of Bone as they bind
hydroxyapatite in bone to inhibit osteoclast activity.
What is the MOA of Allopurinol?
Inhibition of Xanthine Oxidase, thereby decreasing the

converstion of xanthine to uric acid
[...]
What is the MOA of Anakinra?
What is the MOA of Anakinra?
IL-1 Receptor antagonism
[...]
Sulfacetamide is an antibiotic that inhibits PABA action in

[...] is an antibiotic that inhibits PABA action in the
the synthesis of bacterial folic acid, thereby inhibiting DNA synthesis of bacterial folic acid, thereby inhibiting DNA
synthesis.
synthesis.
What is the MOA of the anti-neoplastic Carmustine?
What is the MOA of the anti-neoplastic Carmustine?
Alkylation of DNA
[...]
Celecoxib is an NSAID that is safe to use in patients with

Gastritis or Gastric Ulcers as it does not affect COX1
action at the stomach.
[...] is an NSAID that is safe to use in patients with

Gastritis or Gastric Ulcers as it does not affect COX1
action at the stomach.
A severe adverse effect of Aspirin on the GI is that it can A severe adverse effect of Aspirin on the GI is that it can
cause gastric ulceration.
cause [...].
What type of anti-inflammatory is Ketorolac?
What type of anti-inflammatory is Ketorolac?
NSAID
[...]
What is the MOA of Bacitracin?
What is the MOA of Bacitracin?
Inhibition of the dephosphorylation of Bactoprenol
[...]
How many spinal segments from the point of Sensory

Anaesthesia does Motor anaesthesia develop?

Anaesthesia does Motor anaesthesia develop?
2 below
[...]
What is the primary clinical use of Allopurinol?
What is the primary clinical use of Allopurinol?
Chronic Gout (or prevention)
[...]
Aspirin hypersensitivity is a severe and potentially lethal

adverse effect of Aspirin where the loss of the COX
pathway leads to an increse in Leukotriene synthesis
causing a resultant pseudoallergenic reaction.
[...] is a severe and potentially lethal adverse effect of

Aspirin where the loss of the COX pathway leads to an
increse in Leukotriene synthesis causing a resultant
pseudoallergenic reaction.
Reye Syndrome is a severe complication of Aspirin use

commonly seen in children that are being treated with
Aspirin for a viral infection.
[...] is a severe complication of Aspirin use commonly

seen in children that are being treated with Aspirin for a
viral infection.
Acetaminophen is the DOC for analgesia/antipyresis in

children with viral infections.
Calcipotriene is a topical agent used to treat Psoriasis
through agonism at Vitamin D receptors.
[...] is a topical agent used to treat Psoriasis through

agonism at Vitamin D receptors.
Which joint disorder is treated with TNF-alpha inhibitors Which joint disorder is treated with TNF-alpha inhibitors
(Etanercept; Infliximab, Adalimumab)?
(Etanercept; Infliximab, Adalimumab)?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
[...]
What type of anti-inflammatory is Diclofenac?
What type of anti-inflammatory is Diclofenac?
NSAID
[...]
Gastric Ulcer is a GI complication of NSAID use due to

the inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis at the stomach.
[...] is a GI complication of NSAID use due to the

inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis at the stomach.
What is the MOA of Etanercept?
Recombinant fusion protein that acts as a TNF decoy

receptor, thereby preventing TNF from binding to actual
receptors and inhibiting the proinflammatory response
[...]
What neurological complication is associated with Aspirin What neurological complication is associated with Aspirin
use?
use?
Tinnitus (CN VIII activation)
[...]
Agonism at TLR7, leading to production of IFNa
[...]
Inhibition of the reabsorption of Uric Acid in the

Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
[...]
It also inhibits the secretion of Penicillin and can be

used to maintain penicillin levels.
What is the MOA of Adalimumab?
Blocks the interaction of TNF-a with the TNF-a Receptor
[...]
Which enzyme acting on Arachidonic Acid yields

Prostaglandins, Prostacyclins and Thomboxane?

Prostaglandins, Prostacyclins and Thomboxane?
Cycloooxygenase
[...]
High doses of Aspirin can decrease GFR.
High doses of Aspirin can [...] GFR.
What is the MOA of Capsaicin in the treatment of

pathological pain?
What is the MOA of Capsaicin in the treatment of

pathological pain?
Agonism at TRPV-1 (Transient Receptor Potential

Vanilloid-1)
[...]
Reduction of Uric Acid production by acting as a

competitive substrate for Xanthine Oxidase
[...]
Capsaicin is a dermatological agent that treats pathological [...] is a dermatological agent that treats pathological pain
pain through agonism at TRPV1 (Transient Receptor
through agonism at TRPV1 (Transient Receptor Potential
Potential Vanilloid-1), thereby leading to
Vanilloid-1), thereby leading to
desensitization/downregulation of nerve endings.
desensitization/downregulation of nerve endings.
The [...] test is used for the DDx of the underlying cause of
non-iatrogenic Cushing syndrome.
The Dexamethasone Suppression test is used for the DDx

of the underlying cause of non-iatrogenic Cushing
syndrome.
Retinoids are a class of topical agents that treat acne
vulgaris through agonism at RARs and RXRs.
[...] are a class of topical agents that treat acne vulgaris

through agonism at RARs and RXRs.
Retinoic Acid receptors and Retinoid X receptors.

Leflunomide is a DMARD used to treat severe
Rheumatoid Arthritis and Psoriatic Arthritis by inhibiting
Dihydro-orotate Dehydrogenase.
[...] is a DMARD used to treat severe Rheumatoid

Arthritis and Psoriatic Arthritis by inhibiting Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase.
Celecoxib is an NSAID that selectively inhibits

Cyclooxygenase 2 (COX2), which is found in
inflammatory cells and vascular endothelium (mediating
pain and inflammation).
[...] is an NSAID that selectively inhibits

Cyclooxygenase 2 (COX2), which is found in
inflammatory cells and vascular endothelium (mediating
pain and inflammation).
Acetaminophen is a potent analgesic that is preferred to

Aspirin in patients with hemophilia or PUD.
[...] is a potent analgesic that is preferred to Aspirin in

patients with hemophilia or PUD.
Acetaminophen lacks anti-inflammatory action because of Acetaminophen lacks anti-inflammatory action because of
its inability to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis at peripheral its inability to inhibit [...] synthesis at peripheral inflamed
inflamed tissue.
tissue.
The downstream effect of Glucocorticoid transcriptional
regulation is the inhibition of PLA2 activity or decreased
expression of COX2 enzymes.

regulation is the inhibition of [...] activity or decreased


expression of [...] enzymes.
Penicillamine is a drug used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis

when other DMARDs have been ineffective. It is also
used to treat Wilson's Disease.
[...] is a drug used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis when

other DMARDs have been ineffective. It is also used to
treat Wilson's Disease.
What type of chemical/drug is contraindicated in

What type of chemical/drug is contraindicated in
Allopurinol therapy as they depress Uric Acid clearance? Allopurinol therapy as they depress Uric Acid clearance?
Salicylates
[...]
What is the duration of action of Ropivacaine?
What is the duration of action of Ropivacaine?
Long
[...]
Sulfasalazine is a drug used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis,

Ulcerative Colitis and IBD by decreasing B cell function
and inhibiting COX in the gut.
[...] is a drug used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis,

Ulcerative Colitis and IBD by decreasing B cell function
and inhibiting COX in the gut.
What is the MOA of Aspirin?
Irreversible inhibition of Cycolooxygenase (COX1 and

COX2) by covalent acetylation
[...]
Thereby decreases Thromboxane, Prostaglandin and

Prostacyclin synthesis.
"Why shouldn't you bring NSAIDs on a date? Because
they're COX blockers!"
N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for Acetaminophen
overdose as it regenerates glutathione.
[...] is the antidote for Acetaminophen overdose as it

regenerates glutathione.
[...] are a type of chemical/drug that are contraindicated
with Allopurinol as they depress uric acid clearance.
Salicylates are a type of chemical/drug that are

contraindicated with Allopurinol as they depress uric acid
clearance.
Even high doses (5-6 g/day) have minor uricosuric
activity.
Bacitracin is a topical antibiotic that inhibits cell wall
formation through inhibiting dephosphorylation of
Bactoprenol.
[...] is a topical antibiotic that inhibits cell wall formation

through inhibiting dephosphorylation of Bactoprenol.
Dapsone is a dermatological agent that acts as an antiinflammatory by preventing respiratory bursts in

Myeloperoxidase.
[...] is a dermatological agent that acts as an antiinflammatory by preventing respiratory bursts in

Myeloperoxidase.
Methoxsalen is a Psoralen that is used to treat Psoriasis

alongside UVA light which is needed to activate the drug.
[...] is a Psoralen that is used to treat Psoriasis alongside

UVA light which is needed to activate the drug.
What is the MOA of Celecoxib?
What is the MOA of Celecoxib?
Selective reversible inhibition of Cyclooxygenase 2

(COX2) which is found in inflammatory cells and vascular
endothelium
[...]
What dose of Aspirin is used to inhibit platelet

aggregation?
What dose of Aspirin is used to inhibit platelet

aggregation?
Low Dose (< 300 mg/day)
[...]
Respiratory Alkalosis is an acid-base imbalance that is [...] is an acid-base imbalance that is seen in Aspirin use
seen in Aspirin use due to stimulation of the respiratory
due to stimulation of the respiratory center and
center and hyperventilation.
hyperventilation.
Probenecid is a chronic gout drug that also inhibits the
secretion of Penicillin into the urine.
[...] is a chronic gout drug that also inhibits the

secretion of Penicillin into the urine.
Probenecid is a Uricosuric that is used to treat

Hyperuricemia/Gout by inhibiting the reabsorption of
Urate at the proximal convoluted tubule.
[...] is a Uricosuric that is used to treat

Hyperuricemia/Gout by inhibiting the reabsorption of
Urate at the proximal convoluted tubule.
If 2 nerves have the same diameter, which parameter will If 2 nerves have the same diameter, which parameter will
determine which nerve is blocked first by a local
determine which nerve is blocked first by a local
anaesthetic?
anaesthetic?
Myelinated nerve is blocked first
[...]
As 2-3 nodes of ranvier must be blocked to halt

propagation as opposed to a longer section of axon.
Denosumab is a monoclonal Ab used to reduce the
[...] is a monoclonal Ab used to reduce the occurrence of
occurrence of osteoporotic fractures in menopausal
osteoporotic fractures in menopausal women who are
women who are intolerant to other osteoporotic drugs or intolerant to other osteoporotic drugs or have renal failure.
have renal failure.
Hydroxychloroquine is a drug used to treat milder
Rheumatoid Arthritis and SLE
[...] is a drug used to treat milder Rheumatoid Arthritis

and SLE
In Acetaminophen Poisoning, NAPQI reacts with

sulfhydryl groups on Glutathione (GSH), thereby
inactivating it and allowing NAPQI to react with hepatic
proteins and cause liver damage.
In Acetaminophen Poisoning, NAPQI reacts with

sulfhydryl groups on [...], thereby inactivating it and
allowing NAPQI to react with hepatic proteins and cause
liver damage.
Acyclovir is a topical antiviral that treats Herpes Labialis

and Herpetic Keratitis by inhibiting viral DNA
Polymerase, thereby causing DNA chain termination.
[...] is a topical antiviral that treats Herpes Labialis and

Herpetic Keratitis by inhibiting viral DNA Polymerase,
thereby causing DNA chain termination.
What toxicity is associated with Vinblastine?
What toxicity is associated with Vinblastine?
Myelosuppression
[...]
Raloxifene is a SERM used to treat Osteoporosis by

activating estrogen receptors.
[...] is a SERM used to treat Osteoporosis by activating

estrogen receptors.
What is a serious adverse effect/risk of Teriparatide?
What is a serious adverse effect/risk of Teriparatide?
Osteosarcoma
[...]
Bier Block is a method of anaesthesia that involves IV

regional anaesthesia typically for a short surgical
procedure (< 60 min), especially at the upper or lower
extremities.
[...] is a method of anaesthesia that involves IV regional

anaesthesia typically for a short surgical procedure (< 60
min), especially at the upper or lower extremities.
Anaesthetic is injected into the vein and the limb's

circulation is isolated with tourniquet.
[...]
Methotrexate is the DMARD of choice to treat

severe Rheumatoid Arthritis.
[...] is the DMARD of choice to treat severe Rheumatoid

Arthritis.

Anaesthesia does Sympathetic N.S. anaesthesia develop? Anaesthesia does Sympathetic N.S. anaesthesia develop?
2 above
[...]
What is the MOA of Leflunomide?
What is the MOA of Leflunomide?
Inhibition of Dihydro-orotate Dehydrogenase, thereby

inhibiting de novo pyrimidine synthesis
[...]
This then inhibits T and B cell proliferation

What size of nerve fibers are preferentially blocked by
Local Anaesthetics?
What size of nerve fibers are preferentially blocked by

Local Anaesthetics?
Small
[...]
Because the distance of passive propagation of

electrical impulses is shorter.
Hepatic Necrosis is a classical complication of
Acetaminophen overdose due to NAPQI toxicity.
[...] is a classical complication of Acetaminophen

overdose due to NAPQI toxicity.
How do TNF-alpha inhibitors influence infection risk?
How do TNF-alpha inhibitors influence infection risk?
Increased risk, especially with TB as TNF is needed to

activate macrophages and induce phagocytic destruction
of microbes
[...]
Penciclovir is a topical antiviral that is able to treat

recurrent Herpes Labialis by competitively inhibiting viral
DNA Polymerase, but with a lower affinity than Acyclovir.
[...] is a topical antiviral that is able to treat recurrent

Herpes Labialis by competitively inhibiting viral DNA
Polymerase, but with a lower affinity than Acyclovir.
Hence it does not cause DNA chain termination.
What is the MOA of Tacrolimus?
Inhibition of Calcineurin by complexing with FKBP12
[...]
Zoledronate and Pamidronate are the only 2

bisphosphonates that are administered via IV.
[...] and Pamidronate are the only 2 bisphosphonates that

are administered via IV.
Zoledronate and Pamidronate are the only 2

bisphosphonates that are administered via IV.
Zoledronate and [...] are the only 2 bisphosphonates that

are administered via IV.
What are the first line drugs to treat Osteoporosis?
What are the first line drugs to treat Osteoporosis?
Bisphosphonates
[...]
Coal Tar is a topical keratolytic agent used to treat

psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis. It is made from coals.
[...] is a topical keratolytic agent used to treat psoriasis

and seborrheic dermatitis. It is made from coals.
Mupirocin is a topical antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis

of Isoleucyl tRNA, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis.
[...] is a topical antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis of

Isoleucyl tRNA, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis.
N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) treats Acetaminophen Poisoning [...] treats Acetaminophen Poisoning by replenishing
by replenishing glutathione stores and directly conjugating glutathione stores and directly conjugating with NAPQI,
with NAPQI, thereby promoting its metabolism.
thereby promoting its metabolism.
Articaine is a local anaesthetic used for dental and
periodontal procedures.
[...] is a local anaesthetic used for dental and periodontal

procedures.
Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets

RANKL, thereby reducing osteoclast number and
function.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody that targets RANKL,

thereby reducing osteoclast number and function.
Celecoxib is the only NSAID that selectively

inhibits COX2.
[...] is the only NSAID that selectively inhibits COX2.
Celecoxib is the only NSAID that selectively

inhibits COX2.
Celecoxib is the only NSAID that selectively inhibits [...].
Glucocorticoids suppress PLA2 activity by inducing the

expression of PLA2 inhibitory proteins.
Glucocorticoids suppress PLA2 activity by inducing the

expression of [...].

Bleomycin?

Bleomycin?
Pulmonary fibrosis/toxicity
[...]
Benzoyl Peroxide is a topical agent that is used to treat [...] is a topical agent that is used to treat Acne Vulgaris by
Acne Vulgaris by releasing free ROS oxidizing bacterial releasing free ROS oxidizing bacterial proteins found in
proteins found in sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
Imiquimod is a topical immunostimulant that is able to treat [...] is a topical immunostimulant that is able to treat HPV
HPV Genital Warts through agonism at TLR7 and
Genital Warts through agonism at TLR7 and subsequent
subsequent production of IFN-alpha.
production of IFN-alpha.
Colchicine is an acute gout drug that binds to an stabilizes [...] is an acute gout drug that binds to an stabilizes Tubulin
Tubulin to inhibit microtubule polymerization, thereby
to inhibit microtubule polymerization, thereby imparing
imparing Leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation.
Leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation.
Low doses of Aspirin (< 300 mg/day) can cause a
decrease in platelet aggregation.
Low doses of Aspirin (< 300 mg/day) can cause a

decrease in [...] aggregation.
What is the adverse affect associated with Carmustine?
What is the adverse affect associated with Carmustine?
CNS Toxicity
[...]
Prednisone is a Glucocorticoid that is administered as a [...] is a Glucocorticoid that is administered as a prodrug.

prodrug. It is converted into the active form Prednisolone.
It is converted into the active form Prednisolone.
Celecoxib is the NSAID with the lowest GI toxicity as it
does not inhibit COX1.
[...] is the NSAID with the lowest GI toxicity as it does

not inhibit COX1.
What type of nerve fibers are preferentially blocked by

local anaesthetics?
What type of nerve fibers are preferentially blocked by

local anaesthetics?
Pain (sensory)
[...]
Most Glucocorticoids are have a pregnancy category

of D.
Most Glucocorticoids are have a pregnancy category

of [...].
Glucocorticoids act on the fetal lungs; stimulating structural Glucocorticoids act on the fetal lungs; stimulating structural
and functional changes and triggering the production
and functional changes and triggering the production
of surfactant.
of [...].
Patients with Cushing's Syndrome (caused by cortisol- Patients with Cushing's Syndrome (caused by cortisolproducing adrenal tumour or ectopic ACTH-producing producing adrenal tumour or ectopic ACTH-producing
tumour) will show no change in cortisol levels following a tumour) will show [...] in cortisol levels following a low or
low or high dose of Dexamethasone.
high dose of Dexamethasone.
LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4 are Leukotrienes that function in [...], LTD4, and LTE4 are Leukotrienes that function in
bronchoconstriction, vasoconstriction, smooth muscle
contraction and increasing vascular permeability.
LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4 are Leukotrienes that function in LTC4, [...], and LTE4 are Leukotrienes that function in
LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4 are Leukotrienes that function in LTC4, LTD4, and [...] are Leukotrienes that function in
Anakinra is an IL-1 receptor antagonist used to treat
Rheumatoid Arthritis.
[...] is an IL-1 receptor antagonist used to treat

Rheumatoid Arthritis.
Pramoxine is a local anaesthetic used for analgesia and

antipruritic effects for hemorrhoids, burns, minor cutes,
scrapes and minor skin irritation.
[...] is a local anaesthetic used for analgesia and antipruritic

effects for hemorrhoids, burns, minor cutes, scrapes and
minor skin irritation.
Celecoxib is an NSAID selective for COX2 that is used [...] is an NSAID selective for COX2 that is used to treat
to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis and Osteoarthritis.
Rheumatoid Arthritis and Osteoarthritis.
What severe adverse effect is associated with
Doxorubicin?
What severe adverse effect is associated with

Doxorubicin?
Cardiotoxicity
[...]
Soluble TNF receptor; Binds to TNF, inhibiting its

inflammatory signal
[...]
EtanerCEPT is a soluble TNF ReCEPTor

Monoclonal Ab; Binds to an inhibits TNF-alpha
[...]
The COX2 isoform of Cyclooxygenase is only found in

inflammatory cells and endothelium.
The [...] isoform of Cyclooxygenase is only found in

inflammatory cells and endothelium.
High doses of Aspirin can cause tinnitus through afferent

stimulation of CN VIII.
High doses of Aspirin can cause [...] through afferent

stimulation of CN VIII.
Salicylic Acid is a topical agent that functions as a

keratolytic. However it can cause Salicylism which can be
fatal in chilren.
[...] is a topical agent that functions as a keratolytic.

However it can cause Salicylism which can be fatal in
chilren.
Toxic doses of the NSAID Aspirin can lead to direct

depression of the respiratory center.
Toxic doses of the NSAID [...] can lead to direct

depression of the respiratory center.
Remember, moderate doses stimulate respiration.

What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Vinblastine?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Vinblastine?
Binds to Tubulin; Inhibits the polymerization of

microtubules
[...]
Which Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation and

promotes vasodilation?
Which Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation and

promotes vasodilation?
PGI2
[...]
Sulphinpyrazone is a Uricosuric with the same MOA as

Probenecid.
[...] is a Uricosuric with the same MOA as Probenecid.
Which skin disorder can be treated with TNF-alpha

inhibitors (Etanercept; Infliximab, Adalimumab)?
Which skin disorder can be treated with TNF-alpha

inhibitors (Etanercept; Infliximab, Adalimumab)?
Psoriasis
[...]
Celecoxib is an NSAID that selectively inhibits COX2,

thereby sparing COX1 at the gastric mucosa and not
causing gastric ulceration.
[...] is an NSAID that selectively inhibits COX2, thereby

sparing COX1 at the gastric mucosa and not causing
gastric ulceration.
Dyclonine is a local anaesthetic used for pain with the oral

mucosa.
[...] is a local anaesthetic used for pain with the oral

mucosa.
Which analgesic/antipyretic is used instead of Aspirin in

children with viral infections to avoid Reye Syndrome?
Which analgesic/antipyretic is used instead of Aspirin in

children with viral infections to avoid Reye Syndrome?
Acetaminophen
[...]
Acetaminophen is the DOC for analgesia/antipyresis in

Docosanol is a topical antiviral that is able to treat
recurrent Herpes Labialis by inhibiting the fusion of the
viral envelope with host cell membranes.
[...] is a topical antiviral that is able to treat recurrent

Herpes Labialis by inhibiting the fusion of the viral
envelope with host cell membranes.
What is the MOA of the antineplastic Vorinostat?
What is the MOA of the antineplastic Vorinostat?
Inhibitiong of HDAT (Histone Deacetylase Enzymes)
[...]
Which phase of the cell cycle does Bleomycin act in?
Which phase of the cell cycle does Bleomycin act in?
G2
[...]
Indomethacin is the NSAID of choice for closing a patent

ductus arteriosus. It is given via IV to a neonate.
[...] is the NSAID of choice for closing a patent ductus

arteriosus. It is given via IV to a neonate.
What is the most potent NSAID?
What is the most potent NSAID?
Indomethacin
[...]
Allopurinol is a Xanthine analog used to treat

Hyperuricemia/Gout or prevent hyperuricemia.
[...] is a Xanthine analog used to treat Hyperuricemia/Gout

or prevent hyperuricemia.
Acetaminophen Poisoning can be treated

Acetaminophen Poisoning can be treated with [...].
with N-Acetylcysteine (NAC). Maximum effectiveness is Maximum effectiveness is achieved if the Tx is given with 8
achieved if the Tx is given with 8 hrs of poisoning.
hrs of poisoning.
Patients with Cushing's Disease (caused by a pituitary

Patients with Cushing's Disease (caused by a pituitary
adenoma) will show no decrease in cortisol levels
adenoma) will show [...] in cortisol levels following a low
following a low dose of Dexamethasone, but will following dose of Dexamethasone, but will following a high dose.
a high dose.
Which Leukotriene is chemotactic for Neutrophils?
Which Leukotriene is chemotactic for Neutrophils?
LTB4
[...]
Neutrophils arrive B4 others.

Betamethasone and Dexamethasone are the
Glucocorticoids of choice for stimulating fetal lung
maturation. They are given via IM.
[...] and Dexamethasone are the Glucocorticoids of choice

for stimulating fetal lung maturation. They are given via IM.
Betamethasone and Dexamethasone are the

Glucocorticoids of choice for stimulating fetal lung
maturation. They are given via IM.
Betamethasone and [...] are the Glucocorticoids of choice

for stimulating fetal lung maturation. They are given via IM.
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic

Cyclophosphamide?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic

Cyclophosphamide?
Formation of Carbonium ion that targets Guanine N7,

thereby destabilizing DNA
[...]
Denileukin is an antineoplastic that is composed of

Diphtheria toxin and IL-2 receptor.
[...] is an antineoplastic that is composed of Diphtheria

toxin and IL-2 receptor.
Probenecid is a chronic gout drug that is functions by

inhibiting the rebsorption of Uric Acid in the PCT.
[...] is a chronic gout drug that is functions by inhibiting the

rebsorption of Uric Acid in the PCT.
What is a secondary use of Probenecid other than to treat What is a secondary use of Probenecid other than to treat
Gout?
Gout?
Inhibition of the secretion of Penicillin (or other acidic
drugs) at the PCT
[...]
What is the duration of action of Lidocaine?
What is the duration of action of Lidocaine?
Intermediate
[...]
Acitretin is an oral retinoid that is used off label to treat

Psoriasis, Darier's Disease, and Lichen Planus.
[...] is an oral retinoid that is used off label to treat

Psoriasis, Darier's Disease, and Lichen Planus.
NAPQI is a toxic metabolite of acetaminophen that

depletes glutathione and forms toxic tissue adducts in the
liver, thereby causing Hepatic Necrosis and potentially
liver failure.
[...] is a toxic metabolite of acetaminophen that depletes

glutathione and forms toxic tissue adducts in the liver,
thereby causing Hepatic Necrosis and potentially liver
failure.
What is the MOA of Acetaminophen?
What is the MOA of Acetaminophen?
Reversible inhibition of Cyclooxygenase, mostly in the

CNS
[...]
It is inactivated peripherally.
Ketorolac is an NSAID with potent analgesic action. It
can successfully replace morphine and other opioids for
relief of mild to moderate postsurgical pain.
[...] is an NSAID with potent analgesic action. It can

successfully replace morphine and other opioids for relief
of mild to moderate postsurgical pain.
Can decrease opioid requirement by 25-50%

Alitretinoin and Bexarotene are topical retinoids used as
antineoplastics in the treatment of Kaposi's Sarcoma and
cutaneous T-cell lymphoma respectively.
[...] and Bexarotene are topical retinoids used as

Alitretinoin and Bexarotene are topical retinoids used as

Alitretinoin and [...] are topical retinoids used as

Diclofenac is an NSAID that not only nonselectively

inhibits COX, but also inhibits LOX enzymes and
decreases Oxygen radical production.

COX, but also inhibits LOX enzymes and


inhibits COX, but also inhibits [...] enzymes and


decreases [...] production.
Chloroprocaine and Lidocaine are local anaesthetics that [...] and Lidocaine are local anaesthetics that have strong
have strong neurotoxicity when used for spinal
neurotoxicity when used for spinal anaesthesia.
anaesthesia.
Chloroprocaine and Lidocaine are local anaesthetics that
have strong neurotoxicity when used for spinal
anaesthesia.
Chloroprocaine and [...] are local anaesthetics that have

strong neurotoxicity when used for spinal anaesthesia.
What is a serious adverse effect of Colchicine?
What is a serious adverse effect of Colchicine?
GI Toxicity
[...]
Which viral enzyme is responsible for activating Acyclovir? Which viral enzyme is responsible for activating Acyclovir?
Thymidine Kinase
[...]
Dapsone is a dermatological agent that acts as a

competitive antagonist of PABA and Folic Acid synthesis.
[...] is a dermatological agent that acts as a competitive

antagonist of PABA and Folic Acid synthesis.
Most NSAIDs are contraindicated in a patient that has

hypersensitivity to Aspirin.
Most NSAIDs are contraindicated in a patient that has

hypersensitivity to [...].
Acetaminophen Poisoning is a severe adverse effect of

Acetaminophen where NAPQI causes hepatic toxicity.
[...] is a severe adverse effect of Acetaminophen where

NAPQI causes hepatic toxicity.
What is the MOA of Doxorubicin?
What is the MOA of Doxorubicin?
Inhibition of Topoisomerase II and radical formation
[...]
Tacrolimus is a topical immunosuppressant that can treat

Atopic Dermatitis by complexing with FKBP-12 and
inhibiting Calcineurin Phosphatase.
[...] is a topical immunosuppressant that can treat Atopic

Dermatitis by complexing with FKBP-12 and inhibiting
Calcineurin Phosphatase.
Celecoxib is an NSAID that selectively inhibits COX2,

thereby sparing platelet function as Thromboxane
A2 production is dependent on COX1.
[...] is an NSAID that selectively inhibits COX2, thereby

sparing platelet function as Thromboxane A2 production is
dependent on COX1.
When used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis, Infliximab must When used to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis, Infliximab must
be co-administered with Methotrexate unless it is
be co-administered with [...] unless it is contraindicated.
contraindicated.
Which isoform of Cyclooxygenase produces
Thromboxane A2?
Which isoform of Cyclooxygenase produces

Thromboxane A2?
COX1
[...]
Which isoform of Cyclooxygenase is found in

inflammatory cells and vascular endothelium?
Which isoform of Cyclooxygenase is found in

inflammatory cells and vascular endothelium?
COX2
[...]
What does of Aspirin is used to achieve anti-inflammatory What does of Aspirin is used to achieve anti-inflammatory
action?
action?
High (2400-4000 mg/day)
[...]
What is the MOA of Febuxostat?
Inhibition of Xanthine Oxidase
[...]
Teriparatide is recombinant PTH used to treat

advanced Osteoporosis
[...] is recombinant PTH used to treat

advanced Osteoporosis
What is the MOA of Calcipotriene?
What is the MOA of Calcipotriene?
Agonism at Vitamin D receptors
[...]
How does Bleeding Time (BT) change following Aspirin

administration?
How does Bleeding Time (BT) change following Aspirin

administration?
Increase; until new platelets are made in ~7 days time
[...]
Dapsone is a dermatological agent that blocks integrin [...] is a dermatological agent that blocks integrin mediated
mediated adherence during neutrophil migration, thereby adherence during neutrophil migration, thereby acting as an
acting as an anti-inflammatory.
anti-inflammatory.
Salicylism is a potentially fatal complication of Salicylic
acid administration in children due to their increased
surface area:mass ratio.
[...] is a potentially fatal complication of Salicylic acid

administration in children due to their increased surface
area:mass ratio.
Adalimumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat

[...] is a monoclonal antibody used to treat Rheumatoid
Rheumatoid Arthritis, Crohn's Disease and other arthritic Arthritis, Crohn's Disease and other arthritic disorders by
disorders by blocking the interaction between TNF-a and blocking the interaction between TNF-a and the TNF-a
the TNF-a Receptor on cell surfaces.
Receptor on cell surfaces.
Binding to Tubulin to prevent MT formation and leukocyte

migration; Inhibition of Lipooxygenase
[...]
Remember, Lipooxygenase produces leukotrienes.

What type of anti-inflammatory is Ibuprofen?
What type of anti-inflammatory is Ibuprofen?
NSAID
[...]
What is the duration of action of Prilocaine?
What is the duration of action of Prilocaine?
Intermediate
[...]
What is the primary clinical use of Colchicine?
What is the primary clinical use of Colchicine?
Acute Gout
[...]
Sulfasalazine is converted into 2 active metabolites 5Aminosalicylic Acid and Sulphapyridine.
Sulfasalazine is converted into 2 active metabolites [...]

and Sulphapyridine.
Sulfasalazine is converted into 2 active metabolites 5Aminosalicylic Acid and Sulphapyridine.
Sulfasalazine is converted into 2 active metabolites 5Aminosalicylic Acid and [...].
Indomethacin is an NSAID that not only nonselectively

inhibits COX but also inhibits both PLA and PLC.

COX but also inhibits both PLA and PLC.


inhibits COX but also inhibits both [...] and PLC.


inhibits COX but also inhibits both PLA and [...].
What type of anti-inflammatory is Naproxen?
What type of anti-inflammatory is Naproxen?
NSAID
[...]
Glucocorticoids can also regulate the transcription of

genes that do not have GREs through other transcription
factors, especially AP1 and NF-B.

factors, especially [...] and NF-B.

factors, especially AP1 and NF-B.

factors, especially AP1 and [...].
Acetaminophen is weak inhibitor of COX enzymes at

peripheral inflamed tissue.
Acetaminophen is weak inhibitor of [...] enzymes at

peripheral inflamed tissue.
How does PT change following Aspirin use?
How does PT change following Aspirin use?
No change; remember Aspirin only affects platelet

aggregation
[...]
What T-score on a DEXA scan is indicative of advanced What T-score on a DEXA scan is indicative of advanced
osteoporosis?
osteoporosis?
< -3.5
[...]
Allopurinol is converted into a more active form

called Alloxanthine by Xanthine Oxidase.
Allopurinol is converted into a more active form called [...]

by Xanthine Oxidase.
Which chronic gout drug is also used in Lymphoma and

Leukemia to prevent tumour lysis-associated urate
nephropathy?
Which chronic gout drug is also used in Lymphoma and

Leukemia to prevent tumour lysis-associated urate
nephropathy?
Allopurinol
[...]
Which type of anaesthesia is suitable for older patients and Which type of anaesthesia is suitable for older patients and
for patients with systemic diseases?
for patients with systemic diseases?
Spinal anaesthesia
[...]
Which renal complications are associated with chronic

Aspirin use?
Which renal complications are associated with chronic

Aspirin use?
Acute Renal Failure; Interstitial Nephritis
[...]
Long term use of Glucocorticoids can result in

iatrogenic Cushing's Syndrome due to exogenous
suppression of the HPA axis.
Long term use of Glucocorticoids can result in

iatrogenic [...] due to exogenous suppression of the HPA
axis.
Signs and symptoms are in line with Cushing's.

What is the MOA of Infliximab?
Monoclonal Ab; Binds to and inhibits TNF-alpha
[...]
Alcohol consumption can exarcerbate Acetaminophen

Alcohol consumption can exarcerbate Acetaminophen
Poisoning as ethanol induces the expression of the hepatic Poisoning as ethanol induces the expression of the hepatic
enzyme CYP2E1, which metabolizes both EtOH and
enzyme [...], which metabolizes both EtOH and
Acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen.
Raloxifene is a SERM that is indicated as a treatment of

Osteoporosis in women with vasomotor symptoms.
[...] is a SERM that is indicated as a treatment of

Osteoporosis in women with vasomotor symptoms.
What is the MOA of Hydroxychloroquine?
What is the MOA of Hydroxychloroquine?
Suppression of T cell response to mitogens; Decrease in

leukocyte migration
[...]
What is the most commonly prescribed DMARD?
What is the most commonly prescribed DMARD?
Methotrexate
[...]
Denileukin is an antineoplastic that that treats cutaneous or

peripheral lymphoma by binding to IL-2 receptors on
activated T-cells in order to internalize the active toxin
portion that ADP ribosylates EF2, thereby decreasing
protein synthesis.
[...] is an antineoplastic that that treats cutaneous or

peripheral lymphoma by binding to IL-2 receptors on
activated T-cells in order to internalize the active toxin
portion that ADP ribosylates EF2, thereby decreasing
protein synthesis.
Remember, Denileukin is IL-2 receptor + Diphtheria

toxin
Tachyphylaxis is an adverse effect of repeated anaesthetic [...] is an adverse effect of repeated anaesthetic injections
injections that manifests due to extracellular acidosis.
that manifests due to extracellular acidosis.
Remember, Tachyphylaxis is rapid desensitization to
the drug.
Repeated injections deplete local tissue buffering
capacity; Acidosis of the tissue increases the cationic
form of the drug which exhibits poor diffusion into the
cell.
Which type of anti-inflammatory is Celecoxib?
Which type of anti-inflammatory is Celecoxib?
NSAID; Selective for COX2
[...]
What group of drugs are used to treat acute gout?
What group of drugs are used to treat acute gout?
NSAIDs
[...]

Leukotrienes?

Leukotrienes?
Lipoxygenase
[...]
Lipoxygenase yields Leukotrienes.

Inhibition of Xanthine Oxidase
[...]
What dose of Aspirin is used to achieve antipyretic action What dose of Aspirin is used to achieve antipyretic action
and analgesia?
and analgesia?
Intermediate (300-2400 mg/day)
[...]
What is the ROA of Glucocorticoids being used to treat

Acute Gout?
What is the ROA of Glucocorticoids being used to treat

Acute Gout?
Oral; Intraarticular
[...]
The NSAID Ibuprofen is the analgesic and antipyretic of The NSAID [...] is the analgesic and antipyretic of choice
choice in children with viral infections as it will not cause in children with viral infections as it will not cause Reye's
Reye's Syndrome.
Syndrome.
Other non-salicylate NSAIDs can be used as well.
Etanercept is an anti-inflammatory that acts as a TNF
decory receptor.
[...] is an anti-inflammatory that acts as a TNF decory

receptor.
Most NSAIDs are pregnancy category D drugs during the Most NSAIDs are pregnancy category [...] drugs during
3rd trimester due to their ability to close the Ductus
the 3rd trimester due to their ability to close the Ductus
Arteriosus.
Arteriosus.
What is the duration of action of Bupivacaine?
What is the duration of action of Bupivacaine?
Long
[...]
Which chronic gout drug inhibits the reabsorption of Uric Which chronic gout drug inhibits the reabsorption of Uric
Acid at the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
Acid at the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
Probenecid
[...]
Etanercept is a soluble TNF Receptor that is used to treat

Rheumatoid Arthritis and other arthritic disorders.
[...] is a soluble TNF Receptor that is used to treat

Rheumatoid Arthritis and other arthritic disorders.
How does PTT change following Aspirin use?
How does PTT change following Aspirin use?
No change; remember Aspirin only affects platelet

aggregation
[...]
Alefacept is a dermatological drug used to treat Psoriasis

by binding to CD2 cell surface receptors on lymphocytes,
thereby preventing the interaction with LFA-3.
[...] is a dermatological drug used to treat Psoriasis by

binding to CD2 cell surface receptors on lymphocytes,
thereby preventing the interaction with LFA-3.
Into which CNS space is anaesthetic administered in

Spinal Anaesthesia?
Into which CNS space is anaesthetic administered in

Spinal Anaesthesia?
Subarachnoid Space
[...]
What is the toxicity of Hydroxyurea at the GI tract?
What is the toxicity of Hydroxyurea at the GI tract?
GI upset
[...]
What is the primary toxicity of Bleomycin?
What is the primary toxicity of Bleomycin?
Pulmonary fibrosis
[...]
Mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressant that is

transformed into mycophenolic acid and inhibits Inosine
Monophosphate Dehydrogenase.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that is transformed into

mycophenolic acid and inhibits Inosine Monophosphate
Dehydrogenase.
Thereby, specifically inhibiting B and T cell

proliferation.
transformed into mycophenolic acid and inhibits [...].

transformed into mycophenolic acid and inhibits Inosine
Monophosphate Dehydrogenase.
Thereby, specifically inhibiting B and T cell
proliferation.
Demecocycline is an antidote given for Cyclophosphamide [...] is an antidote given for Cyclophosphamide treatment
treatment to treat the symptoms of SIADH.
to treat the symptoms of SIADH.
Vinblastine is a vinca alkaloid that is myelotoxic.
[...] is a vinca alkaloid that is myelotoxic.
Vinblastine = Bone
What type of alkylating antineoplastic agent is
Streptozocin?
What type of alkylating antineoplastic agent is

Streptozocin?
Nitrosourea
[...]
Dexrazoxane is an iron chelating agent that is used to

prevent the cardiotoxicity seen in Doxorubicin and
Daunorubicin use.
[...] is an iron chelating agent that is used to prevent the

cardiotoxicity seen in Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin use.
What is the toxicity of Imatinib?
What is the toxicity of Imatinib?
Fluid retention
[...]
What is the MOA of Azathioprine?
Inhibition of PRPP Synthetase and PRPP Deaminase
[...]
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Teniposide?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Teniposide?
Inhibition of Topoisomerase II, thereby causing an

increase in DNA degradation
[...]
TeniPOside inhibits ToPOisomerase

What is the MOA of Methotrexate?
Inhibition of Dihydrofolate Reductase
[...]
What is the MOA of Cytarabine used to treat AML?
What is the MOA of Cytarabine used to treat AML?
Blocking of DNA Strand elongation
[...]
Muromonab-CD3 is a monoclonal antibody against the

CD3 component of the T-cell receptor.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody against the CD3 component

of the T-cell receptor.
Paclitaxel is a microtubule inhibiting antineoplastic drug

[...] is a microtubule inhibiting antineoplastic drug that
that hyperstabilizes polymerized microtubules in the M
hyperstabilizes polymerized microtubules in the M
phase, thereby inhibiting the breakdown of the mitotic phase, thereby inhibiting the breakdown of the mitotic
spindle.
spindle.
i.e. anaphase cannot occur
Which stage of the cell cycle does Cisplatin inhibit?
Which stage of the cell cycle does Cisplatin inhibit?
G1
[...]
Azathioprine is a purine analog antimetabolite that is the

prodrug form of 6-Mercaptopurine.
[...] is a purine analog antimetabolite that is the prodrug

form of 6-Mercaptopurine.
What type of antineoplastic is Cyclophosphamide and

Ifosfamide?
What type of antineoplastic is Cyclophosphamide and

Ifosfamide?
Alkylating agent
[...]
Daclizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD25

on activated T cells and blocks IL-2 receptors.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD25 on

activated T cells and blocks IL-2 receptors.
Sargramostim is an immunostimulant that stimulates the

production of granulocytes and macrophages.
[...] is an immunostimulant that stimulates the production of

granulocytes and macrophages.
It is a GM-CSF.
Interferon-gamma is an immunostimulant used to treat
Chronic Granulomatous Disease.
[...] is an immunostimulant used to treat Chronic

Granulomatous Disease.
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that is metabolized by the

cytochrome P450 pathway.
[...] is an oral anticoagulant that is metabolized by the

cytochrome P450 pathway.
Argatroban and Bivalirudin are hirudin anticoagulants used [...] and Bivalirudin are hirudin anticoagulants used instead
instead of Heparin in patients that have Heparin-induced
of Heparin in patients that have Heparin-induced
Thrombocytopenia that function by directly inhibiting
Thrombin.
Thrombin.
Lepirudin is also another example not in FA2014.
Argatroban and Bivalirudin are hirudin anticoagulants used
Argatroban and [...] are hirudin anticoagulants used
instead of Heparin in patients that have Heparin-induced instead of Heparin in patients that have Heparin-induced
Thrombin.
Thrombin.
Lepirudin is also another example not in FA2014.
Drotegocin alpha is an anticoagulant that is recombinant
Protein C.
[...] is an anticoagulant that is recombinant Protein C.
What is the toxicity of Etoposide and Teniposide at the GI What is the toxicity of Etoposide and Teniposide at the GI
tract?
tract?
GI irritation
[...]
What is the MOA of Nitrosourea antineoplastics?
What is the MOA of Nitrosourea antineoplastics?
Cross-linking of DNA, thereby causing DNA damage
[...]
Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin are antitumour antibiotics

that function through both the generation of free radicals
and intercalating into DNA.
[...] and Daunorubicin are antitumour antibiotics that

function through both the generation of free radicals
Remember, intercalation into DNA causes DNA breaks

and hence a decrease in replication.
Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin are antitumour antibiotics
that function through both the generation of free radicals
Doxorubicin and [...] are antitumour antibiotics that

function through both the generation of free radicals
Remember, intercalation into DNA causes DNA breaks

and hence a decrease in replication.
What are the most commonly used Glucocorticoids in
cancer chemotherapy?
What are the most commonly used Glucocorticoids in

cancer chemotherapy?
Prednisone; Prednisolone
[...]
What type of anticoagulant is Abciximab?
[...]
What type of anticoagulant is Abciximab?

Antiplatelet; GpIIb/IIIa inhibitor
What type of anticoagulant is tenecteplase (TNK-tPA)?
What type of anticoagulant is tenecteplase (TNK-tPA)?
Thrombolytic; tissue plasminogen activator
[...]
What protein does Cyclosporine bind to before

inactivating Calcineurin?
What protein does Cyclosporine bind to before

inactivating Calcineurin?
Cyclophilin-A
[...]
What is the major adverse effect of Thrombolytics?
What is the major adverse effect of Thrombolytics?
Bleeding
[...]
What drug is used as an antidote for 5-Fluorouracil

overdose?
What drug is used as an antidote for 5-Fluorouracil

overdose?
Uridine
[...]
Clopidogrel is an anti-platelet drug that irreversibly inhibits [...] is an anti-platelet drug that irreversibly inhibits ADP
ADP receptors on platelets, thereby preventing clumping.
receptors on platelets, thereby preventing clumping.
Clopidogrel is an anti-platelet drug that irreversibly inhibits Clopidogrel is an anti-platelet drug that irreversibly inhibits
ADP receptors on platelets, thereby preventing clumping.
[...] on platelets, thereby preventing clumping.
What is the MOA of 6-Thioguanine (6-TG)?
What is the MOA of 6-Thioguanine (6-TG)?
Inhibition of de novo purine synthesis
[...]
Heparin is an anticoagulant that functions by acting as a

cofactor for the activation of Antithrombin.
[...] is an anticoagulant that functions by acting as a

cofactor for the activation of Antithrombin.
Thereby decreasing Thrombin (IIa) and Factor Xa

levels.
What drug is used to prevent Erythroblastosis Fetalis?
What drug is used to prevent Erythroblastosis Fetalis?
Rho (D) Immunoglobulin
[...]
What phase of the cell cycle does Bleomycin have an

effect on cancer?
What phase of the cell cycle does Bleomycin have an

effect on cancer?
G2-Phase
[...]
What is the MOA of Rituximab?
What is the MOA of Rituximab?
MAb against CD20, thereby triggering antibody mediated

cell toxicity
[...]
What is the neurological complication of 5-Fluorouracil?
What is the neurological complication of 5-Fluorouracil?
Photosensitivity
[...]
Acute Renal Failure and Interstitial Nephritis are possible

renal complications of chronic Aspirin use.
[...] and Interstitial Nephritis are possible renal

complications of chronic Aspirin use.
Acute Renal Failure and Interstitial Nephritis are possible

renal complications of chronic Aspirin use.
Acute Renal Failure and [...] are possible renal

complications of chronic Aspirin use.
What is the MOA of Asparaginase in Cancer

Chemotherapy?
What is the MOA of Asparaginase in Cancer

Chemotherapy?
Hydrolyzes Asn to deprive cancer cells of the AA
[...]
Causing death by apoptosis

Which drug is used to reverse the myelosuppression seen Which drug is used to reverse the myelosuppression seen
in Methotrexate (MTX) use?
in Methotrexate (MTX) use?
Leucovorin (Folinic Acid)
[...]
Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody that function as an

anticoagulant as it binds to and blocks GpIIb/IIIa on
activated platelets.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody that function as an

anticoagulant as it binds to and blocks GpIIb/IIIa on
activated platelets.
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Carboplatin?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Carboplatin?
Cross-linking of DNA
[...]
What type of alkylating antineoplastic agents can cross the What type of alkylating antineoplastic agents can cross the
BBB?
BBB?
Nitrosoureas (Carmustine, Lomustine, Semustine)
[...]
Then they cross-link DNA.

Methotrexate (MTX) is an antimetabolite antineoplastic
that functions as a Folic Acid analog and inhibits
[...] is an antimetabolite antineoplastic that functions as a

Folic Acid analog and inhibits Dihydrofolate Reductase.
Thereby eventually leading to decreased dTMP and

less DNA and protein synthesis.
What is the normal primary function of Antithrombin III
(ATIII)?
What is the normal primary function of Antithrombin III

(ATIII)?
Irreversible suicide inhibition of Factors II, IX, X, XI,

and XII
[...]
Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator

(SERM) antineoplastic drug that is used to treat breast
cancer.
[...] is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

antineoplastic drug that is used to treat breast cancer.
What type of antineoplastic is Busulfan?
What type of antineoplastic is Busulfan?
Alkylating agent
[...]
What is a serious adverse effect of Bleomycin treatment? What is a serious adverse effect of Bleomycin treatment?
Pulmonary Fibrosis/Toxicity
[...]
Enoxaparin and Dalteparin are low-molecular-weight [...] and Dalteparin are low-molecular-weight heparins
heparins (LMWH) that function similarly to normal
(LMWH) that function similarly to normal Heparin
Heparin (HMWH), however they act more on Factor Xa.
(HMWH), however they act more on Factor Xa.
They also have better bioavailability and 2-4x longer
half-life.
ROA is SC.
No laboratory monitoring is required.
Enoxaparin and Dalteparin are low-molecular-weight Enoxaparin and [...] are low-molecular-weight heparins
heparins (LMWH) that function similarly to normal
(LMWH) that function similarly to normal Heparin
Heparin (HMWH), however they act more on Factor Xa.
(HMWH), however they act more on Factor Xa.
They also have better bioavailability and 2-4x longer
half-life.
ROA is SC.
No laboratory monitoring is required.
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Daunorubicin?
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Daunorubicin?
Cytotoxic antibiotic
[...]
Busulfan is an alkylating antineoplastic agent used to treat

CML.
[...] is an alkylating antineoplastic agent used to treat

CML.
Which phase of the cell cycle does Hydroxyurea act in?
Which phase of the cell cycle does Hydroxyurea act in?
S-phase
[...]
What is the duration of action of Heparin?
What is the duration of action of Heparin?
Acute (only lasts for a few hours)
[...]
What is the MOA of Mercaptopurine?
What is the MOA of Mercaptopurine?
Inhibition of PRPP-Synthetase and PRPPAmidotransferase
[...]
Thromboxane A2 is a pro-coagulant compound made by

Cyclooxygenase that stimulates platelet aggregation.
[...] is a pro-coagulant compound made by

Cyclooxygenase that stimulates platelet aggregation.
Aspirin decreases TXA2 levels.

Which coagulation factors do Vitamin K antagonists
affect?
Which coagulation factors do Vitamin K antagonists

affect?
Factors II, VII, IX and X
[...]
What is the primary clinical use of Rituximab?
What is the primary clinical use of Rituximab?
Non-hodgkin lymphoma (CD20+ B-cell types)
[...]
What is the clinical use of Busulfan?
What is the clinical use of Busulfan?
CML; ablation of patient's bone marrow before bone

marrow transplant
[...]
What chemotoxicity is associated with

Cyclophosphamide?
What chemotoxicity is associated with

Cyclophosphamide?
Hemorrhagic Cystitis
[...]
Remember, the bleeding is from the bladder.

Which coagulation factor is primarily targeted by Heparin Which coagulation factor is primarily targeted by Heparin
(HWMH)?
(HWMH)?
Thrombin (Factor IIa) and Factor Xa
[...]
What is the toxicity of Busulfan at the skin?
What is the toxicity of Busulfan at the skin?
Hyperpigmentation
[...]
What is the clinical use of Irinotecan?
What is the clinical use of Irinotecan?
Colon Cancer
[...]
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Etoposide?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Etoposide?
Inhibition of Topoisomerase II, thereby causing an

increase in DNA degradation
[...]
ETOPOside inhibits TOPOisomerase II.

Which type of Heparin has better bioavailability and 2-4x Which type of Heparin has better bioavailability and 2-4x
longer half-life?
longer half-life?
LMWH
[...]
What is the primary function of Protein C and Protein S?
What is the primary function of Protein C and Protein S?
Inactivation of Factors Va and VIIIa
[...]
Dabigatran etexilate is an antocoagulant that is a prodrug. [...] is an antocoagulant that is a prodrug. Once activated it
Once activated it directly inhibits both free and clotdirectly inhibits both free and clot-bound thrombin.
bound thrombin.
Bleomycin is a bone-marrow sparing cytotoxic antibiotic [...] is a bone-marrow sparing cytotoxic antibiotic used
used in cancer chemotherapy.
in cancer chemotherapy.
What is the MOA of Vemurafenib?
What is the MOA of Vemurafenib?
Inhibition of B-Raf kinase with V600E mutations
[...]
What is the MOA of Busulfan?
What is the MOA of Busulfan?
Cross-links DNA
[...]
What is the MOA of Flutamide?
Inhibits the translocation of steroid receptors to the

nucleus
[...]
What is the anticoagulant of choice for the prevention of

stroke in atrial fibrillation patients?
What is the anticoagulant of choice for the prevention of

stroke in atrial fibrillation patients?
Warfarin
[...]
What is the MOA of Tamoxifen at the breasts?
What is the MOA of Tamoxifen at the breasts?
Estrogen receptor antagonist
[...]
What type of antineoplastic is Methotrexate (MTX)?
What type of antineoplastic is Methotrexate (MTX)?
Antimetabolite
[...]
Besides myelosuppression, what is a serious adverse

effect of Mercaptopurine?

effect of Mercaptopurine?
Hepatotoxic-Cholestasis
[...]
What is the antidote to Heparin?
What is the antidote to Heparin?
Protamine Sulfate
[...]
A positively charged moc that binds to negatively

charged Heparin.
What is the MOA of 5-Fluorouracil (5FU)?
What is the MOA of 5-Fluorouracil (5FU)?
Inhibition of Thymidylate Synthase via covalently

complexing with Folic Acid
[...]
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Topotecan?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Topotecan?
Inhibition of Topoisomerase I, thereby preventing DNA

unwinding and replication
[...]
What is the half-life of Heparin?
What is the half-life of Heparin?
Short
[...]
What is the MOA of Trastuzumab (Herceptin)?
Targets and inhibits HER-2, a tyrosine kinase receptor

commonly overexpressed in breast cancer
[...]
There is also an element of antibody-dependent

cytotoxicity involved.
What is the MOA of Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)?
What is the MOA of Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)?
Free radical generation to cause DNA strand breaks,

Intercalation of DNA leading to inhibition of
Topoisomerase II
[...]
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'BEP' used What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'BEP' used
to treat?
to treat?
Testicular Cancer
[...]
Rituximab is a monoclonal anti-CD20 antibody used to

treat Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma.
[...] is a monoclonal anti-CD20 antibody used to treat

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma.
What is the anticoagulant of choice to achieve

immediate anticoagulation?
What is the anticoagulant of choice to achieve

immediate anticoagulation?
Heparin
[...]
What type of antineoplastic is Daunorubicin?
What type of antineoplastic is Daunorubicin?
Antitumour antibiotic
[...]
How does Bleeding Time (BT) change after Aspirin

administration?
How does Bleeding Time (BT) change after Aspirin

administration?
Increase
[...]
Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation.

What is the primary toxicity of Cytarabine?
What is the primary toxicity of Cytarabine?
Pancytopenia
[...]
CYTarabine causes panCYTopenia.

HER-2 (c-erbB2) is a tyrosine kinase receptor that is
commonly overexpressed in breast cancer and is targeted
in breast cancer treatment.
[...] is a tyrosine kinase receptor that is commonly

overexpressed in breast cancer and is targeted in breast
cancer treatment.
What type of antineoplastic is Dactinomycin?
What type of antineoplastic is Dactinomycin?
[...]
What type of alkylating antineoplastic agent is Carmustine? What type of alkylating antineoplastic agent is Carmustine?
Nitrosourea
[...]
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'CHOP'

used to treat?
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'CHOP'

used to treat?
Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
[...]
What type of antineoplastic is Doxorubicin?
What type of antineoplastic is Doxorubicin?
[...]
What is the MOA of Abciximab?
What is the MOA of Abciximab?
Binding to GpIIb/IIIa on activated platelets, thereby

preventing platelet aggregation
[...]
What is the MOA of Methrotrexate (MTX)?
What is the MOA of Methrotrexate (MTX)?
Inhibition of Dihydrofolate Reductase (as a Folic Acid

analog)
[...]
Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus are immunosuppressants

that are the drugs of choice in organ transplants, GVHD
and autoimmune disorders.
[...] and Tacrolimus are immunosuppressants that are the

drugs of choice in organ transplants, GVHD and
autoimmune disorders.
Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus are immunosuppressants

that are the drugs of choice in organ transplants, GVHD
and autoimmune disorders.
Cyclosporine and [...] are immunosuppressants that are

the drugs of choice in organ transplants, GVHD and
autoimmune disorders.
Apixaban and Rivaroxaban are anticoagulants that function [...] and Rivaroxaban are anticoagulants that function by
by binding to and directly inhibiting the activity of Factor binding to and directly inhibiting the activity of Factor Xa.
Xa.
ApiXaban and RivaroXaban target Factor Xa.
Apixaban and [...] are anticoagulants that function by
binding to and directly inhibiting the activity of Factor Xa.
Apixaban and Rivaroxaban are anticoagulants that function

by binding to and directly inhibiting the activity of Factor
Xa.
Amifostine is an antidote for Cisplatin treatment to
counteract nephrotoxicity.
[...] is an antidote for Cisplatin treatment to counteract

nephrotoxicity.
What is the treatment for Thrombolytic toxicity?
What is the treatment for Thrombolytic toxicity?
Aminocaproic Acid
[...]
What do the IgG antibodies in Heparin-induced

Thrombocytopenia (HIT) target?
What do the IgG antibodies in Heparin-induced

Thrombocytopenia (HIT) target?
Heparin bound to platelet factor 4 (PF4)
[...]
Then, the antibody-heparin-pf4 complex activated

platelets and thrombosis occurs.
What is the onset of action of Heparin?
What is the onset of action of Heparin?
Rapid; within seconds
[...]
Sirolimus is an immunosuppresant that binds to mTOR and

exhibits minimal nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity.
[...] is an immunosuppresant that binds to mTOR and

exhibits minimal nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity.
Which bleeding parameter do we use to monitor the effect Which bleeding parameter do we use to monitor the effect
of Warfarin/Coumadin?
of Warfarin/Coumadin?
PT
[...]
Mesna is a thiol drug that is used to partially prevent the

Hemorrhagic Cystitis caused by Cyclophosphamide and
Ifosfamide by binding to toxic metabolites.
[...] is a thiol drug that is used to partially prevent the

Hemorrhagic Cystitis caused by Cyclophosphamide and
Ifosfamide by binding to toxic metabolites.
How does Aspirin inhibit platelet aggregation?
How does Aspirin inhibit platelet aggregation?
Inhibition of Thromboxane A2 production
[...]
What is the MOA of Platelet ADP Receptor Inhibitors

(Clopidogrel; Ticlopidine; Prasugrel; Ticagrelor)?
What is the MOA of Platelet ADP Receptor Inhibitors

(Clopidogrel; Ticlopidine; Prasugrel; Ticagrelor)?
Inhibition of platelet aggregation by irrevesible blocking of

ADP receptors; Inhibitiong of Fibrinogen binding by
preventing GpIIb/IIIa from binding to fibrinogen
[...]
What is the major toxicity of Daunorubicin?
What is the major toxicity of Daunorubicin?
Cardiotoxicity (Dilated Cardiomyopathy)
[...]
DoxoRUBicin; rub = red = heart

What is the MOA of Vinca Alkaloids in Cancer
Chemotherapy?
What is the MOA of Vinca Alkaloids in Cancer

Chemotherapy?
Binding to Tubulin and inhibiting MT polymerization
[...]
What is the primary toxicity of Busulfan?
What is the primary toxicity of Busulfan?
Severe myelosuppression in almost all cases
[...]
Hence the clinical use of this drug to ablate a patient's

bone marrow prior to bone marrow transplantation
What is the major toxicity of Methotrexate (MTX)?
What is the major toxicity of Methotrexate (MTX)?
Myelosuppression
[...]
What is the MOA of Antithymocyte and Antilymphocyte

Immunoglobulins?
What is the MOA of Antithymocyte and Antilymphocyte

Immunoglobulins?
Binding to and destruction of T cells via complement

activation
[...]
Lepirudin is an anticoagulant that binds to the active site of

thrombin, thereby inhibiting it.
[...] is an anticoagulant that binds to the active site of

thrombin, thereby inhibiting it.
How does platelet count change after the administration of How does platelet count change after the administration of
Thrombolytics?
Thrombolytics?
No change
[...]
It's logical to think (at least for me) that if you're

breaking down more clots that then more platelets
would be used, but don't fall into that trap.
Thrombopoietin is an immunostimulant that stimulates the [...] is an immunostimulant that stimulates the production of
production of megakaryocytes.
megakaryocytes.
Cilostazol and Dipyridamole are anti-platelet drugs that
can cause nausea, headache, facial flushing, hypotension
and abdominal pain, all due to their ability to cause
vasodilation.
[...] and Dipyridamole are anti-platelet drugs that can

cause nausea, headache, facial flushing, hypotension and
abdominal pain, all due to their ability to cause
vasodilation.

can cause nausea, headache, facial flushing, hypotension
and abdominal pain, all due to their ability to cause
vasodilation.
Cilostazol and [...] are anti-platelet drugs that can cause

nausea, headache, facial flushing, hypotension and
abdominal pain, all due to their ability to cause
vasodilation.
Alteplase is a thrombolytic and is recombinant human tPA.
[...] is a thrombolytic and is recombinant human tPA.
What type of anticoagulant is Alteplase (tPA)?
What type of anticoagulant is Alteplase (tPA)?
[...]
Which antitumour antibiotics are used to treat Solid

Tumours in addition to Leukemias and Lymphomas?
Which antitumour antibiotics are used to treat Solid

Tumours in addition to Leukemias and Lymphomas?
Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin
[...]
Which coagulation factor is primarily targeted by

Enoxaparin and Dalteparin (LMWH)?
Which coagulation factor is primarily targeted by

Enoxaparin and Dalteparin (LMWH)?
Factor Xa
[...]
What stage of platelet plug formation is inhibited by

Aspirin?

Aspirin?
Platelet aggregation
[...]
Topotecan is an antineoplastic that inhibits Topoisomerase [...] is an antineoplastic that inhibits Topoisomerase I and
I and is used in Ovarian and Small Cell Cancer of the lung. is used in Ovarian and Small Cell Cancer of the lung.
What is the toxicity of Rituximab?
What is the toxicity of Rituximab?
Increased risk of Progressive Multifocal

Leukoencephalopathy (PML)
[...]
Which form of Heparin does not require laboratory

monitoring?
Which form of Heparin does not require laboratory

monitoring?
LMWH
[...]
What is the toxicity of Trastuzumab (Herceptin)?
What is the toxicity of Trastuzumab (Herceptin)?
Cardiotoxicity
[...]
Herceptin = HEARTceptin = damaged the heart

Choriocarcinoma is a germ cell tumour that can be treated
with Methotrexate (MTX).
[...] is a germ cell tumour that can be treated with

Methotrexate (MTX).
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Bleomycin?
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Bleomycin?
[...]
What is a serious adverse effect of Asparaginase in cancer What is a serious adverse effect of Asparaginase in cancer
chemotherapy?
chemotherapy?
Acute Pancreatitis
[...]
Aspirin is an antiplatelet drug that functions as an

anticoagulant by irreversibly inhibiting Cyclooxygenase
(both COX1 and COX2) by covalent acetylation.
[...] is an antiplatelet drug that functions as an anticoagulant

by irreversibly inhibiting Cyclooxygenase (both COX1 and
COX2) by covalent acetylation.
Platelets do not re-synthesize new enzyme, hence the

effect will last until new platelets are made.
Tomoxifen is an anti-estrogen cancer chemotherapy that
blocks the binding of Estrogen to Estrogen Receptors.
[...] is an anti-estrogen cancer chemotherapy that blocks

the binding of Estrogen to Estrogen Receptors.
Useful in Estrogen Receptor positive breast carcinoma

What chemotoxicity is associated with Trastuzumab?
What chemotoxicity is associated with Trastuzumab?
Cardiotoxicity
[...]
DNA fragmentation through free radical formation
[...]
What is the toxicity of Heparin at bone?
What is the toxicity of Heparin at bone?
Osteoporosis
[...]
What is the MOA of Heparin?
[...]
What is the MOA of Heparin?

Cofactor for the activation of Antithrombin
Thereby decreasing Thrombin (Factor IIa) and Factor
Xa levels.
What is the MOA of Cyclosporine?
Inhibition of Calcineurin
[...]
Which phase of the cell cycle do Antimetabolite

antineoplastics act in?
Which phase of the cell cycle do Antimetabolite

antineoplastics act in?
S-phase
[...]
Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody against CD20 and is

hence used in many B-cell neoplasms.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody against CD20 and is hence

used in many B-cell neoplasms.
Which purine analog antimetabolite is used to treat SLE?
Which purine analog antimetabolite is used to treat SLE?
Azathioprine
[...]
What is the MOA of Raloxifene at bone?
What is the MOA of Raloxifene at bone?
Estrogen receptor agonist
[...]
Tinnitus is a neurological complication of Aspirin due to

activation of CN VIII.
[...] is a neurological complication of Aspirin due to

activation of CN VIII.
Salicylate induces tinnitus through activation of

cochlear NMDA receptors.
What is the MOA of Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin?
What is the MOA of Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin?
Generation of Free Radicals and Intercalation into DNA
[...]
What is the antidote for 5-Fluorouracil?
What is the antidote for 5-Fluorouracil?
Thymidine
[...]
Cytarabine is an antimetabolite cancer chemotherapy that [...] is an antimetabolite cancer chemotherapy that blocks
blocks DNA strand elongation in AML.
DNA strand elongation in AML.
What is the ROA of Heparin?
What is the ROA of Heparin?
Parenteral (IV; SC)
[...]
What is the MOA of Clopidogrel?
What is the MOA of Clopidogrel?
Inhibition of platelet aggregation by irreversible blocking

ADP receptors on platelets; Inhibits fibrinogen binding by
bloking GpIIb/IIIa expression
[...]
Dactinomycin is an antitumour antibiotic that is commonly [...] is an antitumour antibiotic that is commonly used in
used in childhood tumours such as Wilms tumour, Ewing childhood tumours such as Wilms tumour, Ewing Sarcoma
Sarcoma and Rhabdomyosarcoma.
and Rhabdomyosarcoma.
Children ACT out, get tumours and then receive
DACTinomycin.
Uridine is a drug that can be used as an antidote to treat

5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) overdose.
[...] is a drug that can be used as an antidote to treat 5Fluorouracil (5-FU) overdose.
Bleomycin is an antitumour antibiotic that involves minimal

myelosuppression.
[...] is an antitumour antibiotic that involves minimal

myelosuppression.
[...]
What is the MOA of Prednisone and Prenisolone in the

treatment of cancer?
What is the MOA of Prednisone and Prenisolone in the

treatment of cancer?
May trigger apoptosis; potentially even on nondividing

cells
[...]
Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody used to to treat

Rheumatoid Arthritis and Crohn's Disease by binding to
TNFa.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody used to to treat Rheumatoid

Arthritis and Crohn's Disease by binding to TNFa.
What is the MOA of Reteplase (rPA)?
What is the MOA of Reteplase (rPA)?
Activation/conversion of Plasminogen to Plasmin, which

then cleaves thrombin and fibrin clots
[...]
What is the MOA of Sirolimus (Rapamycin)?
Inhibition of mTOR
[...]
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Dactinomycin?
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Dactinomycin?
[...]
What is the clinical use of Vemurafenib?
What is the clinical use of Vemurafenib?
Metastatic melanoma
[...]
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'PVB' used What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'PVB' used
to treat?
to treat?
Testicular Cancer
[...]
Which enzyme activates the purine analog antimetabolite

antineoplastics (such as Azathioprine, 6-Mercaptopurine
and 6-Thioguanine)?
Which enzyme activates the purine analog antimetabolite

antineoplastics (such as Azathioprine, 6-Mercaptopurine
and 6-Thioguanine)?
HGPRT
[...]
What chemotoxicity is associated with Vincristine?
What chemotoxicity is associated with Vincristine?
Peripheral neuropathy
[...]
What is the MOA of the antineoplastics

Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastics

Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide?
Covalently X-links to DNA at Guanine N7, thereby

causing DNA damage
[...]
Which stage of the cell cycle does Bleomycin inhibit?
Which stage of the cell cycle does Bleomycin inhibit?
G2
[...]
What fusion gene in CML yields the overactive tyrosine

kinase receptor seen?
What fusion gene in CML yields the overactive tyrosine

kinase receptor seen?
bcr-abl
[...]
After complexing with Folic Acid, which enzyme does 5- After complexing with Folic Acid, which enzyme does 5Fluorouracil inhibit?
Fluorouracil inhibit?
Thymidylate Synthase
[...]
Thereby causing decreased dTMP synthesis and

inhibition of protein and DNA synthesis.
Gastric Ulceration is a GI complication of Aspirin
administration due to COX inhibition at the stomach.
[...] is a GI complication of Aspirin administration due to

COX inhibition at the stomach.
What is the pregnancy category of Methotrexate (MTX)? What is the pregnancy category of Methotrexate (MTX)?
X; it is teratogenic and contraindicated
[...]
Hydroxyurea is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits

[...] is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits Ribonucleotide
Ribonucleotide Reductase and is used in Melanoma, CML Reductase and is used in Melanoma, CML and Sickle
and Sickle Cell Disease.
Cell Disease.
What is the MOA of the anti-platelet Dipyridamole?
What is the MOA of the anti-platelet Dipyridamole?
Inhibition of phosphodiesterase III, thereby increasing

[cAMP] in platelets and inhibiting platelet aggregation
[...]
Aspirin is an anti-platelet drug that is also used as an antipyretic, analgesic and anti-inflammatory.
[...] is an anti-platelet drug that is also used as an antipyretic, analgesic and anti-inflammatory.
Mesna is an antidote for Cyclophosphamide treatment. It

conjugates Acrolein, a toxic metabolite, in the urine to
reduce hemorrhagic cystitis and hematuria.
[...] is an antidote for Cyclophosphamide treatment. It

Mesna is an antidote for Cyclophosphamide treatment. It Mesna is an antidote for Cyclophosphamide treatment. It
conjugates [...], a toxic metabolite, in the urine to reduce
hemorrhagic cystitis and hematuria.
Imiquimod is an immunostimulant given topically to treat
HPV genital warts.
[...] is an immunostimulant given topically to treat HPV

genital warts.

GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors?

GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors?
[...]
Inhibition of Calcineurin
[...]
What type of antineoplastic drug is Vinblastine?
What type of antineoplastic drug is Vinblastine?
Vinca alkaloid; microtubule inhibitor
[...]
Which microtubule inhibiting antineoplastics are used in

ovarian and breast carcinomas?
Which microtubule inhibiting antineoplastics are used in

ovarian and breast carcinomas?
Paclitaxel and other taxols
[...]

that is used in abortion and ectopic pregnancy.
[...] is an antimetabolite antineoplastic that is used in

abortion and ectopic pregnancy.
Antimetabolites are a type of Antineoplastic drugs that

inhibits nucleotide synthesis.
[...] are a type of Antineoplastic drugs that inhibits

nucleotide synthesis.
Which antimetabolite antineoplastics are used as

immunosuppressants in organ rejection, Rheumatoid
Arthritis and SLE?
Which antimetabolite antineoplastics are used as

immunosuppressants in organ rejection, Rheumatoid
Arthritis and SLE?
Purine analogs (Azathioprine; 6-Mercaptopurine; 6Thioguanine)
[...]
Flutamide is an androgen antagonist used to treat prostate

cancer.
[...] is an androgen antagonist used to treat prostate

cancer.
Flutamide is an androgen antagonist used to treat prostate

cancer.
Flutamide is an androgen antagonist used to treat [...]

cancer.
What is a serious adverse effect associated with

Ticlopidine (Platelet ADP Receptor Inhibitor)?
What is a serious adverse effect associated with

Ticlopidine (Platelet ADP Receptor Inhibitor)?
Neutropenia
[...]
Daunorubicin is used in the Tx of Leukemia
Daunorubicin is used in the Tx of [...]
What stage of platelet plug formation is inhibited by ADP What stage of platelet plug formation is inhibited by ADP
Receptor Inhibitors (Clopidogrel; Ticlopidine)?
Receptor Inhibitors (Clopidogrel; Ticlopidine)?
[...]
What is the toxicity of Etoposide and Teniposide at the

skin?
What is the toxicity of Etoposide and Teniposide at the

skin?
Alopecia
[...]
What drug is used as a rapid antidote to Heparin?
What drug is used as a rapid antidote to Heparin?
Protamine sulphate
[...]
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Cytarabine?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Cytarabine?
Inhibition of DNA polymerase (as a pyrimidine analog)
[...]
Which stage of the cell cycle does Etoposide inhibit?
Which stage of the cell cycle does Etoposide inhibit?
S; G2
[...]
What is the MOA of Tenecteplase (TNK-tPA)?
What is the MOA of Tenecteplase (TNK-tPA)?

[...]
How does PTT change after Aspirin administration?

[...]
How does PTT change after Aspirin administration?

No change
Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation. PTT measures
coagulation!!
What chemotoxicity is associated with Bleomycin and
Busulfan?
What chemotoxicity is associated with Bleomycin and

Busulfan?
Pulmonary Fibrosis
[...]
What protein does Tacrolimus bind to before inhibiting

Calcineurin?
What protein does Tacrolimus bind to before inhibiting

Calcineurin?
FK Binding Protein (FKBP12)
[...]
Dactinomycin and Doxorubicin are antitumour antibiotics [...] and Doxorubicin are antitumour antibiotics that inhibit
that inhibit cellular proliferation by intercalating DNA.
cellular proliferation by intercalating DNA.
Dactinomycin and Doxorubicin are antitumour antibiotics
that inhibit cellular proliferation by intercalating DNA.
Dactinomycin and [...] are antitumour antibiotics that

inhibit cellular proliferation by intercalating DNA.
Vincristine and Vinblastine are microtubule inhibiting

antineoplastic drugs that bind to and inhibit -tubulin,
thereby inhibiting microtubule polymerization and mitotic
spindle formation.
[...] and Vinblastine are microtubule inhibiting

spindle formation.
Hence they act in the M-phase

Vincristine and Vinblastine are microtubule inhibiting
spindle formation.
Vincristine and [...] are microtubule inhibiting

spindle formation.
Hence they act in the M-phase

What is the MOA of Aldesleukin?
What is the MOA of Aldesleukin?
Promotes differentiation of lymphoid cells into cytotoxic

cells; Activation of NK cells
[...]
It is recombinant IL-2
Protamine sulphate is a drug used as an antidote to
Heparin as it binds to and neutralizes Heparin.
[...] is a drug used as an antidote to Heparin as it binds to

and neutralizes Heparin.
5-Fluorouracil is an antimetabolite antineoplastic that acts

[...] is an antimetabolite antineoplastic that acts as a
as a pyrimidine analog and is bioactivated into 5F-dUMP
pyrimidine analog and is bioactivated into 5F-dUMP
which complexes with Folic Acid and inhibits thymidylate which complexes with Folic Acid and inhibits thymidylate
synthase.
synthase.
What type of antineoplastic is 5-Fluorouracil (5FU)?
What type of antineoplastic is 5-Fluorouracil (5FU)?
Antimetabolite
[...]
What is the MOA of Aminocaproic Acid?
What is the MOA of Aminocaproic Acid?
Inhibition of plasminogen activation and hence inhibition of

Fibrinolysis
[...]
What is the pregnancy category of Warfarin?
What is the pregnancy category of Warfarin?
X (contraindicated)
[...]
Can freely cross the placenta and is teratogenic

How does the drug Allopurinol affect Azathioprine and 6- How does the drug Allopurinol affect Azathioprine and 6Mercaptopurine toxicity?
Mercaptopurine toxicity?
Increased; Allopurinol inhibits Xanthine Oxidase which
metabolizes both Azathioprine and 6-Mercaptopurine
[...]
What is the MOA of Warfarin?
What is the MOA of Warfarin?
Inhibition of normal synthesis and -carboxylation of

Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors by acting at a
Vitamin K antagonist
[...]
Factors II, VII, IX and X as well as Protein C and S.

What is the MOA of Rituximab in the Tx of NonHodgkin's Lymphoma?
What is the MOA of Rituximab in the Tx of NonHodgkin's Lymphoma?
Binding to CD20+ follicular B cells, causing destruction
[...]
What type of anaemia is associated with Cytarabine?
What type of anaemia is associated with Cytarabine?
Megaloblastic Anaemia
[...]
As part of a pancytopenia
What is the primary toxicity of Vincristine?
What is the primary toxicity of Vincristine?
Neurotoxicity (areflexia, peripheral neuritis); and also

paralytic ileus
[...]
Cytarabine is a pyrimidine analog antimetabolite

antineoplastic. What enzyme does it inhibit?
Cytarabine is a pyrimidine analog antimetabolite

antineoplastic. What enzyme does it inhibit?
DNA Polymerase
[...]
What is the half-life of Warfarin?
What is the half-life of Warfarin?
Long
[...]
What type of alkylating antineoplastic agent is Lomustine? What type of alkylating antineoplastic agent is Lomustine?
Nitrosourea
[...]
Vincristine is a bone marrow sparing vinca alkaloid used

for cancer chemotherapy.
[...] is a bone marrow sparing vinca alkaloid used for

cancer chemotherapy.
What type of antiplatelet/anticoagulant is Prasugrel?
What type of antiplatelet/anticoagulant is Prasugrel?
ADP receptor inhibitor
[...]
[...] is an anticoagulant that is used to treat and prevent PE
by directly binding to and inhibiting the activity of Factor
Xa.
Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant that is used to treat and

prevent PE by directly binding to and inhibiting the activity
of Factor Xa.
Which stage of the cell cycle do Vinca Alkaloids and
Taxols inhibit?
Which stage of the cell cycle do Vinca Alkaloids and

Taxols inhibit?
[...]
Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a monoclonal antibody against [...] is a monoclonal antibody against HER-2, a tyrosine
HER-2, a tyrosine kinase receptor commonly
kinase receptor commonly overexpressed in breast
overexpressed in breast cancer.
cancer.
There is also an element of antibody-dependent
cytotoxicity involved.
What chemotoxicity is associated with Doxorubicin (and
Daunorubicin)?
What chemotoxicity is associated with Doxorubicin (and

Daunorubicin)?
Cardiotoxicity (dilated cardiomyopathy)
[...]
Which coagulation test is used to gauge the action of

Heparin?

Heparin?
PTT
[...]
3 letters = Hep = PTT

What is the MOA of Argatroban and Bivalirudin (hirudin What is the MOA of Argatroban and Bivalirudin (hirudin
anticoagulants)?
anticoagulants)?
Direct inhibition of Thrombin (Factor IIa)
[...]
Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase (both COX1 and

COX2) via covalent acetylation
[...]
What is the primary clinical use of Trastuzumab

(Heceptin)?
What is the primary clinical use of Trastuzumab

(Heceptin)?
HER-2 positive breast cancer
[...]
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) is a

CNS disorder that has an increase risk of manifesting
following Rituximab administration.
[...] is a CNS disorder that has an increase risk of

manifesting following Rituximab administration.
Reye Syndrome is a potential, serious complication of

Aspirin use in children with viral infections.
[...] is a potential, serious complication of Aspirin use in

Etanercept is an immunosuppressant that functions as a

soluble TNF-a Receptor, thereby inhibiting the
proinflammatory response.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that functions as a soluble

TNF-a Receptor, thereby inhibiting the proinflammatory
response.
HER-2 Receptor binding, preventing tumour growth
[...]
Besides myelosuppression, what is the serious adverse

effect of Daunorubicin?

effect of Daunorubicin?
Cardiotoxicity
[...]
'rub' = ruby = red = heart

What is the toxicity of Irinotecan and Topotecan at the GI What is the toxicity of Irinotecan and Topotecan at the GI
tract?
tract?
Diarrhea
[...]
What is the antidote for Cyclophosphamide?
What is the antidote for Cyclophosphamide?
Mesna
[...]
What is MOA of Cyclophosphamide?
What is MOA of Cyclophosphamide?
Formation of Carbonium ions with Guanine-N7
[...]
Apixaban and Rivaroxaban are anticoagulants used to [...] and Rivaroxaban are anticoagulants used to treat and
treat and prevent DVT and stroke in A-fib patients by
prevent DVT and stroke in A-fib patients by binding to
and directly inhibiting the activity of Factor Xa.
Apixaban and Rivaroxaban are anticoagulants used to
treat and prevent DVT and stroke in A-fib patients by
Apixaban and [...] are anticoagulants used to treat and

prevent DVT and stroke in A-fib patients by binding to
and directly inhibiting the activity of Factor Xa.

What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'CP' used
to treat?
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'CP' used

to treat?
Ovarian Cancer
[...]
I want to be near CP's ovaries.

Busulfan is an alkylating antineoplastic agent that is used to
ablate a patient's bone marrow before bone marrow
transplantation.
[...] is an alkylating antineoplastic agent that is used to

ablate a patient's bone marrow before bone marrow
transplantation.
What is the primary toxicity of Vinblastine?
What is the primary toxicity of Vinblastine?
Myelosuppression
[...]
Vinblastine blasts bone

What stage of platelet plug formation do Cilostazol and
Dipyridamole inhibit?
What stage of platelet plug formation do Cilostazol and

Dipyridamole inhibit?
[...]
All antiplatelet drugs inhibits platelet aggregation

What type of alkylating antineoplastic agents are used
primarily to treat brain cancer, including Glioblastoma
Multiforme?
What type of alkylating antineoplastic agents are used

primarily to treat brain cancer, including Glioblastoma
Multiforme?
Nitrosoureas (Carmustine, Lomustine, Semustine,

Streptozocin)
[...]
Cilostazol and Dipyridamole are anti-platelet drugs that act [...] and Dipyridamole are anti-platelet drugs that act at
at anticoagulants by inhibiting phopshodiesterase III,
anticoagulants by inhibiting phopshodiesterase III, thereby
thereby increasing [cAMP] in platelets and preventing
increasing [cAMP] in platelets and preventing platelet
platelet aggregation.
aggregation.
Cilostazol and Dipyridamole are anti-platelet drugs that act
Cilostazol and [...] are anti-platelet drugs that act at
at anticoagulants by inhibiting phopshodiesterase III,
anticoagulants by inhibiting phopshodiesterase III, thereby
thereby increasing [cAMP] in platelets and preventing
increasing [cAMP] in platelets and preventing platelet
platelet aggregation.
aggregation.
Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide are alkylating
[...] and Ifosfamide are alkylating antineoplastic agents that
antineoplastic agents that require bioactivation by the liver.
require bioactivation by the liver.
Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide are alkylating
Cyclophosphamide and [...] are alkylating antineoplastic
antineoplastic agents that require bioactivation by the liver.
agents that require bioactivation by the liver.
What type of antineoplastic drug is Vincristine?
What type of antineoplastic drug is Vincristine?
Vinca Alkaloid; Microtubule inhibitor
[...]
Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets TNFalpha, thereby preventing the inflammatory response.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody that targets TNF-alpha,

thereby preventing the inflammatory response.
What are the adverse effects associated with Busulfan?
What are the adverse effects associated with Busulfan?
Pulmonary Fibrosis
[...]
What type of antiplatelet/anticoagulant is Ticagrelor?
What type of antiplatelet/anticoagulant is Ticagrelor?
ADP Receptor inhibitor
[...]
Desmopressin is a drug used to treat von Willebrand's

Disease by increasing vWF release from Weibel-Palade
bodies.
[...] is a drug used to treat von Willebrand's Disease by

increasing vWF release from Weibel-Palade bodies.
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Cisplatin?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Cisplatin?
Cross-linking of DNA
[...]
Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating antineoplastic agent [...] is an alkylating antineoplastic agent that functions by
that functions by covalently X-linking DNA at Guanine Ncovalently X-linking DNA at Guanine N-7, thereby
7, thereby damaging DNA.
damaging DNA.
What is the most common adverse effect with Warfarin
use?
What is the most common adverse effect with Warfarin

use?
Bleeding
[...]
What type of antineoplastic is Bleomycin?
What type of antineoplastic is Bleomycin?
[...]
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Methotrexate?
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Methotrexate?
Anti-metabolite
[...]
What is the MOA of Muromonab-CD3?
What is the MOA of Muromonab-CD3?
Initiation of T-cell apoptosis via ADCC by binding to

CD3
[...]
What is the onset of action of Warfarin?
What is the onset of action of Warfarin?
Slow
[...]
Warfarin is able to stop synthesis right away, but it's

effect is limited by the half-lives of normal clotting
factors that were made before Warfarin
administration.
What renal chemotoxicity is associated with Cisplatin and What renal chemotoxicity is associated with Cisplatin and
Carboplatin?
Carboplatin?
Nephrotoxicity
[...]
What is the primary toxicity of Nitrosoureas (Carmustine, What is the primary toxicity of Nitrosoureas (Carmustine,
Lomustine)?
Lomustine)?
CNS toxicity such as convulsions, dizziness, ataxia
[...]
Interferon-beta is an immunostimulant used to treat

Multiple Sclerosis.
[...] is an immunostimulant used to treat Multiple Sclerosis.
What is the mechanism of action of Heparin?
What is the mechanism of action of Heparin?
Activation of Antithrombin III
[...]
What is a serious adverse effect of Vincristine?
What is a serious adverse effect of Vincristine?
Neurotoxicity
[...]
Which purine analog antimetabolite is the prodrug form of Which purine analog antimetabolite is the prodrug form of
6-Mercaptopurine?
6-Mercaptopurine?
Azathioprine
[...]
Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a monoclonal Ab used to treat

breast cancer.
[...] is a monoclonal Ab used to treat breast cancer.
What are the serious adverse effect of Cisplatin treatment? What are the serious adverse effect of Cisplatin treatment?
Nephrotoxicity and Ototoxicity
[...]
Where in the body does Warfarin act?
Where in the body does Warfarin act?
Liver (at the level of coagulation factor synthesis)
[...]
And Protein C and S!

What is group of adverse effects are seen following
Prednisone and Prednisolone treatment?
What is group of adverse effects are seen following

Prednisone and Prednisolone treatment?
Cushling-like symptoms (weight gain, central obesity,

muscle breakdown, cataracts, acne, osteoporosis, HTN,
peptic ulcers, hyperglycemia, psychosis)
[...]
Photosensitivity is a neurological complication of 5Fluorouracil that involves an increased sensitivity to light.
[...] is a neurological complication of 5-Fluorouracil that

involves an increased sensitivity to light.
Which microtubule inhibiting antineoplastic drugs inhibiting Which microtubule inhibiting antineoplastic drugs inhibiting
the polymerization of microtubules and hence mitotic
the polymerization of microtubules and hence mitotic
spindle formation?
spindle formation?
Vinca Alkaloids (Vincristine; Vinblastine)
[...]
What common gene mutation in GI stromal tumours yields What common gene mutation in GI stromal tumours yields
an overactive tyrosine kinase receptor?
an overactive tyrosine kinase receptor?
c-Kit
[...]
Which coagulation factors does High Molecular Weight

Heparin (HMWH) inhibit?
Which coagulation factors does High Molecular Weight

Heparin (HMWH) inhibit?
Factors II, IX, X, XI, XII
[...]
What is the MOA of Imatinib in both CML and GI

stromal tumours?
What is the MOA of Imatinib in both CML and GI

stromal tumours?
Inhibition of tyrosine kinase
[...]
CML = bcr-abl fusion gene

GI stromal tumours = c-Kit
Hydroxyurea is an antineoplastic agent that is used to treat [...] is an antineoplastic agent that is used to treat Sickle
Sickle Cell Disease as it increases the levels of HbF.
Cell Disease as it increases the levels of HbF.
Dexrazoxane is an antidote for Doxorubicin treatment that [...] is an antidote for Doxorubicin treatment that acts as
acts as an iron chelator and reduces free radical formation.
an iron chelator and reduces free radical formation.
What type of anticoagulant is Tirofiban?
What type of anticoagulant is Tirofiban?
[...]
What is a significant adverse effect of Cyclosporine?
What is a significant adverse effect of Cyclosporine?
Nephrotoxicity
[...]
Where in the body does Heparin act?
Where in the body does Heparin act?
The blood (via Antithrombin)
[...]
Basal Cell Carcinoma is a skin cancer that can be treated

with 5-Fluorouracil (5FU).
[...] is a skin cancer that can be treated with 5Fluorouracil (5FU).
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'MOPP'

used to treat?
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'MOPP'

used to treat?
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
[...]
Which stage of the cell cycle do Antitumour Antibiotics

inhibit?
Which stage of the cell cycle do Antitumour Antibiotics

inhibit?
G1
[...]
Which type of anticoagulants are preferred to be used in

Acute Coronary SYndrome and Coronary Stenting?
Which type of anticoagulants are preferred to be used in

Acute Coronary SYndrome and Coronary Stenting?
ADP Receptor Inhibitors such as Clopidogrel and

Ticlopidine
[...]
What type of anticoagulant is Eptifibatide?
What type of anticoagulant is Eptifibatide?
[...]
What type of cancer chemotherapy is 5-Fluorouracil?
What type of cancer chemotherapy is 5-Fluorouracil?
Anti-metabolite
[...]
Tamoxifen and Raloxifene are selective estrogen receptor

modulators (SERMs) that are used to treat estrogensensitive cancers.
[...] and Raloxifene are selective estrogen receptor

Antagonists at the breast but agonists at the bone.

Tamoxifen and Raloxifene are selective estrogen receptor
Tamoxifen and [...] are selective estrogen receptor

Antagonists at the breast but agonists at the bone.

What type of cancer chemotherapy is Fulvestrant?
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Fulvestrant?
Anti-estrogen
[...]
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that is

biotransformed to Mercaptopurine which then inhibits
PRPP Synthetase and PRPP Deaminase.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that is biotransformed to

Mercaptopurine which then inhibits PRPP Synthetase and
PRPP Deaminase.
What is the chemotoxicity associated with 6Mercaptopurine (6-MP)?
What is the chemotoxicity associated with 6Mercaptopurine (6-MP)?
Myelosuppression
[...]
Which stage of the cell cycle do Antimetabolites inhibit?
Which stage of the cell cycle do Antimetabolites inhibit?
[...]
What is the MOA of Ticlopidine?
What is the MOA of Ticlopidine?
Inhibition of platelet aggregation by irreversibly blocking

ADP receptors; Inhibits fibrinogen binding by preventing
GpIIb/IIIa from binding to fibrinogen
[...]

effect of Doxorubicin?

effect of Doxorubicin?
Cardiotoxicity
[...]
'rub' = ruby = red = heart

What is the most common adverse effect of Apixaban and What is the most common adverse effect of Apixaban and
Rivaroxaban (Factor Xa inhibitors)?
Rivaroxaban (Factor Xa inhibitors)?
Bleeding; there is no specific antidote
[...]
Which enzyme metabolizes Azathioprine and 6Mercaptopurine?
Which enzyme metabolizes Azathioprine and 6Mercaptopurine?
Xanthine Oxidase
[...]
Hence Allopurinol, a drug that inhibits Xanthine

Oxidase, will increase the toxicity of both Azathioprine
and 6MP.
What type of alkylating antineoplastic agent is Semustine? What type of alkylating antineoplastic agent is Semustine?
Nitrosourea
[...]
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy "ABVD"

used to treat?
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy "ABVD"

used to treat?
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
[...]
What type of anticoagulant is Reteplase (rPA)?
What type of anticoagulant is Reteplase (rPA)?
[...]
All Vinca Alkaloids and Taxols are M-phase specific

cancer chemotherapeutics.
All Vinca Alkaloids and Taxols are [...]-phase specific

cancer chemotherapeutics.
Bleomycin is an antitumour antibiotic that is used to treat

testicular cancer and Hodgkin lymphoma.
[...] is an antitumour antibiotic that is used to treat

testicular cancer and Hodgkin lymphoma.
Filgrastim is an immunostimulant that stimulates the

production of Neutrophils.
[...] is an immunostimulant that stimulates the production of

Neutrophils.
It is a Granulocyte-CSF.
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'CMF'
used to treat?
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'CMF'

used to treat?
Breast Cancer
[...]
Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator

(SERM) antineoplastic that is associated with an increased antineoplastic that is associated with an increased risk of
risk of endometrial cancer due to partial agonism at the
endometrial cancer due to partial agonism at the
endometrium.
endometrium.
There is also an increase in "hot flashes"
P-Glycoprotein (Pgp) is a drug transporter glycoprotein
that offers cancer cells multi-drug resistance.
[...] is a drug transporter glycoprotein that offers cancer

cells multi-drug resistance.
It is coded by the mdr gene

Which bleeding parameter do we use to monitor the effect Which bleeding parameter do we use to monitor the effect
of Heparin?
of Heparin?
PTT
[...]
Anastrozole is an Aromatase inhibitor, thereby preventing [...] is an Aromatase inhibitor, thereby preventing estrogen
estrogen formation in estrogen-dependent cancers.
formation in estrogen-dependent cancers.
What drug is used to partially prevent the Hemorrhagic
Cystitis caused by Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide?
What drug is used to partially prevent the Hemorrhagic

Cystitis caused by Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide?
Mesna; a thiol drug that binds to toxic metabolites
[...]
Azathioprine and 6-Mercaptopurine are purine analog

[...] and 6-Mercaptopurine are purine analog
antimetabolite antineoplastics that decrease de novo purine antimetabolite antineoplastics that decrease de novo purine
synthesis.
synthesis.
Azathioprine and 6-Mercaptopurine are purine analog
antimetabolite antineoplastics that decrease de novo purine
synthesis.
Azathioprine and [...] are purine analog antimetabolite

antineoplastics that decrease de novo purine synthesis.
What is the clinical use of Raloxifene?
What is the clinical use of Raloxifene?
Prevention of osteoporosis via estrogen agonism at bone
[...]
How does PT change in after Aspirin administration?
How does PT change in after Aspirin administration?
No change
[...]
Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation. PT measures

coagulation!!
effect of Cyclophosphamide?

effect of Cyclophosphamide?
Hemorrhagic cystitis and hematuria
[...]
What type of antineoplastic are Nitrosoureas (Carmustine, What type of antineoplastic are Nitrosoureas (Carmustine,
Lomustine, Semustine, Streptozocin)?
Lomustine, Semustine, Streptozocin)?
Alkylating agents
[...]
Taxols are a type of antineoplastic drugs that inhibit

cellular division by inhibiting microtubule disassembly.
[...] are a type of antineoplastic drugs that inhibit cellular

division by inhibiting microtubule disassembly.
Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody against VEGF that [...] is a monoclonal antibody against VEGF that is used in
is used in solid tumours to inhibit angiogenesis.
solid tumours to inhibit angiogenesis.
Especially used in colorectal cancer and renal cell
carcinoma.
What is the treatment for severe Warfarin overdose?
What is the treatment for severe Warfarin overdose?
Fresh Frozen Plasma
[...]
Followed by Vitamin K
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Mercaptopurine?
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Mercaptopurine?
Anti-metabolite
[...]
What is the major toxicity associated with Doxorubicin?
What is the major toxicity associated with Doxorubicin?
Cardiotoxicity (dilated cardiomyopathy)
[...]
DoxoRUBicin; rub = red = heart

What is the MOA of Hydroxyurea?
What is the MOA of Hydroxyurea?
Inhibition of Ribonucleotide Reductase, thereby leading to

a decrease in DNA synthesis
[...]
S-phase specific
Amifostine is a free radical scavenging drug that can

prevent the nephrotoxicity associated with Cisplatin and
Carboplatin.
[...] is a free radical scavenging drug that can prevent the

nephrotoxicity associated with Cisplatin and Carboplatin.
Leuprolide is a GnRH agonist that shuts down the HPG

axis to treat prostate cancer.
[...] is a GnRH agonist that shuts down the HPG axis to

treat prostate cancer.
In doing so, it inhibits the release of LH and FSH

axis to treat prostate cancer.

axis to treat [...] cancer.
In doing so, it inhibits the release of LH and FSH

What is the toxicity of Bevacizumab?
What is the toxicity of Bevacizumab?
Hemorrhage and impaired wound healing as it binds to

VEGF and inhibits angiogenesis
[...]
Vemurafenib is a small molecular antineoplastic drug that

inhibits forms of the B-Raf kinase with V600E mutations.
[...] is a small molecular antineoplastic drug that inhibits

forms of the B-Raf kinase with V600E mutations.
What CNS chemotoxicity is associated with Cisplatin and What CNS chemotoxicity is associated with Cisplatin and
Carboplatin?
Carboplatin?
Acoustic Nerve Damage
[...]
Interferon-alpha is an immunostimulant used to treat viral

infections, especially HBV and HCV.
[...] is an immunostimulant used to treat viral infections,

especially HBV and HCV.
Pancreatic Cancer is an endocrine cancer that can be

treated with 5-Fluorouracil (5FU).
[...] is an endocrine cancer that can be treated with 5Fluorouracil (5FU).
What is the toxicity of Methotrexate (MTX) at mucous

membranes?
What is the toxicity of Methotrexate (MTX) at mucous

membranes?
Mucositis
[...]
Typically occurs at the oral mucosa and GI tract.

What is the toxicity of Methotrexate (MTX) at the liver?
What is the toxicity of Methotrexate (MTX) at the liver?
Macrovesicular fatty change
[...]
What is the ROA of Warfarin?
What is the ROA of Warfarin?
Oral
[...]
How does PTT change following the administration of

Thrombolytics?
How does PTT change following the administration of

Thrombolytics?
Increase
[...]
Which enzyme involved in nucleotide synthesis is inhibited Which enzyme involved in nucleotide synthesis is inhibited
by Hydroxyurea?
by Hydroxyurea?
Ribonucleotide reductase
[...]
Alkylating Agents are a type of antineoplastic drugs that

damage DNA and inhibit cell proliferation by crosslinking DNA.
[...] are a type of antineoplastic drugs that damage DNA

and inhibit cell proliferation by cross-linking DNA.
What is the antidote to Methotrexate?
What is the antidote to Methotrexate?
Leukovorin/Folinic Acid
[...]
What cutaneous complication is associated with

Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin?
What cutaneous complication is associated with

Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin?
Alopecia
[...]
What are the toxicities associated with Cisplatin and

Carboplatin?
What are the toxicities associated with Cisplatin and

Carboplatin?
Nephrotoxicity; Acoustic Nerve Damage
[...]
Ondansetron is an antidote for Cisplatin that acts as a

powerful antiemetic.
[...] is an antidote for Cisplatin that acts as a powerful

antiemetic.
Which platelet disorder may be seen with ADP Receptor Which platelet disorder may be seen with ADP Receptor
Inhibitor administration?
Inhibitor administration?
TTP/HUS
[...]
Streptokinase is a bacterial protein that complexes with [...] is a bacterial protein that complexes with plasminogen,
plasminogen, thereby activating it.
thereby activating it.
Colon Cancer is a GI cancer that can be treated with 5Fluorouracil (5FU).
[...] is a GI cancer that can be treated with 5-Fluorouracil

(5FU).
What is the MOA of Alteplase?

[...]
What is the MOA of 6-Mercaptopurine?
What is the MOA of 6-Mercaptopurine?
[...]
Interferon-alpha is an immunostimulant that activates

MHC Class I molecules.
[...] is an immunostimulant that activates MHC Class I

molecules.
Prednisone/Prednisolone is a glucocorticoid that is

commonly used in cancer chemotherapy, typically in CLL
and non-Hodgkin lymphomas.
[...] is a glucocorticoid that is commonly used in cancer

chemotherapy, typically in CLL and non-Hodgkin
lymphomas.

also function as vasodilators, as they inhibit
Phosphodiesterase III.
[...] and Dipyridamole are anti-platelet drugs that also

function as vasodilators, as they inhibit Phosphodiesterase
III.

also function as vasodilators, as they inhibit
Phosphodiesterase III.
Cilostazol and [...] are anti-platelet drugs that also function

as vasodilators, as they inhibit Phosphodiesterase III.
Chloride Diuresis is a renal procedure that can be

performed to prevent the nephrotoxicity caused by
Cisplatin and Carboplatin.
[...] is a renal procedure that can be performed to prevent

the nephrotoxicity caused by Cisplatin and Carboplatin.
What phase of the cell cycle do anti-metabolite

chemotherapies have an effect on cancer?
What phase of the cell cycle do anti-metabolite

chemotherapies have an effect on cancer?
S-Phase
[...]
What is a severe adverse effect of Irinotecan and
Topotecan?
[...]
What is a severe adverse effect of Irinotecan and

Topotecan?
Severe myelosuppression
Aminocaproic Acid is a procoagulant that can be used to
[...] is a procoagulant that can be used to treat
treat Thrombolytic toxicity by inhibiting fibrinolysis by Thrombolytic toxicity by inhibiting fibrinolysis by inhibiting
inhibiting plasminogen activation.
plasminogen activation.
Cisplatin is a bone-marrow sparing alkylating agent used
in cancer chemotherapy.
[...] is a bone-marrow sparing alkylating agent used in

cancer chemotherapy.
Dactinomycin (Actinomycin D) is an antitumour antibiotic

that acts through intercalating into DNA.
[...] is an antitumour antibiotic that acts through

intercalating into DNA.
What is the mechanism of action of Warfarin?
What is the mechanism of action of Warfarin?
Inhibition of Vitamin K Epoxide Reductase
[...]
What is the most common side effect of Sirolimus?
What is the most common side effect of Sirolimus?
Hyperlipidemia
[...]
Hypertriglyeridemia and hypercholesterolemia.

Topotecan is a unique cancer chemotherapy that
[...] is a unique cancer chemotherapy that
inhibits Topoisomerase-1. Thereby preventing re-ligation inhibits Topoisomerase-1. Thereby preventing re-ligation
of bits of DNA helices.
It causes the accumulation of single stranded DNA
breaks
inhibits Topoisomerase-1. Thereby preventing re-ligation inhibits [...]. Thereby preventing re-ligation of bits of DNA
helices.
It causes the accumulation of single stranded DNA
breaks
Which anticoagulant is used for chronic anticoagulation?
Which anticoagulant is used for chronic anticoagulation?
Warfarin
[...]
What type of antiplatelet/anticoagulant is Clopidogrel?
What type of antiplatelet/anticoagulant is Clopidogrel?
ADP receptor inhibitor
[...]

that is used in Rheumatoid Arthritis, Psoriasis and IBD.
[...] is an antimetabolite antineoplastic that is used in

Rheumatoid Arthritis, Psoriasis and IBD.
Vinca Alkaloids are a type of antineoplastic drugs that

inhibit cellular division by inhibiting microtubule
formation.
[...] are a type of antineoplastic drugs that inhibit cellular

division by inhibiting microtubule formation.
Aldesleukin is an immunostimulant that is recombinant IL- [...] is an immunostimulant that is recombinant IL-2. It
2. It promotes lymphoid differentiation into cytotoxic cells promotes lymphoid differentiation into cytotoxic cells and
and activates NK cells.
activates NK cells.
Which microtubule inhibiting antineoplastics hyperstabilize
already polymerized microtubules and hence inhibits the
breakdown of mitotic spindles?
[...]
Which microtubule inhibiting antineoplastics hyperstabilize

already polymerized microtubules and hence inhibits the
breakdown of mitotic spindles?
Paclitaxel and other taxols
Thereofre, anaphase cannot occur
How does Aspirin affect acid-base balance?
How does Aspirin affect acid-base balance?
Initially causes Respiratory Alkalosis; Metabolic Acidosis

superimposes on top after
[...]
RAlk --> MAc

What phase of the cell cycle does Hydroxyurea effect
cancer?
What phase of the cell cycle does Hydroxyurea effect

cancer?
S-Phase
[...]
Protamine Sulfate is a positively charged molecule that is

[...] is a positively charged molecule that is used as an
used as an antidote to Heparin as it binds to the negatively antidote to Heparin as it binds to the negatively charged
charged Heparin molecules.
Heparin molecules.
What is the ROA of Low Molecular Weight Heparin
(LMWH)?
What is the ROA of Low Molecular Weight Heparin

(LMWH)?
SC
[...]
Finasteride is an anti-androgen cancer chemotherapy that [...] is an anti-androgen cancer chemotherapy that is used
is used to treat prostate cancer by inhibiting the enzyme 5- to treat prostate cancer by inhibiting the enzyme 5-Alpha
Alpha Reductase
Reductase
Finasteride is an anti-androgen cancer chemotherapy that Finasteride is an anti-androgen cancer chemotherapy that
is used to treat prostate cancer by inhibiting the enzyme 5is used to treat prostate cancer by inhibiting the
Alpha Reductase
enzyme [...]
Which type of anticoagulants are used in early MI and
early ischemic stroke?
Which type of anticoagulants are used in early MI and

early ischemic stroke?
Thrombolytics
[...]
Also used in the direct thrombolysis of severe PE.

Which stage of the cell cycle do Alkylating agents inhibit? Which stage of the cell cycle do Alkylating agents inhibit?
G1
[...]
What is the toxicity of Cisplatin and Carboplatin at the

CNS?
What is the toxicity of Cisplatin and Carboplatin at the

CNS?
Acoustic Nerve Damage (CNVIII)
[...]
Irinotecan and Topotecan are antineoplastic drugs that

inhibit Topoisomerase I, thereby preventing DNA
unwinding and replication.
[...] and Topotecan are antineoplastic drugs that inhibit

Topoisomerase I, thereby preventing DNA unwinding
and replication.
Irinotecan and Topotecan are antineoplastic drugs that

inhibit Topoisomerase I, thereby preventing DNA
unwinding and replication.
Irinotecan and [...] are antineoplastic drugs that inhibit

Topoisomerase I, thereby preventing DNA unwinding
and replication.
What drug can be used to prevent the nephrotoxicity of

Cisplatin and Carboplatin?
What drug can be used to prevent the nephrotoxicity of

Cisplatin and Carboplatin?
Amifostine
[...]
Lepirudin is the anticoagulant of choice to treat patients

with Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT).
[...] is the anticoagulant of choice to treat patients with

Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT).
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Doxorubicin?
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Doxorubicin?
[...]
Induction of free radical formation; free radicals then cause

breaks in DNA strands
[...]
What is the MOA of 5-Fluorouracil?
What is the MOA of 5-Fluorouracil?
Inhibition of Thymidylate Synthase
[...]
What is the primary toxicity of 5-Fluorouracil (5FU)?
What is the primary toxicity of 5-Fluorouracil (5FU)?
Myelosuppression
[...]
Cannot be reversed with Leucovorin (Folinic Acid)

What is the MOA of the Vinca Alkaloids (Vincristine and What is the MOA of the Vinca Alkaloids (Vincristine and
Vinblastine)?
Vinblastine)?
Bind to -tubulin, thereby inhibiting microtubule
polymerization and mitotic spindle formation
[...]
Bleomycin is an antitumour antibiotic that functions by

[...] is an antitumour antibiotic that functions by
only inducing free radical formation that then cause breaks only inducing free radical formation that then cause breaks
in DNA strands.
in DNA strands.
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Irinotecan?
What is the MOA of the antineoplastic Irinotecan?
Inhibition of Topoisomerase I, thereby preventing DNA

unwinding and replication
[...]
What is the chemotoxicity associated with 5-Fluorouracil What is the chemotoxicity associated with 5-Fluorouracil
(5FU)?
(5FU)?
Myelosuppression
[...]
What type of antineoplastic drug is Paclitaxel and other

Taxols?
What type of antineoplastic drug is Paclitaxel and other

Taxols?
Microtubule inhibitors
[...]
Cytarabine is an antimetabolite antineoplastic that acts as a

pyrimidine analog and inhibits DNA Polymerase.
[...] is an antimetabolite antineoplastic that acts as a

pyrimidine analog and inhibits DNA Polymerase.
Which drug is used to prevent the cardiotoxicity

associated with Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin?
Which drug is used to prevent the cardiotoxicity

associated with Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin?
Dexrazoxane; an iron chelator
[...]
What is the toxicity of Bleomycin at mucous membranes? What is the toxicity of Bleomycin at mucous membranes?
Mucositis
[...]
What is the treatment for Heparin overdose?
What is the treatment for Heparin overdose?
Protamine sulfate
[...]

Warfarin?

Warfarin?
PT (and INR)
[...]
Warfarin has a greater effect on the extrinsic pathway

(Factor VII)
What is the clinical use of Tamoxifen?
What is the clinical use of Tamoxifen?
Breast cancer via estrogen receptor antagonism at the

breasts
[...]
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that functions by [...] is an anticoagulant that functions by interfering with the
interfering with the normal synthesis and -carboxylation of
normal synthesis and -carboxylation of Vitamin-K
Vitamin-K dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) and dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) and Protein C
Protein C and S.
and S.
By acting as a Vitamin K antagonist.
People always forget about Protein C and S. Don't be
that guy.
effect of Methotrexate?

effect of Methotrexate?
Nephrotoxicity
[...]
What protein does Sirolimus (Rapamycin) bind to before What protein does Sirolimus (Rapamycin) bind to before
inhibiting mTOR?
inhibiting mTOR?
FK Binding Protein (FKBP12)
[...]
Carmustine is an alkylating agent cancer chemotherapy

that is toxic to the CNS. It is used for CNS cancers.
[...] is an alkylating agent cancer chemotherapy that is

toxic to the CNS. It is used for CNS cancers.
Which type of antiplatelet drugs are used in Percutaneous Which type of antiplatelet drugs are used in Percutaneous
Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty?
Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty?
GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors
[...]
Argatroban and Bivalirudin are hirudin anticoagulants that

are derived from the anticoagulant used by leeches.
[...] and Bivalirudin are hirudin anticoagulants that are

derived from the anticoagulant used by leeches.
Argatroban and Bivalirudin are hirudin anticoagulants that

are derived from the anticoagulant used by leeches.
Argatroban and [...] are hirudin anticoagulants that are

derived from the anticoagulant used by leeches.
Skin/Tissue Necrosis is a possible complication of

Warfarin administration that involves necrosis of skin or
other soft tissue.
[...] is a possible complication of Warfarin administration

that involves necrosis of skin or other soft tissue.
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Cytarabine?

[...]
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Cytarabine?

Anti-metabolite
Hydroxyurea is a cancer chemotherapy drug that inhibits
Ribonucleotide Reductase.
[...] is a cancer chemotherapy drug that inhibits



[...].
What is the primary toxicity of Azathioprine and 6Mercaptopurine?
What is the primary toxicity of Azathioprine and 6Mercaptopurine?
Myelosuppression and bone marrow toxicity
[...]
How does PT change following the administration of

Thrombolytics?
How does PT change following the administration of

Thrombolytics?
Increase
[...]
What is the duration of action of Warfarin?
What is the duration of action of Warfarin?
Chronic (days)
[...]
What is the MOA of Bevacizumab?
What is the MOA of Bevacizumab?
MAb against VEGF, thereby inhibiting angiogenesis in

solid tumours
[...]
Leucovorin (Folinic Acid) is an antidote/rescue drug that is [...] is an antidote/rescue drug that is used to reverse the
used to reverse the myelosuppression seen in
myelosuppression seen in Methotrexate (MTX) use.
Methotrexate (MTX) use.
What is the toxicity of Tamoxifen?
What is the toxicity of Tamoxifen?
Increased risk of endometrial cancer and hot flashes due

to partial estrogen receptor agonism at the endometrium
[...]
Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that [...] is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that does
does not involve an increase in the risk of endometrial
not involve an increase in the risk of endometrial
carcinoma as it acts as an antagonist at the endometrium. carcinoma as it acts as an antagonist at the endometrium.
What is MOA of Etoposide?
What is MOA of Etoposide?
Causes double stranded DNA breaks through DNA

Topoisomerase
[...]
What is the MOA of Dactinomycin?
What is the MOA of Dactinomycin?
Intercalates into DNA, thereby causing DNA damage and

stopping the cell cycle
[...]
What is the primary action of Plasmin?
What is the primary action of Plasmin?
Digestion of Fibrin
[...]
What is the MOA of the anti-platelet Cilostazol?
What is the MOA of the anti-platelet Cilostazol?
Inhibition of phosphodiesterase III, thereby increasing

[cAMP] in platelets and inhibiting platelet aggregation
[...]
What type of antiplatelet/anticoagulant is Ticlopidine?
What type of antiplatelet/anticoagulant is Ticlopidine?
ADP Receptor inhibitor
[...]
Aminocaproic acid is a drug used to treat bleeding

disorders by inhibiting the activation of plasminogen.
[...] is a drug used to treat bleeding disorders by inhibiting

the activation of plasminogen.
Imatinib (Gleevec) is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor used in

CML and GI Stromal Tumours as it targets the tyrosine
kinase inhibitor of bcr-abl and c-Kit respectively.
[...] is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor used in CML and GI

Stromal Tumours as it targets the tyrosine kinase inhibitor
of bcr-abl and c-Kit respectively.
What is the chemotoxicity associated with Methotrexate

(MTX)?
What is the chemotoxicity associated with Methotrexate

(MTX)?
Myelosuppression
[...]
Imatinib mesylate is a cancer chemotherapy that targets

the BCR-ABL Tyrosine Kinase in CML.
[...] is a cancer chemotherapy that targets the BCR-ABL

Tyrosine Kinase in CML.

the BCR-ABL Tyrosine Kinase in CML.

the [...] in CML.
What is the ROA of 5-Fluorouracil in the treatment of

Basal Cell Carcinoma?
What is the ROA of 5-Fluorouracil in the treatment of

Basal Cell Carcinoma?
Topical
[...]
Which coagulation factors does Low Molecular Weight

Heparin (LMWH; Enoxaparin) inhibit?
Which coagulation factors does Low Molecular Weight

Heparin (LMWH; Enoxaparin) inhibit?
Factors II and X
[...]
Interferon-gamma is an immunostimulant that promotes the [...] is an immunostimulant that promotes the cytotoxic Tcytotoxic T-cell response.
cell response.
What is the most common adverse effect of Heparin?
What is the most common adverse effect of Heparin?
Bleeding
[...]
What is the only reversible Platlet ADP receptor

inhibitor?
What is the only reversible Platlet ADP receptor

inhibitor?
Ticagrelor
[...]
Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a possible [...] is a possible adverse effect of Heparin administration
adverse effect of Heparin administration that involves the that involves the development of IgG antibodies against
development of IgG antibodies against Heparin bound
Heparin bound to Platelet Factor 4 (PF4).
to Platelet Factor 4 (PF4).
The antibody-heparin-PF4 complex activates platelets
and causes thrombosis and subsequent
thrombocytopenia.
What is the primary toxicity of Cyclophosphamide?
What is the primary toxicity of Cyclophosphamide?
Hemorrhagic cystitis
[...]
What type of cancer chemotherapy is Cyclophosphamide? What type of cancer chemotherapy is Cyclophosphamide?
CCNS Alkylating agent
[...]
What is the primary action of tissue Plasminogen Activator What is the primary action of tissue Plasminogen Activator
(tPA)?
(tPA)?
Activation of Plasminogen into Plasmin
[...]
Remember, Plasmin digests Fibrin, thereby degrading

clots
What are the adverse effects of Paclitaxel therapy?
What are the adverse effects of Paclitaxel therapy?
Neurotoxicity (Peripheral Neuropathy, Muscle Pain)
[...]
What is the primary toxicity of Dactinomycin?
What is the primary toxicity of Dactinomycin?
Myelosuppression
[...]
What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'FOLFOX' What is the combination cancer chemotherapy 'FOLFOX'
used to treat?
used to treat?
Colorectal Cancer
[...]
Vitamin K is a drug that can be given to reverse Warfarin

overdose.
[...] is a drug that can be given to reverse Warfarin

overdose.
What is the toxicity of Busulfan at the lungs?
What is the toxicity of Busulfan at the lungs?
Pulmonary Fibrosis
[...]
What is the toxicity of Paclitaxel/Taxols at the skin?
What is the toxicity of Paclitaxel/Taxols at the skin?
Alopecia
[...]
What type of solid tumours are effectively treated with

Etoposide and Teniposide?
What type of solid tumours are effectively treated with

Etoposide and Teniposide?
Testicular; Small Cell Cancer of the Lung
[...]
Etoposide and Teniposide are antineoplastics that inhibit

Topoisomerase II, thereby leading to an increase in
DNA degradation.
[...] and Teniposide are antineoplastics that inhibit

DNA degradation.
Etoposide and Teniposide are antineoplastics that inhibit

DNA degradation.
Etoposide and [...] are antineoplastics that inhibit

DNA degradation.
Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody antiplatelet drug that

[...] is a monoclonal antibody antiplatelet drug that
interferes with GpIIb/IIIa binding to fibrinogen and other interferes with GpIIb/IIIa binding to fibrinogen and other
ligands.
ligands.
What is the MOA of Tamoxifen at bone?
What is the MOA of Tamoxifen at bone?
Estrogen receptor agonist
[...]
What is the spectrum of activity of the antiepileptic

Oxcarbazepine?

Oxcarbazepine?
Narrow
[...]
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist with a short duration of [...] is an opioid antagonist with a short duration of action.
action.
How do Dopamine levels change in Huntington's Disease? How do Dopamine levels change in Huntington's Disease?
Increase
[...]
Abrupt withdrawal of antiepileptics can result in Status

Epilepticus.
Abrupt withdrawal of antiepileptics can result in [...].
Buspirone is an anxiolytic that acts as a partial agonist at

5-HT receptors (and possibly D2 receptors).
[...] is an anxiolytic that acts as a partial agonist at 5-HT

receptors (and possibly D2 receptors).
What is the MOA of Buspirone?
What is the MOA of Buspirone?
Partial agonism at 5-HT1A receptors and possibly D2

receptors
[...]
Irreversible, suicide inhibition of COX
[...]
What is the duration of action of Oxazepam as a sedative? What is the duration of action of Oxazepam as a sedative?
Intermediate
[...]
Beta Interferon 1a and Beta Interferon 1b are

[...] and Beta Interferon 1b are immunomodulators used to
immunomodulators used to manage Relapsing-Remitting manage Relapsing-Remitting MS through the suppression
MS through the suppression of T cell function and
of T cell function and movement into the CNS.
movement into the CNS.
Beta Interferon 1a and Beta Interferon 1b are
Beta Interferon 1a and [...] are immunomodulators used to
immunomodulators used to manage Relapsing-Remitting manage Relapsing-Remitting MS through the suppression
MS through the suppression of T cell function and
of T cell function and movement into the CNS.
movement into the CNS.
What generation antiepileptic is Clonazepam?
What generation antiepileptic is Clonazepam?
1st
[...]
What is the MOA of Succinylcholine?
What is the MOA of Succinylcholine?
Noncompetitive agonism of the muscle nicotinic receptor

N(m)
[...]
Thereby causing sustained depolarization and an

inability to repolarize/initiate another AP
Levetiracetam is a 2nd generation antiepileptic that binds
to Synaptic Vesicle Protein 2A (SV2A), thereby
modulating GABA and Glutamate release.
[...] is a 2nd generation antiepileptic that binds to

Synaptic Vesicle Protein 2A (SV2A), thereby
modulating GABA and Glutamate release.
What generation antiepileptic is Valproic Acid?
What generation antiepileptic is Valproic Acid?
1st
[...]
What is the fibrin specificity of Reteplase?
What is the fibrin specificity of Reteplase?
Moderate
[...]
What is the MOA of Zolpidem?
What is the MOA of Zolpidem?
Selective agonism of GABA-A alpha1 receptor sites (BZ1

subtype)
[...]
What is the MOA of Carbamazepine?
What is the MOA of Carbamazepine?
Blocks voltage gated Na channels on neuronal membranes
[...]
What generation antiepileptic is Phenobarbitol?
What generation antiepileptic is Phenobarbitol?
1st
[...]
Non-Selective MAO Inhibitors present with potential

interactions with Tyramine, a compound commonly found
in foods such as cheese and wine, and may result in
Hypertensive Crisis.
Non-Selective MAO Inhibitors present with potential

interactions with [...], a compound commonly found in
foods such as cheese and wine, and may result in
Hypertensive Crisis.
Due to an inhibition of NE breakdown.

What is the MOA of Memantine?
What is the MOA of Memantine?
Weak NMDA antagonism; Stabilizes the Glutamate

system and balances excitatory neurotransmission
[...]
Remember, too much glutamate is toxic and can cause

neuronal damage through continuous Ca influx
What is the clinical use of Flumanezil?
What is the clinical use of Flumanezil?
Management of Benzo overdose
[...]
What generation antiepileptic is Ethosuximide?
What generation antiepileptic is Ethosuximide?
1st
[...]
Morphine is a full opioid agonist at mu & kappa receptors.
Morphine is a full opioid agonist at [...] receptors.
Selegiline and Rasagiline are MAO-B inhibitors that

prevent the oxidation of Dopamine into byproducts,
thereby increasing DA levels centrally.
[...] and Rasagiline are MAO-B inhibitors that prevent the

oxidation of Dopamine into byproducts, thereby increasing
DA levels centrally.
Selegiline and Rasagiline are MAO-B inhibitors that

prevent the oxidation of Dopamine into byproducts,
thereby increasing DA levels centrally.
Selegiline and [...] are MAO-B inhibitors that prevent the

oxidation of Dopamine into byproducts, thereby increasing
DA levels centrally.
Which opioid receptor to Endorphins have the highest

affinity for?
Which opioid receptor to Endorphins have the highest

affinity for?
Mu
[...]
Pramipexole is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that

shows agonism at central D2 and D3 receptors.
[...] is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that shows

agonism at central D2 and D3 receptors.
What is the MOA of Amantadine in the treatment of

Parkinson's Disease?
What is the MOA of Amantadine in the treatment of

Parkinson's Disease?
Weak NMDA receptor antagonism
[...]
What is the MOA of Tetrabenazine?
What is the MOA of Tetrabenazine?
Inhibition of Vesicular Monoamine Transporter (VMAT),

thereby inhibiting DA release from presynaptic neurons
[...]
How do Benzodiazepines affect sleep?
How do Benzodiazepines affect sleep?
Decrease sleep latency; Increase total sleep time
[...]
What is the fibrin specificity of Tenecteplase?
What is the fibrin specificity of Tenecteplase?
High
[...]
Codeine is a partial opioid agonist at mu receptors.
Codeine is a partial opioid agonist at [...] receptors.
Buprenorphine is a mixed opioid with partial agonism

at mu receptors and antagonism at delta and kappa
receptors.

at [...] receptors and antagonism at delta and kappa
receptors.

at mu receptors and antagonism at delta and kappa
receptors.

at mu receptors and antagonism at [...] and [...] receptors.
What is the MOA of Non-Depolarizing muscle blockers What is the MOA of Non-Depolarizing muscle blockers
(-curium; -ronium)?
(-curium; -ronium)?
Competitive antagonism of the skeletal muscle nicotinic
receptor, N(m)
[...]
Thereby, preventing depolarization and activation of

muscle.
Oxcarbazepine is the prodrug form of Carbamazepine.
[...] is the prodrug form of Carbamazepine.
Dopamine agonists must be used prior to L-Dopa in order Dopamine agonists must be used prior to [...] in order to
to prevent dyskinesia in the later stages of PD.
prevent dyskinesia in the later stages of PD.
As this way, treatment with L-Dopa will be delayed or
perhaps even prevented.
Selegiline is an MAO-B inhibitors can be used alone as Selegiline is an MAO-B inhibitors can be used alone as
initial Tx of Parkinson's or as an adjunct alongside L-Dopa initial Tx of Parkinson's or as an adjunct alongside [...]
when it no longer effectively treats motor fluctuations in
when it no longer effectively treats motor fluctuations in
late PD.
late PD.
Selegiline is an MAO-B inhibitors can be used alone as [...] is an MAO-B inhibitors can be used alone as initial Tx
initial Tx of Parkinson's or as an adjunct alongside L-Dopa of Parkinson's or as an adjunct alongside L-Dopa when it
when it no longer effectively treats motor fluctuations in no longer effectively treats motor fluctuations in late PD.
late PD.
Triptans should not be given within 24 hours of
receiving Ergotamine, a first generation headache medicine
that releases 5-HT, DA and NE.
Triptans should not be given within 24 hours of

receiving [...], a first generation headache medicine that
releases 5-HT, DA and NE.
Latanoprost (PGF2alpha) is a prostaglandin analog used to [...] is a prostaglandin analog used to treat glaucoma that
causes browning/darkening of the iris.
treat glaucoma that causes browning/darkening of the
iris.
What is the MOA of Pergolide?
What is the MOA of Pergolide?
Partial agonist at central and peripheral D2 receptors
[...]
Which Dopamine receptors does Pramipexole bind to?
Which Dopamine receptors does Pramipexole bind to?
Central D2 and D3
[...]
What is the MOA of Tenecteplase?
What is the MOA of Tenecteplase?
Recombinant human tPA; Activates Plasminogen into

Plasmin
[...]
What is the most powerful analgesic?
What is the most powerful analgesic?
Morphine
[...]
Haloperidol is a dopamine antagonist that is used to treat

the movement disorders, hallucinations and delusions in
Huntington's Disease.
[...] is a dopamine antagonist that is used to treat the

movement disorders, hallucinations and delusions in
Huntington's Disease.
Valproic Acid is an antiepileptic that is able to inhibit the

enzyme GABA Transaminase, thereby stopping the
breakdown of GABA and increasing GABA levels.
[...] is an antiepileptic that is able to inhibit the



enzyme [...], thereby stopping the breakdown of GABA
and increasing GABA levels.
Non-ergotamine dopamine agonists are used in the early

onset of Parkinson's to prevent the later onset
of dyskinesia by delaying L-Dopa treatment.
Non-ergotamine dopamine agonists are used in the early

onset of Parkinson's to prevent the later onset of [...] by
delaying L-Dopa treatment.
What is the MOA of Benzodiazepines?
What is the MOA of Benzodiazepines?
Binds to GABA-A and increased the frequency of Clchannel opening
[...]
Levodopa/L-Dopa is always given in combination

with Carbidopa in Parkinson's patients.
[...] is always given in combination with Carbidopa in

Parkinson's patients.

with Carbidopa in Parkinson's patients.

with [...] in Parkinson's patients.
What is the MOA of Ergotamine and Dihydroergotamine What is the MOA of Ergotamine and Dihydroergotamine
in the treatment of headache?
in the treatment of headache?
Release of 5-HT, DA and NE
[...]
C/I in pregnancy
Benzotropine is an antimuscarinic used in Parkinson's that
acts within the striatum on cholinergic interneurons,
thereby decreasing cholinergic tone.
[...] is an antimuscarinic used in Parkinson's that acts

within the striatum on cholinergic interneurons, thereby
decreasing cholinergic tone.
What is the duration of action of Temazepam as a

sedative?
What is the duration of action of Temazepam as a

sedative?
Intermediate
[...]
Hydrocodone is a partial opioid agonist at mu receptors. Hydrocodone is a partial opioid agonist at [...] receptors.
Glatiramer Acetate is an immunomodulator used to
manage Relapsing-Remitting MS through alteration of
APC action.
[...] is an immunomodulator used to manage RelapsingRemitting MS through alteration of APC action.
What generation antiepileptic is Phenytoin?
What generation antiepileptic is Phenytoin?
1st
[...]
What is a serious side effect of Laudanosine, the toxic

metabolite of Atracurium?
What is a serious side effect of Laudanosine, the toxic

metabolite of Atracurium?
Seizures; CNS toxicity
[...]

Clonazepam?

Clonazepam?
Broad
[...]
Opioid administration via transdermal patch will yield peak Opioid administration via [...] will yield peak effects 24-48
effects 24-48 hours later.
hours later.
Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist used to

treat moderate to severe Alzheimer's Disease,
commonly in conjunction with AChE inhibitors.
[...] is an NMDA receptor antagonist used to

treat moderate to severe Alzheimer's Disease,
commonly in conjunction with AChE inhibitors.
Bromocriptine is an ergotamine dopamine agonist that is [...] is an ergotamine dopamine agonist that is able to treat
able to treat Restless Leg Syndrome.
Restless Leg Syndrome.
What is a serious adverse effect of Succinylcholine?
What is a serious adverse effect of Succinylcholine?
Malignant Hyperthermia
[...]
Characterized by HTN, Tachycardia and potential

Arrhythmia
What is the MOA of Rasagiline?
What is the MOA of Rasagiline?
Selective, irreversible inhibition of MAO-B; thereby

preventing the oxidation of DA into byproducts and
increasing DA levels centrally
[...]
Guanfacine is an alpha2-receptor agonist that is able to

support ADHD treatment and help with tics.
[...] is an alpha2-receptor agonist that is able to support

ADHD treatment and help with tics.
What is the duration of action of Lorazepam as a

sedative?
What is the duration of action of Lorazepam as a

sedative?
Intermediate
[...]
As treatment for Parkinson's progresses in a patient, the

increased sensitivity to L-Dopa/Levodopa results in
involuntary movements due to an imbalance between D1
and D2 receptors.
As treatment for Parkinson's progresses in a patient, the

increased sensitivity to [...] results in involuntary
movements due to an imbalance between D1 and D2
receptors.
Can worsen movement problems and lead to falls.

Which opioid receptor is able to induce dysphoria?
Which opioid receptor is able to induce dysphoria?
Kappa
[...]
Succinyl choline is a depolarizing muscle blocker with a

very short onset and short duration (5-10 min).
[...] is a depolarizing muscle blocker with a very short

onset and short duration (5-10 min).
L-Dopa is a Dopamine precursor that must be

decarboxylated into Dopamine in the Nigrostriatal
Pathways to be effective.
[...] is a Dopamine precursor that must be decarboxylated

into Dopamine in the Nigrostriatal Pathways to be
effective.
What is the MOA of Rivastigmine in the treatment of

Alzheimer Disease?
What is the MOA of Rivastigmine in the treatment of

Alzheimer Disease?
Inhibition of AChE
[...]
What is the MOA of Fingolimod in the management of

Relapse Remitting MS?
What is the MOA of Fingolimod in the management of

Relapse Remitting MS?
Agonism at S1P receptors 1, 3, 4, 5; Inhibits lymphocyte

movement from lymph nodes into the CNS
[...]
Opioids are contraindicated in patients with head injury Opioids are contraindicated in patients with [...] due to the
due to the ability of respiratory depression to increase ability of respiratory depression to increase CO2 retention
CO2 retention and cerebral vasodilation which can impair and cerebral vasodilation which can impair brain function
brain function with increased ICP.
with increased ICP.
Which enzyme does Valproic Acid inhibit?
[...]
Which enzyme does Valproic Acid inhibit?

GABA Transaminase
Levetiracetam?

Levetiracetam?
Broad
[...]
Midazolam is a benzodiazepine most commonly used to

anaesthesia during endoscopy.
[...] is a benzodiazepine most commonly used to

anaesthesia during endoscopy.
Used often adjunctively with inhaled anaesthesia and

narcotics.
What is the MOA of Baclofen?
What is the MOA of Baclofen?
GABA agonism pre- and post-synaptically
[...]
Prevents the release of excitatory Glutamate from

presynapses and facilitates the release of inhibitory
GABA from postsynapses
Morphine can be metabolized into Morphine-6Glucuronide, an active, polar compound with more
potency than Morphine.
Morphine can be metabolized into [...], an active, polar

compound with more potency than Morphine.

Ethosuximide?

Ethosuximide?
Narrow
[...]
What is the MOA of Bromocriptine?
Partial agonist at central and peripheral D2 receptors
[...]
What is the treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia?
What is the treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
[...]
Full opioid agonists are contraindicated with partial

agonists or antagonists due to the risk of precipitation
of withdrawal.
Full opioid agonists are contraindicated with partial

agonists or antagonists due to the risk of precipitation
of [...].
What are Triptan Sensations?
What are Triptan Sensations?
Side effects of Triptan use; tingling, flushing and neck

tightness
[...]
What class of drugs is useful for treating the postural

instability in Parkinson's Disease?
What class of drugs is useful for treating the postural

instability in Parkinson's Disease?
Cholinesterase Inhibitors
[...]
Phenytoin is a strong inducer of CYP450s.
Phenytoin is a strong [...] of CYP450s.
What is the MOA of Zopiclone?
What is the MOA of Zopiclone?
Selective agonism of GABA-A alpha1 receptor sites
[...]
What is the pregnancy risk category for all opioids?
What is the pregnancy risk category for all opioids?
C - Possibility of risk
[...]
Valproic Acid is an antiepileptic that can cause

pancreatitis.
[...] is an antiepileptic that can cause pancreatitis.
The opioid Tramadol poses an increased risk of Serotonin

Syndrome.
The opioid [...] poses an increased risk of Serotonin

Syndrome.
The current aim in the pharmacotherapy of Alzheimer's

Disease is to increase the levels of the
neurotransmitter ACh in the synapse.
The current aim in the pharmacotherapy of Alzheimer's

Disease is to increase the levels of the
neurotransmitter [...] in the synapse.
Administration of Sumatriptan subcutaneously is the

quickest and most effective triptan used to treat
headaches.
Administration of [...] subcutaneously is the quickest and

most effective triptan used to treat headaches.
What is the duration of action of Clonazepam as a

sedative?
What is the duration of action of Clonazepam as a

sedative?
Long
[...]
Lorazepam, Temazepam and Oxazepam are intermediate [...], Temazepam and Oxazepam are intermediate acting
acting benzodiazepines that are able to be given to the
benzodiazepines that are able to be given to the elderly.
elderly.
Lorazepam, Temazepam and Oxazepam are intermediate
elderly.
Lorazepam, [...] and Oxazepam are intermediate acting

Lorazepam, Temazepam and Oxazepam are intermediate Lorazepam, Temazepam and [...] are intermediate acting
elderly.
What is the drug of choice for Trigeminal Neuralgia?
What is the drug of choice for Trigeminal Neuralgia?
Carbamazepine
[...]
What is the MOA of Tacrine?
What is the MOA of Tacrine?
Inhibition of AChE
[...]
Pentazocine is a mixed opioid with partial agonism at mu Pentazocine is a mixed opioid with partial agonism at [...]
receptors and full agonism at kappa receptors.
Pentazocine is a mixed opioid with partial agonism at mu
Pentazocine is a mixed opioid with partial agonism at mu

receptors and full agonism at [...] receptors.
What is the duration of action of Phenobarbital as a

sedative?
What is the duration of action of Phenobarbital as a

sedative?
Long
[...]
What is the duration of action of Midazolam as a sedative? What is the duration of action of Midazolam as a sedative?
Short
[...]
Ketamine is a PCP analog that acts as a dissociative

anaesthetic by blocking NMDA receptors.
[...] is a PCP analog that acts as a dissociative anaesthetic

by blocking NMDA receptors.
What is the MOA of Gabapentin and Pregabalin?
What is the MOA of Gabapentin and Pregabalin?
Inhibits voltage gated Ca channels as a GABA analog
[...]
What is the MOA of Eszopiclone?
What is the MOA of Eszopiclone?
[...]
Fentanyl is an opioid that can cause chest muscle rigidity if [...] is an opioid that can cause chest muscle rigidity if IV
IV infusion is given too quickly.
infusion is given too quickly.
Which antiepileptic is the safest for use in pregnancy?
Which antiepileptic is the safest for use in pregnancy?
Phenobarbitol; due to its high plasma protein binding
[...]
What is the MOA of Botulinum Toxin?
What is the MOA of Botulinum Toxin?
Inhibits ACh release from nerve terminals; causes flaccid

paralysis
[...]
What is the MOA of Clonazepam?
What is the MOA of Clonazepam?
Increases GABA action
[...]

Phenytoin?

Phenytoin?
Narrow
[...]
Carbamazepine is a strong inducer of CYP450s.
Carbamazepine is a strong [...] of CYP450s.
What is the duration of action of Thiopentol as a sedative? What is the duration of action of Thiopentol as a sedative?
Ultra-short
[...]
Triazolam and Midazolam are sedatives that are desirable

for use in general anaesthesia as they are short acting.
[...] and Midazolam are sedatives that are desirable for

use in general anaesthesia as they are short acting.
Triazolam and Midazolam are sedatives that are desirable Triazolam and [...] are sedatives that are desirable for use
for use in general anaesthesia as they are short acting.
in general anaesthesia as they are short acting.
Thiopental is a barbiturate that is used for induction of
[...] is a barbiturate that is used for induction of
anaesthesia due to its high potency, high lipid solubility and anaesthesia due to its high potency, high lipid solubility and
rapid entry into the brain.
rapid entry into the brain.
The effect terminated by rapid redistribution into
tissue.
Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist at mu, delta and kappa
receptor(s).
Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist at [...] receptor(s).
What is the MOA of Tolcapone?
What is the MOA of Tolcapone?
Inhibition of peripheral COMT, thereby ensuring that LDopa is converted into DA and not a metabolite
[...]
What is the duration of action of Triazolam as a sedative? What is the duration of action of Triazolam as a sedative?
Short
[...]
What is the MOA of Ramelteon?
What is the MOA of Ramelteon?
Agonism at Melatonin MT1 and MT2 receptors
[...]
Shortens sleep latency
What is the pregnancy category of Glatiramer Acetate?
What is the pregnancy category of Glatiramer Acetate?
[...]
Dopamine agonists are only used in Parkinson's Disease

alone in early PD or in combination with Levodopa in
late, advanced PD.
Dopamine agonists are only used in Parkinson's Disease

alone in early PD or in combination with [...] in late,
advanced PD.
L-Dopa is a Dopamine precursor that is taken up at

[...] is a Dopamine precursor that is taken up at
dopaminergic neurons and converted to Dopamine which dopaminergic neurons and converted to Dopamine which
activates D1 and D2 receptors, thereby restoring
activates D1 and D2 receptors, thereby restoring
movement.
movement.
What is the clinical use of Atomoxetine?
What is the clinical use of Atomoxetine?
Tx of ADHD in adults and children
[...]
Entacapone and Tolcapone are COMT inhibitors used in

[...] and Tolcapone are COMT inhibitors used in
Parkinson's Disease that ensure L-Dopa is converted into Parkinson's Disease that ensure L-Dopa is converted into
DA.
DA.
The Capones control the COMTs
Entacapone and Tolcapone are COMT inhibitors used in
Entacapone and [...] are COMT inhibitors used in
Parkinson's Disease that ensure L-Dopa is converted into Parkinson's Disease that ensure L-Dopa is converted into
DA.
DA.
The Capones control the COMTs
How do Benzodiazepines alter Cl- channel opening via
GABA receptors?
How do Benzodiazepines alter Cl- channel opening via

GABA receptors?
Increased frequency
[...]
Nomeperidine is a metabolite of Meperidine that acts as [...] is a metabolite of Meperidine that acts as an SSRI
an SSRI and can cause seizures due to accumulation in the and can cause seizures due to accumulation in the CNS.
CNS.
Carbamazepine and Phenytoin are useful in all seizure
states except for absence seizures.
Carbamazepine and Phenytoin are useful in all seizure

states except for [...] seizures.
Phenytoin and other antiepileptics can cause

Phenytoin and other antiepileptics can cause [...] as it
osteomalacia/hypocalcemia as it utilizes a large amount of
utilizes a large amount of hydroxylases for its own
hydroxylases for its own metabolism, leaving too few for metabolism, leaving too few for the activation of Vitamin
the activation of Vitamin D.
D.
What is the MOA of Guanfacine?
What is the MOA of Guanfacine?
Selective activation of alpha2 receptors at post-synaptic

receptors at the prefrontal cortex
[...]
Leads to increased action of NE

Pregabalin?

Pregabalin?
Narrow
[...]
Ergotamine Dopamine Agonists are associated

Ergotamine Dopamine Agonists are associated with [...] in
with Cardiac Valve Fibrosis in doses required to treat
doses required to treat Parkinson's and are hence not
Parkinson's and are hence not preferred for the treatment
preferred for the treatment for PD.
for PD.
Bromocriptine and Pergolide
Which drug is used to treat Atropine (or other

Anticholinergic) overdose?
Which drug is used to treat Atropine (or other

Anticholinergic) overdose?
Physostigmine
[...]
What is the only opioid that acts as an antimuscarinic?
What is the only opioid that acts as an antimuscarinic?
Meperidine (Pethidine)
[...]
Hence, it will not yield miosis.

All three opioid receptors are coupled to Gi G-proteins.
All three opioid receptors are coupled to [...] G-proteins.
What is the treatment for Hyperprolactinemia?
What is the treatment for Hyperprolactinemia?
Bromocriptine; as it reduces Prolactin levels through D2

binding
[...]
Opioids are contraindicated in patients with

reduced respiratory function due to their respiratory
depression.
Opioids are contraindicated in patients with reduced [...]

due to their respiratory depression.
What is the MOA of Reteplase?
What is the MOA of Reteplase?

Plasmin
[...]
Fingolimod is a Sphingosine modulator used as a second

line management in Relapse-Remitting MS.
[...] is a Sphingosine modulator used as a second line

management in Relapse-Remitting MS.
Which antiepileptic is commonly used as a backup drug

for pregnant women?
Which antiepileptic is commonly used as a backup drug

for pregnant women?
Phenobarbitol
[...]
Opioids can cause pruritis through the release

of Histamine.
Opioids can cause pruritis through the release of [...].

Valproic Acid?

Valproic Acid?
Broad
[...]
Phenytoin is an antiepileptic that is teratogenic and can

cause cleft palate and cleft lip in babies.
[...] is an antiepileptic that is teratogenic and can cause

cleft palate and cleft lip in babies.
Dantrolene is a muscle relaxant that reduces Ca release

from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
[...] is a muscle relaxant that reduces Ca release from the

sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Tubocurarine is the prototype non-depolarizing muscle

blocker.
[...] is the prototype non-depolarizing muscle blocker.
How do the "Z-Hypnotics" (3rd Generation, Atypical

Hypnotics) affect sleep?
How do the "Z-Hypnotics" (3rd Generation, Atypical

Hypnotics) affect sleep?
Shortens sleep latency; Prolongs sleep time
[...]
Which opioid receptor are Endomorphins selective for?
Which opioid receptor are Endomorphins selective for?
Mu
[...]
Which opioid receptor do Enkephalins have the highest

affinity for?
Which opioid receptor do Enkephalins have the highest

affinity for?
Delta
[...]
What is the MOA of Physostigmine?
What is the MOA of Physostigmine?
Inhibition of AChE
[...]
What is the effect of opioids at the GI tract?
What is the effect of opioids at the GI tract?
Constipation and GI spasm
[...]
What is the MOA of Donepezil in the treatment of

Alzheimer Disease?
What is the MOA of Donepezil in the treatment of

Alzheimer Disease?
Inhibition of AChE
[...]
Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist with longer duration of [...] is an opioid antagonist with longer duration of action.
action.
Dopamine Antagonists and Neuroleptics are 2 classes of [...] and Neuroleptics are 2 classes of drugs that can cause
drugs that can cause Drug-induced Parkinson's Syndrome.
Drug-induced Parkinson's Syndrome.
Dopamine Antagonists and Neuroleptics are 2 classes of Dopamine Antagonists and [...] are 2 classes of drugs that
drugs that can cause Drug-induced Parkinson's Syndrome.
can cause Drug-induced Parkinson's Syndrome.
How does Ketamine change cerebral blood flow?
How does Ketamine change cerebral blood flow?
Increase
[...]
Which cholinergic is exceptionally effective at opening the Which cholinergic is exceptionally effective at opening the
meshwork leading into the Canal of Schlemm and is hence meshwork leading into the Canal of Schlemm and is hence
used to treat emergency glaucoma?
used to treat emergency glaucoma?
Pilocarpine
[...]
What is the MOA of Valproic Acid?
What is the MOA of Valproic Acid?
Blocks voltage gates Na channels; Blocks T-type Ca

channels at Thalamic neurons; Inhibits GABA
transaminase
[...]
Mivacurium is a non-depolarizing muscle blocker with

very short duration.
[...] is a non-depolarizing muscle blocker with very short

duration.
What is the MOA of Riluzole in the management of ALS? What is the MOA of Riluzole in the management of ALS?
Slowsl disease progression by inhibiting NMDA receptors
and Glutamate release
[...]
Carbamazepine can cause Neural tube defects,

Craniofacial defects, fingernail hypoplasia, developmental
delay, IUGR.
Carbamazepine can cause [...].
What is used as an antidote for the respiratory depression What is used as an antidote for the respiratory depression
caused by Morphine or other opioids?
caused by Morphine or other opioids?
Naloxone
[...]
[...]

Plasmin
What is the MOA of Galantamine in the treatment of
Alzheimer Disease?
What is the MOA of Galantamine in the treatment of

Alzheimer Disease?
Inhibition of AChE
[...]

Gabapentin?

Gabapentin?
Narrow
[...]
What is the duration of action of Alprazolam as a

sedative?
What is the duration of action of Alprazolam as a

sedative?
Intermediate
[...]
Midazolam is a short acting sedative benzo that is used for

endoscopy.
[...] is a short acting sedative benzo that is used for

endoscopy.
Natalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that acts as a

second line management of Relapse Remitting MS by
binding to Alpha4-Integrin on inflammatory lymphocytes.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody that acts as a second line

management of Relapse Remitting MS by binding to
Alpha4-Integrin on inflammatory lymphocytes.
An "Off Period" is seen in Parkinson's Disease and

An [...] is seen in Parkinson's Disease and involves a
involves a period of increased stiffness, rigidity and
period of increased stiffness, rigidity and inability to move
inability to move due to not enough L-Dopa/Levodopa to due to not enough L-Dopa/Levodopa to treat the loss of
treat the loss of dopaminergic neurons.
dopaminergic neurons.
inability to move due to not enough L-Dopa/Levodopa to inability to move due to not enough [...] to treat the loss of
treat the loss of dopaminergic neurons.
dopaminergic neurons.
Valproic Acid is a antiepileptic that typically causes only [...] is a antiepileptic that typically causes only spina bifida
spina bifida in babies (as a teratogen).
in babies (as a teratogen).
Latanoprost (PGF2alpha) is a prostaglandin analog used to
treat glaucoma.
[...] is a prostaglandin analog used to treat glaucoma.
Methadone is an opioid that is also an NMDA receptor [...] is an opioid that is also an NMDA receptor antagonist
antagonist and monoamine reuptake inhibitor.
and monoamine reuptake inhibitor.
Which opioid is known to cause dysphoria due to it's full
agonist action at kappa receptors?
Which opioid is known to cause dysphoria due to it's full

agonist action at kappa receptors?
Pentazocine
[...]
Fentanyl is a full opioid agonist at mu receptors.
Fentanyl is a full opioid agonist at [...] receptors.
Tetrabenazine is a drug used to treat the chorea symptoms

[...] is a drug used to treat the chorea symptoms in
in Huntington's by inhibiting VMAT, a monoamin
Huntington's by inhibiting VMAT, a monoamin transporter
transporter protein responsible to trafficking DA to the
protein responsible to trafficking DA to the synapse.
synapse.
Reserpine does this as well.
What generation antiepileptic is Carbamazepine?
What generation antiepileptic is Carbamazepine?
1st
[...]
What Dopamine receptors does Apomorphine bind to?
What Dopamine receptors does Apomorphine bind to?
D1 and D2
[...]
What is the MOA of Sumatriptan in the treatment of

headache?
What is the MOA of Sumatriptan in the treatment of

headache?
Activation of 5-HT1B/1D neurons, thereby blocking

release of vasoactive peptides
[...]
Thereby preventing pain and inflammation

Replacement of DA with Levodopa/L-Dopa in
Replacement of DA with [...] in Parkinson's Disease
Parkinson's Disease alleviates symptoms but does not stop alleviates symptoms but does not stop the progression of
the progression of the disease.
the disease.
Amantadine is an anti-viral agent that can be used as an [...] is an anti-viral agent that can be used as an adjunct to
adjunct to L-Dopa therapy as it acts as a weak NMDA L-Dopa therapy as it acts as a weak NMDA receptor
receptor antagonist.
antagonist.
What is the DOC for the treatment of Absence Seizures? What is the DOC for the treatment of Absence Seizures?
Ethosuximide
[...]
What is the pregnancy category of Fingolimod?
What is the pregnancy category of Fingolimod?
[...]
What Ca channel does Valproic Acid block?
What Ca channel does Valproic Acid block?
T-type Ca channels at Thalamic neurons
[...]
How does decreased blood solubility influence induction How does decreased blood solubility influence induction
and recovery time of anaesthetics?
and recovery time of anaesthetics?
Shorter induction and recovery
[...]
What is the MOA of Zaleplon?
What is the MOA of Zaleplon?
[...]
How many molecules of Non-Depolarizing N(m) blockers How many molecules of Non-Depolarizing N(m) blockers
are required to antagonize the N(m) receptor?
are required to antagonize the N(m) receptor?
Only 1; at either of the alpha subunits
[...]
Remember, 2 ACh mocs are needed to bind to open

the N(m) channel. 1 at each alpha subunit.
Flunitrazepam is an intermediate acting benzodiazepine
that is commonly used as a date rape drug.
[...] is an intermediate acting benzodiazepine that is

commonly used as a date rape drug.
Rohypnol aka Roofies

Deep Brain Stimulation is a surgical therapy for
Parkinson's that alters firing in such a way to mimic a
temporary lesion in the GPi and STN, thereby reducing
PD symptoms.
[...] is a surgical therapy for Parkinson's that alters firing in

such a way to mimic a temporary lesion in the GPi and
STN, thereby reducing PD symptoms.
What is the duration of action of Chlorodiazepoxide as a

sedative?
What is the duration of action of Chlorodiazepoxide as a

sedative?
Long
[...]
What is the effect of opioids at the biliary tract?
What is the effect of opioids at the biliary tract?
Biliary colic due to biliary smooth muscle contraction
[...]
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist at mu, delta and kappa

receptor(s).
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist at [...] receptor(s).
What is the MOA of Phenobarbitol?
What is the MOA of Phenobarbitol?
Binds to GABA-A; Increases Cl channel opening;

Hyperpolarizes neurons and potentiates GABA action
[...]
What is the MOA of Brimonidine in the treatment of

glaucoma?
What is the MOA of Brimonidine in the treatment of

glaucoma?
Alpha-2 adrenergic agonism
[...]
How does Thiopental change cerebral blood flow?
How does Thiopental change cerebral blood flow?
Decrease
[...]
What is the most efficient treatment of Parkinson's

Disease?
What is the most efficient treatment of Parkinson's

Disease?
L-Dopa
[...]
Especially when started before 65 y/o

Rotigotine is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that
shows agonism at D3 > D2 > D1 receptors.

agonism at D3 > D2 > D1 receptors.
What is the MOA of Barbiturates?
What is the MOA of Barbiturates?
Binds to GABA-A receptors and increases duration of

Cl- channel opening
[...]
Phenytoin and other antiepileptics can cause aplastic

anaemia, thereby presenting a need for constant CBCs
and WBC Differentials to be measured in the patient.
Phenytoin and other antiepileptics can cause [...], thereby

presenting a need for constant CBCs and WBC
Differentials to be measured in the patient.
Lamotrigine is a 2nd generation antiepileptic that is

associated with Steven-Johnson syndrome, a
hypersensitivity dermatitis.
[...] is a 2nd generation antiepileptic that is associated

with Steven-Johnson syndrome, a hypersensitivity
dermatitis.
Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitors are a class of drugs used to

treat mild to moderate Alzheimer's Disease.
[...] are a class of drugs used to treat mild to

moderate Alzheimer's Disease.
What is the MOA of Selegiline?
Selective, irreversible inhibition of MAO-B; thereby

preventing the oxidation of DA into byproducts and
increasing DA levels centrally
[...]

Carbamazepine?

Carbamazepine?
Narrow
[...]
Which Dopamine receptors does Ropinirole bind to?
Which Dopamine receptors does Ropinirole bind to?
D1 and D2 receptors
[...]
Carbidopa is a drug given in combination with L-Dopa [...] is a drug given in combination with L-Dopa that does
that does not cross the BBB and allows for more L-Dopa not cross the BBB and allows for more L-Dopa to enter
to enter the brain by inhibiting peripheral DOPA
the brain by inhibiting peripheral DOPA Carboxylase.
Carboxylase.
Valproic Acid is a strong inhibitor of CYP450s.
Valproic Acid is a strong [...] of CYP450s.
What is the clinical use of Naloxone?
What is the clinical use of Naloxone?
Opioid overdose; respiratory depression due to opioids
[...]
Valproic Acid is an antiepileptic that can be used in all

seizure states.
[...] is an antiepileptic that can be used in all seizure states.
What is the MOA of Natalizumab in the management of

Relapse-Remitting MS?
What is the MOA of Natalizumab in the management of

Relapse-Remitting MS?
Binds to Alpha4-Integrin on lymphocytes, thereby

blocking the trafficking of T cells to the CNS
[...]
What is the duration of action of Pentobarbitol as a

sedative?
What is the duration of action of Pentobarbitol as a

sedative?
Intermediate
[...]
What is the MOA of Dantrolene?
What is the MOA of Dantrolene?
Reduces Ca release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum via

the RyR1
[...]
Butorphanol is an opioid that functions as a partial

[...] is an opioid that functions as a partial agonist at mu
agonist at mu receptors and agonist at kappa receptors,
receptors and agonist at kappa receptors, thereby
thereby causing less respiratory depression than full causing less respiratory depression than full opioid
opioid agonists.
agonists.
What is the 1st line therapy of Parkinson's Disease in
younger, early onset patients?
What is the 1st line therapy of Parkinson's Disease in

younger, early onset patients?
Dopamine Agonists
[...]
How do Barbiturates alter Cl- channel opening via GABA How do Barbiturates alter Cl- channel opening via GABA
receptor binding?
receptor binding?
Increased duration
[...]
What is the only 3rd generation hypnotic approved for

long term use?
What is the only 3rd generation hypnotic approved for

long term use?
Eszopiclone
[...]
What is the MOA of Phenytoin?
What is the MOA of Phenytoin?
Blocks voltage gated Na channels
[...]
Methadone is a full opioid agonist at mu receptors
Methadone is a full opioid agonist at [...] receptors
Valproic Acid is an antiepileptic that can cause alopecia.
[...] is an antiepileptic that can cause alopecia.
Codeine is biotransformed into Morphine (10%)

or Codeine-6-Glucuronide (~60%), both of which
contribute to its analgesic action.
Codeine is biotransformed into [...] or Codeine-6Glucuronide (~60%), both of which contribute to its
analgesic action.
Codeine is biotransformed into Morphine (10%)

or Codeine-6-Glucuronide (~60%), both of which
contribute to its analgesic action.
Codeine is biotransformed into Morphine (10%) or [...],

both of which contribute to its analgesic action.
Methylprednisolone is a glucocorticoid used in MS to treat

acute and relapse attacks of MS.
[...] is a glucocorticoid used in MS to treat acute and

relapse attacks of MS.
Steven-Johnson's syndrome is a side effect of

[...] syndrome is a side effect of Carbamazepine (and
Carbamazepine (and other antiepileptics) and is described other antiepileptics) and is described as a severe rash with
as a severe rash with a rapid onset of
a rapid onset of erythematous/purpuric macules that
erythematous/purpuric macules that progress to
progress to epidermal necrosis and sloughing.
epidermal necrosis and sloughing.
aka Exfoliative Dermatitis
What is the MOA of Lamotrigine?
What is the MOA of Lamotrigine?
Blocks voltage gated Na channels
[...]
Opioids are contraindicated in patients with pregnancy due Opioids are contraindicated in patients with [...] due to the
to the risk of the fetus becoming physically dependent.
risk of the fetus becoming physically dependent.
Opioids can cross the placenta and BBB
What is the MOA of Atomoxetine?
What is the MOA of Atomoxetine?
Inhibition of NE reuptake at the prefrontal cortex
[...]

Felbamate?

Felbamate?
Broad
[...]
What is the duration of action of Secobarbitol as a

sedative?
What is the duration of action of Secobarbitol as a

sedative?
Intermediate acting
[...]
What is the pregnancy category of Beta Interferon 1a and What is the pregnancy category of Beta Interferon 1a and
1b?
1b?
C
[...]
What is the clinical use of Buspirone?
What is the clinical use of Buspirone?
Generalized Anxiety Disorder
[...]
Carbidopa is a Dopamine precursor that irreversibly

inhibits DOPA Carboxylase at the periphery only, thereby
blocking the breakdown of L-Dopa to Dopamine.
[...] is a Dopamine precursor that irreversibly inhibits

DOPA Carboxylase at the periphery only, thereby
blocking the breakdown of L-Dopa to Dopamine.
Atomoxetine is a non-stimulant selective NE reuptake

inhibitor that has low abuse potential.
[...] is a non-stimulant selective NE reuptake inhibitor that

has low abuse potential.
Atracurium is a non-depolarizing muscle blocker that is

spontaneously inactivated into Laudanosine

spontaneously inactivated into [...]

[...] is a non-depolarizing muscle blocker that is

What is the fibrin specificity of Streptokinase?
What is the fibrin specificity of Streptokinase?
Minimal
[...]
What dosage of Aspirin is needed to achieve anti-platelet What dosage of Aspirin is needed to achieve anti-platelet
effects?
effects?
Low; 75-325 mg
[...]
What is the MOA of Streptokinase?
What is the MOA of Streptokinase?
Complexes with plasminogen, converting it to plasmin
[...]
Which Dopamine receptors does Rotigotine bind to?
Which Dopamine receptors does Rotigotine bind to?
D3 > D2 > D1
[...]
Rotigotine is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that is

useful in treating Restless Leg Syndrome.
[...] is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that is useful in

treating Restless Leg Syndrome.

Topiramate?

Topiramate?
Broad
[...]

Phenobarbitol?

Phenobarbitol?
Narrow
[...]
Meperidine (Pethidine) is a full opioid agonist at mu

receptors.
Meperidine (Pethidine) is a full opioid agonist at [...]

receptors.
Felbamate is a 2nd generation antiepileptic that is

associated with hepatotoxicity and aplastic anaemia.
[...] is a 2nd generation antiepileptic that is associated

with hepatotoxicity and aplastic anaemia.
Codeine and Hydrocodone are opioids that can act as

antitussives if given in lower doses needed for analgesia.
[...] and Hydrocodone are opioids that can act as

Codeine and Hydrocodone are opioids that can act as

Codeine and [...] are opioids that can act as antitussives if

given in lower doses needed for analgesia.
How does increased lipid solubility influence the potency How does increased lipid solubility influence the potency
of anaesthetics?
of anaesthetics?
Increased potency
[...]
CNS drugs must be lipid soluble to freely cross the

BBB. Hence increased lipid solubility is a good thing.
What is the MOA of Felbamate?
What is the MOA of Felbamate?
Blocks NMDA receptors (super low yield for step 1)
[...]
What is the MOA of Propofol?
What is the MOA of Propofol?
Potentiation of GABAA receptors
[...]
Besides Malignant Hyperthermia, what is the clinical use of
Dantrolene?
[...]
Besides Malignant Hyperthermia, what is the clinical use of

Dantrolene?
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
A toxicity of antipsychotics.
Rotigotine is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that is
administered via a transdermal patch.
[...] is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that is

administered via a transdermal patch.
What is the MOA of Flumanezil?
What is the MOA of Flumanezil?
Antagonism at Benzodiazepine binding sites at GABA-A

receptors
[...]
Natalizumab is a monoclonal antibody used in the

management of Relapse Remitting MS that can cause
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML).
[...] is a monoclonal antibody used in the management of

Relapse Remitting MS that can cause Progressive
Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML).
What is the clinical use of Methadone?
What is the clinical use of Methadone?
Tx of Opioid Abuse
[...]
Miosis is a CNS effect of opioid overdose that does not

develop tolerance, hence we use this in diagnosis.
[...] is a CNS effect of opioid overdose that does not

develop tolerance, hence we use this in diagnosis.
Also a big sign of opiate addiction/abuse

Gingival Hyperplasia and Hirsutism are 2 unique side
effects of the antiepileptic Phenytoin.
Gingival Hyperplasia and Hirsutism are 2 unique side

effects of the antiepileptic [...].
What is the fibrin specificity of Alteplase?
What is the fibrin specificity of Alteplase?
Moderate
[...]
What is the MOA of Carbidopa?
What is the MOA of Carbidopa?
Irreversible Inhibition of peripheral DOPA Carboxylase,

thereby preventing the breakdown of L-Dopa into
Dopamine at the periphery
[...]
Flumanezil is a Benzodiazepin antagonist that blocks

Benzo binding at GABA-A receptors (BZ1 and BZ2
subtypes).
[...] is a Benzodiazepin antagonist that blocks Benzo

binding at GABA-A receptors (BZ1 and BZ2 subtypes).
What class of drugs is useful for treating the cognitive

impairment in Parkinson's Disease?
What class of drugs is useful for treating the cognitive

impairment in Parkinson's Disease?
Cholinesterase Inhibitors
[...]
What type of Ca channels does Ethosuximide block?
What type of Ca channels does Ethosuximide block?
T-type Ca channels at Thalamic neurons
[...]
Tramadol is a partial opioid agonist at mu receptors.
Tramadol is a partial opioid agonist at [...] receptors.
Apomorphine is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that

is administered intranasally.
[...] is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that is

administered intranasally.
Ramelteon is a 3rd generation hypnotic and melatonin [...] is a 3rd generation hypnotic and melatonin agonist that
agonist that shortens sleep latency by acting as an agonist shortens sleep latency by acting as an agonist at MT1
at MT1 and MT2 melatonin receptors.
and MT2 melatonin receptors.
What is the clinical use of Naltrexone?
What is the clinical use of Naltrexone?
Tx of Ethanol Dependence
[...]
Apomorphine is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that

acts as a "rescue drug" for when Parkinson's patients are
frozen during an Off Period.
[...] is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that acts as a

"rescue drug" for when Parkinson's patients are frozen
during an Off Period.
How do GABA levels change in Huntinton's Disease?
How do GABA levels change in Huntinton's Disease?
Decrease
[...]
What is the MOA of the anti-epileptic Vigabatrin?
What is the MOA of the anti-epileptic Vigabatrin?
Inhibition of GABA Transaminase, thereby increasing

GABA levels
[...]

Lamotrigine?

Lamotrigine?
Broad
[...]
What is the equation for the potency of an inhaled

anaesthetic?
What is the equation for the potency of an inhaled

anaesthetic?
Potency = 1 / MAC
[...]
Where MAC = Minimal alveolar concentration

required to prevent 50% of subjects from moving in
response to noxious stimuli.
Which opioid receptor do Dynorphins have the highest
affinity for?
Which opioid receptor do Dynorphins have the highest

affinity for?
Kappa
[...]
Malignant Hyperthermia is a rare, life-threatening

complication of inhaled anaeshetics that involves fever
and severe muscle contraction.
[...] is a rare, life-threatening complication of inhaled

anaeshetics that involves fever and severe muscle
contraction.
Nitrous Oxide is the only inhaled anaesthetic that does

not cause malignant hyperthermia.
Phenytoin and other antiepileptics can cause megaloblastic Phenytoin and other antiepileptics can cause [...] as it can
anaemia as it can impair folate absorption at the GI. This is impair folate absorption at the GI. This is also why it is
also why it is teratogenic.
teratogenic.
All three opioid receptors signal through Gi/Go proteins,
thereby leading to inhibition of adenylate cyclase.
All three opioid receptors signal through Gi/Go proteins,

thereby leading to inhibition of [...].
And downstream decreases in cAMP

What is the MOA of Ketamine?
What is the MOA of Ketamine?
Blocking of NMDA receptors
[...]
What is an "Off Period" in Parkinson's Disease?
What is an "Off Period" in Parkinson's Disease?
A period of increased stiffness, rigidity and the inability to

move
[...]
What symptoms make up the classic triad of Acute Opioid What symptoms make up the classic triad of Acute Opioid
Toxicity?
Toxicity?
Pinpoint Pupils, Respiratory Depression and Coma
[...]
How do ACh levels change in Huntington's Disease?
How do ACh levels change in Huntington's Disease?
Decreased
[...]
Which diuretic is used to treat glaucoma via inhibition of Which diuretic is used to treat glaucoma via inhibition of
carbonic anhydrase?
carbonic anhydrase?
Acetazolamide
[...]
What is the duration of action of Diazepam as a sedative? What is the duration of action of Diazepam as a sedative?
Long
[...]
Atracurium is a non-depolarizing muscle blocker that is [...] is a non-depolarizing muscle blocker that is safe to use
safe to use in patients with hepatic or renal impairment.
in patients with hepatic or renal impairment.
What drug is used to rapidly reverse the blockade in
muscle activation caused by Non-Depolarizing muscle
blockers?
What drug is used to rapidly reverse the blockade in

muscle activation caused by Non-Depolarizing muscle
blockers?
Neostigmine, an AChE inhibitor
[...]
Must be given with atropine to prevent muscarinic

effects such as bradaycardia.
Edrophonium can also be given.
Ropinirole is a non-ergotamine dopamine agonist that
shows agonism at D1 and D2 receptors.

agonism at D1 and D2 receptors.
Which enzyme converts L-Dopa to Dopamine?
Which enzyme converts L-Dopa to Dopamine?
DOPA Decarboxylase (AADC)
[...]
What is the MOA of the anti-epileptic Tiagabine?
What is the MOA of the anti-epileptic Tiagabine?
Inhibition of GABA reuptake
[...]
What is the duration of action of Flunitrazepam as a

sedative?
What is the duration of action of Flunitrazepam as a

sedative?
Intermediate
[...]
The dihydropyridine vasodilator Nifedipine is

recommended in patients with Subarachnoid
Hemorrhaging to reduce the incidence and severity of
neurological deficits.
The dihydropyridine vasodilator [...] is recommended in

patients with Subarachnoid Hemorrhaging to reduce the
incidence and severity of neurological deficits.
Nifedipine and Nimodipine are recommended.

What is the MOA of Entacapone?
What is the MOA of Entacapone?
Inhibition of peripheral COMT, thereby ensuring that LDopa is converted into DA and not a metabolite
[...]
Riluzole is a drug used to slow the progression of ALS [...] is a drug used to slow the progression of ALS through
through the inhibition of NMDA receptors and Glutamate the inhibition of NMDA receptors and Glutamate release.
release.
Corneal microdeposits are a common side effect of

Amiodarone.
[...] microdeposits are a common side effect of

Amiodarone.
What is the MOA of Niacin in the Tx of Hyperlipidemia? What is the MOA of Niacin in the Tx of Hyperlipidemia?
Strong inhibition of lipolysis at adipose tissue; increase in
ApoA1 levels from HDL
[...]
Which Class IA antiarrhythmic is associated with

reversible Drug-Induced SLE?

reversible Drug-Induced SLE?
Procainamide
[...]
Remember, drug-induced lupus has anti-histone

antibodies
Which type of drug is commonly co-administered with
Hydralazine to prevent reflex tachycardia?
Which type of drug is commonly co-administered with

Hydralazine to prevent reflex tachycardia?
Beta-blocker
[...]
Digoxin directly stimulates the vagus nucleus in the CNS.
Digoxin directly stimulates the [...] nucleus in the CNS.
Which class III antiarrhythmic is associated with

only torsade de pointes as an adverse effect?

only torsade de pointes as an adverse effect?
Ibutilide
[...]
Remember, anything that elongates the QT interval

has a risk of causing Torsade.
Class III anti-arrhythmics are K-channel blockers that
prolong repolarization.
Class [...] anti-arrhythmics are K-channel blockers that

Minoxidil and Diazoxide are vasodilators that open ATP

dependent K channels at arteriolar smooth muscle.
[...] and Diazoxide are vasodilators that open ATP



dependent [...] channels at arteriolar smooth muscle.

Minoxidil and [...] are vasodilators that open ATP

Which enzyme is upregulated by Fibrates (Gemfibrozil,

Clofibrate, -fibrate)?
Which enzyme is upregulated by Fibrates (Gemfibrozil,

Clofibrate, -fibrate)?
Liproprotein Lipase (LPL)
[...]
Acanthosis Nigricans is a potential cutaneous adverse

effect of Niacin use due to the hyperglycemia it causes.
[...] is a potential cutaneous adverse effect of Niacin use

due to the hyperglycemia it causes.
What 2 ROA's of Nitroglycerin have significantly long

duration of action?
What 2 ROA's of Nitroglycerin have significantly long

duration of action?
Oral and Transdermal
[...]
Aliskiren is an antihypertensive drug that inhibits Renin and

thereby inhibits the conversion of Angiotensinogen to
Angiotensin I.
[...] is an antihypertensive drug that inhibits Renin and

thereby inhibits the conversion of Angiotensinogen to
Angiotensin I.
What is the MOA of Phenytoin as an antiarrhythmic?
[...]
What is the MOA of Phenytoin as an antiarrhythmic?

Blocks inactive Na channels, thereby decreases AP
duration
Resting Na Channels --(Opens at threshold)--> Active

Na Channels --(Depolarization)--> Inactive Na
Channels
Which cardiac conduction node is particularly sensitive to Which cardiac conduction node is particularly sensitive to
Class II antiarrhythmics?
Class II antiarrhythmics?
AV node; results in an elongated PR interval
[...]
Which non-dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker is similar Which non-dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker is similar
to beta-blockers in effect?
to beta-blockers in effect?
Verapamil
[...]
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Rosuvastatin?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Rosuvastatin?
HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitor
[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Ibutilide?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Ibutilide?
Class III
[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Disopyramide?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Disopyramide?
Class IA
[...]
Rhabdomyolysis is an adverse effect of Statins when

administered with Fibrates and Niacin.
[...] is an adverse effect of Statins when administered with

Fibrates and Niacin.
What is the main mechanism of Quinidine action as an

anti-arrhythmic?
What is the main mechanism of Quinidine action as an

anti-arrhythmic?
Blockade of activated Na channels
[...]
Nitroprusside is the only vasodilator that acts on both

arterioles and veins.
[...] is the only vasodilator that acts on both arterioles

and veins.
Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can be used to treat

HTN in pregnancy.
[...] is a vasodilator that can be used to treat HTN in

pregnancy.
What toxicity is associated with Nitroprusside?
What toxicity is associated with Nitroprusside?
Cyanide toxicity
[...]
What is the effect of Quinidine on the QT interval?
What is the effect of Quinidine on the QT interval?
Prolongation
[...]
Adenosine is an unclassified anti-arrhythmic that can cause

[...] is an unclassified anti-arrhythmic that can cause
bronchospasm and dyspnea through Gq-protein activation bronchospasm and dyspnea through Gq-protein activation
at the lungs.
at the lungs.
[...] is an adverse effect of Nitroglycerin/Isosorbide
Dinitrate that involves the development of tolerance to the
drug during the work week (via industrial exposure) and a
loss of tolerance over the weekend.
"Monday Disease" is an adverse effect of

Nitroglycerin/Isosorbide Dinitrate that involves the
development of tolerance to the drug during the work
week (via industrial exposure) and a loss of tolerance over
the weekend.
Hence when the person returns to work on Monday
there is tachycardia, dizziness and headache when they
are re-exposed.
Enalaprilat is an ACE inhibitor that is used for
Hypertensive Emergency.
[...] is an ACE inhibitor that is used for Hypertensive

Emergency.
Which transporter is directly inhibited by Digoxin?
Which transporter is directly inhibited by Digoxin?
Na/K ATPase
[...]
Isosorbide Mononitrate is a nitrate with strict oral ROA

and long duration of 6-10 hours.
[...] is a nitrate with strict oral ROA and long duration of

6-10 hours.
How does the administration of Nitrates change Ejection

Time?
How does the administration of Nitrates change Ejection

Time?
Decrease
[...]
Vasodilation = decreased venous return = decreased

EDV = decreased SV = decreased Ejection Time
How does Hypokalemia alter Digoxin's effects?
How does Hypokalemia alter Digoxin's effects?
Digoxin has a greater effect as is competes with K+ for

the binding site
[...]
What type of vasodilator is Verapamil?
What type of vasodilator is Verapamil?
Ca-channel blocker
[...]
What is the MOA of Fenoldopam?
Dopamine D1 receptor agonism; causes vasodilation at

coronary, peripheral, renal and splanchnic vessels
[...]
What is the first choice drug in Sustained Ventricular

Tachycardia?
What is the first choice drug in Sustained Ventricular

Tachycardia?
Amiodarone
[...]
What type of diuretic is Hydrochlorothiazide?
What type of diuretic is Hydrochlorothiazide?
Thiazide
[...]
What is the DOC for Type I Hyperlipidemia?
What is the DOC for Type I Hyperlipidemia?
Low Fat Diet
[...]
Increased chylomicrons
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Cholestyramine?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Cholestyramine?
Bile Acid Resin
[...]
How does the administration of Nitrates change HR?
How does the administration of Nitrates change HR?
Increase via reflex response
[...]
Class Ic Na channel blockers bind to and blocks all forms

of Na channels.
Class [...] Na channel blockers bind to and blocks all

forms of Na channels.
e.g. Flecainide
e.g. Flecainide
SLE-like syndrome is an adverse effect of Procainamide
that can be diagnosed through the presence of AntiHistone antibodies.
[...] is an adverse effect of Procainamide that can be

diagnosed through the presence of Anti-Histone
antibodies.

that can be diagnosed through the presence of AntiHistone antibodies.

that can be diagnosed through the presence of [...]
antibodies.
Which Ca channel blocker is associated with a

predisposition to Digoxin toxicity?
Which Ca channel blocker is associated with a

predisposition to Digoxin toxicity?
Verapamil
[...]
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmic preferentially affects Which type of Class I antiarrhythmic preferentially affects
ischemic or depolarized Purkinje fibers and
ischemic or depolarized Purkinje fibers and
ventricular tissue?
ventricular tissue?
Class IB
[...]
This is because the Na channels at these tissue are

inactive.
Channels
Which 2 beta-blockers are the ones recommended in HF? Which 2 beta-blockers are the ones recommended in HF?
Metoprolol and Carvedilol
[...]
What is the MOA of Dobutamine?
What is the MOA of Dobutamine?
Selective beta1-agonism, thereby increasing intracellular

Ca
[...]
Loop diuretics are preferred over thiazide diuretics in

malignant HTN or chronic kidney disease.
[...] diuretics are preferred over thiazide diuretics in

Loop diuretics are preferred over thiazide diuretics in

Loop diuretics are preferred over [...] diuretics in

What type of vasodilators are 1st choice drugs for treating What type of vasodilators are 1st choice drugs for treating
HTN?
HTN?
Ca-channel blocking vasodilators
[...]
What is the clinical use of Phenytoin?
What is the clinical use of Phenytoin?
Digitalis-induced arrhythmias
[...]
What is the MOA of Mexiletine as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Mexiletine as an antiarrhythmic?

duration
[...]

Channels
Ibutilide is a Class III anti-arrhythmic that is only used in [...] is a Class III anti-arrhythmic that is only used in atrial
atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation.
flutter and atrial fibrillation.
What is the duration of action of Adenosine?
What is the duration of action of Adenosine?
Very short (~15 sec)
[...]
N-acetylprocainamide is an active metabolite of

Procainamide that blocks K-channels as an antiarrhythmic.
[...] is an active metabolite of Procainamide that blocks Kchannels as an anti-arrhythmic.
Dopamine yields positive inotropic effects

with intermediate doses.
Dopamine yields positive inotropic effects with [...] doses.
2-5 mcg/min/Kg
What is the effect of Amiodarone on the QT interval?
What is the effect of Amiodarone on the QT interval?
Marked prolongation
[...]
What is the primary clinical use of Fenoldopam?
What is the primary clinical use of Fenoldopam?
Hypertensive emergency
[...]
Class Ic anti-arrhythmics are Na-channel blockers that

have little effect on repolarization.
Class [...] anti-arrhythmics are Na-channel blockers that

have little effect on repolarization.
How does Lidocaine change the refractoriness in normal

cardiac cells?
How does Lidocaine change the refractoriness in normal

cardiac cells?
Decrease
[...]
Torsade de Pointes is a ventricular tachycardia that is

commonly cause by a prolonged QT interval.
[...] is a ventricular tachycardia that is commonly cause by

a prolonged QT interval.
Amiodarone and Sotalol are Class III antiarrhythmics that [...] and Sotalol are Class III antiarrhythmics that are used
are used in ventricular tachycardia.
in ventricular tachycardia.
Amiodarone and Sotalol are Class III antiarrhythmics that Amiodarone and [...] are Class III antiarrhythmics that are
are used in ventricular tachycardia.
used in ventricular tachycardia.
What is the most common side effect of Quinidine?
What is the most common side effect of Quinidine?
Cinchonism
[...]
Class Ia Na-channel blockers bind to and block active

Na-channels.
Class [...] Na-channel blockers bind to and block active

Na-channels.
e.g. Quinidine and Procainamide

Class Ia Na-channel blockers bind to and block active
Na-channels.
e.g. Quinidine and Procainamide
Class Ia Na-channel blockers bind to and block [...] Nachannels.
What is the MOA of Class IB antiarrhythmics?
What is the MOA of Class IB antiarrhythmics?

duration
[...]

Channels
Gemfibrozil is the drug of choice for Type III
Hyperlipidemia
[...] is the drug of choice for Type III Hyperlipidemia
Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that is administered as a

prodrug.
[...] is an ACE inhibitor that is administered as a prodrug.
What type of Class I antiarrhythmics are used in digitalis- What type of Class I antiarrhythmics are used in digitalisinduced arrhythmias?
induced arrhythmias?
Class IB
[...]
Class II anti-arrhythmics are used to treat arrhythmias due Class [...] anti-arrhythmics are used to treat arrhythmias
to increased adrenergic activity.
due to increased adrenergic activity.
Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can cause Lupus-like
syndrome (Drug-induced SLE) as an adverse effect.
[...] is a vasodilator that can cause Lupus-like syndrome

(Drug-induced SLE) as an adverse effect.
Remember, Drug induced SLE has anti-histone

antibodies
Class II anti-arrhythmics are used for the chronic control
of A-fib, A-flutter and SVT.
Class [...] anti-arrhythmics are used for the chronic

control of A-fib, A-flutter and SVT.
What class of antiarrhythmic is Propafenone?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Propafenone?
Class IC
[...]
Which type of Ca channel blockers primarily act at the

heart?
Which type of Ca channel blockers primarily act at the

heart?
Non-dihydropyridines (Verapamil > Diltiazem >

Amlodipine = Nifedipine)
[...]
Verapamil = Ventricle
What is the MOA of Colestipol?
What is the MOA of Colestipol?
Inhibits the intestinal rebasorption of bile acids, thereby the

liver has to use cholesterol to make more
[...]
Magnesium Sulfate is an anti-arrhythmic that can treat

Digitalis induced arrhythmia and other arrhythmias
involving decreased Mg levels.
[...] is an anti-arrhythmic that can treat Digitalis induced

arrhythmia and other arrhythmias involving decreased Mg
levels.
Cyanide toxicity is associated with high doses of the

vasodilator Nitroprusside
[...] toxicity is associated with high doses of the



vasodilator [...]
Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that is used to treat

Hypertensive Emergency and acts by increasing cGMP in
smooth muscle via direct release of NO.
[...] is a vasodilator that is used to treat Hypertensive

Emergency and acts by increasing cGMP in smooth
muscle via direct release of NO.
What the major cardiovascular action of Nitrates/Nitrites?
[...]
What the major cardiovascular action of Nitrates/Nitrites?

Significant relaxation of large veins; thereby decreasing
preload, CO, BP and improving subendocardial perfusion
Class IV anti-arrhythmics are contraindicated in WolfParkinson-White Syndrome.
Class IV anti-arrhythmics are contraindicated in [...]

Syndrome.
What is the MOA of Ca channel blockers in the Tx of

Angina?
What is the MOA of Ca channel blockers in the Tx of

Angina?
Antagonism of L-type Ca channels; causes vasodilation

and reduces cardiac O2 demand and increases O2 supply
[...]
Which Class III antiarrhythmics are used in ventricular

tachycardia?
Which Class III antiarrhythmics are used in ventricular

tachycardia?
Amiodarone; Sotalol
[...]
What is the DOC for Type IV Hyperlipidemia?
What is the DOC for Type IV Hyperlipidemia?
Niacin or Gemfibrozil
[...]
Increased VLDL
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with ventricular
arrhythmia due to risk of V-fib.
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with [...] due to risk

of V-fib.
What is the duration of action of Nitroprusside?
What is the duration of action of Nitroprusside?
Short
[...]
Ezetimibe is a cholesterol absorption blocker used to treat

hyperlipidemia that is rarely associated with increased
liver function tests (LFTs).
[...] is a cholesterol absorption blocker used to treat

hyperlipidemia that is rarely associated with increased
liver function tests (LFTs).
Which type of Ca channel blockers are used to treat

Atrial Fibrillation/Flutter?

Atrial Fibrillation/Flutter?
Non-dihydropyridines
[...]
Remember, the non-dihydropyridines act at the heart.

What type of antihyperlipidemics upregulate Lipoprotein
Lipase (LPL) to increase TG clearance?
What type of antihyperlipidemics upregulate Lipoprotein

Lipase (LPL) to increase TG clearance?
Fibrates
[...]
Via this MOA, Fibrates yield the greatest decrease in

TG levels
What is the intracellular MOA of Nitrates/Nitrites in the
Tx of Angina?
What is the intracellular MOA of Nitrates/Nitrites in the

Tx of Angina?
Conversion to NO; NO activates cytosolic guanylyl

cyclase
[...]
[...] are a type of Class I antiarrhythmic that are

contraindicated post-MI as they then can act
proarrhythmic.
Class IC antiarrhythmic are a type of Class I

antiarrhythmic that are contraindicated post-MI as they
then can act proarrhythmic.
Class IC is contraindicated in structural and ischemic
heart disease.
What is the MOA of Digoxin?
Inhibition of Na/K ATPase, thereby decreasing Ca efflux

and increasing contractility
[...]
Which dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker is commonly

used in Hypertensive Emergency?
Which dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker is commonly

used in Hypertensive Emergency?
Nicardipine; Clevidipine
[...]
What is the MOA of Propafenone as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Propafenone as an antiarrhythmic?
Class IC; Blocks all morphological forms of the Na

channel, thereby significantly prolonging the refractory
period at the AV node; minimal effect on AP duration
[...]
What is the MOA of Isosorbide Dinitrate?
What is the MOA of Isosorbide Dinitrate?
Increases NO in vascular smooth muscle, thereby causing

an increase in cGMP and smooth muscle relaxation
[...]

Raynaud Phenomenon?

Raynaud Phenomenon?
Dihydropyridine (except for Nimodipine)
[...]
Remember, the dihydropyridines primarily act at

vascular smooth muscle, not the heart.
Fenoldopam is a vasodilator that activates peripheral D1- [...] is a vasodilator that activates peripheral D1-dopamine
dopamine receptors.
receptors.
Which 2 Ca channel blockers that act at the heart can
cause AV block, Arrhythmias, V-fib or bradycardia?
Which 2 Ca channel blockers that act at the heart can

cause AV block, Arrhythmias, V-fib or bradycardia?
Diltiazem and Verapamil
[...]
What vasodilator is the first-line therapy for

Hypertension in pregnancy?
What vasodilator is the first-line therapy for

Hypertension in pregnancy?
Hydralazine (with Methyldopa)
[...]
What is the most commonly prescribed anti-arrhythmic?
What is the most commonly prescribed anti-arrhythmic?
Amiodarone
[...]
Sotalol is a Class III anti-arrhythmic that is typically used

in Supraventricular Arrhythmias or in lifethreatening Ventricular arrhythmias
[...] is a Class III anti-arrhythmic that is typically used



in [...] or in life-threatening Ventricular arrhythmias


in Supraventricular Arrhythmias or in life-threatening [...]
What is the MOA of thiazide diuretics?
Inhibition of NaCl symporters (NCC) at the early DT
[...]
Results in an initial decrease in plasma volume (i.e. SV

and CO) and a late-stage decrease in TPR.
Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with Digoxin
use?
Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with Digoxin

use?
Hyperkalemia
[...]
Indicates poor prognosis.

Quinidine is an anti-arrhythmic drug that increases Digoxin
toxicity by preventing its elimination.
[...] is an anti-arrhythmic drug that increases Digoxin

toxicity by preventing its elimination.
Diazoxide is a vasodilator that can be used to treat

hypoglycemia secondary to an insulinoma.
[...] is a vasodilator that can be used to treat hypoglycemia

secondary to an insulinoma.
Thrombocytopenia is a hematological adverse effect of

Class IA antiarrhythmics.
[...] is a hematological adverse effect of Class

IA antiarrhythmics.
What is the MOA of ACE Inhibitors?
What is the MOA of ACE Inhibitors?
Inhibition of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE);

thereby inhibiting RAAS
[...]
Niacin (Vitamin B3) is a vitamin used to treat

Hyperlipidemia that can cause Hyperglycemia.
[...] is a vitamin used to treat Hyperlipidemia that can

cause Hyperglycemia.
Lidocaine is the anti-arrhythmic used in the acute treatment [...] is the anti-arrhythmic used in the acute treatment of
of ventricular arrhythmias in the ICU and post MI.
ventricular arrhythmias in the ICU and post MI.
What is the MOA of Class II antiarrhythmics?
What is the MOA of Class II antiarrhythmics?
Beta-blockade; Decreased SA and AV nodal activity be

decreasing cAMP and Ca currents; Decreases slope 4 of
the AP
[...]
Which class of antiarrhythmics are contraindicated in

cocaine users?
Which class of antiarrhythmics are contraindicated in

cocaine users?
Class II; Beta-blockers
[...]
There is a risk of unopposed alpha-adrenergic

receptor agonist activity (due to the cocaine action) if
there is beta-blockade present.
How do Nitroglycerin and Isosorbide Dinitrate change
preload?
How do Nitroglycerin and Isosorbide Dinitrate change

preload?
Decrease
[...]
Cholesterol Gallstones are a biliary adverse effect of

Fibrates, especially when given concurrently with bile acid
resins.
[...] are a biliary adverse effect of Fibrates, especially

when given concurrently with bile acid resins.
Labetalol is a non-selective alpha-beta adrenergic blocker [...] is a non-selective alpha-beta adrenergic blocker that
that can be used in Hypertensive Emergency.
can be used in Hypertensive Emergency.
What type of Class I antiarrhythmics are used in acute

ventricular arrhythmias, especially post-MI?
What type of Class I antiarrhythmics are used in acute

ventricular arrhythmias, especially post-MI?
Class IB
[...]
Why post-MI? Because the Na channels in infarcted

tissue are all inactive (the form that IB binds to).
Channels
Which type of antihyperlipidemics is associated with bad
taste and GI discomfort?
Which type of antihyperlipidemics is associated with bad

taste and GI discomfort?
Bile Acid Resins (hence, patients hate them)
[...]
Class IA antiarrhythmics are a type of Class I

antiarrythmics that bind to active Na channels.
[...] are a type of Class I antiarrythmics that bind to

active Na channels.

Channels
Gemfibrozil is an antihyperlipidemic that activates PPARalpha, thereby increasing the expression of Lipoprotein
Lipase.
[...] is an antihyperlipidemic that activates PPAR-alpha,

thereby increasing the expression of Lipoprotein Lipase.
What is the MOA of Gemfibrozil?
Upregulation of LPL to increase TG clearance; Activation

of PPAR-alpha to induce HDL synthesis
[...]
All of the other fibrates are "-fibrate"

How does Digoxin change HR?
How does Digoxin change HR?
Decrease (via Vagal Nerve [CN X] stimulation)
[...]
Phenytoin is a Class Ib anti-arrhythmic that blocks mainly

inactivated Na channels in the heart and brain.
[...] is a Class Ib anti-arrhythmic that blocks mainly

inactivated Na channels in the heart and brain.
Cinchonism is an adverse effect of Quinidine that involves

headache and tinnitus.
[...] is an adverse effect of Quinidine that involves

headache and tinnitus.
What type of Class I antiarrhythmics bind to active Na

channels?
What type of Class I antiarrhythmics bind to active Na

channels?
Class IA
[...]
What is the MOA of Bile Acid Resins as

antihyperlipidemics?
What is the MOA of Bile Acid Resins as

antihyperlipidemics?
Prevent the intestinal reabsorption of bile acids, thereby

making the liver use cholesterol to make more
[...]
Which class of antiarrhythmics is used to prevent nodal

arrhythmias (e.g. SVT)?
Which class of antiarrhythmics is used to prevent nodal

arrhythmias (e.g. SVT)?
Class IV
[...]
What is the main MOA of beta-blockers in the Tx of

Angina?
What is the main MOA of beta-blockers in the Tx of

Angina?
Reduction of cardiac O2 demand by reduction in HR,

contractility and BP
[...]
What is the MOA of Disopyramide?
What is the MOA of Disopyramide?
Class IA; Blocks active Na channels, thereby increases

AP duration, effective refractory period and duration
of QT interval
[...]
Remember, the QT interval is ventricular conraction.

Hence longer APs will lead to longer contractions and
QT interval
Channels
What class of antiarrhythmic is Dofetilide?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Dofetilide?
Class III
[...]

hyperlipidemia that incerases Apo-A1 expression on
HDL.
[...] is a vitamin used to treat hyperlipidemia that incerases

Apo-A1 expression on HDL.
Hydralazine is a vasodilator that acts by increasing cGMP [...] is a vasodilator that acts by increasing cGMP in cells
in cells and is contraindicated in Angina/CAD due to the and is contraindicated in Angina/CAD due to the risk of
risk of compensatory tachycardia.
compensatory tachycardia.
What is a serious side effect of Niacin administration?
What is a serious side effect of Niacin administration?
Hepatotoxicity
[...]
Niacin (Vit B3) is a vitamin used to treat hyperlipidemia by [...] is a vitamin used to treat hyperlipidemia by inhibiting
inhibiting lipolysis in adipose tissue and reducing hepatic
lipolysis in adipose tissue and reducing hepatic VLDL
VLDL synthesis.
synthesis.
What is the MOA of Losartan?
What is the MOA of Losartan?
Competitive antagonism of Angiotensin II Receptors
[...]
What is the DOC for Type IIb Hyperlipidemia?
What is the DOC for Type IIb Hyperlipidemia?
Statins
[...]
Increased LDL and VLDL

Class Ib anti-arrhythmics display short recovery time of Class [...] anti-arrhythmics display short recovery time of
the channel they bind to.
What is the clinical use of Ibutilide?
What is the clinical use of Ibutilide?
Acute Atrial Flutter or A-Fib
[...]
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat Atrial

Fibrillation by decreasing conduction at the AV
nodes and depressing the SA node.
[...] is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat Atrial

Fibrillation by decreasing conduction at the AV
nodes and depressing the SA node.
What type of Ca channels do both dihydropyridine and

non-dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers block?
What type of Ca channels do both dihydropyridine and

non-dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers block?
Voltage-dependent L-type Ca channels
[...]
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat CHF by

increasing cardiac contractility.
[...] is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat CHF by

increasing cardiac contractility.
Digitalis Delerium is a side effect of Digoxin at very high

doses. It is characterised by confusion , disorientation ,
agitation and hallucinations.
[...] is a side effect of Digoxin at very high doses. It is

characterised by confusion , disorientation , agitation and
hallucinations.
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Lovastatin?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Lovastatin?
HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitor
[...]
Blurry Yellow Vision is a neurological adverse effect of

Digoxin that occurs due to its cholinergic action.
[...] is a neurological adverse effect of Digoxin that occurs

due to its cholinergic action.

blue/gray skin deposits that cause photodermatitis?

blue/gray skin deposits that cause photodermatitis?
Amiodarone
[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Diltiazem?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Diltiazem?
Class IV
[...]
What is the bioavailability of Digoxin?
What is the bioavailability of Digoxin?
75%
[...]
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that yields T-wave

inversion on an ECG.
[...] is a cardiac glycoside that yields T-wave

inversion on an ECG.
What type of diuretic is Indapamide?
What type of diuretic is Indapamide?
Thiazide diuretic
[...]
What is the MOA of Lidocaine as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Lidocaine as an antiarrhythmic?

duration
[...]

Channels
Propanolol is a class II antiarrhythmic that can exacerbate
vasospasm in Prinzmetal angina.
[...] is a class II antiarrhythmic that can exacerbate

vasospasm in Prinzmetal angina.
One can co-administer Aspirin with Niacin to prevent

cutaneous flushing.
One can co-administer [...] with Niacin to prevent

cutaneous flushing.
Central a2 receptor agonism; thereby decreases

adrenergic tone
[...]
What is the antidote for Ca channel blockers?

[...]
What is the antidote for Ca channel blockers?

B1 adrenergic agonists; or other drugs that increase Ca
flux
What adverse effect of Nitroglycerin/Isosorbide Dinitrate What adverse effect of Nitroglycerin/Isosorbide Dinitrate
is due to industrial exposure to the drug?
is due to industrial exposure to the drug?
"Monday Disease"
[...]
Involves the development of tolerance to the drug

during the work week (via industrial exposure) and a
loss of tolerance over the weekend. Hence when the
person returns to work on Monday there is
tachycardia, dizziness and headache when they are reexposed.
Class II anti-arrhythmics are beta-blockers.
Class [...] anti-arrhythmics are beta-blockers.
Amlodipine, Nimodipine and Nifedipine are

dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers that block voltage
dependent L-type Ca channels.
[...], Nimodipine and Nifedipine are dihydropyridine Ca

channel blockers that block voltage dependent L-type Ca
channels.
-dipine = Dihydropyridine
Amlodipine, [...] and Nifedipine are dihydropyridine Ca

channels.
Amlodipine, Nimodipine and [...] are dihydropyridine Ca

channels.
What is the MOA of Aliskiren?
What is the MOA of Aliskiren?
Direct inhibition of Renin
[...]
How does hypomagnesemia affect Digoxin action?
How does hypomagnesemia affect Digoxin action?
Increased Digoxin action
[...]
What is the MOA of Quinidine as an antiarryhtmic?
What is the MOA of Quinidine as an antiarryhtmic?

of QT interval
[...]

QT interval
Channels
Selective b1 antagonism
[...]
Fenoldopam is a vasodilator used in Hypertensive

[...] is a vasodilator used in Hypertensive Emergency that
Emergency that acts though Dopamine D1 agonism,
acts though Dopamine D1 agonism, thereby causing
thereby causing coronary, peripheral, renal and splanchnic coronary, peripheral, renal and splanchnic vasodilation.
vasodilation.
Mexiletine is an anti-arrhythmic that is a Lidocaine analog [...] is an anti-arrhythmic that is a Lidocaine analog and is
and is used in ventricular tachycardia.
used in ventricular tachycardia.
Mexiletine is an anti-arrhythmic that is a Lidocaine analog Mexiletine is an anti-arrhythmic that is a Lidocaine analog
and is used in ventricular tachycardia.
and is used in [...].
Amiodarone and Quinidine are antiarrhythmics that cause
[...] and Quinidine are antiarrhythmics that cause a
a predisposition to Digoxin toxicity by displacing Digoxin predisposition to Digoxin toxicity by displacing Digoxin
from tissue proteins and decreasing its clearance, thereby from tissue proteins and decreasing its clearance, thereby
increasing [Digoxin]serum.
Amiodarone and Quinidine are antiarrhythmics that cause Amiodarone and [...] are antiarrhythmics that cause a
a predisposition to Digoxin toxicity by displacing Digoxin predisposition to Digoxin toxicity by displacing Digoxin
from tissue proteins and decreasing its clearance, thereby from tissue proteins and decreasing its clearance, thereby
What is the MOA of Sotalol as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Sotalol as an antiarrhythmic?
Blocks K channels, thereby increasing AP

duration and effective refractory period
[...]
Class IB Antiarrhythmics are a type of Class I

antiarrhythmics that bind to inactive Na channels.
[...] are a type of Class I antiarrhythmics that bind to

inactive Na channels.

Channels
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Atorvastatin?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Atorvastatin?
[...]
How does the administration of Nitrates change EDV?
How does the administration of Nitrates change EDV?
Decrease
[...]
Vasodilation causes a decrease in venous return and

hence a decrease in EDV.
hypothyroidism/hyperthyroidism?

hypothyroidism/hyperthyroidism?
Amiodarone
[...]
Amiodarone is 40% iodine by weight.

Sotalol is a Class III anti-arrhythmic that is also a
nonselective beta-blocker
[...] is a Class III anti-arrhythmic that is also a nonselective

beta-blocker
What is the effect of Quinidine on the automaticity of

cardiomyocytes?
What is the effect of Quinidine on the automaticity of

cardiomyocytes?
Decrease
[...]
What is the clinical use of Procainamide?
What is the clinical use of Procainamide?
Tx of the arrythmias associated with Wolf-ParkinsonWhite syndrome
[...]
Which class III antiarrhythmic is associated with corneal Which class III antiarrhythmic is associated with corneal
deposits as an adverse effect?
deposits as an adverse effect?
Amiodarone
[...]
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that yields ST segment

scooping on an ECG.
[...] is a cardiac glycoside that yields ST segment

scooping on an ECG.
Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) are 1st choice Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) are [...] choice
antihypertensives.
antihypertensives.
Which type of Ca channel blockers primarily act at
Which type of Ca channel blockers primarily act at

Dihyropyridines (Amlodipine = Nifedipine > Diltiazem >

Verapamil)
[...]
What type of diuretics are 1st choice drugs for treating

Hypertension?
What type of diuretics are 1st choice drugs for treating

Hypertension?
Thizaides
[...]
What type of diuretic is Spironolactone?
K-sparing
[...]
What is the anti-arrhythmic of choice to treat PSVT?
What is the anti-arrhythmic of choice to treat PSVT?
Adenosine
[...]
How does Hyperkalemia alter Digoxin action?
How does Hyperkalemia alter Digoxin action?
Reduction; hyperkalemia leads to dephosphorylation of

the ATPase subunit
[...]
Which class of antiarrhythmics is used for rate control in Which class of antiarrhythmics is used for rate control in
atrial fibrillation?
atrial fibrillation?
Class IV
[...]
How do beta-blockers change the PR interval?
How do beta-blockers change the PR interval?
Elongation
[...]
Class Ia anti-arrhythmics exhibit intermediate recovery Class [...] anti-arrhythmics exhibit intermediate recovery
time of the channel they bind to.
time of the channel they bind to.
What is the MOA of Diltiazem as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Diltiazem as an antiarrhythmic?
Ca channel blockers; Decrease AP conduction

velocity, increase the effective refractory period
[...]
Which transporter is indirectly inhibited by Digoxin?
Which transporter is indirectly inhibited by Digoxin?
Na/Ca exchanger/antiporter (via Na/K ATPase)
[...]
What structural type of Na channels are blocked by

Class IA antiarrhythmics?
What structural type of Na channels are blocked by

Active Na channels
[...]

Channels
Fibrates are a type of antihyperlipidemic that function by
upregulating LPL (to increase TG clearance) and
activating PPAR-alpha (to induce HDL synthesis).
[...] are a type of antihyperlipidemic that function by

upregulating LPL (to increase TG clearance) and
activating PPAR-alpha (to induce HDL synthesis).
Fibrates = Gemfibrozil; -fibrate

What is the MOA of Statins (Lovastatin, Pravastatin, etc)? What is the MOA of Statins (Lovastatin, Pravastatin, etc)?
Inhibition of HMG-CoA Reductase, thereby inhibiting the
converstion of HMG-CoA to Mevalonate (a cholesterol
precursor)
[...]
What is the treatment for Class II antiarrhythmic

overdose?
What is the treatment for Class II antiarrhythmic

overdose?
Glucagon
[...]
What is the MOA of Minoxidil?
What is the MOA of Minoxidil?
Opening of ATP dependent K channels at arteriolar

smooth muscle
[...]
Thereby causing hyperpolarization and relaxation

Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that is rapidly metabolized
into NO which then causes vasodilation.
[...] is a vasodilator that is rapidly metabolized into NO

which then causes vasodilation.
Which class III antiarrhythmic is 40% iodine by weight?
Which class III antiarrhythmic is 40% iodine by weight?
Amiodarone
[...]
Hence hypothyroidism/hyperthyroidism are adverse

effects.
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with any form
of Bradycardia due to risk of complete heart block.
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with any form of [...]

due to risk of complete heart block.
Class Ia anti-arrhythmics are Na-channel blockers that

moderately decrease the slope of phase 0.

moderately decrease the slope of phase 0.

Cinchonism as a side-effect?

Cinchonism as a side-effect?
Quinidine
[...]
Headache and tinnitus.

Which type of blood vessels are preferentially dilated by Which type of blood vessels are preferentially dilated by
Nitroglycerin and Isosorbide Dinitrate?
Nitroglycerin and Isosorbide Dinitrate?
Veins >> arteries
[...]
Furosemide is the most effective diuretic in the treatment

of heart failure.
[...] is the most effective diuretic in the treatment of heart

failure.
What is the clinical use of Gemfibrozil?
What is the clinical use of Gemfibrozil?
Tx of Type III Hyperlipoproteinemia
[...]
What is the first choice drug in the prophylaxis of V-fib?
What is the first choice drug in the prophylaxis of V-fib?
Amiodarone
[...]
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics are used in SVTs

(including A-fib)?
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics are used in SVTs

(including A-fib)?
Class IC
[...]
What adverse effect of Statins is seen when they are coadministered with Fibrates and Niacin?
What adverse effect of Statins is seen when they are coadministered with Fibrates and Niacin?
Rhabdomyolysis
[...]
Which vitamin can be used to treat Hyperlipidemia by

reducing hepatic VLDL synthesis?
Which vitamin can be used to treat Hyperlipidemia by

reducing hepatic VLDL synthesis?
Niacin (Vitamin B3)
[...]
"Monday Disease" is an adverse effect of

Nitroglycerin/Isosorbide Dinitrate that is commonly seen
following industrial exposure to the drug.
[...] is an adverse effect of Nitroglycerin/Isosorbide

Dinitrate that is commonly seen following industrial
exposure to the drug.
Involves the development of tolerance to the drug

during the work week (via industrial exposure) and a
loss of tolerance over the weekend. Hence when the
person returns to work on Monday there is
tachycardia, dizziness and headache when they are reexposed.
What type of vasodilator is Nicardipine?
What type of vasodilator is Nicardipine?
Ca-channel blocker
[...]
What is the MOA of Class IA antiarrhythmics?
What is the MOA of Class IA antiarrhythmics?
Blocks active Na channels, thereby increasing AP

duration and the effective refractory period; QT
interval elongates as a result
[...]

Channels
What is the pregnancy category of Lovastatin?
What is the pregnancy category of Lovastatin?
[...]
What type of diuretic is Furosemide?
Loop diuretic
[...]
How does Hypokalemia influence Digoxin action?
How does Hypokalemia influence Digoxin action?
Increased Digoxin action (and hence increased toxicity)
[...]
Hypokalemia is permissive to Digoxin action as it

increases Digoxin binding at K+ binding sites on the
Na/K ATPase. Remember, Digoxin competes with K
for the Na/K ATPase binding site in order to inhibit it.
Beta-blockers are contraindicated in patients that have a
PR interval longer than 0.24 seconds.
Beta-blockers are contraindicated in patients that have a

PR interval longer than [...] seconds.
What is the MOA of Ezetimibe in the treatment of

hyperlipidemia?
What is the MOA of Ezetimibe in the treatment of

hyperlipidemia?
Prevents cholesterol absorption at the small intestine brush

border
[...]
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Gemfibrozil?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Gemfibrozil?
Fibrate
[...]
What is the MOA of Colesevelam?
What is the MOA of Colesevelam?
Inhibits the intestional reabsorption of bile acids, thereby

[...]
What is the MOA of Methyldopa?
What is the MOA of Methyldopa?
Central a2 receptor agonism; thereby decreasing

adrenergic tone
[...]
Hepatotoxicity is an adverse effect of Statins and is

characterized by an elevation in Liver Function Tests
(LFTs).
[...] is an adverse effect of Statins and is characterized by

an elevation in Liver Function Tests (LFTs).
i.e. ALT and AST levels are elevated

Magnesium (Mg2+) is a trace element that is used to treat
Torsade de Pointes and Digoxin toxicity.
[...] is a trace element that is used to treat Torsade de

Pointes and Digoxin toxicity.
Ezetimibe is a cholesterol absorption blocker that is used [...] is a cholesterol absorption blocker that is used to treat
to treat hyperlipidemia by preventing cholesterol
hyperlipidemia by preventing cholesterol absorption at the
absorption at the small intestine brush border.
small intestine brush border.
How does the administration of Beta-blockers change
Ejection Time?

Ejection Time?
Increase
[...]
Beta-blockade = vasoconstriction = increased TPR =

increased venous return = increased EDV = increased
SV = increased Ejection Time
What is the MOA of Class IC antiarrhythmics?
[...]
What is the MOA of Class IC antiarrhythmics?

Blocks all morphological forms of the Na channel,
thereby significantly prolonging the refractory period
at the AV node; minimal effect on AP duration
What is the main MOA of Digoxin?
What is the main MOA of Digoxin?
Blockade of the Na/K ATPase by competing with K
[...]
Class Ia anti-arrhythmics are Na-channel blockers that


Thiazides are always used in combination with Furosemide Thiazides are always used in combination with [...] when
when treating HF
treating HF
Spironolactone is a RAAS drug that attenuates the
[...] is a RAAS drug that attenuates the pathological
pathological remodeling that occurs in heart failure and is remodeling that occurs in heart failure and is additive to the
additive to the positive effect of ACE Inhibitors.
positive effect of ACE Inhibitors.
Minoxidil is a vasodilator that is rarely used due to its
toxicity. It is only employed when other drugs have not
treated HTN.
[...] is a vasodilator that is rarely used due to its toxicity. It

is only employed when other drugs have not treated HTN.
Which Class III antiarrhythmic is associated with torsade Which Class III antiarrhythmic is associated with torsade
de pointes and excessive beta-blockade as adverse
de pointes and excessive beta-blockade as adverse
effects?
effects?
Sotalol
[...]
How do Ca channel blockers influence muscle contractility How do Ca channel blockers influence muscle contractility
at cardiac and smooth muscle?
at cardiac and smooth muscle?
Decrease
[...]
Direct inhibition of Na/K ATPase, thereby indirectly

inhibiting the Na/Ca exchanger and yielding increased
intracellular [Ca] and subsequent increase in inotropy
[...]
Acidosis accentuates the Na-channel blockade of Class

I anti-arrhythmics as they are weak bases with pKa > 7.
Acidosis accentuates the Na-channel blockade of Class

[...] anti-arrhythmics as they are weak bases with pKa >
7.
Alkalosis diminishes the Na channel blockade

Quinidine is contradindicated in patients with
prolonged QT intervals.
Quinidine is contradindicated in patients with

prolonged [...] intervals.
What class of antiarrhythmic is Amiodarone?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Amiodarone?
Class III
[...]
ACE inhibitors are 1st choice antihypertensives.
ACE inhibitors are [...] choice antihypertensives.
What is the MOA of Amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic?

[...]
What class of antiarrhythmics are K-channel blockers?
What class of antiarrhythmics are K-channel blockers?
Class III
[...]
Which type of blood vessel is preferentially dilated by

Hydralazine?
Which type of blood vessel is preferentially dilated by

Hydralazine?
Arterioles > veins
[...]

cardiac contractility?

cardiac contractility?
Decrease
[...]
Beta-agonists would increase contractility.

Statins inhibit the CYP450 3A4 enzyme.
Statins inhibit the CYP450 [...] enzyme.
What is the half-life (t1/2) of Digoxin?
What is the half-life (t1/2) of Digoxin?
40 hrs
[...]
What is the DOC in diagnosing/abolishing

supraventricular tachycardia?
What is the DOC in diagnosing/abolishing

supraventricular tachycardia?
Adenosine
[...]
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics are considered a

last resort in refractory ventricular tachycardia?
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics are considered a

last resort in refractory ventricular tachycardia?
Class IC
[...]
What is the DOC for Type III Hyperlipidemia?
Gemfibrozil
[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Flecainide?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Flecainide?
Class IC
[...]
Which hematological adverse effect is associated with

Which hematological adverse effect is associated with

Thrombocytopenia
[...]

HR?

HR?
Decrease
[...]
Beta-agonists would increase HR

What is the MOA of Lidocaine?
What is the MOA of Lidocaine?
Blockade of both activated and inactivated Na-channel

blockers
[...]
Torsade de Pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that [...] is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated
is associated with Class IA antiarrhythmics due to the QT
with Class IA antiarrhythmics due to the QT interval
interval elongation.
elongation.
Remember, anything that elongates the QT interval
can result in Torsade de Pointes.
What type of antihyperlipidemic yields the greatest
decrease in triglycerides?

decrease in triglycerides?
Fibrates (e.g. Gemfibrozil)
[...]
What is the clinical use of Fenoldopam?
What is the clinical use of Fenoldopam?
Hypertensive Emergency
[...]
Bile Acid Resins are a type of antihyperlipidemic that

patients hate as it tastes bad and causes GI discomfort.
[...] are a type of antihyperlipidemic that patients hate as it

tastes bad and causes GI discomfort.
Cinchonism is an adverse effect of Quinidine due to it's [...] is an adverse effect of Quinidine due to it's ability to
ability to act as both an anti-muscarinic and alpha blocker.
act as both an anti-muscarinic and alpha blocker.
Cinchonism is an adverse effect of Quinidine due to it's Cinchonism is an adverse effect of [...] due to it's ability to
ability to act as both an anti-muscarinic and alpha blocker.
act as both an anti-muscarinic and alpha blocker.
Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic that causes pulmonary [...] is an anti-arrhythmic that causes pulmonary fibrosis
fibrosis due to its ability to covalently bind to tissue
due to its ability to covalently bind to tissue proteins at the
proteins at the lung.
lung.
Nitroprusside is a vasodilator used in Hypertensive
Emergency that can cause cyanide toxicity as it releases
cyanide.
[...] is a vasodilator used in Hypertensive Emergency that

can cause cyanide toxicity as it releases cyanide.
What is the MOA of Adenosine as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Adenosine as an antiarrhythmic?
Drives K out of cells, thereby causing hyperpolarization

and decreasing Ca conductance
[...]
Adenosine is an antiarrhythmic that is the DOC in

diagnosing/abolishing supraventricular tachycardia.
[...] is an antiarrhythmic that is the DOC in

diagnosing/abolishing supraventricular tachycardia.
What is the major MOA used by beta-blockers at the

kidneys to treat HTN?
What is the major MOA used by beta-blockers at the

kidneys to treat HTN?
Inhibition of Renin release via b1 blocking
[...]
Which cranial nerve is stimulated by Digoxin?
Which cranial nerve is stimulated by Digoxin?
Vagus (CN X); this thereby decreases HR
[...]
What is the main MOA of Adenosine as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the main MOA of Adenosine as an antiarrhythmic?
Increases the outwards K current, hyperpolarizing the cell
[...]
Thereby decreasing the automaticity of the SA node

Class Ic anti-arrhythmics display long recovery time of the Class [...] anti-arrhythmics display long recovery time of
channel they bind to.
Procainamide is a Class IA antiarrhythmic that is
associated with drug-induced SLE, a form of lupus that
involves anti-histone antibodies.
[...] is a Class IA antiarrhythmic that is associated with

drug-induced SLE, a form of lupus that involves antihistone antibodies.
What structural form of Na channels do Class

IB antiarrhythmics bind to and block?
What structural form of Na channels do Class

IB antiarrhythmics bind to and block?
Inactive
[...]

Channels
Amlodipine and Nifedipine are dihydropyridine Ca
channel blockers that primarily act at vascular smooth
muscle.
[...] and Nifedipine are dihydropyridine Ca channel

blockers that primarily act at vascular smooth muscle.
Amlodipine and Nifedipine are dihydropyridine Ca

channel blockers that primarily act at vascular smooth
muscle.
Amlodipine and [...] are dihydropyridine Ca channel

blockers that primarily act at vascular smooth muscle.
What is the MOA of Fibrates in the treatment of

hyperlipidemia?
What is the MOA of Fibrates in the treatment of

hyperlipidemia?
Upregulation of LPL to increase TG clearance; Activation

of PPAR-alpha to induce HDL synthesis
[...]

constipation and neurological effects?

constipation and neurological effects?
Amiodarone
[...]

Hepatotoxicity?

Hepatotoxicity?
Amiodarone
[...]
What is the MOA of Flecainide as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Flecainide as an antiarrhythmic?
Class IC; Blocks all morphological forms of the Na

channel, thereby significantly prolonging the refractory
period at the AV node; minimal effect on AP duration
[...]
What is the most common side effects of Nitrates?
What is the most common side effects of Nitrates?
Headache
[...]
What is a common GI adverse effect of Ezetimibe

(cholesterol absorption blocker)?
What is a common GI adverse effect of Ezetimibe

(cholesterol absorption blocker)?
Diarrhea
[...]
Which antihypertensive is recommended in patients with

diabetes, esp. those with renal complications?
Which antihypertensive is recommended in patients with

diabetes, esp. those with renal complications?
Captopril (and other ACE Inhibitors)
[...]
Which dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker is similar to

nitrates in effect?
Which dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker is similar to

nitrates in effect?
Nifedipine
[...]
Diltiazem is a Ca-channel blocking vasodilator with

selectivity towards both the heart and blood vessels.
[...] is a Ca-channel blocking vasodilator with selectivity

towards both the heart and blood vessels.
In general, how to antihyperlipidemics change Triglyceride In general, how to antihyperlipidemics change Triglyceride
levels?
levels?
Decrease (except for bile acid resins)
[...]
All vasodilators act on arterioles except for Nitroprusside All vasodilators act on arterioles except for [...] which also
which also acts on veins.
acts on veins.
How does the QT interval change with Digoxin use?
How does the QT interval change with Digoxin use?
QT interval shortening
[...]
Digoxin increases ventricular contractility, hence the

QT interval is shorter
What class of antiarrhythmics are Ca channel blockers?
What class of antiarrhythmics are Ca channel blockers?
Class IV
[...]
What is are the 2 main MOAs of Amiodarone?
What is are the 2 main MOAs of Amiodarone?
Blockade of K channels; Blockade of inactivated Na

channels
[...]
What is the MOA of Prazosin in the treatment of HTN?
What is the MOA of Prazosin in the treatment of HTN?
a1 receptor antagonist; causes vasodilation
[...]
Digoxin is an inotropic drug that can cause visual

[...] is an inotropic drug that can cause visual disturbances
disturbances such as blurred vision and green-yellow halos such as blurred vision and green-yellow halos around
around bright objects as side effects.
bright objects as side effects.
What is the MOA of Niacin (Vitamin B3) as an
antihyperlipidemic?
What is the MOA of Niacin (Vitamin B3) as an

antihyperlipidemic?
Inhibits Lipolysis at adipose tissue; Reduces Hepatic

VLDL synthesis
[...]
AV Block is a cardiac conduction disorder that is

associated with Digoxin due to its ability to decrease AV
node conduction.
[...] is a cardiac conduction disorder that is associated

with Digoxin due to its ability to decrease AV node
conduction.
How does renal failure influence Digoxin toxicity?
How does renal failure influence Digoxin toxicity?
Increased toxicity as Digoxin is renally excreted
[...]
Lidocaine is the least cardiotoxic anti-arrhythmic.
[...] is the least cardiotoxic anti-arrhythmic.
How do Triglyceride levels change following the

How do Triglyceride levels change following the
administration of Bile Acid Resins (Antihyperlipidemics)? administration of Bile Acid Resins (Antihyperlipidemics)?
Slight increase
[...]
All other antihyperlipidemics decrease triglycerides or

don't have an effect.
Which vitamins can become deficient following the
administration of Bile Acid Resins?
Which vitamins can become deficient following the

administration of Bile Acid Resins?
Fat soluble vitamins (Vitamin A, D, E, K)
[...]
Which arrythmias are especially treatable by Class IA

antiarrhythmics?
Which arrythmias are especially treatable by Class IA

antiarrhythmics?
Atrial; Ventricular; especially re-entrant and ectopic

SVT and VT
[...]
What is the MOA of Hydralazine?
What is the MOA of Hydralazine?
Increases cGMP in smooth muscle, thereby causing

relaxation (vasodilation)
[...]
Hepatotoxicity is an adverse effect of Fibrates that is

characterized by increased liver function tests (LFTs).
[...] is an adverse effect of Fibrates that is characterized by

increased liver function tests (LFTs).
What is the MOA of Diazoxide?
What is the MOA of Diazoxide?
Opening of ATP dependent K channels at arteriolar

smooth muscle
[...]
Thereby causing hyperpolarization and relaxation.

How does the PR interval change following Digoxin
administration?
How does the PR interval change following Digoxin

administration?
PR interval elongation
[...]
Digoxin slows AV node conduction, hence the PR

interval is longer
Verapamil is a Ca channel blocker that causes a
[...] is a Ca channel blocker that causes a predisposition to
predisposition to Digoxin toxicity by displacing Digoxin Digoxin toxicity by displacing Digoxin from tissue proteins
from tissue proteins and decreasing its clearance, thereby
and decreasing its clearance, thereby increasing
[Digoxin]serum.
How does Hypercalcemia alter Digoxin action?
How does Hypercalcemia alter Digoxin action?
Additive; Ca has inotropic effects itself
[...]
Inotropic agents are typically used in acute

decompensated heart failure.
Inotropic agents are typically used in [...] heart failure.
What is the most common Digoxin-induced arrhythmia?
What is the most common Digoxin-induced arrhythmia?
Ventricular extrasystole
[...]
2nd most common would be 2nd or 3rd degree AV

block
What is the MOA of Cholestyramine?
Inhibits the intestinal reabsorption of Bile Acids, thereby

[...]
What is the MOA of Spironolactone (K-sparing diuretic)? What is the MOA of Spironolactone (K-sparing diuretic)?
Aldosterone receptor antagonism; prevents expression of
ENaC at the late distal tubule
[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Sotalol?

[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Sotalol?

Class III
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics binds to
inactive Na channels?
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics binds to

inactive Na channels?
Class IB
[...]
Class IC antiarrhythmics are a type of Class I

antiarrhythmics that bind to all morphological forms of
the Na channel.
[...] are a type of Class I antiarrhythmics that bind to all

morphological forms of the Na channel.
Sodium Lactate is used as an antidote for Quinidine

toxicity as is increases Na flux and alkalinizes tisue to
reduce drug receptor binding.
[...] is used as an antidote for Quinidine toxicity as is

increases Na flux and alkalinizes tisue to reduce drug
receptor binding.
What is the MOA of Milrinone?
What is the MOA of Milrinone?
Inhibition of Phosphodiesterase Isozyme 3, leading to

increased cAMP
[...]
What type of Class I antiarrhythmics are best used post- What type of Class I antiarrhythmics are best used postMI?
MI?
Class IB
[...]
IB is best post-MI, as all of the Na channels in

depolarized/infarcted tissue are inactive, the form IB
binds to
Myositis is a musculoskeletal adverse effect of Fibrates [...] is a musculoskeletal adverse effect of Fibrates that has
that has an increased risk of occurring when given with
an increased risk of occurring when given with Statins.
Statins.
Nicardipine is a Ca channel blocker with very high
vascular selectivity. It is selective for both coronary and
cerebral vessels.
[...] is a Ca channel blocker with very high vascular

selectivity. It is selective for both coronary and cerebral
vessels.
How does Hypercalcemia affect Digoxin action?
How does Hypercalcemia affect Digoxin action?
Increase; hypercalcemia is additive onto Digoxin and will

increase cardiac contractility alone
[...]
What biliary adverse effect is associated with Fibrates,

especially when given with Bile Acid Resins?
What biliary adverse effect is associated with Fibrates,

especially when given with Bile Acid Resins?
Cholesterol Gallstones
[...]
Which class II antiarrhythmic can exacerbate vasospasm Which class II antiarrhythmic can exacerbate vasospasm
in Prinzmetal angina?
in Prinzmetal angina?
Propanolol
[...]

Myocardial O2 consumption (MVO2)?

Myocardial O2 consumption (MVO2)?
Decrease
[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Verapamil?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Verapamil?
Class IV
[...]
How do Class III antiarrhythmics affect the QT interval?
How do Class III antiarrhythmics affect the QT interval?
Elongated QT interval
[...]
Cardiac Ca-channel blockers are contraindicated in

simultaneous Digoxin administration due to it being able to
increase the plasma levels of Digoxin.
Cardiac Ca-channel blockers are contraindicated in

simultaneous [...] administration due to it being able to
increase the plasma levels of Digoxin.
Torsade de Pointes is an adverse effect of Quinidine

administration due to prolongation of the QT interval.
[...] is an adverse effect of Quinidine administration due to

prolongation of the QT interval.
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics are associated with Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics are associated with
CNS stimulation/depression and cardiovascular
CNS stimulation/depression and cardiovascular
depression as adverse effects?
depression as adverse effects?
Class IB
[...]
What is the drug of choice for Prinzmetal's Angina?
What is the drug of choice for Prinzmetal's Angina?
Nicardipine
[...]
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Colestipol?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Colestipol?
Bile Acid Resin
[...]
What is the MOA of Furosemide (loop diuretics)?
What is the MOA of Furosemide (loop diuretics)?
Inhibition of NKCC2 symporters at the thick ascending

loop of Henle
[...]
Procainamide is a Class Ia anti-arrhythmic that lacks

[...] is a Class Ia anti-arrhythmic that lacks antimuscarinic,
antimuscarinic, alpha-blocking and Ca-channel blocking
alpha-blocking and Ca-channel blocking action.
action.
Activation of peripheral D1-dopamine receptors
[...]
How do Theophylline and Caffeine affect Adenosine

action?
How do Theophylline and Caffeine affect Adenosine

action?
Blocks Adenosine action
[...]
Which Class II antiarrhythmic is associated with

dyslipidemia?
Which Class II antiarrhythmic is associated with

dyslipidemia?
Metoprolol
[...]
What is the most common adverse effect of Digoxin?
What is the most common adverse effect of Digoxin?
Arrhythmia
[...]
What is the MOA of Class III antiarrhythmics?
[...]
What is the MOA of Class III antiarrhythmics?

Blocks K channels, thereby increasing AP duration and
effective refractory period
What class of antiarrhythmic is Mexiletine?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Mexiletine?
Class IB
[...]
Which mixed alpha-beta adrenergic antagonist is

commonly used to treat Hypertensive Emergency?
Which mixed alpha-beta adrenergic antagonist is

commonly used to treat Hypertensive Emergency?
Labetalol
[...]
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Clofibrate?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Clofibrate?
Fibrate
[...]
What is the MOA of Ibutilide?
What is the MOA of Ibutilide?
K channel blockade
[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Phenytoin?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Phenytoin?
Class IB
[...]
How does the administration of Nitrates change

Myocardial O2 consumptions (MVO2)?
How does the administration of Nitrates change

Myocardial O2 consumptions (MVO2)?
Decrease
[...]
Bile acid resin; binds bile acids in the GI lumen; thereby

causing upregulation of LDL reecptors
[...]
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with cor pulmonale Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with [...] as COPDas COPD-induced hypoxia increases the sensitivity to
induced hypoxia increases the sensitivity to Digoxin.
Digoxin.
Adenosine is an antiarrhythmic that can be blocked by
Theophyllin and Caffeine.
[...] is an antiarrhythmic that can be blocked by

Theophyllin and Caffeine.
All ACE inhibitors end in the suffix -pril.
All ACE inhibitors end in the suffix [...].
What is the effect of beta-blockers on the diastolic

period?
What is the effect of beta-blockers on the diastolic

period?
Lengthens it; thereby increased myocardial perfusion
[...]
Class Ib Na channel blockers bind to and block inactive Class [...] Na channel blockers bind to and block inactive
(depolarized) Na channels.
e.g. Lidocaine, Mexiletene, Phenytoin
Class Ib Na channel blockers bind to and block inactive
e.g. Lidocaine, Mexiletene, Phenytoin
Class Ib Na channel blockers bind to and block [...] Na

channels.
Milrinone is a inotropic agent that inhibits

Phosphodiesterase Isozyme 3, thereby increasing
intracellular [cAMP].
[...] is a inotropic agent that inhibits Phosphodiesterase

Isozyme 3, thereby increasing intracellular [cAMP].
Amyl Nitrate is a nitrate that is administered nasally and

has a very rapid onset of ~30 seconds.
[...] is a nitrate that is administered nasally and has a very

rapid onset of ~30 seconds.
Verapamil and Diltiazem are non-dihydropyridine Ca

channel blockers that primarily act at the heart.
[...] and Diltiazem are non-dihydropyridine Ca channel

blockers that primarily act at the heart.
Verapamil and Diltiazem are non-dihydropyridine Ca
channel blockers that primarily act at the heart.
Verapamil and [...] are non-dihydropyridine Ca channel

blockers that primarily act at the heart.
Class III antiarrhythmics are a class of antiarrhythmics that [...] are a class of antiarrhythmics that are used with other
are used with other antiarrhythmics fail.
antiarrhythmics fail.
EDV?

EDV?
Increase
[...]
Beta-blockade = vasoconstriction = increased venous

return = increased EDV
Nifedipine and Nicardipine are Ca channel blockers with
high vascular selectivity.
[...] and Nicardipine are Ca channel blockers with high

vascular selectivity.
Nifedipine and Nicardipine are Ca channel blockers with

high vascular selectivity.
Nifedipine and [...] are Ca channel blockers with high

vascular selectivity.
What is the MOA of Ca channel blocking vasodilators?
What is the MOA of Ca channel blocking vasodilators?
Antagonism of L-type Ca channels; thereby inhibiting

vasoconstriction
[...]
Nitrates are contraindicated with simultaneous Sildenafil

administration due to the frequent occurrence of severe
hypotension.
Nitrates are contraindicated with simultaneous [...]

administration due to the frequent occurrence of severe
hypotension.
Metoprolol is a Class II antiarrhythmic that can cause

dyslipidemia.
[...] is a Class II antiarrhythmic that can cause

dyslipidemia.
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat CHF via [...] is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat CHF via
direct inhibition of the Na/K ATPase, thereby indirectly direct inhibition of the Na/K ATPase, thereby indirectly
intracellular [Ca] and subsequent increase in inotropy.
intracellular [Ca] and subsequent increase in inotropy.
Diltiazem and Verapamil are Ca channel blockers that [...] and Verapamil are Ca channel blockers that have low
have low vascular selectivity and hence exert effects at the vascular selectivity and hence exert effects at the heart .
heart .
Diltiazem and Verapamil are Ca channel blockers that Diltiazem and [...] are Ca channel blockers that have low
have low vascular selectivity and hence exert effects at the vascular selectivity and hence exert effects at the heart .
heart .
What is the primary clinical use of Diazoxide?
What is the primary clinical use of Diazoxide?
Hypertensive emergency
[...]
What is the MOA of Ibutilide as an antiarrhythmic?
[...]
What is the MOA of Ibutilide as an antiarrhythmic?

What is the effect of Class IV anti-arrhythmics on the PR What is the effect of Class IV anti-arrhythmics on the PR
interval?
interval?
Prolongation
[...]
How does Fenoldopam change blood pressure?
How does Fenoldopam change blood pressure?
Decrease (via vasodilation; decreased TPR)
[...]
Methyldopa is a centrally acting sympatholytic that is taken [...] is a centrally acting sympatholytic that is taken up by
up by SNS neurons and converted into a false
SNS neurons and converted into a false neurotransmitter,
neurotransmitter, alpha-methylnorepinephrine.
alpha-methylnorepinephrine.
Nitroglycerin and Isosorbide Dinitrate are vasodilators that
[...] and Isosorbide Dinitrate are vasodilators that
preferentially dilate veins by increasing NO in vascular preferentially dilate veins by increasing NO in vascular
smooth muscle.
smooth muscle.
Nitroglycerin and Isosorbide Dinitrate are vasodilators that Nitroglycerin and [...] are vasodilators that preferentially
preferentially dilate veins by increasing NO in vascular dilate veins by increasing NO in vascular smooth muscle.
smooth muscle.
Barbiturates and Rifampin are CYP enzyme inducers.
Barbiturates and Rifampin are CYP enzyme [...].
How does the PR interval change with Class IV

antiarrhythmics?
How does the PR interval change with Class IV

antiarrhythmics?
Elongated PR interval
[...]
What are the 2 major side effects associated with a1blockers?
What are the 2 major side effects associated with a1blockers?
Orthostatic hypotension; reflex tachycardia
[...]
Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic that has class I,

II, III and IV effects and alters the lipid membrane.
[...] is a class III antiarrhythmic that has class I, II, III and
IV effects and alters the lipid membrane.
What class of antiarrhythmics are beta-blockers?
What class of antiarrhythmics are beta-blockers?
Class II
[...]
Nitrates/Nitrites increase the formation of Methemoglobin

as nitrite ions can oxidize ferrous iron into ferric iron.
Nitrates/Nitrites increase the formation of [...] as nitrite

ions can oxidize ferrous iron into ferric iron.
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Ezetimibe?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Ezetimibe?
Cholesterol absorption blocker
[...]
What is the DOC for Type IIa Hyperlipidemia?
What is the DOC for Type IIa Hyperlipidemia?
Statins
[...]
Increased LDL
What is the main MOA of Flecainide?
What is the main MOA of Flecainide?
Blocks activated Na channels
[...]
Which 2 Ca channel blockers are the only ones that block Which 2 Ca channel blockers are the only ones that block
Ca channels at the heart?
Ca channels at the heart?
Verapamil; Diltiazem
[...]
Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic that requires

frequent pulmonary, liver and thyroid functions tests.
[...] is a class III antiarrhythmic that requires frequent

pulmonary, liver and thyroid functions tests.
PFTs, LFTs and TFTs

Which type of diuretics are contraindicated in advanced
renal insufficiency?
Which type of diuretics are contraindicated in advanced

renal insufficiency?
K-sparing
[...]
Loop diuretics are indicated in advanced renal

insufficiency.
How does the PR interval change as a response of Class
II antiarrhythmic action a the AV node?
How does the PR interval change as a response of Class

II antiarrhythmic action a the AV node?
Elongated PR interval
[...]
Class II = beta blockers

How does Hydralazine change afterload?
How does Hydralazine change afterload?
Reduction
[...]
Lidocaine is the anti-arrhythmic that is controversially used [...] is the anti-arrhythmic that is controversially used to
to prevent ventricular arrhythmias and V-fib in patients prevent ventricular arrhythmias and V-fib in patients with
with MI.
MI.
Arteriolar dilators are favoured in patients with primary
symptoms of low CO.
[...] dilators are favoured in patients with primary

symptoms of low CO.

symptoms of low CO.

symptoms of [...].
Activation of PPAR-alpha; thereby yielding increased

Lipoprotein Lipase expression
[...]
Which Dopamine D1 agonist is commonly used to treat

Hypertensive Emergency?
Which Dopamine D1 agonist is commonly used to treat

Hypertensive Emergency?
Fenoldopam
[...]
Red/Flushed Face is a cutaneous adverse effect of Niacin [...] is a cutaneous adverse effect of Niacin administration
administration that is improved by Aspirin or long term use that is improved by Aspirin or long term use of Niacin.
of Niacin.
What is the MOA of Procainamide?
[...]
What is the MOA of Procainamide?

of QT interval
QT interval
Channels
Hypothyroidism is a common hormonal side effect of
Amiodarone.
[...] is a common hormonal side effect of Amiodarone.
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Bezafibrate?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Bezafibrate?
Fibrate
[...]
What is the MOA of Ezetimibe?
What is the MOA of Ezetimibe?
Inhibition of cholesterol absorption by localizing at the

brush border of the SI
[...]
Venous dilators are favoured in patients with primary

symptoms of pulmonary congestion.
[...] dilators are favoured in patients with primary



symptoms of [...].
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Pravastatin?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Pravastatin?
[...]
What is the most effective anti-arrhythmic?
What is the most effective anti-arrhythmic?
Amiodarone
[...]
What is the MOA of Lovastatin (statins)?
What is the MOA of Lovastatin (statins)?
Competitive inhibition of HMG-CoA Reductase
[...]
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with WolffDigoxin is contraindicated in patients with [...] due to risk
Parkinson-White Syndrome due to risk of fatal ventricular
of fatal ventricular arrhythmia.
arrhythmia.
Bile Acid resins are a type of antihyperlipidemics that can [...] are a type of antihyperlipidemics that can decrease the
decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E,
absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K).
K).
What type of vasodilator is Diltiazem?
What type of vasodilator is Diltiazem?
Ca-channel blocker
[...]
Besides IV administration, what ROA of Nitroglycerin has Besides IV administration, what ROA of Nitroglycerin has
the fastest onset?
the fastest onset?
Sublingual
[...]
How does Lidocaine change the refractoriness in

depolarized cells?
How does Lidocaine change the refractoriness in

depolarized cells?
Increase
[...]
In depolarized cells, Na channels remain largely

blocked during diastole. More can become blocked by
lidocaine.
Class Ib anti-arrhythmics are Na-channel blockers that
shorten the repolarization period.

shorten the repolarization period.
Protein Kinase G dephosphorylates Myosin Light Chains Protein Kinase G dephosphorylates [...] and decreases
and decreases intracellular Ca to cause smooth muscle intracellular Ca to cause smooth muscle relaxation at BVs.
relaxation at BVs.
Protein Kinase G dephosphorylates Myosin Light Chains Protein Kinase G dephosphorylates Myosin Light Chains
and decreases intracellular Ca to cause smooth muscle
and decreases intracellular [...] to cause smooth muscle
relaxation at BVs.
relaxation at BVs.
Disopyramide is a Class IA antiarrhythmic that is
associated with heart failure as an adverse effect.
[...] is a Class IA antiarrhythmic that is associated with

heart failure as an adverse effect.
Digoxin directly stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone

in the CNS.
Digoxin directly stimulates the [...] zone in the CNS.
Methyldopa is a sympatholytic that can be used to treat

HTN in pregnancy.
[...] is a sympatholytic that can be used to treat HTN in

pregnancy.

Blood Pressure?

Blood Pressure?
Decrease
[...]
Beta blockade = decreased HR = decreased CO (that

greatly overcomes the increase in TPR) = decreased
BP
In general, how to antihyperlipidemics change LDL levels? In general, how to antihyperlipidemics change LDL levels?
Decrease
[...]
LDL = "bad cholesterol"

What is the MOA of Class IV antiarrhythmics?
What is the MOA of Class IV antiarrhythmics?

[...]
Class Ic anti-arrhythmics are Na-channel blockers that

cause a marked decrease in the slope of phase 0.

cause a marked decrease in the slope of phase 0.
Which dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker is used in

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage to prevent cerebral
vasospasm?
Which dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker is used in

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage to prevent cerebral
vasospasm?
Nimodipine
[...]
Sotalol is a class III antiarrhythmic that is associated with

torsade de pointes and excessive beta-blockade as
adverse effects.
[...] is a class III antiarrhythmic that is associated with

torsade de pointes and excessive beta-blockade as
adverse effects.
[...] and Nicardipine are Ca-channel blocking vasodilators
with selectivity for blood vessels instead of the heart.
Nifedipine and Nicardipine are Ca-channel blocking

vasodilators with selectivity for blood vessels instead of
the heart.
Nifedipine and Nicardipine are Ca-channel blocking
vasodilators with selectivity for blood vessels instead of
the heart.
Nifedipine and [...] are Ca-channel blocking vasodilators

with selectivity for blood vessels instead of the heart.
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with hypertrophic

cardiomyopathy as the outflow tract obstruction can
worsen following Digoxin administration.
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients with [...] as the

outflow tract obstruction can worsen following Digoxin
administration.
What class of antiarrhythmic is Lidocaine?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Lidocaine?
Class IB
[...]
In general, how to antihyperlipidemics change HDL levels? In general, how to antihyperlipidemics change HDL levels?
Increase
[...]
HDL = "good cholesterol"

Hydralazine is a vasodilator that acts by increasing cGMP
[...] is a vasodilator that acts by increasing cGMP in
in smooth muscle, thereby causing smooth muscle
smooth muscle, thereby causing smooth muscle relaxation.
relaxation.
How does the administration of Nitrates change cardiac
contractility?
How does the administration of Nitrates change cardiac

contractility?
Increased via reflex response
[...]
What is the toxicity of Amiodarone at the lungs?
What is the toxicity of Amiodarone at the lungs?
Pulmonary Fibrosis
[...]
Lidocaine is the anti-arrhythmic used to treat Digitalis

induced arrhythmias.
[...] is the anti-arrhythmic used to treat Digitalis induced

arrhythmias.
Digoxin is a miscellaneous anti-arrhythmic that is useful to [...] is a miscellaneous anti-arrhythmic that is useful to treat
treat A-flutter and A-fib in patients with heart failure.
A-flutter and A-fib in patients with heart failure.
What is the clinical use of Magnesium (Mg2+) as an
antiarrhythmic?
What is the clinical use of Magnesium (Mg2+) as an

antiarrhythmic?
Torsade de pointes; Digoxin Toxicity
[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Quinidine?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Quinidine?
Class IA
[...]
Flecainide is an anti-arrhythmic used to control the

rhythm of atrial flutter and fibrillation.
[...] is an anti-arrhythmic used to control the rhythm of

atrial flutter and fibrillation.
How does Fenoldopam change natriuresis?
How does Fenoldopam change natriuresis?
Increase (it causes renal vasodilation)
[...]
What is the MOA of Dofetilide as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Dofetilide as an antiarrhythmic?

[...]
Esmolol is a Class II antiarrhythmic that has a very short

duration of action.
[...] is a Class II antiarrhythmic that has a very short

duration of action.
What is the only type of Antihyperlipidemic that

increases Triglyceride levels?
What is the only type of Antihyperlipidemic that

increases Triglyceride levels?
Bile Acid Resins (slightly increases levels)
[...]
Sudden withdrawal of Clonidine can result in lifethreatening hypertensive crisis.
Sudden withdrawal of Clonidine can result in lifethreatening [...].
Class IB Antiarrhythmics are a type of Class I

antiarrhythmics that preferentially bind to ischemic or
depolarized Purkinje fibers and ventricular tissue.
[...] are a type of Class I antiarrhythmics that

preferentially bind to ischemic or depolarized
Purkinje fibers and ventricular tissue.

Channels
Which Class IA antiarrhythmic is associated with heart
failure as an adverse effect?
Which Class IA antiarrhythmic is associated with heart

failure as an adverse effect?
Disopyramide
[...]
Beta-blocker are contraindicated with

simultaneous cardiac Ca-channel blockers due to the
occurrence of adverse cardiovascular effects.
[...] are contraindicated with simultaneous cardiac Cachannel blockers due to the occurrence of adverse
cardiovascular effects.
Beta-blocker are contraindicated with

simultaneous cardiac Ca-channel blockers due to the
occurrence of adverse cardiovascular effects.
Beta-blocker are contraindicated with simultaneous [...]

due to the occurrence of adverse cardiovascular effects.
Class IV anti-arrhythmics are Ca-channel blockers that

decrease the slope of phase 0 of slow fibers.
Class [...] anti-arrhythmics are Ca-channel blockers that

decrease the slope of phase 0 of slow fibers.
What class of antiarrhythmics are Na channel blockers?
What class of antiarrhythmics are Na channel blockers?
Class I (IA, IB, and IC)
[...]
Beta-blockers are recommended in all stages of chronic Beta-blockers are recommended in all stages of [...] heart
heart failure.
failure.
Hydralazine is a vasodilator that stimulates the release of
NO through inhibition of the IP3 signal cascade.
[...] is a vasodilator that stimulates the release of NO

through inhibition of the IP3 signal cascade.
Inhibits IP3-induced Ca release

How does Digoxin affect vascular tone?
How does Digoxin affect vascular tone?
Slight increase
[...]
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Simvastatin?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Simvastatin?
[...]
Niacin or Gemfibrozil or Statins
[...]
Increased VLDL and Chylomicrons

Class II antiarrhythmics are used to treat SVTs due to
their ability to prolong AV and SA nodal pacemaker
potentials by blocking B1 receptors
Class [...] antiarrhythmics are used to treat SVTs due to



potentials by blocking [...] receptors
What is the MOA of Verapamil as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the MOA of Verapamil as an antiarrhythmic?

[...]
Class Ib anti-arrhythmics are Na-channel blockers that

minimally decrease the slope of phase 0.

minimally decrease the slope of phase 0.

decrease in LDL (bad cholesterol)?

decrease in LDL (bad cholesterol)?
Statins (HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors)
[...]
What is the main MOA of Procainamade as an antiarrhythmic?
What is the main MOA of Procainamade as an antiarrhythmic?
Blockade of activated Na channels
[...]
How does the administration of Nitrates change Blood

Pressure?
How does the administration of Nitrates change Blood

Pressure?
Decrease
[...]
Vasodilation = decreased TPR = decreased BP

How does Hyperkalemia affect Digoxin action?
How does Hyperkalemia affect Digoxin action?
Decreased Digoxin action
[...]
Digoxin and K compete for the same binding site on

Na/K ATPases.
Amiodarone is a Class III anti-arrhythmic that also has [...] is a Class III anti-arrhythmic that also has Class I, II
Class I, II and IV effects due to its membrane alterations.
and IV effects due to its membrane alterations.
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Fenofibrate?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Fenofibrate?
Fibrate
[...]
What is the effect of Quinidine on the refractory period?
What is the effect of Quinidine on the refractory period?
Prolongation
[...]
Cinchonism is an adverse effect of Quinidine

[...] is an adverse effect of Quinidine administration and is
administration and is characterized by autonomic nervous characterized by autonomic nervous system dysfunction.
system dysfunction.
Diltiazem and Verapamil are non-dihydropyridine Ca
[...] and Verapamil are non-dihydropyridine Ca channel
channel blockers that block voltage-dependent L-type Ca
blockers that block voltage-dependent L-type Ca
channels.
channels.
Diltiazem and Verapamil are non-dihydropyridine Ca
channel blockers that block voltage-dependent L-type Ca
channels.
Diltiazem and [...] are non-dihydropyridine Ca channel

blockers that block voltage-dependent L-type Ca
channels.
How does Hyperkalemia affect the toxicity of Class I

Antiarrhythmics?
How does Hyperkalemia affect the toxicity of Class I

Antiarrhythmics?
Increased toxicity
[...]

Hyperlipidemia that can exacerbate gout/hyperuricemia.
[...] is a vitamin used to treat Hyperlipidemia that can

exacerbate gout/hyperuricemia.
What type of antihyperlipidemics activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis?
What type of antihyperlipidemics activates PPARalpha to induce HDL synthesis?
Fibrates
[...]
What specific types of heart failure can be treated with

beta-blockers?
What specific types of heart failure can be treated with

beta-blockers?
Diastolic HF; Chronic Systolic HF; Chronic HF
[...]
How does hypermagenesemia affect Digoxin action?
How does hypermagenesemia affect Digoxin action?
Decreased Digoxin action
[...]
What diuretic is used to treat HTN caused by

Hyperaldosteronism?
What diuretic is used to treat HTN caused by

Hyperaldosteronism?
Spironolactone; K-sparing diuretics
[...]
What is the clinical use of Nitroprusside?
What is the clinical use of Nitroprusside?
Hypertensive Emergency
[...]
What is the MOA of Nitroprusside?
What is the MOA of Nitroprusside?
Increases cGMP in smooth muscle via direct release of

NO
[...]

pulmonary fibrosis as an adverse effect?

pulmonary fibrosis as an adverse effect?
Amiodarone
[...]
What is the DOC for Type V Hyperlipidemia?
What is the DOC for Type V Hyperlipidemia?
Niacin or Gemfibrozil or Statins
[...]
Increased VLDL and Chylomicrons

Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics have the most
potent Na channel blocking effects?
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics have the most

potent Na channel blocking effects?
Class IC
[...]
What is the duration of action of Esmolol?
What is the duration of action of Esmolol?
Very short
[...]
What is the treatment for Reflex Tachycardia caused by

Nitroglycerin or Isosorbide Dinitrate?
What is the treatment for Reflex Tachycardia caused by

Nitroglycerin or Isosorbide Dinitrate?
Beta-blockers
[...]
Nicardipine is a Ca channel blocking vasodilator that can [...] is a Ca channel blocking vasodilator that can be used
be used for Hypertensive Emergency.
for Hypertensive Emergency.
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics are
contraindicated in structural and ischemic heart
disease?
Which type of Class I antiarrhythmics are

contraindicated in structural and ischemic heart
disease?
Class IC
[...]
Class IC is contraindicated
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients that have
damaged myocardium as it displays increased sensitivity to
Digoxin.
Digoxin is contraindicated in patients that have

damaged [...] as it displays increased sensitivity to
Digoxin.
Ezetimibe an anthyperlipidemic that selectively inhibits the

[...] an anthyperlipidemic that selectively inhibits the
intestinal absorption of cholesterol by localizin at the brush intestinal absorption of cholesterol by localizin at the brush
border of the SI.
border of the SI.
Pindolol and Acebutolol are partial beta-agonists that are
contraindicated in angina.
[...] and Acebutolol are partial beta-agonists that are

Pindolol and Acebutolol are partial beta-agonists that are

Pindolol and [...] are partial beta-agonists that are

What is the MOA of Nitroglycerin?
What is the MOA of Nitroglycerin?
Increases NO in vascular smooth muscle, thereby causing

an increase in cGMP and smooth muscle relaxation
[...]
How does Digoxin change cardiac contractility?
Increase (by ultimately increasing intracellular [Ca])
[...]
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Colesevelam?
What type of antihyperlipidemic is Colesevelam?
Bile Acid Resin
[...]
What class of antiarrhythmic is Procainamide?
What class of antiarrhythmic is Procainamide?
Class IA
[...]
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that can yield cholinergic

adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and
blurry yellow vision.
[...] is a cardiac glycoside that can yield cholinergic

adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and
blurry yellow vision.
What type of vasodilator is Nifedipine?
What type of vasodilator is Nifedipine?
Ca-channel blocker
[...]
Verapamil is a Ca channel blocking vasodilator with high

selectivity towards the heart.
[...] is a Ca channel blocking vasodilator with high

selectivity towards the heart.
What musculoskeletal adverse effect is associated with

Fibrates, especially when given with Statins?
What musculoskeletal adverse effect is associated with

Fibrates, especially when given with Statins?
Myositis
[...]
Class II anti-arrhythmics act as prophylactics for V-fib in Class [...] anti-arrhythmics act as prophylactics for V-fib
patients with MI through beta-adrenergic antagonism.
in patients with MI through beta-adrenergic antagonism.
Class 4 NYHA heart faliure involves symptoms of heart Class [...] NYHA heart faliure involves symptoms of heart
failure at rest.
failure at rest.
Stage A heart failure denotes an at risk individual that
does not actually have problems with heart function.
Stage [...] heart failure denotes an at risk individual that

does not actually have problems with heart function.
Class 2 NYHA heart failure involves slight limitations to

physical activity, with fatigue and SOB during ordinary
activity.
Class [...] NYHA heart failure involves slight limitations to

physical activity, with fatigue and SOB during ordinary
activity.
What Framingham Criteria need to be fulfilled for a

diagnosis of congestive heart failure to be made?
What Framingham Criteria need to be fulfilled for a

diagnosis of congestive heart failure to be made?
2 major or (1 major + 1 minor)
[...]
Class 3 NYHA heart failure involves marked limitation. Class [...] NYHA heart failure involves marked limitation.
Ordinary activity produces fatigue, SOB and palpitations. Ordinary activity produces fatigue, SOB and palpitations.
Class 1 NYHA heart failure involves no limitations of
physical activity.
Class [...] NYHA heart failure involves no limitations of

physical activity.
Ipratropium is a muscarinic antagonist that is used to treat [...] is a muscarinic antagonist that is used to treat asthma
asthma by blocking muscarinic receptors, thereby
by blocking muscarinic receptors, thereby preventing
preventing bronchoconstriction.
bronchoconstriction.
What generation H1 blocker is Diphenhydramine?
What generation H1 blocker is Diphenhydramine?
1st
[...]
1st gen has "-en/-ine" or "-en/-ate"

Salmeterol and Formoterol are beta-2 agonists used as
long acting agents in the prophylaxis of asthma.
[...] and Formoterol are beta-2 agonists used as long

acting agents in the prophylaxis of asthma.
Salmeterol and Formoterol are beta-2 agonists used as

long acting agents in the prophylaxis of asthma.
Salmeterol and [...] are beta-2 agonists used as long

acting agents in the prophylaxis of asthma.
Epoprostenol is an anti-pulmonary hypertensive that acts

as an agonist at IP1 receptors (PGI2 Receptors), thereby
inducing vascular smooth muscle relaxation.
[...] is an anti-pulmonary hypertensive that acts as an

agonist at IP1 receptors (PGI2 Receptors), thereby
Which generation of H1 blockers is associated with anti- Which generation of H1 blockers is associated with antialpha-adrenergic activity?
alpha-adrenergic activity?
1st generation
[...]
What is the DOC for Anthrax?
What is the DOC for Anthrax?
Ciprofloxacin
[...]
NF-kB is a transcription factor that induces the production [...] is a transcription factor that induces the production of
of TNF-alpha. It is inactivated following corticosteroid
TNF-alpha. It is inactivated following corticosteroid
administration.
administration.
Which anti-muscarinic used to treat COPD is longacting?
Which anti-muscarinic used to treat COPD is longacting?
Tiotropium
[...]
What is the duration of action of Tiotropium?
What is the duration of action of Tiotropium?
Long-acting
[...]
What is the MOA of Zafirlukast?
Blocks leukotriene receptors (CysLTR1; especially

LTC4, LTD4 and LTE4)
[...]
Which respiratory alpha-agonist is associated with CNS

stimulation and anxiety as an adverse effect?
Which respiratory alpha-agonist is associated with CNS

stimulation and anxiety as an adverse effect?
Pseudoephedrine
[...]
What generation H1 blocker is Chlorpheniramine?
What generation H1 blocker is Chlorpheniramine?
1st
[...]

Isoniazid is converted into its active form by CatalasePeroxidase.
Isoniazid is converted into its active form by [...].
What is the MOA of Theophylline?
What is the MOA of Theophylline?
Inhibition of phosphodiesterase, thereby increasing cAMP

levels by decreasing cAMP hydrolysis resulting in
bronchodilation
[...]
What is the DOC for MSSA respiratory infections?
What is the DOC for MSSA respiratory infections?
Nafcillin or Dicloxacllin
[...]
What is the Corticosteroid of choice for parenteral

administration?
What is the Corticosteroid of choice for parenteral

administration?
Hydrocortisone
[...]
What is the MOA of Epoprostenol?
What is the MOA of Epoprostenol?
Agonist at IP1 receptors (PGI2 Receptors), thereby

[...]
What type of respiratory drug is Ipratropdium and

Tiotriopium?
What type of respiratory drug is Ipratropdium and

Tiotriopium?
Muscarinic antagonist
[...]
What is the MOA of Albuterol?
B2 agonism
[...]
What is the 1st choice antibiotic for Whooping Cough?
What is the 1st choice antibiotic for Whooping Cough?
Erythromycin
[...]
What is the first line therapy for active MTB infections

during months 2-6 of therapy?
What is the first line therapy for active MTB infections

during months 2-6 of therapy?
Rifampin and Isoniazid
[...]
Antagonism of Cysteinyl Leukotriene Receptor 1

(CysLT1), thereby inhibiting Leukotriene action
[...]
What is the MOA of Omalizumab?
Binds to unbound IgE, thereby blocking the binding

to FcRI receptors on mast cells
[...]
Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that we prefer over

Doxycyline in pregnant women.
[...] is a macrolide antibiotic that we prefer over

Doxycyline in pregnant women.
N-acetylcysteine is an expectorant and mucolytic that is

used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose.
[...] is an expectorant and mucolytic that is used as an

antidote for acetaminophen overdose.
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is used to treat

Dextromethorphan overdose.
[...] is an opioid antagonist that is used to treat

Dextromethorphan overdose.
What is the MOA of Macrolide antibiotics?
Binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit, thereby inhibiting

translocation
[...]
What is the DOC to treat acute asthma?
What is the DOC to treat acute asthma?
Albuterol
[...]
What is the prototype long-acting beta2 agonist?
What is the prototype long-acting beta2 agonist?
Salmeterol
[...]
Which expectorant is also used as an antidote for

acetaminophen overdose?
Which expectorant is also used as an antidote for

acetaminophen overdose?
N-acetylcysteine
[...]
What antibiotics are part of Augmentin?
What antibiotics are part of Augmentin?
Amoxicillin and Clavulanate
[...]
What is the pregnancy rating of Endothelin-1 antagonists? What is the pregnancy rating of Endothelin-1 antagonists?
X
[...]
Which antitussive agent is a synthetic codeine analog and

has mild abuse potential?
Which antitussive agent is a synthetic codeine analog and

has mild abuse potential?
Dextromethorphan
[...]
Montelukast and Zafirlukast are antileukotrienes used to

[...] and Zafirlukast are antileukotrienes used to treat
treat asthma by blocking leukotriene
asthma by blocking leukotriene receptors (CysLTR1).
receptors (CysLTR1).
Montelukast and Zafirlukast are antileukotrienes used to Montelukast and [...] are antileukotrienes used to treat
treat asthma by blocking leukotriene
asthma by blocking leukotriene receptors (CysLTR1).
receptors (CysLTR1).
Which monoclonal antibody is used to treat asthma?
Which monoclonal antibody is used to treat asthma?
Omalizumab
[...]
Binds to unbound IgE, thereby preventing binding

to FcRI receptors on mast cells.
Typically used in allergic asthma resistant to inhaled
steroids and long acting beta-2 agonists.
What is the MOA of Ambrisentan?
Competitive antagonism of Endothelin-1 at ETA receptors

only
[...]
Tadalafil is a PDE5 inhibitor that can be used to treat

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH).
[...] is a PDE5 inhibitor that can be used to treat Benign

Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH).
Bosentan is an anti-pulmonary hypertensive that

competitively antagonizes Endothelin-1 at ETA and ETB,
thereby decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance.
[...] is an anti-pulmonary hypertensive that competitively

antagonizes Endothelin-1 at ETA and ETB, thereby
decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance.
Theophylline is a Methylxanthine used to treat asthma by [...] is a Methylxanthine used to treat asthma by inhibiting
inhibiting phosphodiesterase, thereby causing
phosphodiesterase, thereby causing bronchodilation by
bronchodilation by increasing cAMP levels (due to
increasing cAMP levels (due to decreased cAMP
decreased cAMP hydrolysis).
hydrolysis).
Salmeterol is a beta2-agonist that is contraindicated in
acute asthma.
[...] is a beta2-agonist that is contraindicated in acute

asthma.
Bosentan is a respiratory drug used to treat pulmonary

hypertension by competitively antagonising
endothelin-1 at ETA & ETB receptors, thereby
[...] is a respiratory drug used to treat pulmonary

hypertension by competitively antagonising
endothelin-1 at ETA & ETB receptors, thereby
Bosentan = ETA and ETB

Ambrisentan = ETA only
What is the MOA of Zileuton?
Inhibition of 5-Lipoxygenase (5LOX), thereby blocking

the conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotrienes
[...]
What are the 2 Corticosteroids of choice for Oral

administration?
What are the 2 Corticosteroids of choice for Oral

administration?
Prednisone and Prednisolone
[...]
What generation cephalosporin in Ceftriaxone?
What generation cephalosporin in Ceftriaxone?
3rd
[...]
Macrolides are antibiotics that inhibit many CYP450

enzymes.
[...] are antibiotics that inhibit many CYP450 enzymes.

[...]

Binds to IgE antibodies, thereby inhibiting their ability to
bind to FcRI on mast cells
Which generation of H1 blockers involves far less
sedation due to decreased entry into the CNS?
Which generation of H1 blockers involves far less

sedation due to decreased entry into the CNS?
2nd gen
[...]
Which Mycobaterium sp. make up the MAC?
Which Mycobaterium sp. make up the MAC?
Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium

intracellulare
[...]
What is the prototype short-acting beta2 agonist?
What is the prototype short-acting beta2 agonist?
Albuterol
[...]
What generation cephalosporin in Cephalexin?
What generation cephalosporin in Cephalexin?
1st
[...]
Acetylisoniazid is a hepatotoxic metabolite of Isoniazid

that can cause hepatitis in patients being treated for TB.
[...] is a hepatotoxic metabolite of Isoniazid that can

cause hepatitis in patients being treated for TB.
Which respiratory alpha-agonist can be used illicit to make Which respiratory alpha-agonist can be used illicit to make
Methamphetamine?
Methamphetamine?
Pseudoephedrine
[...]
Theophylline is a methylxanthine drug used to treat asthma [...] is a methylxanthine drug used to treat asthma that is
that is metabolized by cytochrome p450.
metabolized by cytochrome p450.
What is the mechanism for Macrolide resistance?
What is the mechanism for Macrolide resistance?
Methylation of the 50S ribosomal subunit
[...]
What is the toxicity of the respiratory alpha-agonists

Pseudoephedrine and Phenylephrine?
What is the toxicity of the respiratory alpha-agonists

Pseudoephedrine and Phenylephrine?
Hypertension
[...]
What is the MOA of Ipratropium?
Antagonism at muscarinic receptors (M1, M2, M3)
[...]
How does TNF-alpha expression change in response to

corticosteroids?
How does TNF-alpha expression change in response to

corticosteroids?
Decreased expression
[...]
What is the 1st line antibiotic for MAC infections?
What is the 1st line antibiotic for MAC infections?
Azithromycin
[...]
What is the MOA of Diphenhydramine?
[...]
What is the MOA of Diphenhydramine?

Reversible inhibition of H1 histamine receptors
Which beta-2 agonists are used for long acting
prophylaxis of asthma?
Which beta-2 agonists are used for long acting

prophylaxis of asthma?
Salmeterol; Formoterol
[...]
Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin and Moxifloxacin are

all fluoroquinolone antibiotics.
Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin and Moxifloxacin are all [...]

antibiotics.
What generation of H1 blocker is Cetirizine
What generation of H1 blocker is Cetirizine
2nd gen
[...]
Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that is also used to

treat Eosinophilic Esophagitis.
[...] is an inhaled corticosteroid that is also used to treat

Eosinophilic Esophagitis.
Rifampin is a first-line drug for TB that is also a strong

CYP enzyme inducer.
[...] is a first-line drug for TB that is also a strong CYP

enzyme inducer.
Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that does not inhibit [...] is a macrolide antibiotic that does not inhibit CYP450
CYP450 enzymes.
enzymes.
What type of respiratory drug is Dextromethorphan?
What type of respiratory drug is Dextromethorphan?
Antitussive
[...]
Which beta-2 agonists are used in the treatment of asthma Which beta-2 agonists are used in the treatment of asthma
are associated with tremor and arrhythmia as adverse are associated with tremor and arrhythmia as adverse
effects?
effects?
Salmeterol; Formoterol
[...]
What is the DOC acute asthma attack/exacerbation? What is the DOC acute asthma attack/exacerbation?
Albuterol
[...]
Endothelin-1 is a potent pulmonary vasocontrictor

produced in increased amounts in pulmonary hypertension.
It also induces the proliferation of pulmonary vascular
smooth muscle.
[...] is a potent pulmonary vasocontrictor produced in

increased amounts in pulmonary hypertension. It also
induces the proliferation of pulmonary vascular smooth
muscle.
What is the MOA of Tadalafil?
What is the MOA of Tadalafil?
Inhibits Phosphodiesterase-5, thereby inhibiting the

degradation of cGMP.
[...]
aka Cialis
What is the clinical use of Bosentan?
What is the clinical use of Bosentan?
Pulmonary HTN
[...]
Cephalexin is effective against gram-positive respiratory

infections.
Cephalexin is effective against gram-[...] respiratory

infections.
It is ineffective against LAME: Listeria, Atypicals,

Mycoplasma and Enterococci
Removal of the bronchodilator Theophylline can result in Removal of the bronchodilator [...] can result in worsening
worsening of the disease.
of the disease.
Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to IgE
antibodies, inhibiting their ability to bind to the FcRI
receptor on mast cells.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody that binds to IgE antibodies,

inhibiting their ability to bind to the FcRI receptor on
mast cells.
Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to IgE

Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to [...]

What is the MOA of Guaifenesin?
What is the MOA of Guaifenesin?
Thins respiratory secretions
[...]
Does not supress the cough reflex.

Inhibition of 5-Lipoxygenase, thereby inhibiting leukotriene

synthesis
[...]
Dextromethorphan is an antitussive agent that acts by

NMDA receptor antagonism.
[...] is an antitussive agent that acts by NMDA receptor

antagonism.
It also has mild opioid effect in high doses.

Zileuton is a leukotriene-pathway inhibitor that inhibits 5Lipoxygenase.
[...] is a leukotriene-pathway inhibitor that inhibits 5Lipoxygenase.
What is the MOA of Pseudoephedrine?
What is the MOA of Pseudoephedrine?
Sympathomimetic alpha-agonism
[...]
Which generation of H1 blockers is used to treat allergy, Which generation of H1 blockers is used to treat allergy,
motion sickness or as a sleep aid?
motion sickness or as a sleep aid?
1st gen
[...]
What is the MOA of Sildenafil?
What is the MOA of Sildenafil?
Inhibits Phosphodiesterase-5, thereby inhibiting the

degradation of cGMP; enhances NO action at corpus
cavernosum
[...]
Increased cGMP causes vasodilation

aka Viagra
What is the MOA of Montelukast?
Antagonism of Cysteinyl Leukotriene Receptor 1

(CysLT1), thereby blocking leukotriene action
[...]
Linezolid is an antibiotic that is generally reserved as an

[...] is an antibiotic that is generally reserved as an
alternative agent for the treatment of respiratory infections alternative agent for the treatment of respiratory infections
due to multidrug resistant strains such as MSSA, MRSA, due to multidrug resistant strains such as MSSA, MRSA,
VRSA and VRE.
VRSA and VRE.
It is hence used sparingly.
What is the MOA of Tiotropium?
[...]

Antagonism at muscarinic receptors (M1, M3)
Selective inhibition of M1 and M3 receptors
[...]
Does not antagonize M2 receptors

Beclomethasone and Fluticasone are corticosteoids used
[...] and Fluticasone are corticosteoids used to treat
to treat asthma by inhibiting cytokine synthesis and asthma by inhibiting cytokine synthesis and inactiating
inactiating NF-kB, resulting in anti-inflammatory action.
NF-kB, resulting in anti-inflammatory action.
Inactivation of NF-kB results in decreased production
of TNF-alpha and other pro-inflammatory agents
Beclomethasone and Fluticasone are corticosteoids used Beclomethasone and [...] are corticosteoids used to treat
to treat asthma by inhibiting cytokine synthesis and asthma by inhibiting cytokine synthesis and inactiating
inactiating NF-kB, resulting in anti-inflammatory action.
NF-kB, resulting in anti-inflammatory action.
Inactivation of NF-kB results in decreased production
of TNF-alpha and other pro-inflammatory agents
What is the treatment for Dextromethorphan overdose?
What is the treatment for Dextromethorphan overdose?
Naloxone
[...]
What is the MOA of Beta-lactams?
What is the MOA of Beta-lactams?
Inhibition of bacterial transpeptidase; Activation of

bacterial autolysins
[...]
Vancomycin is an antibiotic than can be given orally to

treat enterocolitis caused by Clostridium difficile
[...] is an antibiotic than can be given orally to treat

enterocolitis caused by Clostridium difficile
What is the MOA of Chlorpheniramine?
What is the MOA of Chlorpheniramine?
[...]
What is the main MOA of Beta-2 agonists in the treatment What is the main MOA of Beta-2 agonists in the treatment
of COPD?
of COPD?
b2 pre-synaptic receptor agonism, thereby inhibiting ACh
release
[...]
N-Acetylcysteine is an expectorant and mucolytic that can

loosen mucous plugs in Cystic Fibrosis patients.
[...] is an expectorant and mucolytic that can loosen

mucous plugs in Cystic Fibrosis patients.
What is the 1st-line therapy for Chronic Asthma?
What is the 1st-line therapy for Chronic Asthma?
Corticosteroids (Beclomethasone; Fluticasone)
[...]
What type of asthma drug is Theophylline?
What type of asthma drug is Theophylline?
Methylxanthine
[...]
What is the ROA of Salmeterol?
What is the ROA of Salmeterol?
Inhalation via powder only
[...]
What is the MOA of Pryazinamide in TB therapy?
What is the MOA of Pryazinamide in TB therapy?
Inhibition of MTB growth
[...]
Which methylxanthine used to treat asthma can block the Which methylxanthine used to treat asthma can block the
action of Adenosine?
action of Adenosine?
Theophylline
[...]
Ambrisentan is an Endothelin-1 antagonist used to treat [...] is an Endothelin-1 antagonist used to treat pHTN with
pHTN with WHO Class II or III symptoms.
WHO Class II or III symptoms.
What type of respiratory drug is N-Acetylcysteine?
What type of respiratory drug is N-Acetylcysteine?
Expectorant; Mucolytic
[...]
What generation of H1 blocker is Loratadine?
What generation of H1 blocker is Loratadine?
2nd gen
[...]
2nd gen ends in -adine

Nafcillin and Dicloxacillin are penicillins that are resistant
to Staphylococcal beta-lactamase.
[...] and Dicloxacillin are penicillins that are resistant to

Staphylococcal beta-lactamase.
Nafcillin and Dicloxacillin are penicillins that are resistant

to Staphylococcal beta-lactamase.
Nafcillin and [...] are penicillins that are resistant to

Staphylococcal beta-lactamase.
Zileuton is an antileukotriene used to treat asthma by

inhibiting 5-Lipoxygenase (5-LOX), thereby blocking
the conversion of arachidonica cid to leukotrienes.
[...] is an antileukotriene used to treat asthma by

inhibiting 5-Lipoxygenase (5-LOX), thereby blocking
the conversion of arachidonica cid to leukotrienes.
Theophylline is a Methylxanthine that causes

bronchodilation through unknown mechanisms.
[...] is a Methylxanthine that causes bronchodilation

through unknown mechanisms.
Ambrisentan is a respiratory drug that treats pulmonary

[...] is a respiratory drug that treats pulmonary arterial
arterial hypetension by competitively antagonizing hypetension by competitively antagonizing EndothelinEndothelin-1 at ETA receptors only, thereby decreasing 1 at ETA receptors only, thereby decreasing pulmonary
pulmonary vascular resistance.
vascular resistance.
Bosentan = ETA and ETB
Ambrisentan = ETA only
What is the 2nd line antibiotic for Tuberculosis?
What is the 2nd line antibiotic for Tuberculosis?
Ciprofloxacin
[...]
Bosentan is an Endothelin-1 antagonist used to treat

pHTN with WHO class II, III and IV symptoms.
[...] is an Endothelin-1 antagonist used to treat pHTN with

WHO class II, III and IV symptoms.
What is the DOC for Legionella pneumophila infection? What is the DOC for Legionella pneumophila infection?
Azithromycin
[...]
What is the MOA of Clavulanate?
[...]
What is the MOA of Clavulanate?

What is the first line therapy for active MTB in the first 2 What is the first line therapy for active MTB in the first 2
months of therapy?
months of therapy?
Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol
[...]
RIPE
What is the MOA of Dimenhydrinate?
What is the MOA of Dimenhydrinate?
[...]
Inhaled Corticosteroids are used in the prophylaxis and

therapy of chronic asthma in patients who need more
than 2 weekly doses of beta-2 agonists

than [...] weekly doses of beta-2 agonists


than 2 weekly doses of [...]

[...] are used in the prophylaxis and therapy of chronic

asthma in patients who need more than 2 weekly doses
of beta-2 agonists
What is the most potent fluoroquinolone against

Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
What is the most potent fluoroquinolone against

Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Ciprofloxacin; except in Cystic Fibrosis patients
[...]
Albuterol is an asthma drug that causes bronchodilation

through beta2-agonism and is preferred in acute
exacerbation.
[...] is an asthma drug that causes bronchodilation through

beta2-agonism and is preferred in acute exacerbation.
What generation H1 blocker is Dimenhydrinate?
What generation H1 blocker is Dimenhydrinate?
1st
[...]

Which expectorant is used to loosen mucous plugs in
Cystic Fibrosis patients?
Which expectorant is used to loosen mucous plugs in

Cystic Fibrosis patients?
N-acetylcysteine (as a mucolytic)
[...]
Ethambutol is a first-line TB therapy involving optic neuritis [...] is a first-line TB therapy involving optic neuritis that
that involves decreased visual acuity and red-green colour involves decreased visual acuity and red-green colour
blindness.
blindness.
What is the MOA of Ethambutol in TB therapy?
What is the MOA of Ethambutol in TB therapy?
Inhibition of Arabinosyl Transferase, thereby inhibiting

Arabinogalactan synthesis
[...]
Arabinogalactan is an important component of the cell

wall
Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is used to treat
Chlamydial urethritis and Chlamydial cervicitis.
[...] is a macrolide antibiotic that is used to treat

Chlamydial urethritis and Chlamydial cervicitis.
What is the MOA of Bosentan?
Competitive antagonism of Endothelin-1 at ETA and

ETB receptors
[...]
Vitamin B6 can be coadministered with Isoniazid to

prevent neuropathies.
[...] can be coadministered with Isoniazid to prevent

neuropathies.
Tendonitis, especially at the achilles tendon, is a common [...], especially at the achilles tendon, is a common adverse
adverse effect of Fluoroquinolones.
effect of Fluoroquinolones.
Ipratropium and Tiotropium are anti-muscarinic agents
used for Asthma and COPD.
[...] and Tiotropium are anti-muscarinic agents used for

Asthma and COPD.
Ipratropium and Tiotropium are anti-muscarinic agents

used for Asthma and COPD.
Ipratropium and [...] are anti-muscarinic agents used for

Asthma and COPD.
Guaifenesin is an expectorant that functions by thinning

respiratory secretions.
[...] is an expectorant that functions by thinning

respiratory secretions.
It does not suppress the cough reflex.

What type of respiratory drug is Zileuton?
What type of respiratory drug is Zileuton?
Antileukotriene
[...]
Which generation of H1 blockers is used to treat allergy Which generation of H1 blockers is used to treat allergy
only?
only?
2nd generation
[...]
Sildenafil and Tadalafil are PDE5 inhibitors that are not

[...] and Tadalafil are PDE5 inhibitors that are not only
only used for pulmonary HTN but also for Erectile
used for pulmonary HTN but also for Erectile Dysfunction.
Dysfunction.
Sildenafil and Tadalafil are PDE5 inhibitors that are not
Sildenafil and [...] are PDE5 inhibitors that are not only
only used for pulmonary HTN but also for Erectile
used for pulmonary HTN but also for Erectile Dysfunction.
Dysfunction.
Theophylline is a methylxanthine drug used to treat asthma [...] is a methylxanthine drug used to treat asthma that can
that can block the action of adenosine.
block the action of adenosine.
What is a common adverse effect of all first line TB drugs? What is a common adverse effect of all first line TB drugs?
Hepatitis (hepatotoxicity)
[...]
Sildenafil is an anti-pulmonary hypertensive that inhibits

[...] is an anti-pulmonary hypertensive that inhibits
Phosphodiesterase-5, thereby inhibiting the degradation of Phosphodiesterase-5, thereby inhibiting the degradation of
cGMP.
cGMP.
Binding to the 23S subunit of the 50S ribosomal subunit,

thereby blocking formation of the initiation complex
[...]
Pseudoephedrine and Phenylephrine are alpha-agonists

used to reduce hyperemia, edema and nasal congestion.
[...] and Phenylephrine are alpha-agonists used to reduce

hyperemia, edema and nasal congestion.
Pseudoephedrine and Phenylephrine are alpha-agonists

used to reduce hyperemia, edema and nasal congestion.
Pseudoephedrine and [...] are alpha-agonists used to

reduce hyperemia, edema and nasal congestion.
Inhibition of bacterial Transglycolase
[...]
Rifampin is a first-line TB drug that yields a reddishorange discoloration of urine, tears, saliva, sweat and
other bodily fluids.
[...] is a first-line TB drug that yields a reddish-orange

discoloration of urine, tears, saliva, sweat and other bodily
fluids.
Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat

[...] is a monoclonal antibody used to treat allergic
allergic asthma that is resistant to inhaled steroids and asthma that is resistant to inhaled steroids and long-acting
long-acting beta-2 agonists.
beta-2 agonists.
What is the MOA of Dextromethorphan as an antitussive What is the MOA of Dextromethorphan as an antitussive
agent?
agent?
NMDA receptor antagonism
[...]
Opioid agonist activity at high doses

Which antileukotrienes are especially useful in treating
Aspirin-induced asthma?
Which antileukotrienes are especially useful in treating

Aspirin-induced asthma?
Montelukast; Zafirlukast
[...]
Which alpha-agonists are used to reduce hyperemia,

edema and nasal congestion?
Which alpha-agonists are used to reduce hyperemia,

edema and nasal congestion?
Pseudoephedrine; Phenylephrine
[...]
What generation of H1 blocker is Desloratadine?
What generation of H1 blocker is Desloratadine?
2nd gen
[...]
2nd gen is -adine

What are the ligands that bind to Cysteinyl Leukotriene
Receptor 1?
What are the ligands that bind to Cysteinyl Leukotriene

Receptor 1?
LTC4, LTD4 and LTE4
[...]
abCDE's of LT's
Expectorants are a type of respiratory drugs that that aid
in the clearance of mucous from the airways.
[...] are a type of respiratory drugs that that aid in the

clearance of mucous from the airways.
Linezolid is an Oxazolidinone antibiotic that is ineffective [...] is an Oxazolidinone antibiotic that is ineffective against
against gram-negative bacteria.
gram-negative bacteria.
Linezolid is an Oxazolidinone antibiotic that is ineffective
against gram-negative bacteria.
Linezolid is an Oxazolidinone antibiotic that is ineffective

against gram-[...] bacteria.
Sildenafil and Tadalafil are anti-pulmonary hypertensives

that can cause colour vision impairments.
[...] and Tadalafil are anti-pulmonary hypertensives that

can cause colour vision impairments.
Sildenafil and Tadalafil are anti-pulmonary hypertensives

that can cause colour vision impairments.
Sildenafil and [...] are anti-pulmonary hypertensives that

can cause colour vision impairments.
Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat

asthma by binding to unbound serum IgE, thereby
blocking binding to FcRI receptors on mast cells.
[...] is a monoclonal antibody used to treat asthma by

binding to unbound serum IgE, thereby blocking
binding to FcRI receptors on mast cells.
Moxifloxacin is the fluoroquinolone with weak activity

against Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
[...] is the fluoroquinolone with weak activity against

Which beta2 agonist is involved in the long term

maintenance of Asthma?
Which beta2 agonist is involved in the long term

maintenance of Asthma?
Salmeterol
[...]
Which class of antibiotics are the most effective against

intracellular bacteria?
Which class of antibiotics are the most effective against

Macrolides
[...]
What generation of H1 blocker is Fexofenadine?
What generation of H1 blocker is Fexofenadine?
2nd gen
[...]
2nd gen ends in -adine

Beta-2 agonism, thereby causing bronchial smooth muscle

relaxation
[...]
What is the MOA of Formoterol?
What is the MOA of Formoterol?

relaxation
[...]
Pseudomembranous colitis is a GI adverse effect of

penicillin usage due to toxin secretion from the
bacteria Clostridium difficile.
[...] is a GI adverse effect of penicillin usage due to toxin

secretion from the bacteria Clostridium difficile.

bacteria Clostridium difficile.

bacteria [...].
Vancomycin is ineffective against gram-negative bacteria
Vancomycin is ineffective against gram-[...] bacteria
Linezolid also inhibits Monoamine Oxidase (MAO), an

enzyme involved in metabolisation of many
neurotransmitters and hormones.
Linezolid also inhibits [...], an enzyme involved in

metabolisation of many neurotransmitters and hormones.
What is the DOC for MRSA respiratory infections?
What is the DOC for MRSA respiratory infections?
Vancomycin
[...]
Levofloxacin is the preferred fluoroquinolone to treat

community acquired pneumonia due to it's overall
improved activity against gram-positives and atypical
causes of pneumonia.
[...] is the preferred fluoroquinolone to treat community

acquired pneumonia due to it's overall improved activity
against gram-positives and atypical causes of pneumonia.
What is the pulmonary clinical use of N-Acetylcysteine? What is the pulmonary clinical use of N-Acetylcysteine?
Loosens mucous plugs in Cystic Fibrosis patients; it can
also be used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose
[...]
What is the MOA of Rifampin?
What is the MOA of Rifampin?
Binds to the beta-subunit of DNA-Dependent RNA

Polymerase, thereby inhibiting transcription
[...]
What is the DOC for Bronchodilation in COPD?

[...]
What is the DOC for Bronchodilation in COPD?

Tiotropium
What is the pregnancy category of beta2-agonists?
What is the pregnancy category of beta2-agonists?
[...]
What type of respiratory drug is Montelukast and

Zafirlukast?
What type of respiratory drug is Montelukast and

Zafirlukast?
Antileukotrienes
[...]
Competitive inhibition of Endothelin-1 at ETA receptors

only
[...]
Which anti-biotic is used to treat Klebsiella

pneumoniae infections?
Which anti-biotic is used to treat Klebsiella

pneumoniae infections?
Penicillins (Augmentin)
[...]
What is the MOA of Isoniazid?
What is the MOA of Isoniazid?
Inactivates enzymes associated with mycolic acid

synthesis, thereby inhibiting cell wall synthesis
[...]
Enoyl-ACP Reductase and Beta-Ketoacyl-ACP

Synthase are inactivated.
Which beta-2 agonists are used for acute asthma
exacerbation/attack?
Which beta-2 agonists are used for acute asthma

exacerbation/attack?
Albuterol
[...]
What is a secondary MOA of Macrolide antibiotics at the What is a secondary MOA of Macrolide antibiotics at the
GI tract?
GI tract?
Stimulation of Motilin receptors, thereby causing GIT
motility
[...]
Hence causing GIT pain and diarrhea

Red man/neck syndrome is an adverse effect of
Vancomycin characterized by histamine induced
hypotension and vasodilation following IV ROA only.
[...] is an adverse effect of Vancomycin characterized by

histamine induced hypotension and vasodilation following
IV ROA only.
What is the MOA of Sulbactam?
What is the MOA of Sulbactam?
[...]
Methacholine is a muscarinic agonist that is used in

bronchial provocation challenges to diagnose asthma.
[...] is a muscarinic agonist that is used in bronchial

provocation challenges to diagnose asthma.
What is the clinical use of Omalizumab?
What is the clinical use of Omalizumab?
Allergic asthma that is resistant to inhaled steroids and

long-acting beta-2 agonists
[...]
Theophylline is a methylxanthine drug used to treat asthma [...] is a methylxanthine drug used to treat asthma that has
that has a narrow therapeutic index and causes
a narrow therapeutic index and causes cardiotoxicity and
cardiotoxicity and neurotoxicity.
neurotoxicity.
What is the MOA of Methacholine?
What is the MOA of Methacholine?
Agonism at muscarinic receptors
[...]
Blocks leukotriene receptors (CysLTR1; specifically

LTC4, LTD4, LTE4)
[...]
Montelukast and Zafirlukast are leukotriene pathway [...] and Zafirlukast are leukotriene pathway inhibitors that
inhibitors that antagonise Cysteinyl Lukotriene Receptor 1 antagonise Cysteinyl Lukotriene Receptor 1 (CysLT1) to
(CysLT1) to block leukotriene action.
block leukotriene action.
Montelukast and Zafirlukast are leukotriene pathway
inhibitors that antagonise Cysteinyl Lukotriene Receptor 1
Montelukast and [...] are leukotriene pathway inhibitors

that antagonise Cysteinyl Lukotriene Receptor 1
What is the MOA of Salmeterol?
What is the MOA of Salmeterol?

relaxation
[...]
Competitive antagonism Endothelin-1 at ETA and ETB,

thereby decreasing pulmonary vascular resistance.
[...]
What is the clinical use of Ambrisentan?
What is the clinical use of Ambrisentan?
Pulmonary HTN
[...]
Which muscarinic agonist is used in bronchial provocation Which muscarinic agonist is used in bronchial provocation
challenges to diagnose asthma?
challenges to diagnose asthma?
Methacholine
[...]
What type of respiratory drug is Guaifenesin?
What type of respiratory drug is Guaifenesin?
Expectorant
[...]
Competitive inhibition of ACh Muscarinic receptors
[...]
Which generation of H1 blockers is assocaited with

antimuscarinic activity?
Which generation of H1 blockers is assocaited with

antimuscarinic activity?
1st generation
[...]
Which alpha-agonists are used to open obstructed

eustachian tubes?
Which alpha-agonists are used to open obstructed

eustachian tubes?
Pseudoephedrine; Phenylephrine
[...]
What is the MOA of Phenylephrine?
What is the MOA of Phenylephrine?
Sympathomimetic alpha-agonism
[...]
Ambrisentan is an anti-pulmonary hypertensive that

competitively inhibits Endothelin-1 at ETA receptors only.
[...] is an anti-pulmonary hypertensive that competitively

inhibits Endothelin-1 at ETA receptors only.
Which generation of H1 blockers is associated with

sedation?
Which generation of H1 blockers is associated with

sedation?
1st generation
[...]
What is the MOA of Fluoroquinolone antibiotics?
Inhibitions of cytoplasmic Topoisomerase II and

Topoisomerase IV
[...]
What is the Dx?
What is the Dx?
Ameloblastoma
[...]
Mirtazapine is an atypical antidepressant that can mitigate

5-HT induced anxiety via antagonism at 5-HT2A
receptors
[...] is an atypical antidepressant that can mitigate 5-HT

induced anxiety via antagonism at 5-HT2A receptors
Mirtazapine is an atypical antidepressant that can mitigate Mirtazapine is an atypical antidepressant that can mitigate
5-HT induced anxiety via antagonism at 5-HT2A
5-HT induced anxiety via antagonism at [...] receptors
receptors
What is the clinical use of Lisdexamfetamine?
What is the clinical use of Lisdexamfetamine?
[...]
What is the preferred drug treatment for Bulimia?
What is the preferred drug treatment for Bulimia?
SSRIs
[...]
Which isoform of MAO mainly breaks down

Phenethylamine and trace amines?
Which isoform of MAO mainly breaks down

Phenethylamine and trace amines?
MAO-B
[...]
What kind of antipsychotic is Risperidone?
What kind of antipsychotic is Risperidone?
Atypical
[...]
Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic that is also used for [...] is an atypical antipsychotic that is also used for bipolar
bipolar depression.
depression.
Which atypical antidepressant is also used for smoking
cessation?
Which atypical antidepressant is also used for smoking

cessation?
Bupropion
[...]
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a life threatening

[...] is a life threatening disorder caused by adverse
disorder caused by adverse reactions to neuroleptics or reactions to neuroleptics or antipsychotics. It involves high
antipsychotics. It involves high fever, unstable BP,
fever, unstable BP, autonomic dysfunction and muscle
autonomic dysfunction and muscle rigidity.
rigidity.
Fluoxetine and Paroxetine are 2 SSRIs that are CYP450 [...] and Paroxetine are 2 SSRIs that are CYP450 enzyme
enzyme inhibitors.
inhibitors.
Fluoxetine and Paroxetine are 2 SSRIs that are CYP450 Fluoxetine and [...] are 2 SSRIs that are CYP450 enzyme
enzyme inhibitors.
inhibitors.
Sialorrhea is a side effect of Clozapine that involves
hypersalivation.
[...] is a side effect of Clozapine that involves

hypersalivation.
What generation of antipsychotics are Typical

antipsychotics?
What generation of antipsychotics are Typical

antipsychotics?
1st
[...]
What is Bruxism?
What is Bruxism?
Teeth grinding; often seen with elevated 5-HT levels
[...]
What is the MOA of Clozapine?
What is the MOA of Clozapine?
Partial agonism at 5HT1A receptors; Antagonism at

5HT2A and D2 receptors
[...]
All efficacious antidepressants have been found to increase All efficacious antidepressants have been found to increase
the levels of BDNF in the hippocampus and thereby
the levels of [...] in the hippocampus and thereby increase
increase neuroplasticity.
neuroplasticity.
What class of anti-depressant is Venlafaxine?
What class of anti-depressant is Venlafaxine?
SNRI
[...]
Which 5-HT receptors are involved in the sexual

dysfunction seen with TCAs?
Which 5-HT receptors are involved in the sexual

dysfunction seen with TCAs?
5-HT2A and 5-HT3
[...]
Clozapine can elicit muscarinic side effects through M3

receptors.
Clozapine can elicit muscarinic side effects through [...]

receptors.
What is the MOA of Duloxetine?
What is the MOA of Duloxetine?
Inhibition of 5-HT and NE reuptake
[...]
What is the drug of choice to treat the positive symptoms What is the drug of choice to treat the positive symptoms
of Psychosis & Schizophrenia?
of Psychosis & Schizophrenia?
Typical Antipsychotics
[...]
Trazodone is an atypical antidepressant that is associated [...] is an atypical antidepressant that is associated with a
with a risk of priapism.
risk of priapism.
TrazoBONE causes boners.
What kind of antipsychotic is Aripiprazole?
What kind of antipsychotic is Aripiprazole?
Atypical
[...]
Antagonism of [...] post-synaptic receptors on presynaptic

dopamine neurons in Schizophrenia results in dopamine
release in the nigrostriatal and mesocortical regions.
Antagonism of 5HT2A post-synaptic receptors on

presynaptic dopamine neurons in Schizophrenia results in
dopamine release in the nigrostriatal and
mesocortical regions.
Thereby, decreasing EPS and negative symptoms.
What kind of antipsychotic is Haloperidol?
What kind of antipsychotic is Haloperidol?
Typical
[...]
Selegiline is an antidepressant that is given as a high-dose

transdermal patch to treat depression.
[...] is an antidepressant that is given as a high-dose

transdermal patch to treat depression.
St. John's Wort is an over-the-counter herbal remedy with

SSRI function.
[...] is an over-the-counter herbal remedy with SSRI

function.
What class of anti-depressant is Clomipramine?
What class of anti-depressant is Clomipramine?
TCA
[...]
What is the MOA of Olanzapine?
What is the MOA of Olanzapine?
Antagonism at 5HT2A and D2 receptors
[...]
Myocarditis is a side effect of Clozapine that involves

inflammation of the myocardium.
[...] is a side effect of Clozapine that involves inflammation

of the myocardium.
Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic that must be

watched very closely due to the high risk of
agranulocytosis.
[...] is an atypical antipsychotic that must be watched very

closely due to the high risk of agranulocytosis.
There must be weekly WBC counts.

Clozapine must be watched CLOZEly.
Which adverse effects are commonly associated with the
typical antipsychotics?

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
[...]
What class of anti-depressant is Phenelzine?
What class of anti-depressant is Phenelzine?
Non-selective MAOI
[...]
Serotonin agonism at 5HT1A autoreceptors acts as an

accelerator on dopamine release by reducing the amount
of 5-HT in the synaptic cleft (i.e. disinhibition of DA
neurons due to less 5-HT2A post-synaptic receptor
activation).
Serotonin agonism at [...] autoreceptors acts as an

accelerator on dopamine release by reducing the amount
of 5-HT in the synaptic cleft (i.e. disinhibition of DA
neurons due to less 5-HT2A post-synaptic receptor
activation).
Clozapine can cause sedation through antagonism of M1,

H1 and Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors.
Clozapine can cause [...] through antagonism of M1, H1

and Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors.
What class of anti-depressant is Sertraline?
What class of anti-depressant is Sertraline?
SSRI
[...]
Amitriptyline is a TCA that is also useful in treating

neuropathic pain.
[...] is a TCA that is also useful in treating neuropathic

pain.
Clozapine can cause weight gain through H1 and 5-HT2C

receptor antagonism.
Clozapine can cause weight gain through [...] receptor

antagonism.
What kind of antipsychotic is Quetiapine?
What kind of antipsychotic is Quetiapine?
Atypical
[...]
What kind of antipsychotic is Chlorpromazine?
What kind of antipsychotic is Chlorpromazine?
Typical
[...]
Which atypical antipsychotics is known to increase

Which atypical antipsychotics is known to increase
prolactin, thereby resulting in decreased GnRH, LH and prolactin, thereby resulting in decreased GnRH, LH and
FSH levels?
FSH levels?
Risperidone
[...]
Can cause lactation, gynecomastia, irregular

menstruation and fertility issues.
TCAs cause postural hypotension through antagonism
of Alpha1-adrenergic receptors.
TCAs cause postural hypotension through antagonism

of [...] receptors.
Lithium is not recommended to be taken with Diuretics

due to their ability to deplete Na and increase Li levels.
Lithium is not recommended to be taken with [...] due to

their ability to deplete Na and increase Li levels.
What is the MOA of Lithium in the treatment of Acute

mania and Bipolar Disorders?
What is the MOA of Lithium in the treatment of Acute

mania and Bipolar Disorders?
Inhibition of Inositol Monophosphatase and the inositol

signalling cascade
[...]
Thereby promoting neuroprotection, long term

plasticity and antimanic effects
Mirtazapine is an atypical antidepressant that is a second
[...] is an atypical antidepressant that is a second line
line therapy for depression or a common adjunct drug to therapy for depression or a common adjunct drug to other
other antidepressants.
antidepressants.
What kind of antipsychotic is Asenapine?
What kind of antipsychotic is Asenapine?
Atypical
[...]
Which atypical antipsychotic is commonly associated with Which atypical antipsychotic is commonly associated with
prolonged the QT interval?
prolonged the QT interval?
Ziprasidone
[...]
What is the MOA of Risperidone?
What is the MOA of Risperidone?
Antagonism at 5HT2A and DA receptors
[...]
Lamotrigine is an antiepileptic that is used in maintenance

therapy in Bipolar Disorders and as a 2nd line drug for
Bipolar Depression.
[...] is an antiepileptic that is used in maintenance therapy

in Bipolar Disorders and as a 2nd line drug for Bipolar
Depression.
Which atypical antipsychotics may cause significant weight Which atypical antipsychotics may cause significant weight
gain?
gain?
Olanzapine; Clozapine
[...]
What is the preferred drug treatment for tourette

syndrome?
What is the preferred drug treatment for tourette

syndrome?
Antipsychotics
[...]
Tyramine is a trace amine found in many foods that is able

to cause a mass displacement of NE and downstream
Hypertensive Crisis in the presence of a nonspecific MAO inhibitor.
[...] is a trace amine found in many foods that is able to

cause a mass displacement of NE and downstream
Hypertensive Crisis in the presence of a nonspecific MAO inhibitor.
Tyramine is a trace amine found in many foods that is able Tyramine is a trace amine found in many foods that is able
Hypertensive Crisis in the presence of a nonHypertensive Crisis in the presence of a [...] inhibitor.
specific MAO inhibitor.
Which endocrine disorder can be caused by Lithium?
Which endocrine disorder can be caused by Lithium?
Hypothyroidism
[...]
What is the preferred drug treatment for alcohol

withdrawal?
What is the preferred drug treatment for alcohol

withdrawal?
Benzodiazepines
[...]
What kind of antipsychotics are used for Acute Mania?
What kind of antipsychotics are used for Acute Mania?
Atypical Antipsychotics
[...]
Lisdexamfetamine is a prodrug that is converted into its

active form Dextroamphetamine.
Lisdexamfetamine is a prodrug that is converted into its

active form [...].
What kind of antipsychotic is Fluphenazine?
What kind of antipsychotic is Fluphenazine?
Typical
[...]
What is the preferred drug treatment for schizophrenia?
What is the preferred drug treatment for schizophrenia?
Antipsychotics
[...]
Which isoform of MAO mainly breaks down 5-HT, NE, Which isoform of MAO mainly breaks down 5-HT, NE,
Epi and Melatonin?
Epi and Melatonin?
MAO-A
[...]
What is the 1st line drug in Mild, Moderate or Severe

Depression?
What is the 1st line drug in Mild, Moderate or Severe

Depression?
SSRIs
[...]
What class of anti-depressant is Desvenlafaxine?
What class of anti-depressant is Desvenlafaxine?
SNRI
[...]
Selegiline does not present with a risk of Hypertensive

Crisis as it selectively inhibits MAO-B only.
Selegiline does not present with a risk of Hypertensive

Crisis as it selectively inhibits [...] only.
Tricyclic Antidepressants are a class of anti-depressants

that have strong interactions with CYP450 enzymes.
[...] are a class of anti-depressants that have strong

interactions with CYP450 enzymes.
Imipramine is a TCA that yields a balance between 5-HT

and NE.
[...] is a TCA that yields a balance between 5-HT and

NE.
What is the main MOA for all Typical Antipsychotics?
What is the main MOA for all Typical Antipsychotics?
Antagonism at D2 receptors
[...]
What is the treatment for the cardiovascular toxicity

caused by tricylic antidepressants?
What is the treatment for the cardiovascular toxicity

caused by tricylic antidepressants?
NaHCO3
[...]
What is the preferred drug treatment for PTSD?
What is the preferred drug treatment for PTSD?
SSRIs
[...]


EPS and Tardive Dyskinesia
[...]
Blockade of D2 receptors at the mesolimbic pathway in

Schizophrenia blocks the positive symptoms from
occurring.
Blockade of [...] receptors at the mesolimbic pathway in

Schizophrenia blocks the positive symptoms from
occurring.
Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that is

[...] is an NMDA receptor antagonist that is sometimes
sometimes used for rapid reversal of depressive symptoms used for rapid reversal of depressive symptoms through a
through a release of BDNF.
release of BDNF.
What is the cardiotoxicity of tricyclic antidepressants?
What is the cardiotoxicity of tricyclic antidepressants?
Arrhythmia
[...]

5-HT induced nausea via antagonism at 5-HT3 receptors.

induced nausea via antagonism at 5-HT3 receptors.
5-HT induced nausea via antagonism at 5-HT3 receptors. 5-HT induced nausea via antagonism at [...] receptors.
Carbamazepine and Valproic Acid are antiepileptics used [...] and [...] are antiepileptics used in Acute Mania that
in Acute Mania that may induce neuronal plasticity through may induce neuronal plasticity through depleting inositol
depleting inositol and enhancing growth factor action.
and enhancing growth factor action.
What is the secondary MOA of antipsychotics that yields What is the secondary MOA of antipsychotics that yields
many of the adverse effects seen?
many of the adverse effects seen?
Antagonism of M3, Histamine H1 and Alpha-1
Adrenergic receptors
[...]
i.e. H.A.M. effects

SSRIs can cause anorgasmia through 5-HT2A receptors.
SSRIs can cause anorgasmia through [...] receptors.
This is an off-label use for SSRIs in men with early

ejaculation or hypersensitivity.
Amitriptyline is a TCA that slightly favours 5-HT reuptake
over NE.
[...] is a TCA that slightly favours 5-HT reuptake over

NE.
Mirtazapine is an atypical antidepressant that acts as an

antagonist at presynaptic alpha2 heteroceptors on
Serotoninergic neurons, thereby increasing 5-HT levels.
[...] is an atypical antidepressant that acts as an antagonist

at presynaptic alpha2 heteroceptors on Serotoninergic
neurons, thereby increasing 5-HT levels.

antagonist at presynaptic alpha2 heteroceptors on

antagonist at presynaptic [...] heteroceptors on
What is the MOA of Aripiprazole?
What is the MOA of Aripiprazole?
Partial agonism at 5HT1A and D2 receptors; Antagonism

at 5HT2A
[...]
What class of anti-depressant is Selegiline?
What class of anti-depressant is Selegiline?
Selective MAO-B Inhibitor
[...]
Blockade of the D2 receptors in the tuberinfundibular

dopamine pathway in Schizophrenia can cause adverse
effects such as hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea and
amenorrhea.
Blockade of the [...] receptors in the tuberinfundibular

dopamine pathway in Schizophrenia can cause adverse
effects such as hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea and
amenorrhea.
Abrupt withdrawal of stimulants can lead to acute

depression and possible suicide.
Abrupt withdrawal of stimulants can lead to [...] and

possible suicide.
Dopamine and Tyramine are broken down equally by both

isoforms of MAO.
[...] and Tyramine are broken down equally by both

isoforms of MAO.
Dopamine and Tyramine are broken down equally by both

isoforms of MAO.
Dopamine and [...] are broken down equally by both

isoforms of MAO.

5-HT induced sleep via antagonism at 5-HT2C receptors.

induced sleep via antagonism at 5-HT2C receptors.
5-HT induced sleep via antagonism at 5-HT2C receptors. 5-HT induced sleep via antagonism at [...] receptors.
Duloxetine is an SNRI that has a hepatotoxicity warning.
[...] is an SNRI that has a hepatotoxicity warning.
TCAs cause drowsiness through the antagonism of H1

Histamine receptors.
TCAs cause drowsiness through the antagonism of [...]

receptors.
What is the MOA of Quetiapine?
What is the MOA of Quetiapine?
Partial agonism at 5HT1A receptors; Antagonism at

5HT2A and D2 receptors
[...]
What drugs are used when treat Atypical Depression

won't respond to typical first line drugs?
What drugs are used when treat Atypical Depression

won't respond to typical first line drugs?
Non-selective MAOIs
[...]
What is the MOA of Tricyclic Antidepressants?
What is the MOA of Tricyclic Antidepressants?
Inhibition of 5-HT and NE reuptake
[...]
SSRIs are often given initially with the

benzodiazepine Alprazolam to allow the SSRI to take
effect. The benzo mitigates depression in the first few
weeks.
SSRIs are often given initially with the benzodiazepine [...]

to allow the SSRI to take effect. The benzo mitigates
depression in the first few weeks.

antagonist at pre-synaptic alpha2 adrenergic
autoreceptors, thereby increasing NE levels.
[...] is an atypical antidepressant that acts as an antagonist

at pre-synaptic alpha2 adrenergic autoreceptors, thereby
increasing NE levels.

antagonist at pre-synaptic alpha2 adrenergic
autoreceptors, thereby increasing NE levels.

antagonist at pre-synaptic [...] adrenergic autoreceptors,
thereby increasing NE levels.
What is the preferred drug treatment for panic disorder?
What is the preferred drug treatment for panic disorder?
SSRIs; Venlafaxine; Benzodiazepines
[...]
Venlafaxine is an SNRI that has fewer ANS side effects [...] is an SNRI that has fewer ANS side effects than other
than other SNRIs.
SNRIs.
The binding of Serotonin to 5HT2A post-synaptic
receptors on presynaptic dopamine neurons acts as a
brake on dopamine neurons.
The binding of Serotonin to [...] post-synaptic receptors

on presynaptic dopamine neurons acts as a brake on
dopamine neurons.
Which 2 SSRIs have favourable efficacy, ADEs

and tolerability?
Which 2 SSRIs have favourable efficacy, ADEs

and tolerability?
Escitalopram and Sertraline
[...]
Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic that has the least

side effects.
[...] is an atypical antipsychotic that has the least side

effects.
What is the drug of choice for General Anxiety Disorder? What is the drug of choice for General Anxiety Disorder?
SSRIs
[...]
What is the MOA of Bupropion?
What is the MOA of Bupropion?
Increases DA and NE levels by blocking reuptake
[...]
Lithium is not recommended to be taken with ACE

Inhibitors due to their ability to deplete Na and decrease
GFR.

their ability to deplete Na and decrease GFR.
Selegiline is a MAOI that can be used in low oral doses in

Parkinson's to increase DA levels.
[...] is a MAOI that can be used in low oral doses in

Parkinson's to increase DA levels.
What is the clinical use of Methylphenidate?
What is the clinical use of Methylphenidate?
Tx of ADHD in adults and children; some forms of

narcolepsy
[...]
Selective, irreversible inhibition of MAO-B only
[...]
Paroxetine is an SSRI with higher rates of sexual

dysfunction.
[...] is an SSRI with higher rates of sexual dysfunction.
What is the preferred drug treatment for depression?
What is the preferred drug treatment for depression?
SSRIs; SNRIs; TCAs; Bupropion; Mirtazapine
[...]
What is the MOA of Methylphenidate?
What is the MOA of Methylphenidate?
Increases catecholamine (DA; NE) tone by blocking

reuptake and facilitating release
[...]
Trazodone is an atypical antidepressant that is actually [...] is an atypical antidepressant that is actually used more
used more commonly for insomnia. It is not preferred for commonly for insomnia. It is not preferred for depression.
depression.
Clomipramine is a TCA that is useful in the treatment of

OCD.
[...] is a TCA that is useful in the treatment of OCD.
What class of anti-depressant is Fluoxetine?
What class of anti-depressant is Fluoxetine?
SSRI
[...]
Desvenlafaxine is the active metabolity of the SNRI

Venlafaxine.
[...] is the active metabolity of the SNRI Venlafaxine.
What is the DOC for Bulimia?
What is the DOC for Bulimia?
SSRIs
[...]
What is the MOA of Asenapine?
What is the MOA of Asenapine?
Antagonism at 5HT2A and D2 receptors
[...]
Clomipramine is a TCA that greatly favours 5-HT

reuptake over NE.
[...] is a TCA that greatly favours 5-HT reuptake over

NE.
What class of anti-depressant is Escitalopram?
What class of anti-depressant is Escitalopram?
SSRI
[...]
What is the preferred drug treatment for social phobias?
What is the preferred drug treatment for social phobias?
SSRIs; beta-blockers
[...]
What kind of antipsychotic is Perphenazine?
What kind of antipsychotic is Perphenazine?
Typical
[...]
Imipramine is a TCA that is also useful in Noctural

Enuresis due to its ability to decrease slow wave sleep in
Phase IV of sleep.
[...] is a TCA that is also useful in Noctural Enuresis due

to its ability to decrease slow wave sleep in Phase IV of
sleep.
What is the drug of choice in Tourette's Syndrome?
What is the drug of choice in Tourette's Syndrome?
Typical antipsychotics
[...]
What is the MOA of Phenelzine?
What is the MOA of Phenelzine?
Non-selective inhibition of MAO-A and MAO-B;

thereby yielding increased monoamine levels
[...]
What kind of antipsychotic is Olanzapine?
What kind of antipsychotic is Olanzapine?
Atypical
[...]
What is the preferred drug treatment for ADHD?
What is the preferred drug treatment for ADHD?
Methylphenidate
[...]
Which TCA drug has less sedating effect but has a
higher seizure incidence?
[...]
Which TCA drug has less sedating effect but has a

higher seizure incidence?
Desipramine
What generation of antipsychotics are Atypical
Antipsychotics?
What generation of antipsychotics are Atypical

Antipsychotics?
2nd
[...]
What is the clinical use of Amphetamine?
What is the clinical use of Amphetamine?
[...]
Lithium is a mood stabilizer that is associated with fetal

cardiac defects such as Ebstein anomaly and
malformation of the great vessels.
[...] is a mood stabilizer that is associated with fetal

cardiac defects such as Ebstein anomaly and
malformation of the great vessels.
Blockade of D2 receptors in the Nigrostriatal pathway is Blockade of [...] receptors in the Nigrostriatal pathway is
an adverse effect of Schizophrenia treatment and may
an adverse effect of Schizophrenia treatment and may
result in abnormal movement and tardive dyskinesia
result in abnormal movement and tardive dyskinesia
with chronic administration of the drug.
with chronic administration of the drug.
What is the preferred drug treatment for anxiety?
What is the preferred drug treatment for anxiety?
SSRIs; SNRIs; Buspirone
[...]
What is the preferred drug treatment for bipolar disorder? What is the preferred drug treatment for bipolar disorder?
Mood stabilizers; Atypical antipsychotics
[...]
Phenelzine is a MAOI that is only given parenterally.
[...] is a MAOI that is only given parenterally.
What is the pregnancy category of SSRIs?
What is the pregnancy category of SSRIs?
C - possible risk
[...]
Lithium is not recommended to be taken with NSAIDs

due to their ability to increase Li plasma levels.

their ability to increase Li plasma levels.
What class of anti-depressant is Paroxetine?
What class of anti-depressant is Paroxetine?
SSRI
[...]
Venlafaxine is an SNRI that is used to treat Hot Flashes in

Menopause or Resistant Severe Depression.
[...] is an SNRI that is used to treat Hot Flashes in

Menopause or Resistant Severe Depression.
What is the pregnancy category of Antiepileptics?
What is the pregnancy category of Antiepileptics?
C - possible risk
[...]
What is the MOA of Trazodone?
What is the MOA of Trazodone?
Weak inhibition of 5-HT reuptake
[...]
Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic that is approved

for irritability in autism in children aged 6-17.
[...] is an atypical antipsychotic that is approved for

irritability in autism in children aged 6-17.
Where is MAO-B typically found aside from the CNS?
Where is MAO-B typically found aside from the CNS?
Blood platelets
[...]
Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorders that

is treated like Na at the proximal tubule.
[...] is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorders that is

treated like Na at the proximal tubule.
Hence it is influenced by GFR and plasma volume

changes and requires a patient with good kidney
function.
What class of anti-depressant is Imipramine?
What class of anti-depressant is Imipramine?
TCA
[...]
What is the MOA of Lisdexamfetamine Dismesylate?
What is the MOA of Lisdexamfetamine Dismesylate?

[...]
What kind of antipsychotic is Clozapine?
What kind of antipsychotic is Clozapine?
Atypical
[...]
Where is MAO-A typically found aside from the CNS?
Where is MAO-A typically found aside from the CNS?
Liver, GI tract, placenta
[...]
What is the MOA of SSRIs?
What is the MOA of SSRIs?
Selective inhibition of 5-HT reuptake, thereby leading to

increased 5-HT, downregulation of 5-HT autoreceptors
and eventual increase in presynaptic 5-HT production
[...]
SSRIs can cause nausea through 5-HT3 receptors.
SSRIs can cause nausea through [...] receptors.
TCAs cause memory impairments, dry mouth, blurry

vision and urinary retention through antagonism
of muscarinic receptors.
TCAs cause memory impairments, dry mouth, blurry

vision and urinary retention through antagonism of [...]
receptors.
Blockade of D2 receptors at the mesocortical pathway in Blockade of [...] receptors at the mesocortical pathway in
Schizophrenia confounds the negative symptoms of
Schizophrenia confounds the negative symptoms of
Schizophrenia as the mesocortical pathway is hypoactive Schizophrenia as the mesocortical pathway is hypoactive
to begin with.
to begin with.
Remember, the mesocortical pathway extends to the
prefrontal cortex.
Burpropion is an atypical antidepressant that inhibits the
reuptake of DA and NE only.
[...] is an atypical antidepressant that inhibits the reuptake

of DA and NE only.
Hence it can be used with SSRIs as it does not affect 5HT.

What is the MOA of Amphetamine?
What is the MOA of Amphetamine?

[...]
What class of anti-depressant is Duloxetine?
What class of anti-depressant is Duloxetine?
SNRI
[...]
Risperidone and Asenapine are atypical antipsychotics that [...] and Asenapine are atypical antipsychotics that do not
do not have Histamine and Muscarinic binding. They still have Histamine and Muscarinic binding. They still have
have Alpha-1 Adrenoceptor binding.
Alpha-1 Adrenoceptor binding.
Risperidone and Asenapine are atypical antipsychotics that Risperidone and [...] are atypical antipsychotics that do
do not have Histamine and Muscarinic binding. They still not have Histamine and Muscarinic binding. They still have
have Alpha-1 Adrenoceptor binding.
Alpha-1 Adrenoceptor binding.
What class of anti-depressant is Amitriptyline?
What class of anti-depressant is Amitriptyline?
TCA
[...]
What is the treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia??
What is the treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia??
Dantrolene
[...]
Depression may be able to raise the number of autoreceptors on presynaptic 5-HT neurons, making them
resistant to SSRIs as treatment.
Depression may be able to raise the number of autoreceptors on presynaptic 5-HT neurons, making them
resistant to [...] as treatment.
Such patients would require a combination of antidepressants.

Which 2 classes of Anti-depressants make up the 1st
generation antidepressants?
Which 2 classes of Anti-depressants make up the 1st

generation antidepressants?
TCAs and MAOIs
[...]
Quetiapine is an atypical antipsychotic that also acts as a

NE reuptake inhibitor.
[...] is an atypical antipsychotic that also acts as a NE

reuptake inhibitor.
What is the preferred drug treatment for obsessivecompulsive disorder?
What is the preferred drug treatment for obsessivecompulsive disorder?
SSRIs; Clomipramine
[...]
What kind of antipsychotic is Thioridazine?
What kind of antipsychotic is Thioridazine?
Typical
[...]
What class of anti-depressant is Citalopram?
What class of anti-depressant is Citalopram?
SSRI
[...]
What neurological deficits have to be present to meet the What neurological deficits have to be present to meet the
criteria for a diagnosis of Dementia?
criteria for a diagnosis of Dementia?
Memory +1 cognitive deficit
[...]
Frontotemporal Dementia is a dementia that primarily

affects the frontotemporal lobe, yielding much more
significant behavioural deficits as opposed to memory.
[...] is a dementia that primarily affects the frontotemporal

lobe, yielding much more significant behavioural deficits as
opposed to memory.
Which gene codes Tau protein?
Which gene codes Tau protein?
MAPT on chr 17
[...]
The atrophied gyri in Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD) are The atrophied gyri in Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD) are
said to have a knife-edge appearance.
said to have a [...] appearance.
Binwanger's Disease is a vascular dementia that presents

[...] is a vascular dementia that presents similarly to
similarly to Alzheimer's Disease but will present with
Alzheimer's Disease but will present with vascular defects
vascular defects upon MRI.
upon MRI.
Use the patient Hx and MRI to differentiate between
the 2.
Pick Cells are seen in Pick's Disease and are described as
surviving neurons with homogenous swollen cytoplasm.
[...] are seen in Pick's Disease and are described as

surviving neurons with homogenous swollen cytoplasm.
What is the hallmark neurological deficit in Alzheimer's

Disease?
What is the hallmark neurological deficit in Alzheimer's

Disease?
Memory deficits; with a slow, insidious onset and

progression
[...]
Specifically, there is a problem recalling facts

Mutations in Presenilin 1 and 2 result in gamma-secretase
having increased activity, thereby yielding more A
amyloid peptides.
Mutations in [...] result in gamma-secretase having

increased activity, thereby yielding more A amyloid
peptides.
Pick's Disease is a dementia that primarily affects the

frontotemporal lobe, but has a rapid progression and
onset.
[...] is a dementia that primarily affects the frontotemporal

lobe, but has a rapid progression and onset.
Mixed Dementia is a form of dementia that involves a

[...] is a form of dementia that involves a combination of
combination of Alzheimer's and Binswanger's changes with Alzheimer's and Binswanger's changes with insidious
insidious progression.
progression.
Which combination of Secretases yields the normal A
amyloid peptide fragment?
Which combination of Secretases yields the normal A

amyloid peptide fragment?
Alpha and gamma
[...]
Binswanger's Disease is a vascular dementia characterized [...] is a vascular dementia characterized by multiple, tiny
by multiple, tiny lacunar infarcts at subcortical deep white lacunar infarcts at subcortical deep white matter that is
matter that is strongly associated with HTN.
strongly associated with HTN.
Where does Binswanger's Disease commonly present in
the brain?
Where does Binswanger's Disease commonly present in

the brain?
Periventricularly
[...]
Patients with dementia are eventually die in 5-10 years as

symptoms gradually develop and progress.
Patients with dementia are eventually die in [...] years as

symptoms gradually develop and progress.
Neuritic Plaques are a key histological feature of

Alzheimer's Disease that involve an amyloid core (2) and
peripheral tau aggregates (3).
[...] are a key histological feature of Alzheimer's Disease

that involve an amyloid core (2) and peripheral tau
aggregates (3).
The A amyloid peptide fragments are usually found in 2

length. The A42 form is the amyloidogenic form.
The A amyloid peptide fragments are usually found in 2

length. The [...] form is the amyloidogenic form.
This hyponatremia must be corrected slowly in order

to avoid central pontine myelinolysis.
Furunculosis is an infection commonly seen in diabetics

that involves skin boils.
[...] is an infection commonly seen in diabetics that

involves skin boils.
Which precursor in adrenal hormone synthesis is used to

diagnose a 21-Hydroxylase deficiency?
Which precursor in adrenal hormone synthesis is used to

diagnose a 21-Hydroxylase deficiency?
17-Hydroxyprogesterone
[...]
What is the MOA of Iodine-131?
What is the MOA of Iodine-131?
Emission of beta-particles that induce necrosis in follicular

cells of the thyroid
[...]
Metformin is a Biguanide that is used to tream T2DM,

especially in obese patients with significant insulin
resistance.
[...] is a Biguanide that is used to tream T2DM, especially

in obese patients with significant insulin resistance.
Which type of diabetes absolutely requires insulin as a

treatment?
Which type of diabetes absolutely requires insulin as a

treatment?
T1DM
[...]
What is the result of the activation of extrarenal V2

receptors by Vasopressin?
What is the result of the activation of extrarenal V2

receptors by Vasopressin?
Release of Factor VIIIc and vWF
[...]
Propylthiouracil is a short acting thioamide.
[...] is a short acting thioamide.
What is the black box warning that comes with

Thiazolidinediones ?
What is the black box warning that comes with

Congestive Heart Failure
[...]
What is the preferred beta-blocker in the management of What is the preferred beta-blocker in the management of
Thyroid Storm?
Thyroid Storm?
Propranolol
[...]
What is the MOA of Propylthiouracil (PTU)?
What is the MOA of Propylthiouracil (PTU)?
Inhibition of Thyroid Peroxidase; Inhibition of 5'Deiodinase at peripheral tissue
[...]
Inhibits T3 and T4 production; Inhibits conversion of

T4 to T3
Insulin Glargine is a long acting insulin formulation that
cannot be combined with rapid or short acting insulin
formulations in the same syringe due to its acidic pH.
[...] is a long acting insulin formulation that cannot be

combined with rapid or short acting insulin formulations in
the same syringe due to its acidic pH.
Fludrocortisone is a mineralocorticoid used to treat

mineralocorticoid deficiency or salt-wasting in CAH.
[...] is a mineralocorticoid used to treat mineralocorticoid

deficiency or salt-wasting in CAH.
NPH Insulin is an intermediate acting insulin formation that

is suspended in solution with Protamine which is slowly
digested enzymatically to release insulin.
[...] is an intermediate acting insulin formation that is

suspended in solution with Protamine which is slowly
digested enzymatically to release insulin.
What is the duration of action of Methylprednisolone?
[...]
What is the duration of action of Methylprednisolone?

Intermediate
Why is Insulin contraindicated alongside Ethanol and
Salicylates?
Why is Insulin contraindicated alongside Ethanol and

Salicylates?
They precipitate hypoglycemia
[...]
What is the treatment for Myxedema Coma?
What is the treatment for Myxedema Coma?
IV Levothyroxine or T3
[...]
Mifepristone is a corticosteroid antagonist that is used in [...] is a corticosteroid antagonist that is used in Cushing's
Cushing's Syndrome as it antagonizes GCRs and
Syndrome as it antagonizes GCRs and Progesterone
Progesterone receptors.
receptors.
Somatropin is a hGH analog that binds to GH receptors, [...] is a hGH analog that binds to GH receptors, activates
activates the Jak2/Stat signalling pathway and induces the Jak2/Stat signalling pathway and induces expression of
expression of somatomedins, especially IGF-1.
somatomedins, especially IGF-1.
What is the MOA of Ipodate and Iopanoic Acid in the
treatment of Thyroid Storm?
What is the MOA of Ipodate and Iopanoic Acid in the

treatment of Thyroid Storm?
Inhibition of peripheral conversion of T4 to T3; Inhibition

of T3/T4 release
[...]
No longer used in USA

Sitagliptin is an anti-diabetic that can cause nasopharyngitis [...] is an anti-diabetic that can cause nasopharyngitis and
and upper respiratory tract infections.
upper respiratory tract infections.
What is the most significant adverse effect of Mecasermin? What is the most significant adverse effect of Mecasermin?
Hypoglycemia
[...]
Metyrapone is a drug used in Cushing's Syndrome as it [...] is a drug used in Cushing's Syndrome as it inhibits 11inhibits 11-beta-Hydroxylase, thereby inhibiting GC
beta-Hydroxylase, thereby inhibiting GC synthesis and
synthesis and shifting steroids towards androgen synthesis.
shifting steroids towards androgen synthesis.
Acarbose and Miglitol are anti-diabetics that competitively [...] and Miglitol are anti-diabetics that competitively inhibit
inhibit Alpha-Glucosidase at the intestinal brush border, Alpha-Glucosidase at the intestinal brush border, thereby
thereby inhibiting the digestion of starch and disaccharides.
inhibiting the digestion of starch and disaccharides.
Acarbose and Miglitol are anti-diabetics that competitively Acarbose and [...] are anti-diabetics that competitively
inhibit Alpha-Glucosidase at the intestinal brush border, inhibit Alpha-Glucosidase at the intestinal brush border,
thereby inhibiting the digestion of starch and disaccharides. thereby inhibiting the digestion of starch and disaccharides.
Which corticosteroid is preferred to treat a Glucocorticoid Which corticosteroid is preferred to treat a Glucocorticoid
deficiency (whichever type)?
deficiency (whichever type)?
Hydrocortisone
[...]
What is the duration of action of Insulin Detemir?
What is the duration of action of Insulin Detemir?
Long
[...]
Which type of Insulin formulations are used to provide

basal levels of Insulin throughout a day?
Which type of Insulin formulations are used to provide

basal levels of Insulin throughout a day?
Intermediate and Long acting
[...]
Propylthiouracil and Methymazole are thioamides used in

[...] and Methymazole are thioamides used in
hyperthyroidism that are associated with agranulocytosis. hyperthyroidism that are associated with agranulocytosis.
Propylthiouracil and Methymazole are thioamides used in

Propylthiouracil and [...] are thioamides used in
hyperthyroidism that are associated with agranulocytosis. hyperthyroidism that are associated with agranulocytosis.
Doses of Levothroxine must be increased in pregnant
patients due to an increased in Thyroid-Binding Globulin
(TBG) levels.
Doses of Levothroxine must be increased in pregnant

patients due to an increased in [...] levels.
What is the MOA of Tolvaptan?
What is the MOA of Tolvaptan?
Selective antagonism of Vasopressin V2 receptors
[...]
Hypothyroidism is a common adverse effect of Iodine-131 [...] is a common adverse effect of Iodine-131 use and is
use and is treated with Levothyroxine.
treated with Levothyroxine.
Which generation of Sulfonylureas are more potent?
Which generation of Sulfonylureas are more potent?
2nd
[...]
Insulin is contraindicated with Diuretics as they raise blood

glucose and increase the chances of hypokalemia.
Insulin is contraindicated with [...] as they raise blood

glucose and increase the chances of hypokalemia.
Glucocorticoids can cause osteoporosis by decreasing Ca

absorption from the GI tract through antagonism of
Calcitriol. The resultant continuous PTH release causes
osteoporosis.
Glucocorticoids can cause [...] by decreasing Ca

absorption from the GI tract through antagonism of
Calcitriol. The resultant continuous PTH release causes
osteoporosis.
Glucocorticoids can cause Diabetes Mellitus in at risk

patients as they enhance gluconeogenesis and reduce
glucose uptake.
Glucocorticoids can cause [...] in at risk patients as they

enhance gluconeogenesis and reduce glucose uptake.
Thyroid Storm (Thyrotoxic Crisis) is an acute

exacerbation of thyrotoxicosis that presents as an acute
life-threatening syndrome.
[...] is an acute exacerbation of thyrotoxicosis that

presents as an acute life-threatening syndrome.
What is the ROA of Exenatide?
What is the ROA of Exenatide?
SC
[...]
What is the MOA of Cabergoline?
Agonism at D2 receptors
[...]
Which type of 11-Beta Hydroxysteroid Dehydrogenase Which type of 11-Beta Hydroxysteroid Dehydrogenase
(11-b-HSD) converts Prednisone and cortisone into their (11-b-HSD) converts Prednisone and cortisone into their
active forms?
active forms?
Type 1
[...]
What is the MOA of Somatropin?
What is the MOA of Somatropin?
Agonism at GH receptors
[...]
What generation Sulfonylurea is Glipizide?
What generation Sulfonylurea is Glipizide?
2nd
[...]
What is the DOC in Primary Hyperaldosteronism?
What is the DOC in Primary Hyperaldosteronism?
Spironolactone
[...]
GH can be given to patients with AIDS to treat for the

wasting associated with the condition. It helps with lean
body mass, weight and physical endurance.
GH can be given to patients with [...] to treat for the

wasting associated with the condition. It helps with lean
body mass, weight and physical endurance.
What is the duration of action of Insulin Aspart?
What is the duration of action of Insulin Aspart?
Rapid
[...]
What generation Sulfonylurea is Chloropropamide?
What generation Sulfonylurea is Chloropropamide?
1st
[...]
Conivaptan is a vasopressin antagonist that is given via

SC, IM and IV.
[...] is a vasopressin antagonist that is given via SC, IM

and IV.
What is the common ROA for Insulin preparations?
What is the common ROA for Insulin preparations?
SC
[...]
Vit B12 Deficiency is an adverse effect of Octreotide

[...] is an adverse effect of Octreotide administration due
administration due to decreased release of intrinsic factor.
to decreased release of intrinsic factor.
Bromocriptine is an ergotamine dopamine agonist that is
preferred in women who are looking to get pregnant or
are having unprotected sex.
[...] is an ergotamine dopamine agonist that is preferred in

women who are looking to get pregnant or are having
unprotected sex.
Bromocriptine has less teratogenicity than

cabergoline.
What is the duration of action of Insulin Glargine?
What is the duration of action of Insulin Glargine?
Long
[...]
What is the duration of action of Tolbutamide (1st gen)?
What is the duration of action of Tolbutamide (1st gen)?
Short
[...]
What is the clinical use of Mecasermin?
What is the clinical use of Mecasermin?
Laron Dwarfism
[...]
Lactic Acidosis is a potential adverse effect of Metformin

in renal failure patients due to decreased drug excretion or
in hepatic failure due to impaired lactic acid uptake.
[...] is a potential adverse effect of Metformin in renal

failure patients due to decreased drug excretion or in
hepatic failure due to impaired lactic acid uptake.
What is the MOA of Mecasermin?
What is the MOA of Mecasermin?
Agonism at IGF-1 receptors
[...]
Cabergoline is a long-acting ergotamine dopamine

agonist used in Hyperprolactinemia, Parkinsonism and
Acromegaly.
[...] is a long-acting ergotamine dopamine agonist used in

Hyperprolactinemia, Parkinsonism and Acromegaly.
What is the duration of action of Insulin Glulisine?
What is the duration of action of Insulin Glulisine?
Rapid
[...]
Regular Insulin is an insulin formulation that can be given

through IV. This is vital in the treatment of Diabetic
Ketoacidosis and Hyperglycemic Emergency.
[...] is an insulin formulation that can be given through IV.

This is vital in the treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis and
Hyperglycemic Emergency.
Reverse T3 is an inactive form of the thyroid hormone T3 [...] is an inactive form of the thyroid hormone T3 made by
made by deiodination of the inner ring of T4.
deiodination of the inner ring of T4.
What is the duration of action of Chloropropramide (1st
Gen)?
[...]
What is the duration of action of Chloropropramide (1st

Gen)?
Long
Chloropropramide is a Sulfonylurea that has some
therapeutic use in Neurogenic Diabetes Insipidus.
[...] is a Sulfonylurea that has some therapeutic use in

Neurogenic Diabetes Insipidus.
Which lobe of the pituitary is referred to as the

Neurohypophysis?

Neurohypophysis?
Posterior Pituitary
[...]
What is the ROA of Regular Insulin?
What is the ROA of Regular Insulin?
SC; IM; IV
[...]

Adenohypophysis?

Adenohypophysis?
Anterior Pituitary
[...]
What is the duration of action of Triamcinolone?
What is the duration of action of Triamcinolone?
Intermediate
[...]
Tolvaptan is a vasopressin antagonist that is given orally.
[...] is a vasopressin antagonist that is given orally.
Reverse T3 is made by deiodination of the inner ring of

T4 by the enzyme 5-Deiodinase.
Reverse T3 is made by deiodination of the inner ring of

T4 by the enzyme [...].
Sulfonylureas are contraindicated in T1DM due to the lack Sulfonylureas are contraindicated in [...] due to the lack of
of functioning beta cells.
functioning beta cells.
What is the drug of choice in Neurogenic Diabetes
Insipidus?
What is the drug of choice in Neurogenic Diabetes

Insipidus?
Desmopressin
[...]
Methimazole is a thioamide that inhibits Thyroid

Peroxidase only.
[...] is a thioamide that inhibits Thyroid Peroxidase only.
Which enzyme catalyzes the oxidation of iodide,

organification and coupling steps in Thyroid hormone
synthesis?
Which enzyme catalyzes the oxidation of iodide,

organification and coupling steps in Thyroid hormone
synthesis?
Thyroid Peroxidase
[...]
What is the duration of action of Insulin Lispro?
What is the duration of action of Insulin Lispro?
Rapid
[...]
Pasireotide is a somatostatin analog used in Cushing's

Disease when pituitary surgery is not possible or is not
curative.
[...] is a somatostatin analog used in Cushing's Disease

when pituitary surgery is not possible or is not curative.
Pegvisomant is a GH receptor antagonist used in

Acromegaly when Octreotide or other Somatostatin
analogs are unable to control the disease.
[...] is a GH receptor antagonist used in Acromegaly when

Octreotide or other Somatostatin analogs are unable to
control the disease.
Repaglinide is a Meglitinide that is often used to manage [...] is a Meglitinide that is often used to manage T2DM in
T2DM in patients with Sulfa-drug allergies.
patients with Sulfa-drug allergies.
Lente Insulin is an intermediate acting insulin formulation

that is suspended in solution with Zinc, which slowly
released insulin from Zn complexes.
[...] is an intermediate acting insulin formulation that is

suspended in solution with Zinc, which slowly released
insulin from Zn complexes.
What is the MOA of the anti-diabetics Acarbose and

Miglitol?
What is the MOA of the anti-diabetics Acarbose and

Miglitol?
Competitive inhibition of Alpha-Glucosidase; thereby

inhibiting digestions of starch and disaccharides
[...]
Hence, blunts the postprandial rise in Glc

What is the duration of action of Regular Insulin?
What is the duration of action of Regular Insulin?
Short
[...]
How does GH facilitate hyperglycemia?
How does GH facilitate hyperglycemia?
Induction of hepatic gluconeogenesis; decreases insulin

sensitivity
[...]
Metformin is a Biguanide that cannot cause hypoglycemia

or weight gain on its own.
[...] is a Biguanide that cannot cause hypoglycemia or

weight gain on its own.
What is the drug of choice in Hypothyroidism?
What is the drug of choice in Hypothyroidism?
Levothyroxine
[...]
Desmopressin is a vasopressin analog that is much more

selective for V2 receptors
[...] is a vasopressin analog that is much more selective

for V2 receptors
3000:1 V2:V1 selectivity and activity

selective for V2 receptors

selective for [...] receptors
3000:1 V2:V1 selectivity and activity

Which corticosteroid is preferred in the treatment of
Respiratory Distress Syndrome?
Which corticosteroid is preferred in the treatment of

Respiratory Distress Syndrome?
Betamethasone; due to decreased fetal converstion by 11b-HSD 2 and decreased plasma protein binding
[...]
Glucocorticoids increase lipogenesis, thereby leading to Glucocorticoids increase [...], thereby leading to increased
increased body fat content and storage.
body fat content and storage.
Oxytocin is a posterior pituitary hormone that can cause
antidiuresis and vasopression when it is at high levels.
[...] is a posterior pituitary hormone that can cause

antidiuresis and vasopression when it is at high levels.
Which intracellular signalling pathway is involved with GH? Which intracellular signalling pathway is involved with GH?
Jak2/Stat
[...]
Rosiglitazone and Pioglitazone are Thiazolidinediones that [...] and Pioglitazone are Thiazolidinediones that act as
act as selective agonists at PPAR-gamma receptors at selective agonists at PPAR-gamma receptors at adipose
adipose tissue, thereby reducing FA influx into muscle.
tissue, thereby reducing FA influx into muscle.
Rosiglitazone and Pioglitazone are Thiazolidinediones that Rosiglitazone and [...] are Thiazolidinediones that act as
act as selective agonists at PPAR-gamma receptors at selective agonists at PPAR-gamma receptors at adipose
adipose tissue, thereby reducing FA influx into muscle.
tissue, thereby reducing FA influx into muscle.
Which type of 11-Beta Hydroxysteroid Dehydrogenase

(11-b-HSD) converts Prednisolone and into its inactive
form?
Which type of 11-Beta Hydroxysteroid Dehydrogenase

(11-b-HSD) converts Prednisolone and into its inactive
form?
Type 2
[...]
What is the MOA of Octreotide in the treatment of

Rupture Esophageal Varices?

Rupture Esophageal Varices?
Constriction of splanchnic, hepatic and renal blood vessels
[...]
Hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid used in the

[...] is a glucocorticoid used in the management of thyroid
management of thyroid storm as it protects against
storm as it protects against cardiovascular shock and
cardiovascular shock and inhibits conversion of T4 to T3.
inhibits conversion of T4 to T3.
Rosiglitazone and Pioglitazone are Thiazolidinediones that [...] and Pioglitazone are Thiazolidinediones that activate
activate the adipokine Adiponectin.
the adipokine Adiponectin.
Rosiglitazone and Pioglitazone are Thiazolidinediones that Rosiglitazone and [...] are Thiazolidinediones that activate
activate the adipokine Adiponectin.
the adipokine Adiponectin.
What is the duration of action of NPH Insulin?
What is the duration of action of NPH Insulin?
Intermediate
[...]
What is the duration of action of Cortisone?
What is the duration of action of Cortisone?
Short
[...]
Propylthiouracil is a thioamide that inhibits Thyroid

Peroxidase and 5'-Deiodinase at peripheral tissue.
[...] is a thioamide that inhibits Thyroid Peroxidase and 5'Deiodinase at peripheral tissue.
Sitagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor used in the treatment of

T2DM.
[...] is a DPP-4 inhibitor used in the treatment of T2DM.
Mitotane is an adrenolytic that is used to treat Adrenal

Carcinoma.
[...] is an adrenolytic that is used to treat Adrenal

Carcinoma.
Amiloride is a K-sparing diuretic used to treat Lithiuminduced Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus by potentiating
ADH action at V2 receptors.
[...] is a K-sparing diuretic used to treat Lithium-induced

Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus by potentiating ADH
action at V2 receptors.
Thiazides may also be used in CDI

What is the MOA of Desmopressin in Hemophilia A and What is the MOA of Desmopressin in Hemophilia A and
von Willebrand's Disease?
von Willebrand's Disease?
Agonism at extrarenal V2 receptors, triggering the
release of Factor VIIIc and vWF
[...]
Dexamethasone and Betamethasone are 2 corticosteroids [...] and Betamethasone are 2 corticosteroids that are
that are poor substrates for 11-b-HSD 2 in fetal
poor substrates for 11-b-HSD 2 in fetal circulation,
circulation, thereby making them good choices for treating thereby making them good choices for treating Respiratory
Respiratory Distress Syndrome.
Distress Syndrome.
Dexamethasone and Betamethasone are 2 corticosteroids Dexamethasone and [...] are 2 corticosteroids that are
that are poor substrates for 11-b-HSD 2 in fetal
poor substrates for 11-b-HSD 2 in fetal circulation,
circulation, thereby making them good choices for treating thereby making them good choices for treating Respiratory
Respiratory Distress Syndrome.
Distress Syndrome.
What is the duration of action of Hydrocortisone?
What is the duration of action of Hydrocortisone?
Short
[...]
What is the drug of choice to treat T1DM?
What is the drug of choice to treat T1DM?
Insulin
[...]
Oxytocin is a posterior pituitary hormone that triggers milk

letdown during the suckling reflex arc.
[...] is a posterior pituitary hormone that triggers milk

letdown during the suckling reflex arc.
What is the duration of action of Dexamethasone?
What is the duration of action of Dexamethasone?
Long
[...]
Potassium Iodide is an iodide salt that inhibits Thyroid [...] is an iodide salt that inhibits Thyroid hormone release,
hormone release, organification and decreases the size of organification and decreases the size of the thyroid through
the thyroid through the Wolff-Chaikoff Effect.
the Wolff-Chaikoff Effect.
Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone (CRH) is a hormone
from the hypothalamus that triggers the release of ACTH
from the anterior pituitary.
[...] is a hormone from the hypothalamus that triggers the

release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary.
Lanreotide is a long-acting Somatostatin analog.
[...] is a long-acting Somatostatin analog.
Chloropramide is a 1st generation Sulfonylurea that is used

in the treatment of Neurogenic Diabetes Insipidus as it
potentiates ADH action at V2 receptors.
[...] is a 1st generation Sulfonylurea that is used in the

treatment of Neurogenic Diabetes Insipidus as it
potentiates ADH action at V2 receptors.
Mecasermin is an IGF-1 analog that is used to treat Laron

Dwarfism.
[...] is an IGF-1 analog that is used to treat Laron

Dwarfism.

Carcinoid Syndrome?

Carcinoid Syndrome?
Agonism at Somatostatin receptors at the GI tract, thereby

decreasing Serotonin release
[...]
Which type of Insulin formulations are used to control

post-prandial hyperglycemia?
Which type of Insulin formulations are used to control

post-prandial hyperglycemia?
Rapid and Short acting
[...]
What is the MOA of Spironolactone in the treatment of

Primary Hypealdosteronism?
What is the MOA of Spironolactone in the treatment of

Primary Hypealdosteronism?
Antagonism at Aldosterone receptors
[...]
Sermorelin is a GHRH analog that may be used

diagnostically.
[...] is a GHRH analog that may be used diagnostically.
What is the MOA of Pegvisomant?
What is the MOA of Pegvisomant?
Antagonism at GH receptors
[...]
Note, that it does not affect GH receptors.

Diltiazem and Verapamil are vasodilators used to manage
Thyroid Storm when beta-blockers are contraindicated
through Ca channel blockade.
[...] and Verapamil are vasodilators used to manage

Diltiazem and Verapamil are vasodilators used to manage

Diltiazem and [...] are vasodilators used to manage

The longer the duration of action of Sulfonylurea, the

higher the risk of the patient developing hypoglycemia.
The longer the duration of action of Sulfonylurea, the

higher the risk of the patient developing [...].
Laron Dwarfism is a form of dwarfism that involves short- [...] is a form of dwarfism that involves short-stature due
stature due to IGF-1 deficiency despite high GH levels.
to IGF-1 deficiency despite high GH levels.
What is the black box warning of Propylthiouracil?
What is the black box warning of Propylthiouracil?
Hepatotoxicity
[...]
Sulfonylureas are contraindicated alongside drugs that

potentiate hypoglycemia.
Sulfonylureas are contraindicated alongside drugs that

potentiate [...].
What type of anti-diabetic is Metformin?
What type of anti-diabetic is Metformin?
Biguanide
[...]
Aplastic Anaemia is a significant and severe side effect of

Perchlorate and Thiocyanate (anion inhibitors) in the
treatment of hyperthyroidism.
[...] is a significant and severe side effect of Perchlorate

and Thiocyanate (anion inhibitors) in the treatment of
hyperthyroidism.
They have been discontinued for this reason.

What is the initial management of T2DM?
What is the initial management of T2DM?
Diet and exercise
[...]
What is the MOA of Perchlorate and Thiocyanate (anion What is the MOA of Perchlorate and Thiocyanate (anion
inhibitors) in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
inhibitors) in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?
Competition with iodide for uptake into thyroid gland
follicular cells via the Na-Iodide symporter
[...]
Thereby decreasing intrathyroid supply of iodine for

thyroid hormone synthesis
Liothyronine is a recombinant form of T3.
[...] is a recombinant form of T3.
What is the drug of choice to treat Gestational Diabetes

Mellitus?
What is the drug of choice to treat Gestational Diabetes

Mellitus?
Insulin
[...]
Scoliosis is an adverse effect of Somatropin (GH) due to

uneven, rapid growth of the vertebrae.
[...] is an adverse effect of Somatropin (GH) due to

uneven, rapid growth of the vertebrae.
Repaglinide is a fast-acting Meglitinide that is used to

rapidly to limit Postprandial Hyperglycemia.
[...] is a fast-acting Meglitinide that is used to rapidly to

limit Postprandial Hyperglycemia.
Why does Sulfonylurea tolerance develop?
Why does Sulfonylurea tolerance develop?
Down-regulation of Sulfonylurea receptors
[...]
Glipizide is a 2nd generation Sulfonylurea that has the

least risk for developing hypoglycemia.
[...] is a 2nd generation Sulfonylurea that has the least risk

for developing hypoglycemia.
What generation Sulfonylurea is Tolbutamide?
What generation Sulfonylurea is Tolbutamide?
1st
[...]
What is the effect of Adiponectin activation by

What is the effect of Adiponectin activation by

Increases AMP kinase and thereby insulin sensitivity
[...]
Chloropropramide is a Sulfonylurea that can cause

SIADH and has Disulfiram-like reactions with alcohol.
[...] is a Sulfonylurea that can cause SIADH and has

Disulfiram-like reactions with alcohol.
Glyburide is a 2nd generation Sulfonylurea that has the

highest risk of hypoglycemia (20-30%).
[...] is a 2nd generation Sulfonylurea that has the highest

risk of hypoglycemia (20-30%).
What is the MOA of Methimazole?
What is the MOA of Methimazole?
Inhibition of Thyroid Peroxidase
[...]
What is the MOA of Octreotide in Pancreatic Adenomas, What is the MOA of Octreotide in Pancreatic Adenomas,
such as VIPoma and Gastrinoma?
such as VIPoma and Gastrinoma?
Agonism at Somatostatin receptors at the GI tract, thereby
inhibiting GI secretions
[...]
What generation Sulfonylurea is Glimepiride?
What generation Sulfonylurea is Glimepiride?
2nd
[...]
Glucocorticoids promote the synthesis of lipocortins that

then inhibit Phospholipase A2, an enzyme involves in
prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis.
Glucocorticoids promote the synthesis of [...] that then

inhibit Phospholipase A2, an enzyme involves in

then inhibit Phospholipase A2, an enzyme involves in

then inhibit [...], an enzyme involves in prostaglandin and
leukotriene synthesis.
Why is GH administered to girls with Turner's Syndrome? Why is GH administered to girls with Turner's Syndrome?
To achieve normal height
[...]
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter from the hypothalamus

that acts as Prolactin Inhibitory Hormone at the anterior
pituitary.
[...] is a neurotransmitter from the hypothalamus that acts

as Prolactin Inhibitory Hormone at the anterior pituitary.
Lugol's Solution is an iodide salt solution that involves

Iodine and KI in a 1:2 mix.
[...] is an iodide salt solution that involves Iodine and KI in

a 1:2 mix.
What is the MOA of Eplerenone?
What is the MOA of Eplerenone?
Selective antagonism of Aldosterone receptors
[...]
What is the MOA of Exenatide?
What is the MOA of Exenatide?
Incretin (Exendin-4) analog; Increases insulin secretion

and decreases glucagon secretion
[...]
Glipizide is a 2nd generation Sulfonylurea that is the

preferred drug in the elderly due to its minimal risk of
hypoglycemia.
[...] is a 2nd generation Sulfonylurea that is the preferred

drug in the elderly due to its minimal risk of hypoglycemia.
Which signalling cascade is involved with V1-receptor

mediates vasoconstriction?
Which signalling cascade is involved with V1-receptor

mediates vasoconstriction?
IP3/DAG and increased [Ca]
[...]
What is the duration of action of 2nd Generation

Sulfonylurea?
What is the duration of action of 2nd Generation

Sulfonylurea?
Intermediate
[...]
Which receptor is involved with

Vasopressin/Desmopressin mediated increase in water
permeability & reabsorption at the kidneys?

Vasopressin/Desmopressin mediated increase in water
permeability & reabsorption at the kidneys?
V2
[...]
Insulin is contraindicated with Nonselective Beta-Blockers

Insulin is contraindicated with [...] due to counterdue to counter-regulatory activation of Beta2regulatory activation of Beta2-adrenoceptors in the liver
adrenoceptors in the liver which leads to inhibition of which leads to inhibition of glycogenolysis, thereby adding
glycogenolysis, thereby adding to hypoglycemia.
to hypoglycemia.
Beta1 selective agents are preferred (Atenolol).
Exenatide is an anti-diabetic that is the synthetic form of
the incretin Exendin-4.
[...] is an anti-diabetic that is the synthetic form of the

incretin Exendin-4.
Corticosteroids can cause peptic ulcers due to the

increased production of gastric acid or suppressing the
immune response to Helicobacter pylori.
Corticosteroids can cause [...] due to the increased

production of gastric acid or suppressing the immune
response to Helicobacter pylori.
What is the MOA of Conivaptan?
What is the MOA of Conivaptan?
Non-selective antagonism of V1 and V2 (vasopressin)
[...]
What generation Sulfonylurea is Glyburide?
What generation Sulfonylurea is Glyburide?
2nd
[...]
Levothyroxine is a recombinant form of T4 that served as [...] is a recombinant form of T4 that served as a thyroxine
a thyroxine replacement. It has agonist action at thyroid
replacement. It has agonist action at thyroid hormone
hormone receptors.
receptors.
Which corticosteroids are used to treat Respiratory
Distress Syndrome?
Which corticosteroids are used to treat Respiratory

Distress Syndrome?
Betamethasone or Dexamethasone
[...]
Demecocycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that is used to [...] is a tetracycline antibiotic that is used to treat SIADH
treat SIADH as it interferes with ADH activity at the distal as it interferes with ADH activity at the distal tubule.
tubule.
What is the MOA of Pasireotide?
What is the MOA of Pasireotide?
Agonism at Somatostatin receptors SST 1-5, thereby

inhibiting ACTH release
[...]
Exenatide is an incretin mimetic that is used in T2DM in [...] is an incretin mimetic that is used in T2DM in patients
patients that have not received adequate glycemic control that have not received adequate glycemic control via other
via other drugs.
drugs.
Glucocorticoids directly inhibit osteoblasts, thereby
increasing bone resorption and causing osteoporosis.
Glucocorticoids directly inhibit [...], thereby increasing

bone resorption and causing osteoporosis.
Ultra-Lente Insulin is long acting insulin formulation that is

suspended in solution with Zinc.
[...] is long acting insulin formulation that is suspended in

solution with Zinc.
What is the MOA of Mitotane in the treatment of Adrenal What is the MOA of Mitotane in the treatment of Adrenal
Carcinoma?
Carcinoma?
Suppression of the adrenal cortex
[...]
Pramlintide is an amylin analog used to treat T1DM and

T2DM by decreasing gastric emptying and
decreasing glucagon.
[...] is an amylin analog used to treat T1DM and T2DM

by decreasing gastric emptying and decreasing
glucagon.
What is the MOA of Stagliptin, Saxagliptin, Linagliptin?
[...]
What is the MOA of Stagliptin, Saxagliptin, Linagliptin?

Inhibition of Dipeptidyl Peptidase 4 (DPP-4), thereby
inhibiting the degradation of Incretins and GLP-1-like
mocs
Thereby it ultimately increases Glc-mediate insulin
secretion and decreases glucagon secretion
Thiazolidinediones are a type of anti-diabetic that act as [...] are a type of anti-diabetic that act as euglycemics, and
euglycemics, and hence do not cause hypoglycemia.
hence do not cause hypoglycemia.
Myxedema Coma is a medical emergency and is an
extreme complication of severe, long-standing
hypothyroidism.
[...] is a medical emergency and is an extreme

complication of severe, long-standing hypothyroidism.
What is the duration of action of Prednisone?
What is the duration of action of Prednisone?
Intermediate
[...]

Acromegaly and Gigantism?

Acromegaly and Gigantism?
Agonism at Somatostatin (GHIH) receptors at the anterior

pituitary, thereby inhibiting GH synthesis and release
[...]
Sulfonylureas are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their Sulfonylureas are contraindicated in [...] due to their ability
ability to cross the placenta.
to cross the placenta.
Metformin is a Biguanide that does not depend on
functioning beta-cells to elicit its effect as it acts mostly at
the liver.
[...] is a Biguanide that does not depend on functioning

beta-cells to elicit its effect as it acts mostly at the liver.
What is the etiology of Laron Dwarfism?
What is the etiology of Laron Dwarfism?
Mutation or defect in GH receptors; GHRs do not

respond to GH
[...]
How long must rapid acting Insulin formations be taken

before a meal?
How long must rapid acting Insulin formations be taken

before a meal?
5-15 minutes
[...]
90% of thyroid hormone is released as the T4 form.
90% of thyroid hormone is released as the [...] form.
What is the duration of action of Prednisolone?
What is the duration of action of Prednisolone?
Intermediate
[...]
Incretins are hormones released from the upper and lower [...] are hormones released from the upper and lower GI
GI tract that augment "glucose-dependent" insulin
tract that augment "glucose-dependent" insulin secretion.
secretion.
Oxytocin is a posterior pituitary hormone that stimulates
uterine contraction during parturition.
[...] is a posterior pituitary hormone that stimulates uterine

contraction during parturition.
What is the duration of action of Ultra-Lente Insulin?
What is the duration of action of Ultra-Lente Insulin?
Long
[...]
Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors are a type of anti-diabetic

that can be used in patients with a risk of hypoglycemia
and lactic acidosis.
[...] are a type of anti-diabetic that can be used in patients

with a risk of hypoglycemia and lactic acidosis.
Desmopressin is a long-acting vasopressin analog that has

much weaker vasopressive action.
[...] is a long-acting vasopressin analog that has much

weaker vasopressive action.
Conivaptan is a non-selective Vasopressin antagonist

used to treat SIADH.
[...] is a non-selective Vasopressin antagonist used to

treat SIADH.
What is the main adverse effect of Sulfonylureas and

Meglitinides?
What is the main adverse effect of Sulfonylureas and

Meglitinides?
Hypoglycemia
[...]

Vasopressin/Desmopressin mediated vasoconstriction?

Vasopressin/Desmopressin mediated vasoconstriction?
V1 receptors at arteriolar smooth muscle
[...]
What is the MOA of Thiazolidinediones?
What is the MOA of Thiazolidinediones?
Selective agonism at PPAR-gamma receptors at adipose

tissue; Activation of adiponectin; both increase insulin
sensitivity at peripheral tissue
[...]
What is the duration of action of Betamethasone?
What is the duration of action of Betamethasone?
Long
[...]
What is the MOA of Mifepristone in the treatment of

Cushing's Syndrome?
What is the MOA of Mifepristone in the treatment of

Cushing's Syndrome?
Antagonism of GCRs
[...]
Which location of the body offers for the most rapid

absorption of an IM injection of Insulin?
Which location of the body offers for the most rapid

absorption of an IM injection of Insulin?
Abdominal wall
[...]
What is the duration of action of Lente Insulin?
What is the duration of action of Lente Insulin?
Intermediate
[...]
What is the MOA/effects of Metformin?
What is the MOA/effects of Metformin?
Decreases Hepatic gluconeogenesis; Decreases peripheral

insulin resistance
[...]
What is the MOA of Sulfonylureas and Megltinides?
What is the MOA of Sulfonylureas and Megltinides?
Binding to and blocking of ATP-sensitive K channels,

causing opening of Ca channels and insulin release via
exocytosis
[...]
Chloropropramide is a Sulfonylurea that has the highest

risk for developing hypoglycemia due to its duration of
action.
[...] is a Sulfonylurea that has the highest risk for

developing hypoglycemia due to its duration of action.
Methimazole is a long acting thioamide.
[...] is a long acting thioamide.
Ketoconazole is an antifungal agent that inhibits CYP450s [...] is an antifungal agent that inhibits CYP450s involved
involved with steroid hormone synthesis. It is used in
with steroid hormone synthesis. It is used in Cushing's
Cushing's Syndrome.
Syndrome.
T4 is converted peripherally to T3 through deiodination by T4 is converted peripherally to T3 through deiodination by
the enzyme 5'-Deiodinase.
the enzyme [...].
Acute pancreatitis may also occur.

Which antacid can possibly chelate other drugs, thereby Which antacid can possibly chelate other drugs, thereby
reducing their effectiveness?
reducing their effectiveness?
Calcium carbonate
[...]
All antacids affect absorption, bioavailability or

urinary excretion of other drugs as they alter gastric
and urinary pH and delay gastric emptying.
Alpha Interferon 2b is an alpha interferon that is also used
in Kaposi's Sarcoma.
[...] is an alpha interferon that is also used in Kaposi's

Sarcoma.
Ribavirin is an anti-HCV agent that is very contraindicated [...] is an anti-HCV agent that is very contraindicated in
in pregnancy.
pregnancy.
2'5'-OligoA-Synthetase (25-OAS) and RNAse L are 2
anti-viral enzymes that are eventually activated following
the JAK-STAT signaling pathway activated by Alpha
Interferon.
[...] and RNAse L are 2 anti-viral enzymes that are

eventually activated following the JAK-STAT signaling
pathway activated by Alpha Interferon.
2'5'-OligoA-Synthetase (25-OAS) and RNAse L are 2

anti-viral enzymes that are eventually activated following
the JAK-STAT signaling pathway activated by Alpha
Interferon.
2'5'-OligoA-Synthetase (25-OAS) and [...] are 2 antiviral enzymes that are eventually activated following the
JAK-STAT signaling pathway activated by Alpha
Interferon.
Alosetron is a GI drug that inhibits colonic motility and

increases colonic transit time at Enteric Cholinergic
Terminal neuronal 5-HT3 receptors in IBS.
[...] is a GI drug that inhibits colonic motility and increases

colonic transit time at Enteric Cholinergic
Terminal neuronal 5-HT3 receptors in IBS.
What type of GI drugs are Esomeprazole and

Omeprazole?
What type of GI drugs are Esomeprazole and

Omeprazole?
Proton Pump Inhibitor
[...]
Which acid-base imbalance can be caused by all antacids? Which acid-base imbalance can be caused by all antacids?
Hypokalemia
[...]
What is the MOA of Tenofovir?
What is the MOA of Tenofovir?
Competitive inhibition of HBV reverse transcriptase,

thereby leading to chain termination
[...]
Alpha Peginterferon 2a is an Alpha Interferon that is also

used in Renal Cell Carcinoma.
[...] is an Alpha Interferon that is also used in Renal Cell

Carcinoma.
Aprepitant and Fosaprepitant are neurokinin antagonists

that cross the BBB and antagonise Substance
P/Neurokinin (NK1) receptors at the Area Postrema,
thereby causing anti-emesis.
[...] and Fosaprepitant are neurokinin antagonists that

cross the BBB and antagonise Substance P/Neurokinin
(NK1) receptors at the Area Postrema, thereby causing
anti-emesis.
Aprepitant and Fosaprepitant are neurokinin antagonists

that cross the BBB and antagonise Substance
P/Neurokinin (NK1) receptors at the Area Postrema,
thereby causing anti-emesis.
Aprepitant and [...] are neurokinin antagonists that cross

the BBB and antagonise Substance P/Neurokinin (NK1)
receptors at the Area Postrema, thereby causing antiemesis.
What is the MOA of Methotrexate in the treatment of
IBD?
[...]
What is the MOA of Methotrexate in the treatment of

IBD?
Inhibition of Dihydrofolate Reductase, thereby blocking
THF synthesis from folic acid
What is the pregnancy category of Telbivudine?
What is the pregnancy category of Telbivudine?
[...]
What is the pregnancy category of Adefovir?
What is the pregnancy category of Adefovir?
[...]
What type of laxative is Bisacodyl?
What type of laxative is Bisacodyl?
Stimulant
[...]
What is the pregnancy category of all Alpha Interferon?
What is the pregnancy category of all Alpha Interferon?
[...]
Alvimopan and Methylnaltrexone are opioid antagonists at

mu receptors at the intestine, thereby increasing intestinal
motility.
[...] and Methylnaltrexone are opioid antagonists at mu

receptors at the intestine, thereby increasing intestinal
motility.
Alvimopan and Methylnaltrexone are opioid antagonists at Alvimopan and [...] are opioid antagonists at mu receptors
mu receptors at the intestine, thereby increasing intestinal
at the intestine, thereby increasing intestinal motility.
motility.
What type of laxative is Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)?
What type of laxative is Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)?
Osmotic
[...]
Which hepatitis is Adefovir used to treat?
Which hepatitis is Adefovir used to treat?
HBV
[...]
Which enzyme inactivates Mercaptopurine?
Which enzyme inactivates Mercaptopurine?
Thiopurine S-Methyltransferase (TPMT)
[...]
Diphenhydramine and Dimenhydrinate are 1st generation [...] and Dimenhydrinate are 1st generation H1-receptor
H1-receptor antagonists used to treat nausea and vomiting antagonists used to treat nausea and vomiting in motion
in motion sickness.
sickness.
Diphenhydramine and Dimenhydrinate are 1st generation Diphenhydramine and [...] are 1st generation H1-receptor
H1-receptor antagonists used to treat nausea and vomiting antagonists used to treat nausea and vomiting in motion
in motion sickness.
sickness.
H2-receptor antagonists, especially Cimetidine, can have H2-receptor antagonists, especially Cimetidine, can have
anti-androgenic effects as they block DHTA binding at
anti-androgenic effects as they block [...] binding at
Androgen receptors.
Androgen receptors.
Hence they can cause prolactin release,
gynecomastia, impotence and decreased libido in
males.
Which enzyme activates Mercaptopurine?
Which enzyme activates Mercaptopurine?
HGPRT
[...]
What type of laxative is Lubiprostone?
What type of laxative is Lubiprostone?
Chloride Channel Activator
[...]
What type of laxative is Methylcellulose?
What type of laxative is Methylcellulose?
Bulk-Forming Laxative
[...]
Budesonide is a glucocorticoid that is preferred in patients [...] is a glucocorticoid that is preferred in patients with
with Crohn's Disease that affects the ileum and proximal Crohn's Disease that affects the ileum and proximal colon.
colon.
Aside from exacerbation of hepatitis upon stoppage, what Aside from exacerbation of hepatitis upon stoppage, what
is the black box warning for Adefovir?
is the black box warning for Adefovir?
Nephrotoxicity
[...]
Alosetron is a GI drug that blocks nausea, bloating and

pain at afferent GI 5-HT3 receptors in IBS.
[...] is a GI drug that blocks nausea, bloating and pain at

afferent GI 5-HT3 receptors in IBS.
Which antacid is associated with hypercalcemia and

rebound increases in acid if overused?
Which antacid is associated with hypercalcemia and

rebound increases in acid if overused?
Calcium carbonate
[...]
Dronabinol is a THC analog that is used to treat nausea

and vomiting. It also stimulates appetite.
[...] is a THC analog that is used to treat nausea and

vomiting. It also stimulates appetite.
Atropine is an anticholinergic that is administered with the

antidiarrheal Diphenoxylate to discourage deliberate
opioid overdose via the undersirable anticholingeric
effects.
[...] is an anticholinergic that is administered with the

antidiarrheal Diphenoxylate to discourage deliberate
opioid overdose via the undersirable anticholingeric
effects.
Which serotonin receptor mediates nausea and vomiting? Which serotonin receptor mediates nausea and vomiting?
5-HT3
[...]
What is the MOA of Lamivudine?
What is the MOA of Lamivudine?
Competes with Deoxycytidine Triphosphate for

incorporation into viral DNA, thereby leading to chain
termination
[...]
What is the clinical use of Bismuth and Sucralfate?
What is the clinical use of Bismuth and Sucralfate?
Increased ulcer healing; Traveler's Diarrhea
[...]
Melanosis Coli is a side effect of chronic use of Senna and [...] is a side effect of chronic use of Senna and involves
involves brown pigmentation of the colon.
brown pigmentation of the colon.
Besides exacerbation of hepatitis upon stoppage, what is
the blackbox warning of Entecavir?
Besides exacerbation of hepatitis upon stoppage, what is

the blackbox warning of Entecavir?
Lactic Acidosis and Severe Hepatomegaly with Steatosis
[...]
Lithocolic Acid is a hepatotoxic metabolite of Ursodiol [...] is a hepatotoxic metabolite of Ursodiol that is made
that is made by colonic flora if Ursodiol is unabsorbed and
by colonic flora if Ursodiol is unabsorbed and
unconjugated.
unconjugated.
Hyperplasia of G-cells/Fundic Glands is a complication of Hyperplasia of [...] is a complication of prolonged Proton
prolonged Proton Pump Inhibitor use.
Pump Inhibitor use.
Misoprostol is a PGE1 analog that can be used to maintain [...] is a PGE1 analog that can be used to maintain a patent
a patent ductus arteriosus.
ductus arteriosus.
Which 2 H2 blockers are associated with a decrease in

the renal excretion of creatinine?
Which 2 H2 blockers are associated with a decrease in

the renal excretion of creatinine?
Cimetidine; Ranitidine
[...]
What is the MOA of Entecavir?
What is the MOA of Entecavir?
Competitive inhibition of all 3 HBV Reverse Transcriptase

functions
[...]
What type of laxative is Methylnaltrexone?
What type of laxative is Methylnaltrexone?
Opioid antagonist
[...]
What is the MOA of Promethazine, Prochloroperazine

and Thiethylperazine in the treatment of nausea and
vomiting?
What is the MOA of Promethazine, Prochloroperazine

and Thiethylperazine in the treatment of nausea and
vomiting?
Antagonism of DA and Muscarinic receptors
[...]
What is the MOA of both Boceprevir and Telaprevir in

the treatment of HCV?
What is the MOA of both Boceprevir and Telaprevir in

the treatment of HCV?
Inhibition of HCV NS3 and HS4A proteases, thereby

inhibiting the cleavage of HCV encoded polyproteins into
their mature form
[...]
What is the MOA of Proton Pump Inhibitors?
What is the MOA of Proton Pump Inhibitors?
Irreversible, suicide inhibition of H+/K+ ATPase, thereby

inhibiting H+ secretion into the gastric lumen
[...]
via disulfide bond formation with the enzyme.

Lactulose is an osmotice laxative that in addition to
increasing stool liquidity, acidifies the colonic contents
following breakdown of the compound. This then inhibits
ammonia diffusion into the blood.
[...] is an osmotice laxative that in addition to increasing

stool liquidity, acidifies the colonic contents following
breakdown of the compound. This then inhibits ammonia
diffusion into the blood.
What nucleotide is Telbivudine an analog of?
What nucleotide is Telbivudine an analog of?
Thymidine
[...]
What type of laxative is Lactulose?
What type of laxative is Lactulose?
Osmotic
[...]
May be abused by bulimics.

What is the pregnancy category of Ribavirin?
What is the pregnancy category of Ribavirin?
[...]
Bishes need 2 forms of contraceptives; muhfuckas

can't have sex with preggo's or women wanting to be.
What is the primary clinical use of Cholestyramine?
What is the primary clinical use of Cholestyramine?
Hyperlipidemia or Diarrhea caused by excess bile acid
[...]
Ursodiol is an exogenous bile acid that decreases

[...] is an exogenous bile acid that decreases cholesterol
cholesterol content of bile by reducing hepatic cholesterol content of bile by reducing hepatic cholesterol secretion.
secretion.
What is the MOA of Bismuth and Sucralfate?
What is the MOA of Bismuth and Sucralfate?
Binding to the base of an ulcer, thereby providing physical

protection and allowing HCO3 secretion to re-establish
the pH gradient in the mucous layer
[...]
What is the MOA of Misoprostol?
What is the MOA of Misoprostol?
Agonism at PGE1 receptors, thereby increasing

production and secretion of the gastric mucosal barrier;
Decreases gastric acid release
[...]
Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist that is used to

treat Opioid induced constipation .
[...] is an opioid antagonist that is used to treat Opioid

induced constipation .
Which virus is associated with Progressive Multifocal

Leukoencephalopathy?
Which virus is associated with Progressive Multifocal

Leukoencephalopathy?
JC virus
[...]
What nucleotide is Entecavir an analog of?
What nucleotide is Entecavir an analog of?
Guanine
[...]
What is the pregnancy category of Telaprevir?
What is the pregnancy category of Telaprevir?
[...]
What is the MOA of Telbivudine?
What is the MOA of Telbivudine?
Competitive inhibition of HBV reverse transcriptase,

thereby causing viral DNA chain termination
[...]
Which somatostatin analog can be used to treat acute

variceal bleeding?
Which somatostatin analog can be used to treat acute

variceal bleeding?
Octreotide
[...]
Diphenoxylate and Loperamide are opioid agonist

antidiarrheals that activates opioid receptors, thereby
slowing intestinal activity and increasing fecal water
absorption.
[...] and Loperamide are opioid agonist antidiarrheals that

activates opioid receptors, thereby slowing intestinal
activity and increasing fecal water absorption.
Diphenoxylate and Loperamide are opioid agonist

antidiarrheals that activates opioid receptors, thereby
slowing intestinal activity and increasing fecal water
absorption.
Diphenoxylate and [...] are opioid agonist antidiarrheals

that activates opioid receptors, thereby slowing intestinal
activity and increasing fecal water absorption.
What is the MOA of Metoclopramide in the treatment of
diabetic/post-surgery gastroparesis?
[...]
What is the MOA of Metoclopramide in the treatment of

diabetic/post-surgery gastroparesis?
Antagonism at dopamine D2 receptors; Increases the
resting tone, contractility, LES tone and motility of the GI
tract
Obviously contraindicated in patients with small bowel
obstruction or Parkinson Disease.
Which specific type of HCV is treated with Boceprevir
and Telaprevir?
Which specific type of HCV is treated with Boceprevir

and Telaprevir?
HCV Genotype 1
[...]
What type of laxative is Senna (ExLax)?
What type of laxative is Senna (ExLax)?
Stimulant
[...]
Boceprevir is an anti-HCV agent that is a potent inhibitor

of CYP3A4 and CYP3A5.
[...] is an anti-HCV agent that is a potent inhibitor of

CYP3A4 and CYP3A5.
To which serotonin receptor does Ondansetron bind to

inhibit nausea?
To which serotonin receptor does Ondansetron bind to

inhibit nausea?
5-HT3
[...]
What is the mechanism of resistance to Ribavirin?
What is the mechanism of resistance to Ribavirin?
Failure of cells to phosphorylate the drug
[...]
Bisacodyl and Senna are stimulant laxatives that has an [...] and Senna are stimulant laxatives that has an unknown
unknown MOA, it is thought to stimulate the enteric
MOA, it is thought to stimulate the enteric nervous system.
nervous system.
Bisacodyl and Senna are stimulant laxatives that has an
nervous system.
Bisacodyl and [...] are stimulant laxatives that has an

nervous system.
What type of laxative is Mineral Oil?
What type of laxative is Mineral Oil?
Stool Softener
[...]
Lactulose is an osmotic laxative that is also used to treat

and prevent Hepatic Encephalopathy.
[...] is an osmotic laxative that is also used to treat and

prevent Hepatic Encephalopathy.
Alosetron is a GI drug that blocks the response to visceral [...] is a GI drug that blocks the response to visceral
afferent GI stimulation at central 5-HT3 receptors in IBS. afferent GI stimulation at central 5-HT3 receptors in IBS.
What is the MOA of Methylcellulose?
What is the MOA of Methylcellulose?
Absorbs water in the GI lumen, thereby forming a bulky,

emolient gel that causes colonic distension and promotes
peristalsis
[...]
Which anti-HBV agent yields the highest resistance?
Which anti-HBV agent yields the highest resistance?
Telbivudine
[...]
What is the pregnancy category of Mercaptopurine?
What is the pregnancy category of Mercaptopurine?
[...]
Which signalling pathway is activated by Alpha Interferon Which signalling pathway is activated by Alpha Interferon
in the treatment of hepatitis?
in the treatment of hepatitis?
JAK-STAT signaling pathway
[...]
Lubiprostone is a chloride channel activator that stimulates [...] is a chloride channel activator that stimulates type 2
type 2 chloride channels (CIC2) in the small intestine,
chloride channels (CIC2) in the small intestine, thereby
thereby increasing intestinal motility and shortening
increasing intestinal motility and shortening intestinal transit
intestinal transit time.
time.
What is the MOA of Natalizumab?
What is the MOA of Natalizumab?
Binds to and neutralizes alpha-4 subunit of Integrin,

thereby preventing adhesion of inflammatory cells to the
endothelium
[...]
What is the MOA of H2 receptor antagonists (-idines) in What is the MOA of H2 receptor antagonists (-idines) in
the treatment of Acid-Peptic Disease?
the treatment of Acid-Peptic Disease?
Competitive inhibition of H2 receptors at parietal cells,
thereby leading to a decrease in gastric acid production
and release
[...]
What is the clinical use of Laxatives?
What is the clinical use of Laxatives?
Constipation
[...]
Telbivudine is an anti-HBV agent that can present with

elevated serum CK levels.
[...] is an anti-HBV agent that can present with elevated

serum CK levels.
Which Anti-HBV agent is the least likely to reduce HBV Which Anti-HBV agent is the least likely to reduce HBV
DNA and seroconvert HBeAg?
DNA and seroconvert HBeAg?
Adefovir
[...]
What is the pregnancy category of Entecavir?
What is the pregnancy category of Entecavir?
[...]
Sulfasalazine is an aminosalicylate that is also used to treat

Rheumatoid Arthritis and Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis.
[...] is an aminosalicylate that is also used to treat

Rheumatoid Arthritis and Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis.
Is a combination of Sulfapyradine (antibacterial) and

5-ASA (anti-inflammatory).
Actvated by colonic bacteria.
Misoprostol is a PGE1 analog that functions to increase
production/secretion of the gastric mucous barrier and
decreases acid production.
[...] is a PGE1 analog that functions to increase

production/secretion of the gastric mucous barrier and
decreases acid production.
What is the MOA of Ondansetron in the treatment of

nausea and vomiting?
What is the MOA of Ondansetron in the treatment of

nausea and vomiting?
Antagonism of 5-HT3 receptors
[...]
Which 2 aminosalicylates are the 1st line therapy in mild

to moderate Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn's Disease?
Which 2 aminosalicylates are the 1st line therapy in mild

to moderate Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn's Disease?
Mesalamine and Sulfasalazine
[...]
What is the black box warning for Natalizumab?
What is the black box warning for Natalizumab?
Risk of Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy due

to opportunistic JC virus infection
[...]
What is the MOA of Droperidol in the treatment of nausea What is the MOA of Droperidol in the treatment of nausea
and vomiting?
and vomiting?
Central DA blockade
[...]
Dicyclomine is a spasmolytic that nonspecifically

antagonises muscarinic receptors, thereby decreasing GI
motility and secretions in IBS.
[...] is a spasmolytic that nonspecifically antagonises

muscarinic receptors, thereby decreasing GI motility and
secretions in IBS.
Cholestyramine is an anion-exhange resin that binds to bile [...] is an anion-exhange resin that binds to bile acids in the
acids in the intestinal lumen, thereby preventing their
intestinal lumen, thereby preventing their reabsorption.
reabsorption.
Mineral Oil is a stool softening laxative that lubricates fecal
material, thereby delaying colonic absorption of fecal
water.
[...] is a stool softening laxative that lubricates fecal

material, thereby delaying colonic absorption of fecal
water.
Prednisolone and Prednisone are 2 glucocorticoids that

are the preferred drugs to treat moderate to severe IBD,
via the oral route.
[...] and Prednisone are 2 glucocorticoids that are the

preferred drugs to treat moderate to severe IBD, via the
oral route.
Prednisolone and Prednisone are 2 glucocorticoids that

are the preferred drugs to treat moderate to severe IBD,
via the oral route.
Prednisolone and [...] are 2 glucocorticoids that are the

preferred drugs to treat moderate to severe IBD, via the
oral route.
What is the MOA of Adefovir?
What is the MOA of Adefovir?
Competitive inhibition of HBV Reverse Transcriptase,

thereby causing chain termination of viral DNA
[...]
Octreotide is a somatostatin analog that acts as an

[...] is a somatostatin analog that acts as an antidiarrheal
antidiarrheal through the inhibition of GI secretions, through the inhibition of GI secretions, slowing of GI
slowing of GI motility and inhibition of gallbladder
motility and inhibition of gallbladder secretion.
secretion.
What is the MOA of Mercaptopurine and Azathioprine in What is the MOA of Mercaptopurine and Azathioprine in
the treatment of IBD?
the treatment of IBD?
Inhibition of de novo purine nucleotide synthesis, thereby
causing immunosuppression
[...]
Metoclopramide is a Dopamine D2 antagonist that is used

to treat diabetic/post-surgery gastroparesis and emesis.
[...] is a Dopamine D2 antagonist that is used to treat

diabetic/post-surgery gastroparesis and emesis.
Which enteric bacterial infection has an increased risk of

occurring in proton pump inhibitor use?
Which enteric bacterial infection has an increased risk of

occurring in proton pump inhibitor use?
Clostridium difficile
[...]
What is the pregnancy category of Boceprevir?
What is the pregnancy category of Boceprevir?
[...]
What is the MOA of Ribavirin in the treatment of HCV?
What is the MOA of Ribavirin in the treatment of HCV?
Interference with GTP synthesis, thereby inhibiting GTPdependent 5' capping of viral mRNA
[...]
Polyethylene Glycol (PEG) is a moiety that is added onto [...] is a moiety that is added onto Alpha Interferon to
Alpha Interferon to increase half-life, stability and to
increase half-life, stability and to decrease metabolization.
decrease metabolization.
Azathioprine is an antimetabolite that is non-enzymatically
converted to Mercaptopurine.
[...] is an antimetabolite that is non-enzymatically

converted to Mercaptopurine.
Telaprevir is an anti-HCV agent that is a potent inhibitor of

CYP3A4 and P-Glycoprotein.
[...] is an anti-HCV agent that is a potent inhibitor of

CYP3A4 and P-Glycoprotein.
What kind of GI drug is Cimetidine, Famotidine and

Ranitidine?
What kind of GI drug is Cimetidine, Famotidine and

Ranitidine?
H2-Receptor Antagonist
[...]
Used in acid-peptic diseases.

Which antacid is associated with hyporeflexia,
hypotension and cardiac arrest if overused?
Which antacid is associated with hyporeflexia,

hypotension and cardiac arrest if overused?
Magnesium hydroxide
[...]
What type of laxative is Alvimopan?
What type of laxative is Alvimopan?
Opioid Antagonist
[...]
Mesalamine and Sulfasalazine are aminosalicylates that act

as powerful anti-inflammatories.
[...] and Sulfasalazine are aminosalicylates that act as

powerful anti-inflammatories.
Mesalamine and Sulfasalazine are aminosalicylates that act

as powerful anti-inflammatories.
Mesalamine and [...] are aminosalicylates that act as

powerful anti-inflammatories.
What is the MOA of Trimethobenzamide in the treatment What is the MOA of Trimethobenzamide in the treatment
of nausea and vomiting?
of nausea and vomiting?
Antagonism of DA receptors
[...]
Alosetron is a GI drug used to treat IBS through selective

and potent antagonism of central and peripheral 5-HT3
receptors.
[...] is a GI drug used to treat IBS through selective and

potent antagonism of central and peripheral 5-HT3
receptors.
Bismuth and Sucralfate are 2 GI drugs that bind to the [...] and Sucralfate are 2 GI drugs that bind to the base
base of an ulcer and provide physical protection, thereby of an ulcer and provide physical protection, thereby
allowing HCO3 secretion to re-establish the pH gradient in allowing HCO3 secretion to re-establish the pH gradient in
the mucous layer.
the mucous layer.
Bismuth and Sucralfate are 2 GI drugs that bind to the Bismuth and [...] are 2 GI drugs that bind to the base of
base of an ulcer and provide physical protection, thereby an ulcer and provide physical protection, thereby allowing
allowing HCO3 secretion to re-establish the pH gradient in HCO3 secretion to re-establish the pH gradient in the
the mucous layer.
mucous layer.
Binds to and neutralizes both soluble and membranebound TNF-alpha
[...]
Used to treat IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing

spondylitis and psoriasis.
What is the MOA of Diphenhydramine and
Dimenhydrinate?
What is the MOA of Diphenhydramine and

Dimenhydrinate?
H1-receptor antagonism
[...]
Depression is a serious CNS adverse effect of Alpha[...] is a serious CNS adverse effect of Alpha-Interferon
Interferon due to its pro-inflammatory action and increase due to its pro-inflammatory action and increase in IL2 and
in IL2 and TNF-alpha.
TNF-alpha.
What type of laxative is Docusate?
What type of laxative is Docusate?
Stool Softener
[...]
Docusate is a stool softening laxative that enhances the

incorporation of water and fat into stool.
[...] is a stool softening laxative that enhances the

incorporation of water and fat into stool.
Ribavarin is a purine analog that is thought to interfere with [...] is a purine analog that is thought to interfere with GTP
GTP synthesis, thereby inhibiting GTP-dependent 5'
synthesis, thereby inhibiting GTP-dependent 5' capping of
capping of viral mRNA. Hence stopping HCV replication.
viral mRNA. Hence stopping HCV replication.
Polyethylene Glycol (PEG) is an osmotic laxative that [...] is an osmotic laxative that increases stool liquidity due
increases stool liquidity due to an obligate increase in fecal
to an obligate increase in fecal fluid as a result of the
fluid as a result of the nonabsorbable nature of the
nonabsorbable nature of the compound.
compound.
Which antacid is associated with hypophosphatemia in
overuse?
Which antacid is associated with hypophosphatemia in

overuse?
Aluminum hydroxide
[...]
Also involves proximal muscle weakness,

osteodystrophy and seizures.
What nucleotide is Adefovir an analog of?
What nucleotide is Adefovir an analog of?
Adenine
[...]
Which age group of women is commonly affected by

Lichen Simplex Chronicus?
Which age group of women is commonly affected by

Lichen Simplex Chronicus?
Any age; usually young women
[...]
Lichen Simplex Chronicus is a benign vulvar pathology

that is also referred to as Vulvar Squamous Cell
Hyperplasia.
[...] is a benign vulvar pathology that is also referred to as

Vulvar Squamous Cell Hyperplasia.
Misoprostol is a Prostaglanin E1 analog that is used to

induce and maintain labour.
[...] is a Prostaglanin E1 analog that is used to induce

and maintain labour.
Misoprostol and Dinoprostone are prostaglandins that

induce and maintain labour by binding to Prostaglandin
receptors at the cervix, thereby loosening and ripening it.
[...] and Dinoprostone are prostaglandins that induce and

maintain labour by binding to Prostaglandin receptors at
the cervix, thereby loosening and ripening it.
Misoprostol and Dinoprostone are prostaglandins that

induce and maintain labour by binding to Prostaglandin
receptors at the cervix, thereby loosening and ripening it.
Misoprostol and [...] are prostaglandins that induce and

maintain labour by binding to Prostaglandin receptors at
the cervix, thereby loosening and ripening it.
What is the MOA of Ergonovine?
What is the MOA of Ergonovine?
Partial agonism at 5-HT2 and Alpha Adrenergic receptors
[...]
What is the MOA of Leuprolide, Goserilin and Nafarelin?
[...]
What is the MOA of Leuprolide, Goserilin and Nafarelin?

Agonism at GnRH receptors
When given in continugous fashion, it acts as a
GnRH antagonist.
Causes downregulation of GnRH receptors and
subsequent depression of LH and FSH secretion;
Decreased LH and FSH cause inhibition of ovarian
Estrogen production, thereby leading to fewer
endometrial implants due to Estrogen deprivation
Finasteride is an antiandrogen agent used to treat BPH
and male pattern baldness by inhibiting 5-alphareductase.
[...] is an antiandrogen agent used to treat BPH and male

pattern baldness by inhibiting 5-alpha-reductase.
What is the first line drug for Mild Endometriosis?
What is the first line drug for Mild Endometriosis?
Oral Contraceptives
[...]
Which prostaglandin analog is administered with

Mifepristone?
Which prostaglandin analog is administered with

Mifepristone?
Misoprostol (PGE1)
[...]
Bromocriptine and Cabergoline is a Dopamine agonist that [...] and Cabergoline is a Dopamine agonist that supresses
supresses lactation by inhibiting Prolactin secretion.
lactation by inhibiting Prolactin secretion.
Bromocriptine and Cabergoline is a Dopamine agonist that
Bromocriptine and [...] is a Dopamine agonist that

Which specific type of alpha-1 adrenergic receptor is

Tamsulosin selective for at the prostate?
Which specific type of alpha-1 adrenergic receptor is

Tamsulosin selective for at the prostate?
alpha1A,D
[...]
Versus the alpha1B receptor on vasculature.

What is the MOA of Domperidone?
What is the MOA of Domperidone?
Dopamine antagonist
[...]
What is the MOA of Anastrozole?
What is the MOA of Anastrozole?
Competitive inhibition of Aromatase
[...]
What is the MOA of Mifepristone?
What is the MOA of Mifepristone?
Antagonism at Progesterone receptors
[...]
What is the MOA of Misoprostol in the termination of

pregnancy?
What is the MOA of Misoprostol in the termination of

pregnancy?
Agonism at PGE1 receptors, thereby triggering uterine

contraction
[...]
Which 2 side effects are associated with Ketoconazole

and Spironolactone in the prevention of hirsutism in
PCOD?
Which 2 side effects are associated with Ketoconazole

and Spironolactone in the prevention of hirsutism in
PCOD?
Gynecomastia; Amenorrhea
[...]
Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator

(SERM) that is used to treat osteoporosis by decreasing
bone resorption via estrogen receptor agonism at
bone.

that is used to treat osteoporosis by decreasing bone
resorption via estrogen receptor agonism at bone.
Remember, it is an antagonist at the uterus.

At which tissue is Raloxifene an estrogen receptor agonist? At which tissue is Raloxifene an estrogen receptor agonist?
Bone
[...]
Tocolytics are a type of drug given for up to 48 hours to

delay delivery and to allow ante-natal glucocorticoids the
opportunity to have maximal effect.
[...] are a type of drug given for up to 48 hours to delay

delivery and to allow ante-natal glucocorticoids the
opportunity to have maximal effect.
What is the MOA of Oral Contraceptives in the treatment What is the MOA of Oral Contraceptives in the treatment
of Endometriosis?
of Endometriosis?
Induces decidualization and atrophy of endometrial and
ectopic endometrial tissue
[...]
Which K-sparing diuretic is able to inhibit testosterone

release or its action at the androgen receptor?
Which K-sparing diuretic is able to inhibit testosterone

release or its action at the androgen receptor?
Spironolactone
[...]
Indomethacin is an NSAID that delays labour by

decreasing Prostaglandin synthesis at the uterus leading to
uterine relaxation.
[...] is an NSAID that delays labour by decreasing

Prostaglandin synthesis at the uterus leading to uterine
relaxation.
Medroxyprogesterone and Levonorgesterol are

progesterone analogs that induce decidualization of
endometrial and ectopic endometrial tissue, thereby
relieving pain from mild endometriosis.
[...] and Levonorgesterol are progesterone analogs that

induce decidualization of endometrial and ectopic
endometrial tissue, thereby relieving pain from mild
endometriosis.
Medroxyprogesterone and Levonorgesterol are

progesterone analogs that induce decidualization of
endometrial and ectopic endometrial tissue, thereby
relieving pain from mild endometriosis.
Medroxyprogesterone and [...] are progesterone analogs

that induce decidualization of endometrial and ectopic
endometrial tissue, thereby relieving pain from mild
endometriosis.
How do intratesticular levels of testosterone change

following exogenous testosterone/methyltestosterone
administration?
How do intratesticular levels of testosterone change

following exogenous testosterone/methyltestosterone
administration?
Decrease
[...]
Due to inhibition of LH release via negative feedback

and subsequent gonadal atrophy.
Spironolactone is a K-sparing diuretic used to prevent the [...] is a K-sparing diuretic used to prevent the hirsutism in
hirsutism in PCOD by inhibiting 17-alphaPCOD by inhibiting 17-alpha-hydroxylase and 17,20hydroxylase and 17,20-desmolase, two enzymes
desmolase, two enzymes involved with steroid synthesis.
involved with steroid synthesis.
Danazol is an Androgen analog that treats Endometriosis
by establishing a low LH/FSH, high androgen and low
estrogen environment.
[...] is an Androgen analog that treats Endometriosis by

establishing a low LH/FSH, high androgen and low
estrogen environment.
Oxytocin is a pituitary hormone that is the first line drug for

Postpartum Hemorrhaging.
[...] is a pituitary hormone that is the first line drug for

Postpartum Hemorrhaging.
What is the MOA of Finasteride??
What is the MOA of Finasteride??
Inhibition of 5-alpha-reductase
[...]
What is the MOA of Sildenafil and Vardenafil in the

treatment of erectile dysfunction?
What is the MOA of Sildenafil and Vardenafil in the

treatment of erectile dysfunction?
Inhibition of Phosphodiesterase 5 (PDE5)
[...]
Thereby causing an increase in cGMP levels and

subsequent smooth muscle relaxation in the corpus
cavernosum, increased blood flow and penile erection.
What is the first line drug for Postpartum Hemorrhaging?
What is the first line drug for Postpartum Hemorrhaging?
Oxytocin
[...]
What type of cancer is at risk of occurring for patients that What type of cancer is at risk of occurring for patients that
receive Estrogen-only hormone replacement?
receive Estrogen-only hormone replacement?
Endometrial carcinoma (via endometrial hyperplasia)
[...]
Metoclopramide and Domperidone are Dopamine

antagonists that stimulate lactation by increasing Prolactin
secretion.
[...] and Domperidone are Dopamine antagonists that

stimulate lactation by increasing Prolactin secretion.
Metoclopramide and Domperidone are Dopamine

antagonists that stimulate lactation by increasing Prolactin
secretion.
Metoclopramide and [...] are Dopamine antagonists that

stimulate lactation by increasing Prolactin secretion.
How do HDL levels change following Danazol

administration?
How do HDL levels change following Danazol

administration?
Decrease
[...]
Progestins are a hormone treatment drug that functions

to decrease the growth and increase the
vascularization of the endometrium by binding to
progesterone receptors.
[...] are a hormone treatment drug that functions

to decrease the growth and increase the
vascularization of the endometrium by binding to
progesterone receptors.
Used in OCPs and in the Tx of endometrial cancer

What is the MOA of Metoclopramide?
What is the MOA of Metoclopramide?
Dopamine antagonist
[...]
Tocolytics are a type of drug that relax the uterine

musculature, thereby decreasing uterine contractility and
delaying labour.
[...] are a type of drug that relax the uterine musculature,

thereby decreasing uterine contractility and delaying
labour.
Methotrexate is a folate analog/antimetabolite that

terminates pregnancy by competitively inhibiting
Dihydrofolate Reductase and hence acting as a strong
feticidal agent.
[...] is a folate analog/antimetabolite that terminates

pregnancy by competitively inhibiting Dihydrofolate
Reductase and hence acting as a strong feticidal agent.
Oxytocin is a pituitary hormone that induces and maintains

labour by binding to receptors at the uterus, thereby
augmenting uterine contraction force and frequency.
[...] is a pituitary hormone that induces and maintains

labour by binding to receptors at the uterus, thereby
augmenting uterine contraction force and frequency.
What is the MOA of Terbutaline?
What is the MOA of Terbutaline?
Agonism at Beta-2 receptors at the uterus
[...]
Mifepristone is an antihormone that acts as an antagonist [...] is an antihormone that acts as an antagonist at uterine
at uterine Progesterone receptors, thereby inducing Progesterone receptors, thereby inducing detachment of
detachment of the blastocyst from the uterine wall.
the blastocyst from the uterine wall.
What is the MOA of Mestranol in the treatment of ovarian What is the MOA of Mestranol in the treatment of ovarian
failure (or hypogonadism in females)?
failure (or hypogonadism in females)?
Agonism at estrogen receptors
[...]
How does the risk of thrombi change with estrogen

analogs?
How does the risk of thrombi change with estrogen

analogs?
Increase
[...]
What cardiac defect is at risk of occuring following

Indomethacin use in utero?
What cardiac defect is at risk of occuring following

Indomethacin use in utero?
Premature closure of the Ductus Arteriosus
[...]
Progestins are a component of OCPs that function to

thicken the cervical mucus, thereby limiting access of
sperm to the uterus.
[...] are a component of OCPs that function to thicken

the cervical mucus, thereby limiting access of sperm to
the uterus.
Progestins also inhibit endometrial proliferation,

making it less suitable for implantation.
Anastrozole is an anti-hormone agent that treats
endometriosis by competitively inhibiting Aromatase,
especially at extra-ovarian/ectopic endometrial tissue.
[...] is an anti-hormone agent that treats endometriosis by

competitively inhibiting Aromatase, especially at extraovarian/ectopic endometrial tissue.
Which cancer seen in young females is associated with

exposure to Diethylstilbestrol (DES) in utero?
Which cancer seen in young females is associated with

exposure to Diethylstilbestrol (DES) in utero?
Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina
[...]
Finasteride is an anti-hormone agent that treats Hirsutism

and acne in PCOD by inhibiting 5-Alpha Reductase,
thereby preventing conversion of testosterone to DHT.
[...] is an anti-hormone agent that treats Hirsutism and

acne in PCOD by inhibiting 5-Alpha Reductase,
thereby preventing conversion of testosterone to DHT.
What is the most common side effect of GnRH agonists?
What is the most common side effect of GnRH agonists?
Bone loss due to the resultant estrogen deprivation
[...]
Metformin is an Anti-Diabetic that treats the

Hyperinsulinemia associated with PCOD
[...] is an Anti-Diabetic that treats the Hyperinsulinemia

associated with PCOD
What is the ROA of Misoprostol and Dinoprostone in the What is the ROA of Misoprostol and Dinoprostone in the
induction and maintenance of labour?
induction and maintenance of labour?
Intravaginal
[...]
What is the MOA of Tamoxifen in the treatment and

prevention of breast cancer?
What is the MOA of Tamoxifen in the treatment and

prevention of breast cancer?
Antagonism of Estrogen receptors at breast tissue
[...]
How does testosterone change LDL levels?
How does testosterone change LDL levels?
Increase
[...]
Competitive inhibition of Dihydrofolate Reductase
[...]
Tamsulosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist used to [...] is an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist used to treat BPH
treat BPH by inhibiting smooth muscle contraction as it is by inhibiting smooth muscle contraction as it is selective
selective for the alpha1A,D adrenergic receptors
for the alpha1A,D adrenergic receptors found on the
found on the prostate.
prostate.
Versus the alpha1B receptor found on vasculature.
Terbutaline is a b2 adrenergic agonist that delays labour
by relaxing the myometrium.
[...] is a b2 adrenergic agonist that delays labour by

relaxing the myometrium.
Clomiphene is a pro-ovulatory agent that treats the

[...] is a pro-ovulatory agent that treats the infertility in
infertility in PCOD by antagonism at hypothalamic and
PCOD by antagonism at hypothalamic and anterior
anterior pituitary Estrogen receptors, thereby inhibiting its pituitary Estrogen receptors, thereby inhibiting its negative
negative feedback.
feedback.
As a result, there is an increase in LH/FSH and a
strong drive towards ovulation
What is the MOA of Danazol in the treatment of
Endometriosis and Hereditary Angioedema?
What is the MOA of Danazol in the treatment of

Endometriosis and Hereditary Angioedema?
Partial agonism at androgen receptors
[...]
Dopamine Agonist
[...]
Ethinyl estradiol, diethylstilbestrol and Mestranol are 3

estrogen analogs that are used to treat hypogonadism,
ovarian failure or menstrual abnormalities.
[...], diethylstilbestrol and Mestranol are 3 estrogen

analogs that are used to treat hypogonadism, ovarian
failure or menstrual abnormalities.

Ethinyl estradiol, [...] and Mestranol are 3 estrogen


Ethinyl estradiol, diethylstilbestrol and [...] are 3 estrogen

What is the MOA of Raloxifene?
What is the MOA of Raloxifene?
Agonist at estrogen receptors at bone; Antagonist at

estrogen receptors at the uterus
[...]
Oral Contraceptives are able to treat hirsutism and acne in Oral Contraceptives are able to treat hirsutism and acne in
PCOD through their ability to stimulate hepatic synthesis PCOD through their ability to stimulate hepatic synthesis
of Sex Hormone-Binding Globulin (SHBG).
of [...].
How does testosterone change HDL levels?
How does testosterone change HDL levels?
Decrease
[...]
Oxytocin is a pituitary hormone that stops postpartum

[...] is a pituitary hormone that stops postpartum
hemorrhaging by augmenting uterine contractile force and hemorrhaging by augmenting uterine contractile force and
frequency, thereby leading to compression of uterine BVs. frequency, thereby leading to compression of uterine BVs.
At which tissue is Raloxifene an estrogen receptor
antagonist?
At which tissue is Raloxifene an estrogen receptor

antagonist?
Uterus
[...]
How does the risk of endometrial cancer change with

estrogen analogs?
How does the risk of endometrial cancer change with

estrogen analogs?
Increase
[...]
Dinoprostone is a Prostaglandin E2 analog that can

induce and maintain labour.
[...] is a Prostaglandin E2 analog that can induce and

maintain labour.
What is the MOA of Spironolactone in the prevention of

hirsutism in PCOD?
What is the MOA of Spironolactone in the prevention of

hirsutism in PCOD?
Inhibition of steroid binding; Inhibition of 17-alphahydroxylase and 17,20-desmolase
[...]
Glucocorticoids are a class of drugs that are administered [...] are a class of drugs that are administered antenatally in
antenatally in a premature gestation to enhance fetal lung a premature gestation to enhance fetal lung maturation and
maturation and ultimately reduce morbidity and mortality ultimately reduce morbidity and mortality associated with
associated with premature labour.
premature labour.
Ergonovine is an ergotomine that stops Postpartum
Hemorrhage by binding to 5-HT2 and Alpha Adrenergic
receptors.
[...] is an ergotomine that stops Postpartum Hemorrhage

by binding to 5-HT2 and Alpha Adrenergic receptors.
Hot Flashes (Vasomotor Symptoms) are a symptom of

menopause and the most common indication for a short
course of menopausal hormone therapy.
[...] are a symptom of menopause and the most common

indication for a short course of menopausal hormone
therapy.
Dopamine Agonist
[...]
What is the first line therapy for Osteoporosis (prevention What is the first line therapy for Osteoporosis (prevention
and treatment)?
and treatment)?
Bisphosphonates
[...]
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin used to stop Postpartum

Hemorrhage when Ergonovine is contraindicated.
[...] is a prostaglandin used to stop Postpartum

Hemorrhage when Ergonovine is contraindicated.
Flutamide is an anti-hormone agent that treats Hirsutism

[...] is an anti-hormone agent that treats Hirsutism and
and Acne in PCOD by acting as an antagonist at
Acne in PCOD by acting as an antagonist at Androgen
Androgen receptors and inhibits the translocation of the receptors and inhibits the translocation of the receptors to
receptors to the nucleus.
the nucleus.
Spironolactone is a K-sparing diuretic that treats the
[...] is a K-sparing diuretic that treats the Hirsutism and
Hirsutism and Acne in PCOD through weak antagonism at Acne in PCOD through weak antagonism at Androgen
Androgen receptors and weak inhibition of androgen
receptors and weak inhibition of androgen synthesis.
synthesis.
Sildenafil and Vardenafil are PDE5 inhibitors that are
associated with headache, flushing, dyspepsia and
impaired blue-green colour vision.
[...] and Vardenafil are PDE5 inhibitors that are associated

with headache, flushing, dyspepsia and impaired bluegreen colour vision.
There is also a risk of life-threatening hypotension in

patients that are also taking nitrates.
Sildenafil and Vardenafil are PDE5 inhibitors that are
associated with headache, flushing, dyspepsia and
impaired blue-green colour vision.
Sildenafil and [...] are PDE5 inhibitors that are associated

with headache, flushing, dyspepsia and impaired bluegreen colour vision.
There is also a risk of life-threatening hypotension in

patients that are also taking nitrates.
What is the ROA of Levonorgesterol?
What is the ROA of Levonorgesterol?
IUD (in utero)
[...]
What is the MOA of Clomiphene?
[...]
What is the MOA of Clomiphene?

Antagonism at hypothalamic and anterior pituitary
Estrogen receptors
Thereby blocking normal feedback inhibition from
Estrogen and causing an increase in LH and
FSH from the pituitary.
Associated with hot flashes, ovarian enlargement,
multiple simultaneous pregnancies and visual
disturbances.
Estrogen and progestins are components of OCPs that [...] and progestins are components of OCPs that function
function to inhibit LH/FSH and prevent an estrogen surge.
to inhibit LH/FSH and prevent an estrogen surge.
No estrogen surge = no LH surge = no ovulation.
Estrogen and progestins are components of OCPs that Estrogen and [...] are components of OCPs that function
function to inhibit LH/FSH and prevent an estrogen surge.
to inhibit LH/FSH and prevent an estrogen surge.
No estrogen surge = no LH surge = no ovulation.
At which tissue is Tamofixen an estrogen receptor
agonist?
At which tissue is Tamofixen an estrogen receptor

agonist?
Bone; Uterus
[...]
Hence it is associated with endometrial carcinoma and

thromboembolic events.
What is the half-life of Oxytocin?
What is the half-life of Oxytocin?
Few minutes
[...]
For this reason, the effects of OT are easy to control

via rate of infusion
Which type of oral contraceptives are not recommended
immediately after postpartum?
Which type of oral contraceptives are not recommended

immediately after postpartum?
Combined
[...]
Ketoconazole is an antifungal agent sed to treat hirsutism

in PCOD by inhibiting 17,20-desmolase, an enzyme
involved in steroid synthesis.
[...] is an antifungal agent sed to treat hirsutism in PCOD

by inhibiting 17,20-desmolase, an enzyme involved in
steroid synthesis.
What is Add-Back Therapy in the treatment of

Endometriosis?
What is Add-Back Therapy in the treatment of

Endometriosis?
Administration of Estrogens/Progestins when a patient is

taking GnRH analogs to prevent bone loss and treat
vasomotor symptoms
[...]
What is the MOA of Exemestane and Formestane in the

treatment of breast cancer?
What is the MOA of Exemestane and Formestane in the

treatment of breast cancer?
Irreversible inhibition of Aromatase
[...]
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin that can terminate

pregnancy by binding to Prostaglandin Receptors and
triggering uterine contraction, thereby leading to the
expulsion of uterine contents.
[...] is a prostaglandin that can terminate pregnancy by

binding to Prostaglandin Receptors and triggering uterine
contraction, thereby leading to the expulsion of uterine
contents.
Nifedipine is a Ca channel blocker that delays labour by [...] is a Ca channel blocker that delays labour by blocking
blocking uterine Ca channels, thereby decreasing
uterine Ca channels, thereby decreasing intracellular Ca
intracellular Ca levels and triggering relaxation of the
levels and triggering relaxation of the myometrium.
myometrium.
What is the ROA of Medroxyprogesterone?
What is the ROA of Medroxyprogesterone?
Oral
[...]
What is the MOA of Ketoconazole in the prevention of

hirsutism in PCOD?
What is the MOA of Ketoconazole in the prevention of

hirsutism in PCOD?
Inhibition of 17,20-desmolase, an enzyme involved with

steroid synthesis
[...]
Antagonism at androgen receptors
[...]
What is cranial nerve I?
What is cranial nerve I?
Olfactory
[...]
Which cell of the PNS produce myelin?
Which cell of the PNS produce myelin?
Schwann Cells
[...]
What is cranial nerve XI?
What is cranial nerve XI?
Spinal accessory
[...]
Which 3 structures make up the blood-brain barrier?
Which 3 structures make up the blood-brain barrier?
Tight junctions between nonfenestrated capillary

endothelium; Basement membrane; Astrocyte foot
processes
[...]
Which cranial nerve governs the sensation of the

anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Which cranial nerve governs the sensation of the

anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
CN V3
[...]
How does the length of REM sleep change with

increasing age?
How does the length of REM sleep change with

increasing age?
Decrease
[...]
What visual deficit is seen in a parietal lobe lesion

(Dorsal Optic Radiation; Baum's Loop)?
What visual deficit is seen in a parietal lobe lesion

(Dorsal Optic Radiation; Baum's Loop)?
Contralateral lower quadrantic anopia
[...]
#5
What protein is found in the Lewy Bodies of Parkinsons

and Lewy Body Dementia?
What protein is found in the Lewy Bodies of Parkinsons

and Lewy Body Dementia?
Alpha-synuclein
[...]
Which enzyme deficiency can cause Amyotrophic Lateral Which enzyme deficiency can cause Amyotrophic Lateral
Sclerosis (ALS)?
Sclerosis (ALS)?
Superoxide Dismutase 1
[...]
Remember, SOD is required to eliminate ROS.

What is cranial nerve VIII?
What is cranial nerve VIII?
Vestibulocochlear
[...]
Poliovirus is a virus that causes Poliomyelitis that

replicates in the oropharynx and small intestines
before entering the CNS via the bloodstream.
[...] is a virus that causes Poliomyelitis that replicates in

the oropharynx and small intestines before entering
the CNS via the bloodstream.
Which neurotransmitter is associated with arousal and

wakefulness?
Which neurotransmitter is associated with arousal and

wakefulness?
Dopamine
[...]
Global Aphasia is a type of aphasia that involves

nonfluent speech with impaired comprehension.
[...] is a type of aphasia that involves nonfluent

speech with impaired comprehension.
i.e. Broca's and Wernicke's lesions

Which area of the hypothalamus governs circadian
rhythms?
Which area of the hypothalamus governs circadian

rhythms?
Suprachiasmatic Nucleus
[...]
Which cranial nerve controls the

stylopharyngeus muscle?
Which cranial nerve controls the

stylopharyngeus muscle?
CN IX
[...]
It elevates the pharynx and larynx.

To which cortical area does the thalamic nucleus MGN
send hearing information?
To which cortical area does the thalamic nucleus MGN

send hearing information?
Auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
[...]
How do 5-HT levels change in anxiety?
How do 5-HT levels change in anxiety?
Decrease
[...]
What is the CNS location of synthesis of ACh?
What is the CNS location of synthesis of ACh?
Basal nucleus of Meynert
[...]
Which cranial nerves are involves with pain and sensation Which cranial nerves are involves with pain and sensation
from the tongue?
from the tongue?
CN V3; CN IX; CN X
[...]
Which type of intracranial hemorrhage can cross cranial

suture lines?
Which type of intracranial hemorrhage can cross cranial

suture lines?
Subdural Hematoma
[...]
Which Neural Tube Defect is associated with ArnoldChiari (Chiari II) Malformations?
Which Neural Tube Defect is associated with ArnoldChiari (Chiari II) Malformations?
Lumbosacral Meningomyelocele
[...]
Werdnig-Hoffman Disease (spinal muscular atrophy) and

Poliomyelitis are spinal cord lesions that present with
LMN lesions only due to destruction of the anterior
horn, thereby presenting with flaccid paralysis.
[...] and Poliomyelitis are spinal cord lesions that present

with LMN lesions only due to destruction of the
anterior horn, thereby presenting with flaccid paralysis.
Werdnig-Hoffman Disease (spinal muscular atrophy) and Werdnig-Hoffman Disease (spinal muscular atrophy) and
Poliomyelitis are spinal cord lesions that present with
[...] are spinal cord lesions that present with LMN
LMN lesions only due to destruction of the anterior lesions only due to destruction of the anterior horn,
horn, thereby presenting with flaccid paralysis.
thereby presenting with flaccid paralysis.
What is the most common cause of

Intracerebral/Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage?
What is the most common cause of

Intracerebral/Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage?
Rupture of Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms due to

systemic hypertension
[...]
What is cranial nerve X?
What is cranial nerve X?
Vagus
[...]
Friedreich Ataxia is a CNS disorder due to GAA repeats [...] is a CNS disorder due to GAA repeats in the Frataxin
in the Frataxin gene that involves impairment of
gene that involves impairment of mitochondrial
mitochondrial functioning.
functioning.
What type of CNS herniation is seen in an Epidural
Hematoma?
What type of CNS herniation is seen in an Epidural

Hematoma?
Transtentorial herniation (with CN III Palsy)
[...]
Which pupillary muscles trigger mydriasis?
Which pupillary muscles trigger mydriasis?
Pupillary dilator muscles
[...]
Brown-Squard Syndrome is a spinal cord syndrome due [...] is a spinal cord syndrome due to hemisection of the
to hemisection of the spinal cord.
spinal cord.
Findings are pretty logical if you know your

neuroanatomy. Just don't forget the last 2:
Which type of CNS cell fuse to form multinucleated giants Which type of CNS cell fuse to form multinucleated giants
cells in the CNS if they are HIV infected?
cells in the CNS if they are HIV infected?
Microglia
[...]
Hydromyelia is a specific type of Syringomyelia that

involves cystic cavitation of the central canal.
[...] is a specific type of Syringomyelia that involves cystic

cavitation of the central canal.
Parkinson's Disease is a movement disorder that involves [...] is a movement disorder that involves degeneration of
degeneration of dopaminergic neurons of the SNc of the dopaminergic neurons of the SNc of the Basal Ganglia,
Basal Ganglia, thereby resulting in decreased movement.
thereby resulting in decreased movement.
From which embryological tissue layer/population do
astrocytes develop?

astrocytes develop?
Neuroectoderm
[...]
Oculomotor palsy is a cranial nerve palsy that presents

with down and out eyes, ptosis, pupillary dilation and
loss of accommodation.
[...] is a cranial nerve palsy that presents with down and

out eyes, ptosis, pupillary dilation and loss of
accommodation.
Which cerebral artery supplies the posterior and inferior

surfaces of the brain?
Which cerebral artery supplies the posterior and inferior

surfaces of the brain?
Posterior Cerebral Artery
[...]
What are the 4 key neurotransmitters involved with sleep? What are the 4 key neurotransmitters involved with sleep?
5-HT; ACh; NE; DA
[...]
"SANDman"
Which type of intracranial hematoma displays a
crescent shaped lesion on CT?
Which type of intracranial hematoma displays a

crescent shaped lesion on CT?
Subdural Hematoma
[...]
What is the treatment for Wernicke-Korsakoff

Syndrome?
What is the treatment for Wernicke-Korsakoff

Syndrome?
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) before Glucose
[...]
Giving glucose before thiamine can exacerbate the

thiamine deficiency.
Remember, thiamine is a vital cofactor in 2 major
enzymes involved in glucose metabolism.
Administering glucose in a Vitamin B1 deficiency
patient simply further exacerbates the deficiency.
Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the
Lacrimation Reflex?
Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the

Lacrimation Reflex?
CN VII
[...]
Which embryological structure develops into the

ventral/motor portion of the spinal cord?

ventral/motor portion of the spinal cord?
Basal plate
[...]
[...] is a type of axonal degeneration that involves
degeneration distal to the injury and axonal
retraction proximally.
Wallerian degeneration is a type of axonal degeneration

that involves degeneration distal to the injury and
axonal retraction proximally.
This allows for potential regeneration of the PNS.
Fasciculus Cuneatus is an ascending section of the spinal [...] is an ascending section of the spinal cord that carries
cord that carries pressure/touch/vibration information from pressure/touch/vibration information from the upper body
the upper body and arms.
and arms.
T6 and above
Embolic Stroke is a type of ischemic stroke that involves
embolus formation from another part of the body
obstructing a vessel.
[...] is a type of ischemic stroke that involves embolus

formation from another part of the body obstructing
a vessel.
What type of adaptation is exhibited by Merkel Disc?
What type of adaptation is exhibited by Merkel Disc?
Slow
[...]
Transcortical Sensory Aphasia is a type of aphasia that

involves poor comprehension with fluent speech and
repetition.
[...] is a type of aphasia that involves poor

comprehension with fluent speech and repetition.
REM latency is defined as the time it takes from sleep to [...] is defined as the time it takes from sleep to the first
the first REM period.
REM period.
Typically ~90 min.
Athetosis is a movement disorder that involves slow,
writhing "snake-like" movements, especially in the
fingers.
[...] is a movement disorder that involves slow, writhing

"snake-like" movements, especially in the fingers.
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the

cerebellum?

cerebellum?
Ventral lateral (VL)
[...]
Syringomyelia is a congenital CNS malformation that

involves cystic cavitation of the spinal cord.
[...] is a congenital CNS malformation that involves cystic

cavitation of the spinal cord.
Syrinx = tube/cystic cavity

How does an increase in the duration and frequency of How does an increase in the duration and frequency of
REM sleep influence the susceptibility for depression?
REM sleep influence the susceptibility for depression?
Increase
[...]
Which genetic renal disorder is associated with Berry

Aneurysms?
Which genetic renal disorder is associated with Berry

Aneurysms?
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease

(ADPKD)
[...]
Hence always get a cranial angiogram/CT/MRI of a

patient with ADPKD.
Which cranial nerves travel through the Superior Orbital
Fissure?
Which cranial nerves travel through the Superior Orbital

Fissure?
CN III, IV, V1 and VI
[...]
An occlusion to which artery causes Lateral Pontine

Syndrome?
An occlusion to which artery causes Lateral Pontine

Syndrome?
Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (AICA)
[...]
Which 3 cranial nerves lie medially at the brain stem?
Which 3 cranial nerves lie medially at the brain stem?
CN III, CN VI, CN XII
[...]
Lumbosacral Myeomeningocele is a type of

Myelomeningocele that often presents alongside ArnoldChiari (Chiari II) Malformations.
[...] is a type of Myelomeningocele that often presents

alongside Arnold-Chiari (Chiari II) Malformations.
There is also often paralysis below the defect.

In which week of gestation do the neuropores normally
fuse?
In which week of gestation do the neuropores normally

fuse?
4th
[...]
In which lobe of the brain is the principal visual cortex

found?
In which lobe of the brain is the principal visual cortex

found?
Occipital lobe
[...]
Huntington's Disease is an autosomal dominant movement

disorder that involves neurodegeneration via NMDA
Receptor Glutamate toxicity.
[...] is an autosomal dominant movement disorder that

involves neurodegeneration via NMDA Receptor
Glutamate toxicity.
Resting Tremor is a type of tremor that involves

uncontrolled movement of the distal appendages at rest
and is most noticeable in the hands.
[...] is a type of tremor that involves uncontrolled

movement of the distal appendages at rest and is most
noticeable in the hands.
Which cranial nerve monitors aortic arch chemo- and

baroreceptors?
Which cranial nerve monitors aortic arch chemo- and

baroreceptors?
CN X
[...]
What type of intracranial hematoma cannot cross cranial What type of intracranial hematoma cannot cross cranial
suture lines?
suture lines?
Epidural Hematoma
[...]
Which Dopamine receptor is involved in the direct

pathway of the Basal Ganglia?
Which Dopamine receptor is involved in the direct

pathway of the Basal Ganglia?
D1
[...]
"D1rect"
Which dermatome is found at the low-collar shirt level?
Which dermatome is found at the low-collar shirt level?
C4
[...]
What are the three branches of the Trigeminal nerve (CN What are the three branches of the Trigeminal nerve (CN
V)?
V)?
Ophthalmic, Maxillary, Mandibular (V1, V2,
V3 respectively)
[...]
Conduction Aphasia is a type of aphasia that involves

poor repetition but fluent speech and intact
comprehension.
[...] is a type of aphasia that involves poor repetition but

fluent speech and intact comprehension.
These patients cannot repeat the phrase "No ifs, ands

or buts."
Which ascending spinal tract carries information about
pressure, touch, vibration and proprioception?
Which ascending spinal tract carries information about

pressure, touch, vibration and proprioception?
Dorsal Column
[...]
Central Pontine Myelinolysis is an osmotic demyelination

syndrome that involves massive axonal demyelination in
pontine white matter tracts.
[...] is an osmotic demyelination syndrome that involves

massive axonal demyelination in pontine white matter
tracts.
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the lower

part of the fourth ventricle?
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the lower

Myelencephalon
[...]
"Mes met my brainstem"

- From rostral to caudal, it is the Mesencephalon,
Metencephalon and Myelencephalon whic develops
into the brainstem structures (midbrain, pons, medulla
respectively)
Which cerebral artery supplies the anteromedial surface of Which cerebral artery supplies the anteromedial surface of
the brain?
the brain?
Anterior Cerebral Artery
[...]
What type of paralysis is seen in LMN lesions?
What type of paralysis is seen in LMN lesions?
Flaccid paralysis
[...]
What type of EEG waveforms are seen in Stage

N3 sleep?
What type of EEG waveforms are seen in Stage

N3 sleep?
Partial Delta
[...]
Lowest frequency, highest amplitude.

Delta = deepest sleep = slow-wave sleep
Which cranial nerve governs sensation at the face?
Which cranial nerve governs sensation at the face?
Trigeminal
[...]
Tanscortical Motor Aphasia is a type of aphasia that

involves nonfluent speech with good comprehension
and repetition.

speech with good comprehension and repetition.
Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia (INO) is a visual disorder

that results from lesion to the MLF and presents with a
lack of adduction of the ipsilateral eye and
nystagmus in the contralateral eye.
[...] is a visual disorder that results from lesion to the

MLF and presents with a lack of adduction of the
ipsilateral eye and nystagmus in the contralateral eye.
"INO a MLF that can't Add(uct)."

When the CN VI nucleus activates the ipsilateral
lateral rectus, the contralateral medial rectus is not
activated by the contralateral CNIII nucleus.
This to me was unnecessarily confusing. Whoever
named the MLF's sucks balls.
The MLF's are named according to which side they
synapse on, not the side from which they originate
(which would make so much more sense to me).
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the lateral
ventricles?
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the lateral

ventricles?
Telencephalon
[...]
How do 5-HT levels change in Parkinson?
How do 5-HT levels change in Parkinson?
decrease
[...]
What type of intracranial hematoma presents as a

biconvex (lentiform), lens-shaped lesion on CT?
What type of intracranial hematoma presents as a

biconvex (lentiform), lens-shaped lesion on CT?
Epidural Hematoma
[...]
Which nucleus at the dorsal brainstem is is involved in the Which nucleus at the dorsal brainstem is is involved in the
auditory pathway?
auditory pathway?
Inferior colliculis
[...]
Fasciculus Gracilis is an ascending section of the spinal [...] is an ascending section of the spinal cord that carries
cord that carries pressure/touch/vibration information from pressure/touch/vibration information from the lower body
the lower body and leg.
and leg.
T7 and below
How long after birth to the primitive reflexes disappear?
How long after birth to the primitive reflexes disappear?
1st year
[...]
Eventually, the mature/developing frontal lobe

inhibits these reflexes.
What is the innervation of all the mastication muscles?
What is the innervation of all the mastication muscles?
CN V3
[...]
Which stroke syndrome is associated with paralysis of

the face?
Which stroke syndrome is associated with paralysis of

the face?
Lateral Pontine Syndrome
[...]
"Facial droop means the AICA is pooped."

What is the 1st synapse of the Lateral Corticospinal Tract What is the 1st synapse of the Lateral Corticospinal Tract
(LCT)?
(LCT)?
LMN of the anterior horn of the spinal cord
[...]
What is cranial nerve III?
What is cranial nerve III?
Oculomotor
[...]
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the

pons and cerebellum?

pons and cerebellum?
Metencephalon
[...]

respectively)
Meningomyelocele is a Neural Tube Defect that involves
hernation of meninges and spinal cord through the
defect.
[...] is a Neural Tube Defect that involves hernation of

meninges and spinal cord through the defect.
Transient Ischemia Attack is an ischemic brain disorder

that involves brief, reversible episode(s) of focal
neurological dysfunction lasting < 24 hrs without acute
infarction.
[...] is an ischemic brain disorder that involves brief,

reversible episode(s) of focal neurological
dysfunction lasting < 24 hrs without acute infarction.
The negative MRI confirms a lack of acute infarction.

Majority resolves in < 15 min.
What is cranial nerve II?
What is cranial nerve II?
Optic
[...]
Which CNS lesion can cause anterograde amnesia?
Which CNS lesion can cause anterograde amnesia?
Bilateral hippocampal lesion
[...]
Which cranial nerve palsy is associated with HSV and

VZV?
Which cranial nerve palsy is associated with HSV and

VZV?
Facial nerve palsy
[...]
HSV is more common.

What is the normal length of an adult sleep cycle?
What is the normal length of an adult sleep cycle?
90 min
[...]
Which cells of the CNS are targeted in Progressive

Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)?
Which cells of the CNS are targeted in Progressive

Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)?
Oligodendrocytes
[...]
What are the contents of the optic canal?
What are the contents of the optic canal?
CN II, Ophthalmic Artery, Central Retinal Vein
[...]
Which phase of NREM sleep is the phase where

neurotransmitters are replaced?
Which phase of NREM sleep is the phase where

neurotransmitters are replaced?
Stages 3 and 4
[...]
i.e. the stores are refilled

Limbic system is a collection of neural structures involved
[...] is a collection of neural structures involved in
in emotion, long-term memory, olfaction,
emotion, long-term memory, olfaction, behaviour and
behaviour and autonomic function.
autonomic function.
Basically, the 5 F's.
Fighting, fleeing, feeding, feeling and fornication.
Which stage of sleep is where bruxism occurs?
Which stage of sleep is where bruxism occurs?
Stage N2
[...]
Bitemporal Hemianopia is a possible complication of

[...] is a possible complication of Berry Aneurysm due to
Berry Aneurysm due to compression of the Optic Chiasm.
compression of the Optic Chiasm.
Cranial nerve II travels through the optic canal in the skull.
Cranial nerve [...] travels through the optic canal in the

skull.
Cranial nerve II travels through the optic canal in the skull.
Cranial nerve II travels through the [...] in the skull.
The cavernous sinus is a collection of venous sinuses found The [...] is a collection of venous sinuses found on either
on either side of the pituitary that collects blood from the side of the pituitary that collects blood from the eye and
eye and superficial cortex.
superficial cortex.
Subacute Combined Degeneration is a spinal cord lesion
[...] is a spinal cord lesion that occurs due to vitamin
that occurs due to vitamin B12 or vitamin E
B12 or vitamin E deficiency and involves
deficiency and involves demyelination of the dorsal demyelination of the dorsal column, LCST and STT.
column, LCST and STT.
Presents with ataxic gait, paresthesia, impaires

position sense, impaired vibration sense.
Which type of sensory corpuscle sense vibration and
rapid changes in pressure?
Which type of sensory corpuscle sense vibration and

rapid changes in pressure?
Pacinian corpuscle
[...]
What is cranial nerve XII?
What is cranial nerve XII?
Hypoglossal
[...]
What is the 2nd synapse of the Spinothalamic Tract
(STT)?
[...]
What is the 2nd synapse of the Spinothalamic Tract

(STT)?
VPL
At which vertebral levels does Vertebral Disc Herniation
usually occur?
At which vertebral levels does Vertebral Disc Herniation

usually occur?
L4-L5; L5-S1
[...]
Typically occurs posterolaterally.

Brown Squard Syndrome is a spinal cord syndrome that
[...] is a spinal cord syndrome that presents with
presents with ipsilateral LMN deficits at the level of ipsilateral LMN deficits at the level of the lesion due
the lesion due to hemisection of the spinal cord.
to hemisection of the spinal cord.
What is the CNS location of synthesis of 5-HT?
What is the CNS location of synthesis of 5-HT?
Raphe nuclei
[...]
Which ciliary nerves innervate the pupillary

dilator muscles?
Which ciliary nerves innervate the pupillary

dilator muscles?
Long ciliary nerve
[...]
An occlusion to which artery causes Benedict's

Syndrome?
An occlusion to which artery causes Benedict's

Syndrome?
[...]
Which cranial nerve mainly governs taste and sensation at Which cranial nerve mainly governs taste and sensation at
the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
CN IX
[...]
Which dermatome is involved with erection and

sensation of the penile and anal zones?
Which dermatome is involved with erection and

sensation of the penile and anal zones?
S2; S3; S4
[...]
An occlusion to which artery will cause Medial Medullary An occlusion to which artery will cause Medial Medullary
Syndrome?
Syndrome?
Anterior Spinal Artery
[...]
Specifically the paramedian branches of the ASA (or

even Vertebral Artery).
Which side of the body will see a shoulder droop
following lesion to the left CN XI?
Which side of the body will see a shoulder droop

following lesion to the left CN XI?
Left (ipsilateral)
[...]
Horner Syndrome is an autonomic disorder that results

from spinal cord lesions above T1 and presents with
ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis.
[...] is an autonomic disorder that results from spinal cord

lesions above T1 and presents with ptosis, miosis and
anhidrosis.
"Horny PAM"
Chorea is a movement disorder that involves sudden,
jerky, purposeless movements.
[...] is a movement disorder that involves sudden, jerky,

purposeless movements.
Which cranial nerves travel through the jugular foramen?
Which cranial nerves travel through the jugular foramen?
CN IX, X, XI
[...]
Lateral Medullary Syndrome is a stroke syndrome caused

by occlusion to the Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery
(PICA) and is also referred to as Wallenberg's Syndrome.
[...] is a stroke syndrome caused by occlusion to the

Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (PICA) and is also
referred to as Wallenberg's Syndrome.
Which area of the hypothalamus governs satiety?
Which area of the hypothalamus governs satiety?
Ventromedial area
[...]
Which speech center is located at the inferior frontal

gyrus of the frontal lobe?
Which speech center is located at the inferior frontal

gyrus of the frontal lobe?
Broca's Area
[...]
Tabes Dorsalis is a spinal cord lesion that is caused by

tertiary syphilis and involves degeneration of the
dorsal columns and roots.
[...] is a spinal cord lesion that is caused by tertiary

syphilis and involves degeneration of the dorsal
columns and roots.
Hence this will present with impaired sensation and

proprioception and progressive sensory ataxia.
Polyhydramnios is a feature of Anencephaly that results [...] is a feature of Anencephaly that results from a lack of
from a lack of the swallowing center in the brain, thereby the swallowing center in the brain, thereby resulting in an
resulting in an increased volume of amniotic fluid.
increased volume of amniotic fluid.
Which blood vessels are commonly ruptured in Subdural Which blood vessels are commonly ruptured in Subdural
Hematoma?
Hematoma?
Bridging vessels between the dura and arachnoid mater
[...]
Which parasympathetic nucleus sends signals to the ciliary Which parasympathetic nucleus sends signals to the ciliary
ganglion via CN III to achieve miosis (pupillary
ganglion via CN III to achieve miosis (pupillary
constriction)?
constriction)?
Edinger-Westphal nucleus
[...]
The ciliary ganglion then send short ciliary nerves to

the pupillary sphincter muscles.
What is the innervation of the inferior rectus muscle?
What is the innervation of the inferior rectus muscle?
CN III
[...]
How is poliovirus transmitted?
How is poliovirus transmitted?
Fecal oral
[...]
Which neurotransmitter ratio is the trigger for REM sleep? Which neurotransmitter ratio is the trigger for REM sleep?
ACh:NE
[...]
An increased ACh:NE ratio triggers REM sleep.

Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the dorsal
column/medial lemniscus (DCML)?
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the dorsal

column/medial lemniscus (DCML)?
VPL
[...]
How do Norepinephrine levels change in anxiety?
How do Norepinephrine levels change in anxiety?
Increase
[...]
Organ Vasculosum of the Lamina Terminalis (OVLT) is a [...] is a nucleus part of the circumventricular system that
nucleus part of the circumventricular system that senses
senses changes in osmolarity.
changes in osmolarity.
The palmar reflex is a primitive reflex that involves curling The [...] is a primitive reflex that involves curling of the
of the fingers if the palm is stroked.
fingers if the palm is stroked.
How does the level of Alpha-Fetoprotein change in
Anencephaly?
How does the level of Alpha-Fetoprotein change in

Anencephaly?
Increased
[...]
What is the CNS location of synthesis of Norepinephrine What is the CNS location of synthesis of Norepinephrine
?
?
Locus ceruleus (which also governs pain)
[...]
Which CNS lesion is seen in Gerstmann Syndrome?
Which CNS lesion is seen in Gerstmann Syndrome?
Left parietal-temporal cortex lesion
[...]
The sucking reflex is a primitive reflex that involves a The [...] is a primitive reflex that involves a sucking reflex
sucking reflex when the roof of the mouth is touched.
when the roof of the mouth is touched.
To which cortical area does the thalamic nucleus VL send To which cortical area does the thalamic nucleus VL send
motor information?
motor information?
Motor cortex
[...]
What is the second most common stage of sleep?
What is the second most common stage of sleep?
Stage N3
[...]
What nucleus is characteristically lesioned in

Hemiballismus?
What nucleus is characteristically lesioned in

Hemiballismus?
The contralateral Subthalamic Nucleus (STN)
[...]
Hemiballismus is a contralateral lesion and typically

presents unilaterally. Often due to a lacunar stroke.
Hemiballismus is a movement disorder that involves

sudden, wild flailing of 1 arm and potentially the
ipsilateral leg.
[...] is a movement disorder that involves sudden, wild

flailing of 1 arm and potentially the ipsilateral leg.
i.e. half of the body is ballistic

Central Pontine Myelinolysis is an osmotic demyelination [...] is an osmotic demyelination syndrome that can cause
syndrome that can cause Locked-In Syndrome.
Locked-In Syndrome.
Which lesion is seen in spatial neglect syndrome?
Which lesion is seen in spatial neglect syndrome?
Right parietal-temporal cortex lesion
[...]
What is the first synapse in the Dorsal Column/Medial

Lemniscus (DCML)?
What is the first synapse in the Dorsal Column/Medial

Lemniscus (DCML)?
Ipsilateral nucleus cuneatus or nucleus gracilis at the

medulla
[...]
Which section of the dorsal column is found medially?
Which section of the dorsal column is found medially?
Fasciculus gracilis
[...]
i.e. the dorsal column is organized as humans are;

with the hands on the side; arms outside, legs inside
Marcus-Gunn Pupil is a pathological pupil that occurs due [...] is a pathological pupil that occurs due to optic nerve
to optic nerve damage or a severe retinal injury and damage or a severe retinal injury and presents with a
presents with a loss/decrease of bilateral pupillary
loss/decrease of bilateral pupillary constriction to
constriction to light.
light.
Tested with the "swinging flashlight test"
Lateral Pontine Syndrome is a stroke syndrome that
[...] is a stroke syndrome that occurs due to occlusion of
occurs due to occlusion of the Anterior Inferior Cerebellar
the Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery.
Artery.
What is the innervation of the lateral rectus muscle?
What is the innervation of the lateral rectus muscle?
CN VI
[...]
Which speech center is located at the superior temporal Which speech center is located at the superior temporal
gyrus of the temporal lobe?
gyrus of the temporal lobe?
Wernicke's Area
[...]
Which CNS lesion is seen in Wernicke-Korsakoff

Syndrome?
Which CNS lesion is seen in Wernicke-Korsakoff

Syndrome?
Bilateral mamillary body lesion
[...]
Which type of sensory corpuscle sense pressure, deep

static touch and position sense?
Which type of sensory corpuscle sense pressure, deep

static touch and position sense?
Merkel Disc
[...]
What is the only cranial nerve that does not have thalamic
relay to the cortex?
[...]
What is the only cranial nerve that does not have thalamic
relay to the cortex?
CN I, Olfactory
Where does the Spinothalamic Tract (STT) decussate?
Where does the Spinothalamic Tract (STT) decussate?
Anterior White Commisure
[...]
How many spinal nerves are there in total?
How many spinal nerves are there in total?
31
[...]
8 cervical + 12 thoracic + 5 lumbar + 5 sacral + 1

coccygeal.
What is the most common site of intracerebral
hemorrhage?
What is the most common site of intracerebral

hemorrhage?
Basal ganglia
[...]
Beta-blockers are a type of drug (other than Primidone) [...] are a type of drug (other than Primidone) that can be
that can be given to treat Essential Tremors.
given to treat Essential Tremors.
Which body parts are represented on the lateral side of
the brain in the homunculus?
Which body parts are represented on the lateral side of

the brain in the homunculus?
Rostral structures (head, tongue, etc)
[...]
Which cells of the PNS are targeted in Gullain-Barr

Syndrome?
Which cells of the PNS are targeted in Gullain-Barr

Syndrome?
Schwann Cells
[...]
An occlusion of the Middle Cerebral Artery will result in An occlusion of the [...] Artery will result in contralateral
contralateral sensory/motor deficits to the upper limb and
sensory/motor deficits to the upper limb and face.
face.
Where does the subarachnoid space end in adults?
Where does the subarachnoid space end in adults?
Lower border of S2 vertebra
[...]
Aphasia is a CNS language deficit described as a highorder inability to speak.
[...] is a CNS language deficit described as a high-order

inability to speak.
What is the innervation of the superior oblique muscle?
What is the innervation of the superior oblique muscle?
CN IV
[...]
Which dural venous sinus is the main location of CSF

return via arachnoid granulations?
Which dural venous sinus is the main location of CSF

return via arachnoid granulations?
Superior saggital sinus
[...]
In which weeks of gestation do the left and right

hemispheres fail to separate, thereby causing
Holoprosencephaly?
In which weeks of gestation do the left and right

hemispheres fail to separate, thereby causing
Holoprosencephaly?
5-6
[...]
Etiology is multifactorial; may be related to sonic

hedgehog signaling pathway.
Which cranial nerve controls the stapedius muscle in the Which cranial nerve controls the stapedius muscle in the
ear?
ear?
CN VII
[...]
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the optic

pathway?
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the optic

pathway?
LGN
[...]
Lateral geniculate nucleus.

How do ACh levels change in Huntington Disease?
How do ACh levels change in Huntington Disease?
Decrease
[...]
Lesion to which area of the hypothalamus will result in

anorexia and failure to thrive (in infants)?

anorexia and failure to thrive (in infants)?
Lateral area
[...]
Wernicke Aphasia is a type of aphasia that involves fluent [...] is a type of aphasia that involves fluent speech with
speech with impaired comprehension and repetition.
impaired comprehension and repetition.
Wernicke's = Word vomit.
Multiple Sclerosis is a spinal cord lesion that occurs due to
demyelination of mostly white matter of the cervical
region, thereby presenting with random, asymmetric
lesions.
[...] is a spinal cord lesion that occurs due to

demyelination of mostly white matter of the cervical
region, thereby presenting with random, asymmetric
lesions.
There is often scanning speech, intention tremor and

nystagmus.
What is cranial nerve VII?
What is cranial nerve VII?
Facial
[...]
Where does the Lateral Corticospinal Tract (LCT)

decussate?
Where does the Lateral Corticospinal Tract (LCT)

decussate?
Pyramidal decussation at the caudal medulla
[...]
Which cerebral vessels are typically affected

in Intracerebral/Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage?
Which cerebral vessels are typically affected

in Intracerebral/Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage?
Lenticulostriate vessels (at/around the deep brain)
[...]
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage is a type of intracranial

[...] is a type of intracranial hemorrhage that involves a risk
hemorrhage that involves a risk of vasospasm 2-3
of vasospasm 2-3 days after onset of the injury due to
days after onset of the injury due to blood breakdown.
blood breakdown.
Meningocele is a Neural Tube Defect that involves normal
AFP levels and herniation of the meninges only through
the defect.
[...] is a Neural Tube Defect that involves normal AFP

levels and herniation of the meninges only through the
defect.
Which cells of the CNS yield a "fried egg" appearance Which cells of the CNS yield a "fried egg" appearance
on H&E stain?
on H&E stain?
Oligodendrocytes
[...]
How do GABA levels change in anxiety?
How do GABA levels change in anxiety?
Decrease
[...]
What type of adaptation is exhibited by Pacinian

Corpuscles?
What type of adaptation is exhibited by Pacinian

Corpuscles?
Fast
[...]

spinothalamic tract?

spinothalamic tract?
VPL
[...]
Parinaud Syndrome is a CNS disorder that involves

paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to a lesion to
the superior colliculis.
[...] is a CNS disorder that involves paralysis of

conjugate vertical gaze due to a lesion to the
superior colliculis.
e.g. by a pinealoma.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a type of intracranial
hemorrhage that involves bleeding into the subarachnoid
space.
[...] is a type of intracranial hemorrhage that involves

bleeding into the subarachnoid space.
Which type of intracranial hematoma cannot cross the

midline, falx or tentorium?
Which type of intracranial hematoma cannot cross the

midline, falx or tentorium?
Subdural Hematoma
[...]
Which embryological structure induces the overlying

Which embryological structure induces the overlying
ectoderm to differentiate into the neuroectoderm and form ectoderm to differentiate into the neuroectoderm and form
the neural plate?
the neural plate?
Notochord
[...]
What do free nerve endings sense?
What do free nerve endings sense?
Pain and temperature
[...]
Which arterial blood gas primarily drives cerebral

perfusion?
Which arterial blood gas primarily drives cerebral

perfusion?
PCO2 (increased CO2 results in increased cerebral

perfusion)
[...]
PO2 modulates perfusion in severe hypoxia.

This is why therapeutic hyperventilation (i.e. a
decrease in PCO2) helps decrease ICP in cases of
cerebral edema as the decrease in PCO2 will decrease
cerebral perfusion via vasoconstriction.
Thrombotic stroke is a type of ischemic stroke that
involves clot formation directly at the site of
infarction, typically over atherosclerotic plaque.
[...] is a type of ischemic stroke that involves clot

formation directly at the site of infarction, typically
over atherosclerotic plaque.
How do NE levels change in REM sleep?
How do NE levels change in REM sleep?
Decrease
[...]

How do CNS levels of GABA change in Huntington's
Disease?
How do CNS levels of GABA change in Huntington's

Disease?
Decrease
[...]
How do ACh levels change in REM sleep?
How do ACh levels change in REM sleep?
Increase
[...]

This is also why erections occur in men during REM
sleep (i.e. dat dere morning wood).
What is cranial nerve IV?
What is cranial nerve IV?
Trochlear
[...]
To which ear does Weber's Test localize in conductive

hearing loss?
To which ear does Weber's Test localize in conductive

hearing loss?
The affected ear
[...]
Syringomyelia is a congenital spinal cord malformation that [...] is a congenital spinal cord malformation that results in
results in a bilateral "cape-like" loss of pain and
a bilateral "cape-like" loss of pain and temperature
temperature sensation from the upper extremities.
sensation from the upper extremities.
Touch is preserved as the dorsal column is typically
unnaffected.
Which dermatome is found at the kneecaps?
Which dermatome is found at the kneecaps?
L4
[...]
Which connective tissue surrounding single nerve fiber

layers is the site of inflammatory infiltration in GuillainBarr Syndrome?
Which connective tissue surrounding single nerve fiber

layers is the site of inflammatory infiltration in GuillainBarr Syndrome?
Endoneurium
[...]
Endo, peri, epi = Inner, middle, outer

How do CSF protein levels change in Poliomyelitis?
How do CSF protein levels change in Poliomyelitis?
Slight increase
[...]
What visual deficit is seen in temporal lobe lesion

(Meyer's Loop)?
What visual deficit is seen in temporal lobe lesion

(Meyer's Loop)?
Contralateral upper quadrant anopia
[...]
#4
Acoustic Neuroma is a type of schwannoma that is
[...] is a type of schwannoma that is typically located in the
typically located in the internal acoustic meatus, thereby internal acoustic meatus, thereby affecting CN VIII.
affecting CN VIII.
In which direction do the eyes turn in a Frontal Eye Field
lesion?
In which direction do the eyes turn in a Frontal Eye Field

lesion?
Towards the lesion
[...]
"Right way eyes"

Which cranial nerve is involved with carotid body and
sinus baro- and chemoreceptors?
Which cranial nerve is involved with carotid body and

sinus baro- and chemoreceptors?
CN IX
[...]
What is the innervation of the inferior oblique muscle?
What is the innervation of the inferior oblique muscle?
CN III
[...]
Which cranial nerve governs closing of the eyelid via

Orbicularis oculi?
Which cranial nerve governs closing of the eyelid via

Orbicularis oculi?
CN VII
[...]
What is the nerve root for the triceps reflex?
What is the nerve root for the triceps reflex?
C7
[...]
What Dopamine receptor is involved with the Indirect

Pathway of the Basal Ganglia?
What Dopamine receptor is involved with the Indirect

Pathway of the Basal Ganglia?
D2
[...]
Where are Intracerebral/Intraparenchymal Hemorrhages
typically located in the brain?
[...]
Where are Intracerebral/Intraparenchymal Hemorrhages

typically located in the brain?
Basal Ganglia and Internal Capsule (i.e. deep brain)
Basal ganglia is the most common however it can be
lobar.
How long after a CNS ischemic event do red neurons
appear?
How long after a CNS ischemic event do red neurons

appear?
12-48 hrs
[...]
How long after a CNS ischemic event does necrosis and

neutrophils appear?
How long after a CNS ischemic event does necrosis and

neutrophils appear?
24-72 hrs
[...]
Which area of the hypothalamus governs cooling and the Which area of the hypothalamus governs cooling and the
parasympathetic system?
parasympathetic system?
Anterior hypothalamus
[...]
"AC = air conditioning = anterior, cooling."

Syringomyelia is a spinal cord lesion that involves
[...] is a spinal cord lesion that involves expansion of the
expansion of the syrinx and damage to the anterior syrinx and damage to the anterior white commissure
white commissure of the STT.
of the STT.
Hence this will present with a bilateral loss of pain and

temperature sensation at the level of the lesion.
The syrinx can grow and affect other tracts.
Which stage of sleep involves an increase in variable
pulse and blood pressure?
Which stage of sleep involves an increase in variable

pulse and blood pressure?
REM sleep
[...]
How do GABA levels change in Huntington Disease?
How do GABA levels change in Huntington Disease?
Decrease
[...]
"Which stages of sleep are shortened in the elderly? N3

and REM
"Which stages of sleep are shortened in the elderly? [...]
Hence, always look at the patient's age in the vignette.

A 15 year old with a lack of stage 3 or 4 sleep is bad
news bears. But in the elderly it may not be
pathological.
Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the Gag
Reflex?
Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the Gag

Reflex?
CN IX
[...]
What lesion is seen in Kluver-Bucy Syndrome?
What lesion is seen in Kluver-Bucy Syndrome?
Bilateral amygdala
[...]
Which way does the uvula deviate in a CN X lesion?
Which way does the uvula deviate in a CN X lesion?
Away from the lesion
[...]
The weak side of the uvula collapses and is henced

pushed away when the patient says "Ahhhhhhhhhh".
Which dermatome is at the nipple?
Which dermatome is at the nipple?
T4
[...]
Which maternal endocrine disorder is associated with

Anencephaly?
Which maternal endocrine disorder is associated with

Anencephaly?
T1DM
[...]
What type of adaptation is exhibited by Meissner

corpuscles?
What type of adaptation is exhibited by Meissner

corpuscles?
Fast
[...]
Ischemic Stroke is a type of stroke that involves acute

blockage of vessels and resulting ischemia.
[...] is a type of stroke that involves acute blockage of

vessels and resulting ischemia.
An occlusion to the Anterior Spinal Artery results in lesion An occlusion to the [...] results in lesion to the entire
to the entire spinal cord except the dorsal column and spinal cord except the dorsal column and Lissauer
Lissauer tract.
tract.
The upper thoracic ASA territory is a watershed area
due to the artery of Adamkiewicz supplying the ASA
area below ~T8.
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the cerebral Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the cerebral
aqueduct?
aqueduct?
Mesencephalon
[...]

respectively)
Which section of the dorsal column is found laterally?
Which section of the dorsal column is found laterally?
Fasciculus cuneatus
[...]
i.e. the dorsal column is organized as humans are;

with the hands on the side; arms outside, legs inside
What is the cause of death in Friedreich Ataxia?
What is the cause of death in Friedreich Ataxia?
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
[...]
Where does the Dorsal Column/Medial Lemniscus

(DCML) decussate?
Where does the Dorsal Column/Medial Lemniscus

(DCML) decussate?
Medulla
[...]
Which vagal nucleus is involved with visceral sensory

information such as taste, baroreceptors and gut
distention)?
Which vagal nucleus is involved with visceral sensory

information such as taste, baroreceptors and gut
distention)?
Nucleus Solitarius
[...]
Occlusion of the Anterior Cerebral Artery will result in

contralateral sensory/motor deficits to the lower limbs.
Occlusion of the [...] Artery will result in contralateral

sensory/motor deficits to the lower limbs.
What do patients often use to self-medicate with to treat

their Essential Tremor?
What do patients often use to self-medicate with to treat

their Essential Tremor?
Alcohol as it decreases tremor amplitude
[...]
What is cranial nerve IX?
What is cranial nerve IX?
Glossopharyngeal
[...]
Which ascending spinal tract carries pain and

temperature?
Which ascending spinal tract carries pain and

temperature?
Lateral spinothalamic tract
[...]
What is cranial nerve VI?
What is cranial nerve VI?
Abducens
[...]
Which cerebral hemisphere is most commonly associated Which cerebral hemisphere is most commonly associated
with hemineglect following a stroke of the Middle Cerebral with hemineglect following a stroke of the Middle Cerebral
Artery?
Artery?
Right (commonly the non-dominant side)
[...]
To which cortical area does the thalamic nucleus VPL

send pain and temperature information?

send pain and temperature information?
Primary somatosensory cortex
[...]
Which vagal nucleus is involved with motor innervation Which vagal nucleus is involved with motor innervation
of the pharynx, larynx and upper esophagus?
of the pharynx, larynx and upper esophagus?
Nucleus Ambiguus
[...]
speech with intact comprehension.
Broca Aphasia is a type of aphasia that involves

nonfluent speech with intact comprehension.
Due to Broca's Area lesion.
These type of patients will appear to be visibly
frustrated as they can comprehend what you're saying,
but cannot reply. They can also hear what their saying
and will realise the problem, getting even more
frustrated.
This is often is not the case in Wernicke Aphasia as
comprehension is defective in a Wernicke lesion.
Which nucleus is involved in taste perception from the
tongue?
Which nucleus is involved in taste perception from the

tongue?
Solitary nucleus
[...]
via CN VII, IX, X

Which major cerebral blood vessel is commonly the site of Which major cerebral blood vessel is commonly the site of
thrombotic stroke?
thrombotic stroke?
MCA
[...]
How do Dopamine levels change in depression?
How do Dopamine levels change in depression?
Decrease
[...]
Intention Tremor is a type of tremor that involves slow, [...] is a type of tremor that involves slow, zigzag motion
zigzag motion when pointing or extending towards a target.
when pointing or extending towards a target.
Area Postrema is a nucleus that is part of the
circumventricular system that governs vomiting.
[...] is a nucleus that is part of the circumventricular system

that governs vomiting.
What is the CNS location of synthesis of Dopamine?
What is the CNS location of synthesis of Dopamine?
Ventral tegmentum; SNc
[...]
Which nucleus in the midbrain triggers bilateral pupil

contraction in the pupillary light reflex?
Which nucleus in the midbrain triggers bilateral pupil

contraction in the pupillary light reflex?
Edinger-Westphal Nucleus
[...]
Which primary CNS vesicle develops into the

Telencephalon and Diencephalon?

Telencephalon and Diencephalon?
Prosencephalon
[...]
Or what I like to call it: the Brosencephalon.

The Circle of Willis is a system of vascular anastomoses The [...] is a system of vascular anastomoses between the
between the anterior and posterior blood supplies to the
anterior and posterior blood supplies to the brain.
brain.
Which cranial bone is most commonly fractured in an
Epidural Hematoma?
Which cranial bone is most commonly fractured in an

Epidural Hematoma?
Temporal Bone
[...]
Sleep Fragmentation is a sleep disorder that involves the

chopping up of sleep cycles, thereby resulting in a lack
of rest and groggyness.
[...] is a sleep disorder that involves the chopping up of

sleep cycles, thereby resulting in a lack of rest and
groggyness.
Do not confuse this with sleep deprivation, which is a

straight up lack of sleep.
This is also a great tie into why babies ruin the lives of
young parents. Babies have 30-40 minute sleep cycles,
which are much shorter than an adults. Hence when
they wake up and cry, they cause sleep
fragmentation in adults, leading to the parents hating
their lives.
Which spinal cord lesion is associated with ArgyllRobertson pupils?
Which spinal cord lesion is associated with ArgyllRobertson pupils?
Tabes Dorsalis
[...]
Argyll-Robertson pupil is a a pupil that exhibits

accomodation and convergence, but not to light.
What is the nerve root for the cremaster reflex?
What is the nerve root for the cremaster reflex?
L1,L2
[...]
The moro reflex is a primitive reflex that involves

abduction/extension of the arms when startled,
following by drawing of the arms together.
The [...] is a primitive reflex that involves

abduction/extension of the arms when startled,
following by drawing of the arms together.
Aka the "Hang on for life" reflex.

Which stage of sleep involves loss of motor tone?
Which stage of sleep involves loss of motor tone?
REM
[...]
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the inferior

colliculus of the tectum?
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the inferior

colliculus of the tectum?
MGN
[...]
In the auditory pathway.

What is the 2nd most common cause of Subarachnoid
Hemorrhage?
What is the 2nd most common cause of Subarachnoid

Hemorrhage?
Arteriovenous Malformations
[...]
What is the nerve root for the anal wink reflex?
What is the nerve root for the anal wink reflex?
S3, S4
[...]
Holoprosencephaly is a congenital CNS malformation that [...] is a congenital CNS malformation that involves failure
involves failure of the left and right hemispheres to
of the left and right hemispheres to separate.
separate.
Which dermatome is found at the posterior half of the skull
cap?
[...]
Which dermatome is found at the posterior half of the skull

cap?
C2
The Indirect Basal Ganglia Pathway
Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPe --> STN --> GPi -> Thalamus --> Motor Cortex
Motor Cortex --> [...] --> GPe --> STN --> GPi -> Thalamus --> Motor Cortex
"The Globus Pallidus INternus is always INcluded in

Basal Ganglia pathways."
"I (GPi) before E (GPe), except after C (cortex)"
Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPe --> STN --> GPi -- Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> [...] --> STN --> GPi -> Thalamus --> Motor Cortex
> Thalamus --> Motor Cortex
Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPe --> STN --> GPi -- Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPe --> [...] --> GPi -> Thalamus --> Motor Cortex
Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPe --> STN --> GPi -- Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPe --> STN --> [...] -> Thalamus --> Motor Cortex
Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPe --> STN --> GPi -- Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPe --> STN --> GPi -> Thalamus --> Motor Cortex
> [...] --> Motor Cortex
A fibers are a type of free nerve endings that are
fast and myelinated.
[...] are a type of free nerve endings that are fast and
myelinated.
Which spinal cord lesion is associated with Charcot

joints?
Which spinal cord lesion is associated with Charcot

joints?
Tabes Dorsalis
[...]
Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the pupillary Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the pupillary
reflex?
reflex?
CN III
[...]
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the basal

ganglia?
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the basal

ganglia?
Ventral lateral (VL)
[...]
MPTP is a contaminant in illicit IV drugs and is a rare

cause of Parkinson's Disease.
[...] is a contaminant in illicit IV drugs and is a rare cause

of Parkinson's Disease.
Which vitamin/mineral is associated with Neural Tube

Defects?
Which vitamin/mineral is associated with Neural Tube

Defects?
Folic Acid (Vitamin B9/M)
[...]
What is the Rinne's Test result in sensorineural hearing

loss?
What is the Rinne's Test result in sensorineural hearing

loss?
Normal (air > bone)
[...]

Schwann cells form?

Schwann cells form?
Neural crest
[...]
On which day of gestation does the neural plate form?
On which day of gestation does the neural plate form?
Day 18
[...]
The Lenticulostriate Artery is an artery of the anterior

CNS circulation that is a common location of lacunar
infarcts, especially in unmanaged hypertension.
The [...] Artery is an artery of the anterior CNS circulation

that is a common location of lacunar infarcts, especially in
unmanaged hypertension.
What is the most common cause of Subarachnoid

Hemorrhage?
What is the most common cause of Subarachnoid

Hemorrhage?
Rupture of a Berry (Saccular) aneurysm
[...]
Don't forget the association with Autosomal Dominant

Polycystic Kidney Disease, brah!!
Which area of the face is paralyzed in a corticobulbar
(UMN) CN VII lesion?
[...]
Which area of the face is paralyzed in a corticobulbar

(UMN) CN VII lesion?
Contralateral Lower face
The forehead is spared due to bilateral UMN
innervation of the upper division of the facial nucleus.
The lower division of the facial nucleus only
receives contralateral innervation.
Which type of CNS aneurysm is commonly associated
with chronic Hypertension?
Which type of CNS aneurysm is commonly associated

with chronic Hypertension?
Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysm
[...]
Which area of the face is paralyzed in a LMN CN VII

lesion?
Which area of the face is paralyzed in a LMN CN VII

lesion?
Ipsilateral upper and lower face
[...]
Which cerebral hemisphere is most commonly associated Which cerebral hemisphere is most commonly associated
with aphasia following a stroke of the Middle Cerebral
with aphasia following a stroke of the Middle Cerebral
Artery?
Artery?
Left hemisphere (commonly the dominant hemisphere)
[...]
Low intake of the vitamin Folic Acid (Vitamin B9/M)

Low intake of the vitamin [...] before conception and
before conception and during pregnancy is associated with during pregnancy is associated with neural tube defects.
neural tube defects.
The Direct Basal Ganglia Pathway
Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPi --> Thalamus -->

Motor Cortex
Motor Cortex --> [...] --> GPi --> Thalamus --> Motor
Cortex


Motor Cortex
Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> [...] --> Thalamus -->

Motor Cortex


Motor Cortex
Motor Cortex --> Striatum --> GPi --> [...] --> Motor
Cortex

After how long in hypoxia does irreversible CNS damage After how long in hypoxia does irreversible CNS damage
begin?
begin?
5 minutes
[...]
Most vulnerable area is hippocampus, neocortex,

cerebellum, watershed areas
Which stage of sleep involves sleepwalking, night
terrors and bedwetting?
Which stage of sleep involves sleepwalking, night

terrors and bedwetting?
Stages 3 and 4
[...]
To which ear does Weber's Test localize in sensorineural To which ear does Weber's Test localize in sensorineural
hearing loss?
hearing loss?
Unaffected ear
[...]
What type of intracranial hemorrhage is often described as What type of intracranial hemorrhage is often described as
"the worst headache of my life"?
"the worst headache of my life"?
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
[...]
Which gene is affected by GAA repeated in Friedreich

Ataxia?
Which gene is affected by GAA repeated in Friedreich

Ataxia?
Frataxin, an iron binding protein
[...]

dorsal/sensory portion of the spinal cord?

dorsal/sensory portion of the spinal cord?
Alar Plate
[...]
"Give DAPs to the spinal cord, brah."

What is the innervation of the medial rectus muscle?
What is the innervation of the medial rectus muscle?
CN III
[...]
What is the nerve root for the biceps reflex?
What is the nerve root for the biceps reflex?
C5
[...]
Dysarthria is a CNS movement disorder that is described [...] is a CNS movement disorder that is described as the
as the inability to speak.
inability to speak.
Which stage of sleep involves an increase in brain
O2 usage?
Which stage of sleep involves an increase in brain

O2 usage?
REM sleep
[...]
What type of EEG waves are seen in eyes
open wakefulness?
[...]

open wakefulness?
Beta
Highest frequency, lowest amplitude.
Central Pontine Myelinolysis is an osmotic demyelination
syndrome that is commonly iatrogenic, typically caused by
overly rapid correction of hyponatremia.
[...] is an osmotic demyelination syndrome that is

commonly iatrogenic, typically caused by overly rapid
correction of hyponatremia.
Spatial Neglect Syndrome is a CNS disorder due to a [...] is a CNS disorder due to a right parietal-temporal
right parietal-temporal cortex lesion and presents with
cortex lesion and presents with agnosia of the
agnosia of the contralateral side of the world.
contralateral side of the world.
Which midbrain nucleus is activated by the Pretectal nuclei Which midbrain nucleus is activated by the Pretectal nuclei
in the pupillary light reflex?
in the pupillary light reflex?
Edinger-Westphal nuclei
[...]
Hydrocephalus (via Cerebral Aqueductal Stenosis) is a

complication of Arnold-Chiari (Chiari II) Malformation
due to compression of the cerebral aqueduct as a result of
the cerebellar herniation.
[...] is a complication of Arnold-Chiari (Chiari II)

Malformation due to compression of the cerebral
aqueduct as a result of the cerebellar herniation.
What is the nerve root for the patellar reflex?
What is the nerve root for the patellar reflex?
L4
[...]
A loss of which phase of sleep is associated with (not

causal) dementia?
A loss of which phase of sleep is associated with (not

causal) dementia?
Delta sleep (i.e. stage 3 and 4 NREM)
[...]
Ptosis is a feature of Horner Syndrome that involves slight [...] is a feature of Horner Syndrome that involves slight
drooping of the eyelid (via the Superior Tarsal Muscle). drooping of the eyelid (via the Superior Tarsal Muscle).
What is the Rinne's Test result in conductive hearing loss? What is the Rinne's Test result in conductive hearing loss?
Abnormal (bone > air conduction)
[...]
Which dermatome is found at the high turtleneck shirt

level?
Which dermatome is found at the high turtleneck shirt

level?
C3
[...]
Which cranial nerve governs the motor innervation of the

tongue?
Which cranial nerve governs the motor innervation of the

tongue?
CN XII
[...]
[...] is a section of the optic tract that carries information
from the superior retina via the internal capsule and
parietal lobe.
Dorsal Optic Radiation (Baum's Loop) is a section of the

optic tract that carries information from the superior
retina via the internal capsule and parietal lobe.
This is the shortest route to the occiput.
What is the 1st synapse of the Spinothalamic Tract (STT)? What is the 1st synapse of the Spinothalamic Tract (STT)?
Ipsilateral gray matter of the dorsal horn
[...]
Lesions to the lateral side of the cerebellum affects

voluntary movement of the extremities and presents
with the propensity to fall towards the injured
(ipsilateral) side.
Lesions to the [...] side of the cerebellum affects

voluntary movement of the extremities and presents
with the propensity to fall towards the injured
(ipsilateral) side.
Intention Tremor is a type of tremor that is due to

cerebellar dysfunction.
[...] is a type of tremor that is due to cerebellar

dysfunction.
Through which cerebellar peduncle does the ipsilateral Through which cerebellar peduncle does the ipsilateral
proprioceptive information from the spinal cord project proprioceptive information from the spinal cord project
to the cerebellum?
to the cerebellum?
Inferior cerebellar peduncle
[...]
Remember, cerebellar proprioceptive tracts are

always ipsilateral.
Medial Longitudinal Fascicle is a visual tract that allows [...] is a visual tract that allows for crosstalk between CN
for crosstalk between CN VI and CN III nuclei, thereby VI and CN III nuclei, thereby coordinating horizontal
coordinating horizontal gaze.
gaze.
It is very highly myelinated in order for extremely
quick communication.
Hence, demyelinating disorders present with
symptoms.
To which cortical area does the thalamic nucleus LGN
send visual information?
To which cortical area does the thalamic nucleus LGN

send visual information?
Calcarine sulcus
[...]
The rooting reflex is a primitive reflex that involves

movement of the head towards one side if the cheek
or mouth is stroked (i.e. nipple seeking).
The [...] is a primitive reflex that involves movement of

the head towards one side if the cheek or mouth is
stroked (i.e. nipple seeking).
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the cerebral Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the cerebral
hemispheres?
hemispheres?
Telencephalon
[...]
Lateral Pontine Syndrome is a stroke syndrome that

presents similar to Wallenberg's Syndrome but lacks
hoarseness, dysphagia and taste deficits.
[...] is a stroke syndrome that presents similar to

Wallenberg's Syndrome but lacks hoarseness,
dysphagia and taste deficits.
What is the innervation of the superior rectus muscle?
What is the innervation of the superior rectus muscle?
CN III
[...]

Metencephalon and Myelencephalon?
[...]

Metencephalon and Myelencephalon?
Rhombencephalon
Which intracranial hematoma involves slow bleeding over Which intracranial hematoma involves slow bleeding over
time?
time?
Subdural hematoma
[...]
Attributed to the fact that it is the venous system that

feeds into the hematoma, resulting in a slow growing
hematoma.
Spina Bifida Occulta is a Neural Tube Defect that is
associated with a tuft of hair or dimple of the skin at the
level of the defect.
[...] is a Neural Tube Defect that is associated with a tuft

of hair or dimple of the skin at the level of the defect.
How do Dopamine levels change in Parkinson Disease?
How do Dopamine levels change in Parkinson Disease?
Decrease
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Huntington's Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Huntington's Disease?
Autosomal Dominant
[...]
Vasogenic edema is a type of cerebral edema that involves [...] is a type of cerebral edema that involves infarction or
infarction or neoplastic damage to the endothelial tight
neoplastic damage to the endothelial tight junctions.
junctions.
Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is a CNS lesion that results from [...] is a CNS lesion that results from bilateral amygdala
bilateral amygdala lesion and presents with
lesion and presents with hyperorality,
hyperorality, hypersexuality and disinhibited
hypersexuality and disinhibited behaviour.
behaviour.
Which cells of the CNS are targeted in Multiple Sclerosis? Which cells of the CNS are targeted in Multiple Sclerosis?
Oligodendrocytes
[...]
Which stage of sleep involves dreaming?
Which stage of sleep involves dreaming?
REM sleep
[...]
This includes those kinky wet dreams you have of me,

Sohaib.
If you wake up and remember your dream, you likely
woke up out of REM sleep.
If you wake up and don't remember your dream (but
still know you dreamt), you likely woke up out of
Stage 2 sleep.
If you wake up groggy and disoriented, you likely
woke up out of delta sleep (stage 3 or 4). This is why
alarm clocks suck.
What motor neuron lesion is associated with a
positive Babinski sign?
[...]
What motor neuron lesion is associated with a

positive Babinski sign?
UMN
Positive babinski is normal in infants.
Which pterygoid muscle opens the jaw?
Which pterygoid muscle opens the jaw?
Lateral pterygoid
[...]
Lateral Lowers the jaw.

The masseter, temporalis and medial pterygoid all
close the jaw.
Which cranial nerve is commonly affected in Cavernous
Sinus Syndrome?
Which cranial nerve is commonly affected in Cavernous

Sinus Syndrome?
CN VI
[...]
Which cranial nerve governs taste at the anterior 2/3 of Which cranial nerve governs taste at the anterior 2/3 of
the tongue?
the tongue?
CN VII
[...]
What visual deficit is seen in an optic tract lesion?
What visual deficit is seen in an optic tract lesion?
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
[...]
#3
Anencephaly is a congenital CNS malformation that
involves malformation of the anterior neural tube, resulting
in no forebrain and an open calvarium.
[...] is a congenital CNS malformation that involves

malformation of the anterior neural tube, resulting in no
forebrain and an open calvarium.
Note the "frog-like appearance".

Which cells of the cerebellum are the output cells that
send signals to the contralateral motor cortex via the
superior cerebellar peduncle?
Which cells of the cerebellum are the output cells that

send signals to the contralateral motor cortex via the
superior cerebellar peduncle?
Purkinje cells
[...]
Cyclopia is a characteristic of severe Holoprosencephaly

and involves a single, midline eye due to failure of the
prosencephalon to divide.
[...] is a characteristic of severe Holoprosencephaly and

involves a single, midline eye due to failure of the
prosencephalon to divide.
What type of intracranial hematoma involves a lucid

interval before neurological symptoms present?
What type of intracranial hematoma involves a lucid

interval before neurological symptoms present?
Epidural Hematoma
[...]
Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the Corneal Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the Corneal
Reflex?
Reflex?
CN VII (temporalis branch to the orbicularis oculi which
closes the eye)
[...]
Which cranial nerve palsy is associated with Sarcoidosis? Which cranial nerve palsy is associated with Sarcoidosis?
Facial nerve palsy
[...]
Which amniotic fluid protein marker is associated with

Neural Tube Defects?
Which amniotic fluid protein marker is associated with

Neural Tube Defects?
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
[...]
Which type of Chiari malformation is usually

asymptomatic?
Which type of Chiari malformation is usually

asymptomatic?
Type I
[...]
Cranial nerve XI travels through the foramen magnum of Cranial nerve [...] travels through the foramen magnum of
the skull.
the skull.
Cranial nerve XI travels through the foramen magnum of
the skull.
Cranial nerve XI travels through the [...] of the skull.
Cranial nerve CN XII travels through the hypoglossal

canal of the skull.
Cranial nerve [...] travels through the hypoglossal canal of

the skull.
Cranial nerve CN XII travels through the hypoglossal

canal of the skull.
Cranial nerve CN XII travels through the [...] of the skull.
How do barbiturates influence REM sleep and delta wave How do barbiturates influence REM sleep and delta wave
sleep?
sleep?
Decrease
[...]
Sleep latency is defined as the time it takes to fall asleep.
[...] is defined as the time it takes to fall asleep.
Which drug is commonly used to treat the vasospasm seen Which drug is commonly used to treat the vasospasm seen
in Subarachnoid Hemorrhage 2-3 days after the injury? in Subarachnoid Hemorrhage 2-3 days after the injury?
Nimodipine
[...]
A Calcium channel blocker

From lateral to medial, what are the deep nuclei of the
cerebellum?
From lateral to medial, what are the deep nuclei of the

cerebellum?
Dentate; Emboliform; Globose; Fastigial
[...]
"Don't Eat Greasy Foods"

Spina Bifida Occulta is a Neural Tube Defect that results
from a failure of the bony spinal canal to close, but does
not involve a structural herniation.
Seen at lower vertebral levels with tuft of hair or
dimple of skin.
[...] is a Neural Tube Defect that results from a failure of

the bony spinal canal to close, but does not involve a
structural herniation.
Which Chiari malformation is associated with

Syringomyelia?
Which Chiari malformation is associated with

Syringomyelia?
Chiari I (Type I)
[...]
Which spinal cord lesion is associated with a positive

Romberg sign?
Which spinal cord lesion is associated with a positive

Romberg sign?
Tabes Dorsalis
[...]
Which spinal nerves exit above their corresponding

vertebra?
Which spinal nerves exit above their corresponding

vertebra?
C1-C7
[...]
Which nucleus in the hypothalamus makes ADH?
Which nucleus in the hypothalamus makes ADH?
Supraoptic nucleus
[...]
What visual deficit is seen in infarction of the Posterior What visual deficit is seen in infarction of the Posterior
Cerebral Artery (PCA)?
Cerebral Artery (PCA)?
Contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing
[...]
This is because the macula has bilateral projection to

the occiput.
#6
C fibers are a type of free nerve ending that is slow and
unmyelinated.
[...] are a type of free nerve ending that is slow and

unmyelinated.
Arnold-Chiari (Chiari II) Malformation is a congenital

CNS malformation that involves significant herniation of
the cerebellar tonsils and vermis through the foramen
magnum.

significant herniation of the cerebellar tonsils and vermis
through the foramen magnum.
Which cranial nerves pass through the cavernous sinus?
Which cranial nerves pass through the cavernous sinus?
CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI
[...]
i.e. all of the CN's that deal with the eye + V2 (and not
CN II)
How do CSF WBC levels change in Poliomyelitis?
How do CSF WBC levels change in Poliomyelitis?
Increase
[...]
Cranial nerve V2 travels through the foramen rotundum of Cranial nerve [...] travels through the foramen rotundum of
the skull.
the skull.
Cranial nerve V2 travels through the foramen rotundum of
the skull.
Cranial nerve V2 travels through the [...] of the skull.
The plantar reflex is a primitive reflex that involves

The [...] is a primitive reflex that involves dorsiflexion of
dorsiflexion of the large toe and fanning of the other
the large toe and fanning of the other toes with
toes with plantar stimulation.
plantar stimulation.
i.e. Babinski sign in infants (which is normal, hence
called the plantar reflex)
Which branchial arches develop into the anterior 2/3 of

the tongue?
Which branchial arches develop into the anterior 2/3 of

the tongue?
1st and 2nd
[...]
Hence the sensation (CN V3) and taste (CN VII) is in

line with the associated cranial nerves.
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the third
ventricle?
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the third

ventricle?
Diencephalon
[...]
Which lesion is seen in Hemiballismus?
Which lesion is seen in Hemiballismus?
Contralateral subthalamic nucleus lesion
[...]

ependymal cells develop?

ependymal cells develop?
Neuroectoderm
[...]
Perineurium is a connective tissue layer that surrounds a

fascicle of nerve fibers.
[...] is a connective tissue layer that surrounds a fascicle

of nerve fibers.

Huntington's Disease is a movement disorder of the Basal
Ganglia that is characterized by bilateral degeneration of
the Caudate Nucleus, especially its cholinergic and
GABAergic neurons.
[...] is a movement disorder of the Basal Ganglia that is

characterized by bilateral degeneration of the Caudate
Nucleus, especially its cholinergic and GABAergic
neurons.
Which cerebral artery supplies the lateral surface of the

brain?
Which cerebral artery supplies the lateral surface of the

brain?
Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA)
[...]
In which lobe of the brain is primary auditory cortex

found?
In which lobe of the brain is primary auditory cortex

found?
Temporal lobe
[...]
Which enzyme in the amniotic fluid is a helpful

Which enzyme in the amniotic fluid is a helpful
confirmatory test in the diagnosis of Neural Tube Defects confirmatory test in the diagnosis of Neural Tube Defects
if it is elevated?
if it is elevated?
Elevated Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
[...]
Fetal AChE in the CSF transudates across/through

the neural tube defect into the amniotic fluid.
Which cranial artery travels through the Foramen
Spinosum?
Which cranial artery travels through the Foramen

Spinosum?
Middle Meningeal Artery
[...]
Which nuclei of the Basal Ganglia are atrophied in

Huntington's Disease?
Which nuclei of the Basal Ganglia are atrophied in

Huntington's Disease?
Caudate Nucleus, especially the head
[...]
How do Norepinephrine levels change in depression?
How do Norepinephrine levels change in depression?
Decrease
[...]
Which protein is used as an astrocyte marker?
Which protein is used as an astrocyte marker?
GFAP
[...]
Medial Medullary Syndrome is a stroke syndrome that is [...] is a stroke syndrome that is caused by an occlusion to
caused by an occlusion to the Anterior Spinal Artery
the Anterior Spinal Artery (ASA).
(ASA).
How do reflexes and muscle tone change in LMN lesions? How do reflexes and muscle tone change in LMN lesions?
Decrease
[...]
Which cranial nerve palsy is associated with Lyme disease Which cranial nerve palsy is associated with Lyme disease
(Borrelia burgdorferi)?
(Borrelia burgdorferi)?
Facial nerve palsy
[...]
Which gland located at the brainstem secretes

melatonin and influences circadian rhythms?
Which gland located at the brainstem secretes

melatonin and influences circadian rhythms?
Pineal
[...]
Which major cranial artery passes through the cavernous

sinus?
Which major cranial artery passes through the cavernous

sinus?
Internal Carotid Artery
[...]
How long after a CNS ischemic event does reactive

gliosis and vascular proliferation appear?
How long after a CNS ischemic event does reactive

gliosis and vascular proliferation appear?
1-2 weeks
[...]
Dandy-Walker Malformation is a congenital CNS

malformation that involves agenesis of the cerebellar
vermis with a cystic enlargement of the 4th ventricle.

agenesis of the cerebellar vermis with a cystic enlargement
of the 4th ventricle.
Associated with hydrocephalus and spina bifida.

An occlusion to which artery causes Superior Alternating An occlusion to which artery causes Superior Alternating
(Weber's) Syndrome?
(Weber's) Syndrome?
[...]
What is the mnemonic for remembering cranial nerve

modalities?
What is the mnemonic for remembering cranial nerve

modalities?
Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Boobs

Matter Most
[...]
S,S,M,M,B,M,B,S,B,B,M,M.
- S = sensory
- M = motor
- B = both
What type of paralysis is seen in UMN lesions?
What type of paralysis is seen in UMN lesions?
Spastic paralysis
[...]
Above which vertebral level can Brown-Squard

Syndrome present with Horner Syndrome?
Above which vertebral level can Brown-Squard

Syndrome present with Horner Syndrome?
Above T1
[...]
Due to damage of the oculosympathetic pathway.

Which stroke syndrome is associated with hoarseness and Which stroke syndrome is associated with hoarseness and
dysphagia?
dysphagia?
Lateral Medullary (Wallenberg's) Syndrome
[...]
aka Nucleus Ambiguus deficits

Which CNS artery is associated with Nucleus Ambiguus
defects following a stroke?
Which CNS artery is associated with Nucleus Ambiguus

defects following a stroke?
Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (PICA)
[...]
Friedreich Ataxia is a CNS disorder due to GAA repeats [...] is a CNS disorder due to GAA repeats that involves
that involves staggering gait, frequent falling,
staggering gait, frequent falling, nystagmus,
nystagmus, dysarthria, pes cavus and hammer toes.
dysarthria, pes cavus and hammer toes.
Facial Nerve Palsy is a cranial nerve palsy that presents
with peripheral ipsilateral facial paralysis with the
inability to close the eye on the ipsilateral side.
[...] is a cranial nerve palsy that presents with peripheral

ipsilateral facial paralysis with the inability to close
the eye on the ipsilateral side.
Due to complete destruction of the facial nucleus or

it's efferent fibers.
Which way must a patient look in order to test the
inferior oblique muscle?
Which way must a patient look in order to test the

inferior oblique muscle?
Upwards
[...]
The oblique eye muscles move the eye in opposite

directions.
Through which foramen does the Middle Meningeal
Artery travel in the skull?
Through which foramen does the Middle Meningeal

Artery travel in the skull?
Foramen Spinosum
[...]
Which cranial nerve governs lacrimation?
Which cranial nerve governs lacrimation?
Facial
[...]
Locked-In Syndrome is a stroke syndrome due to

occlusion of the Basilar Artery and involves
quadriplegia with preserved
consciousness/blinking and a loss of voluntary facial,
mouth and tongue movements.
[...] is a stroke syndrome due to occlusion of the Basilar

Artery and involves quadriplegia with preserved
consciousness/blinking and a loss of voluntary facial,
mouth and tongue movements.
This was also a pretty cool House episode with Mos

Def...
Which herpesvirus is associated with Kluver-Bucy
Syndrome?
Which herpesvirus is associated with Kluver-Bucy

Syndrome?
HSV-1
[...]
Which cells of the CNS are targeted in leukodystrophies? Which cells of the CNS are targeted in leukodystrophies?
Oligodendrocytes
[...]
Which stage of sleep involves penil and clittoral

tumescence?
Which stage of sleep involves penil and clittoral

tumescence?
REM sleep
[...]
Which 3 cranial nerves govern taste at the tongue?
Which 3 cranial nerves govern taste at the tongue?
CN VII; CN IX; CN X
[...]
via the Solitary nucleus

The Galant reflex is a primitive reflex that involves lateral The [...] is a primitive reflex that involves lateral flexion
flexion of the lower body towards the stimulated side
of the lower body towards the stimulated side
following stroking along one side of the spine while following stroking along one side of the spine while
the newborn is face down.
the newborn is face down.
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome is a CNS disorder due to [...] is a CNS disorder due to thiamine deficiency that
thiamine deficiency that presents with confusion,
presents with confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and
ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and memory loss.
memory loss.
Can be caused by excessive alcohol use.
An occlusion to which artery will cause "Locked-In"
Syndrome?
An occlusion to which artery will cause "Locked-In"

Syndrome?
Basilar Artery
[...]
Berry Aneurysm is a type of cerebral aneurysm that is [...] is a type of cerebral aneurysm that is associated with
associated with connective tissue disorders such as Ehlersconnective tissue disorders such as Ehlers-Danlos
Danlos Syndrome and Marfan's Syndrome.
Syndrome and Marfan's Syndrome.
How long after a CNS ischemic event does a glial
scar appear?
How long after a CNS ischemic event does a glial

scar appear?
> 2 weeks
[...]
Into which major cerebral vein do the dural venous sinuses Into which major cerebral vein do the dural venous sinuses
drain?
drain?
Internal jugular vein
[...]
How do reflexes and muscle tone change in UMN

lesions?
How do reflexes and muscle tone change in UMN

lesions?
Increase
[...]
Mixed Transcortical Aphasia is a type of aphasia that

involves nonfluent speech, poor comprehension and
good repetition.
[...] is a type of aphasia that involves nonfluent speech,

poor comprehension and good repetition.
Which foramen joins the lateral ventricles to the 3rd

ventricle?
Which foramen joins the lateral ventricles to the 3rd

ventricle?
Interventricular Foramen (of Monro)
[...]
On both sides.
Trochlear Palsy is a cranial nerve palsy that presents with
upwardly displaced eyes, especially with contralateral
gaze and head tilt towards the side of the lesion.
[...] is a cranial nerve palsy that presents with upwardly

displaced eyes, especially with contralateral gaze and
head tilt towards the side of the lesion.
Hence there is often problems going down the stairs.

Which branchial arches develop into the posterior 1/3 of Which branchial arches develop into the posterior 1/3 of
the tongue?
the tongue?
3rd and 4th
[...]
Hence sensory (CN IX, CN X) and taste (CN IX, CN

X) innervation is via the associated cranial nerves.
What is the etiology of Poliomyelitis?
What is the etiology of Poliomyelitis?
Poliovirus
[...]
Which nucleus in the hypothalamus makes Oxytocin?
Which nucleus in the hypothalamus makes Oxytocin?
Paraventricular Nucleus
[...]
Which cranial nerve carries taste from the epiglottis

region?
Which cranial nerve carries taste from the epiglottis

region?
CN X
[...]
Which cranial nerve controls tongue movement?
Which cranial nerve controls tongue movement?
CN XII
[...]
Which race has an increased risk of developing a Berry

Aneurysm?
Which race has an increased risk of developing a Berry

Aneurysm?
Blacks
[...]
What visual deficit is seen in macular degeneration?
What visual deficit is seen in macular degeneration?
Central scotoma in the affected eye
[...]
#7
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) is a spinal cord
lesions that often initially presents with fasciculations,
atrophy and weakness of the hands.
[...] is a spinal cord lesions that often initially presents with

fasciculations, atrophy and weakness of the hands.
Which cells are the phagocytes of the CNS?
Which cells are the phagocytes of the CNS?
Microglia
[...]

midbrain?

midbrain?
Mesencephalon
[...]

respectively)
What visual field deficit is seen in optic chiasm
lesions (e.g. with a pituitary tumour)?
What visual field deficit is seen in optic chiasm

lesions (e.g. with a pituitary tumour)?
Bitemporal hemianopia
[...]
#2
Which sympathetic nucleus receives hypothalamic input to Which sympathetic nucleus receives hypothalamic input to
trigger mydriasis (pupillary dilation)?
trigger mydriasis (pupillary dilation)?
Ciliospinal center of Budge (C8-T2)
[...]
Which structure joins the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle? Which structure joins the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle?
Cerebral Aqueduct (of Sylvius)
[...]
Which cranial nerve is involved with hearing and balance? Which cranial nerve is involved with hearing and balance?
CN VIII
[...]
Which pontine nucleus governs the extraocular movements Which pontine nucleus governs the extraocular movements
during REM sleep?
during REM sleep?
Paramedian Pontine Reticular Formation (PPRF)
[...]
Gerstmann Syndrome is a CNS disorder that is due to a

[...] is a CNS disorder that is due to a left parietalleft parietal-temporal cortex lesion and presents with temporal cortex lesion and presents with agraphia,
agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia and left-right
acalculia, finger agnosia and left-right disorientation.
disorientation.
The SNc of the Basal Ganglia inhibits the [...] pathway of
the Basal Ganglia via D2 receptors, thereby leading to the
initiation of the movement.
The SNc of the Basal Ganglia inhibits the indirect

pathway of the Basal Ganglia via D2 receptors, thereby
leading to the initiation of the movement.
"SNc INhibits the INdirect pathway"

pathway of the Basal Ganglia via [...] receptors, thereby
"SNc INhibits the INdirect pathway"

Which frequency of sound is lost first in noise-induced
hearing loss?
Which frequency of sound is lost first in noise-induced

hearing loss?
High frequency
[...]
Which nucleus at the dorsal brainstem is the conjugate

vertical gaze center?
Which nucleus at the dorsal brainstem is the conjugate

vertical gaze center?
Superior Colliculis
[...]
What is the only excitatory nucleus of the Basal Ganglia?
What is the only excitatory nucleus of the Basal Ganglia?
Subthalamic Nucleus (STN)
[...]
The rest are all inhibitory.

Which eye is unable to adduct following a lesion to the
MLF?
Which eye is unable to adduct following a lesion to the

MLF?
The IPSILATERAL eye
[...]
All caps for emphasis because this one always gets me

by virtue of the MLF naming.
The MLF's are named according to which side
they synapse on, not the side from which they
originate (which would make so much more sense to
me).
Hence, lesion to the LEFT MLF, result in a loss of
adduction in the LEFT eye (i.e. LEFT INO) even if the
MLF is lesioned in the right side of the body (i.e. at the
right Abducens nucleus).
Primidone is a Barbiturate that can be given to treat

Essential Tremors.
[...] is a Barbiturate that can be given to treat Essential

Tremors.
What is the most common stage of sleep?
What is the most common stage of sleep?
Stage N2
[...]
Which area of cerebral cortex governs motor speech?
Which area of cerebral cortex governs motor speech?
Broca Area
[...]
How do benzodiazepines influence REM sleep and delta

wave sleep?
How do benzodiazepines influence REM sleep and delta

wave sleep?
Decrease
[...]
What is the cause of Werdnig-Hoffman Disease (spinal

muscular atrophy)?
What is the cause of Werdnig-Hoffman Disease (spinal

muscular atrophy)?
Congenital degeneration of the anterior horn
[...]
To which cortical area does the thalamic nucleus VPM

send face sensation and taste information?
To which cortical area does the thalamic nucleus VPM

send face sensation and taste information?
Primary Somatosensory Cortex
[...]
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the gustatory

pathway?
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the gustatory

pathway?
VPM
[...]
Which cranial nerve governs taste and sensation at the

extreme posterior of the tongue?
Which cranial nerve governs taste and sensation at the

extreme posterior of the tongue?
CN X
[...]
How does the proportion of REM sleep change with

increasing age?
How does the proportion of REM sleep change with

increasing age?
Constant
[...]
How does an occlusion of the Lenticulostriate Artery

present?
How does an occlusion of the Lenticulostriate Artery

present?
Contralateral hemiparesis/hemiplegia
[...]
Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the upper

Which secondary CNS vesicle develops into the upper

Metencephalon
[...]

respectively)
How does light influence suprachiasmatic nucleus activity? How does light influence suprachiasmatic nucleus activity?
Decrease
[...]
Through which cerebellar peduncle does the

contralateral motor cortex communicate with the
cerebellum?
Through which cerebellar peduncle does the

contralateral motor cortex communicate with the
cerebellum?
Middle Cerebellar Peduncle
[...]
Which dermatome is at the inguinal ligament?
Which dermatome is at the inguinal ligament?
L1
[...]
Which trinucleotide repeat is associated with Huntington's Which trinucleotide repeat is associated with Huntington's
Disease?
Disease?
CAG
[...]
Autosomal dominant with anticipation.

How does Leptin influence the activity of the lateral area
of the hypothalamus?
How does Leptin influence the activity of the lateral area

of the hypothalamus?
Inhibition
[...]
Which serum protein marker is associated with Neural

Tube Defects?
Which serum protein marker is associated with Neural

Tube Defects?
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
[...]
Dystonia is a movement disorder that involves sustained,

involuntary muscle contraction.
[...] is a movement disorder that involves sustained,

involuntary muscle contraction.
Epineurium is a dense connective tissue that surrounds

entire nerves.
[...] is a dense connective tissue that surrounds entire

nerves.

Which area of the cerebral cortex functions as the
associative auditory area?
Which area of the cerebral cortex functions as the

associative auditory area?
Wernicke area
[...]
Cavernous sinus syndrome is a neurological disorder that [...] is a neurological disorder that results due to mass
results due to mass effect, fistula or thrombosis in the effect, fistula or thrombosis in the cavernous sinus that
cavernous sinus that presents with ophthalmoplegia and
presents with ophthalmoplegia and decreased
decreased corneal/maxillary sensation with normal corneal/maxillary sensation with normal visual acuity.
visual acuity.
How long after a CNS ischemic event do macrophages
appear?
How long after a CNS ischemic event do macrophages

appear?
3-5 days
[...]
What is the 2nd synapse in the Dorsal Column/Medial

Lemniscus (DCML)?
What is the 2nd synapse in the Dorsal Column/Medial

Lemniscus (DCML)?
VPL of the thalamus
[...]
Which vagal nucleus is associated with sending

Which vagal nucleus is associated with sending
parasympathetic fibers to the heart, lungs and upper parasympathetic fibers to the heart, lungs and upper
GI?
GI?
Dorsal Motor Nucleus
[...]
In which direct do the eyes turn following a PPRF lesion? In which direct do the eyes turn following a PPRF lesion?
Away from the lesion
[...]
"Wrong way eyes."

Which vertebral levels are the most common location of
Syringomyelia?
Which vertebral levels are the most common location of

Syringomyelia?
C8-T1
[...]
Which area of the spinal cord is targeted in Poliomyelitis? Which area of the spinal cord is targeted in Poliomyelitis?
Anterior horn of the spinal cord (i.e. LMNs)
[...]
Hence polio presents with LMN lesion signs.

Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the superior
olivary nucleus (auditory pathway)?
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the superior

olivary nucleus (auditory pathway)?
MGN
[...]
Medial geniculate nucleus.

M for Music.
The Basal Ganglia is a deep structure of the brain that
involves a group of nuclei that collectively govern voluntary
movement and postural adjustments.
The [...] is a deep structure of the brain that involves a

group of nuclei that collectively govern voluntary
movement and postural adjustments.
It received cortical input and provides negative

feedback to the motor cortex to modulate movement.
Which kind of intracranial hematoma is associated with
brain atrophy?
Which kind of intracranial hematoma is associated with

brain atrophy?
Subdural Hematoma
[...]
Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the

Lacrimation Reflex?
Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the

Lacrimation Reflex?
CN V1 (loss of reflex does not preclude the loss of

emotional tears)
[...]
So you can still cry me a river...

Which area of the hypothalamus governs heating and the Which area of the hypothalamus governs heating and the
sympathetic nervous system?
sympathetic nervous system?
Posterior hypothalamus
[...]
Miosis is a feature of Horner Syndrome that involves pupil [...] is a feature of Horner Syndrome that involves pupil
constriction.
constriction.
What type of tremor is commonly seen in Parkinson's
Disease?
What type of tremor is commonly seen in Parkinson's

Disease?
Resting Tremor (specifically, a pill-rolling tremor at the

hands)
[...]
Resting Tremor is a type of tremor that is alleviated by

initiating intentional movement.
[...] is a type of tremor that is alleviated by initiating

intentional movement.
Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the Jaw Jerk Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the Jaw Jerk
Reflex?
Reflex?
CN V3 (muscle spindles from the masseter muscle)
[...]
Essential/Postural Tremor is a type of tremor that is

described as an action tremor and is exacerbated by
holding posture/limb position.
[...] is a type of tremor that is described as an action

tremor and is exacerbated by holding posture/limb
position.
Has a genetic predisposition.

closed wakefulness?

closed wakefulness?
Alpha
[...]
8-12 cps
Blepharospasm is a type of Dystonia described as a
sustained eyelid twitch.
[...] is a type of Dystonia described as a sustained eyelid

twitch.
Which type of sensory corpuscle sense dynamic,

fine/light touch?
Which type of sensory corpuscle sense dynamic,

fine/light touch?
Meissner corpuscle
[...]
Which dermatome is at the umbilicus?
Which dermatome is at the umbilicus?
T10
[...]
What visual field defect is seen in lesion of the optic

nerve?
What visual field defect is seen in lesion of the optic

nerve?
Ispilateral anopia
[...]
#1
What is the 2nd most common site of Berry (Saccular)
Aneurysm?
What is the 2nd most common site of Berry (Saccular)

Aneurysm?
Posterior Communicating Artery
[...]
Meyer's Loop is a section of the optic tract that carries

visual information from the inferior retina around the
inferior horn of the lateral ventricle through the
temporal lobe.
[...] is a section of the optic tract that carries visual

information from the inferior retina around the inferior
horn of the lateral ventricle through the temporal lobe.
Which descending spinal tract carries voluntary

motor information?
Which descending spinal tract carries voluntary

motor information?
Anterior/Lateral Corticospinal Tract
[...]
The indirect pathway of the Basal Ganglia inhibits the

The [...] pathway of the Basal Ganglia inhibits the
Thalamus, thereby resulting in no cortical activation and a Thalamus, thereby resulting in no cortical activation and a
lack of movement.
lack of movement.
"INdirect INhibits the Thalamus causing
inhibition of movement"
Cranial nerve V3 travels through the foramen ovale of the Cranial nerve [...] travels through the foramen ovale of the
skull.
skull.
Cranial nerve V3 travels through the foramen ovale of the
skull.
Cranial nerve V3 travels through the [...] of the skull.

Mesencephalon?

Mesencephalon?
Mesencephalon
[...]
Which fibers in the eye attach the lens to the ciliary body? Which fibers in the eye attach the lens to the ciliary body?
Zonula fibers
[...]
Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the trigeminal Which thalamic nucleus receives input from the trigeminal
pathway?
pathway?
VPM
[...]
The circumventricular system is a group of specialized

The [...] is a group of specialized brain regions that have
brain regions that have fenestrated capillaries and no
fenestrated capillaries and no blood-brain barrier,
blood-brain barrier, thereby allowing for molecules in the thereby allowing for molecules in the blood to affect brain
blood to affect brain function.
function.
Normally there are non-fenestrated capillaries and a
blood-brain barrier.
send pressure, touch, vibration and proprioception
information?

send pressure, touch, vibration and proprioception
information?
Primary somatosensory cortex
[...]
Benedict's Syndrome is a stroke syndrome that presents

similarly to Superior Alternating (Weber's) Syndrome,
except it includes ataxia.
[...] is a stroke syndrome that presents similarly to

Superior Alternating (Weber's) Syndrome, except it
includes ataxia.
Which foramina join the 4th ventricle to the subarachoid

space?
Which foramina join the 4th ventricle to the subarachoid

space?
Foramina of Luschka (laterally) and the Foramen of

Magendie (medially)
[...]
Which pupillary muscle is involved in

miosis (constriction)?
Which pupillary muscle is involved in

miosis (constriction)?
Sphincter muscles
[...]
[...] is a spinal cord lesion that involves combined UMN
and LMN deficits with no sensory, cognitive or
oculomotor deficits.
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) is a spinal cord

lesion that involves combined UMN and LMN
deficits with no sensory, cognitive or oculomotor
deficits.
Which dorsal brainstem structure is lesioned in Parinaud

Syndrome?
Which dorsal brainstem structure is lesioned in Parinaud

Syndrome?
Superior Colliculis
[...]
Which cerebellar lesion is associated with truncal

ataxia and dysarthria?
Which cerebellar lesion is associated with truncal

ataxia and dysarthria?
Cerebellar vermis
[...]
What is cranial nerve V?
What is cranial nerve V?
Trigeminal
[...]
Includes the Ophthalmic (V1), Maxillary (V2) and

Mandibular (V3) branches.
Hypoxic Stroke is a type of ischemic stroke that involves
hypoperfusion and hypoxemia.
[...] is a type of ischemic stroke that involves

hypoperfusion and hypoxemia.
Commony during cardiovascular surgery, especially at

watershed zones.
Which cranial nerve governs salivation from the
submandibular and sublingual glands?
Which cranial nerve governs salivation from the

submandibular and sublingual glands?
CN VII
[...]
Which cranial nerves travel throgh the internal auditory

meatus?
Which cranial nerves travel throgh the internal auditory

meatus?
CN VII, VIII
[...]
CN III (Oculomotor) Palsy is a complication of Epidural

[...] is a complication of Epidural Hematoma that will
Hematoma that will present with "down and out"
present with "down and out" eyes and mydriasis due to
eyes and mydriasis due to compression of the
compression of the Oculomotor Nerve via herniation.
Oculomotor Nerve via herniation.
Which ascending spinal tract carries crude touch and
pressure information?
Which ascending spinal tract carries crude touch and

pressure information?
Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
[...]
What is the 2nd synapse of the Lateral Corticospinal Tract What is the 2nd synapse of the Lateral Corticospinal Tract
(LCT)?
(LCT)?
NMJ at the target voluntary muscle
[...]
Subdural Hematoma is a type of intracranial hematoma

that involves collection of the blood underneath the dura
over the surface of the brain.
[...] is a type of intracranial hematoma that involves

collection of the blood underneath the dura over the
surface of the brain.
Parkinson's Disease is a movement disorder of the Basal

[...] is a movement disorder of the Basal Ganglia that
Ganglia that presents with a resting tremor, cogwheel
presents with a resting tremor, cogwheel rigidity,
rigidity, akinesia/bradykinesia, postural instability and a akinesia/bradykinesia, postural instability and a shuffling
shuffling gait.
gait.
What does the notochord develop into?
What does the notochord develop into?
Nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc in adults
[...]
What is the CNS location of synthesis of GABA?
What is the CNS location of synthesis of GABA?
Nucleus accumbens
[...]
Nucleus accumbens is also a reward center and it

governs pleasure, addiction and fear.
Which area of the hypothalamus governs hunger?
Which area of the hypothalamus governs hunger?
Lateral area
[...]
What is the treatment for sleep enuresis (bedwetting)?
What is the treatment for sleep enuresis (bedwetting)?
Oral desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)
[...]
Preferred over Imipramine due to a better adverse

effect profile.
Which type of EEG waves are seen in REM sleep?
Which type of EEG waves are seen in REM sleep?
Beta
[...]
Bell Palsy is a type of facial nerve palsy that occurs

idiopathically and gradually recovers.
[...] is a type of facial nerve palsy that occurs idiopathically

and gradually recovers.
Which way does the jaw deviate in a CN V motor lesion? Which way does the jaw deviate in a CN V motor lesion?
Towards the lesion
[...]
CN V innervation to the mastication muscles is

ipsilateral.
During opening of thw jaw, unopposed force from the
opposite pterygoid muscle pushes the jaw.
Which cells produce myelin in the CNS?
Which cells produce myelin in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes
[...]
Lesions to the medial side of the cerebellum result in

truncal ataxia, nystagmus and head tilting due to
damage to the vermis, fastigial nuclei or flocconodular
lobe.
Lesions to the [...] side of the cerebellum result in truncal

ataxia, nystagmus and head tilting due to damage to
the vermis, fastigial nuclei or flocconodular lobe.
The vermis and fastigial nuclei are midline structures.

Which cranial nerve innervates the uvula?
Which cranial nerve innervates the uvula?
CN X
[...]
How do 5-HT levels change in depression?
How do 5-HT levels change in depression?
Decrease
[...]
Which cranial nerve governs salivation from the parotid

gland?
Which cranial nerve governs salivation from the parotid

gland?
CN IX
[...]
Charcot-Bouchard Microaneurysm is a type of CNS

aneurysm that is associated with chronic hypertension and
commonly affects the small vessels of the deep brain (i.e.
at the basal ganglia, thalamus).
[...] is a type of CNS aneurysm that is associated with

chronic hypertension and commonly affects the small
vessels of the deep brain (i.e. at the basal ganglia,
thalamus).
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Friedreich Ataxia?
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Friedreich Ataxia?
GAA on chromosome 9
[...]
Which ciliary nerves send signals to the pupillary

sphincter muscles?
Which ciliary nerves send signals to the pupillary

sphincter muscles?
Short ciliary nerves
[...]

hyperphagia?

hyperphagia?
Ventromedial area
[...]
e.g. by a craniopharyngioma
Which artery is commonly ruptured in Epidural
Hematoma?
Which artery is commonly ruptured in Epidural

Hematoma?
Middle Meningeal Artery (branch of the Maxillary Artery)
[...]
How does alcohol influence REM sleep and delta wave

sleep?
How does alcohol influence REM sleep and delta wave

sleep?
Decrease
[...]
At which vertebral levels are lumbar punctures normally

performed?
At which vertebral levels are lumbar punctures normally

performed?
L3-L4; L4-L5
[...]
Huntington's Disease is an autosomal dominant movement [...] is an autosomal dominant movement disorder of the
disorder of the Basal Ganglia that involves choreiform
Basal Ganglia that involves choreiform movements,
movements, aggression, depression and dementia.
aggression, depression and dementia.
Presentation typically begins at 20-30 y/o and
progresses from frontal lobe behaviour problems to
chorea to dementia and eventually death in 5-10 years
from Dx.
Which lesion causes Conduction Aphasia?
Which lesion causes Conduction Aphasia?
Left superior temporal lobe and/or left supramarginal gyrus
[...]
Which intracranial hematoma results in rapid

expansion of the hematoma?
Which intracranial hematoma results in rapid

expansion of the hematoma?
Epidural Hematoma
[...]
Attributed to the fact that it is the arterial pressure

that feeds into the hematoma out of the ruptured
artery.
Which side of the body will the head have weakness
turning towards following a left CN XI lesion?
Which side of the body will the head have weakness

turning towards following a left CN XI lesion?
Right (contralateral)
[...]
What type of EEG waves are seen in Stage N2 sleep?
Sleep spindles and K complexes
[...]
12-14 cps
What type of necrosis is seen following an ischemic
stroke?
What type of necrosis is seen following an ischemic

stroke?
Liquefactive necrosis
[...]
Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the pupillary Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the pupillary
reflex?
reflex?
CN II
[...]
Which neurotransmitter is involved in the initiation of

sleep?
Which neurotransmitter is involved in the initiation of

sleep?
5-HT (Serotonin)
[...]
Which type of EEG waves are seen in Stage N4 sleep?
Which type of EEG waves are seen in Stage N4 sleep?
Full delta
[...]
Which way does the left sternocleidomastoid muscle help Which way does the left sternocleidomastoid muscle help
turn the head?
turn the head?
Right
[...]
Which parts of the body are found on the medial side of Which parts of the body are found on the medial side of
the brain on the homunculus?
the brain on the homunculus?
Caudal structures (legs; feet)
[...]
"The feet hang off the edge."

How do ACh levels change in Parkinson?
How do ACh levels change in Parkinson?
Increase
[...]
Epidural Hematoma is a type of intracranial hematoma that

involves a collection of blood between the dura and the
skull.
[...] is a type of intracranial hematoma that involves a

collection of blood between the dura and the skull.
How do CSF glucose levels change in poliomyelitis?
How do CSF glucose levels change in poliomyelitis?
No change
[...]
Retinal detachment is a retinal disorder defined as

separation of the neurosensory layer of the retina from the
pigmented epithelium, thereby leading to degeneration of
photoreceptors.
[...] is a retinal disorder defined as separation of the

neurosensory layer of the retina from the pigmented
epithelium, thereby leading to degeneration of
photoreceptors.
The neurosensory layer of the retina = rods and cones.

Retinal pigmented epithelium = the layer that shields
excess light and supports the retina.
How does Leptin influence the activity of the Ventromedial How does Leptin influence the activity of the Ventromedial
Area of the Hypothalamus?
Area of the Hypothalamus?
Activation
[...]

thalamus?

thalamus?
Diencephalon
[...]
What is the most common cause of Hemiballismus?
What is the most common cause of Hemiballismus?
Lacunar Stroke at the Subthalamic Nucleus
[...]
Remember, it will cause contralateral deficits.

CN III Palsy is a common cranial nerve palsy involved
with strokes that presents with "down and out"
eyes with ptosis and mydriasis.
[...] is a common cranial nerve palsy involved with strokes

that presents with "down and out" eyes with ptosis and
mydriasis.
What type of intracranial hematoma can cross the midline, What type of intracranial hematoma can cross the midline,
falx and tentorium?
falx and tentorium?
Epidural Hematoma
[...]
Which portion of the vertebral disc herniates in disc

herniation?
Which portion of the vertebral disc herniates in disc

herniation?
Nucleus pulposus
[...]
Remember, this is the only derivative of the notochord.

The SNc of the Basal Ganglia activates the direct
The SNc of the Basal Ganglia activates the [...] pathway
pathway of the Basal Ganglia via D1 receptors, thereby of the Basal Ganglia via D1 receptors, thereby leading to
the initiation of the movement.
"SNc activates the D1rect pathway"
pathway of the Basal Ganglia via [...] receptors, thereby

"SNc activates the D1rect pathway"
Which dermatome is at the xiphoid process?
Which dermatome is at the xiphoid process?
T6
[...]
The even numbered thoracic dermatomes have easily

remembered sites to test for sensory blocks; T2 at axilla
anteriorly, T4 at nipple, T6 at xihoid, T8 at lower margin
of ribs anteriorly, T10 at umbilicus, T12 at inguinal fold
Which way does the tongue deviate following a CN XII
LMN lesion?
Which way does the tongue deviate following a CN XII

LMN lesion?
Towards the lesion
[...]
i.e. "the tongue licks the wound"

This is due to weakened tongue muscles on the side of
the lesion. Think of it like pushing a shoppig cart with
one hand on 1 side, the cart is going to move the
opposite side due to a lack of pushing.
Cranial nerve I travels through the cribiform plate of the Cranial nerve [...] travels through the cribiform plate of the
skull.
skull.
Cranial nerve I travels through the cribiform plate of the
skull.
Cranial nerve I travels through the [...] of the skull.
Which embryological myotomes develops into the muscles Which embryological myotomes develops into the muscles
of the tongue?
of the tongue?
Occipital myotomes
[...]
Which Neural Tube Defect is associated with DandyWalker Malformations?
Which Neural Tube Defect is associated with DandyWalker Malformations?
Spina Bifida
[...]
Where is CSF made?
Where is CSF made?
Ependymal cells of the choroid plexus
[...]
How do Dopamine levels change in Huntington Disease?
How do Dopamine levels change in Huntington Disease?
Increase
[...]
Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of mastication?
Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of mastication?
CN V3, Mandibular branch of the Trigeminal
[...]
[...] are intracellular inclusions seen in Parkinson's Disease

and are composed of alpha-synuclein.
Lewy Bodies are intracellular inclusions seen in

Parkinson's Disease and are composed of alpha-synuclein.
(The smaller, dark purple inclusions)

Where does the spinal cord end in adults?
Where does the spinal cord end in adults?
L1-L2
[...]
Chiari I is a congenital CNS malformation that involves a [...] is a congenital CNS malformation that involves a > 3> 3-5 mm cerebellar tonsillar ectopia and is usually
5 mm cerebellar tonsillar ectopia and is usually
asymptomatic.
asymptomatic.
oligodendrocytes develop?

oligodendrocytes develop?
Neuroectoderm
[...]
How do ACh levels change in Alzheimer Disease?
How do ACh levels change in Alzheimer Disease?
Decrease
[...]
What is the most common iatrogenic cause of Central

Pontine Myelinolysis?
What is the most common iatrogenic cause of Central

Pontine Myelinolysis?
Overly rapid correction of Hyponatremia
[...]
"Bring serum Na too fast from low to high and your

pons will die."
Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the Jaw Jerk Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the Jaw Jerk
Reflex?
Reflex?
CN V3 (to the masseter muscle)
[...]
Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the corneal Which cranial nerve is the afferent branch of the corneal
reflex?
reflex?
CN V1 (ophthalmic; specifically the nasociliary branch)
[...]
Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the Gag

Reflex?
Which cranial nerve is the efferent branch of the Gag

Reflex?
CN X
[...]
Theta
[...]
3-7 cps
Superior Alternating (Weber's) Syndrome is a stroke
syndrome that results from an occlusion to the Posterior
Cerebral Artery and presents with CN III palsy and
contralateral hemiplegia.
[...] is a stroke syndrome that results from an occlusion to

the Posterior Cerebral Artery and presents with CN III
palsy and contralateral hemiplegia.
Friedreich Ataxia is a CNS disorder due to GAA repeats [...] is a CNS disorder due to GAA repeats that presents
that presents in childhood with kyphoscoliosis.
in childhood with kyphoscoliosis.
What are the muscles of mastication?
What are the muscles of mastication?
Masseter; Temporalis; Medial & lateral pterygoid
[...]
What spinal cord malformation is associated with Chiari I What spinal cord malformation is associated with Chiari I
(Type I) malformations?
(Type I) malformations?
Syringomyelia
[...]
Anhidrosis is a feature of Horner Syndrome that involves

the absence of sweating.
[...] is a feature of Horner Syndrome that involves the

absence of sweating.
How do CNS levels of ACh change in Huntington's

Disease?
How do CNS levels of ACh change in Huntington's

Disease?
Decreased
[...]
The direct pathway of the Basal Banglia disinhibits the

Thalamus, thereby resulting in cortical activation and
movement.
The [...] pathway of the Basal Banglia disinhibits the

Thalamus, thereby resulting in cortical activation and
movement.
"DIrect DIsinhibits the Thalamus causing

activation of movement"
Which spinal nerves do not exit below their corresponding Which spinal nerves do not exit below their corresponding
vertebrae?
vertebrae?
C8 and below
[...]
i.e. only C1-C7 exit above their corresponding

vertebrae
Which spinal cord lesion is associated with Chiari type 1 Which spinal cord lesion is associated with Chiari type 1
malformations?
malformations?
Syringomyelia
[...]
Which cranial nerve controls shoulder shrugging and head Which cranial nerve controls shoulder shrugging and head
turning?
turning?
CN XI via the SCM and trapezius muscles.
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Werdnig-Hoffman

Disease (spinal muscular atrophy)?
What is the genetic inheritance of Werdnig-Hoffman

Disease (spinal muscular atrophy)?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
Which midbrain nucleus directly receives light signals via Which midbrain nucleus directly receives light signals via
CN II in the pupillary light reflex?
CN II in the pupillary light reflex?
Pretectal nucleus
[...]
A frontal lobe lesion is a CNS lesion that presents with

disinhibition and deficits in concentration,
orientation and judgement.
A [...] is a CNS lesion that presents with disinhibition

and deficits in concentration, orientation and
judgement.
May involve re-emergence of primitive reflexes.

An occlusion to which artery causes Lateral Medullary
(Wallenberg's) Syndrome?
An occlusion to which artery causes Lateral Medullary

(Wallenberg's) Syndrome?
Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (PICA)
[...]
What type of intracranial hemorrhage is associated with a What type of intracranial hemorrhage is associated with a
bloody or xanthochromatic (yellow) fluid after Lumbar bloody or xanthochromatic (yellow) fluid after Lumbar
Puncture?
Puncture?
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage
[...]
The yellow hue is due to the bilirubin breakdown that

occurs in the CSF.
A CNS lesion to the reticular activating system in the
midbrain presents with reduced levels of arousal and
wakefulness.
A CNS lesion to the [...] in the midbrain presents with

reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness.
What is the normal cycle of sleep stages?
What is the normal cycle of sleep stages?
1, 2, 3, 4, 3, 2, REM, 2, 3, 4, 3, 2, REM......
[...]
Notice how stage 2 sleep is the crossroad, this is why

it is the most common stage.
If you wake up and remember your dream, you likely
woke up out of REM sleep.
If you wake up and don't remember your dream (but
still know you dreamt), you likely woke up out of
Stage 2 sleep.
If you wake up groggy and disoriented, you likely
woke up out of delta sleep (stage 3 or 4). This is why
alarm clocks suck.
How does the amount of sleep change with increasing
age?
How does the amount of sleep change with increasing

age?
Decrease
[...]
Riluzole is a drug that can modestly increase survival

of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) by decreasing
presynaptic glutamate release.
[...] is a drug that can modestly increase survival

of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) by decreasing
presynaptic glutamate release.
Rilouzole can be used in Lou Gehrig's Disease.

Brown-Squard Syndrome is a spinal cord syndrome that
presents with ipsilateral loss of all sensation at the
level of the lesion due to hemisection of the spinal cord.
[...] is a spinal cord syndrome that presents with

ipsilateral loss of all sensation at the level of the
lesion due to hemisection of the spinal cord.
What is the most common site of a Berry (Saccular)
Aneurysm?
[...]
What is the most common site of a Berry (Saccular)

Aneurysm?
Anterior Communicating Artery
Myoclonus is a movement disorder that involves sudden, [...] is a movement disorder that involves sudden, brief,
brief, uncontrolled muscle contractions such as in jerks uncontrolled muscle contractions such as in jerks and
and hiccups.
hiccups.
Also common in metabolic abnormalities such as renal
and liver failure.
microglia form?

microglia form?
Mesoderm
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Friedreich Ataxia?
What is the genetic inheritance of Friedreich Ataxia?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
Abducens palsy is a cranial nerve palsy that presents with

medially directed eyes that cannot abduct.
[...] is a cranial nerve palsy that presents with medially

directed eyes that cannot abduct.
Intracerebral/Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage is a type of

intracranial hemorrhage that involves bleeding into the
brain parenchyma.
[...] is a type of intracranial hemorrhage that involves

bleeding into the brain parenchyma.
Which is the only cranial nerve whose nucleus is in the

spinal cord?
Which is the only cranial nerve whose nucleus is in the

spinal cord?
CN XI (in the spinal cord just caudal of the medulla)
[...]
CN I and II not shown (nuclei not in brainstem or spinal

cord)
medulla?

medulla?
Myelencephalon
[...]

respectively)
What is the nerve root for the achilles reflex?
What is the nerve root for the achilles reflex?
S1
[...]
What is the most abundant Lymphocyte in a normal

person?
[...]
What is the most abundant Lymphocyte in a normal

person?
T cells (80%)
Which cell surface marker is associated with cytotoxic T
Cells?
Which cell surface marker is associated with cytotoxic T

Cells?
CD8
[...]
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with the presence

of hypersegmented Neutrophils with 5+ lobes?
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with the presence

of hypersegmented Neutrophils with 5+ lobes?
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) Deficiency; Vitamin B9 (Folate)

Deficiency
[...]
Hence these are seen in Megaloblastic Anaemia

Which type of T Cell is the primary target of HIV?
Which type of T Cell is the primary target of HIV?
CD4+ helper T cells
[...]
Tissue Plasminogen Activators (tPA's) are a class of

anticoagulant drugs that function as thrombolytics by
activating Plasminogen into Plasmin.
[...] are a class of anticoagulant drugs that function as

thrombolytics by activating Plasminogen into Plasmin.
Which enzyme reduces Vitamin K so that it can act as a

cofactor in coagulation factor synthesis?
Which enzyme reduces Vitamin K so that it can act as a

cofactor in coagulation factor synthesis?
Epoxide Reductase
[...]
This is the enzyme inhibits by Warfarin

Which substance from Eosinophils is primarily involved in Which substance from Eosinophils is primarily involved in
fighting Helminthic infections?
fighting Helminthic infections?
Major Basic Protein
[...]
Which platelet receptor does von Willebrand's Factor

(vWF) bind to?
Which platelet receptor does von Willebrand's Factor

(vWF) bind to?
GpIb
[...]
Cromolyn Sodium is a Mast Cell stabilizer used for asthma [...] is a Mast Cell stabilizer used for asthma prophylaxis
prophylaxis as it prevents Mast Cell degranulation.
as it prevents Mast Cell degranulation.
Which MHC molecule is found on B Cells?
Which MHC molecule is found on B Cells?
MHC II
[...]
What is the life span of Erythrocytes?
What is the life span of Erythrocytes?
120 days
[...]
Which coagulation factors are inhibited by Antithrombin? Which coagulation factors are inhibited by Antithrombin?
Factors IIa, VIIa, IXa, Xa, XIa, and XIIa
[...]
In platelet aggregation, which receptor does Fibrinogen

bind to on Platelets in order to link them together?
In platelet aggregation, which receptor does Fibrinogen

bind to on Platelets in order to link them together?
GpIIb/IIIa
[...]
Which type of immunoglobulins are Anti-A and Anti-B

blood group antibodies?
Which type of immunoglobulins are Anti-A and Anti-B

blood group antibodies?
IgM
[...]
Hence the cannot cross the placenta

What is Factor V Leiden?
What is Factor V Leiden?
Factor V that is resistant to inactivation by Protein C
[...]
Which MHC molecule is found on Macrophages?
Which MHC molecule is found on Macrophages?
MHC II
[...]
How do ACE-Inhibitors affect Bradykinin levels?
How do ACE-Inhibitors affect Bradykinin levels?
Increase
[...]
This is why patients receiving ACE Inhibitors have an

"ACE Inhibitor cough."
In platelet adhesion, what receptor does von Willebrand's In platelet adhesion, what receptor does von Willebrand's
Factor (vWF) bind to on Platelets?
Factor (vWF) bind to on Platelets?
GpIb
[...]
Which cell surface marker is associated with helper T

Cells?
Which cell surface marker is associated with helper T

Cells?
CD4
[...]
Which Leukocyte is the primary defense against

Helminthic infections?
Which Leukocyte is the primary defense against

Helminthic infections?
Eosinophils
[...]
What is the primary source of energy for Erythrocytes?
What is the primary source of energy for Erythrocytes?
Glucose
[...]
90% is used in Glycolysis, 10% is used in the HMP

shunt
Which immune cell is associated with a clock-face
distrubution of chromatin?
Which immune cell is associated with a clock-face

distrubution of chromatin?
Plasma Cells
[...]
In platelet activation, which molecule binding at the Platelet In platelet activation, which molecule binding at the Platelet
surface induces the movement of GpIIb/IIIa receptors to surface induces the movement of GpIIb/IIIa receptors to
the Platelet surface?
the Platelet surface?
ADP
[...]
Dendritic Cells are a type of highly phagocytic Antigen

[...] are a type of highly phagocytic Antigen Presenting
Presenting Cell that function as the link between innate and Cell that function as the link between innate and adaptive
adaptive immune systems.
immune systems.
aka Langerhans Cell at the skin
Which cell surface marker interacts with b7 for regulatory Which cell surface marker interacts with b7 for regulatory
T Cell differentiation from naive CD4+ T Cells?
T Cell differentiation from naive CD4+ T Cells?
CD28
[...]
Which precursor cell are Platelets (Thrombocytes) derived Which precursor cell are Platelets (Thrombocytes) derived
from?
from?
Megakaryocytes
[...]
Which blood group is the universal recipient of RBCs?
Which blood group is the universal recipient of RBCs?
AB
[...]
Because the patient's plasma lacks antibodies against

blood group antigens.
Which coagulation factor is carried by von Willebrand's
Factor (vWF)?
Which coagulation factor is carried by von Willebrand's

Factor (vWF)?
Factor VIII
[...]
Which type of Interferon activates Macrophages?
Which type of Interferon activates Macrophages?
gamma-Interferon
[...]
Which coagulation factor is deficient in Haemophilia A?
Which coagulation factor is deficient in Haemophilia A?
VIII
[...]
Which coagulation factor is deficient in Haemophilia B

(Christmas Disease)?
Which coagulation factor is deficient in Haemophilia B

(Christmas Disease)?
IX
[...]
Histaminase and Arylsulfatase are enzymes produced by

Eosinophils that function to limit the reaction following
Mast Cell degranulation.
[...] and Arylsulfatase are enzymes produced by

Histaminase and Arylsulfatase are enzymes produced by

Histaminase and [...] are enzymes produced by

Which blood group is the universal donor of plasma?
Which blood group is the universal donor of plasma?
AB
[...]
Because the patient's plasma lacks antibodies against

blood group antigens.
What is the most abundant Leukocyte in a normal person?
[...]
What is the most abundant Leukocyte in a normal person?

Neutrophils (54-62% of total WBCs)
Neutrophils (5462%)
Lymphocytes (2533%)
Monocytes (37%)
Eosinophils (13%)
Basophils (00.75%)
Which coagulation factors are inactivated by Protein C?
Which coagulation factors are inactivated by Protein C?
Factors Va and VIIIa
[...]
Where in the body do B Cells mature?
Where in the body do B Cells mature?
Bone Marrow
[...]
Where in the body do T Cells mature?
Where in the body do T Cells mature?
Thymus
[...]
What is an increase in the number of Band Cells (immature What is an increase in the number of Band Cells (immature
Neutrophil) indicative of?
Neutrophil) indicative of?
Myeloid Proliferation
[...]
Can be due to a bacterial infection or CML

Which blood group antibody is found in a person with
Group O blood?

Group O blood?
Both Anti-A and Anti-B
[...]
Which cell surface marker (CD) is expressed mainly by

Macrophages?
Which cell surface marker (CD) is expressed mainly by

Macrophages?
CD14
[...]
It is involved in the detection of bacterial LPS.

Heparin is an anticoagulant drug enhances the activity of
antithrombin.
[...] is an anticoagulant drug enhances the activity of

antithrombin.
Which coagulation factors require Vitamin K as a cofactor Which coagulation factors require Vitamin K as a cofactor
in their synthesis?
in their synthesis?
Factors II, VII, IX and X (as well as Protein C and
Protein S)
[...]

Group B blood?

Group B blood?
Anti-A
[...]
What happens first in Platelet Plug Formation, Platelet

Adhesion or Platelet Aggregation?
What happens first in Platelet Plug Formation, Platelet

Adhesion or Platelet Aggregation?
Adhesion
[...]
D's before G's, brah.

What is the life span of Platelets (Thrombocytes)?
What is the life span of Platelets (Thrombocytes)?
8-10 days
[...]
Plasma Cells are an immune cell that differentiate from B [...] are an immune cell that differentiate from B Cells and
Cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular
particular antigen.
antigen.
What do Monocytes differentiate into once they enter
tissue?
What do Monocytes differentiate into once they enter

tissue?
Macrophages
[...]
i.e. Monocytes are only found in the blood and

Macrophages are only found in tissue
Factor V Leiden is a mutant form of coagulation Factor V
that is resistant to inhibition by activated Protein C.
[...] is a mutant form of coagulation Factor V that is

resistant to inhibition by activated Protein C.
Which lymphoid organ stores approximately 1/3 of the

platelet pool?
Which lymphoid organ stores approximately 1/3 of the

platelet pool?
Spleen
[...]

Group A blood?

Group A blood?
Anti-B
[...]
Poikilocytosis is a hematological disorder that is described

by varying Erythrocyte shape.
[...] is a hematological disorder that is described by

varying Erythrocyte shape.
Heparin is an anticoagulant that is found in the densely

basophilic granules of Basophils.
[...] is an anticoagulant that is found in the densely

Which type of immunoglobulin binds to Mast Cells to

sensitize them to degranulation?
Which type of immunoglobulin binds to Mast Cells to

sensitize them to degranulation?
IgE (via the Fc portion)
[...]
Which blood group is the universal recipient of plasma? Which blood group is the universal recipient of plasma?
O
[...]
Because the patient's RBCs lack A and B antigens.

Which blood group is the universal donor of RBCs?
Which blood group is the universal donor of RBCs?
[...]
Because the patient's RBCs lack A and B antigens.

Mutiple Myeloma is a Plasma Cell Cancer.
[...] is a Plasma Cell Cancer.
Which platelet receptor does Fibrinogen bind to?
Which platelet receptor does Fibrinogen bind to?
GpIIb/IIIa
[...]
Which leukocyte is involved with mediating allergic

reactions at local tissue?
Which leukocyte is involved with mediating allergic

reactions at local tissue?
Mast Cells
[...]
Mast Cells are similar in structure and function to

Basophils but are a different cell type.
Erythrocytosis (Polycythemia) is a hematological disorder
that is primarily characterized by an elevated hematocrit.
[...] is a hematological disorder that is primarily

characterized by an elevated hematocrit.
What do B Cells differentiate into when they encounter an What do B Cells differentiate into when they encounter an
antigen at peripheral lymphoid tissue?
antigen at peripheral lymphoid tissue?
Plasma Cells
[...]

Group AB blood?

Group AB blood?
None
[...]
Anisocytosis is a hematological disorder that is

characterized by varying Erythrocyte size.
[...] is a hematological disorder that is characterized by

varying Erythrocyte size.
Which Leukotriene is commonly found in the granules of

Basophils?
Which Leukotriene is commonly found in the granules of

Basophils?
LTD4
[...]
A(n) Reticulocyte is an immature erythrocyte that is

commonly used as a marker of erythroid proliferation.
A(n) [...] is an immature erythrocyte that is commonly

used as a marker of erythroid proliferation.
Which Leukocyte is primarily involved in mediating allergic Which Leukocyte is primarily involved in mediating allergic
reactions?
reactions?
Basophils
[...]
Which enzyme cleaves the Fibrin mesh, thereby breaking Which enzyme cleaves the Fibrin mesh, thereby breaking
down clots?
down clots?
Plasmin
[...]
Histamine is a vasodilator that is commonly found in the

densely basophilic granules of Basophils.
[...] is a vasodilator that is commonly found in the densely

Which type of immunoglobulin are Anti-Rh blood group

antibodies?
Which type of immunoglobulin are Anti-Rh blood group

antibodies?
IgG
[...]
Hence they can cross the placenta.

What are the 2 principal targets of antithrombin?
What are the 2 principal targets of antithrombin?
Factor IIa (Thrombin) and Factor Xa
[...]
Which immunoglobulin bound on the surface of Mast Cells Which immunoglobulin bound on the surface of Mast Cells
will cross-link upon antigen binding and trigger
will cross-link upon antigen binding and trigger
degranulation?
degranulation?
IgE
[...]
What lesion is seen in the "OK Gesture" hand distortion?
What lesion is seen in the "OK Gesture" hand distortion?
Proximal ulnar nerve lesion
[...]
Which nerve is entrapped in the carpal tunnel to cause

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Which nerve is entrapped in the carpal tunnel to cause

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Median Nerve
[...]
Which type of tumour is associated with Thoracic Outlet

Syndrome?
Which type of tumour is associated with Thoracic Outlet

Syndrome?
Pancoast tumour (at the apex of the lung)
[...]
Type 2 muscle fibers are a type of muscle fiber that are

white as there is a decreased concentration of
mitochondria and myoglobin concentration (i.e.
increased anaerobic glycosis).
[...] are a type of muscle fiber that are white as there is a

decreased concentration of mitochondria and
myoglobin concentration (i.e. increased anaerobic
glycosis).
What are the nerve roots for the Tibial Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Tibial Nerve?
L4-S3
[...]
Desmoplakin is an adhesion protein that is associated with

Desmosomes and couples with keratin.
[...] is an adhesion protein that is associated with

Desmosomes and couples with keratin.
Which secondary messenger in smooth muscle cells

functions to activate Myosin Light-chain Phosphatase
(MLCP)?
Which secondary messenger in smooth muscle cells

functions to activate Myosin Light-chain Phosphatase
(MLCP)?
cGMP (via NO activating Guanylate Cyclase)
[...]
Which artery is associated with the Median Nerve?
Which artery is associated with the Median Nerve?
Brachial artery
[...]
What are the nerve roots for the Ulnar Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Ulnar Nerve?
C8-T1
[...]
3 Musketeers (Musculocutaneous nerve = first 3 roots

of brachial plexus)
Assassinated (Axillary nerve = first 2 roots)
5 men (Median nerve = all 5 roots)
5 rats, and (Radial nerve = all 5 roots)
2 unicorns (Ulnar nerve = last 2 roots)
Which artery is associated with the Radial nerve?
[...]
Which artery is associated with the Radial nerve?

Deep Brachial Artery
What lesion is seen in Ulnar Claw (Claw Hand)?
What lesion is seen in Ulnar Claw (Claw Hand)?
Distal Ulnar Nerve lesion
[...]
What is the most common cause of distal injury to the

Ulnar Nerve (C8-T1)?

Fractured hook of the hamate
[...]
Presents with Claw Hand upon digit extension.

Presents with loss of flexion of wrist and medial
fingers, abduction and adduction of fingers.
Presents with loss of sensation over the medial 1/2 of
fingers including hypothenar eminence.
What does Integrin bind to in the basement membrane to What does Integrin bind to in the basement membrane to
maintain integrity of the cell's basolateral membrane?
maintain integrity of the cell's basolateral membrane?
Collagen and Laminin
[...]
What is the most common cause of Erb Palsy in infants? What is the most common cause of Erb Palsy in infants?
Lateral traction on the neck during delivery
[...]
Which enzyme in smooth muscle functions to

phosphorylate myosin?
Which enzyme in smooth muscle functions to

phosphorylate myosin?
Myosin Light-chain kinase (MLCK)
[...]
Guyon Canal Syndrome is a wrist injury that is classically [...] is a wrist injury that is classically seen in cyclists due to
seen in cyclists due to constant pressure on the wrist/hand constant pressure on the wrist/hand from the handlebars.
from the handlebars.
Which artery is associated with the Long Thoracic Nerve? Which artery is associated with the Long Thoracic Nerve?
Lateral Thoracic Artery
[...]
Which carpal bone can be palpated in the anatomical snuff Which carpal bone can be palpated in the anatomical snuff
box?
box?
Scaphoid
[...]
Klumpke Palsy is a brachial plexus lesion that is due to

lesion of the lower trunk at C8-T1 roots and involves a
total claw hand.
[...] is a brachial plexus lesion that is due to lesion of the

lower trunk at C8-T1 roots and involves a total claw
hand.
Which nerve can be damaged following a fall onto an

outstretched that results in fracture to the hook of the
Hamate?
Which nerve can be damaged following a fall onto an

outstretched that results in fracture to the hook of the
Hamate?
Ulnar Nerve
[...]
Desmosome is a type of epithelial cell junction that is also [...] is a type of epithelial cell junction that is also known as
known as Macula Adherens.
Macula Adherens.
Which rotator cuff muscle is most commonly injured?
Which rotator cuff muscle is most commonly injured?
Supraspinatus
[...]
Adherens Junction (Zonula Adherens) is a type of

[...] is a type of epithelial cell junction found just below
epithelial cell junction found just below tight junctions that tight junctions that form "belt-like" connections between
form "belt-like" connections between actin
actin cytoskeletons of adjacent cells.
cytoskeletons of adjacent cells.
Which clinical test looks for the presnce of a meniscus
knee injury?
Which clinical test looks for the presnce of a meniscus

knee injury?
McMurray Test
[...]
What is the innervation of the Teres Minor muscle?
What is the innervation of the Teres Minor muscle?
Axillary Nerve
[...]
What lesion is seen in Erb Palsy (Waiter's Tip)?
What lesion is seen in Erb Palsy (Waiter's Tip)?
Lesion to the upper trunk at C5-C6 roots
[...]
ERBer = Upper trunk

Which side of the knee involves a meniscus that is
attached to a collateral ligament?
Which side of the knee involves a meniscus that is

attached to a collateral ligament?
Medial (MCL + Medial Meniscus)
[...]
Tight Junction (Zonula Occludens) is a type of epithelial [...] is a type of epithelial cell junction that is composed of
cell junction that is composed of Claudins and Occludins.
Claudins and Occludins.
Which bone cells are multinucleated cells that function to
dissolve bone by secreting acid and collagenases?
Which bone cells are multinucleated cells that function to

dissolve bone by secreting acid and collagenases?
Osteoclasts
[...]
How does the length of the H and I bands of the

sarcomere change in muscle contraction?
How does the length of the H and I bands of the

sarcomere change in muscle contraction?
Both decrease
[...]
Stratum Basale is the deepest layer of the epidermis and is [...] is the deepest layer of the epidermis and is the layer
the layer that contains stem cells.
that contains stem cells.
Californians Love Girls in String Bikinis
Which group of hand muscles can become atrophied in
ulnar nerve lesions?

ulnar nerve lesions?
Hypothenar muscles
[...]
Which layer of the epidermis is the stell cell layer?
Which layer of the epidermis is the stell cell layer?
Stratum Basale
[...]

Which type of Epithelial Cell Junction prevents the
paracellular movement of solutes?
Which type of Epithelial Cell Junction prevents the

paracellular movement of solutes?
Tight Junctions
[...]
What lesion is seen in Winged Scapula?
What lesion is seen in Winged Scapula?
Lesion of the Long Thoracic Nerve
[...]
What is the innervation of the Subscapular muscle?
What is the innervation of the Subscapular muscle?
Subscapular nerve
[...]
Which nerve is compressed at the wrist or hand in Guyon Which nerve is compressed at the wrist or hand in Guyon
Canal Syndrome?
Canal Syndrome?
Ulnar Nerve
[...]
What is the most common cause of injury to the

Musculocutaneous Nerve (C5-C7)?
What is the most common cause of injury to the

Musculocutaneous Nerve (C5-C7)?
Upper trunk compression
[...]
Presents with loss of forearm flexion and

supination and loss of sensation over the lateral
forearm.
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is a wrist injury that involves
[...] is a wrist injury that involves entrapment of the
entrapment of the Median Nerve in the carpal tunnel and Median Nerve in the carpal tunnel and hence presents with
hence presents with paresthesia, pain and numbness.
paresthesia, pain and numbness.
The loss of which adhesion protein in Adherens Junctions The loss of which adhesion protein in Adherens Junctions
promotes metastasis of epithelial neoplasms?
promotes metastasis of epithelial neoplasms?
E-cadherin
[...]
What adhesion protein is associated with Desmosomes?
What adhesion protein is associated with Desmosomes?
Desmoplakin
[...]
What are the nerve roots for the Musculocutaneous

Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Musculocutaneous

Nerve?
C5-C7
[...]

of brachial plexus)
What are the nerve roots for the Sciatic Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Sciatic Nerve?
L4-S3
[...]

Median Nerve (C5-T1)?

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome; Wrist laceration
[...]
Presents with Ape Hand or Benedict's Hand.

Presents with loss of wrist and lateral finger flexion,
thumb opposition.
Which meniscus in the knee is attached to a collateral
ligament?
Which meniscus in the knee is attached to a collateral

ligament?
Medial Meniscus (and MCL)
[...]

median nerve lesions?

median nerve lesions?
Thenar
[...]
Hence there will be unopposable thumb.

Adherens Junction is a type of epithelial cell junction that is [...] is a type of epithelial cell junction that is also known as
also known as Zonula Adherens.
Zonula Adherens.
Which mechanism of bone formation is associated with the Which mechanism of bone formation is associated with the
base of the skull?
base of the skull?
Endochondral ossification
[...]
Which cruciate ligament in the knee attaches to the

posterior aspect of the tibia?

posterior aspect of the tibia?
PCL
[...]
The naming refers to the site of tibial attachment.
What lesion is seen in Klumpke's Palsy?
What lesion is seen in Klumpke's Palsy?
Lesion of the lower trunk (C8-T1 roots)
[...]
What is the innervation of the Infraspinatus muscle?
What is the innervation of the Infraspinatus muscle?
Suprascapular nerve
[...]
Which knee injury is associated with pain on external

rotation?
Which knee injury is associated with pain on external

rotation?
Medial Meniscus injury
[...]
Which artery is associated with the Tibial Nerve at the

popliteal fossa?
Which artery is associated with the Tibial Nerve at the

popliteal fossa?
Popliteal artery
[...]
Opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi and flexor

digiti minimi brevis are the 3 hand muscles that make up
the hypothenar group.
[...], abductor digiti minimi and flexor digiti minimi brevis

are the 3 hand muscles that make up the hypothenar
group.
Opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi and flexor Opponens digiti minimi, [...] and flexor digiti minimi brevis
digiti minimi brevis are the 3 hand muscles that make up
are the 3 hand muscles that make up the hypothenar
group.
Opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi and flexor Opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi and [...] are
digiti minimi brevis are the 3 hand muscles that make up the 3 hand muscles that make up the hypothenar group.
Parathyroid Hormone is a hormone that causes

[...] is a hormone that causes anabolic effects at the bone
anabolic effects at the bone via osteoblasts and
via osteoblasts and osteoclasts when it is present in low,
osteoclasts when it is present in low, intermittent levels.
intermittent levels.
It builds bone directly via osteoblasts and indirectly
via osteoclasts.
Parathyroid Hormone is a hormone from the parathyroid
that causes catabolic effects when it is found in chronic,
high levels.
[...] is a hormone from the parathyroid that causes

catabolic effects when it is found in chronic, high
levels.
What is the most common cause of Erb Palsy in adults?
What is the most common cause of Erb Palsy in adults?
Trauma
[...]
The [...] is a voltage-gated receptor that is mechanically
coupled to the ryanodine receptor on the sarcoplasmic
reticulum of muscle.
The dihydropyridine receptor is a voltage-gated receptor

that is mechanically coupled to the ryanodine receptor on
the sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle.
Depolarization of the Dihydropyridine Receptor
induces a conformational change in the Ryanodine
Receptor and subsequent Ca2+ release from the
Tight Junctions (Zonula Occludens) are a type of epithelial
cell junction that prevent paracellular movement of solutes.
[...] are a type of epithelial cell junction that prevent

paracellular movement of solutes.
Which epithelial cell junction do autoantibodies in Bullous Which epithelial cell junction do autoantibodies in Bullous
Pemphigoid target?
Pemphigoid target?
Hemidesmosome
[...]
How does Nitric Oxide influence smooth muscle

relaxation?
How does Nitric Oxide influence smooth muscle

relaxation?
Increase
[...]
Unhappy Triad is a common sports injury that presents

due to lateral force applied to a planted leg.
[...] is a common sports injury that presents due to lateral

force applied to a planted leg.
Which 3 structures in the knee are commonly injured in

Unhappy Triad?
Which 3 structures in the knee are commonly injured in

Unhappy Triad?
ACL; MCL; Medial Meniscus
[...]
What lesion is seen in Benedict's Hand (Pope's Blessing)? What lesion is seen in Benedict's Hand (Pope's Blessing)?
Proximal median nerve lesion
[...]
What is the most common cause of injury to the Femoral What is the most common cause of injury to the Femoral
Nerve (L2-L4)?
Nerve (L2-L4)?
Pelvic fracture
[...]
Presents with loss of thigh flexion and leg extension.

What are the nerve roots for the Common Peroneal
Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Common Peroneal

Nerve?
L4-S2
[...]
Which rotator cuff muscle injury is commonly seen in

baseball pitchers?
Which rotator cuff muscle injury is commonly seen in

baseball pitchers?
Infraspinatus injury
[...]
[...], Abductor pollicis brevis and Flexor pollicis brevis are

the 3 hand muscles that make up the thenar group.
Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis and Flexor

pollicis brevis are the 3 hand muscles that make up the
thenar group.

thenar group.
Opponens pollicis, [...] and Flexor pollicis brevis are the 3

hand muscles that make up the thenar group.

thenar group.
Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis and [...] are

the 3 hand muscles that make up the thenar group.
Which receptor on the cell membrane of muscle cells is

mechanically coupled to the Ryanodine Receptor on the
sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Which receptor on the cell membrane of muscle cells is

mechanically coupled to the Ryanodine Receptor on the
sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Dihydropyridine Receptor
[...]
Depolarization of the Dihydropyridine Receptor

induces a conformational change in the Ryanodine
Receptor and subsequent release of Ca2+ from the
"OK Gesture" is a distortion of the hand that is due to a [...] is a distortion of the hand that is due to a proximal
proximal ulnar nerve lesion and presents with flexion ulnar nerve lesion and presents with flexion of the first
of the first 3 digits only upon making a fist.
3 digits only upon making a fist.
Strong creativity with the naming here. "OK

Gesture". Lol.
How does the length of the A band of the sarcomere
change in muscle contraction?
How does the length of the A band of the sarcomere

change in muscle contraction?
No change
[...]
"A-band is Always the same length."

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica is a skeletal complication of
chronic high PTH levels that results from the catabolic
effects the hormone yields.
[...] is a skeletal complication of chronic high PTH levels

that results from the catabolic effects the hormone yields.

Tibial Nerve (S4-L3)?

Tibial Nerve (S4-L3)?
Tarsal tunnel syndrome
[...]
Presents with loss of ability to curl toes and loss of

sensation on the sole of the foot.
Cervical Rib is a congenital anatomical anomaly that may
cause Thoracic Outlet Syndrome.
[...] is a congenital anatomical anomaly that may cause

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome.
What is the action of the Lumbrical muscles?
What is the action of the Lumbrical muscles?
Flexion of the MCP joint; Extension of the PIP and DIP

joints
[...]
Which nerve injury can cause Trendelenburg Sign/Gait?
Which nerve injury can cause Trendelenburg Sign/Gait?
Superior Gluteal Nerve
[...]
Presents with Trendelenburg Sign/Gait (pelvis tilts

because the weight-bearing leg cannot maintain
alignment of the pelvis through hip abduction.
The lesion is contralateral to the side of the hip that
drops and ipsilateral to the side of the weight
bearing limb.
Thoracic Outlet Syndrome is a brachial plexus lesion that [...] is a brachial plexus lesion that involves the atrophy of
involves the atrophy of intrinsic hand muscles along with intrinsic hand muscles along with ischemic, pain, edema of
ischemic, pain, edema of the hand due to vascular
the hand due to vascular compression.
compression.
Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as slow twitch Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as slow twitch
fibers?
fibers?
Type 1
[...]
What are the nerve roots for the Recurrent branch of the
Median Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Recurrent branch of the
Median Nerve?
C5-T1
[...]

of brachial plexus)
What is the most common cause of injury to the Obturator What is the most common cause of injury to the Obturator
Nerve (L2-L4)?
Nerve (L2-L4)?
Pelvic Surgery
[...]
Presents with loss of medial thigh sensation and loss

of adduction.
Which rotator cuff muscle laterally rotates the arm?
Which rotator cuff muscle laterally rotates the arm?
Infraspinatus
[...]
Hemidesmosome is an epithelial cell junction that connects

keratin in basal cells to the underlying basement
membrane.
[...] is an epithelial cell junction that connects keratin in

basal cells to the underlying basement membrane.
Gap Junctions are a type of epithelial cell junction that

[...] are a type of epithelial cell junction that involve
involve channel proteins called Connexons that allow for channel proteins called Connexons that allow for electrical
electrical and chemical communication between cells.
and chemical communication between cells.
Which mechanism of bone formation is associated with a

cartilaginous model of bone first made by chondrocytes?
Which mechanism of bone formation is associated with a

cartilaginous model of bone first made by chondrocytes?
[...]
The cartilaginous model of bone is first made by

chondrocytes.
Osteoclasts and osteoblasts then later replace it with
woven bone and then remodel it to lamellar bone.
Foot Drop is a leg injury due to injury to the common
peroneal nerve and presents with a "steppage gait."
[...] is a leg injury due to injury to the common peroneal

nerve and presents with a "steppage gait."
Stratum Spinosum is a layer of the epidermis that involves [...] is a layer of the epidermis that involves visible spines
visible spines between keratinocytes that are formed by between keratinocytes that are formed by desmosomes.
desmosomes.
Which mechanism of bone formation is associated with
direct formation of woven bone without cartilage?

direct formation of woven bone without cartilage?
Membranous ossification
[...]
Woven bone is formed directly without cartilage and is

later remodeled to lamellar bone.
Which nerve innervates the Supraspinatus?
Which nerve innervates the Supraspinatus?
Suprascapular N
[...]
What are the 4 rotator cuff muscles?
What are the 4 rotator cuff muscles?
Supraspinatus; Infraspinatus; Teres Minor; Subscapularis
[...]
"SItS"
Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as fast twitch Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as fast twitch
fibers?
fibers?
Type 2
[...]
Which gluteal muscles are innervated by the

Inferior Gluteal Nerve (L5-S2)?
Which gluteal muscles are innervated by the

Inferior Gluteal Nerve (L5-S2)?
Gluteus maximus
[...]
What are the nerve roots for the Femoral Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Femoral Nerve?
L2-L4
[...]
Which enzyme in smooth muscle cells functions to

dephosphorylate myosin?
Which enzyme in smooth muscle cells functions to

dephosphorylate myosin?
Myosin Light-chain Phosphatase (MLCP)
[...]

anterior aspect of the tibia?

anterior aspect of the tibia?
ACL
[...]
The naming refers to the site of tibial attachment.

What are the nerve roots for the Obturator Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Obturator Nerve?
L2-L4
[...]
Which bone cells differentiate from the mesenchymal

stem cell population in the periosteum?
Which bone cells differentiate from the mesenchymal

stem cell population in the periosteum?
Osteoblasts
[...]
What are the nerve roots for the Inferior Gluteal Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Inferior Gluteal Nerve?
L5-S2
[...]
What muscle deficit is seen in Winged Scapula?
What muscle deficit is seen in Winged Scapula?
Serratus Anterior
[...]
Which protein in smooth muscle binds to Ca2+ in order to Which protein in smooth muscle binds to Ca2+ in order to
activate Myosin Light-chain Kinase (MLCK)?
activate Myosin Light-chain Kinase (MLCK)?
Calmodulin
[...]
Which type of epithelial cell junction connects keratin in

basal cells to the underlying basement membrane?
Which type of epithelial cell junction connects keratin in

basal cells to the underlying basement membrane?
Hemidesmosomes
[...]
Which anatomical landmark is associated with the

Which anatomical landmark is associated with the
Pudendal Nerve for Pudendal Nerve Block in relieving the Pudendal Nerve for Pudendal Nerve Block in relieving the
pain of delivery?
pain of delivery?
Ischial spine
[...]
Which rotator cuff muscle medially rotates and adducts the Which rotator cuff muscle medially rotates and adducts the
arm?
arm?
Subscapularis
[...]
Stratum Corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis

and primarily full of keratin.
[...] is the outermost layer of the epidermis and primarily

full of keratin.

Which knee injury is associated with pain on internal
rotation?
[...]
Which knee injury is associated with pain on internal

rotation?
Lateral meniscus injury
Which spinal cord nerve roots primarily innervate the

Rotator Cuff Muscles?
Which spinal cord nerve roots primarily innervate the

Rotator Cuff Muscles?
C5-C6
[...]
Which meniscus in the knee is more commonly injured?
Which meniscus in the knee is more commonly injured?
Lateral meniscus
[...]
"In the case of an unhappy triad, the lateral is actually

more commonly involved than the medial (contrary to the
classic description of ACL, MCL, medial meniscus).
When it comes to isolated meniscus injury, though, the
medial is more commonly injured because it is less mobile
than the lateral meniscus."
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm initially before Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm initially before
the action of the deltoid takes over?
the action of the deltoid takes over?
Supraspinatus
[...]
What is the most common cause of proximal injury to the What is the most common cause of proximal injury to the
Supracondylar fracture of the humerus
[...]
Benedict's Hand (Pope's Blessing) is a distortion of the

hand that is due to proximal median nerve lesion and
presents with loss of lateral digit flexion when
prompted to make a fist.
[...] is a distortion of the hand that is due to proximal

median nerve lesion and presents with loss of lateral
digit flexion when prompted to make a fist.
What is the outermost layer of the epidermis?
What is the outermost layer of the epidermis?
Stratum Corneum
[...]

How does Estrogen influence apoptosis in Osteoblasts?
How does Estrogen influence apoptosis in Osteoblasts?
Inhibition
[...]
Hence, Estrogen favours bone formation.

Which type of muscle fibers are red fibers due to an
increased mitochondria and myoglobin
concentration?
Which type of muscle fibers are red fibers due to an

increased mitochondria and myoglobin
concentration?
Type 1
[...]
Tight Junction is a type of epithelial cell junction that is also [...] is a type of epithelial cell junction that is also known as
known as Zonula Occludens.
Zonula Occludens.
How does Estrogen influence apoptosis in Osteoclasts?
How does Estrogen influence apoptosis in Osteoclasts?
Activation
[...]
Hence, Estrogen inhibits bone resorption.

Hence, in estrogen deficiency (surgical or
menopausal), excess remodelling cycles carried out by
Osteoclasts leads to osteoporosis.
Which knee injury is associated with abnormal passive
adduction (varus stress)?

adduction (varus stress)?
LCL injury
[...]
Which bone cells function to build bone by secreting

collagen and catalyzing mineralization?
Which bone cells function to build bone by secreting

collagen and catalyzing mineralization?
Osteoblasts
[...]
Which nerve of the leg mediates eversion and

dorsiflexion of the foot?
Which nerve of the leg mediates eversion and

dorsiflexion of the foot?
Common peroneal nerve (L4-S2)
[...]
Which mechanism of bone formation is associated

with bones of the calvarium?

with bones of the calvarium?
[...]
Which nerve innervates the Hypothenar muscles?
Which nerve innervates the Hypothenar muscles?
Ulnar Nerve
[...]
What is the most common cause of injury to the Radial

Nerve (C5-T1)?
What is the most common cause of injury to the Radial

Nerve (C5-T1)?
Midshaft fracture of the humerus; Compression of the

axilla (crutches; Saturday Night Palsy)
[...]
Presents with wrist drop, decreased grip strength,

loss of sensation over posterior arm/forearm/dorsal
hand.
Which epithelial cell junction is targeted by the
autoantibodies in Pemphigus Vulgaris?
Which epithelial cell junction is targeted by the

autoantibodies in Pemphigus Vulgaris?
Desmosomes
[...]
Which type of muscle fibers typically yield hypertrophy as Which type of muscle fibers typically yield hypertrophy as
a result of weight training?
a result of weight training?
Type 2, fast-twitch, white muscle fibers
[...]
Which type of cytoskeletal filaments are Desmosomes

associated with?
Which type of cytoskeletal filaments are Desmosomes

associated with?
Keratin
[...]

bones of the axial and appendicular skeleton?

bones of the axial and appendicular skeleton?
[...]
Claw Hand (Ulnar Claw) is a distortion of the hand due to

[...] is a distortion of the hand due to a distal ulnar
a distal ulnar nerve lesion that presents with a loss of nerve lesion that presents with a loss of flexion of the
flexion of the medial digits and wrist at rest or while medial digits and wrist at rest or while extending the
extending the fingers.
fingers.
What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
Scaphoid
[...]
What type of epithelial cell junction is found just below

tight junctions and forms "belt-like" connections
between actin cytoskeletons of adjacent cells?
What type of epithelial cell junction is found just below

tight junctions and forms "belt-like" connections
between actin cytoskeletons of adjacent cells?
Adherens Junction (Zonula Adherens)
[...]
Erb Palsy is a Brachial Plexus lesion that involves lesion to [...] is a Brachial Plexus lesion that involves lesion to the
the upper trunk (C5-C6) and presents as an adducted,
upper trunk (C5-C6) and presents as an adducted,
medially rotated, extended and pronated ipsilateral upper medially rotated, extended and pronated ipsilateral upper
limb.
limb.
Due to deficit of the deltoid, supraspinatus,

infraspinatus and biceps brachii.
Which knee injury is associated with an Anterior Drawer
Sign?
Which knee injury is associated with an Anterior Drawer

Sign?
ACL injury
[...]
Winged Scapula is a brachial plexus lesion that involves [...] is a brachial plexus lesion that involves lesion to the
lesion to the Long Thoracic Nerve and presents with an
Long Thoracic Nerve and presents with an inability to
inability to anchor the scapula to the thoracic cage due to a anchor the scapula to the thoracic cage due to a Serratus
Serratus Anterior defect.
Anterior defect.
What lesion is seen in Ape Hand (Median Claw)?
What lesion is seen in Ape Hand (Median Claw)?
Distal median nerve lesion
[...]
Troponin C is a protein in muscle that binds to Ca2+ and [...] is a protein in muscle that binds to Ca2+ and causes a
causes a conformational change that moves tropomyosin conformational change that moves tropomyosin out of the
out of the myosin-binding site on actin filaments.
myosin-binding site on actin filaments.
Which type of cytoskeletal filaments are Adherens
Junctions (Zonula Adherens) associated with?
Which type of cytoskeletal filaments are Adherens

Junctions (Zonula Adherens) associated with?
Actin Filaments
[...]
What is the action of the palmar interosseous muscles?
What is the action of the palmar interosseous muscles?
Adduction of the fingers
[...]
"PAD" = Palmars ADduct the fingers.

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome is a brachial plexus lesion that [...] is a brachial plexus lesion that involves compression of
involves compression of the lower trunk and subclavian
the lower trunk and subclavian vessels.
vessels.
Which artery is associated with the Axillary nerve?
Which artery is associated with the Axillary nerve?
Posterior Circumflex Artery
[...]
Which gluteal muscles are innervated by the Superior

Gluteal Nerve (L4-S1)?
Which gluteal muscles are innervated by the Superior

Gluteus medius; Gluteus minimus
[...]
Type 1 muscle fibers are a type of muscle fiber that

perform sustained contraction due to an increased
concentration of mitochondria and myoglobin (i.e.
increased oxidative phosphorylation capacity).
[...] are a type of muscle fiber that perform sustained

contraction due to an increased concentration of
mitochondria and myoglobin (i.e. increased oxidative
phosphorylation capacity).
Hence these fibers are "red" fibers.

Which enzyme in smooth muscle cells does Nitric Oxide
activated to trigger muscle relaxation?
Which enzyme in smooth muscle cells does Nitric Oxide

activated to trigger muscle relaxation?
Guanylate cyclase
[...]
What are the nerve roots for the Median Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Median Nerve?
C5-T1
[...]

of brachial plexus)
What is the most common cause of proximal injury to the
Tibial Nerve (L4-S3)?
[...]

Tibial Nerve (L4-S3)?
Knee trauma; Baker cyst
Presents with loss of ability to curl toes and loss of
sensation on the sole of the foot.
Proximal lesion presents with foot eversion at
rest with loss of inversion and plantarflexion.
Claudins and Occludins are the 2 epithelial cell junction [...] and Occludins are the 2 epithelial cell junction proteins
proteins that make up tight junctions (Zonula Occludens).
that make up tight junctions (Zonula Occludens).
Claudins and Occludins are the 2 epithelial cell junction Claudins and [...] are the 2 epithelial cell junction proteins
proteins that make up tight junctions (Zonula Occludens).
that make up tight junctions (Zonula Occludens).
Scaphoid is a carpal bone that is the most commonly
fractured carpal bone and is prone to avascular necrosis
due to retrograde blood supply.
[...] is a carpal bone that is the most commonly fractured

carpal bone and is prone to avascular necrosis due to
retrograde blood supply.
Clawing is a distortion of the hand that is commonly seen [...] is a distortion of the hand that is commonly seen best
best with distal lesions of the median or ulnar nerves.
with distal lesions of the median or ulnar nerves.
The remaining extrinsic flexors of the digits
exaggerate the loss of the lumbricals. Hence the
fingers extend at the MCP but flex at the DIPs and
PIPs.
In proximal lesions, deficits present during voluntary
flexion of the digits.
Which type of muscle fiber is referred to as white fibers
due to their decreased mitochondria and myoglobin
concentration?
Which type of muscle fiber is referred to as white fibers

due to their decreased mitochondria and myoglobin
concentration?
Type 2
[...]
What is the most common cause of injury to the Inferior

What is the most common cause of injury to the Inferior

Posterior hip dislocation
[...]
Presents with difficulty climbing stairs and rising

from a seated position due to a loss of hip extension.
with facial bones?

with facial bones?
[...]
[...]

Fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus (i.e.
"funny bone")
Presents with Claw Hand upon digit extension.
Presents with radial deviation of wrist upon
extension.
Presents with loss of flexion of wrist and medial
fingers, abduction and adduction of fingers.
Presents with loss of sensation over the medial 1/2 of
fingers including hypothenar eminence.
What type of epithelial cell junction allow for electrical and What type of epithelial cell junction allow for electrical and
chemical communication between cells?
chemical communication between cells?
Gap Junctions via Connexons
[...]
The Rotator Cuff Muscles are a group of shoulder muscles

that form the rotator cuff.
The [...] are a group of shoulder muscles that form the

rotator cuff.
Which nerve innervates the Thenar muscles?
Which nerve innervates the Thenar muscles?
Median Nerve
[...]
Integrins are membrane adhesion proteins that maintain the

integrity of the basolateral membrane by binding to
collagen and laminin on the basement membrane.
[...] are membrane adhesion proteins that maintain the

integrity of the basolateral membrane by binding to
collagen and laminin on the basement membrane.
INTEGrins maintain the INTEGrity of the

basolateral membrane.
Which nerve of the leg inverts and plantarflexes the
foot?
Which nerve of the leg inverts and plantarflexes the

foot?
Tibial nerve
[...]
Desmosome (Macula Adherens) are a type of epithelial

cell junction that act as structural support via keratin
interactions.
[...] are a type of epithelial cell junction that act as

structural support via keratin interactions.
Foot Drop is a leg injury that results due to injury to the [...] is a leg injury that results due to injury to the common
common peroneal nerve and presents with
peroneal nerve and presents with
inversion/plantarflexion of the foot at rest and a loss inversion/plantarflexion of the foot at rest and a loss
of eversion and dorsiflexion.
of eversion and dorsiflexion.
What lesion is seen in Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?
What lesion is seen in Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?
Compression of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus and

subclavian vessels
[...]
Which artery is associated with the Tibial Nerve posterior Which artery is associated with the Tibial Nerve posterior
to the medial malleolus?
to the medial malleolus?
Posterior Tibial Artery
[...]
What is the most common cause of injury to the Axillary

Nerve (C5-C6)?
What is the most common cause of injury to the Axillary

Nerve (C5-C6)?
Fracture surgical neck of the humerus; Anterior dislocation

of the humerus
[...]
Presents with flattened deltoid, loss of arm abduction

at the shoulder (> 15 degrees), loss of sensation over
the deltoid muscle and lateral arm.
What are the nerve roots for the Radial Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Radial Nerve?
C5-T1
[...]

of brachial plexus)
Which anatomical surface landmark is associated with
Lumbar Puncture?
Which anatomical surface landmark is associated with

Lumbar Puncture?
The level of the Iliac Crest
[...]
Which bone cells differentiate from monocytes and

macrophages?
Which bone cells differentiate from monocytes and

macrophages?
Osteoclasts
[...]
This is very important to remember when it comes to

the treatment of Osteopetrosis (bone marrow
transplantation, as osteoclasts form from monocytes).
Guyon Canal Syndrome is a wrist injury that involves
compression of the Ulnar Nerve at the wrist of hand,
presenting with paresthesia, pain and numbness.
[...] is a wrist injury that involves compression of the Ulnar

Nerve at the wrist of hand, presenting with paresthesia,
pain and numbness.
What is the most common cause of injury to the Superior What is the most common cause of injury to the Superior
Posterior hip dislocation; Polio
[...]
Presents with Trendelenburg Sign/Gait (pelvis tilts

because the weight-bearing leg cannot maintain
alignment of the pelvis through hip abduction.
The lesion is contralateral to the side of the hip that
drops and ipsilateral to the side of the weight
bearing limb.
Which rotator cuff muscle both adducts and laterally
rotates the arm?
[...]
Which rotator cuff muscle both adducts and laterally

rotates the arm?
Teres Minor
What is the most common cause of Klumpke Palsy in

adults?
What is the most common cause of Klumpke Palsy in

adults?
Trauma (e.g. grabbing a tree branch while falling down a

tree)
[...]
What transmembrane channels are associate with Gap

Junctions?
What transmembrane channels are associate with Gap

Junctions?
Connexons
[...]
Which adhesion protein is associated with Adherens

Junctions (Zonula Adherens)?
Which adhesion protein is associated with Adherens

Junctions (Zonula Adherens)?
Cadherins
[...]
CADherins are Ca2+ dependent adhesion proteins

What are the nerve roots for the Superior Gluteal Nerve? What are the nerve roots for the Superior Gluteal Nerve?
L4-S1
[...]
Which anatomical surface landmark is associated with the Which anatomical surface landmark is associated with the
Appendix?
Appendix?
McBurney's Point (2/3 of the distance between the
umbilicus and ASIS)
[...]
What is the action of the dorsal interosseous muscles?
What is the action of the dorsal interosseous muscles?
Finger abduction
[...]
"DAB" = Dorsals ABduct the fingers

What are the nerve roots for the Axillary Nerve?
What are the nerve roots for the Axillary Nerve?
C5-C6
[...]

of brachial plexus)
What is the most common cause of Klumpke's Palsy in
infants?
What is the most common cause of Klumpke's Palsy in

infants?
Upward force on the arm during delivery
[...]

abduction (valgus stress)?

abduction (valgus stress)?
MCL injury
[...]
What is the most common cause of injury to the Common What is the most common cause of injury to the Common
Peroneal Nerve (L4-S2)?
Peroneal Nerve (L4-S2)?
Trauma/compression to the lateral leg; Fibular neck
fracture
[...]
Presents as Foot Drop (inverted and plantarflexed

foot at rest; loss of eversion and dorsiflexion;
Steppage gait; loss of sensation on the dorsum of the
foot).
Which mechanism of bone formation is associated with the Which mechanism of bone formation is associated with the
replacement of cartilaginous bone with woven bone by
replacement of cartilaginous bone with woven bone by
osteoclasts and osteoblasts?
osteoclasts and osteoblasts?
[...]
The cartilaginous model of bone is first made by

chondrocytes.
Osteoclasts and osteoblasts then later replace it with
woven bone and then remodel it to lamellar bone.
Ape Hand (Median Claw) is a distortion of the hand that
is due to a distal median nerve lesion and presents with
loss of thumb opposition and medial digit flexion at
rest or when extending the fingers.
[...] is a distortion of the hand that is due to a distal

median nerve lesion and presents with loss of thumb
opposition and medial digit flexion at rest or when
extending the fingers.
How does an increase in Ca2+ level influence smooth

muscle contraction?
How does an increase in Ca2+ level influence smooth

muscle contraction?
Increase
[...]
Which nerve injury causes Foot Drop?
Which nerve injury causes Foot Drop?
Common peroneal nerve
[...]
Unhappy Triad is a common sports injury that classically

[...] is a common sports injury that classically involves
involves damage to the ACL, MCL and Medial Meniscus damage to the ACL, MCL and Medial Meniscus as it is
as it is attached to the MCL.
attached to the MCL.
Which type of Ca2+ channels on smooth muscle govern
smooth muscle contraction?
Which type of Ca2+ channels on smooth muscle govern

smooth muscle contraction?
L-type voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
[...]
Which knee injury is associated with a Posterior Drawer

Sign?
[...]
Which knee injury is associated with a Posterior Drawer

Sign?
PCL injury
What is the most common cause of injury to the Recurrent What is the most common cause of injury to the Recurrent
Branch of the Median Nerve (C5-T1)?
Branch of the Median Nerve (C5-T1)?
Superficial laceration of the palm
[...]
Presents with Ape Hand

Presents with loss of thenar muscle
groups (opposition, abduction, flexion of the thumb).
No loss of sensation.
Dislocation of which carpal bone may cause Acute Carpal Dislocation of which carpal bone may cause Acute Carpal
Tunnel Syndrome?
Tunnel Syndrome?
Lunate
[...]
Which 2 embryonic septums fuse to form the (cardiac)

Atrial Septum?
Which 2 embryonic septums fuse to form the (cardiac)

Atrial Septum?
Septum Primum and Septum Secundum
[...]
Preload is a cardiac output variable that is approximated

by ventricular EDV.
[...] is a cardiac output variable that is approximated by

ventricular EDV.
Hence it is dependent on venous tone and circulating

blood volume.
Prostaglandin E1/E2 is a type of Prostaglandin that keeps a [...] is a type of Prostaglandin that keeps a Patent Ductus
Arteriosus (PDA) open.
Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) open.
Which Starling forces work to move fluid into the
capillary?
Which Starling forces work to move fluid into the

capillary?
Pi (interstitial hydrostatic pressure); c (capillary colloid

osmotic pressure)
[...]
Which major form of hemoglobin has higher affinity for

oxygen?
Which major form of hemoglobin has higher affinity for

oxygen?
HbF
[...]
Which bedside maneuver decreases the intensity of most Which bedside maneuver decreases the intensity of most
murmurs, including aortic stenosis?
murmurs, including aortic stenosis?
Valsalva; Standing (decreased venous return)
[...]
Which pathological heart sound can occur due to an

increase in cardiac afterload?
Which pathological heart sound can occur due to an

increase in cardiac afterload?
S4
[...]
Which organ has the largest blood flow?
Which organ has the largest blood flow?
Lungs
[...]
Receives 100% of cardiac output.

How does ACh change the rate of diastolic depolarization How does ACh change the rate of diastolic depolarization
via the If current in pacemaker cells?
via the If current in pacemaker cells?
Decreases
[...]
Hence it slows HR.

Which form of hemoglobin involves 22 globin chains?
Which form of hemoglobin involves 22 globin chains?
Fetal Hemoglobin
[...]
Which embryonic structure develop into the coronary

sinus?
Which embryonic structure develop into the coronary

sinus?
Left Horn of the Sinus Venosus
[...]
How do Ca2+ channel blockers change cardiac

contractility?
How do Ca2+ channel blockers change cardiac

contractility?
Decrease
[...]
What is the treatment for Torsades de Pointes?
What is the treatment for Torsades de Pointes?
Magnesium Sulfate
[...]
In the pacemaker action potential, which ion is responsible In the pacemaker action potential, which ion is responsible
for the upstroke/depolarization?
for the upstroke/depolarization?
Ca2+ influx via voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
[...]
Remember, because of the less negative resting

potential of pacemaker cells, fast voltage-gated
Na+ channels are permanently inactivated. Hence,
there is a slow conduction velocity used by the AV
node to prolong transmission from the atria to the
ventricles.
How does cardiac contractility change in Hypercapnea?
How does cardiac contractility change in Hypercapnea?
Decrease
[...]
Hypercapnea can cause acidosis that then can

exacerbate this decrease in cardiac output.
What structure arises from the embryonic cardiovascular
structure called the Primitive Atria?

structure called the Primitive Atria?
Trabeculated part of the left and right atria
[...]
Which type of hemoglobin is predominant at birth?
Which type of hemoglobin is predominant at birth?
HbF (alpha2-gamma2)
[...]
How long is the normal atrioventricular delay at the AV

node?
How long is the normal atrioventricular delay at the AV

node?
100 msec
[...]
Allows for ventricular filling.

Which embryonic structure develop into the trabeculated
part of the left and right ventricles?

part of the left and right ventricles?
Primitive ventricles
[...]
How does hypoxia affect pulmonary vasculature?
How does hypoxia affect pulmonary vasculature?
Causes vasoconstriction
[...]
This is something unique to the lungs where hypoxia

causes vasoconstrion such that only well-ventilated
areas are perfused. In all other tissues, hypoxia
causes vasodilation.
Where is B-type (Brain) Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
released from?
Where is B-type (Brain) Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)

released from?
Ventricular myocytes
[...]
What is the equation for Net Filtration Pressure at a

capillary bed?
What is the equation for Net Filtration Pressure at a

capillary bed?
Pnet = [(Pc - Pi) - (c - i)]
[...]
What is the normal Left Ventricular pressure?
What is the normal Left Ventricular pressure?
130/10 mmHg
[...]
What is the most frequent valvular lesion?
What is the most frequent valvular lesion?
Mitral valve prolapse (FA14), AR (RR path), MR

(UpToDate)
[...]
Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach) AV block is a type of 2nd

[...] is a type of 2nd degree AV block that involves
degree AV block that involves progressive lengthening progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a
of the PR interval until a dropped heartbeat (i.e. until dropped heartbeat (i.e. until a P wave is not followed by
a P wave is not followed by a QRS complex).
a QRS complex).
Usually asymptomatic.
Which electrical cardiac event does the T-wave signify?
Which electrical cardiac event does the T-wave signify?
Ventricular repolarization
[...]
T-wave inversion may be indicative of MI.

How do vasodilators influence afterload?
How do vasodilators influence afterload?
Decrease
[...]
This is because afterload is approximated by MAP.

Dextrocardia is a congenital cardiac disorder that is seen
[...] is a congenital cardiac disorder that is seen in
in Kartagener Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia) due Kartagener Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia) due to
to a defect in left-to-right dynein movement.
a defect in left-to-right dynein movement.
Left-to-right dynein movement is vital in establishing
normal L/R asymmetry.
Which pathological heart sound is associated with high
atrial pressure?
Which pathological heart sound is associated with high

atrial pressure?
S4
[...]
The left atrium must push against the stiff LV wall.

What is the function of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)? What is the function of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)?
Vasodilation; Decreased Na+ reabsorption at the
collecting duct; Constriction of efferent renal arterioles and
dilation of afferent arterioles via cGMP, thereby promoting
diuresis
[...]
Mitral stenosis is a diastolic murmur that often occurs

secondary to Rheumatic Fever.
[...] is a diastolic murmur that often occurs secondary to

Rheumatic Fever.
Which cardiac disorder is associated with fixed

splitting of the S2 heart sound?

Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)
[...]
There is a left to right shunt through the ASD which

results in increased RA and RV volumes. As a result,
there is increased flow through the pulmonic
valve such that, regardless of breath, the pulmonic
valve closes later every time.
Which type of cardiovascular chemoreceptors do
not respond to PO2?
Which type of cardiovascular chemoreceptors do

not respond to PO2?
Central
[...]
They respond to changes in pH and PCO2 in the brain

interstitial fluid which are in turn affected by arterial
CO2.
What is the first organ/structure to perform fetal

erythropoiesis?
What is the first organ/structure to perform fetal

erythropoiesis?
Yolk Sac
[...]
Aorticopulmonary Septum is an embryonic cardiac septum [...] is an embryonic cardiac septum that rotates and fuses
that rotates and fuses with the muscular ventricular septum, with the muscular ventricular septum, thereby forming the
thereby forming the membranous interventricular septum.
membranous interventricular septum.
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) is a congenital heart
defect that commonly presents in the membranous
ventricular septum.
[...] is a congenital heart defect that commonly presents in

the membranous ventricular septum.
Mitral stenosis is a diastolic murmur that presents as a [...] is a diastolic murmur that presents as a delayed late
delayed late diastolic rumble following an opening
diastolic rumble following an opening snap due to
snap due to an abrupt halt in leaflet motion in diastole after an abrupt halt in leaflet motion in diastole after rapid
rapid opening due to fusion at the leaflet tips.
opening due to fusion at the leaflet tips.
Where on the body is the continuous machine-like murmur Where on the body is the continuous machine-like murmur
of PDA best heard?
of PDA best heard?
Left infraclavicular area
[...]
Which coronary artery supplies the Right Ventricle?
Which coronary artery supplies the Right Ventricle?
Acute Marginal Artery (a branch of the Right Coronary

Artery)
[...]
Cushing reaction is a cardiovascular phenomenon due to

increased intracranial pressure that presents with a
triad of hypertension, bradycardia, and respiratory
depression.
[...] is a cardiovascular phenomenon due to increased

intracranial pressure that presents with a triad of
hypertension, bradycardia, and respiratory
depression.
How does cardiac contractility change when there is an

increase in intracellular Ca?
How does cardiac contractility change when there is an

increase in intracellular Ca?
Increased
[...]
Which Starling forces work to move fluid out of the

capillary?
Which Starling forces work to move fluid out of the

capillary?
Pc (capillary hydrostatic pressure); i (interstitial colloid

osmotic pressure)
[...]
i normally equals 0.
Which Starling force changes in lymphatic blockage to
cause edema?
Which Starling force changes in lymphatic blockage to

cause edema?
Increased i
[...]
Which level of oxygen stimulates peripheral cardiovascular Which level of oxygen stimulates peripheral cardiovascular
chemoreceptors?
chemoreceptors?
Decreased PO2 < 60 mmHg
[...]
How does cardiac contractility change with 1-blockade? How does cardiac contractility change with 1-blockade?
Decrease; due to decreased cAMP
[...]
In which phase of the cardiac cycle does coronary blood In which phase of the cardiac cycle does coronary blood
flow peak?
flow peak?
Diastole
[...]
How does a decrease in TPR affect venous return (and

hence EDV/preload)?
How does a decrease in TPR affect venous return (and

hence EDV/preload)?
Increase
[...]
Afterload also clearly decreases.

How does cardiac Ejection Fraction change in
diastolic heart failure?

diastolic heart failure?
Normal; no change
[...]
At which valvulvar area is Tricuspid Stenosis best heard? At which valvulvar area is Tricuspid Stenosis best heard?
Tricuspid
[...]
What is the equation for Fick Principle of cardiac output? What is the equation for Fick Principle of cardiac output?
CO = (rate of O2 consumption)/(arterial O2 content venous O2 content)
[...]
How does an increase in TPR affect venous return (and

hence EDV/preload)?
How does an increase in TPR affect venous return (and

hence EDV/preload)?
Decrease
[...]
It also obviously increases afterload.

Which globin chains comprise Fetal Hemoglobin (HbF)?
Which globin chains comprise Fetal Hemoglobin (HbF)?
22
[...]
Which type of diuretics are known to prolong the QT

interval?
Which type of diuretics are known to prolong the QT

interval?
Thiazides
[...]
How does an increase in cardiac preload affect stroke

volume (SV)?
How does an increase in cardiac preload affect stroke

volume (SV)?
Increase
[...]
What is the definitive treatment for Atrial Flutter?
What is the definitive treatment for Atrial Flutter?
Catheter ablation
[...]
What is the normal Right Atrial pressure?
What is the normal Right Atrial pressure?
< 5 mmHg
[...]

structure called Bulbus Cordis?

structure called Bulbus Cordis?
Smooth parts of the left and right ventricle outflow tract
[...]
What is the post-natal derivative of the Ductus Venosus? What is the post-natal derivative of the Ductus Venosus?
Ligamentum venosum
[...]
Which pathological heart sound is associated with an

Which pathological heart sound is associated with an
increase in filling pressure or with dilated ventricles? increase in filling pressure or with dilated ventricles?
S3
[...]
Which pathological heart sound is associated with

ventricular hypertrophy?
Which pathological heart sound is associated with

ventricular hypertrophy?
S4
[...]
Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP) is a systolic murmur that

presents as a late systolic crescendo murmur with a
midsystolic click due to sudden tensing of the chordae
tendinae.
[...] is a systolic murmur that presents as a late systolic

crescendo murmur with a midsystolic click due to
sudden tensing of the chordae tendinae.
When does the liver perform fetal erythropoiesis?
When does the liver perform fetal erythropoiesis?
Week 6 of development to birth
[...]
"Young Liver Synthesizes Blood" = Yolk

Sac, Liver, Spleen, Bone Marrow
How does blood viscosity change in anaemia?
How does blood viscosity change in anaemia?
Decrease
[...]
Viscosity is dependent on anaemia.
Which wave in the Jugular Venous Pulse (JVP) signifies

atrial contraction?
Which wave in the Jugular Venous Pulse (JVP) signifies

atrial contraction?
a wave
[...]
When does the Bone Marrow perform fetal

erythropoiesis?
When does the Bone Marrow perform fetal

erythropoiesis?
Week 18 of development to birth (and eventually until

death, lol)
[...]

The funny current (If) is an ion current in pacemaker cells The [...] is an ion current in pacemaker cells that causes
spontaneous depolarization of the membrane potential
that causes spontaneous depolarization of the
+
as Na+ conductance slowly increases.
membrane potential as Na conductance slowly increases.
This is what accounts for the automaticity of SA and
AV nodes.
The slope of this current (phase 4) determines the HR.
Which wave in the JVP signifies right ventricular
Which wave in the JVP signifies right ventricular
contraction against a closed tricuspid valve that bulges into contraction against a closed tricuspid valve that bulges into
the right atrium?
the right atrium?
c wave
[...]
c wave = contraction
What type of shunt is seen through a Ventricular Septal
Defect (VSD)?
What type of shunt is seen through a Ventricular Septal

Defect (VSD)?
Left to Right
[...]
Therefore the baby will be acyanotic.

Which coronary artery is most commonly occluded?
Which coronary artery is most commonly occluded?
Left Anterior Descending artery (LAD) or LCX
[...]
Torsades de Pointes is an electro-cardiovascular disorder [...] is an electro-cardiovascular disorder characterized by

characterized by polymorphic ventricular
polymorphic ventricular tachycardia and a shifting
tachycardia and a shifting sinusoidal waveform on
sinusoidal waveform on ECG.
ECG.
Can progress to V-fib.

Caused by drugs, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia and
other abnormalities.
If cardiac output (CO) is 5 L/min, what is venous return?
[...]
If cardiac output (CO) is 5 L/min, what is venous return?

5 L/min
Don't fall for this shiet on the step, bruv. Venous
return = cardiac ouput (in healthy individuals).
"What goes in must come out!" - Dr. Hashim Shams
What is the equation for Cardiac Output?
What is the equation for Cardiac Output?
CO = SV x HR
[...]
"Source: Robbins basic pathology 9th ed. p816
Which cerebral blood vessels are commonly affected by

thrombotic stroke?
What is the equation for Pulse Pressure?
What is the equation for Pulse Pressure?
Pulse Pressure = Systolic Pressure - Diastolic Pressure
[...]
Pulse pressure is proportional to SV and inversely

proportional to arterial compliance.
Which coronary artery does the Posterior
Descending/Interventricular Artery (PDA) arise from in a Descending/Interventricular Artery (PDA) arise from in a
left-dominant circulation?
left-dominant circulation?
Left Circumflex Coronary Artery (LCX)
[...]
Left dominant circulation is seen in 8% of people.

How does an increase in cardiac contractility affect
stroke volume (SV)?
How does an increase in cardiac contractility affect

stroke volume (SV)?
Increase
[...]
Which wave in the JVP is indicative of increased right

atrial pressure due to filling against a closed
tricuspid valve?
Which wave in the JVP is indicative of increased right

atrial pressure due to filling against a closed
tricuspid valve?
v wave
[...]
What is the first functional organ to form in vertebrate

embryos?
What is the first functional organ to form in vertebrate

embryos?
The Heart <3
[...]
Which coronary artery supplies the anterior 2/3 of the

interventricular septum, anterior papillary
muscle and anterior surface of the left ventricle?
Which coronary artery supplies the anterior 2/3 of the

interventricular septum, anterior papillary
muscle and anterior surface of the left ventricle?
Left Anterior Descending Artery (LAD)
[...]
How does a decrease in cardiac afterload affect stroke

volume (SV)?
How does a decrease in cardiac afterload affect stroke

volume (SV)?
Increase
[...]
What is the O2 saturation of blood in the umbilical

vein of the fetus?

vein of the fetus?
80%; it holds oxygenated blood coming in from the

mother
[...]
Which class of antibiotics can prolong the QT interval?
Which class of antibiotics can prolong the QT interval?
Macrolides
[...]
At which point along the pressure-volume loop does the

mitral valve open?

mitral valve open?
[...]

structure called the Primitive Pulmonary Vein?

structure called the Primitive Pulmonary Vein?
Smooth part of the left atrium
[...]
How does a carotid massage influence HR?
How does a carotid massage influence HR?
Decrease
[...]
What is the normal Right Ventricular pressure?
What is the normal Right Ventricular pressure?
25/5 mmHg
[...]
Fossa Ovalis is the structural remnant of the Foramen

Ovale after it has closed and fused.
[...] is the structural remnant of the Foramen Ovale after it

has closed and fused.
Remember, when the left side of the heart becomes the

high pressure circuit after birth (due to respiration),
the foramen ovale shuts as left atrial pressure greatly
exceeds right atrial pressure.
Which nerve can the Left Atrium compress to cause
hoarseness if it is enlarged?
Which nerve can the Left Atrium compress to cause

hoarseness if it is enlarged?
Left Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve (a branch of CN X,

Vagus)
[...]
How does cardiac contractility change in dilated

cardiomyopathy?
How does cardiac contractility change in dilated

cardiomyopathy?
Decrease
[...]
How do beta-blockers change cardiac contractility?
How do beta-blockers change cardiac contractility?
Decrease
[...]
Which bedside maneuver can increase the intensity of

Mitral Regurgitation, Aortic Regurgitation and VSD
murmurs?

Mitral Regurgitation, Aortic Regurgitation and VSD
murmurs?
Hand grip (as it increases systemic vascular resistance)
[...]
Prolongation of which ECG interval can predispose to

Torsades de Pointes?
Prolongation of which ECG interval can predispose to

Torsades de Pointes?
QT
[...]
Which Starling force changes in heart failure to cause

edema?
Which Starling force changes in heart failure to cause

edema?
Increased Pc
[...]
Which valves are associated with the S2 heart sound?
Aortic; Pulmonary
[...]

Descending/Interventricular Artery (PDA) arise from in
codominant circulation?

Descending/Interventricular Artery (PDA) arise from in
codominant circulation?
Both the Left Cirumflex Coronary Artery (LCX) and Right

Coronary Artery (RCA)
[...]
Codominant circulation is seen in 7% of people

Enlargement of which chamber of the heart can cause
dysphagia due to esophageal compression?

dysphagia due to esophageal compression?
Left Atrium
[...]
During which week of development does the embryonic

heart start beating spontaneously?
During which week of development does the embryonic

heart start beating spontaneously?
Week 4
[...]

Descending/Interventricular Artery (PDA) arise from in a Descending/Interventricular Artery (PDA) arise from in a
right-dominant circulation?
right-dominant circulation?
Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
[...]
Right-dominant circulation is found in 85% of people

Which pathological heart sound occurs in late diastole as Which pathological heart sound occurs in late diastole as
an "atrial kick"?
an "atrial kick"?
S4
[...]
In the pacemaker potential, which ions are responsible for In the pacemaker potential, which ions are responsible for
the slow diastolic depolarization to threshold?
the slow diastolic depolarization to threshold?
Slow Na+ movement via the If achannels (funny current)
[...]
Ebstein Anomaly is a congenital heart defect that involves [...] is a congenital heart defect that involves displacement
displacement of a tricuspid valve leaflet towards the apex of a tricuspid valve leaflet towards the apex of the right
of the right ventricle.
ventricle.
Which bedside maneuver can decrease the intensity of
Aortic Stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
murmurs?
Which bedside maneuver can decrease the intensity of

Aortic Stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
murmurs?
Hand Grip (as it increases systemic vascular resistance)
[...]
Which fetal shunt allows for highly oxygenated blood in the Which fetal shunt allows for highly oxygenated blood in the
Right Atrium to enter the aorta and arterial system?
Right Atrium to enter the aorta and arterial system?
Foramen Ovale
[...]
B-type (Brain) Natriuretic Peptide is a hormone released [...] is a hormone released by ventricular myocytes in
by ventricular myocytes in response to increased response to increased tension that acts similarly to ANP.
tension that acts similarly to ANP.
Isovolumetric contraction is a phase of the cardiac cycle
described as the period between the mitral valve
closing and aortic valve opening.
[...] is a phase of the cardiac cycle described as the

period between the mitral valve closing and aortic
valve opening.
Which septum forms first in embryonic septation of the

cardiac ventricles?
Which septum forms first in embryonic septation of the

cardiac ventricles?
Muscular Ventricular Septum
[...]
How does the force of cardiac contraction change with an How does the force of cardiac contraction change with an
increase in preload (ventricular EDV)?
increase in preload (ventricular EDV)?
Increase (when healthy)
[...]
This is referred to as Starling's Law. With a higher

EDV, the ventricle will contract more forcefully.
This is attributed to the nature of cardiac muscle
fibers. With increased EDV (i.e. more ventricular
filling), the muscle fibers stretch into a more ideal
length for contraction. Essentially, as these fibers
stretch, more actin-myosin cross bridges are formed
and the contraction is more forceful.
hoarseness due to compression of the left recurrent
laryngeal nerve (a branch of CN X)?

hoarseness due to compression of the left recurrent
laryngeal nerve (a branch of CN X)?
Left Atrium
[...]
Atrial Fibrillation is a pathological ECG tracing that

[...] is a pathological ECG tracing that involves a
involves a chaotic and erratic bassline with no discrete chaotic and erratic bassline with no discrete P waves
P waves between irregularly spaced QRS complexes.
between irregularly spaced QRS complexes.
Involves irregularly irregular rhythm.

Can result in atrial stasis and lead to thromboembolic
stroke.
Treatment includes rate control, anticoagulation and
possible pharmacological/electrical cardioversion.
What is the normal pressure in the pulmonary trunk?
What is the normal pressure in the pulmonary trunk?
25/10 mmHg
[...]
Rapid Ventricular Filling is a phase of the cardiac cycle

that is described as the period just after mitral valve
opening.
[...] is a phase of the cardiac cycle that is described as the

period just after mitral valve opening.
Which fetal shunt bypasses hepatic circulation to ensure Which fetal shunt bypasses hepatic circulation to ensure
that incoming oxygenated blood from the Umbilical Vein is that incoming oxygenated blood from the Umbilical Vein is
not depleted?
not depleted?
Ductus Venosus
[...]
Which embryonic structures develop into the Superior

Vena Cava?
Which embryonic structures develop into the Superior

Vena Cava?
Right Common Cardinal Vein; Right Anterior Cardinal

Vein
[...]
In the pacemaker potential, which ion is reponsible for the In the pacemaker potential, which ion is reponsible for the
repolarization of the membrane?
repolarization of the membrane?
K+ efflux
[...]
Which embryonic structure develop into the Ascending

Aorta and Pulmonary Trunk?
Which embryonic structure develop into the Ascending

Aorta and Pulmonary Trunk?
Truncus Arteriosus (TA)
[...]
The Truncus Arteriosus rotates as it forms.

Neural crest and endocardial cells migrate to form the
truncal and bulbar ridges that then spiral and fuse to
form the aorticopulmonary septum, thereby separating
the Truncus Arteriosus into the ascending aorta and
pulmonary trunk.
Nesiritide is a recombinant form of B-type (brain)
Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) that can be used to treat
heart failure.
[...] is a recombinant form of B-type (brain) Natriuretic

Peptide (BNP) that can be used to treat heart failure.
How does a decrease in pH influence peripheral

cardiovascular chemoreceptor activity?
How does a decrease in pH influence peripheral

Activation
[...]
Which type of hemoglobin conists of 22 globin chains?
Which type of hemoglobin conists of 22 globin chains?
Adult Hemoglobin (HbA)
[...]
Which embryonic structure develop into the smooth part

of the right atrium?

of the right atrium?
Right Horn of the sinus venosus
[...]
How does Adenosine change the rate of diastolic

depolarization via the If current in pacemaker cells?
How does Adenosine change the rate of diastolic

Decreases
[...]
Hence it decreases HR.

What is the post-natal derivative of the Notochord?
What is the post-natal derivative of the Notochord?
Nucleus Pulposus of intervertebral discs
[...]
At which valvulvar area are pansystolic

murmurs (Tricuspid regurgitation; VSD) best heard?
At which valvulvar area are pansystolic

murmurs (Tricuspid regurgitation; VSD) best heard?
Tricuspid
[...]
Which cardiac disorder is associated with a continuous,

machine-like murmur?
Which cardiac disorder is associated with a continuous,

machine-like murmur?
Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)
[...]

structure called the Right Common Cardinal Vein and
Right Anterior Cardinal Vein?

structure called the Right Common Cardinal Vein and
Right Anterior Cardinal Vein?
Superior Vena Cava
[...]
Fetal Hemoglobin (HbF) is a major form of hemoglobin [...] is a major form of hemoglobin that has a higher affinity
that has a higher affinity for oxygen than Adult Hemoglobin for oxygen than Adult Hemoglobin (HbA) due to less avid
(HbA) due to less avid binding of 2,3-BPG.
binding of 2,3-BPG.
As a result, HbF can extract oxygen at the placenta
from the mother's adult hemoglobin (HbA).
What is the post-natal derivative of the Umbilical Vein?
What is the post-natal derivative of the Umbilical Vein?
Ligamentum teres hepatis; contained in the falciform

ligament
[...]
Which electrical cardiac event does the QT interval

signify?
[...]
Which electrical cardiac event does the QT interval

signify?
Ventricular contraction

part of the left and right atria?

part of the left and right atria?
Primitive Atria
[...]
Which type of blood vessels account for most of the TPR? Which type of blood vessels account for most of the TPR?
Arterioles
[...]
Which foramen develops first in embryonic septation of

the cardiac atria?
Which foramen develops first in embryonic septation of

the cardiac atria?
Foramen secundum
[...]
Foramen primum is already present before the

septation begins.
Mitral valve prolapse is a valvular disorder with a systolic [...] is a valvular disorder with a systolic murmur that can
murmur that can predispose to infective endocarditis.
predispose to infective endocarditis.
Ligamentum Arteriosum is the structural remnant of the
Ductus Arteriosus after it has closed.
[...] is the structural remnant of the Ductus Arteriosus after

it has closed.
What is the equation for the Resistance of a vessel?
What is the equation for the Resistance of a vessel?

[...]
Infarct of which coronary artery may result in nodal

dysfunction (involving bradycardia or heart block)?
Infarct of which coronary artery may result in nodal

dysfunction (involving bradycardia or heart block)?
Right Coronary Artery
[...]
At which valvular area is an Atrial Septal Defect murmur

best heard?
At which valvular area is an Atrial Septal Defect murmur

best heard?
Tricuspid
[...]
Ductus Venosus is a fetal shunt that allows for incoming [...] is a fetal shunt that allows for incoming blood in the
blood in the Umbilical Vein to bypass hepatic circulation Umbilical Vein to bypass hepatic circulation and enter the
and enter the IVC.
IVC.
When is normal, physiological splitting of S2 heart
sound seen?
[...]
When is normal, physiological splitting of S2 heart

sound seen?
Inspiration
Inspiration = decreased intrathoracic pressure =

increased venous return to the RV = increased RV
stroke volume = increased RV ejection time = delayed
closure of the pulmonic valve.
Inspiration also causes a decrease in pulmonary
impedance (i.e. increased capacity of the pulmonary
circulation), thereby contributing to delayed closure of
the pulmonic valve.
Which portion of the JVP signifies the movement of blood Which portion of the JVP signifies the movement of blood
from the RA to the RV?
from the RA to the RV?
y descent
[...]

right heart sounds?

right heart sounds?
Inspiration
[...]
Which nucleus in the medulla receives signals from aortic

arch baro-/chemoreceptors?
Which nucleus in the medulla receives signals from aortic

arch baro-/chemoreceptors?
Solitary nucleus
[...]
Responds only to increases in BP.

Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure (PCWP) is a wedge [...] is a wedge pressure measured with a pulmonary
pressure measured with a pulmonary artery
artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter) that is used as an
catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter) that is used as an
approximation of left atrial pressure.
approximation of left atrial pressure.
Normal PCWP < 12 mmHg.
Which bedside maneuver can decrease the murmur
intensity in MVP and yield an earlier onset of the
click/murmur?
Which bedside maneuver can decrease the murmur

intensity in MVP and yield an earlier onset of the
click/murmur?
Valsalva; Standing
[...]
Hand grip and rapid squatting acheive the opposite

when it comes to MVP.
How does blood viscosity change in Polycythemia?
How does blood viscosity change in Polycythemia?
Increase
[...]
Viscosity is dependent on hematocrit.

At which valvular area is Aortic Stenosis best heard?
At which valvular area is Aortic Stenosis best heard?
Aortic
[...]
What is the post-natal remnant of the Urachus?
What is the post-natal remnant of the Urachus?
Median umbilical ligament
[...]
The urachus is the part of the allantoic duct between

the bladder and umbilicus
Aortic Stenosis murmurs?

Aortic Stenosis murmurs?
Rapid squatting
[...]
Rapid squatting increases venous return, increases

preload, and increases afterload with prolonged
squatting.
Which electrical cardiac event does the QRS complex
signify?
Which electrical cardiac event does the QRS complex

signify?
Ventricular depolarization
[...]
Normally < 120 msec

Which coronary artery supplies the posterior 1/3 of the
interventricular septum and posterior walls of the
ventricles?
Which coronary artery supplies the posterior 1/3 of the

interventricular septum and posterior walls of the
ventricles?
Posterior Descending/Interventricular Artery (PDA)
[...]
How long after birth does the expression of -globin

exceed the expression of -globin?
How long after birth does the expression of -globin

exceed the expression of -globin?
~6 months
[...]
This is why -Thalassemia is asymptomatic for the

first 6 months of life (and why HbF is protective
during that time).
Which infectious disease is known to be associated with
3rd-degree AV block?
Which infectious disease is known to be associated with

3rd-degree AV block?
Lyme Disease
[...]
1st Degree AV block is a type of AV block that presents

with a PR interval > 200 msec but is otherwise benign
and asymptomatic.
[...] is a type of AV block that presents with a PR

interval > 200 msec but is otherwise benign and
asymptomatic.
No treatment is required.
What structure arises from the embryonic cardiovascular What structure arises from the embryonic cardiovascular
structure called the Left Horn of the Sinus Venosus (SV)? structure called the Left Horn of the Sinus Venosus (SV)?
Coronary Sinus
[...]
Aortic regurgitation is a diastolic murmur that presents as [...] is a diastolic murmur that presents as a high-pitched
a high-pitched "blowing" early diastolic decrescendo
"blowing" early diastolic decrescendo murmur.
murmur.

mitral valve close?

mitral valve close?
[...]

arteries of a fetus?

arteries of a fetus?
Low
[...]
Remember, the Umbilical Arteries carry blood away

from the fetal heart to the placenta.
When does the Spleen perform fetal erythropoiesis?
When does the Spleen perform fetal erythropoiesis?
Weeks 10-28 of development
[...]

Which electrical cardiac event does the ST segment
signify?
Which electrical cardiac event does the ST segment

signify?
Isoelectricity; ventricles are entirely depolarized
[...]
How does cardiac contractility change in Digitalis?
How does cardiac contractility change in Digitalis?
Increase
[...]
Digitalis involves a blockade of the Na/K pump,

thereby causing increased intracellular Na,
decreased Na/Ca exchanger activity and a subsequent
increase in intracellular Ca.
Aortic regurgitation is a diastolic murmur that can present [...] is a diastolic murmur that can present with bounding
with bounding pulses and a head bob, especially when it pulses and a head bob, especially when it is chronic.
is chronic.
How does cardiac contractility change in Acidosis?
How does cardiac contractility change in Acidosis?
Decrease
[...]
How do catecholamines change cardiac contractility?
How do catecholamines change cardiac contractility?
Increase
[...]
At which valvular area is Aortic Valve Sclerosis best

heard?
At which valvular area is Aortic Valve Sclerosis best

heard?
Aortic
[...]
Which coronary artery supplies the lateral and posterior Which coronary artery supplies the lateral and posterior
walls of the left ventricle?
walls of the left ventricle?
Left Circumflex Coronary Artery (LCX)
[...]
Which electrical cardiac event does the U wave signify?
Which electrical cardiac event does the U wave signify?
Indicated hypokalemia or bradycardia
[...]
What is the equation for cardiac Ejection Fraction?
What is the equation for cardiac Ejection Fraction?

[...]
Left ventricular EF is an index of ventricular

contractility.
Normal EF is 55%.
Ventricular Septal Defect murmur is a systolic murmur
that presents as a holosystolic, harsh-sounding
murmur that is loudest at the tricuspid area.
[...] is a systolic murmur that presents as a holosystolic,

harsh-sounding murmur that is loudest at the tricuspid
area.
Accentuated with the hand grip maneuver due to an

increase in afterload.
Paradoxical Emboli are a possible complication of a
[...] are a possible complication of a Patent Foramen
Patent Foramen Ovale and involve venous thromboemboli Ovale and involve venous thromboemboli that enter the
that enter the systemic arterial circulation.
systemic arterial circulation.
Similar to those seen in Atrial Septal Defects, but not
as common.
The emboli are paradoxical as it involves
venous thrombi that enter arterial circulation. (i.e. an
embolus from the right enters the left side, as opposed
to staying right and causing a PE)
Which septum is the first septum to grow in embryonic
septation of the cardiac atria?
Which septum is the first septum to grow in embryonic

septation of the cardiac atria?
Septum Primum
[...]
Through which cranial nerve does the Carotid Sinus

transmit its signals to the solitary nucleus of the medulla?
Through which cranial nerve does the Carotid Sinus

transmit its signals to the solitary nucleus of the medulla?
CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
[...]
[...] is an extra heart sound that occurs in early

diastole due to an increase in ventricular filling pressure or
dilated ventricles.
S3 is an extra heart sound that occurs in early

diastole due to an increase in ventricular filling pressure or
dilated ventricles.
S3 is normal in children and pregnant women.
Which portion of the JVP signifies atrial relaxation and
downward displacement of the closed tricuspid
valve during ventricular contraction?
Which portion of the JVP signifies atrial relaxation and

downward displacement of the closed tricuspid
valve during ventricular contraction?
x descent
[...]
x descent = relaxation
Isovolumetric relaxation is a phase of the cardiac cycle
that is described as the period between aortic valve
closing and mitral valve opening.
[...] is a phase of the cardiac cycle that is described as the

period between aortic valve closing and mitral valve
opening.
Which systolic ejection murmur radiates to the carotids?
Which systolic ejection murmur radiates to the carotids?
Aortic Stenosis
[...]
How does standing influence venous return?
How does standing influence venous return?
Decrease
[...]
Which heart sound is indicative of mitral and

tricuspid valve closure?
Which heart sound is indicative of mitral and

tricuspid valve closure?
S1
[...]
In the ventricular action potential, which ion is responsible In the ventricular action potential, which ion is responsible
for the rapid repolarization of the membrane?
for the rapid repolarization of the membrane?
K+ efflux via slow voltage-gated K+ channels
[...]
Closure of the Ca2+ "plateau" channels also allows

for this to occur.
What is the equation for Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)? What is the equation for Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?
MAP = CO * TPR = 2/3 diastolic pressure + 1/3 systolic
pressure
[...]
Systolic Ejection is a phase of the cardiac cycle that is [...] is a phase of the cardiac cycle that is described as the
described as the period between aortic valve opening period between aortic valve opening and closing.
and closing.
What is the direction of the blood shunt through the
Foramen Ovale in utero?
What is the direction of the blood shunt through the

Foramen Ovale in utero?
Right to Left
[...]
Which Starling force changes in nephrotic syndrome to

cause edema?
Which Starling force changes in nephrotic syndrome to

cause edema?
Decreased c
[...]
Foramen Ovale is a fetal shunt that allows for the highly [...] is a fetal shunt that allows for the highly oxygenated
oxygenated blood entering the Right Atrium (via the IVC) blood entering the Right Atrium (via the IVC) to enter the
to enter the aorta and arterial circulation.
aorta and arterial circulation.
What is the normal aortic arch pressure?
What is the normal aortic arch pressure?
130/90 mmHg
[...]
Wolff-Parksinson-White Syndrome is a ventricular pre- [...] is a ventricular pre-excitation syndrome that involves
excitation syndrome that involves abnormally fast
abnormally fast accessory conduction from the atria
accessory conduction from the atria to the
to the ventricles via an accessory pathway called the
ventricles via an accessory pathway called the Bundle of
Bundle of Kent.
Kent.
The Bundle of Kent bypasses the AV node and allows
the ventricles to depolarize sooner.
Congenital Long QT syndrome is an inherited electrical [...] is an inherited electrical cardiac disorder that presents
cardiac disorder that presents with defective myocardial
with defective myocardial repolarization and
repolarization and prolonged QT syndrome due to ion prolonged QT syndrome due to ion channel defects.
channel defects.
Increased risk of sudden cardiac death due to
Torsades de pointes.
Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome is a ventricular preexcitation syndrome that involves the presence of the
Bundle of Kent which bypasses the rate-slowing AV
node, thereby yielding a characteristic delta wave and
shortened PR interval on ECG.
[...] is a ventricular pre-excitation syndrome that involves

the presence of the Bundle of Kent which bypasses the
rate-slowing AV node, thereby yielding a characteristic
delta wave and shortened PR interval on ECG.
Can also involves a re-entry circuit and hence

supraventricular tachycardia.
Atrial flutter is a pathological ECG trace that involves a
rapid succession of identical, back-to-back atrial
depolarization waves that appear as
"sawtooth" waves.
[...] is a pathological ECG trace that involves a rapid

succession of identical, back-to-back atrial
depolarization waves that appear as
"sawtooth" waves.
Pharmacological conversion to sinus rhythm via Class

IA, IC or III antiarrhythmics.
Rate control via beta-blockade, Ca-channel blockade.
Definitive treatment via catheter ablation.
How do catecholamines change the rate of diastolic
How do catecholamines change the rate of diastolic

Increase
[...]
Hence they increase HR.

structure called the Right Horn of the Sinus Venosus
(SV)?

structure called the Right Horn of the Sinus Venosus
(SV)?
Smooth part of the right atrium
[...]
What is the equation for the total resistance of vessels in What is the equation for the total resistance of vessels in
parallel?
parallel?
[...]
Which type of antiviral drugs are known to prolong the
QT interval?
Which type of antiviral drugs are known to prolong the

QT interval?
Protease inhibitors (-navir)
[...]
How does cardiac contractility change with the

administration of non-dihydropyridine Ca channel
blockers?
How does cardiac contractility change with the

administration of non-dihydropyridine Ca channel
blockers?
Decrease
[...]
How does a decrease in Prostaglandin levels affect the

Ductus Arteriosus?
How does a decrease in Prostaglandin levels affect the

Ductus Arteriosus?
Decreased prostaglandins causes closure of the Ductus

Arteriosus
[...]
This occurs after birth once the placenta and baby

have separated.
How does cardiac contractility change in Hypoxia?
How does cardiac contractility change in Hypoxia?
Decrease
[...]
Aortic Stenosis is a systolic murmur that presents as a

crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur.
[...] is a systolic murmur that presents as a crescendodecrescendo systolic ejection murmur.
3rd degree AV Block is a type of AV block that involves [...] is a type of AV block that involves the atria and
the atria and ventricles beating independently of each ventricles beating independently of each other (i.e.
other (i.e. both P-waves and QRS complexes appear at both P-waves and QRS complexes appear at their both
their both separate rhythms).
separate rhythms).
Atrial rate is faster.

Treated with pacemaker.
Ventricular fibrillation is a pathological ECG tracing that
[...] is a pathological ECG tracing that presents with a
presents with a completely erratic rhythm with no completely erratic rhythm with no identifiable waves.
identifiable waves.
Often results in fatal arrhythmia without immediate

CPR and defibrillation.
Which antipsychotic is known to prolong the QT interval? Which antipsychotic is known to prolong the QT interval?
Risperidone
[...]
What embryonic structures are the Aortic and Pulmonary What embryonic structures are the Aortic and Pulmonary
Valves derived from?
Valves derived from?
Endocardial cushions of the outflow tract
[...]
Which electrical cardiac event does the P-wave on an

ECG signify?
Which electrical cardiac event does the P-wave on an

ECG signify?
Atrial depolarization
[...]
Atrial repolarization is masked by the QRS complex

(ventricular depolarization).
What is the most posterior chamber of the heart?
What is the most posterior chamber of the heart?
Left Atrium
[...]
Hence enlargment can cause dysphagia or hoarsness.

Where are peripheral cardiovascular chemoreceptors
found?
Where are peripheral cardiovascular chemoreceptors

found?
Aortic arch; Carotid body
[...]
Which heart sound is associated with closure of the

aortic and pulmonary valves?
Which heart sound is associated with closure of the

aortic and pulmonary valves?
S2
[...]

of the left atrium?

of the left atrium?
Primitive pulmonary vein
[...]
At which point along the pressure-volume loop is ESV

achieved?
At which point along the pressure-volume loop is ESV

achieved?
3 (i.e. where the aortic valve closes)
[...]
What is the post-natal derivative of the Foramen Ovale?
What is the post-natal derivative of the Foramen Ovale?
Fossa Ovalis
[...]
What is the most common type of ventricular preexcitation syndrome?
[...]
What is the most common type of ventricular preexcitation syndrome?

Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome
This straight up sounds like the name of a law firm.
Through which cranial nerve do aortic arch
Through which cranial nerve do aortic arch
baroreceptors/chemoreceptors transmit their signals to the baroreceptors/chemoreceptors transmit their signals to the
solitary nucleus of the medulla?
solitary nucleus of the medulla?
CN X (Vagus)
[...]
How does increased blood vessel stretching influence

cardiovascular baroreceptor afferent firing?
How does increased blood vessel stretching influence

cardiovascular baroreceptor afferent firing?
Increased stretch = increased afferent firing and eventually

a decreased HR
[...]
Romano-Ward Syndrome is a type of congenital long QT

syndrome that is autosomal dominant and involves a
purely cardiac phenotype.
[...] is a type of congenital long QT syndrome that is

autosomal dominant and involves a purely cardiac
phenotype.
i.e. no other systems are affected

Which electrical cardiac event does the PR interval
signify?
Which electrical cardiac event does the PR interval

signify?
AV conduction delay
[...]
Normally < 200 msec

What is the normal Left Atrial pressure (PCWP)?
What is the normal Left Atrial pressure (PCWP)?
< 12 mmHg
[...]
In mitral stenosis, PCWP (i.e. LAP) > LV diastolic

pressure.
Increase
[...]
Which anatomical location is the S2 heart sound the

loudest?
Which anatomical location is the S2 heart sound the

loudest?
Left sternal border
[...]
At which valve area is the S1 heart sound the loudest?
At which valve area is the S1 heart sound the loudest?
Mitral
[...]
Which embryonic structure develop into the smooth parts Which embryonic structure develop into the smooth parts
of the left and right ventricle outflow tract?
of the left and right ventricle outflow tract?
Bulbus Cordis
[...]

aortic valve close?

aortic valve close?
[...]
Which cardiac cycle is the period of highest

O2 consumption?
Which cardiac cycle is the period of highest

O2 consumption?
Isovolumetric contraction
[...]
Which parameters maintain Cardiac Output during the

late stages of exercise?
Which parameters maintain Cardiac Output during the

late stages of exercise?
Increased HR only; SV plateaus
[...]
Which ciliary motor protein is defective in Kartagener

Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia)?
Which ciliary motor protein is defective in Kartagener

Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia)?
Dynein
[...]
Jervell and Lange-Nielsen Syndrome is a type of

[...] is a type of congenital long QT syndrome that is
congenital long QT syndrome that is autosomal
autosomal recessive and presents with sensorineural
recessive and presents with sensorineural deafness in
deafness in addition to cardiac defects.
addition to cardiac defects.
Versus Romano-Ward syndrome which is autosomal
dominant and purely cardiac.
systolic heart failure?

systolic heart failure?
Decrease
[...]
At which valvular area is Mitral Stenosis best heard?
At which valvular area is Mitral Stenosis best heard?
Mitral
[...]
Cardiac Looping is the first stage in heart morphogenesis [...] is the first stage in heart morphogenesis and involves
and involves the formation of primary heart tube loops that the formation of primary heart tube loops that establish
establish left-right polarity.
left-right polarity.
Which cardiac conditions yield wide splitting of the S2
heart sound?
Which cardiac conditions yield wide splitting of the S2

heart sound?
Any condition that delays RV emptying (e.g. pulmonic

stenosis; right bundle branch block)
[...]
The delay in RV emptying causes a delayed pulmonic

sound regardless of breath.
Pathological S2 splitting is always seen, whereas
physiological splitting is only seen upon inspiration.
What embryonic structures are the Mitral and Tricuspid

valves derived from?
What embryonic structures are the Mitral and Tricuspid

valves derived from?
Fused endocardial cushions of the Atrioventricular Canal
[...]
When does the Yolk Sac perform fetal erythropoiesis?
When does the Yolk Sac perform fetal erythropoiesis?
Weeks 3-8 of development
[...]

aortic valve open?

aortic valve open?
[...]
Which Starling force changes in liver failure to cause

edema?
Which Starling force changes in liver failure to cause

edema?
Decreased c
[...]
What is the equation for Stroke Volume?
What is the equation for Stroke Volume?
SV = EDV - ESV
[...]
During which week of development does heart

morphogenesis begin?
During which week of development does heart

morphogenesis begin?
Week 4
[...]
Which Prostaglandins keep a Patent Ductus Arteriosus

(PDA) open?
Which Prostaglandins keep a Patent Ductus Arteriosus

(PDA) open?
Prostaglandin E1 and E2
[...]
What is the post-natal derivative of the Allantois?
What is the post-natal derivative of the Allantois?
Urachus-median Umbilical ligament
[...]
The urachus is the part of the allantoic duct between

the bladder and umbilicus.
Patent Foramen Ovale is a congenital heart defect that is [...] is a congenital heart defect that is caused by the failure
caused by the failure of the Septum Primum and Septum of the Septum Primum and Septum Secundum to fuse after
Secundum to fuse after birth.
birth.
Most are left untreated
Which cardiac conditions cause paradoxical splitting of
the S2 heart sound?
[...]
Which cardiac conditions cause paradoxical splitting of

the S2 heart sound?
Conditions that delay LV emptying (i.e. aortic stenosis; left
bundle branch block)
Normally, the pulmonic valve closes after the aortic

valve. However, with delayed LV emptying, the
pulmonic valve closes before the aortic, thereby
causing a paradoxical splitting of S2.
What is the genetic inheritance of Romano-Ward
Syndrome (congenital long QT syndrome)?
What is the genetic inheritance of Romano-Ward

Syndrome (congenital long QT syndrome)?
Autosomal dominant
[...]
Which septum involved in embryonic septation of the

cardiac atria becomes the valve of the Foramen Ovale?
Which septum involved in embryonic septation of the

cardiac atria becomes the valve of the Foramen Ovale?
Septum Primum
[...]
Which cardiac conduction fibers have the fastest speed of Which cardiac conduction fibers have the fastest speed of
conduction?
conduction?
Purkinje > atria > ventricles > AV node
[...]
At which point along the pressure-volume loop is EDV

achieved?
At which point along the pressure-volume loop is EDV

achieved?
1 (i.e. where the mitral valve closes)
[...]
Reduced Ventricular Filling is a phase of the cardiac cycle

described as the period just before mitral valve
closing.
[...] is a phase of the cardiac cycle described as the

period just before mitral valve closing.
What is the equation for the total resistance of vessels in What is the equation for the total resistance of vessels in
series?
series?
[...]
Which parameters maintain Cardiac Output in the early
stages of exercise?
Which parameters maintain Cardiac Output in the early

stages of exercise?
Increases in both HR and SV
[...]
At which valvular area is Mitral Regurgitation best heard? At which valvular area is Mitral Regurgitation best heard?
Mitral
[...]

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurs?
[...]

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmurs?
Valsalva; standing (due to decreased venous return)
How do catecholamines affect cardiac contractility?
How do catecholamines affect cardiac contractility?
Increase (via increased activity of Ca pump in the

sarcoplasmic reticulum)
[...]
Mobitz Type II AV Block is a type of 2nd degree AV

block that presents with dropped heartbeats that are
not preceded by a change in PR interval length.
[...] is a type of 2nd degree AV block that presents with

dropped heartbeats that are not preceded by a
change in PR interval length.
This is different that Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach)

which involves progressive elongation of the PR
interval.
Often found as a 2:1 block (2 p-waves to 1 QRS
complex).
May progress to 3rd-degree block.
Often treated with pacemaker.
What is the post-natal derivative of the Umbilical Arteries? What is the post-natal derivative of the Umbilical Arteries?
Medial Umbilical ligaments
[...]
Tricuspid regurgitation is valvular disorder that presents

with an absent x-descent in the patient's JVP.
[...] is valvular disorder that presents with an absent xdescent in the patient's JVP.
Mitral; Tricuspid
[...]
How does the left ventricle compensate for an increase in How does the left ventricle compensate for an increase in
afterload?
afterload?
Hypertrophy (increased wall thickness)
[...]
Which aorticopulmonary valve normally closes first?
Which aorticopulmonary valve normally closes first?
Aortic Valve
[...]


Atrial Septal Defect
[...]
ASD = left to right shunt = increased RA and RV

volume = increased flow through the pulmonic valve
such that there is a fixed, great delay in pulmonic
valve closure regardless of breath.
At which valvular area is Pulmonic Stenosis best heard?
At which valvular area is Pulmonic Stenosis best heard?
Pulmonic
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Jervell and LangeNielsen Syndrome (congenital long QT syndrome)?
What is the genetic inheritance of Jervell and LangeNielsen Syndrome (congenital long QT syndrome)?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
What is the post-natal derivative of the Ductus Arteriosus? What is the post-natal derivative of the Ductus Arteriosus?
Ligamentum arteriosum
[...]
What is the equation for the Net Fluid Flow in capillary

fluid filtration?
What is the equation for the Net Fluid Flow in capillary

fluid filtration?
Jv = Kf * Pnet
[...]

structure called the Truncus Arteriosus (TA)?

structure called the Truncus Arteriosus (TA)?
Ascending aorta; Pulmonary Trunk
[...]
What normally triggers the closure of the Foramen Ovale What normally triggers the closure of the Foramen Ovale
soon after birth?
soon after birth?
Increase in Left Atrial pressure
[...]
Increase in LA pressure forces the Septum Primum up

against the Foramen Ovale and Septum Secundum,
driving their fusion and closure of the Foramen Ovale.
structure called the Primitive Ventricle?

structure called the Primitive Ventricle?
Trabeculated part of the left and right ventricles
[...]
In the ventricular action potential, which ion's movement is In the ventricular action potential, which ion's movement is
responsible for the initial depolarization of the
responsible for the initial depolarization of the
membrane?
membrane?
Na+ influx via voltage-gated Na+ channels
[...]
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) is a hormone released

from atrial myocytes in response to increased blood
volume and atrial pressure.
[...] is a hormone released from atrial myocytes in

response to increased blood volume and atrial pressure.
How does an increase in HR affect the length of diastole? How does an increase in HR affect the length of diastole?
Shortens it
[...]
Therefore there is less filling time and decreased CO

In the ventricular action potential, which ion is responsible
for the plateau phase?
[...]
In the ventricular action potential, which ion is responsible

for the plateau phase?
Ca2+ influx via voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
This Ca2+ influx balances the K+ efflux that is
happening at the same time.
This Ca2+ influx also triggers the release of
Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and hence
induces myocyte contraction.
Which NSAID is commonly used to help close a Patent
Ductus Arteriosus?
Which NSAID is commonly used to help close a Patent

Ductus Arteriosus?
Indomethacin
[...]
How does an increase in PCO2 influence peripheral

How does an increase in PCO2 influence peripheral

Activation
[...]
Kartagener Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia) is a

genetic disorder that involves a defect in left-to-right
dynein movement and can cause dextrocardia as normal
L/R asymmetry cannot be achieved.
[...] is a genetic disorder that involves a defect in left-toright dynein movement and can cause dextrocardia as
normal L/R asymmetry cannot be achieved.
Which globin chains comprise Adult Hemoglobin (HbA)? Which globin chains comprise Adult Hemoglobin (HbA)?
22
[...]
Which coronary artery supplies the Sinoatrial (SA) and

Atrioventricular (AV) nodes?
Which coronary artery supplies the Sinoatrial (SA) and

Atrioventricular (AV) nodes?
Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
[...]
Ductus Arteriosus is a fetal shunt that allows deoxygenated [...] is a fetal shunt that allows deoxygenated blood in the
blood in the Pulmonary Artery to bypass Pulmonary
Pulmonary Artery to bypass Pulmonary circulation and
circulation and enter the descending aorta.
enter the descending aorta.
Remember, in a fetus, oxygenation of blood occurs at
the placenta, not lungs. We do not want to flood the
lungs with blood and hinder its development either.
Further, in utero the pulmonary circuit has high
resistance, ensuring that the shunt through the DA is
right to left.
How does cardiac contractility change when there is a
increase in intracellular Na?
How does cardiac contractility change when there is a

increase in intracellular Na?
Increase
[...]
Due to decreased activity of the Na/Ca exchanger and

hence increased intracellular Ca
[...] and tricuspid regurgitation are 2 systolic murmurs that
present as holosystolic, high-pitched "blowing"
murmurs.
Mitral regurgitation and tricuspid regurgitation are 2

systolic murmurs that present as holosystolic, highpitched "blowing" murmurs.
Mitral regurgitation and tricuspid regurgitation are 2

systolic murmurs that present as holosystolic, highpitched "blowing" murmurs.
Mitral regurgitation and [...] are 2 systolic murmurs that

present as holosystolic, high-pitched "blowing"
murmurs.
Where does fetal erythropoiesis occur in weeks 3-8 of

development?
Where does fetal erythropoiesis occur in weeks 3-8 of

development?
Yolk Sac
[...]
"Young Liver Synthesizes Blood" = Yolk Sac, Liver,

Spleen, Bone Marrow
Where in the body is the Relaxed (R) form of
Hemoglobin typically found?
Where in the body is the Relaxed (R) form of

Hemoglobin typically found?
Lungs; Respiratory tract (where O2 loading is required)
[...]
Remember, the Relaxed form of Hb has 300x higher

O2 affinity than the Taut form
Which lung has the Lingula?
Which lung has the Lingula?
Left
[...]
Left = Lingula
Which zone of the lung has greater ventilation
and perfusion?
Which zone of the lung has greater ventilation

and perfusion?
Base
[...]
Where in the body is the Taut (T) form of Hemoglobin

typically found?
Where in the body is the Taut (T) form of Hemoglobin

typically found?
At tissue (where O2 unloading is needed)
[...]
Remember, the Taut form has decreased O2 affinity

Which way does CO2 shift the oxygen-hemoglobin
dissociation curve?
Which way does CO2 shift the oxygen-hemoglobin

dissociation curve?
Right (i.e. decreased affinity)
[...]
How do 2,3-BPG levels change in resposne to high

altitude?
[...]
How do 2,3-BPG levels change in resposne to high

altitude?
Increase
The rationale here is that 2,3-BPG triggers O2 release
from Hb.
Which globin chains are found in adult Hemoglobin
(HbA)?
Which globin chains are found in adult Hemoglobin

(HbA)?
22
[...]
Compliance is a physiological parameter of the lungs that [...] is a physiological parameter of the lungs that describes
describes the organ's ability to change in volume for a
the organ's ability to change in volume for a given
given change in pressure.
change in pressure.
Think of compliance as the ability of the organ to
distend/increase in volume with an increase in
transmural pressure.
Hence, increased compliance = increased ability to
expand = less recoil
Hence, decreased compliance = decreased ability to
expand = more recoil
Which area of the lung has the greatest perfusion?
Which area of the lung has the greatest perfusion?
Base
[...]
Which lung volume equates the volume of air that moves

into the lungs with each quiet inspiration?
Which lung volume equates the volume of air that moves

into the lungs with each quiet inspiration?
Tidal Volume (TV)
[...]
Which way does 2,3-BPG shift the oxygen-hemoglobin

dissociation curve?
Which way does 2,3-BPG shift the oxygen-hemoglobin

dissociation curve?
Right (i.e. decreases affinity)
[...]
Clara cells are a type of pneumocyte that degrades toxins

and acts as reserve cells.
[...] are a type of pneumocyte that degrades toxins and

acts as reserve cells.
Which lung volumes make up lung (Functional) Vital

Capacity (VC)?
Which lung volumes make up lung (Functional) Vital

Capacity (VC)?
TV + IRV + ERV
[...]
What is the most important lechitin found in surfactant?
What is the most important lechitin found in surfactant?
Dipalmitoylphophatidylcholine
[...]
How does renal excretion of HCO3 change in response to
high altitude?
[...]
How does renal excretion of HCO3 change in response to

high altitude?
Increase
i.e. there is a compensatory metabolic acidosis due to
the respiratory alkalosis caused by the
hyperventilation.
How does the A-a gradient change with a Right-to-left
cardiovascular shunt?
How does the A-a gradient change with a Right-to-left

cardiovascular shunt?
Increase
[...]
Which area of the lung has the greatest ventilation?
Which area of the lung has the greatest ventilation?
Base
[...]
Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is a lung capacity that equates

to the volume of air present in the lungs after a maximal
inspiration.
[...] is a lung capacity that equates to the volume of air

present in the lungs after a maximal inspiration.
What is the equation for the O2 content of blood?
What is the equation for the O2 content of blood?
O2 content = (O2 binding capacity * % saturation) +

dissolved O2
[...]
O2 binding capacity ~ 20.1 mL O2/dL

O2 delivery to tissue = CO * O2 content
What does a V/Q ratio close to zero indicate?
What does a V/Q ratio close to zero indicate?
Airway obstruction
[...]
i.e. ventilation = 0.
Which lung volume equates to the volume of air that
remains in the lung after a maximal expiration?
Which lung volume equates to the volume of air that

remains in the lung after a maximal expiration?
Residual Volume (RV)
[...]
Methemoglobin is a modified form of hemoglobin that can [...] is a modified form of hemoglobin that can be used to
be used to treat cyanide poisoning.
treat cyanide poisoning.
Carbaminohemoglobin (HbCO2) is a molecule used as a [...] is a molecule used as a form of CO2 transport that is
form of CO2 transport that is descibed as CO2 bound to
descibed as CO2 bound to hemoglobin at the Nhemoglobin at the N-terminus of globin.
terminus of globin.
What is the equation for Minute Ventilation (VE)?
[...]

VE = VT * RR
Minute Ventilation = total volume of air entering the
lungs per minute
VT = tidal volume
RR = respiratory rate
O2 (in emphysema or pulmonary fibrosis) and CO are 2
diffusion limited gases that do not equilibrate in the
blood along the length of the capillary.
[...] and CO are 2 diffusion limited gases that do

not equilibrate in the blood along the length of the
capillary.
i.e. by time the blood reaches the end of the capillary,

the gas has not equilibrated between the alveolus and
capillary
O2 (in emphysema or pulmonary fibrosis) and CO are 2
O2 (in emphysema or pulmonary fibrosis) and [...] are 2

i.e. by time the blood reaches the end of the capillary,

the gas has not equilibrated between the alveolus and
capillary
What is the equation for diffusion of a gas across the
pulmonary surface?
What is the equation for diffusion of a gas across the

pulmonary surface?
Vgas = A/T * Dk(P1-P2)
[...]
A = area (decreases in Emphysema)

T = thickness (increases in pulmonary fibrosis)
Dk (P1-P2) = difference in partial pressure
Which way does increased temperature shift the oxygendissociation curve?
Which way does increased temperature shift the oxygendissociation curve?
[...]
How does EPO levels change in response to high altitude? How does EPO levels change in response to high altitude?
Increase
[...]
Which type of pneumocytes are the stem cells of the

lungs?
Which type of pneumocytes are the stem cells of the

lungs?
Type II pneumocytes
[...]
Which zone of the lung has the highest V/Q ratio?
[...]
Which zone of the lung has the highest V/Q ratio?

Apex (V/Q = 3)
i.e. there is wasted ventilation at the apex of the
lung.
This is attributed to gravity and it's effect on blood
flow (Q), which is lower at the apex of the lung vs. the
lower lung zones, despite the fact that ventilation is
also the lowest at the apex of the lung.
Respiratory Zone is a segment of the respiratory tree that [...] is a segment of the respiratory tree that participates
participates in gas exchange.
in gas exchange.
i.e. the lung parenchyma (respiratory bronchioles,
alveolar ducts and alveoli)
Which area of the lung has the highest V/Q ratio?
Which area of the lung has the highest V/Q ratio?
Apex of the lung (V/Q = 3)
[...]
Hence there is wasted venilation.

Cor pulmonale is a cardiac complication of pulmonary [...] is a cardiac complication of pulmonary hypertension
hypertension that involves right ventricular failure and that involves right ventricular failure and hence presents
hence presents with jugular venous distension, edema and with jugular venous distension, edema and hepatomegaly.
hepatomegaly.
At which vertebral level does the Vagus Nerve (CN X)
perforate the diaphragm?
At which vertebral level does the Vagus Nerve (CN X)

perforate the diaphragm?
T10 (both trunks)
[...]
"Cranial Nerve 10 at T10"

What is the relation of the pulmonary artery to the
bronchus at the right lung?

bronchus at the right lung?
Anterior
[...]
RALS = Right Anterior, Left Superior

At which vertebral level does the IVC perforate the
diaphragm?
At which vertebral level does the IVC perforate the

diaphragm?
T8
[...]
"I 8 10 eggs at 12"

At which concentration of deoxygenated
hemoglobin does cyanosis occur?
At which concentration of deoxygenated

hemoglobin does cyanosis occur?
> 5 g/dL of deoxygenated hemoglobin
[...]
Which lung voume cannot be measured on spirometry?
Which lung voume cannot be measured on spirometry?
Residual Volume (RV)
[...]
Which lung volume equates to the volume of air that can

still be breathed out after normal expiration?
Which lung volume equates to the volume of air that can

still be breathed out after normal expiration?
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
[...]
Positive cooperativity is a kinetic feature of oxygenhemoglobin binding that gives the dissociation curve its
sigmoidal shape and is described as high affinity for
O2 for each subsequent O2 molecule bound, as
hemoglobin is tetrameric.
[...] is a kinetic feature of oxygen-hemoglobin binding that

gives the dissociation curve its sigmoidal shape and is
described as high affinity for O2 for each subsequent
O2 molecule bound, as hemoglobin is tetrameric.
Myoglobin is monomeric and hence does not show

positive cooperativity.
Which lung has 3 lobes?
Right
[...]
O2 (when healthy), CO2 and N2O are 3 perfusion

limited gases that equilibrate early along the length of the
capillary.
[...], CO2 and N2O are 3 perfusion limited gases that

equilibrate early along the length of the capillary.
Hence, diffusion can only be increased by an increase

in blood flow.
O2 (when healthy), [...] and N2O are 3 perfusion
limited gases that equilibrate early along the length of the limited gases that equilibrate early along the length of the
capillary.
capillary.
in blood flow.
O2 (when healthy), CO2 and [...] are 3 perfusion
limited gases that equilibrate early along the length of the limited gases that equilibrate early along the length of the
capillary.
capillary.
in blood flow.
Which lung volumes make up Total Lung Capacity
(TLC)?
Which lung volumes make up Total Lung Capacity

(TLC)?
IRV + TV + ERV + RV
[...]
How does Hemoglobin's affinity for O2 change following

an increase in [H+] (i.e. decreased pH)?

an increase in [H+] (i.e. decreased pH)?
Decreased affinity; taut form is favoured; dissociation

curve shifts to the right; O2 unloading is favoured
[...]
Type II pneumocytes are a type of pneumocyte that

function as the stem cells of the lungs, proliferating into
Type I and Type II cells during lung damage.
[...] are a type of pneumocyte that function as the stem

cells of the lungs, proliferating into Type I and Type II cells
during lung damage.
What volume of Oxygen can be bound by 1 g of Hb?
[...]
What volume of Oxygen can be bound by 1 g of Hb?

1.34 mL
Normal [Hb] is 15 g/dL
Right Lung is the lung that is the most common site for
inhaled foreign bodies because its main stem bronchus is
wider and more vertical than the opposite lung's.
[...] is the lung that is the most common site for inhaled
foreign bodies because its main stem bronchus is wider
and more vertical than the opposite lung's.
Which type of epithelium is found in most of the

counducting zone of the lungs?
Which type of epithelium is found in most of the

counducting zone of the lungs?
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
[...]
Functions to beat mucous up and out of the lungs.

Seen up to the terminal bronchioles at which point it
transitions to cuboidal cells.
Also, airway smooth muscle extends to the end of the
terminal bronchioles (and is sparse beyond that
point) while cartilage and goblet cells extend to the
end of the bronchi.
What does a V/Q ratio of zero indicate?
What does a V/Q ratio of zero indicate?
Airway obstruction (shunt)
[...]
In this case, 100% O2 will not improve PO2.

Carboxyhemoglobin is a modified form of hemoglobin that [...] is a modified form of hemoglobin that is bound to CO
is bound to CO in place of O2.
in place of O2.
Which Lecithin:Sphingomyelin ratio is indicative of fetal
lung maturity?
Which Lecithin:Sphingomyelin ratio is indicative of fetal

lung maturity?
L:S > 2.0
[...]
What is the alveolar air pressure at FRC (Functional

Residual Capacity)?
What is the alveolar air pressure at FRC (Functional

Residual Capacity)?
[...]
Which lung capacity is equal to the volume of gas present Which lung capacity is equal to the volume of gas present
in the lungs after a maximal inspiration?
in the lungs after a maximal inspiration?
Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
[...]
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a Mycobacterial species [...] is a Mycobacterial species that thrives in high O2 and
that thrives in high O2 and flourishes in the apex of the
flourishes in the apex of the lung.
lung.
Which modified form of hemoglobin has an increased
affinity for cyanide?
Which modified form of hemoglobin has an increased

affinity for cyanide?
Methemoglobin
[...]
What does a V/Q ratio close to infinity indicate?
What does a V/Q ratio close to infinity indicate?
Blood flow obstruction
[...]
In which direction does the oxygen-hemoglobin

In which direction does the oxygen-hemoglobin
dissociation curve shift if there is a decrease in the affinity dissociation curve shift if there is a decrease in the affinity
of hemoglobin for O2?
of hemoglobin for O2?
Right
[...]
An increase in all factors (including [H+]) shifts the

curve to the right.
A decrease in all factors (including [H+]) shifts the
curve to the right.
Fetal Hb has higher affinity for O2, hence its curve is
shifted to the left.
Left
[...]
Which area of the lung is the largest contributor of

functional dead space?
Which area of the lung is the largest contributor of

functional dead space?
Apex of the lung
[...]
Remember, functional dead space = dead space in the

alveoli.
How does the O2-hemoglobin dissociated curve shift in
Carboxyhemoglobinemia?
How does the O2-hemoglobin dissociated curve shift in

Carboxyhemoglobinemia?
Left shift; there is decreased O2 binding capacity and

decreased O2 unloading at tissue
[...]
How does ventilation rate change in response to exercise? How does ventilation rate change in response to exercise?
Increase
[...]
This is to meet the increased O2 demand and increased

CO2 production.
What form is the majority of CO2 found in the blood?
What form is the majority of CO2 found in the blood?
HCO3-
[...]
Which lung volumes make up lung Inspiratory Capacity

(IC)?
Which lung volumes make up lung Inspiratory Capacity

(IC)?
IRV + TV
[...]
Which type of Pneumocyte is most abundant at alveolar

surfaces?
[...]
Which type of Pneumocyte is most abundant at alveolar

surfaces?
Type I pneumocytes (97%)
How does the A-a gradient change with hypoventilation? How does the A-a gradient change with hypoventilation?
Normal; no change
[...]
Which zone of the lung has the lowest V/Q ratio?
Which zone of the lung has the lowest V/Q ratio?
Base (V/Q = 0.6)
[...]
i.e. there is wasted perfusion at the base of the lung.

What is the equation for PAO2?
What is the equation for PAO2?

[...]
Haldane Effect is a respiratory physiological phenomenon

[...] is a respiratory physiological phenomenon that
that involves the release of CO2 from RBCs at the lung involves the release of CO2 from RBCs at the lung
following oxygenation of hemoglobin and dissociation of following oxygenation of hemoglobin and dissociation of
H+ from Hb.
H+ from Hb.
Oxygenation of Hb promotes the dissociation of
H+ from Hb, thereby shifting the equilibrium towards
CO2 formation and resulting in CO2 release from
RBCs.
How does blood pH change in response to exercise?
How does blood pH change in response to exercise?
Decreased
[...]
Secondary to lactic acidosis.

During which week of gestation are mature levels of
surfactant achieves?
During which week of gestation are mature levels of

surfactant achieves?
Week 35
[...]

an increase in [Cl-]?

an increase in [Cl-]?

[...]
How does the amount of mitochondria in a cell change in How does the amount of mitochondria in a cell change in
response to high altitude?
response to high altitude?
Increase
[...]
What is the normal concentration of hemoglobin in the

blood?
[...]
What is the normal concentration of hemoglobin in the

blood?
15 g/dL
Lingula is a region of the left lung that is a homologue of
the right middle lobe (of the right lung).
[...] is a region of the left lung that is a homologue of the

right middle lobe (of the right lung).
Minute ventilation (VE) is a respiratory physiological

parameter that is defined as the total volume of gas
entering the lungs per minute.
[...] is a respiratory physiological parameter that is defined

as the total volume of gas entering the lungs per
minute.
VE = VT * RR
At which vertebral level does the aorta perforate the
diaphragm?
At which vertebral level does the aorta perforate the

diaphragm?
T12
[...]
"I 8 10 eggs at 12"

"At T-1-2 its red, white and blue" (aorta = red;
thoracic duct = white; azygos vein = blue)
How does ventilation change in response to high altitude? How does ventilation change in response to high altitude?
Increased
[...]
(Functional) Vital Capacity (VC) is a lung capacity that [...] is a lung capacity that equates to the maximum volume
equates to the maximum volume of air that can be expired
of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration.
after a maximal inspiration.
"FVC = inhaling maximally and then exhaling
maximally = inhaling and blowing out birthday
candles."
What type of drugs do we use to oxidize Hemoglobin into What type of drugs do we use to oxidize Hemoglobin into
Methemoglobin such that we can treat cyanide poisoning? Methemoglobin such that we can treat cyanide poisoning?
Nitrates
[...]
We use nitrates to oxidize hemoglobin into

methemoglobin which then binds to cyanide.
Thiosulfate is then used to bind this cyanide, forming
thiocyanate which is renally excreted.
Which lung volumes make up lung Functional Residual
Capacity (FRC)?
Which lung volumes make up lung Functional Residual

Capacity (FRC)?
RV + ERV
[...]
Which morphological form of Hemoglobin has

lower O2 affinity?

lower O2 affinity?
Taut (T) form
[...]
Why does fetal hemoglobin (HbF) have a higher affinity
for O2?
[...]
Why does fetal hemoglobin (HbF) have a higher affinity

for O2?
It has lower affinity for 2,3-BPG, which decreases
O2 affinity
During which week of gestation does lung surfactant
production begin?
During which week of gestation does lung surfactant

production begin?
Week 26
[...]
How does lung compliance change in emphysema?
How does lung compliance change in emphysema?
Increase
[...]
What does a V/Q ratio of infinity indicate?
What does a V/Q ratio of infinity indicate?
Obstructed blood flow (i.e. there is a lot of physiological

dead space)
[...]
Assuming there is < 100% dead space, 100% O2 will

improve PO2.
How does the diffusion of O2 at the lungs change in
pulmonary fibrosis?
How does the diffusion of O2 at the lungs change in

pulmonary fibrosis?
Decrease
[...]
How does the A-a gradient change with V/Q mismatch?
How does the A-a gradient change with V/Q mismatch?
Increase
[...]
How does % O2 saturation of hemoglobin change with

CO poisoning?
How does % O2 saturation of hemoglobin change with

CO poisoning?
Decrease; CO competes with O2 for binding on Hb
[...]
This in turn decreases total O2 content despite Hb

levels staying the same.
Which type of epithelium is found in the respiratory zone
of the respiratory tree?
Which type of epithelium is found in the respiratory zone

of the respiratory tree?
Cuboidal cells in respiratory bronchioles; simple squamous

epithelium up to the alveoli
[...]
There are no cilia in the respiratory zone.

There are also alveolar macrophages that clear debris
and participate in the immune response.
Which way does increased altitude shift the oxygendissociation curve?
Which way does increased altitude shift the oxygendissociation curve?
[...]
Bohr Effect is a respiratory physiological phenomenon that

[...] is a respiratory physiological phenomenon that
involves the unloading of O2 at peripheral tissue from involves the unloading of O2 at peripheral tissue from
RBCs due to an increase in [H+].
RBCs due to an increase in [H+].
How does a decrease in PAO2 influence pulmonary
circulation/vasculature?
How does a decrease in PAO2 influence pulmonary

circulation/vasculature?
Causes hypoxic vasoconstriction
[...]
This is to shift blood away from poorly ventilated

regions of the lung to well ventilated regions of the
lung. This is also a unique feature of the lungs. All
other tissues vasodilate in hypoxic conditions.
Normally, the pulmonary circulatory system is a lowresistance, high-compliance system.
Which type of pneumocytes secrete pulmonary
surfactant?
Which type of pneumocytes secrete pulmonary

surfactant?
Type II pneumocytes
[...]
Remember, pulmonary surfactant works to

decrease alveolar surface tension and prevents
alveolar collapse (atelectasis).
Which type of pneumocyte degrades toxins and acts as
reserve cells?
Which type of pneumocyte degrades toxins and acts as

reserve cells?
Clara cells
[...]

an increase in 2,3-BPG?

an increase in 2,3-BPG?

[...]
At which vertebral level does the Thoracic Duct perforate At which vertebral level does the Thoracic Duct perforate
the diaphragm?
the diaphragm?
T12
[...]

Which area of the lung has the lowest V/Q ratio?
Which area of the lung has the lowest V/Q ratio?
Base of lung (V/Q = 0.6)
[...]
Hence there is wasted perfusion.

an increase in temperature?

an increase in temperature?

[...]
What is the equation for pulmonary vascular resistance?
What is the equation for pulmonary vascular resistance?

[...]
This is essentially a rearrangement of MAP = CO *

TPR to salve for TPR (PVR).
How does lung compliance change in Pulmonary Edema? How does lung compliance change in Pulmonary Edema?
Decrease
[...]
Which modified form of hemoglobin is associated with

cyanosis and chocolate-coloured blood?
Which modified form of hemoglobin is associated with

cyanosis and chocolate-coloured blood?
Methemoglobin
[...]
At which vertebral level does the Azygos Vein perforate

the diaphragm?
At which vertebral level does the Azygos Vein perforate

the diaphragm?
T12
[...]

What is the equation for the amount of O2 delivered to
tissue?
What is the equation for the amount of O2 delivered to

tissue?
O2 delivery = CO * O2 content
[...]
At which vertebral level does the esophagus perforate the At which vertebral level does the esophagus perforate the
diaphragm?
diaphragm?
T10
[...]
"I 8 10 eggs at 12"

What is the typical lung Tidal Volume (TV)?
What is the typical lung Tidal Volume (TV)?
500 mL
[...]
How does the A-a gradient change with high altitude?
How does the A-a gradient change with high altitude?
Normal; no change
[...]
How does the A-a gradient change when there is a

pulmonary diffusion limitation?
How does the A-a gradient change when there is a

pulmonary diffusion limitation?
Increase
[...]
How does Hemoglobin's affinity for O2 change if there is a

right-shift in the Hb saturation curve?
[...]
How does Hemoglobin's affinity for O2 change if there is a

right-shift in the Hb saturation curve?
Decreased affinity; i.e. more O2 is needed to saturate Hb

An increase in all of the parameters (including H+)
will cause a right-shift of the curve.
A decrease in all of the parameters (including H+) will
cause a left-shift of the curve.
In which form is CO2 most commonly transported from
tissues to the lungs?
In which form is CO2 most commonly transported from

tissues to the lungs?
HCO3- (90%)
[...]
Type I pneumocytes are a type of pneumocyte that are

squamous and thin, hence they are optimal for gas
exchange.
[...] are a type of pneumocyte that are squamous and

thin, hence they are optimal for gas exchange.
97% of the alveolar lining is Type I pneumocytes.

an increase in CO2?

an increase in CO2?

[...]
Which lung volume equates the volume of air that can still Which lung volume equates the volume of air that can still
be breathed in after normal inspiration?
be breathed in after normal inspiration?
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
[...]
Which lung & lobe will an aspirated foreign body get stuck Which lung & lobe will an aspirated foreign body get stuck
in while the patient is upright?
in while the patient is upright?
Lower portion of the right inferior lobe
[...]
What deoxygenated hemoglobin blood concentration is

associated with cyanosis?
What deoxygenated hemoglobin blood concentration is

associated with cyanosis?
Deoxygenated Hb > 5 g/dL
[...]
How does lung compliance change in Pneumonia?
How does lung compliance change in Pneumonia?
Decrease
[...]
How much O2 does 1 g of hemoglobin normally bind?
How much O2 does 1 g of hemoglobin normally bind?
1.34 mL O2
[...]
What is the treatment for Methemoglobinemia?
[...]
What is the treatment for Methemoglobinemia?

Methylene Blue
Methemoglobinemia is treated with methylene blue.
What is the equation for Alveolar Ventilation (VA)?
VA = (VT - VD) * RR
[...]
Alveolar Ventilation = volume of gas per unit time

that reaches the alveoli
VT = tidal volume
VD = physiological dead space
RR = respiratory rate
Methemoglobin is a modified form of hemoglobin that is
oxidized, and hence does not bind to O2 as readily.
[...] is a modified form of hemoglobin that is oxidized, and

hence does not bind to O2 as readily.
VE = VT x RR
[...]
Which nerve roots innervate the diaphragm via the

phrenic nerve?
Which nerve roots innervate the diaphragm via the

phrenic nerve?
C3, C4, C5
[...]
"C3, 4, 5 keep the diaphragm alive."

Hence diaphragm pain can radiate the to shoulder
(C5) or trapezius ridge (C3, C4).
How does lung compliance change with normal aging?
How does lung compliance change with normal aging?
Increase
[...]
Methemoglobin is a modified form of Hemoglobin that is [...] is a modified form of Hemoglobin that is oxidized and
oxidized and thereby has a ferric (Fe3+) atom in its heme
thereby has a ferric (Fe3+) atom in its heme group.
group.
Alveolar Ventilation (VA) is a respiratory physiological
parameter defined as the volume of gas per unit time
that reaches the alveoli.
[...] is a respiratory physiological parameter defined as the

volume of gas per unit time that reaches the alveoli.
VA = (VT - VD) x RR
bronchus at the left lung?

bronchus at the left lung?
Superior
[...]
RALS = Right Anterior, Left Superior

Which modified form of hemoglobin is used to treat
cyanide poisoning?
[...]
Which modified form of hemoglobin is used to treat

cyanide poisoning?
Methemoglobin
We use nitrates to oxidize hemoglobin into
methemoglobin which then binds to cyanide.
Thiosulfate is then used to bind this cyanide, forming
thiocyanate which is renally excreted.
What is the equation for determining Physiological Dead
Space (of the lung)?
What is the equation for determining Physiological Dead

Space (of the lung)?
[...]
VT = tidal volume
PaCO2 = arterial PCO2
PECO2 = expired air PCO2
Physiological Dead Space is a respiratory physiological [...] is a respiratory physiological parameter defined as the
parameter defined as the volume of anatomical dead volume of anatomical dead space plus the volume of
space plus the volume of functional dead space in
functional dead space in alveoli.
alveoli.
i.e. the volume of inspired air that does not take part
in gas exchange
What is the equation for the A-a gradient?
What is the equation for the A-a gradient?
A-a gradient = PAO2 - PaO2 = 10-15 mmHg
[...]
The A-a gradient may increase in hypoxemia due to

shunting, V/Q mismatch and pulmonary fibrosis
(which impairs diffusion).
Type II pneumocytes are a type of pneumocyte that is
cuboidal and clustered.
[...] are a type of pneumocyte that is cuboidal and

clustered.
Clara cells are a type of pneumocyte that are nonciliated,

columnar cells with secretory granules.
[...] are a type of pneumocyte that are nonciliated,

columnar cells with secretory granules.
What is the equation for the collapsing pressure of an

alveolus?
What is the equation for the collapsing pressure of an

alveolus?
Collapsing Pressure = P = [2(surface tension)]/radius
[...]
Hence, alveoli have an increased tendency to collapse

during expiration as radius decreases (this is Laplace's
Law).
Which lung is the more common site for inhaled foreign
bodies?
Which lung is the more common site for inhaled foreign

bodies?
Right lung
[...]
Which lung & lobe will an aspirated foreign body get stuck Which lung & lobe will an aspirated foreign body get stuck
in if the patient is supine?
in if the patient is supine?
Superior portion of the right inferior lobe
[...]
Which nerve innervates the diaphragm?
Which nerve innervates the diaphragm?
Phrenic Nerve
[...]

high O2 affinity?

high O2 affinity?
Relaxed (R) form; 300x more affinity than the taut form
[...]
What globin chains are found in fetal Hemoglobin (HbF)? What globin chains are found in fetal Hemoglobin (HbF)?
22
[...]
In which state is iron normally found in Hemoglobin?
In which state is iron normally found in Hemoglobin?
Ferrous (Fe2+)
[...]
"Just the 2 of us" = Fe2+ is Ferrous

Which modified form of hemoglobin is bound to CO
instead of O2?
Which modified form of hemoglobin is bound to CO

instead of O2?
Carboxyhemoglobin
[...]
How many times greater is CO's affinity for Hb than O2's How many times greater is CO's affinity for Hb than O2's
affinity for Hb?
affinity for Hb?
200x
[...]
Conducting Zone is a section of the respiratory tree that

functions to warm, humidify and filter air but does not
participate in gas exchange.
[...] is a section of the respiratory tree that functions to

warm, humidify and filter air but does not participate in
gas exchange.
i.e. physiological dead space

Physiological dead space is a respiratory physiological [...] is a respiratory physiological parameter that is defined
parameter that is defined as the volume of inspired air as the volume of inspired air that does not take part
that does not take part in gas exchange.
in gas exchange.
VA = (VT - VD) x RR
[...]
VD = physiological dead space

How does lung compliance change in Pulmonary Fibrosis? How does lung compliance change in Pulmonary Fibrosis?
Decrease
[...]
Which way does acid shift the oxygen-dissociation curve? Which way does acid shift the oxygen-dissociation curve?
[...]
How does % O2 saturation of Hb change in anaemia?

[...]
How does % O2 saturation of Hb change in anaemia?

No change; Normal
Remember, saturation is a percentage.
What is the ideal V/Q pulmonary ratio?
What is the ideal V/Q pulmonary ratio?
[...]
i.e. ideally, ventilation would equal perfusion, allowing

for the most efficient gas change.
V/Q approaches 1 during exercise (increased CO) due
to vasodilation of the apical pulmonary capillaries.
Autoimmune Disease is a cause of Secondary Pulmonary
HTN that involves intimal fibrosis and eventual medial
hypertrophy. (low yield, not in FA/Pathoma)
[...] is a cause of Secondary Pulmonary HTN that

involves intimal fibrosis and eventual medial
hypertrophy. (low yield, not in FA/Pathoma)
Medial hypertrophy = hypertrophy of the media layer

of pulmonary vasculature
How do beta-hCG levels change in the second trimester
quad screen of Down Syndrome?
How do beta-hCG levels change in the second trimester

Increase
[...]
Succinate Dehydrogenase is a mitochondrial enzyme part

of the electron transport chain that is also referred to as
Complex II.
[...] is a mitochondrial enzyme part of the electron

transport chain that is also referred to as Complex II.
Which enzyme involved in pyrimidine synthesis does

Leflunomide inhibit?
Which enzyme involved in pyrimidine synthesis does

Leflunomide inhibit?
Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase
[...]
How many calories per gram are obtained from

Carbohydrates?
How many calories per gram are obtained from

Carbohydrates?
4 kcal/g
[...]
Stable cells are a type of cells that enter G1 from

G0 when stimulated.
[...] cells are a type of cells that enter G1 from G0 when

stimulated.
e.g. hepatocytes, lymphocytes

What is the genetic inheritance of the most common
form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
What is the genetic inheritance of the most common

form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
Autosomal Dominant
[...]
Defect involves a decreased production of otherwise

normal Type I collagen.
Remember, Type I collagen is found in bones.
Which water soluble vitamin is an essential component of Which water soluble vitamin is an essential component of
Fatty Acid Synthase?
Fatty Acid Synthase?
Vitamin B5 (Panthothenate)
[...]
Which amino acids are involved in O-linked glycosylation Which amino acids are involved in O-linked glycosylation
in the Golgi apparatus?
in the Golgi apparatus?
Serine; Threonine
[...]
Cloning is a laboratory technique that produces a

recombinant DNA molecule that is self-perpetuating.
[...] is a laboratory technique that produces a recombinant

DNA molecule that is self-perpetuating.
Isodisomy is a type of Uniparental Disomy that can be [...] is a type of Uniparental Disomy that can be caused by
caused by a postzygotic chromosomal duplication of 1 or a postzygotic chromosomal duplication of 1 or a pair of
a pair of chromosomes and the loss of the original pair.
chromosomes and the loss of the original pair.
What is the MOA of N-acetylcysteine in the treatment of What is the MOA of N-acetylcysteine in the treatment of
Cystic Fibrosis?
Cystic Fibrosis?
Cleavage of the disulfide bonds in mucous glycoproteins,
thereby clearing mucous plugs
[...]
How does G6PD activity in the HMP shunt change with

NADPH regulation?

NADPH regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Which Protein Kinase controls Fructose Bisphosphate-2

and PFK-2 in the regulation of PFK-1?
Which Protein Kinase controls Fructose Bisphosphate-2

and PFK-2 in the regulation of PFK-1?
Protein Kinase A
[...]
Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I familial dyslipidemia) is a

familial dyslipidemia that causes pancreatitis,
hepatosplenomegaly and eruptive/pruritic
xanthomas.
[...] is a familial dyslipidemia that causes pancreatitis,

hepatosplenomegaly and eruptive/pruritic
xanthomas.
Which intermediate in the TCA cycle can be made from

Glutamate via Transaminase?

Glutamate via Transaminase?
alpha-ketoglutarate
[...]
What is the key distinguishing feature between NiemannPick and Tay-Sachs Disease?
What is the key distinguishing feature between NiemannPick and Tay-Sachs Disease?
Tay-Sachs does not have hepatosplenomegaly
[...]
Niemann-Pick = CNS and RES

Tay-Sachs = CNS only
How do PAPP-A (Pregnancy associated plasma protein How do PAPP-A (Pregnancy associated plasma protein
A) levels change in the first trimester in Edwards
A) levels change in the first trimester in Edwards
Syndrome (Trisomy 18)?
Decrease
[...]
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Fragile X Syndrome? What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Fragile X Syndrome?
CGG
[...]
Where inside fibroblasts is collagen synthesized?
[...]
Where inside fibroblasts is collagen synthesized?

Rough ER
Remember, secreted proteins are made in the RER.
Which nicotinamide electron acceptor is generally used in Which nicotinamide electron acceptor is generally used in
catabolic processes to carry reducing equivalents away as catabolic processes to carry reducing equivalents away as
NADH?
NADH?
NAD+
[...]
Which amino acid can be converted into alphaketoglutarate via Transaminase?
Which amino acid can be converted into alphaketoglutarate via Transaminase?
Glutamate; requires B6
[...]
Which fat soluble vitamin is the cofactor for gammaWhich fat soluble vitamin is the cofactor for gammacarboxylation of glutamic acid residues on various proteins carboxylation of glutamic acid residues on various proteins
involved in blood clotting?
involved in blood clotting?
Vitamin K
[...]
Velocardiofacial Syndrome is a 22q11 deletion syndrome [...] is a 22q11 deletion syndrome that presents with cleft
that presents with cleft palate, abnormal facies and
palate, abnormal facies and cardiac defects.
cardiac defects.
Which enzyme in the purine salvage pathway converts
Xanthine into Uric Acid?
Which enzyme in the purine salvage pathway converts

Xanthine into Uric Acid?
Xanthine Oxidase
[...]
What is the Vmax of Glucokinase compares to

Hexokinase?
What is the Vmax of Glucokinase compares to

Hexokinase?
Higher
[...]
Which stereoisomer of Amino Acids is found in proteins? Which stereoisomer of Amino Acids is found in proteins?
L-form
[...]
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication degrades

RNA primers and replaces it with DNA?
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication degrades

RNA primers and replaces it with DNA?
DNA Polymerase I
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Hereditary

Spherocytosis?
What is the genetic inheritance of Hereditary

Spherocytosis?
AD
[...]
How many kcal of energy is obtained from 1g of alcohol? How many kcal of energy is obtained from 1g of alcohol?
7 kcal
[...]
Which enzyme is deficient in McArdle Disease?
Which enzyme is deficient in McArdle Disease?
Skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase

(Myophosphorylase)
[...]
Therefore glycogenolysis is defective.

What B-vitamin is Niacin (NAD+)?
What B-vitamin is Niacin (NAD+)?
B3
[...]
What type of collagen is found in fascia?
What type of collagen is found in fascia?
Type I
[...]
Which enzyme involved with pyrimidine synthesis is

inhibited by negative feedback in Adenosine Deaminase
Deficiency?
Which enzyme involved with pyrimidine synthesis is

inhibited by negative feedback in Adenosine Deaminase
Deficiency?
Ribonucleotide Reductase, due to the excess ATP and

dATP
[...]
What is the rate-determining enzyme of de novo

pyrimidine synthesis?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of de novo

pyrimidine synthesis?
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
[...]
How do methylmalonic acid levels change in Vitamin B12 How do methylmalonic acid levels change in Vitamin B12
(Cobalamin) deficiency?
Increase
[...]
Ergocalciferol (D2) is the form of Vitamin D that is

ingested from plants.
[...] is the form of Vitamin D that is ingested from plants.
Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic imprinting disorder that

results from paternal gene deletion and presents
with intellectual disability and hypotonia.
[...] is a genetic imprinting disorder that results from

paternal gene deletion and presents with intellectual
disability and hypotonia.
The promoter is a DNA site upstream from a gene locus The [...] is a DNA site upstream from a gene locus that is
that is rich in A-T base pairing and has both TATA and rich in A-T base pairing and has both TATA and CAAT
CAAT boxes.
boxes.
Angelman Syndrome is a genetic imprinting disorder
caused by maternal gene deletion that presents with
inappropriate laughter ("happy puppet").
[...] is a genetic imprinting disorder caused by

maternal gene deletion that presents with inappropriate
laughter ("happy puppet").
What is the most common type of Ehlers-Danlos

Syndrome?
What is the most common type of Ehlers-Danlos

Syndrome?
Hypermobility Type (with join instability)
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of G6PD Deficiency?
X-linked Recessive
[...]
Which enzyme involved in de novo pyrimidine synthesis is Which enzyme involved in de novo pyrimidine synthesis is
inhibited by the antineoplastic drug Hydroxyurea?
inhibited by the antineoplastic drug Hydroxyurea?
Ribonucleotide Reductase
[...]
What vitamin deficiency can be caused by Hartnup

Disease?
What vitamin deficiency can be caused by Hartnup

Disease?
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
[...]
Decrease in tryptophan absorption causes a decrease

in Vitamin B3 (Niacin) production.
What is the most common viable chromosomal disorder? What is the most common viable chromosomal disorder?
Down Syndrome
[...]
Which enzyme involved in the purine salvage pathway

converts Adenosine into Inosine?

converts Adenosine into Inosine?
Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
[...]
What is the most numerous type of RNA?
What is the most numerous type of RNA?
rRNA
[...]
Signal Recognition Particle (SRP) is an abundant,

[...] is an abundant, cytosolic ribonucleoprotein that traffics
cytosolic ribonucleoprotein that traffics proteins from the
proteins from the ribosome to the Rough ER.
ribosome to the Rough ER.
Absent or defective SRPs result in accumulation of
proteins in the cytosol.
Which major lysosomal storage disorder affects both the Which major lysosomal storage disorder affects both the
CNS and Reticuloendothelial System (RES)?
CNS and Reticuloendothelial System (RES)?
Niemann-Pick Disease
[...]
Hence there is hepatosplenomegaly, progressive

neurodegeneration and cherry-red macula.
Menkes Disease is a connective tissue disorder that
involves decreased activity of lysyl oxidase due to
impaired copper absorption and transport.
[...] is a connective tissue disorder that involves decreased

activity of lysyl oxidase due to impaired copper absorption
and transport.
How does the risk of Alzheimer Disease change in Down How does the risk of Alzheimer Disease change in Down
Syndrome?
Syndrome?
Increase
[...]
Some Down Syndrome patients have AD by 40 y/o.

Risk significantly increases > 35 y/o.
Which isoform of Hexokinase is inducible by insulin?
[...]
Which isoform of Hexokinase is inducible by insulin?

Glucokinase
Think about this. Which form is in the liver? Where do
we want to store glucose? What hormone is elevated
only when glucose is elevated?
Also remember, that induction = increased expression
= increased Vmax. This is why GK has higher Vmax.
That is also why an increase in sugars in the diet will
result in increase fat deposition as GK expression has
increased.
Where in the cell does the TCA cycle occur??
Where in the cell does the TCA cycle occur??
Mitochondria
[...]
Hurler Syndrome is a lysosomal storage disorder that

presents with gargoylism and corneal clouding.
[...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that presents with

gargoylism and corneal clouding.
What is the genetic inheritance of Familial

Hypercholesterolemia?

Hypercholesterolemia?
AD
[...]
What amino acid is Porphyrin derived from?
What amino acid is Porphyrin derived from?
Glycine
[...]
Which enzyme in the respiratory burst forms Hypochlorite Which enzyme in the respiratory burst forms Hypochlorite
(HOCl) from H2O2?
(HOCl) from H2O2?
Myeloperoxidase
[...]
How does Epinephrine influence Glycogenolysis?
How does Epinephrine influence Glycogenolysis?
Activation
[...]
Epinephrine causes the phosphorylation of Glycogen

Phosphorylase via Protein Kinase A,
thereby activating it.
Epinephrine causes the phosphorylation of Glycogen
Synthase via Protein Kinase A, thereby inactivating
it.
A kinase is a type of enzyme that uses ATP to add highenergy phosphate groups onto substrates.
A [...] is a type of enzyme that uses ATP to add highenergy phosphate groups onto substrates.
What are the fat soluble vitamins?
What are the fat soluble vitamins?
Vitamin A, D, E, and K
[...]
All others are water soluble.

Absorption is therefore dependent on the gut and
pancreas.
Malabsorption syndromes often cause fat-soluble
vitamin deficiency.
How do estriol levels change in the second trimester quad How do estriol levels change in the second trimester quad
screen of Down Syndrome?
screen of Down Syndrome?
Decrease
[...]
Which fat soluble vitamin acts as an antioxidant, especially Which fat soluble vitamin acts as an antioxidant, especially
in RBCs?
in RBCs?
Vitamin E (Tocopherol/Tocotrienol)
[...]
Proteins RBCs and membranes from free radical

damage
How does the activity of Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase in How does the activity of Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase in
Gluconeogenesis change with fructose-2,6-bisphosphate Gluconeogenesis change with fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
regulation?
regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Which 4 amino acids have defective transport in

Cystinuria?
Which 4 amino acids have defective transport in

Cystinuria?
Cysteine; Ornithine; Lysine; Arginine
[...]
COLA
What is the genetic inheritance of McArdle Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of McArdle Disease?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
What is the life expectancy for someone with Tay-Sachs

Disease?
What is the life expectancy for someone with Tay-Sachs

Disease?
3-4 y/o
[...]
Hence a vignette with a 40 y/o patient does not have

Tay-Sachs.
Keratomalacia is an ocular complication of vitamin A
deficiency and is described as corneal degeneration.
[...] is an ocular complication of vitamin A deficiency and

is described as corneal degeneration.
The Gower maneuver is a feature of Duchenne Muscular The [...] is a feature of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy that
Dystrophy that involves patients using their upper
involves patients using their upper extremities to help them
extremities to help them stand up.
stand up.
These patients are typically young (< 5 y/o) and male
(X-linked recessive).
Heteroplasmy is a genetic term defined as the presence of [...] is a genetic term defined as the presence of both
both normal and mutated mtDNA, thereby resulting in normal and mutated mtDNA, thereby resulting in variable
variable expression in mitochondrial inherited disease.
expression in mitochondrial inherited disease.
How does an increase in ATP levels influence the TCA
cycle?
How does an increase in ATP levels influence the TCA

cycle?
Inhibition
[...]
High ATP = high energy = inhibitions of Krebs.

ATP and ADP act as allosteric regulators.
Which enzyme in the TCA cycle is the major regulation

point of the pathway?
Which enzyme in the TCA cycle is the major regulation

point of the pathway?
Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
[...]
Remember, the Krebs cycle is not influenced by Insulin

or Glucagon. It is entirely regulated by local levels of
energy (i.e. ATP, NADH).
The other key regulatory steps are at Citrate
Synthase and alpha-ketoglurate dehydrogenase
Congenital Lactase Deficiency is a rare type of lactase
deficiency that is due to a defective lactase gene.
[...] is a rare type of lactase deficiency that is due to a

defective lactase gene.
How does Glucagon influence Ketogenesis?
How does Glucagon influence Ketogenesis?
Activation
[...]
Hence Ketogenesis occurs post meal and in between

meals.
Bronchiectasis is a pulmonary complication of Cystic
Fibrosis that presents with a reticulonodular pattern on
CXR.
[...] is a pulmonary complication of Cystic Fibrosis that

presents with a reticulonodular pattern on CXR.
Which enzyme is deficient in Fructose Intolerance?
Which enzyme is deficient in Fructose Intolerance?
Aldolase B
[...]
Remember, Aldolase B is unique to fructose

metabolism. Aldolase A is the enzyme in glycolysis.
Which Histone protein is the only Histone not part of the
nucleosome core?
Which Histone protein is the only Histone not part of the

nucleosome core?
H1
[...]
Dental imperfections are a complication of Osteogenesis [...] are a complication of Osteogenesis Imperfecta due to
Imperfecta due to a lack of dentin formation.
a lack of dentin formation.
Which lipoprotein acts as a repository for ApoC and
ApoE?
Which lipoprotein acts as a repository for ApoC and

ApoE?
HDL
[...]
Both of these are needed for chylomicron and VLDL

metabolism. ApoC-II is handed off to other
lipoproteins and then activated LPL, thereby driving
VLDL and CM metabolism.
What is the genetic inheritence of Kartagener Syndrome
(Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia)?
What is the genetic inheritence of Kartagener Syndrome

Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Angelman Syndrome is a genetic imprinting disorder

[...] is a genetic imprinting disorder caused
caused by maternal gene deletion that presents
by maternal gene deletion that presents with seizures,
with seizures, ataxia and severe intellectual disability.
ataxia and severe intellectual disability.
What type of anaemia is seen in Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid)

deficiency?
What type of anaemia is seen in Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid)

deficiency?
[...]
With hypersegmented polymorphonuclear cells

(PMNs).
Hurler Syndrome and Hunter Syndrome are lysosomal
storage disorders that present with accumulation of
heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate.
[...] and Hunter Syndrome are lysosomal storage

disorders that present with accumulation of heparan
sulfate and dermatan sulfate.
Hurler Syndrome and Hunter Syndrome are lysosomal

storage disorders that present with accumulation of
heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate.
Hurler Syndrome and [...] are lysosomal storage disorders

that present with accumulation of heparan sulfate and
dermatan sulfate.
Southern Blot is a blotting procedure used to identify

DNA by cleaving, electrophoresis, denaturing and
reannealing DNA to radiolabeled DNA probes with
known sequences.
[...] is a blotting procedure used to identify DNA by

cleaving, electrophoresis, denaturing and reannealing DNA
to radiolabeled DNA probes with known sequences.
The resultant dsDNA is labeled and visualized on a

filter when exposed to film.
What vitamin is deficient in Wernicke-Korsakoff
Syndrome?
What vitamin is deficient in Wernicke-Korsakoff

Syndrome?
Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
[...]
Hypogonadism is a gonadal complication seen in Zinc

deficiency.
[...] is a gonadal complication seen in Zinc deficiency.
Which structural form of chromatin is transcriptionally

active?

active?
Euchromatin
[...]
Acyl-CoA Dehydrogenase Deficiency is a disorder of

fatty acid breakdown that involves elevated levels of
dicarboxylic acids and low levels of Acetyl-CoA.
[...] is a disorder of fatty acid breakdown that involves

elevated levels of dicarboxylic acids and low levels of
Acetyl-CoA.
Because there is less Acetyl-CoA, there is also

hypoketotic hypoglycemia as acetyl-CoA drives both
ketogenesis and gluconeogenesis.
Neonatal hemorrhaging is a hematological disorder seen in [...] is a hematological disorder seen in neonates with
neonates with Vitamin K deficiency and involves an
Vitamin K deficiency and involves an increased PT and
increased PT and increased aPTT, but normal bleeding
increased aPTT, but normal bleeding time.
time.
Vitamin K is not found in breast milk. Neonates are
given Vitamin K injections at birth to prevent bleeding
diathesis.
How do PAPP-A (pregnancy associated plasma protein
A) levels change in the first trimester in Patau Syndrome
(Trisomy 13)?
How do PAPP-A (pregnancy associated plasma protein

A) levels change in the first trimester in Patau Syndrome
(Trisomy 13)?
Decrease
[...]
[...] and CO are electron transport inhibitors that directly
inhibit the ETC at Complex IV.
Cyanide and CO are electron transport inhibitors that

directly inhibit the ETC at Complex IV.
Cyanide is detoxified by nitrites and thiosulfates.
This decreases the proton gradient and blocks ATP
synthesis.
Cyanide and CO are electron transport inhibitors that
Cyanide and [...] are electron transport inhibitors that

Cyanide is detoxified by nitrites and thiosulfates.

synthesis.
Small Nuclear Ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs) are nuclear [...] are nuclear proteins involved with pre-mRNA splicing
proteins involved with pre-mRNA splicing that form the
that form the spliceosome with the primary transcript.
spliceosome with the primary transcript.
How does PRPP Amidotransferase activity in de novo
purine synthesis change with AMP regulation?

purine synthesis change with AMP regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Alkaptonuria is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that [...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that presents
presents with urine that turns black following prolonged
with urine that turns black following prolonged
exposure to air.
exposure to air.
Oligomycin is an ATP Synthase inhibitor that directly
inhibits ATP synthase in the ETC.
[...] is an ATP Synthase inhibitor that directly inhibits ATP

synthase in the ETC.
This increases the proton gradient, but no ATP is

produced as the ETC is inhibited.
"RACCO" from left to right in the ETC.
What is the typical blood cholesterol level for patients
What is the typical blood cholesterol level for patients
homozygous for Familial Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa homozygous for Familial Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa
familial dyslipidemia)?
700 mg/dL
[...]
Which nucleotide base pairing has the strongest bonding? Which nucleotide base pairing has the strongest bonding?
Guanine-Cytosine due to 3 Hydrogen bonds (vs 2 in A-T)
[...]
Increased GC base pair content increases melting

point of DNA.
What is the genetic inheritance of Niemann-Pick Disease? What is the genetic inheritance of Niemann-Pick Disease?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
Which enzyme in the electron transport chain produces

H2O?
Which enzyme in the electron transport chain produces

H2O?
Cytochrome Oxidase (Complex IV)
[...]
[...] is a disorder caused by Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

deficiency that involves high-output cardiac failure (due
to dilated cardiomyopathy) and edema.
Wet Beriberi is a disorder caused by Vitamin B1

(Thiamine) deficiency that involves high-output cardiac
failure (due to dilated cardiomyopathy) and edema.
Wet beriberi = wet
Blood = wet
Hence, wet beriberi = blood.
So think heart and edema.
Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase is an enzyme involved in
pyrimidine synthesis that converts Carbamoyl Phosphate
into Orotic Acid.
[...] is an enzyme involved in pyrimidine synthesis that

converts Carbamoyl Phosphate into Orotic Acid.
Which 2 ribosomal subunits make up eukaryotic

ribosomes?
Which 2 ribosomal subunits make up eukaryotic

ribosomes?
40S + 60S = 80S
[...]
Eukaryotic = Even
Which type of G-protein is involved in Glucagon and
Epinephrine signalling?
Which type of G-protein is involved in Glucagon and

Epinephrine signalling?
Gs
[...]
Thereby causing an increase in [cAMP].

Tay-Sachs Disease is a lysosomal storage disorder that
presents with progressive neurodegeneration and
progressive neurodegeneration and developmental
developmental delay due to a Hexosaminidase A defect.
delay due to a Hexosaminidase A defect.
What is the rate-determining enzyme of de novo purine
synthesis?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of de novo purine

synthesis?
PRPP Amidotransferase
[...]
Maternal PKU is a form of phenylketonuria that arises due [...] is a form of phenylketonuria that arises due to a lack
to a lack of proper dietary therapy during pregnancy.
of proper dietary therapy during pregnancy.
Infant presents with microcephaly, intellectual
disability, growth retardation and congenital heart
defects.
What type of mutation is seen in Becker Muscular
Dystrophy?
What type of mutation is seen in Becker Muscular

Dystrophy?
Point mutation
[...]
Both DMD and BMD are X-linked Recessive.

DMD has a frameshift mutation.
I-Cell Disease (Inclusion Cell Disease) is an inherited [...] is an inherited lysosomal storage disorder that involves
lysosomal storage disorder that involves a defect in
a defect in phosphotransferase, thereby resulting in failure
phosphotransferase, thereby resulting in failure of the Golgi of the Golgi apparatus to phosphorylate mannose residues.
apparatus to phosphorylate mannose residues.
Hence, proteins enter the default secretory pathway
instead of being sent to lysosomes.
Remember, the lysosomal trafficking signal is
Mannose-6-Phosphate.
What is the rate-determining enzyme of fatty acid

oxidation?

oxidation?
Carnitine acyltransferase I
[...]
Glycine, Aspartate, and Glutamine are 3 amino acids that [...], Aspartate, and Glutamine are 3 amino acids that are
are necessary for purine synthesis.
necessary for purine synthesis.
Glycine, Aspartate, and Glutamine are 3 amino acids that
Glycine, [...], and Glutamine are 3 amino acids that are

Glycine, Aspartate, and Glutamine are 3 amino acids that

Glycine, Aspartate, and [...] are 3 amino acids that are

How does Histone acetylation influence DNA

transcription?
How does Histone acetylation influence DNA

transcription?
Activation, by relaxing DNA coiling
[...]
What gene undergoes a frameshift mutation in Duchenne

Muscular Dystrophy?
What gene undergoes a frameshift mutation in Duchenne

Muscular Dystrophy?
Dystrophin; mutation truncates the proteins; results in

accelerated muscle breakdown
[...]
Infertility is a complication of Kartagener Syndrome

(Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia) that arises in males due to
immotile sperm.
[...] is a complication of Kartagener Syndrome (Primary

Ciliary Dyskinesia) that arises in males due to immotile
sperm.
Infertility is a complication of Cystic Fibrosis seen in males [...] is a complication of Cystic Fibrosis seen in males due
due to the absence of the vas deferens and sperm.
to the absence of the vas deferens and sperm.
Zinc is a trace element that is associated with
dysgeusia and anosmia when it is deficient.
[...] is a trace element that is associated with

dysgeusia and anosmia when it is deficient.
How many ATP molecules are produced by ATP

Synthase for every FADH2 molecule?

Synthase for every FADH2 molecule?
1.5 (so we just use ~2 for calculation)
[...]
FADH2 = 2 ATP
Zinc is a trace element essential for the activity of 100+
enzymes, especially the formation of transcription factor
motifs.
[...] is a trace element essential for the activity of 100+

enzymes, especially the formation of transcription factor
motifs.
i.e. Zinc-finger transcription factor motifs

What is the treatment for Maple Syrup Urine Disease?
What is the treatment for Maple Syrup Urine Disease?
Restriction of BCAAs in the diet (Leu, Ile, Val); Thiamine

supplementation
[...]
Thiamine is a required cofactor for Branched Chain

alpha-Ketoacid Dehydrogenase.
Myosin is a dimeric, ATP-driven motor protein that moves [...] is a dimeric, ATP-driven motor protein that moves
along actin chains.
along actin chains.
[...] is a poisonous cardiac glycoside commonly used as
"arrow poison" that inhibits the Na/K ATPase by binding
to the K binding site.
Ouabain is a poisonous cardiac glycoside commonly used

as "arrow poison" that inhibits the Na/K ATPase by
binding to the K binding site.
Cytochrome Oxidase is an enzyme in the electron
transport chain that is also referred to as Complex IV.
[...] is an enzyme in the electron transport chain that is also

referred to as Complex IV.
What is the genetic inheritance of Gaucher Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Gaucher Disease?
Autosomal recessive
[...]

results from paternal gene deletion and presents
paternal gene deletion and presents with hypogonadism.
with hypogonadism.
Hypertriglyceridemia (Type IV) is a familial dyslipidemia
that involves elevation of VLDL and TGs.
[...] is a familial dyslipidemia that involves elevation of

VLDL and TGs.
What type of collagen is targeted by autoantibodies in

Goodpasture Syndrome?
What type of collagen is targeted by autoantibodies in

Type IV
[...]
22q11 deletion syndromes are a group of chromosomal

deletion syndromes that yield a specific series of
complications due to a microdeletion at chromosome
22q11.
[...] are a group of chromosomal deletion syndromes that

yield a specific series of complications due to a
microdeletion at chromosome 22q11.
What enzyme is absent in Classic Galactosemia?
What enzyme is absent in Classic Galactosemia?
Galactose-1-phosphate Uridyltransferase
[...]
Which 2 basic amino acids are required during periods of Which 2 basic amino acids are required during periods of
growth?
growth?
Arginine; Histidine
[...]
Facial flushing is a morphological feature of Vitamin B3

(Niacin) excess that is caused by an increase in
prostaglandin levels.
[...] is a morphological feature of Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

excess that is caused by an increase in prostaglandin
levels.
Not caused by Histamine.

What amino acid is Melanin derived from?
What amino acid is Melanin derived from?
Tyrosine via Phenyalanine
[...]
The Origin of Replication is a particular sequence of base

pairs in the genome where DNA replication begins.
The [...] is a particular sequence of base pairs in the

genome where DNA replication begins.
What is the key difference between Hereditary Orotic

Aciduria and the orotic aciduria secondary to Ornithine
Transcarbamylase Deficiency?
What is the key difference between Hereditary Orotic

Aciduria and the orotic aciduria secondary to Ornithine
Transcarbamylase Deficiency?
OTCD does not have megaloblastic anaemia
[...]
How do free beta-hCG levels change in the first trimester How do free beta-hCG levels change in the first trimester
in Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)?
Decrease
[...]
Which metabolic process is the major source of energy in Which metabolic process is the major source of energy in
the fed state (just after a meal)?
the fed state (just after a meal)?
Glycolysis; Aerobic Respiration
[...]
Insulin after a meal stimulates the storage of lipids,

proteins and glycogen.
Glycerol Phenylbutyrate is a nitrogen scavenger that treats [...] is a nitrogen scavenger that treats hyperammonemia
hyperammonemia by grabbing ammonia from glutamine.
by grabbing ammonia from glutamine.
It is a prodrug. The active form performs the MOA.
Which enzyme in glycolysis phosphorylates glucose to
Which enzyme in glycolysis phosphorylates glucose to
glucose-6-phosphate, the first metabolite in the pathway? glucose-6-phosphate, the first metabolite in the pathway?
Hexokinase or Glucokinase depending on the tissue
[...]
Hexokinase = most tissue, but not liver or pancreatic

beta-cells
Glucokinase = liver; pancreatic beta-cells
What gonadal complications are seen in Myotonic
Muscular Dystrophy Type 1?
What gonadal complications are seen in Myotonic

Testicular atrophy
[...]
Which enzyme in the liver cleaves Glucose-1-phosphate

residues off branched glycogen until there are four
remaining before a branch point?
Which enzyme in the liver cleaves Glucose-1-phosphate

residues off branched glycogen until there are four
remaining before a branch point?
Glycogen phosphorylase
[...]
Which fat soluble vitamin is known to prevent squamous

metaplasia?
Which fat soluble vitamin is known to prevent squamous

metaplasia?
Vitamin A
[...]
Which lipoprotein is formed through the degradation of

VLDL?
Which lipoprotein is formed through the degradation of

VLDL?
IDL (aka VLDL remnants)
[...]
Which cell cycle checkpoint is blocked by

hypophosphorylated Rb?
Which cell cycle checkpoint is blocked by

hypophosphorylated Rb?
G1 to S
[...]
Hence a mutation can cause uncontrolled cell division.
What is the genetic inheritance of Becker Muscular

Dystrophy?
What is the genetic inheritance of Becker Muscular

Dystrophy?
XLR
[...]
Which water soluble vitamin is needed for the synthesis of Which water soluble vitamin is needed for the synthesis of
Histamine?
Histamine?
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
[...]
Marasmus is a type of malnutrition that involves total

[...] is a type of malnutrition that involves total calorie
calorie malnutrition and resultant tissue/muscle wasting, malnutrition and resultant tissue/muscle wasting, loss of
loss of subQ fat and variable edema.
subQ fat and variable edema.
Marasmus = Muscle wasting
Pleiotropy is a genetic term that describes one gene
contributing to multiple phenotypic effects.
[...] is a genetic term that describes one gene contributing

to multiple phenotypic effects.
e.g. Untreated PKU manifests as light skin tone,

intellectual disability and must body odor/urine.
6-Mercaptopurine (6MP) is an antineoplastic drug that
[...] is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits PRPP
inhibits PRPP Amidotransferase, an enzyme involved in de Amidotransferase, an enzyme involved in de novo purine
novo purine synthesis.
synthesis.
How many pyruvate molecules are made from the
metabolism of 1 Glucose molecule?
How many pyruvate molecules are made from the

metabolism of 1 Glucose molecule?
[...]
1Glc + 2ADP + 2Pi + 2NAD+ --> 2Pyruvate + 2ATP

+ 2NADH
How does regulation by Glucose-6-phosphate affect
Hexokinase activity?
How does regulation by Glucose-6-phosphate affect

Hexokinase activity?
Inhibition
[...]
Which amino acids in Preprocollagen are hydroxylated in Which amino acids in Preprocollagen are hydroxylated in
the Rough ER?
the Rough ER?
Lysine; Proline
[...]
The resultant Hydroxylysine and Hydroxyproline

residues are later integral in collagen fibril formation.
What type of collagen is found in the nucleus pulposus?
What type of collagen is found in the nucleus pulposus?
Type II
[...]
Which apolipoprotein functions to mediate chylomicron

secretion?
Which apolipoprotein functions to mediate chylomicron

secretion?
ApoB-48
[...]
Only found in chylomicrons.
Which 2 nucleotides are the purines?
Which 2 nucleotides are the purines?
Adenine; Guanine
[...]
Pure As Gold.
What type of collagen is defective in Alport Syndrome?
What type of collagen is defective in Alport Syndrome?
Type IV
[...]
Which 2 amino acids are necessary for the transport of

ammonia from muscle and other tissue to the liver?
Which 2 amino acids are necessary for the transport of

ammonia from muscle and other tissue to the liver?
Alanine; Glutamate; both are made and unmade by

Transaminases
[...]
Aspartate = Oxaloacetate + NH2

Alanine = Pyruvate + NH2
Glutamate = alpha-Ketoglutarate + NH2
Pernicious anaemia is a type of anaemia that can
cause Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency due to a lack
of intrinsic factor.
[...] is a type of anaemia that can cause Vitamin B12

(Cobalamin) deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor.
How does the risk of neural tube defects change following How does the risk of neural tube defects change following
administration of supplemental maternal folic acid?
administration of supplemental maternal folic acid?
Decrease
[...]
Calcitriol [1,25-(OH)2 D3] is the active form of Vitamin

D.
[...] is the active form of Vitamin D.
Which fat soluble vitamin is necessary for the activation of Which fat soluble vitamin is necessary for the activation of
clotting factors II, VII, IX, X and proteins C and S?
clotting factors II, VII, IX, X and proteins C and S?
Vitamin K
[...]
Familial Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa familial

dyslipidemia) is a familial dyslipidemia that presents with
achilles tendon xanthomas.
[...] is a familial dyslipidemia that presents with achilles

tendon xanthomas.
Which enzyme functions to cross-link staggered

tropocollagen molecules into collagen fibrils through
covalent lysine-hydroxylysine cross-links?
Which enzyme functions to cross-link staggered

tropocollagen molecules into collagen fibrils through
covalent lysine-hydroxylysine cross-links?
Lysyl Oxidase
[...]
What type of mutation is seen in Duchenne Muscular

Dystrophy?
What type of mutation is seen in Duchenne Muscular

Dystrophy?
Frameshift mutation
[...]
Causes a truncated Dystrophin protein and

accelerated muscle breakdown
Which cytoskeletal filament is incorporated into flagella,
cilia and mitotic spindles?
[...]
Which cytoskeletal filament is incorporated into flagella,

cilia and mitotic spindles?
Microtubules
What is the treatment for Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

deficiency?
What is the treatment for Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

deficiency?
Increased intake of ketogenic nutrients
[...]
e.g. high fat diet or Lysine/Leucine rich diet

Which omega-6 fatty acid is used to make Arachidonic
Acid?
Which omega-6 fatty acid is used to make Arachidonic

Acid?
Linoleic Acid
[...]
Primaquine is an antimalarial drug that can trigger

hemolytic anaemia in G6PD Deficiency.
[...] is an antimalarial drug that can trigger hemolytic

anaemia in G6PD Deficiency.
Which end of the initial RNA transcript receives a 7methylguanosine cap?
Which end of the initial RNA transcript receives a 7methylguanosine cap?
5'
[...]
Which water soluble enzyme is converted to

Tetrahydrofolate (THF), a coenzyme for 1-carbon
transfer/methylation reactions?
Which water soluble enzyme is converted to

Tetrahydrofolate (THF), a coenzyme for 1-carbon
transfer/methylation reactions?
Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid)
[...]
Which phase specific cell cycle regulatory proteins activate Which phase specific cell cycle regulatory proteins activate
CDKs?
CDKs?
Cyclins
[...]
What does lipoamide carry when it is in its activated form? What does lipoamide carry when it is in its activated form?
Acyl groups
[...]
Which secondary messenger is involved in the activation

and inactivation of PFK-2 through protein kinase A?
Which secondary messenger is involved in the activation

and inactivation of PFK-2 through protein kinase A?
cAMP
[...]
Rotenone is an electron transport inhibitor that directly

inhibits the ETC at Complex I.
[...] is an electron transport inhibitor that directly inhibits

the ETC at Complex I.

synthesis.
How does Glucagon influence Glycogenolysis?
[...]
How does Glucagon influence Glycogenolysis?

Activation
Glucagon causes the phosphorylation of Glycogen
Phosphorylase via Protein Kinase A, thereby
activating it.
Glucagon causes the phosphorylation of Glycogen
Synthase via Protein Kinase A, thereby inactivating
it.
How does ethanol affect GABA action?
How does ethanol affect GABA action?
It is GABA-mimetic, hence it is additive to CNS

depressants
[...]
Because of this, it can exacerbate adverse effects and

cause coma/death.
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication catalyzes
the formation of a phosphodiester bond within a
strand of dsDNA?
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication catalyzes

the formation of a phosphodiester bond within a
strand of dsDNA?
DNA Ligase
[...]
i.e. it joins Okazaki fragments

H1 is a Histone protein that binds to both the nucleosome [...] is a Histone protein that binds to both the nucleosome
and linker DNA, thereby stabilizing the chromatin.
and linker DNA, thereby stabilizing the chromatin.
Cheilosis is an oral complication of Vitamin B2
(Riboflavin) deficiency and involves inflammation of the
lips and scaling/fissure at the corners of the mouth.
[...] is an oral complication of Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

deficiency and involves inflammation of the lips and
scaling/fissure at the corners of the mouth.
How do estriol levels change in the quad screen

in Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18)?
How do estriol levels change in the quad screen

Decrease
[...]
Everything decreases in Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy

18)
How many days into starvation do Glycogen reserves
usually become depleted?
How many days into starvation do Glycogen reserves

usually become depleted?
Day 1
[...]
Preprocollagen is the initial form of synthesized collagen

made at the Rough ER and involves alpha-chains of
Glycine-X-Y amino acids.
[...] is the initial form of synthesized collagen made at the

Rough ER and involves alpha-chains of Glycine-X-Y
amino acids.
X and Y are either proline or lysine.

Which water soluble vitamin functions as a cofactor for
many carboxylation enzymes?
Which water soluble vitamin functions as a cofactor for

many carboxylation enzymes?
Vitamin B7 (Biotin)
[...]
How does AMP influence Glycogenolysis at muscle?
How does AMP influence Glycogenolysis at muscle?
Activation
[...]
This only occurs at muscle. AMP has no effect on

hepatic glycogenolysis.
What is the most severe type of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome? What is the most severe type of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome?
Vascular type
[...]
Alkaptonuria is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that is

also referred to as Onchronosis.
[...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that is also

referred to as Onchronosis.
What B-vitamin is Folate?
What B-vitamin is Folate?
B9
[...]
How do alpha-fetoprotein levels change in the second

trimester quad screen of Down Syndrome?
How do alpha-fetoprotein levels change in the second

trimester quad screen of Down Syndrome?
Decrease
[...]
What type of collagen is deficient in the vascular type of What type of collagen is deficient in the vascular type of
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome?
Type III
[...]
ThreE D
Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder
that is diagnosed by increased [Cl-] (> 60 mEq/L) in
sweat.
[...] is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that is

diagnosed by increased [Cl-] (> 60 mEq/L) in sweat.
Which mode of genetic inheritence is often associated with Which mode of genetic inheritence is often associated with
pleiotropic disorders?
pleiotropic disorders?
Autosomal Dominant
[...]
Which water soluble vitamin is a component of the flavins Which water soluble vitamin is a component of the flavins
FAD and FMN?
FAD and FMN?
Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)
[...]
FAD and FMN are used as cofactors in redox

reactions.
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication is inhibited Which enzyme involved with DNA replication is inhibited
by Fluoroquinolone antibiotics?
by Fluoroquinolone antibiotics?
DNA Gyrase (prokaryotic DNA Topoisomerase II)
[...]
Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome is a disorder of the purine

salvage pathway that involves self-mutilation and
aggression due to extremely painful gout.
[...] is a disorder of the purine salvage pathway that

involves self-mutilation and aggression due to
extremely painful gout.
Which enzyme is deficient in Maple Syrup Urine Disease?
[...]
Which enzyme is deficient in Maple Syrup Urine Disease?

Branched Chain alpha-Ketoacid Dehydrogenase
Remember, this enzyme requires Tender Love & Care
For Nancy:
Thiamine (B1)
Lipoic Acid
CoA (B5)
FAD (B2)
NAD (B3)
What amino acid is Niacin derived from?
What amino acid is Niacin derived from?
Tryptophan
[...]
Hence, in Hartnup Disease there is decreased Niacin

due to defective Tryptophan absorption.
Fructose bisphosphatase-2 and Phosphofructokinase-2 [...] and Phosphofructokinase-2 are 2 enzymes part of the
are 2 enzymes part of the same bifunctional enzyme
same bifunctional enzyme complex that function to regulate
complex that function to regulate PFK-1 through F2,6BP.
PFK-1 through F2,6BP.
Fructose bisphosphatase-2 and Phosphofructokinase-2 Fructose bisphosphatase-2 and [...] are 2 enzymes part of
are 2 enzymes part of the same bifunctional enzyme
the same bifunctional enzyme complex that function to
complex that function to regulate PFK-1 through F2,6BP.
regulate PFK-1 through F2,6BP.
What does the start codon AUG code for in eukaryotes? What does the start codon AUG code for in eukaryotes?
Methionine
[...]
Which metabolic shunt acts as a vital source of NADPH

from glucose-6-phosphate?
Which metabolic shunt acts as a vital source of NADPH

from glucose-6-phosphate?
HMP Shunt (Pentose Phosphate Pathway)
[...]
Remember, NADPH is required for reductive

reactions, esp. glutathione in RBCs.
Also, do not confuse NADPH for NADH and its role in
ATP synthesis
Imprinting is a genetic phenomenon described by only one [...] is a genetic phenomenon described by only one allele
allele being active at a locus while the other is inactive due being active at a locus while the other is inactive due to
to methylation.
methylation.
With that one allele inactivated, deletion/mutation of
the active allele will cause disease.
Alkaptonuria is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that
[...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that may
may present with debilitating arthralgias and
present with debilitating arthralgias and degenerative
degenerative arthritis due to homogentisic acid's
arthritis due to homogentisic acid's toxicity towards
toxicity towards cartilage.
cartilage.
What is the genetic inheritance of Adenosine Deaminase
(ADA) Deficiency?

(ADA) Deficiency?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Phenylketonuria (PKU)? What is the genetic inheritance of Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
AR
[...]
Where in the cell does acetyl-CoA production occur?
Where in the cell does acetyl-CoA production occur?
Mitochondria
[...]
How does the activity of Phosphofructokinase-1 in

Glycolysis change with fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
regulation?

Glycolysis change with fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
regulation?
Increase
[...]
Which enzyme in the electron transport chain is inhibited

by Rotenone?

by Rotenone?
Complex I (NADH Dehydrogenase)
[...]

synthesis.
A transition mutation is a type of mutation that involves the
switch of a purine to purine or pyrimidine to pyrimidine.
A [...] is a type of mutation that involves the switch of a

purine to purine or pyrimidine to pyrimidine.
Hepatosteatosis is a complication of ethanol metabolism

due to the increased NADH:NAD ratio causing the
conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to glycerol-3phosphate, thereby causing an increase in triglyceride
levels.
[...] is a complication of ethanol metabolism due to the

increased NADH:NAD ratio causing the conversion of
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to glycerol-3-phosphate,
thereby causing an increase in triglyceride levels.
Hepatosteatosis is also caused by the increased use of

acetyl-CoA for lipogenesis.
What type of ion channel is normally encoded by the
CFTR gene (Cystic Fibrosis)?
What type of ion channel is normally encoded by the

CFTR gene (Cystic Fibrosis)?
ATP-gated Cl- channel
[...]
The CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane

Conductance Regulator) Cl channel secretes Cl
into the lungs and GI tract and reabsorbs Cl in sweat
glands.
When it is mutated it is not transported to the
membrane, resulting in decreased Cl secretion in the
GI and respiratory tracts and decreased Cl
reabsorption at sweat glands.
Increased intracellular Cl triggers compensatory Na
reabsorption which then causes increased H2O
reabsorption, thereby causing thick mucus secretion
into the lungs and GI tract.
There is also subsequently a more negative
transepithelial potential difference.
Krabbe Disease is a lysosomal storage disorder that
involves a Galactocerebrosidase deficiency.
[...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that involves a

Galactocerebrosidase deficiency.
In which direction does DNA Polymerase III synthesize
DNA?
[...]
In which direction does DNA Polymerase III synthesize

DNA?
5' to 3'
How does the activity of Isocitrate dehydrogenase change How does the activity of Isocitrate dehydrogenase change
in the TCA cycle with ATP regulation?
in the TCA cycle with ATP regulation?
Decrease
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Hyperchylomicronemia What is the genetic inheritance of Hyperchylomicronemia
(Type I familial dyslipidemia)?
(Type I familial dyslipidemia)?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
Indirect ELISA is a type of ELISA that uses a test

antigen to detect a specific antibody in a patient's
blood.
[...] is a type of ELISA that uses a test antigen to

detect a specific antibody in a patient's blood.
Secondary antibody coupled to a colour-generating

enzyme is added to detect the first antibody.
If there is an intense colour reaction, the test is
positive.
What are the cutaneous complications seen in Vitamin B7 What are the cutaneous complications seen in Vitamin B7
(Biotin) deficiency?
(Biotin) deficiency?
Dermatitis; alopecia
[...]
What is the 2nd most common cause of genetic intellectual What is the 2nd most common cause of genetic intellectual
disability?
disability?
Fragile X Syndrome
[...]
Down Syndrome is #1.

Which enzyme involved with de novo pyrimidine synthesis Which enzyme involved with de novo pyrimidine synthesis
is inhibited by the antiprotozoal agent Pyrimethamine?
is inhibited by the antiprotozoal agent Pyrimethamine?
Dihydrofolate Reductase (in protozoa)
[...]
What type of mutation is the most severe?
What type of mutation is the most severe?
Frameshift
[...]
What is the life expectancy of a patient with Krabbe

Disease?
What is the life expectancy of a patient with Krabbe

Disease?
~ 2 y/o
[...]
What type of collagen is found in Reticulin?
What type of collagen is found in Reticulin?
Type III
[...]
Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13) is an autosomal trisomy

that is associated with rocker-bottom feet and
microphthalmia.
[...] is an autosomal trisomy that is associated with rockerbottom feet and microphthalmia.
How does regulation by ATP affect Phosphofructokinase- How does regulation by ATP affect Phosphofructokinase1 (PFK-1) activity?
1 (PFK-1) activity?
Inhibition
[...]
When ATP levels are high, PFK-1 is inhibited and

upstream glucose-6-phosphate builds up. When that
occurs, G6P is stored as glycogen by the liver.
Asterixis is a neurological complication of Ammonia
intoxication and is described as repetitive tremor of the
hand when the wrist is extended.
[...] is a neurological complication of Ammonia intoxication

and is described as repetitive tremor of the hand when the
wrist is extended.
Which fat soluble vitamin functions to increase intestinal

absorption of Ca and PO4?
Which fat soluble vitamin functions to increase intestinal

absorption of Ca and PO4?
Vitamin D
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Duchenne's Muscular

Dystrophy (DMD)?
What is the genetic inheritance of Duchenne's Muscular

Dystrophy (DMD)?
XLR
[...]
What type of collagen is found in the vitreous body?
What type of collagen is found in the vitreous body?
Type II
[...]
Hypertriglyceridemia (Type IV Familial Dyslipidemia) is a

familial dyslipidemia that presents with hepatic
overproduction of VLDL.
[...] is a familial dyslipidemia that presents with hepatic

overproduction of VLDL.
Which mode of genetic inheritence is usually seen in only 1 Which mode of genetic inheritence is usually seen in only 1
generation?
generation?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Typically more severe than dominant disorders.

Which organelle in fibroblasts is the site of glycosylation of Which organelle in fibroblasts is the site of glycosylation of
Preprocollagen?
Preprocollagen?
Rough ER
[...]
Which structural form of chromatin is condensed?
Which structural form of chromatin is condensed?
Heterochromatin
[...]
HeteroChromatin = Highly Condensed

In which type of foods is Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid) found? In which type of foods is Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid) found?
Leafy green vegetables
FOLic acid = FOLiage
[...]
Which monosaccharisde is added to proteins in the Golgi Which monosaccharisde is added to proteins in the Golgi
to allow for trafficking to lysosomes?
to allow for trafficking to lysosomes?
Mannose-6-phosphate
[...]
Which lysosomal storage disorder presents with

lysosomes with onion skin?
Which lysosomal storage disorder presents with

lysosomes with onion skin?
Tay-Sachs Disease
[...]
COPI is a vesicular trafficking protein that carries material [...] is a vesicular trafficking protein that carries material
through the Golgi in a retrograde direction.
through the Golgi in a retrograde direction.
How does the activity of Glycogen phosphorylase change How does the activity of Glycogen phosphorylase change
in Glycogenolysis with glucagon regulation?
in Glycogenolysis with glucagon regulation?
Increase
[...]
Chronic Granulomatous Disease is an immune disorder

caused by NADPH Oxidase deficiency that involves an
increased risk for recurrent infections and granuloma
formation by catalase-positive organisms.
[...] is an immune disorder caused by NADPH Oxidase

deficiency that involves an increased risk for recurrent
infections and granuloma formation by catalase-positive
organisms.
Catalase positive organisms are capable of

neutralizing their own H2O2, thereby leaving
phagocytes without any ROS to fight the infection.
Catalase negative organisms on the other hand
essentially provide H2O2 to phagocytes.
How do Inhibin A levels change in the second trimester
How do Inhibin A levels change in the second trimester

Increase
[...]
Lechitin-cholesterol Acyltransferase (LCAT) is an enzyme

[...] is an enzyme found on HDL that catalyzes the
found on HDL that catalyzes the esterification of
esterification of cholesterol, thereby forming mature HDL.
cholesterol, thereby forming mature HDL.
How does Malonyl-CoA influence Fatty Acid
Degradation?
How does Malonyl-CoA influence Fatty Acid

Degradation?
Inhibition (at Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase 1)
[...]
Remember, Malonyl-CoA is an intermediate of FA

Synthesis. Hence, if your ass is making fats, fat
breakdown is going to be inhibited.
Which isoform of Hexokinase is associated with Maturity- Which isoform of Hexokinase is associated with Maturityonset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)?
onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)?
Glucokinase
[...]
Gaucher Disease is a lysosomal storage disorder that

involves the accumulation of Glucocerebroside.
[...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that involves the

accumulation of Glucocerebroside.
"G-G-Glucose!" (Gaucher, Glucocerebrosidase,

Glucocerebroside)
involves a deficieny of alpha-L-iduronidase.

deficieny of alpha-L-iduronidase.
McArdle Disease is a glycogen storage disorder that is

also referred to as Type V Glycogen Storage Disorder.
[...] is a glycogen storage disorder that is also referred to

as Type V Glycogen Storage Disorder.
What triad of symptoms is commonly seen in Vitamin Bcomplex deficiencies?
What triad of symptoms is commonly seen in Vitamin Bcomplex deficiencies?
Diarrhea; Dermatitis; Glossitis
[...]
Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphatase is an irreversible enzyme

that converts F1,6BP to F6P in gluconeogenesis.
[...] is an irreversible enzyme that converts F1,6BP to F6P

in gluconeogenesis.
Which receptors are absent or defective in Familial

Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa familial dyslipidemia)?
Which receptors are absent or defective in Familial

LDL receptor (aka ApoB-100 receptor)
[...]
I-Cell Disease is an autosomal recessive lysosomal storage [...] is an autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disorder
disorder that involves coarse facial features and
that involves coarse facial features and clouded
clouded corneas due to a defect in Phosphotransferase.
corneas due to a defect in Phosphotransferase.
Avidin is a protein found in egg whites that can bind
to Vitamin B7 (Biotin).
[...] is a protein found in egg whites that can bind

to Vitamin B7 (Biotin).
Cori Disease is a glycogen storage disorder that involves [...] is a glycogen storage disorder that involves cellular
cellular glycogen with too many branches due to a
glycogen with too many branches due to a deficiency of
deficiency of Debranching Enzyme.
Debranching Enzyme.
Pancreatic Insufficiency is an endocrine complication of [...] is an endocrine complication of Cystic Fibrosis due to
Cystic Fibrosis due to decreased drainage of pancreatic
decreased drainage of pancreatic secretions and
secretions and subsequent chronic pancreatitis.
subsequent chronic pancreatitis.
This brings about further complications such as
malabsorption, steatorrhea, and Vit A, D, E & K
deficiencies
How do NADH levels change in alcohol metabolism?
How do NADH levels change in alcohol metabolism?
Increase; alcohol metabolism forms NADH from NAD+
[...]
NADH:NAD+ ratio increases.

Which functional group on the 3' position of nucleotides Which functional group on the 3' position of nucleotides
attacks the triphosphate bond of the preceding nucleotide? attacks the triphosphate bond of the preceding nucleotide?
Hydroxyl group (-OH)
[...]
Drugs that block DNA replication typically have

modified 3' OH groups, thereby preventing the
addition of the nucleotide and causing chain
termination.
Where in the cell does Fatty acid synthesis occur?
Where in the cell does Fatty acid synthesis occur?
Cytoplasm
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Hemochromatosis?
What is the genetic inheritance of Hemochromatosis?
AR
[...]
Fomepizole is an azole drug that is used to competitively

inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase, thereby acting as an
antidote for methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning.
[...] is an azole drug that is used to competitively inhibit

alcohol dehydrogenase, thereby acting as an antidote for
methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning.
What type of abnormal products accumulate in lysosomal What type of abnormal products accumulate in lysosomal
storage diseases?
storage diseases?
Sphingolipids
[...]
Ceramide is the 'parent' of all sphingolipids.

How does the activity of Glycogen synthase change in
glycogenesis with glucagon regulation?

glycogenesis with glucagon regulation?
Decrease
[...]
What water soluble vitamin is required by Alanine

Aminotransferase (ALT)?
What water soluble vitamin is required by Alanine

Aminotransferase (ALT)?
[...]
Which fat soluble vitamin functions to increase bone

mineralization?
Which fat soluble vitamin functions to increase bone

mineralization?
Vitamin D
[...]
Ubiquinone is an enzyme in the electron transport chain [...] is an enzyme in the electron transport chain that is also
that is also referred to as Coenzyme Q.
referred to as Coenzyme Q.
Linoleic Acid is an omega-6 fatty acid.
Linoleic Acid is an omega-[...] fatty acid.
Axonemal Dynein is an ATPase found in cilia that links the [...] is an ATPase found in cilia that links the peripheral 9
peripheral 9 microtubule doublets.
microtubule doublets.
Avidin is a protein in raw eggs that can bind to Vitamin B7 [...] is a protein in raw eggs that can bind to Vitamin B7
(Biotin), thereby causing a possible deficiency of fatty
(Biotin), thereby causing a possible deficiency of fatty
acids due to impaired Malonyl-CoA production.
acids due to impaired Malonyl-CoA production.
Biotin is required for Malonyl-CoA production in FA
Synthesis.
What is the only lysosomal storage disorder that is Xlinked recessive?
What is the only lysosomal storage disorder that is Xlinked recessive?
Fabry Disease and Hunter's Syndrome
[...]
All other lysosomal storage disorders are autosomal

recessive.
Which antiprotease normally inhibits Elastase?
Which antiprotease normally inhibits Elastase?
1-antitrypsin
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Metachromatic

Leukodystrophy?
What is the genetic inheritance of Metachromatic

Leukodystrophy?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Xeroderma Pigmentosum is a cutaneous disorder that

involves defective Nucleotide Excision Repair, thereby
resulting in the formation of pyrimidine dimers from UV
light exposure.
[...] is a cutaneous disorder that involves defective

Nucleotide Excision Repair, thereby resulting in the
formation of pyrimidine dimers from UV light exposure.
Which 2 water soluble vitamins are needed to synthesize

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) from Tryptophan?
Which 2 water soluble vitamins are needed to synthesize

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) from Tryptophan?
Vitamins B2 and B6
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Alkaptonuria?
What is the genetic inheritance of Alkaptonuria?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
What cutaneous changes are seen when there is an excess What cutaneous changes are seen when there is an excess
of Vitamin A?
of Vitamin A?
Scaliness; alopecia
[...]
Which form of DNA repair involves specific

endonucleases that release the oligonucleotide that
contains damaged bases?
Which form of DNA repair involves specific

endonucleases that release the oligonucleotide that
contains damaged bases?
Nucleotide Excision Repair
[...]
DNA Polymerase and Ligase then fill and seal the gap
respectively.
in Glycogenolysis with ATP regulation?
in Glycogenolysis with ATP regulation?
Decrease
[...]
How does the activity of Carnitine acyltransferase I in fatty How does the activity of Carnitine acyltransferase I in fatty
acid oxidation change with malonyl-CoA regulation?
acid oxidation change with malonyl-CoA regulation?
Decrease
[...]
What type of mutation is the least severe?
What type of mutation is the least severe?
Silent
[...]
What type of cell contains the intermediate filament

Desmin?

Desmin?
Muscle
[...]
Which branchial pouches are affected in 22q11 deletion

syndromes?
Which branchial pouches are affected in 22q11 deletion

syndromes?
3rd; 4th
[...]
Which lipoprotein functions to deliver hepatic

triglycerides to peripheral tissue?

triglycerides to peripheral tissue?
VLDL
[...]
Secreted by the liver.

[...] is a possible complication of Von Gierke Disease due
to the phosphate trapping that occurs with Glucose-6phosphate accumulation and the resultant lack of
phosphate for purine salvage.
Gout/Hyperuricemia is a possible complication of Von

Gierke Disease due to the phosphate trapping that occurs
with Glucose-6-phosphate accumulation and the resultant
lack of phosphate for purine salvage.
Anything that causes phosphate trapping can cause
hyperuricemia/gout.
Fructose Intolerance (Aldolase B deficiency; F1P
accumulation) is another example.
Classic Galactosemia (Gal-1-P Uridyltransferase
defect; Gal-1-P accumulation) is one as well.
What is the most common autosomal trisomy?
What is the most common autosomal trisomy?
Down Syndrome; 1:700
[...]
What are the 3 aromatic amino acids?
What are the 3 aromatic amino acids?
Tryptophan; Phenylalanine; Tyrosine
[...]
A transversion mutation is a type of mutation that involves

the switch of a purine to a pyrimidine or vice versa.
A [...] is a type of mutation that involves the switch of a

purine to a pyrimidine or vice versa.
Vascular Type is a type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome that

[...] is a type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome that involves
involves vascular and organ rupture due to a deficiency in vascular and organ rupture due to a deficiency in type III
type III collagen.
collagen.
Osteogenesis Imperfecta is a bone disorder that arises
from an inability to form procollagen (problems forming
a triple helix of collagen alpha-chains).
[...] is a bone disorder that arises from an inability to

form procollagen (problems forming a triple helix of
collagen alpha-chains).
Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
Cytoplasm
[...]
Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I) is a familial dyslipidemia

that involves elevation of chylomicrons, TGs and
cholesterol.

chylomicrons, TGs and cholesterol.
Cataracts are an ocular complication of disorders of

galactose metabolism due to the accumulation of
Galactitol, a reducing product of Galactose.
[...] are an ocular complication of disorders of galactose

metabolism due to the accumulation of Galactitol, a
reducing product of Galactose.
For this reason, disorders of fructose metabolism do

not present with cataracts as Fructose is not a
reducing sugar.
Which 3 lysosomal storage disorder have an increased
incidence in Ashkenazi Jews?
Which 3 lysosomal storage disorder have an increased

incidence in Ashkenazi Jews?
Tay-Sachs; Niemann-Pick; Gaucher
[...]
Which isoform of Hexokinase has both lower Km and

Vmax?
Which isoform of Hexokinase has both lower Km and

Vmax?
Hexokinase
[...]
Hexokinase = lower
Glucokinase = higher
that is associated with polydactyly.
[...] is an autosomal trisomy that is associated with

polydactyly.
The proteasome is a barrel-shaped protein complex that The [...] is a barrel-shaped protein complex that degrades
degrades damaged or ubiquitin-tagged proteins.
damaged or ubiquitin-tagged proteins.
Ubiquitin-proteasome complex defects have been
implicated in Parkinson Disease.
What water soluble vitamin is required in the nonoxidative, What water soluble vitamin is required in the nonoxidative,
reversible step of the HMP shunt conducted by
reversible step of the HMP shunt conducted by
Transketolases?
Transketolases?
[...]
Activity of these transketolases are used to gauge the

level of Thiamine deficiency.
Which type of DNA repair is defective in Xeroderma
Pigmentosum?
Which type of DNA repair is defective in Xeroderma

Pigmentosum?
Nucleotide Excision Repair
[...]
Mannose-6-phosphate is a monosaccharide that is added [...] is a monosaccharide that is added to proteins to allow
to proteins to allow for protein trafficking to
for protein trafficking to lysosomes.
lysosomes.
Nissl Bodies are the Rough ER in neurons that function to
synthesize peptide neurotransmitters for secretion.
[...] are the Rough ER in neurons that function to

synthesize peptide neurotransmitters for secretion.

involves a Hexosaminidase A deficiency.

Hexosaminidase A deficiency.
Tay-SaX = HeXosaminidase A deficiency

What amino acid is Glutathione derived from?
What amino acid is Glutathione derived from?
Glutamate
[...]
What is the First Aid mnemonic for the intermediates of

the Urea Cycle?

the Urea Cycle?
Ordinarily, Careless Crappers Are Also Frivolous About

Urination
[...]
Ornithine, Carbamoyl
phosphate, Citrulline, Aspartate, Arginosuccinate, Fumarate,
What type of eukaryotic RNA Polymerase makes rRNA? What type of eukaryotic RNA Polymerase makes rRNA?
RNA Polymerase I
[...]
Polymerase I, II and III are numbered as their

products are used in protein synthesis.
Which cytoskeletal filament is involved in slow axoplasmic Which cytoskeletal filament is involved in slow axoplasmic
transport in neurons?
transport in neurons?
Microtubules
[...]
[...] and Digitoxin are cardiac glycosides that directly

inhibits the Na/K ATPase.
Digoxin and Digitoxin are cardiac glycosides that directly

This then causes indirect inhibition of the Na/Ca
exchanger and a subsequent increase in [Ca]i,
thereby increasing cardiac contractility.
Digoxin and Digitoxin are cardiac glycosides that directly
Digoxin and [...] are cardiac glycosides that directly

This then causes indirect inhibition of the Na/Ca

exchanger and a subsequent increase in [Ca]i,
thereby increasing cardiac contractility.
Edwards Syndrome is an autosomal trisomy that is
associated with low-set ears and clenched hands.
[...] is an autosomal trisomy that is associated with low-set

ears and clenched hands.
Which enzyme is deficient in the lysosomal storage

disorder Tay-Sachs Disease?

disorder Tay-Sachs Disease?
Hexosaminidase A
[...]

What type of cytoskeletal filament is involved in
cytokinesis?
What type of cytoskeletal filament is involved in

cytokinesis?
Actin; Myosin
[...]
Fabry Disease is a lysosomal storage disorder that

involves accumulation of ceramide hexoside.
[...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that involves

accumulation of ceramide hexoside.
How does the risk of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia

(AML) change in Down Syndrome?
How does the risk of Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia

(AML) change in Down Syndrome?
Increase
[...]
What amino acid is Nitric Oxide derived from?
What amino acid is Nitric Oxide derived from?
Arginine
[...]
Sucrose is a disaccharide that consists of Fructose and

Glucose.
[...] is a disaccharide that consists of Fructose and

Glucose.
What is the genetic inheritance of Phenylketonuria (PKU)? What is the genetic inheritance of Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
Incidence 1:10,000
Screened for 2-3 days after birth as maternal enzymes
at birth can give normal readings during.
How does the activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC) How does the activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC)
in fatty acid synthesis change with citrate regulation?
in fatty acid synthesis change with citrate regulation?
Increase
[...]
Which cellular organelle is the site of steroid synthesis?
[...]
Which cellular organelle is the site of steroid synthesis?

Smooth ER
Hence, steroid producing cells are rich in SER.
Which enzyme in the liver cleaves off the last glucose-1phosphate molecule from a branch in Glycogenolysis?
Which enzyme in the liver cleaves off the last glucose-1phosphate molecule from a branch in Glycogenolysis?
alpha-1,6-Glucosidase (Debranching Enzyme)
[...]
What receptor on hepatocytes binds to HDL, thereby

mediating its uptake?
What receptor on hepatocytes binds to HDL, thereby

mediating its uptake?
SR-B1
[...]
aka Scavenger B1 Receptor

Remember, HDL brings exposed or unused
cholesterol to the liver from peripheral tissue.
When LDL levels are in excess in the blood, they
become oxidized and can yield a fatty streak on blood
vessel walls. HDL also functions to "clean up" this
deposited cholesterol.
Phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2) is an enzyme that forms
F2,6BP, an allosteric activator of PFK-1, in response to
insulin.
[...] is an enzyme that forms F2,6BP, an allosteric

activator of PFK-1, in response to insulin.
Albinism is a possible cutaneous complication of Menkes

Disease due to Tyrosinase requiring copper to form
Melanin.
[...] is a possible cutaneous complication of Menkes

Disease due to Tyrosinase requiring copper to form
Melanin.
Remember, Menkes Disease involves a defect in

copper absorption.
The albinism is on the milder side, if present.
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication elongates Which enzyme involved with DNA replication elongates
the leading strand by adding deoxynucleotides to the the leading strand by adding deoxynucleotides to the
3' end?
3' end?
DNA Polymerase III
[...]
What does Biotin carry when it is in its activated form?
What does Biotin carry when it is in its activated form?
CO2
[...]
Which is the only human enzyme that can reactivate Folate Which is the only human enzyme that can reactivate Folate
(N5-Methyl-THF to THF)?
(N5-Methyl-THF to THF)?
Homocysteine Methyltransferase (Methionine Synthase)
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Fabry Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Fabry Disease?
XLR
[...]
Cystinuria is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that [...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that involves a
involves a hereditary defect of the renal PCT and intestinal hereditary defect of the renal PCT and intestinal amino
amino acid transporter for Cysteine, Ornithine, Lysine and
acid transporter for Cysteine, Ornithine, Lysine and
Arginine.
Arginine.
COLA: Cysteine, Ornithine, Lysine, Arginine
Down Syndrome is an autosomal trisomy disorder that is
associated with duodenal atresia and Hirschprung
disease.
[...] is an autosomal trisomy disorder that is associated

with duodenal atresia and Hirschprung disease.
What vitamin is deficient is deficient in Beriberi?
What vitamin is deficient is deficient in Beriberi?
[...]
Hepatic Lipase (HL) is a hepatic enzyme that degrades

triglycerides that remain in IDL.
[...] is a hepatic enzyme that degrades triglycerides that

remain in IDL.
How does the activity of Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate in

Gluconeogenesis change with AMP regulation?

Gluconeogenesis change with AMP regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Remember, gluconeogenesis only occurs in high energy

states.
Where in the body does gluconeogenesis primarily occur? Where in the body does gluconeogenesis primarily occur?
Liver
[...]
Essentially, it will occur wherever the enzymes exist.

Hence it also occurs at the kidneys and intestinal
epithelium. Along the same lines, it does not occur at
muscle due to their lack of Glucose-6-phosphatase
What type of septal defect is associated with Down
Syndrome?
What type of septal defect is associated with Down

Syndrome?
Ostium primum-type atrial septal defect
[...]
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication creates a Which enzyme involved with DNA replication creates a
single- or double-stranded break in the DNA double single- or double-stranded break in the DNA double
helix to add or remove supercoils?
helix to add or remove supercoils?
DNA Topoisomerase
[...]
Which nucleoside triphosphate molecule is used to

activate (charge) tRNA?
Which nucleoside triphosphate molecule is used to

activate (charge) tRNA?
ATP
[...]
ATP = Actvation of tRNA

From which ribosomal binding site does the completed
polypeptide chain leave the ribosome?
[...]
From which ribosomal binding site does the completed

polypeptide chain leave the ribosome?
E site
E site = Exit
inactive?

inactive?
Heterochromatin
[...]

What vitamin is deficient in Pellagra?
What vitamin is deficient in Pellagra?
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
[...]
A phosphorylase is a type of enzyme that adds inorganic

phosphate onto substrates without using ATP.
A [...] is a type of enzyme that adds inorganic phosphate

onto substrates without using ATP.
Which amino acid is used to derive Vitamin B3 (Niacin)? Which amino acid is used to derive Vitamin B3 (Niacin)?
Tryptophan
[...]
Krabbe Disease is a lysosomal storage disorder that

presents with an accumulation of Galactocerebroside.
[...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that presents with an

accumulation of Galactocerebroside.

Glycolysis change with ATP regulation?

Glycolysis change with ATP regulation?
Decrease
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Autosomal Recessive

Polycystic Kidney Disease (ARPKD; Infantile PKD)?
What is the genetic inheritance of Autosomal Recessive

Polycystic Kidney Disease (ARPKD; Infantile PKD)?
AR
[...]
I mean, if you're getting these kind of cards wrong...

Which water soluble vitamin is required for the synthesis of Which water soluble vitamin is required for the synthesis of
heme?
heme?
[...]
What is the most common lysosomal storage disorder?
What is the most common lysosomal storage disorder?
Gaucher Disease
[...]
Which enzyme involved with the cross-linking of collagen Which enzyme involved with the cross-linking of collagen
fibrils is impaired in Menkes Disease?
fibrils is impaired in Menkes Disease?
Lysyl Oxidase
[...]
Which nucleoside disphosphate molecule is added to

sugars to "activate" them for metabolic reactions?
Which nucleoside disphosphate molecule is added to

sugars to "activate" them for metabolic reactions?
UDP (Uridine Diphosphate)
[...]
What is the treatment for Von Gierke Disease?
What is the treatment for Von Gierke Disease?
Frequent oral glucose/cornstarch; avoidance of fructose

and galactose
[...]
Pompe Disease is a glycogen storage disorder that

involves a deficiency of Lysosomal alpha-1,4-glucosidase
(Acid Maltase).
[...] is a glycogen storage disorder that involves a

deficiency of Lysosomal alpha-1,4-glucosidase (Acid
Maltase).
What is the MOA of Butyrate in the treatment of

Hyperammonemia?
What is the MOA of Butyrate in the treatment of

Hyperammonemia?
Binding to amino acids and leading to their excretion,

thereby decreasing ammonia levels
[...]
Classic Galactosemia is a disorder of galactose

metabolism that involves the absence of Galactose-1phosphate Uridyltransferase.
[...] is a disorder of galactose metabolism that involves the

absence of Galactose-1-phosphate Uridyltransferase.
Variable Expressivity is a genetic term defined as

phenotype variation among individuals with the same
genotype.
[...] is a genetic term defined as phenotype variation

among individuals with the same genotype.
e.g. 2 patients with NF1 may have varying disease

severity
Anticipation is a genetic term described as an increased [...] is a genetic term described as an increased severity or
severity or earlier onset of disease in succeeding
earlier onset of disease in succeeding generations.
generations.
e.g. Huntington's Disease (or other trinucleotide
repeat disorders)
How do increased Acetyl-CoA levels influence Pyruvate
Carboxylase activity?
How do increased Acetyl-CoA levels influence Pyruvate

Activation
[...]
What is the shortest phase of the cell cycle?
What is the shortest phase of the cell cycle?
Mitosis
[...]
How do decreased Insulin levels influence Hormone

Sensitive Lipase (HSL) activity?
How do decreased Insulin levels influence Hormone

Sensitive Lipase (HSL) activity?
Increase
[...]
This is very important to remember. Hormone

Sensitive Lipase detects decreases in Insulin. This
contributes to the hyperlipidemia seen in diabetics.
Lower insulin levels causes an increase in HSL activity
and hence more FFAs in the blood.
Also remember that without Insulin, lipids are not
stored in adipose tissue and they stay in blood (as
VLDL, LDL and Chylomicrons), thereby contributing
to diabetic hyperlipidemia.
Which dyslipidemia is referred to as Type I Dyslipidemia? Which dyslipidemia is referred to as Type I Dyslipidemia?
Hyperchylomicronemia (or Hypertriglyceridemia)
[...]
Homocystinuria is a disorder of amino acid metabolism

that can result from a decreased affinity of Cystathionine
Synthase for Pyridoxal Phosphate (Vitamin B6).
[...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that can result

from a decreased affinity of Cystathionine Synthase for
Pyridoxal Phosphate (Vitamin B6).
Treatment: greatly increased B6 and increased

cysteine in the diet.
Which cell cycle checkpoint is blocked by p53?
Which cell cycle checkpoint is blocked by p53?
G1 to S
[...]
Hence a mutation can cause uncontrolled cell division.

Pyruvate carboxylase is an irreversible enzyme that
converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis.
[...] is an irreversible enzyme that converts pyruvate to

oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis.
in the TCA cycle with NADH regulation?
in the TCA cycle with NADH regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Hence the increased NADH in alcohol metabolism

shuts off the TCA cycle.
Von Gierke disease is a glycogen storage disorder that is [...] is a glycogen storage disorder that is also referred to
also referred to as Type I Glycogen Storage Disorder.
as Type I Glycogen Storage Disorder.
Which fat soluble vitamin is highly teratogenic when it is in Which fat soluble vitamin is highly teratogenic when it is in
excess?
excess?
Vitamin A
[...]
Hence, a negative pregnancy test and reliable

contraception is required before a patient can be
prescribed isoretinoin for severe acne.
NADH Dehydrogenase is a mitochondrial enzyme part of
the electron transport chain that is also referred to as
Complex I.
[...] is a mitochondrial enzyme part of the electron

transport chain that is also referred to as Complex I.
Permanent cells are a type of cell that remain in G0 and

regenerate from stem cells.
[...] cells are a type of cell that remain in G0 and

regenerate from stem cells.
e.g. neurons, skeletal and cardiac muscle.

Thiamine Pyrophosphate (TPP) is the enzyme cofactor
form of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine).
[...] is the enzyme cofactor form of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine).
Which GLUT transporter protein has the highest Km value Which GLUT transporter protein has the highest Km value
(i.e. lowest affinity)?
(i.e. lowest affinity)?
GLUT2
[...]
Remember, GLUT2 is found on the basolateral

membrane of GI epithelium.
Glucose is a reducing sugar (aldose) that becomes
Sorbitol via Aldose Reductase.
The other aldose (reducing) sugars include:
Galactose --> Galactitol;
Inose --> Inositol;
Mannose --> Mannitol
[...] is a reducing sugar (aldose) that becomes Sorbitol via

Aldose Reductase.
How many carbons are in the essential fatty acid

Linolenic Acid?
How many carbons are in the essential fatty acid

Linolenic Acid?
18:3
[...]

[...] is a disorder of galactose metabolism that presents
metabolism that presents similarly to Fructose Intolerance similarly to Fructose Intolerance (Aldolase B deficiency)
(Aldolase B deficiency) except that it includes cataracts.
except that it includes cataracts.
Fructose is to Aldolase B as Galactose is to
UridylTransferase. (FAB GUT).
How does Insulin influence Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
activity?
How does Insulin influence Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

activity?
Activation
[...]
P-bodies are cytoplasmic protein complexes that contain

exonucleases, decapping enzymes and microRNAs and
function as an mRNA quality control mechanism.
[...] are cytoplasmic protein complexes that contain

exonucleases, decapping enzymes and microRNAs and
function as an mRNA quality control mechanism.
The enhancer is a stretch of DNA that alters gene

expression by binding to transcription factors.
The [...] is a stretch of DNA that alters gene expression by

binding to transcription factors.
Can be close to, far from or within the gene it

regulates.
How does the risk of atherosclerosis change
in Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I familial dyslipidemia)?
How does the risk of atherosclerosis change

in Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I familial dyslipidemia)?
No increased risk
[...]
Isoniazid is an anti-TB drug that can cause Vitamin B3

(Niacin) deficiency by decreasing Vitamin B6 levels.
[...] is an anti-TB drug that can cause Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

deficiency by decreasing Vitamin B6 levels.
Remember, Vitamin B6 is needed for the synthesis of

Niacin.
IsoNIAZid causes NIAZin deficiency.
What is the life expectancy of Duchenne Muscular
Dystrophy?
What is the life expectancy of Duchenne Muscular

Dystrophy?
~20 y/o
[...]
Hence, read the damn vignette properly. If the patient

is 30+ y/o, DMD is unlikely.
Primary Lactase Deficiency is a type of Lactase
[...] is a type of Lactase Deficiency that presents with an
Deficiency that presents with an age-dependent decline in age-dependent decline in Lactase activity after childhood
Lactase activity after childhood due to the absence of a
due to the absence of a lactase-persistent allele.
lactase-persistent allele.
Common in Asians, Africans, and North Americans.
Cytokeratin?

Cytokeratin?
Epithelium
[...]
deficiency of Sphingomyelinase.
Niemann-Pick Disease is a lysosomal storage disorder

that involves a deficiency of Sphingomyelinase.
My friend Naman picks (Niemann-Pick) his nose with
his sphinger (sphingomyelin; sphingomyelinase).
... true story, if you ever see Naman D. on the wards,
call him out on it.
In which direction across the plasma membrane does the
Na/K ATPase move Na?

Na/K ATPase move Na?
3 Na out per ATP consumed
[...]
Which tendon is commonly the site of xanthomas

in Familial Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa familial
dyslipidemia)?
Which tendon is commonly the site of xanthomas

in Familial Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa familial
dyslipidemia)?
Achilles tendon
[...]

by Antimycin A?

by Antimycin A?
Complex III
[...]

synthesis.
"RACCO" from left to right in the ETC.
Which blotting procedure is used to diagnose Duchenne
Muscular Dystrophy?
Which blotting procedure is used to diagnose Duchenne

Muscular Dystrophy?
Western Blot
[...]
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease

[...] is an autosomal dominant renal disorder that involves
(ADPKD) is an autosomal dominant renal disorder that
bilateral, massive enlargement of the kidneys due to
involves bilateral, massive enlargement of the kidneys due
multiple large cysts.
to multiple large cysts.
Which lysosomal storage disease is associated with
angiokeratomas?
Which lysosomal storage disease is associated with

angiokeratomas?
Fabry Disease
[...]
Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) Deficiency is a disorder of [...] is a disorder of the purine salvage pathway that results
the purine salvage pathway that results in excess ATP and
in excess ATP and dATP, thereby causing negative
dATP, thereby causing negative feedback of
feedback of Ribonucleotide Reductase.
Thereby causing a decrease in DNA synthesis and
decreased lymphocyte count.
Which energy store is the major source of energy after
day 3 of starvation?
[...]
Which energy store is the major source of energy after

day 3 of starvation?
Adipose stores
This far into starvation, ketones become the main
energy source for the brain.
After fat stores deplete, degradation of vital proteins
accelerates, leading to organ failure and death.
The amount of excess energy stores available
determines how long someone will survive in
starvation.
How does Glucose-6-phosphate influence Glycogenesis in How does Glucose-6-phosphate influence Glycogenesis in
both liver and muscle?
both liver and muscle?
Activation
[...]
G6P activated Glycogen Synthase in a feed-forward

manner to drive glycogenesis.
On which side of the plasma membrane is the ATP binding On which side of the plasma membrane is the ATP binding
site on the Na/K ATPase?
site on the Na/K ATPase?
Cytosolic
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of the lysosomal storage

disorder Hunter Syndrome?

disorder Hunter Syndrome?
X-linked recessive
[...]
Hunters always aim for the X.

Hereditary N-acetylglutamate deficiency is a cause of
[...] is a cause of hyperammonemia that presents
hyperammonemia that presents identically to Carbamoyl
identically to Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I
Phosphate Synthetase I deficiency, however the
deficiency, however the elevation in Ornithine will be
elevation in Ornithine will be accompanied by normal
accompanied by normal Urea Cycle enzymes.
Urea Cycle enzymes.
Which enzyme involved in nucleotide synthesis converts
Ribose-5-P into PRPP?
Which enzyme involved in nucleotide synthesis converts

Ribose-5-P into PRPP?
PRPP Synthetase
[...]
Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL) is an enzyme found on the

surface of vascular endothelium that degrades triglycerides
circulating in chylomicrons and VLDLs.
[...] is an enzyme found on the surface of vascular

endothelium that degrades triglycerides circulating in
chylomicrons and VLDLs.
How does Acetyl-CoA influence Pyruvate Carboxylase in How does Acetyl-CoA influence Pyruvate Carboxylase in
Gluconeogenesis?
Gluconeogenesis?
Positive allosteric regulator
Hence, decreased Acetyl-CoA = decreased fasting
glucose = fasting hypoglycemia
[...]
ATP Synthase is an enzyme in the electron transport chain [...] is an enzyme in the electron transport chain that is also
that is also referred to as Complex V.
referred to as Complex V.
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Myotonic Muscular
Dystrophy Type 1?
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Myotonic Muscular

Dystrophy Type 1?
CTG; in the DMPK gene
[...]

disorder Niemann-Pick Disease?

disorder Niemann-Pick Disease?
Sphingomyelinase
[...]

.... true story, if you ever see Naman D. on the wards,
call him out on it.
Which vesicular trafficking protein carries material from
the plasma membrane to endosomes?

the plasma membrane to endosomes?
Clathrin
[...]
Creatine Phosphate is a high energy phosphorylated

molecule that functions as the second major source of
energy in exercise after ATP stores.
[...] is a high energy phosphorylated molecule that

functions as the second major source of energy in exercise
after ATP stores.
Which water soluble vitamin is necessary for Dopamine

beta-hydroxylase, the enzyme that converts DA to NE?
Which water soluble vitamin is necessary for Dopamine

beta-hydroxylase, the enzyme that converts DA to NE?
Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid)
[...]
Which apolipoprotein functions as a cofactor for

Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL)?
Which apolipoprotein functions as a cofactor for

Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL)?
ApoC-II
[...]
Williams Syndrome is a congenital chromosomal

[...] is a congenital chromosomal microdeletion disorder
microdeletion disorder that is associated with wellthat is associated with well-developed verbal skills and
developed verbal skills and extreme friendliness with
extreme friendliness with strangers.
strangers.
Southwestern Blot is a blotting procedure used to indentify
[...] is a blotting procedure used to indentify DNADNA-binding proteins by using labeled oligonucleotide binding proteins by using labeled oligonucleotide probes.
probes.
e.g. identification of transcription factors.
How does increased maternal age influence the risk of
having a child with Down Syndrome?
How does increased maternal age influence the risk of

having a child with Down Syndrome?
Increased; especially through meiotic nondisjunction of

homologous chromosomes
[...]
1:1500 in mothers < 20

1:25 in mothers > 45
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Fragile X Syndrome?? What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Fragile X Syndrome??
CGG
[...]
Which autoimmune disorder is highly associated with anti- Which autoimmune disorder is highly associated with antispliceosomal snRNP antibodies (anti-Smith
spliceosomal snRNP antibodies (anti-Smith
antibodies)?
antibodies)?
SLE
[...]
disorder that is often fatal in childhood due to a defect in
that is often fatal in childhood due to a defect in
Phosphotransferase.
Phosphotransferase.
Ornithine Transcarbamylase Deficiency is a urea cycle
[...] is a urea cycle enzyme deficiency that presents with
enzyme deficiency that presents with orotic aciduria as
orotic aciduria as the excess carbamoyl phosphate is
the excess carbamoyl phosphate is converted into orotic converted into orotic acid in de novo pyrimidine synthesis.
acid in de novo pyrimidine synthesis.
Remember, Carbamoyl Phosphate is the one
intermediate of the Urea Cycle that is part of the de
novo pyrimidine synthesis. Because of this, there may
also be an increase in pyrimidines, especially Uracil.
What gene is mutated in Neurofibromatosis Type 2
(NFT2)?

(NFT2)?
NF2 on chromosome 22
[...]
What B-vitamin is Thiamine (TPP)?
What B-vitamin is Thiamine (TPP)?
B1
[...]
How does regulation by fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

(F2,6BP) influence Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK1)
activity?

(F2,6BP) influence Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK1)
activity?
Activation; via allosteric binding
[...]
What amino acid is Histamine derived from?
What amino acid is Histamine derived from?
Histidine
[...]

disorder Fabry Disease?

alpha-Galactosidase A
[...]
RNA Interference (RNAi) is a gene expression

modification that employs dsRNA molecules that are
injected into target cells, separate and promote the
degradation of mRNA.
[...] is a gene expression modification that employs

dsRNA molecules that are injected into target cells,
separate and promote the degradation of mRNA.
Thereby "knocking down" gene expression.
Which apolipoprotein is unique to chylomicrons?
Which apolipoprotein is unique to chylomicrons?
ApoB-48
[...]

[...] is a disorder of galactose metabolism that presents
metabolism that presents with jaundice, hepatomegaly, with jaundice, hepatomegaly, infantile cataracts and
infantile cataracts and intellectual disability due to the intellectual disability due to the accumulation of toxic
accumulation of toxic substances.
substances.
Especially Galactitol.
The more serious defects can also involve PO4
depletion.
Classic Galactosemia is similar to Fructose
Intolerance (Aldolase B deficiency) except that it
includes cataracts.
How does nuchal translucency change in the first trimester How does nuchal translucency change in the first trimester
Increase
[...]
Thrombosis and Atherosclerosis are 2 vascular

[...] and Atherosclerosis are 2 vascular complications of
complications of Homocystinuria due to damage sustained Homocystinuria due to damage sustained to vessels as a
to vessels as a result of disulfide bond formation via
result of disulfide bond formation via Homocysteine.
Homocysteine.
Homocysteine has a free -SH group that can cause
disulfide bone formation with other -SH groups on
proteins or blood vessel walls.
Thrombosis and Atherosclerosis are 2 vascular
Thrombosis and [...] are 2 vascular complications of
complications of Homocystinuria due to damage sustained Homocystinuria due to damage sustained to vessels as a
to vessels as a result of disulfide bond formation via
result of disulfide bond formation via Homocysteine.
Homocysteine.
Homocysteine has a free -SH group that can cause
disulfide bone formation with other -SH groups on
proteins or blood vessel walls.
Which enzyme converts Pyruvate to Oxaloacetate, which Which enzyme converts Pyruvate to Oxaloacetate, which
can then be fed into the TCA cycle?
can then be fed into the TCA cycle?
Pyruvate carboxylase
[...]
A nonsense mutation is a type of mutation that involves a

nucleotide substitution that yields a stop codon.
A [...] is a type of mutation that involves a nucleotide

substitution that yields a stop codon.
Stop the nonsense.

Methotrexate is an antineoplastic drug that can
cause Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid) deficiency.
[...] is an antineoplastic drug that can cause Vitamin B9

(Folic Acid) deficiency.
Anti-Smith antibodies are an autoantibody against

spliceosomal snRNPs that are highly specific for SLE.
[...] are an autoantibody against spliceosomal snRNPs that

are highly specific for SLE.
Carbamoyl Phosphate is a metabolite of the urea cycle

that is involved in de novo pyrimidine synthesis as it
becomes Orotic Acid, a temporary base in the pathway.
[...] is a metabolite of the urea cycle that is involved in de

novo pyrimidine synthesis as it becomes Orotic Acid, a
temporary base in the pathway.
Which DNA nucleotides are methylated on the template

strand during DNA replication?
Which DNA nucleotides are methylated on the template

strand during DNA replication?
Cytosine; Adenine
[...]
What type of collagen is found in skin?
What type of collagen is found in skin?
Type I
[...]
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a disorder of amino acid

metabolism that occurs due to a deficiency in
Phenylalanine Hydroxylase or Tetrahydrobiopterin
cofactor.
[...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that occurs

due to a deficiency in Phenylalanine Hydroxylase or
Tetrahydrobiopterin cofactor.
In which direction is mRNA read?
In which direction is mRNA read?
5' to 3'
[...]
Osteogenesis Imperfecta is a genetic bone disorder that

presents with blue sclera due to the translucency of the
connective tissue over choroidal veins.
[...] is a genetic bone disorder that presents with blue

sclera due to the translucency of the connective tissue
over choroidal veins.
Which vesicular trafficking protein carries material through Which vesicular trafficking protein carries material through
the Golgi in a retrograde direction?
the Golgi in a retrograde direction?
COPI
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Krabbe Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Krabbe Disease?
Autosomal recessive
[...]

glycogenesis with glucose-6-phosphate regulation?

glycogenesis with glucose-6-phosphate regulation?
Increase
[...]
What gene is mutated in Marfan Syndrome?
What gene is mutated in Marfan Syndrome?
Fibrillin-1
[...]
The Peroxisome is a membrane-enclosed organelle

involved in the catabolism of very-long-chain FAs,
branched-chain FAs and amino acids.
The [...] is a membrane-enclosed organelle involved in the

catabolism of very-long-chain FAs, branched-chain FAs
and amino acids.
Which vitamin is an essential cofactor in the hydroxylation Which vitamin is an essential cofactor in the hydroxylation
of Preprocollagen in the Rough ER?
of Preprocollagen in the Rough ER?
Vitamin C
[...]
Hence a deficiency causes scurvy.

How does regulation by citrate influence the activity of
Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK1)?
How does regulation by citrate influence the activity of

Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK1)?
Inhibition
[...]
Which 3 nucleotides are pyrimidines?

[...]
Which 3 nucleotides are pyrimidines?

Cytosine; Thymine; Uracil
CUT the PY.
How does the resistance to malaria change in G6PD
Deficiency?
How does the resistance to malaria change in G6PD

Deficiency?
Increase
[...]
How do alpha-Ketoglutarate levels change in

Hyperammonemia?
How do alpha-Ketoglutarate levels change in

Hyperammonemia?
Decrease; thereby inhibiting the TCA cycle
[...]
Remember, alpha-KG + NH2 = Glutamate.

Also, since this inhibits the TCA cycle, less ATP will be
made and less ATP will be available for the Urea
Cycle, thereby compounding the hyperammonemia.
Which trinucleotide sequence found on the T-arm of
tRNA allows for tRNA-ribosome binding?
Which trinucleotide sequence found on the T-arm of

tRNA allows for tRNA-ribosome binding?
TC (Thymine; Pseudouridine; Cytosine)
[...]
in fatty acid synthesis change with insulin regulation?
in fatty acid synthesis change with insulin regulation?
Increase
[...]

purine synthesis change with IMP regulation?

purine synthesis change with IMP regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Which lysosomal storage disorder is associated with

aseptic necrosis of the femur and bone crises?

aseptic necrosis of the femur and bone crises?
Gaucher Disease
[...]
What is the second most common gene mutated

in Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease
(ADPKD)?
What is the second most common gene mutated

in Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease
(ADPKD)?
PKD2 on chromosome 4
[...]
What are the 2 only purely ketogenic amino acids?
What are the 2 only purely ketogenic amino acids?
Lysine; Leucine
[...]
Adrenal Insufficiency is an endocrine complication

of Vitamin B5 (Panthothenate) deficiency.
[...] is an endocrine complication of Vitamin B5

(Panthothenate) deficiency.
[...] is an irreversible enzyme in gluconeogenesis that
converts oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate.
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is an irreversible

enzyme in gluconeogenesis that converts oxaloacetate to
phosphoenolpyruvate.
Requires GTP.
What type of cytoskeletal filaments are involved in axonal What type of cytoskeletal filaments are involved in axonal
trafficking?
trafficking?
Microtubule
[...]
What is the rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis?
What is the rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis?
HMG-CoA Reductase
[...]
What amino acid is Thyroxine derived from?
What amino acid is Thyroxine derived from?
Tyrosine via Phenylalanine
[...]
What is the MOA of Dornase Alfa in the treatment of

Cystic Fibrosis?
What is the MOA of Dornase Alfa in the treatment of

Cystic Fibrosis?
Clearing of Leukocytic debris via DNAse action
[...]
Which cellular organelle functions to add mannose-6phosphate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes?
Which cellular organelle functions to add mannose-6phosphate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes?
Golgi apparatus
[...]
Scurvy is a connective tissue disorder caused by Vitamin [...] is a connective tissue disorder caused by Vitamin C
C (Ascorbic Acid) deficiency that presents with bruising, (Ascorbic Acid) deficiency that presents with bruising,
hemarthrosis, and poor wound healing.
hemarthrosis, and poor wound healing.
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication unwinds
the DNA template at the replication fork?
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication unwinds

the DNA template at the replication fork?
Helicase
[...]
How does a mutation in the promoter sequence typically

influence gene transcription?
How does a mutation in the promoter sequence typically

influence gene transcription?
Dramatic decrease
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Essential Fructosuria?
What is the genetic inheritance of Essential Fructosuria?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
How do phenylalanine levels change in Phenylketonuria

(PKU)?
How do phenylalanine levels change in Phenylketonuria

(PKU)?
Increased, thereby leads to excess phenylketones in the

urine
[...]
Phenylketones include: phenylacetate, phenyllactate

and phenylpyruvate.
Also, tyrosine becomes an essential amino acid.

Vimentin?

Vimentin?
Connective tissue
[...]
The Microtubule is a cylindrical cellular structure

composed of a helical array of polymerized heterodimers
of - and -tubulin.
The [...] is a cylindrical cellular structure composed of a

helical array of polymerized heterodimers of - and tubulin.
What B-vitamin is Panthothenic Acid (CoA)?
What B-vitamin is Panthothenic Acid (CoA)?
B5
[...]
Linkage Disequilibrium is a genetic phenomenon that is

described by the tendency for certain alleles at 2 linked
loci to occur together more often than expected by
chance.
[...] is a genetic phenomenon that is described by the

tendency for certain alleles at 2 linked loci to occur
together more often than expected by chance.
Measured in populations, not families.

Varies amongst populations.
Which enzyme in the liver removes a phosphate group
from Glucose-6-phosphate, thereby allowing glucose to
be transported into the blood?
Which enzyme in the liver removes a phosphate group

from Glucose-6-phosphate, thereby allowing glucose to
be transported into the blood?
Glucose-6-phosphatase
[...]
Remember, glycogenolysis at the liver is aimed to

maintain blood sugar. This final step is vital in both
gluconeongenesis and glycogenolysis to allow glucose
to enter circulation.
In fact, the liver has a unique Glucose-6phosphatase that lets this last step occur.
What is the Hardy-Weinberg value for the frequency of
homozygosity for allele q?

homozygosity for allele q?
q2
[...]
A(n) intron is an intervening sequence of RNA that is

excised out of the initial RNA transcript and stays in the
nucleus.
A(n) [...] is an intervening sequence of RNA that is

excised out of the initial RNA transcript and stays in the
nucleus.
Hypoketotic hypoglycemia is a feature of Carnitine

[...] is a feature of Carnitine deficiency due to significantly
deficiency due to significantly lower levels of Acetyl-CoA lower levels of Acetyl-CoA as a result of impaired fatty
as a result of impaired fatty acid breakdown.
acid breakdown.
Remember, Acetyl-CoA feeds into ketogenesis. AcetylCoA is also a positive allosteric regulator of Pyruvate
Carboxylase in gluconeogenesis
Disulfiram is a drug that treats alcohol addiction by
inhibiting acetalydehyde dehydrogenase.
[...] is a drug that treats alcohol addiction by inhibiting

acetalydehyde dehydrogenase.
This results in the buildup of acetaldehyde and induces

a strong toxicity (i.e. hangover symptoms) that deter
patients from drinking alcohol.
This is also what is referred to with "Disulfiram-like
reaction"
25-OH D3 is the storage form of Vitamin D.
[...] is the storage form of Vitamin D.
Which mucolytic agent is used to treat the mucous plugs

seen in Cystic Fibrosis by cleaving the disulfide bonds
within mucous glycoproteins?
Which mucolytic agent is used to treat the mucous plugs

seen in Cystic Fibrosis by cleaving the disulfide bonds
within mucous glycoproteins?
N-acetylcysteine
[...]
Brushfield Spots are a morphological feature of Down

Syndrome described as small white or grayish/brown
spots on the periphery of the iris.
[...] are a morphological feature of Down Syndrome

described as small white or grayish/brown spots on the
periphery of the iris.
Single-stranded binding proteins are nuclear proteins

[...] are nuclear proteins involved with DNA replication
involved with DNA replication that prevent the unwound that prevent the unwound strand from reannealing.
strand from reannealing.
Which chromosomal trisomy is seen in Down Syndrome? Which chromosomal trisomy is seen in Down Syndrome?
Trisomy 21
[...]
Which nicotinamide electron donor is used in anabolic

processes as a supply of reducing equivalents?
Which nicotinamide electron donor is used in anabolic

processes as a supply of reducing equivalents?
NADPH
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Thalassemias?
What is the genetic inheritance of Thalassemias?
AR
[...]

pancytopenia?

pancytopenia?
Gaucher Disease
[...]
How does the activity of Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase How does the activity of Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
I activity in the Urea cycle change with N-acetylglutamate I activity in the Urea cycle change with N-acetylglutamate
regulation?
regulation?
Increase
[...]
Which chromosome undergoes a microdeletion in Cri-du- Which chromosome undergoes a microdeletion in Cri-duchat Syndrome?
chat Syndrome?
Chromosome 5
[...]
Menkes Disease is a connective tissue disorder that results [...] is a connective tissue disorder that results in brittle,
in brittle, "kinky" hair due to impaired copper
"kinky" hair due to impaired copper
absorption/transport.
absorption/transport.
Secondary Lactase Deficiency is a type of Lactase
[...] is a type of Lactase Deficiency that commonly arises
Deficiency that commonly arises due to the loss of the
due to the loss of the brush border due to gastroenteritis
brush border due to gastroenteritis or autoimmune disease.
or autoimmune disease.
A hydroxylase is a type of enzyme that adds hydroxyl
groups (-OH) to substrates.
A [...] is a type of enzyme that adds hydroxyl groups (OH) to substrates.
What is the 2nd most common etiology of Down

What is the 2nd most common etiology of Down

Robertsonian translocation
[...]
How many FADH2 molecules are made in the TCA

cycle?
How many FADH2 molecules are made in the TCA

cycle?
[...]
What is the only Urea Cycle enzyme deficiency that is X- What is the only Urea Cycle enzyme deficiency that is Xlinked recessive?
linked recessive?
Ornithine Transcarbamylase Deficiency
[...]
All of the others are autosomal recessive.

What type of collagen is found in the basement
membrane?
What type of collagen is found in the basement

membrane?
Type IV
[...]
Type IV is under the floor (i.e. basement)

Loss of Heterozygosity is a genetic phenomenon that
occurs when a patient inherits/develops a mutation in a
tumour suppressor gene and the complementary allele is
deleted/mutated.
[...] is a genetic phenomenon that occurs when a patient

inherits/develops a mutation in a tumour suppressor gene
and the complementary allele is deleted/mutated.
This loss of heterozygosity must occur before cancer

develops.
Also, this does not apply to oncogenes.
e.g. Retinoblastoma and the "2 hit hypothesis"
Pompe Disease is a glycogen storage disorder that is also [...] is a glycogen storage disorder that is also referred to
referred to as Type II Glycogen Storage Disorder
as Type II Glycogen Storage Disorder
What is the most common type of collagen?
What is the most common type of collagen?
Type I (90%)
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of von Hippel-Lindau

Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of von Hippel-Lindau

Disease?
AD
[...]

Glycolysis change with Citrate regulation?

Glycolysis change with Citrate regulation?
Decrease
[...]

that presents with an accumulation of Sphingomyelin.

accumulation of Sphingomyelin.

... true story, if you ever see Naman D. on the wards,
call him out on it.
Galactokinase Deficiency is a relatively mild disorder of [...] is a relatively mild disorder of galactose metabolism
galactose metabolism that is essentially benign except for that is essentially benign except for infantile cataracts.
infantile cataracts.
[...] is a lipoprotein formed by Hepatic Lipase modification
of IDL in the peripheral tissue.
LDL is a lipoprotein formed by Hepatic Lipase

modification of IDL in the peripheral tissue.
Procollagen is an intermediate of collagen synthesis that is
structured as a triple helix of 3 collagen alpha-chains.
[...] is an intermediate of collagen synthesis that is

structured as a triple helix of 3 collagen alpha-chains.
Which blotting procedure is used to identify DNA?
Which blotting procedure is used to identify DNA?
Southern Blot
[...]
A carboxylase enzyme is a type of enzyme that transfers

CO2 groups with the help of Vitamin B7 (Biotin).
A [...] enzyme is a type of enzyme that transfers CO2

groups with the help of Vitamin B7 (Biotin).
Marfan Syndrome is an autosomal dominant connective

tissue disorder that involves subluxation of the lenses,
typically upward and temporally.
[...] is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder

that involves subluxation of the lenses, typically upward
and temporally.
Lens subluxation is also a key feature of

Homocystinuria, so keep that shiet in mind, brah
Which water soluble vitamin is required for Pyruvate
Carboxylase activity in gluconeogenesis?
Which water soluble vitamin is required for Pyruvate

Carboxylase activity in gluconeogenesis?
Vitamin B7 (Biotin)
[...]
Remember, Avidin from raw eggs binds to Biotin

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome is a neurological disorder [...] is a neurological disorder that occurs due to Vitamin
that occurs due to Vitamin B1 deficiency and involves
B1 deficiency and involves permanent confabulation,
permanent confabulation, personality change and
personality change and memory loss.
memory loss.
Which vesicular trafficking protein carries material through Which vesicular trafficking protein carries material through
the Golgi in the anterograde direction?
the Golgi in the anterograde direction?
COPII
[...]
On which chromosome is the NF2 gene found?
On which chromosome is the NF2 gene found?
Chromosome 22
[...]
Which gene is mutated in Becker Muscular Dystrophy?
Which gene is mutated in Becker Muscular Dystrophy?
Dystrophin
[...]
DMD = frameshift mutation in Dystrophin causing

deletion of the protein
BMD = point mutation in Dystrophin, hence less
severe
Both BMD and DMD = X-linked recessive
accelerated atherosclerosis.
[...] is a familial dyslipidemia that presents with

accelerated atherosclerosis.
MI is possible before 20 y/o.

Corneal vascularization is an ocular complication of
Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency.
[...] is an ocular complication of Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

deficiency.
Which chemically modified nucleotide is found in the Darm of tRNA and allows for tRNA recognition by the
correct aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?
Which chemically modified nucleotide is found in the Darm of tRNA and allows for tRNA recognition by the
correct aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?
Dihydrouracil
[...]
Tropocollagen is an intermediate of collagen synthesis that [...] is an intermediate of collagen synthesis that is formed
is formed following the cleavage of disulfide-rich terminal following the cleavage of disulfide-rich terminal regions of
regions of procollagen.
procollagen.
Tropocollagen is insoluble. Procollagen is soluble.
Keep this in mind to remember where each is formed.
We don't want tropocollagen being formed inside of
the cell as it will kill the cell as tropocollagen mocs
come together. On the flip side, we want this to
happen outside of the cell so that collagen fibrils can
form.
How do CK-MM (Creatine Kinase) levels change in
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
How do CK-MM (Creatine Kinase) levels change in

Increase
[...]
What amino acid is Creatine derived from?
What amino acid is Creatine derived from?
Arginine
[...]
Von Gierke Disease is a glycogen storage disorder that

presents with hepatomegaly due to a severe increase in
Glucose-6-phosphate levels.
[...] is a glycogen storage disorder that presents with

hepatomegaly due to a severe increase in Glucose-6phosphate levels.
G6P is very osmotically active and hence causes cell

swelling and ultimately hepatosplenomegaly.
Northern Blot is a blotting procedure used to identify
RNA by cleavage, electrophoresis, and labelling of RNA
via radiolabeled RNA probes.
[...] is a blotting procedure used to identify RNA by

cleavage, electrophoresis, and labelling of RNA via
radiolabeled RNA probes.
Similar procedure to Southern Blot except with RNA.

Useful to measure mRNA levels which are reflective of
gene expression.
Acetyl-CoA is the final breakdown product of fatty acids [...] is the final breakdown product of fatty acids that then
that then feeds into ketogenesis and the TCA cycle.
feeds into ketogenesis and the TCA cycle.
Hence, when there is increased ATP (such as in
diabetics), the excess Acetyl-CoA causes ketoacidosis.
involves a Glucocerebrosidase deficiency.

Glucocerebrosidase deficiency.
Dry Beriberi is a disorder caused by Vitamin B1

(Thiamine) deficiency and involves polyneuritis
and symmetrical muscle wasting.
[...] is a disorder caused by Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

deficiency and involves polyneuritis and symmetrical
muscle wasting.
Where in the cell is misfolded CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis
Transmembrane Conductance Regulator) retained?
[...]
Where in the cell is misfolded CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis

Transmembrane Conductance Regulator) retained?
Rough ER
Hence it is not transported to the membrane, resulting
in decreased Cl secretion in the GI and respiratory
tracts and decreased Cl reabsorption at sweat glands.
Increased intracellular Cl triggers compensatory Na
reabsorption which then causes increased H2O
reabsorption, thereby causing thick mucus secretion
into the lungs and GI tract.
There is also subsequently a more negative
transepithelial potential difference.
Lactulose is an osmotic laxative that can treat
[...] is an osmotic laxative that can treat Hyperammonemia
Hyperammonemia by acidifying the GI tract and trapping
by acidifying the GI tract and trapping NH4+ ions for
+
NH4 ions for excretion.
excretion.
What vitamin is Ascorbic Acid?
What vitamin is Ascorbic Acid?
Vitamin C
[...]
Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a cutaneous disorder seen

in Zinc deficiency.
[...] is a cutaneous disorder seen in Zinc deficiency.
Which blotting procedure is used to identify DNA-binding Which blotting procedure is used to identify DNA-binding
proteins?
proteins?
Southwestern Blot
[...]
Direct ELISA is a type of ELISA that uses a test

antibody to detect a specific antigen in the patient's
blood.
[...] is a type of ELISA that uses a test antibody to

detect a specific antigen in the patient's blood.
A secondary antibody is coupled to a colourgenerating enzyme and is added to detect the antigen.
If there is an intense colour reaction, the test is
positive.
Glucose-6-phosphatase is an irreversible enzyme of
gluconeogenesis that converts Glucose-6-phosphate to
glucose.
[...] is an irreversible enzyme of gluconeogenesis that

converts Glucose-6-phosphate to glucose.
Vincristine and Vinblastine are vinca-alkaloid anti-cancer

drugs that target microtubules.
[...] and Vinblastine are vinca-alkaloid anti-cancer drugs

that target microtubules.
Vincristine and Vinblastine are vinca-alkaloid anti-cancer

drugs that target microtubules.
Vincristine and [...] are vinca-alkaloid anti-cancer drugs

that target microtubules.
How do beta-hCG levels change in the quad screen

How do beta-hCG levels change in the quad screen

Decrease
[...]
Everything is decreased in Edwards Syndrome

(Trisomy 18)
Classical Type is a type of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome that
is caused by a mutation in Type V collagen.
[...] is a type of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome that is caused

by a mutation in Type V collagen.
Which metabolic shuttle is responsible for bringing

FADH2 electrons from glycolysis into the mitochondria?
Which metabolic shuttle is responsible for bringing

FADH2 electrons from glycolysis into the mitochondria?
Glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle
[...]
Which renal tubule can get damaged in Fructose

Intolerance?
Which renal tubule can get damaged in Fructose

Intolerance?
Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
[...]
Similar to Renal Tubular Acidosis, Type 2.

Hormone Sensitive Lipase (HSL) is a lipase enzyme found [...] is a lipase enzyme found in adipocytes that degrades
in adipocytes that degrades stored triglycerides.
stored triglycerides.
Acetyl-CoA is a breakdown product of fatty acids that
directly feeds into ketogenesis, especially when it is found
in excess.
[...] is a breakdown product of fatty acids that directly

feeds into ketogenesis, especially when it is found in
excess.
In prolonged starvation and DKA, Oxaloacetate is

depleted for gluconeogenesis.
In alcoholism, elevated NADH levels shunt
Oxaloacetate to malate.
Both of the above occurrences cause a buildup of
Acetyl-CoA, which shunts both Glucose and free fatty
acids towards Ketogenesis.
What is the Hardy-Weinberg value for the carrier
frequency of an autosomal recessive disease?
What is the Hardy-Weinberg value for the carrier

frequency of an autosomal recessive disease?
2pq
[...]
i.e. what is the value for the frequency of

Heterozygous carriers
Which enzyme in the respiratory burst forms superoxide
radicals from O2?
Which enzyme in the respiratory burst forms superoxide

radicals from O2?
NAPDH Oxidase
[...]
Which enzyme deficiency can

cause Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I familial
dyslipidemia)?
Which enzyme deficiency can

cause Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I familial
dyslipidemia)?
Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL)
[...]
Scurvy is a connective tissue disorder caused by Vitamin

C (Ascorbic Acid) deficiency that presents with
perifollicular and subperiosteal hemorrhages.
[...] is a connective tissue disorder caused by Vitamin C

(Ascorbic Acid) deficiency that presents with
perifollicular and subperiosteal hemorrhages.
What is the genetic inheritance of Tuberous Sclerosis?
What is the genetic inheritance of Tuberous Sclerosis?
AD
[...]
Where in the body does muscle weakness first appear in

Where in the body does muscle weakness first appear in

Pelvic Girdle
[...]
On which chromosome is the VHL tumour suppressor

gene found (von Hippel-Lindau Disease)?
On which chromosome is the VHL tumour suppressor

gene found (von Hippel-Lindau Disease)?
[...]
Chromosome 3; 3 words in VHL

What is the treatment for Familial Hypercholesterolemia
(Type IIa familial dyslipidemia)?
What is the treatment for Familial Hypercholesterolemia

(Type IIa familial dyslipidemia)?
Mipomersen
[...]
Mipomersen binds to the mRNA that is translated into

ApoB-100. The dsRNA molecule is then degraded and
ApoB-100 production is inhibited. Hence VLDL
production is inhibited. Remember, Type IIa
dyslipidemia involves elevated levels of LDL due to
defective LDL receptors.
Lactose is a disaccharide that consists of Galactose and
Glucose.
[...] is a disaccharide that consists of Galactose and

Glucose.
What do Tetrahydrofolates carry when they are in their

activated form?
What do Tetrahydrofolates carry when they are in their

activated form?
1-carbon units
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Cystinuria?
What is the genetic inheritance of Cystinuria?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
Common (1:7000).
Labile cells are a type of cell that never go to G0 and
divide rapidly with a short G1.
[...] cells are a type of cell that never go to G0 and

divide rapidly with a short G1.
These type of cells are the most affected by

chemotherapy
e.g. bone marrow, gut epithelium, skin, hair follicles
and germ cells.
The Rough ER is a cellular organelle that is the site of
synthesis of secretory proteins as they have surface
ribosomes.
The [...] is a cellular organelle that is the site of synthesis of

secretory proteins as they have surface ribosomes.
In fact, it is these surface ribosomes that make the

RER look rough.
What genetic bone disorder is also referred to as Brittle
Bone Disease?
What genetic bone disorder is also referred to as Brittle

Bone Disease?
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
[...]
Metachromatic Leukodystrophy is a lysosomal storage

disorder that involves an Arylsulfatase A deficiency.
[...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that involves an

Arylsulfatase A deficiency.
Which dyslipidemia is referred to as Type IV

Dyslipidemia?
Which dyslipidemia is referred to as Type IV

Dyslipidemia?
Hypertriglyceridemia
[...]

glycogenesis with Epinephrine regulation?

glycogenesis with Epinephrine regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication elongates Which enzyme involved with DNA replication elongates
the lagging strand until it reaches the primer of the the lagging strand until it reaches the primer of the
preceding fragment?
preceding fragment?
DNA Polymerase III
[...]
On which chromosome is the NF1 gene found on?
On which chromosome is the NF1 gene found on?
17
[...]
17 letters in von Recklinghausen [Neurofibromatosis

Type 1 (NFT1)]
Which major lysosomal storage disorder affects the
Reticuloendothelial System (RES; Mononuclear
Phagocyte System) only?
Which major lysosomal storage disorder affects the

Reticuloendothelial System (RES; Mononuclear
Phagocyte System) only?
Gaucher
[...]
Hence there will be hepatosplenomegaly.

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase is an enzyme involved in
pyruvate metabolism that converts pyruvate to acetylCoA, thereby linking glycolysis to the TCA cycle.
[...] is an enzyme involved in pyruvate metabolism that

converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, thereby linking
glycolysis to the TCA cycle.
Remember, PDH requires Tender Love & Care For

Nancy cofactors (Vitamins B1, B2, B3, B5 and Lipoic
Acid)
How much net ATP is made via the glycerol-3-phosphate How much net ATP is made via the glycerol-3-phosphate
shuttle in aerobic metabolism at muscle?
shuttle in aerobic metabolism at muscle?
30
[...]
Diarrhea, dermatitis, and glossitis is a triad of symptoms

commonly seen in Vitamin B-complex deficiencies
[...], dermatitis, and glossitis is a triad of symptoms

Enteritis is also common

Diarrhea, [...], and glossitis is a triad of symptoms


Diarrhea, dermatitis, and [...] is a triad of symptoms


Aspartame is a artificial sweetener used in food that must
be avoided in Phenylketonuria as it is a phenylalanine
derivative.
[...] is a artificial sweetener used in food that must be

avoided in Phenylketonuria as it is a phenylalanine
derivative.
What are the 2 ketogenic amino acids?
What are the 2 ketogenic amino acids?
Lysine; Leucine
[...]

associated with flat facies, prominent epicanthal folds,
single palmar crease and a gap between the 1st 2
toes.

with flat facies, prominent epicanthal folds, single
palmar crease and a gap between the 1st 2 toes.
In which direction is DNA and RNA synthesized?
In which direction is DNA and RNA synthesized?
5' to 3'
[...]
Which protein kinase enzyme is involved in the regulation Which protein kinase enzyme is involved in the regulation
of Glycogen Phosphorylase and Glycogen Synthase by
of Glycogen Phosphorylase and Glycogen Synthase by
Glucagon and Epinephrine?
Glucagon and Epinephrine?
Protein Kinase A
[...]
And remember, Insulin activates phosphatases hence

it does the opposite.
What are the 3 branched chain amino acids?
What are the 3 branched chain amino acids?
Valine; Leucine; Isoleucine
[...]
Isoniazid is an anti-TB drug that can induce Vitamin B6

(Pyridoxine) deficiency.
[...] is an anti-TB drug that can induce Vitamin B6

(Pyridoxine) deficiency.
What other vitamin deficiency can isoniazid cause?

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

X-linked recessive
[...]
All lysosomal storage disorders except Fabry and

Hunter's syndromes are autosomal recessive
disorders.
What is the genetic inheritance of Bruton
Agammaglobulinemia?

Agammaglobulinemia?
XLR
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Pompe Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Pompe Disease?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Macroorchidism is a gonadal complication of Fragile X

syndrome typically seen in males after puberty.
[...] is a gonadal complication of Fragile X syndrome

typically seen in males after puberty.
i.e. big balls

A(n) universal genetic code is one that is conserved
throughout evolution.
A(n) [...] genetic code is one that is conserved throughout

evolution.
The exception is mitochrondia in humans.

What is the rate limiting enzyme of Fatty Acid
Degradation?
What is the rate limiting enzyme of Fatty Acid

Degradation?
Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase 1 (CPT1)
[...]
What type of collagen is found in dentin?
What type of collagen is found in dentin?
Type I
[...]
Which enzyme is affected in Myotonic Muscular

Dystrophy Type 1?
Which enzyme is affected in Myotonic Muscular

Dystrophy Type 1?
Myotonin Protein Kinase
[...]
Mycophenolate is an immunosuppressant that inhibits IMP

Dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in de novo purine
synthesis.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that inhibits IMP

Dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in de novo purine
synthesis.
What is the most lethal genetic disease in the caucasian

population?
What is the most lethal genetic disease in the caucasian

population?
Cystic Fibrosis
[...]
Which lipoprotein functions to transport cholesterol from Which lipoprotein functions to transport cholesterol from
peripheral tissue to the liver?
peripheral tissue to the liver?
HDL
[...]
This is why HDL is considered "Healthy".

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a molecular biology [...] is a molecular biology laboratory procedure used to
laboratory procedure used to amplify a desired fragment
amplify a desired fragment of DNA.
of DNA.
Quite useful as a diagnostic tool.
Which organelle in fibroblasts is the site of hydroxylation Which organelle in fibroblasts is the site of hydroxylation
of specific Proline and Lysine residues in Preprocollagen? of specific Proline and Lysine residues in Preprocollagen?
Rough ER
[...]
Which chromosome is implicated in both Prader-Willi and Which chromosome is implicated in both Prader-Willi and
Angelman Syndromes?
Angelman Syndromes?
Chromosome 15
[...]
Both are imprinting disorders.

Both can also be caused by uniparental disomy.
Which vesicular trafficking protein in involved with
receptor-mediated endocytosis?
Which vesicular trafficking protein in involved with

Clathrin
[...]
Which gene is affected by CTG trinucleotide repeats in

Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy Type 1?
Which gene is affected by CTG trinucleotide repeats in

Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy Type 1?
DMPK gene; causes abnormal expression of Myotonin

Protein Kinase and subsequent pathology
[...]
A(n) unambiguous genetic code is one where each codon A(n) [...] genetic code is one where each codon specifies
specifies for only 1 amino acid.
for only 1 amino acid.
How do beta-hCG levels change in the first trimester

How do beta-hCG levels change in the first trimester

Decrease
[...]
Which enzyme in the pyrimidine synthesis pathway

converts ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides?
Which enzyme in the pyrimidine synthesis pathway

converts ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides?
Ribonucleotide Reductase
[...]
Familial Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa) is a familial

dyslipidemia that involves elevation of LDL and
cholesterol.

LDL and cholesterol.
What type of DNA repair is mutated in Ataxia

Telangiectasia?
What type of DNA repair is mutated in Ataxia

Telangiectasia?
Nonhomologous End Joining Repair
[...]

disorder that presents with an accumulation of
Cerebroside Sulfate.

accumulation of Cerebroside Sulfate.
How does regulation by AMP influence

phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK1) activity?
How does regulation by AMP influence

phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK1) activity?
Activation
[...]
Cori Disease is a glycogen storage disorder that is also

referred to as Type III Glycogen Storage Disorder.
[...] is a glycogen storage disorder that is also referred to

as Type III Glycogen Storage Disorder.
Farnesyl PPi is a byproduct of cholesterol synthesis that

functions as a source of Coenzyme Q.
[...] is a byproduct of cholesterol synthesis that functions

as a source of Coenzyme Q.
Hence, administration of Statins, which inhibit

cholesterol synthesis, can impair function of the
electron transport chain by inhibiting Farnesyl PPi
production. This is part of Statin-induced
Rhabdomyolysis as myocytes are particularly rich in
mitochondria.
Which enzyme in the ETC is inhibited by Oligomycin?
Which enzyme in the ETC is inhibited by Oligomycin?
ATP Synthase
[...]
"ROCCO" from left to right.

What type of nephrolithiasis is seen in Vitamin C
(Ascorbic Acid) excess?
What type of nephrolithiasis is seen in Vitamin C

(Ascorbic Acid) excess?
Calcium oxalate
[...]
Which nucleotide is made following the deamination of

cytosine?
Which nucleotide is made following the deamination of

cytosine?
Uracil
[...]
What type of genetic inheritance is transmitted

exclusively through the mother?
What type of genetic inheritance is transmitted

exclusively through the mother?
Mitochondrial Inheritance
[...]
All offspring of affected females are likely to show

disease.
Statins are a class of antihyperlipidemic drugs that
competitively and reversibly inhibit HMG-CoA
Reductase.
[...] are a class of antihyperlipidemic drugs that

competitively and reversibly inhibit HMG-CoA
Reductase.
e.g. Lovastatin
How does Insulin influence HMG-CoA Reductase activity How does Insulin influence HMG-CoA Reductase activity
in cholesterol synthesis?
in cholesterol synthesis?
Increase via induction
[...]
Remember, Induction = increased expression =

increased Vmax
Colchicine is an anti-gout drug that targets microtubules.
[...] is an anti-gout drug that targets microtubules.
tRNA wobble is a biochemical phenomenon that involves [...] is a biochemical phenomenon that involves accurate
accurate base pairing between mRNA and tRNA codons base pairing between mRNA and tRNA codons despite a
despite a difference in the codon's 3rd position.
difference in the codon's 3rd position.
Accurate base pairing is only necessary in the first 2
nucleotide positions of an mRNA codon. The 3rd
position (aka the "wobble" position) can differ and the
same amino acid/tRNA molecule will arrive. This is
due to the degeneracy of the genetic code.
What does NADH, NADPH and FADH2 carry when it is What does NADH, NADPH and FADH2 carry when it is
in its activated form?
in its activated form?
Electrons
[...]
The Malate-Aspartate shuttle and Glycerol-3-phosphate The [...] and Glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle are 2 metabolic
shuttle are 2 metabolic shuttles that function to bring
shuttles that function to bring NADH and FADH2
NADH and FADH2 electrons into the mitochondria from
electrons into the mitochondria from glycolysis.
glycolysis.
FADH2 comes in via the G3P shuttle.
The Malate-Aspartate shuttle and Glycerol-3-phosphate
shuttle are 2 metabolic shuttles that function to bring
NADH and FADH2 electrons into the mitochondria from
glycolysis.
The Malate-Aspartate shuttle and [...] are 2 metabolic

shuttles that function to bring NADH and FADH2
electrons into the mitochondria from glycolysis.
FADH2 comes in via the G3P shuttle.

Which enzyme is deficient in Gaucher Disease?
Which enzyme is deficient in Gaucher Disease?
Glucocerebrosidase (beta-Glucosidase)
[...]
"G-G-Glucose!" (Gaucher; Glucocerebrosidase;

Glucocerebroside).
How does Insulin influence Phosphofructokinase-2

activity?
How does Insulin influence Phosphofructokinase-2

activity?
Activation; via inhibition of protein kinase A and

subsequent dephosphorylation of PFK-2
[...]
Thereby causes more glycolysis and less

gluconeogenesis in the fed state.
This is also why diabetics have decreased rates of
glycolysis.
What is the genetic inheritance of Tay-Sachs Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Tay-Sachs Disease?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Which end of the initial RNA transcript undergoes

polyadenylation (~200 A's)?
Which end of the initial RNA transcript undergoes

polyadenylation (~200 A's)?
3'
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Fructose Intolerance?
What is the genetic inheritance of Fructose Intolerance?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
What is the life expectancy of someone with Edwards

What is the life expectancy of someone with Edwards

< 1 y/o
[...]
Maple Syrup Urine Disease is a disorder of branched

amino acid metabolism that results in increased alphaketoacids in the blood, especially those of leucine.
[...] is a disorder of branched amino acid metabolism that

results in increased alpha-ketoacids in the blood,
especially those of leucine.
What is the most common cause of death in Pompe

Disease?
What is the most common cause of death in Pompe

Disease?
CHF or arrhythmia
[...]
Pompe trashes the pump.

However remember, the liver is still affected. Pompe
affects both muscle and the liver.
Lactic Acid Dehydrogenase (LDH) is an enzyme involved
in pyruvate metabolism that converts pyruvate to lactate.

converts pyruvate to lactate.
This is the end stage of anaerobic glycolysis (key in

RBCs, leukocytes, renal medulla, lens, testes and the
cornea) and also part of the Cori Cycle.
The generated NAD+ molecules feed back into
glycolysis for substrate level phosphorylation.
This reaction is extremely vital in states of low O2 or
mitochondrial damage as it replenishes NAD needed
for glycolysis.
Where in the cell does Gluconeogenesis occur?
Where in the cell does Gluconeogenesis occur?
Both mitochondria and cytoplasm
[...]
What chromosomal trisomy is found in Edwards

Syndrome?
What chromosomal trisomy is found in Edwards

Syndrome?
Trisomy 18
[...]
Hydroxyurea is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits

[...] is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits Ribonucleotide
Ribonucleotide Reductase, an enzyme involved in de novo Reductase, an enzyme involved in de novo pyrimidine
pyrimidine synthesis.
synthesis.
Zebra Bodies are intracellular features of macrophages [...] are intracellular features of macrophages and neurons
and neurons in Niemann-Pick disease seen on electron in Niemann-Pick disease seen on electron microscopy and
microscopy and are described as striped patterns of
are described as striped patterns of accumulated
accumulated sphingolipids.
sphingolipids.
Hypocalcemia is a serum electrolyte complication of

22q11 deletion syndromes that arises as a result of
parathyroid aplasia.
[...] is a serum electrolyte complication of 22q11 deletion

syndromes that arises as a result of parathyroid aplasia.
Remember, PTH increases serum [Ca]; Calcitonin

decreases serum [Ca]
Which apolipoprotein functions as the LDL receptor?
Which apolipoprotein functions as the LDL receptor?
ApoB-100
[...]
The LDL receptor is the ApoB-100 Receptor and is

found in all endogenously made lipoproteins from
the liver.
Which trinucleotide sequence is found at the 3' end of
tRNA molecules in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
Which trinucleotide sequence is found at the 3' end of

tRNA molecules in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
CCA
[...]
"CCA; Can Carry Amino Acids" - CCA is the amino

acid acceptor site
There are also many chemically modified bases.
A(n) commaless, nonoverlapping genetic code is one that
is read from a fixed starting point as a continuous
sequence of bases.
A(n) [...] genetic code is one that is read from a fixed

starting point as a continuous sequence of bases.
Exception is some viruses.

Which lipoprotein functions as a repository for ApoA-1? Which lipoprotein functions as a repository for ApoA-1?
HDL
[...]
In which direction does DNA Polymerase III have

exonuclease activity?
In which direction does DNA Polymerase III have

3' to 5'
[...]
What type of collagen is deficient in the Vascular type of

What type of collagen is deficient in the Vascular type of

Type III
[...]
Angelman Syndrome is a genetic imprinting disorder that

can result from paternal uniparental disomy
[...] is a genetic imprinting disorder that can result from

paternal uniparental disomy
2 paternally imprinted genes are inherited and no

materal gene is received. This is synonymous with a
maternal gene deletion.
What amino acid is GABA derived from?
What amino acid is GABA derived from?
Glutamate
[...]
in fatty acid synthesis change with palmitoyl-CoA
in fatty acid synthesis change with palmitoyl-CoA
regulation?
regulation?
Decrease
[...]
What is the MOA of Phenylbutyrate in the treatment of

hyperammonemia?
What is the MOA of Phenylbutyrate in the treatment of

hyperammonemia?
Binding to amino acids, leading to their excretion and

decreased ammonia levels
[...]
Which disorder of Galactose metabolism can lead to

Escherichia coli sepsis in neonates?
Which disorder of Galactose metabolism can lead to

Escherichia coli sepsis in neonates?
Classic Galactosemia
[...]
Which amino acid undergoes N-linked glycosylation in the Which amino acid undergoes N-linked glycosylation in the
Rough ER?
Rough ER?
Asparagine
[...]
i.e. an N-oligosaccharide is added to Asparagine

What is the genetic inheritance of Wiskott-Aldrich
Syndrome?

Syndrome?
XLR
[...]
What type of collagen is found in granulation tissue?
What type of collagen is found in granulation tissue?
Type III (as Reticulin)
[...]
What enzyme is defective in Essential Fructosuria?
What enzyme is defective in Essential Fructosuria?
Fructokinase
[...]
What are the mRNA stop codons?
What are the mRNA stop codons?
UGA; UAA; UAG
[...]
Which enzyme converts Acetaldehyde into Acetate in
alcohol metabolism?
[...]
Which enzyme converts Acetaldehyde into Acetate in

alcohol metabolism?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Requires Tender Love & Care For Nancy:
- Thiamine (B1)
- Lipoic Acid
- CoA (Pantothenate)
- FAD (Riboflavin)
- NAD (Niacin)
Fatty Acid CoA Synthetase is an enzyme involved in fatty [...] is an enzyme involved in fatty acid degradation that
acid degradation that "activates" fatty acids by adding a
"activates" fatty acids by adding a CoA group.
CoA group.
Which cofactor deficiency can cause Phenylketonuria
(PKU)?
Which cofactor deficiency can cause Phenylketonuria

(PKU)?
Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)
[...]
If caused by BH4 deficiency, the PKU is milder.

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis?
What is the rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis?
Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK1)
[...]
How does Insulin influence Glycogenolysis?
How does Insulin influence Glycogenolysis?
Inhibition
[...]
Insulin activates Glycogen Synthase.

Insulin activates Protein Phosphatase 1 which
dephosphorylates Glycogen Phosphorylase, thereby
inactivating it.
Which antiprotease deficiency is associated with causing
Emphysema?
Which antiprotease deficiency is associated with causing

Emphysema?
1-antitrypsin
[...]
Leads to overactive Elastase.

What 2 cutaneous complications are seen in Vitamin B5
(Panthothenate) deficiency?
What 2 cutaneous complications are seen in Vitamin B5

(Panthothenate) deficiency?
Dermatitis; alopecia
[...]
What type of anaemia is seen in Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) What type of anaemia is seen in Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
deficiency?
deficiency?
[...]
With hypersegmented PMNs

What is the Km of Hexokinase compared to Glucokinase?
[...]
What is the Km of Hexokinase compared to Glucokinase?

Lower
Hence, Hexokinase has higher affinity for glucose.
This is important as Hexokinase is found outside of the
liver. We want our tissues to be able to use glucose
when it is in lower concentrations.
Which enzyme reversibly converts Glucose-1-phosphate
to Glucose-6-phosphate (and vice versa)?
Which enzyme reversibly converts Glucose-1-phosphate

to Glucose-6-phosphate (and vice versa)?
Epimerase
[...]
Essential Fructosuria is a disorder of fructose metabolism

that involves a defect in Fructokinase.
[...] is a disorder of fructose metabolism that involves a

defect in Fructokinase.
Where in the cell does oxidative phosphorylation occur?
Where in the cell does oxidative phosphorylation occur?
Mitochondria
[...]
What is the smallest type of RNA?
What is the smallest type of RNA?
tRNA
[...]
T = tRNA = tiny
Hyperuricemia/Gout is a complication of Fructose
Intolerance as the trapping of phosphate on Fructose
molecules forces Purines towards Uric Acid.
[...] is a complication of Fructose Intolerance as the

trapping of phosphate on Fructose molecules forces
Purines towards Uric Acid.
Which enzyme in the liver moves three Glucose-1phosphate molecules from the branch to the glycogen
linkage in Glycogenolysis?
Which enzyme in the liver moves three Glucose-1phosphate molecules from the branch to the glycogen
linkage in Glycogenolysis?
4-alpha-D-Glucanotransferase (Debranching Enzyme)
[...]
Lactoferrin is a protein found in secretory fluids and

neutrophils that functions to inhibits microbial growth via
iron chelation.
[...] is a protein found in secretory fluids and neutrophils

that functions to inhibits microbial growth via iron
chelation.
Familial Hypercholesterolemia is an autosomal dominant [...] is an autosomal dominant cardiovascular disorder that
cardiovascular disorder that involves an elevated
involves an elevated LDL due to defective or absent
LDL due to defective or absent LDL receptors.
LDL receptors.
Causes severe atherosclerotic disease early in life and
tendon xanthomas (esp at the Achilles tendon).
What is the life expectancy of Becker Muscular
Dystrophy?
What is the life expectancy of Becker Muscular

Dystrophy?
Well into adulthood
[...]
Mebendazole is an anti-helminthic drug that targets

microtubules.
[...] is an anti-helminthic drug that targets microtubules.
Fructose Intolerance is a disorder of fructose metabolism [...] is a disorder of fructose metabolism that results from a
that results from a deficiency of Aldolase B.
deficiency of Aldolase B.
Aldolase B should not be confused with Aldolase A, the
enzyme in glycolysis. However, through Aldolase B,
Fructose requires less ATP to enter glycolysis. For this
reason, fructose is in many sports drinks. For this
same reason, high fructose corn syrups are quite bad,
as the quick, cheap supply of sugar energy leads to an
excess of sugars that then get turned into fat.
Hunter Syndrome is a lysosomal storage disorder that
presents similar to Hurler Syndrome but includes
aggressive behaviour.
[...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that presents similar to

Hurler Syndrome but includes aggressive behaviour.
ApoE is an apolipoprotein that mediates the uptake of

lipoprotein remnants.
[...] is an apolipoprotein that mediates the uptake of

lipoprotein remnants.
What mode of genetic inheritence is associated with

disorders that show variable expression in a
population/family due to heteroplasmy?
What mode of genetic inheritence is associated with

disorders that show variable expression in a
population/family due to heteroplasmy?
Mitochondrial Inheritance
[...]
How do pyruvate levels change in Pyruvate

dehydrogenase deficiency?
How do pyruvate levels change in Pyruvate

dehydrogenase deficiency?
Increased
[...]
The build up of Pyruvate gets shunted to Lactate (via

LDH) and Alanine (via ALT).
How do alpha-fetoprotein levels change in the quad
screen in Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18)?
How do alpha-fetoprotein levels change in the quad

screen in Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18)?
Decrease
[...]
Everything is decreased in Edwards Syndrome

(Trisomy 18)
"All these hoes are going down on Edward."
Which dyslipidemia is referred to as Type IIa
Dyslipidemia?
Which dyslipidemia is referred to as Type IIa

Dyslipidemia?
Familial Hypercholesterolemia
[...]
Which receptor on hepatocytes binds to LDL, allowing for Which receptor on hepatocytes binds to LDL, allowing for
its uptake?
its uptake?
LDL Receptors (ApoB100 Receptor)
[...]
Which connective tissue glycoprotein is defective in

Marfan Syndrome?
Which connective tissue glycoprotein is defective in

Marfan Syndrome?
Fibrillin
[...]
forms Alanine from pyruvate to allow amino groups to be
taken to the liver from muscle.
Alanine amidotransferase (ALT) is an enzyme involved in

pyruvate metabolism that forms Alanine from pyruvate to
allow amino groups to be taken to the liver from muscle.
What is the rate-determining enzyme of the TCA cycle?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of the TCA cycle?
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
[...]
How do increased cholesterol levels influence the

expression of LDL receptors?
How do increased cholesterol levels influence the

expression of LDL receptors?
Decrease
[...]
Which major urea cycle enzyme disorder presents with

increased carbamoyl phosphate levels?

increased carbamoyl phosphate levels?
[...]
Which human gene has the longest coding region?
Which human gene has the longest coding region?
Dystrophin (DMD)
[...]
For this reason there is an increased risk of

spontaneous mutation
How many NADH molecules are made in the TCA cycle? How many NADH molecules are made in the TCA cycle?
3
[...]
What type of cell contain Neurofilaments?
What type of cell contain Neurofilaments?
Neurons
[...]
Lol @ this card. Just trying to be complete here.

What cardiac valvular disorder is seen in Fragile X
syndrome?
What cardiac valvular disorder is seen in Fragile X

syndrome?
Mitral Valve Prolapse
[...]
For the NBA fans:

Which molecular motor protein transports cellular cargo in Which molecular motor protein transports cellular cargo in
the retrograde direction towards the negative (-) end of the retrograde direction towards the negative (-) end of
the microtubule?
the microtubule?
Dynein
[...]
Which apolipoprotein functions to activate LCAT?
Which apolipoprotein functions to activate LCAT?
ApoA-1
[...]
[...] is an antibiotic that inhibits Dihydrofolate Reductase in

bacteria, thereby inhibiting de novo pyrimidine synthesis.
Trimethoprim (TMP) is an antibiotic that inhibits

Dihydrofolate Reductase in bacteria, thereby inhibiting de
novo pyrimidine synthesis.
that can be due to a deficiency of Homocysteine
Methyltransferase (aka Methionine Synthase).
[...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that can be

due to a deficiency of Homocysteine Methyltransferase
(aka Methionine Synthase).
Treatment: Increased methionine in the diet.

The Cre-Lox System is a gene expression modification
that can inducibly manipulate genes at specific
developmental points.
The [...] is a gene expression modification that can

inducibly manipulate genes at specific developmental
points.
e.g. to study a gene whose deletion causes embryonic

death
How do homocysteine levels change in Vitamin B9 (Folic How do homocysteine levels change in Vitamin B9 (Folic
Acid) deficiency?
Acid) deficiency?
Increase
[...]
What does the start codon AUG code for in prokaryotes? What does the start codon AUG code for in prokaryotes?
Formylmethionine (F-met)
[...]

can result from deletion of the paternal gene as the
maternal gene is normally silent.

deletion of the paternal gene as the maternal gene is
normally silent.
Prader-Willi = paternal gene is deleted/mutated

or maternal uniparental disomy.
What is the prodrug of 6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP)?
What is the prodrug of 6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP)?
Azathioprine
[...]
What type of eukaryotic RNA Polymerase makes tRNA? What type of eukaryotic RNA Polymerase makes tRNA?
RNA Polymerase III
[...]

Transketolase is an enzyme found in RBCs that is used to [...] is an enzyme found in RBCs that is used to diagnose
diagnose Vitamin B1 deficiency.
Vitamin B1 deficiency.
An increase in RBC Transketolase activity after
vitamin B1 administration helps us ensure that the
treatment is working.
Zinc is a trace element that can predispose to alcoholic
cirrhosis when it is deficient.
[...] is a trace element that can predispose to alcoholic

cirrhosis when it is deficient.
Kartagener Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia) is an [...] is an autosomal recessive disorder that presents with
autosomal recessive disorder that presents with
bronchiectasis and recurrent sinusitis due to a dynein
bronchiectasis and recurrent sinusitis due to a dynein
arm defect in cilia.
arm defect in cilia.
Na/K ATPase move K?
[...]

Na/K ATPase move K?
2 K in per ATP consumed
Which intermediate of the TCA cycle is supplied by the

Urea Cycle?
Which intermediate of the TCA cycle is supplied by the

Urea Cycle?
Fumarate
[...]
In fact, the Urea Cycle is a very key Fumarate source.

Which water soluble vitamin is converted to Pyridoxal
pyrophosphate, a cofactor used in decarboxylation
reactions?

pyrophosphate, a cofactor used in decarboxylation
reactions?
[...]
Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NFT1) is an autosomal

dominant neurocutaneous disorder that is also known as
von Recklinhausen disease.
[...] is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder

that is also known as von Recklinhausen disease.
What is the most common cause of death in Duchenne

Muscular Dystrophy?
What is the most common cause of death in Duchenne

Muscular Dystrophy?
Dilated Cardiomyopathy
[...]
2,4-Dinitrophenol is an uncoupling agent that is sometimes [...] is an uncoupling agent that is sometimes used illicitly
used illicitly for weight loss.
for weight loss.
Which enzyme polyadenylates the 3' end of the initial
RNA transcript?
Which enzyme polyadenylates the 3' end of the initial

RNA transcript?
Poly-A Polymerase
[...]
Does not require a template.

Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase 2 is an enzyme in the
carnitine shuttle that removes Carnitine from CarnitineAcyl-CoA, thereby freeing Acyl-CoA into the
mitochondria.
[...] is an enzyme in the carnitine shuttle that

removes Carnitine from Carnitine-Acyl-CoA, thereby
freeing Acyl-CoA into the mitochondria.
Which nucleotide has a methyl group?
Which nucleotide has a methyl group?
Thymine
[...]
THYmine has a meTHYl group.

neurotransmitters?
neurotransmitters?
NTs include serotonin, epinephrine, norepinephrine,
dopamine, GABA
[...]
How does regulation by ATP influence the activity of

Pyruvate kinase?
How does regulation by ATP influence the activity of

Pyruvate kinase?
Inhibition
[...]
ATP/AMP regulation is pretty logical overall. When

ATP exists, we don't need to make more.
McArdle Disease is a glycogen storage disorder that
involves a skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase
(Myophosphorylase) deficiency.
[...] is a glycogen storage disorder that involves a skeletal

muscle glycogen phosphorylase (Myophosphorylase)
deficiency.
Therefore glycogenolysis is defective.

Which receptor on hepatocytes binds to HDL, allowing
for its uptake?
Which receptor on hepatocytes binds to HDL, allowing

for its uptake?
SR-B1 receptor
[...]
Scavenger receptor B1
Which enzyme irreversibly converts Pyruvate into Acetyl Which enzyme irreversibly converts Pyruvate into Acetyl
CoA?
CoA?
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
[...]
"Sugar can become fat, but fat cannot become sugar."

Glc <---> Pyruvate ---> Acetyl-CoA <---> Fat
The Pyruvate that is involved in gluconeogenesis
comes from the conversion of Alanine (via ALT) and
Lactate to Pyruvate.
Which type of DNA repair involves base-specific
glycosylases that recognize altered bases and form an
Apurinic/Apyrimidinic (AP) site?
Which type of DNA repair involves base-specific

glycosylases that recognize altered bases and form an
Apurinic/Apyrimidinic (AP) site?
Base Excision Repair
[...]
1. AP Endonuclease cleaves the base at the 5' end.

2. Lyase cleaves the base at the 3' end.
3. DNA Polymerase-beta fills the gap with a
new/correct nucleotide.
4. DNA ligase seals the break.
Xerosis cutis is a cutaneous complication of vitamin A
deficiency and is described as dry, scaly skin.
[...] is a cutaneous complication of vitamin A deficiency

and is described as dry, scaly skin.
Which enzyme deficiency is seen in the lysosomal storage Which enzyme deficiency is seen in the lysosomal storage
disorder Metachromatic Leukodystrophy?
disorder Metachromatic Leukodystrophy?
Arylsulfatase A
[...]
What is the most common cause of genetic intellectual

disability?
What is the most common cause of genetic intellectual

disability?
Down Syndrome
[...]
Heterodisomy is a type of Uniparental Disomy that is

caused by a meiosis I error.
[...] is a type of Uniparental Disomy that is caused by a

meiosis I error.
in Glycogenolysis with epinephrine regulation?
in Glycogenolysis with epinephrine regulation?
Increase
[...]
5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits

Thymidylate Synthase, an enzyme involved in de novo
[...] is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits Thymidylate

Synthase, an enzyme involved in de novo pyrimidine
synthesis.
Thereby causes a decrease in [dTMP]

synthesis?

synthesis?
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC)
[...]
Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia is an autosomal [...] is an autosomal dominant vascular disorder that is also
dominant vascular disorder that is also known as Oslerknown as Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome.
Weber-Rendu Syndrome.
Involves telangiectasia, recurrent epistaxis, skin
discolouration, arteriovenous malformations, GI
bleeding and hematuria.
What type of collagen is found in bone?
What type of collagen is found in bone?
Type I
[...]
Bone
Made by osteoblasts.
Which transporter on the luminal membrane of GI
epithelium moves galactose and glucose into the cell
with Na?
Which transporter on the luminal membrane of GI

epithelium moves galactose and glucose into the cell
with Na?
S-GLUT1
[...]
Lipase is a pancreatic enzyme that degrades dietary

triglycerides in the small intestine.
[...] is a pancreatic enzyme that degrades dietary

triglycerides in the small intestine.
Kartagener Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia) is an

autosomal recessive disorder that causes situs
inversus due to a dynein arm defect in cilia.
[...] is an autosomal recessive disorder that causes situs

inversus due to a dynein arm defect in cilia.
What is the MOA of Uncoupling Agents in the inhibition of What is the MOA of Uncoupling Agents in the inhibition of
ATP synthesis?
ATP synthesis?
Increased permeability of the mitochondrial
membrane, thereby causing a decreased proton gradient
and increased O2 consumption
[...]
ATP synthesis stops, but electron transport continues.

This increase in metabolic rate produces a
considerable about of heat as well.
In which ribosomal binding site does the peptidyl-tRNA
molecule shift to in translocation following peptide bond
formation?
[...]
In which ribosomal binding site does the peptidyl-tRNA

molecule shift to in translocation following peptide bond
formation?
P site
P site = growing peptide
Which amino acid can be converted into Pyruvate by
ALT?
Which amino acid can be converted into Pyruvate by

ALT?
Alanine; requires B6
[...]
Which enzyme involved in de novo purine synthesis is

inhibited by the antiviral agent Ribavirin?

inhibited by the antiviral agent Ribavirin?
IMP Dehydrogenase
[...]
Which 2 ribosomal subunits make up

prokaryotic ribosomes?
Which 2 ribosomal subunits make up

prokaryotic ribosomes?
30S + 50S = 70S
[...]
PrOkaryotic = Odd
Which trace element/metal is found in Lysyl Oxidase and
is necessary for its function in collagen synthesis?
Which trace element/metal is found in Lysyl Oxidase and

is necessary for its function in collagen synthesis?
Copper (as Cu2+)
[...]
A missense mutation is a type of mutation that involves a

nucleotide substitution that results in changed amino acids.

substitution that results in changed amino acids.
Crohn Disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can

[...] is an inflammatory bowel disease that can
cause Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency due to damage cause Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency due to damage
to the terminal ileum.
to the terminal ileum.
What is the rate-determining enzyme of Gluconeogenesis? What is the rate-determining enzyme of Gluconeogenesis?
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
[...]

involves peripheral neuropathy of the hands and feet due
to an alpha-galactosidase A deficiency.
[...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that involves

peripheral neuropathy of the hands and feet due to an
alpha-galactosidase A deficiency.
Which lipoprotein is secreted from both the liver and

intestines?
Which lipoprotein is secreted from both the liver and

intestines?
HDL
[...]
What vitamin deficiency can be caused by Malignant

Carcinoid Syndrome?
What vitamin deficiency can be caused by Malignant

Carcinoid Syndrome?
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
[...]
Increase in serotonin production causes increased

metabolism of tryptophan, thereby taking away
tryptophan from Vitamin B3 (Niacin) production.
Which enzyme converts Ethanol into Acetaldehyde in

alcohol metabolism?
Which enzyme converts Ethanol into Acetaldehyde in

alcohol metabolism?
Alcohol dehydrogenase
[...]
Functions via zero-order kinetics

Telomerase is an enzyme involved with DNA replication [...] is an enzyme involved with DNA replication that adds
that adds DNA to the 3' end of chromosomes in order to DNA to the 3' end of chromosomes in order to avoid loss
avoid loss of genetic material with every duplication.
of genetic material with every duplication.
It is an RNA-Dependent DNA polymerase
Somatic Mosaicism is a type of genetic mosaicism where
the mutation propagates through multiple tissues or organs.
[...] is a type of genetic mosaicism where the mutation

propagates through multiple tissues or organs.
Tuberous Sclerosis is an autosomal dominant

neurocutaneous disorder that presents with numerous
benign hamartomas with multi-organ system involvement.
[...] is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder

that presents with numerous benign hamartomas with
multi-organ system involvement.
Which cellular organelle is the site where N-linked

oligosaccharides are added to proteins?
Which cellular organelle is the site where N-linked

oligosaccharides are added to proteins?
Rough ER
[...]
I-cell Disease is an autosomal recessive lysosomal storage [...] is an autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disorder
disorder that involves restricted joint movement due to that involves restricted joint movement due to a defect
a defect in Phosphotransferase.
in Phosphotransferase.
What B-vitamin is Biotin?
What B-vitamin is Biotin?
B7
[...]
Chronic Granulomatous Disease is a metabolic disorder

that involves deficiency of NADPH Oxidase.
[...] is a metabolic disorder that involves deficiency of

NADPH Oxidase.
Scurvy is a connective tissue disorder caused by Vitamin

C (Ascorbic Acid) deficiency that presents with
"corkscrew" hair and swollen gums.
[...] is a connective tissue disorder caused by Vitamin C

(Ascorbic Acid) deficiency that presents with
"corkscrew" hair and swollen gums.
Maple Syrup Urine Disease is a disorder of amino acid

metabolism that presents with urine that smells like maple
syrup/burnt sugar.
[...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that presents

with urine that smells like maple syrup/burnt sugar.

dyslipidemia) is a familial dyslipidemia that involves absent
or defective LDL receptors.
[...] is a familial dyslipidemia that involves absent or

defective LDL receptors.
Kartagener Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia) is an [...] is an autosomal recessive disorder that presents with
autosomal recessive disorder that presents with
dextrocardia on chest x-ray due to a dynein arm defect in
dextrocardia on chest x-ray due to a dynein arm defect in
cilia.
cilia.
Where in the cell does the Urea Cycle occur?
Where in the cell does the Urea Cycle occur?
[...]
Sideroblastic anaemia is a hematological complication

of Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) deficiency that arises due to
impaired hemoglobin synthesis and iron excess.
[...] is a hematological complication of Vitamin B6

(Pyridoxine) deficiency that arises due to impaired
hemoglobin synthesis and iron excess.
How do increased Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate levels

influence Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase activity in
gluconeogenesis?
How do increased Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate levels

influence Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase activity in
gluconeogenesis?
Inhibition
[...]
Hypermobility type is the most common type of Ehlers- [...] is the most common type of Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
Danlos Syndrome and involves hypermobile and unstable
and involves hypermobile and unstable joints.
joints.
What are the 5 key cofactors required by Pyruvate
Dehydrogenase?
What are the 5 key cofactors required by Pyruvate

Dehydrogenase?
Thiamine; Lipoic Acid; CoA; FAD; NAD
[...]
aka Tender Love & Care For Nancy

This is also a good way to understand WernickeKorsakoff:
Alcoholism --> Thiamine deficiency --> decreased
Acetyl CoA --> myelination and CNS deficits
Which amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis?
Which amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis?
Glycine; Glutamine; Aspartate
[...]
Where in the cell does the TCA cycle occur?
Where in the cell does the TCA cycle occur?
Mitochondria
[...]
Vitamin E (Tocopherol/Tocotrienol) is a fat soluble vitamin

[...] is a fat soluble vitamin that causes posterior
that causes posterior column and spinocerebellar tract column and spinocerebellar tract demyelination if it is
demyelination if it is deficient.
deficient.
This may have a similar neurological presentation to
Vitamin V12 deficiency, but without megaloblastic
anaemia, hypersegmented PMNs or increased
methylmalonic acid.
Where in the cell does Heme synthesis occur?
Where in the cell does Heme synthesis occur?
[...]
Which GLUT transporter is involved in Insulin-mediated

storage of Glucose?
Which GLUT transporter is involved in Insulin-mediated

storage of Glucose?
GLUT4
[...]
In adipose, the stored glucose is converted to Glycerol

and then added to fatty acids to form fat when there is
high energy.
Which fat soluble vitamin is synthesized by intestinal flora? Which fat soluble vitamin is synthesized by intestinal flora?
Vitamin K
[...]
Which enzyme involved with de novo pyrimidine synthesis Which enzyme involved with de novo pyrimidine synthesis
is inhibited by the antibiotic Trimethoprim (TMP)?
is inhibited by the antibiotic Trimethoprim (TMP)?
Dihydrofolate Reductase (in bacteria)
[...]
A [...] is a type of mutation that involves the deletion or

insertion of a number of nucleotides not divisible by 3,
thereby causing misreading of all nucleotides downstream.
A frameshift mutation is a type of mutation that involves

the deletion or insertion of a number of nucleotides not
divisible by 3, thereby causing misreading of all nucleotides
downstream.
The most severe type of mutation as it typically results
in truncated, nonfunctional proteins.
Kwashiorkor is a type of malnutrition that presents as a
small child with a swollen belly.
[...] is a type of malnutrition that presents as a small child

with a swollen belly.
The edema is due to the severe protein malnutrition.

Trimming is a posttranslational modification that involves
[...] is a posttranslational modification that involves
removal of the N- or C-terminal propeptide from zymogen removal of the N- or C-terminal propeptide from zymogen
to generate a mature protein.
to generate a mature protein.
e.g. Proinsulin to Insulin; Trypsinogen to Trypsin
What is the most common human enzyme deficiency?
What is the most common human enzyme deficiency?
G6PD Deficiency
[...]
Which carbohydrate transporter on the basolateral

membrane of GI epithelium moves fructose and
glucose from the cell into the blood?
Which carbohydrate transporter on the basolateral

membrane of GI epithelium moves fructose and
glucose from the cell into the blood?
GLUT2
[...]
Angelman Syndrome is a genetic imprinting disorder that

can result from deletion of the maternal gene as the
paternal gene is normally silent.

deletion of the maternal gene as the paternal gene is
normally silent.
AngelMan = Maternal gene deletion/mutation

or paternal uniparental disomy
Which portion of the small intestine is the site of Vitamin
B12 (Cobalamin) absorption?
Which portion of the small intestine is the site of Vitamin

B12 (Cobalamin) absorption?
Terminal Ileum
[...]
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacteria

that commonly causes recurrent pulmonary infections in
patients with Cystic Fibrosis.
[...] is a gram-negative bacteria that commonly causes

recurrent pulmonary infections in patients with Cystic
Fibrosis.
What microtubular arrangement is found in cilia?
What microtubular arrangement is found in cilia?
9 + 2 in the centre
[...]
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is a connective tissue disorder

that arises due to problems with cross-linking
tropocollagen molecules into collagen fibrils.
[...] is a connective tissue disorder that arises due to

problems with cross-linking tropocollagen molecules into
collagen fibrils.
What is the genetic inheritance of Multiple Endocrine

Neoplasia (MEN)?
What is the genetic inheritance of Multiple Endocrine

Neoplasia (MEN)?
AD
[...]

results from paternal gene deletion and presents with paternal gene deletion and presents with hyperphagia and
hyperphagia and obesity.
obesity.
In skeletal muscle, Glycogen is broken into Glucose-1phosphate molecules and then converted to Glucose-6phosphate, which is rapidly metabolized during exercise
and enters anaerobic glycolysis.
In skeletal muscle, Glycogen is broken into [...] molecules

and then converted to Glucose-6-phosphate, which is
rapidly metabolized during exercise and enters anaerobic
glycolysis.
The breakdown is the reverse of glycogen synthesis:

In skeletal muscle, Glycogen is broken into Glucose-1phosphate molecules and then converted to Glucose-6phosphate, which is rapidly metabolized during exercise
and enters anaerobic glycolysis.
In skeletal muscle, Glycogen is broken into Glucose-1phosphate molecules and then converted to [...], which is
rapidly metabolized during exercise and enters anaerobic
glycolysis.
The breakdown is the reverse of glycogen synthesis:

Cyclins are phase specific regulatory proteins that control [...] are phase specific regulatory proteins that control
cell cycle events and activate CDKs.
cell cycle events and activate CDKs.
Note that Cyclin-CDK complexes must be both
activated and inactivated for the cell cycle to
progress.
What is the genetic inheritance of Ocular Albinism?
What is the genetic inheritance of Ocular Albinism?
XLR
[...]
What water soluble vitamin is needed for Pyruvate

What water soluble vitamin is needed for Pyruvate

Vitamin B7 (Biotin)
[...]
How does Insulin action influence the activity of Pyruvate How does Insulin action influence the activity of Pyruvate
kinase?
kinase?
Activation; via dephosphorylation
[...]
One of my biochem profs said this and I'll never forget

it: "Insulin drives the utilization of glucose."
Which enzyme bound to HDL and LDL esterifies 2/3 of
plasma cholesterol?
Which enzyme bound to HDL and LDL esterifies 2/3 of

plasma cholesterol?
Lechitin-Cholesterol Acyltransferase (LCAT)
[...]
What vitamin is deficient in Scurvy?
What vitamin is deficient in Scurvy?
[...]
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal

dominant GI disorder that involves numerous
adenomatous polyps after puberty.
[...] is an autosomal dominant GI disorder that involves

numerous adenomatous polyps after puberty.
Progresses to colon cancer if the colon is not removed.

What type of cytoskeletal filament is involved in microvilli? What type of cytoskeletal filament is involved in microvilli?
Actin & myosin
[...]
Pyrimethamine is an antiprotozoal agent that inhibits

Dihydrofolate Reductase, thereby stopping de novo
[...] is an antiprotozoal agent that inhibits Dihydrofolate

Reductase, thereby stopping de novo pyrimidine synthesis.
Hearing Loss is a complication of Osteogenesis

Imperfecta that results from abnormal ossicle formation.
[...] is a complication of Osteogenesis Imperfecta that

results from abnormal ossicle formation.
What is the only glycogen storage disorder that has severe What is the only glycogen storage disorder that has severe
fasting hypoglycemia?
fasting hypoglycemia?
Von Gierke Disease
[...]
A mutase is a type of enzyme that relocates a functional A [...] is a type of enzyme that relocates a functional group
group within a molecule.
within a molecule.
Which enzyme found on the brush border of the GI
epithelium functions to digest Lactose into glucose and
galactose?
Which enzyme found on the brush border of the GI

epithelium functions to digest Lactose into glucose and
galactose?
Lactase
[...]
Ketoacidosis is a complication of alcohol metabolism due

to the increased NADH:NAD ratio disfavouring TCA
production of NADH and causing subsequent use of
acetyl-CoA for ketogenesis.
[...] is a complication of alcohol metabolism due to the

increased NADH:NAD ratio disfavouring TCA
production of NADH and causing subsequent use of
acetyl-CoA for ketogenesis.
How does Insulin influence Fatty Acid Synthase activity?
How does Insulin influence Fatty Acid Synthase activity?
Increased via induction
[...]
Which fat soluble vitamin is used as a treatment for

Measles?
Which fat soluble vitamin is used as a treatment for

Measles?
Vitamin A
[...]
Which cellular organelle is the site of drug and poison

detoxification?
Which cellular organelle is the site of drug and poison

detoxification?
Smooth ER
[...]
Hence, hepatocytes are abundant in SER.

How do ammonia levels change in Urea Cycle enzyme
disorders?
How do ammonia levels change in Urea Cycle enzyme

disorders?
Elevated
[...]
What amino acid is Heme derived from?
What amino acid is Heme derived from?
Glycine via Porphyrin
[...]
Osteogenesis Imperfecta is a genetic bone disorder that [...] is a genetic bone disorder that presents with multiple
presents with multiple bone fractures after minimal trauma, bone fractures after minimal trauma, possibly even during
possibly even during childbirth.
childbirth.
How does the pH of stool change in Lactase Deficiency?
[...]
How does the pH of stool change in Lactase Deficiency?

Decrease
GI complications involve bloating, cramping,
flatulence and osmotic diarrhea.
Kwashiorkor is a type of protein malnutrition that results
in skin lesions, edema and liver malfunction.
[...] is a type of protein malnutrition that results in skin

lesions, edema and liver malfunction.

cardiovascular/renal disease?

cardiovascular/renal disease?
Fabry Disease
[...]
disorders that present in childhood?
disorders that present in childhood?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Which type of DNA repair involves the removal of

mismatched nucleotides from newly synthesized DNA
strands?
Which type of DNA repair involves the removal of

mismatched nucleotides from newly synthesized DNA
strands?
DNA Mismatch Repair
[...]
Rickets is a bone disorder caused by Vitamin D deficiency [...] is a bone disorder caused by Vitamin D deficiency in
in children.
children.
Involves bone pain and deformity.
How many carbons are in the fatty acid Palmitic Acid?
How many carbons are in the fatty acid Palmitic Acid?
16:0
[...]

(NFT1)?

(NFT1)?
NF1 on chromosome 17
[...]
G6PD Deficiency is an X-linked recessive enzyme

deficiency that results in decreased NADPH levels in
RBCs, thereby making them susceptible to oxidizing
agents and causing hemolytic anaemia.
[...] is an X-linked recessive enzyme deficiency that results

in decreased NADPH levels in RBCs, thereby making
them susceptible to oxidizing agents and causing hemolytic
anaemia.
Remember, NADPH is needed to Glutathione reduced

so that is can detoxify free radicals and ROS. No
G6PD = No NADPH required for Glutathione
reductase.
Fructose Bisphosphatase-2 is an enzyme that breaks
down F2,6BP, an allosteric activator of PFK-1, in
response to glucagon.
[...] is an enzyme that breaks down F2,6BP, an allosteric

activator of PFK-1, in response to glucagon.
What is the treatment for Hereditary Spherocytosis??

[...]
What is the treatment for Hereditary Spherocytosis??

Splenectomy
How does regulation by alanine influence the activity of
Pyruvate kinase?
How does regulation by alanine influence the activity of

Pyruvate kinase?
Inhibition
[...]
This is a pretty logical negative feedback loop when

you remember that pyruvate is converted to alanine
by ALT and Vitamin B6.
T-cell Deficiency is an immunological complication of
22q11 deletion syndromes due to the thymic aplasia seen.
[...] is an immunological complication of 22q11 deletion

syndromes due to the thymic aplasia seen.
What B-vitamin is Riboflavin (FAD; FMN)?
What B-vitamin is Riboflavin (FAD; FMN)?
B2
[...]
Which area of the limbic system is damaged in Wernicke- Which area of the limbic system is damaged in WernickeKorsakoff Syndrome?
Korsakoff Syndrome?
Mammillary Bodies
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Sickle Cell Anaemia?
What is the genetic inheritance of Sickle Cell Anaemia?
AR
[...]
How does the risk of ectopic pregnancy change

in Kartagener Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia)?
How does the risk of ectopic pregnancy change

in Kartagener Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia)?
Increased
[...]
Remember, there are cilia along the fallopian tube.

Hence defective cilia activity will result in an
increased chance of implantation occuring in the
fallopian tube instead of the uterus.
orotic aciduria?

orotic aciduria?
[...]
Remember, the elevated Carbamoyl Phosphate is

shunted to pyrimidine synthesis where it becomes
Orotic Acid.
presents with airway obstruction and
hepatosplenomegaly.

airway obstruction and hepatosplenomegaly.

that presents very similarly to Marfan Syndrome (tall
stature, kyphosis, lens subluxation).

very similarly to Marfan Syndrome (tall stature, kyphosis,
lens subluxation).
Arsenic is a metalloid element that can cause glycolysis to

produce net zero ATP.
[...] is a metalloid element that can cause glycolysis to

produce net zero ATP.
Lysyl Oxidase is a Cu-containing enzyme responsible for [...] is a Cu-containing enzyme responsible for crosscross-linking staggered tropocollagen molecules into
linking staggered tropocollagen molecules into collagen
collagen fibrils through covalent lysine-hydroxylysine
fibrils through covalent lysine-hydroxylysine cross-links.
cross-links.
What type of collagen is found in blood vessel walls?
What type of collagen is found in blood vessel walls?
Type III (as Reticulin)
[...]
XLR
[...]
Which enzyme deficiency can cause Phenylketonuria

(PKU)?
Which enzyme deficiency can cause Phenylketonuria

(PKU)?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Marfan Syndrome?
What is the genetic inheritance of Marfan Syndrome?
AD
[...]
DiGeorge Syndrome is a 22q11 deletion syndrome that

presents with thymic aplasia, parathyroid aplasia and
cardiac defects.
[...] is a 22q11 deletion syndrome that presents with

thymic aplasia, parathyroid aplasia and cardiac
defects.
Chaperone Proteins are intracellular proteins involved in

facilitating and/or maintaining protein folding.
[...] are intracellular proteins involved in facilitating and/or

maintaining protein folding.
In yeast, some are heat-shock proteins (e.g. Hsp60)

that are expressed at high temperatures to prevent
protein denaturing/misfolding.
Pellagra is a vitamin deficiency disorder caused by a
deficiency in Vitamin B3 (Niacin).
[...] is a vitamin deficiency disorder caused by a deficiency

in Vitamin B3 (Niacin).
Presents with the 3 (or 4) D's:

Diarrhea
Dementia (with hallucinations)
Dermatitis
(Death)
What is the genetic inheritance of Galactokinase
Deficiency?
What is the genetic inheritance of Galactokinase

Deficiency?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Which water soluble vitamin is an essential component of Which water soluble vitamin is an essential component of
Coenzyme A (CoA)?
Coenzyme A (CoA)?
Vitamin B5 (Panthothenate)
[...]
B5 = pentothenate
What is the MOA of alpha-amanitin, the active toxin in
Amanita phalloides (death cap mushrooms)?
[...]
What is the MOA of alpha-amanitin, the active toxin in

Amanita phalloides (death cap mushrooms)?
Inhibition of RNA Polymerase II
Also causes severe hepatotoxicity.
Which carbohydrate transporter on the luminal
membrane of GI epithelium functions to allow
fructose to be absorbed?
Which carbohydrate transporter on the luminal

membrane of GI epithelium functions to allow
fructose to be absorbed?
GLUT5
[...]
Acanthocytosis and hemolytic anaemia are hematological

[...] and hemolytic anaemia are hematological
complications seen in Vitamin E (Tocopherol/Tocotrienol) complications seen in Vitamin E (Tocopherol/Tocotrienol)
deficiency.
deficiency.
Remember, Vitamin E (Tocopherol/Tocotrienol) is an
important antioxidant in RBCs.
Acanthocytosis and hemolytic anaemia are hematological Acanthocytosis and [...] are hematological complications
complications seen in Vitamin E (Tocopherol/Tocotrienol) seen in Vitamin E (Tocopherol/Tocotrienol) deficiency.
deficiency.
Remember, Vitamin E (Tocopherol/Tocotrienol) is an
important antioxidant in RBCs.
Which enzyme in the respiratory burst forms H2O2 from Which enzyme in the respiratory burst forms H2O2 from
superoxide radicals?
superoxide radicals?
Superoxide dismutase
[...]
Propionyl-CoA is a product of odd-chain fatty acid

metabolism that can enter the TCA cycle as succinylCoA, undergo gluconeogenesis and hence serve as a
glucose source.
[...] is a product of odd-chain fatty acid metabolism that

can enter the TCA cycle as succinyl-CoA, undergo
gluconeogenesis and hence serve as a glucose source.
Even-chain fatty acids provide Acetyl-CoA

equivalents.
Which amino acid can be converted into Oxaloacetate by Which amino acid can be converted into Oxaloacetate by
AST?
AST?
Aspartate; requires B6
[...]
What is the most basic amino acid?
What is the most basic amino acid?
Arginine
[...]
ApoA-1 is an apolipoprotein that is rather unique to HDL.
[...] is an apolipoprotein that is rather unique to HDL.
Which lysosomal storage disorder is associated with optic Which lysosomal storage disorder is associated with optic
atrophy as well as peripheral neuropathy and
atrophy as well as peripheral neuropathy and
developmental delay?
developmental delay?
Krabbe Disease
[...]
Microarray is a laboratory technique that involves

[...] is a laboratory technique that involves thousands of
thousands of nucleic acid sequences arranged in grids on
nucleic acid sequences arranged in grids on glass or
glass or silicon. DNA/RNA probes subsequently hybridize silicon. DNA/RNA probes subsequently hybridize to the
to the chip, allowing the scanner to detect the amount of
chip, allowing the scanner to detect the amount of
complementary binding.
complementary binding.
Used to profile gene expression levels of thousands of
genes simultaneously to study certain diseases and Tx.
Can detect nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) and copy
number variation (CNVs) for a variety of applications
such as genotyping, clinical genetic testing, forensic
analysis, cancer mutations and genetic linkage
analysis.
How do the levels of alpha-ketoacids change in Maple
Syrup Urine Disease?
How do the levels of alpha-ketoacids change in Maple

Syrup Urine Disease?
Increase; especially those of leucine
[...]
Remember, MSUD involves a defect or deficiency in

Branched Chain alpha-Ketoacid Dehydrogenase.
in Glycogenolysis with glucose-6-phosphate regulation? in Glycogenolysis with glucose-6-phosphate regulation?
Decrease
[...]

Glycolysis change with AMP regulation?

Glycolysis change with AMP regulation?
Increase; via allosteric activation
[...]
Which cellular organelle is the site of O-linked

glycosylation of proteins?
Which cellular organelle is the site of O-linked

glycosylation of proteins?
Golgi Apparatus
[...]
gOlgi = O-linked glycosylation

How does alcohol affect HDL synthesis?
How does alcohol affect HDL synthesis?
Increase
[...]
A(n) exon are coding sequences of RNA that are

A(n) [...] are coding sequences of RNA that are
processed after transcription and expressed via translation processed after transcription and expressed via translation
in the cytostol.
in the cytostol.
Fatty change of the liver is a hepatic complication of
[...] is a hepatic complication of Kwashiorkor that arises
Kwashiorkor that arises due to decreased apolipoprotein due to decreased apolipoprotein synthesis as a result of
synthesis as a result of protein malnutrition.
protein malnutrition.
Which trinucleotide repeat is involved in Huntington
Disease?
Which trinucleotide repeat is involved in Huntington

Disease?
CAG
[...]
The higher the number of repeats, the earlier the age

of onset.
Tay-Sachs Disease is a lysosomal storage disorder that [...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that presents with a
presents with a "cherry-red" spot on the macula due to
"cherry-red" spot on the macula due to a
a Hexosaminidase A deficiency.
Hexosaminidase A deficiency.
What type of DNA repair is defective in Hereditary

Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC)?
What type of DNA repair is defective in Hereditary

Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC)?
Mismatch repair
[...]
Which structural form of chromatin is less condensed?
Which structural form of chromatin is less condensed?
Euchromatin
[...]
Which enzyme is deficient in the glycogen storage disorder Which enzyme is deficient in the glycogen storage disorder
Anderson Disease?
Anderson Disease?
Branching Enzyme
[...]
Mnemonic for remembering Anderson and Cori

disease:
"AB,CD"
Anderson = Branching enzyme deficiency
Cori = Debranching enzyme deficiency
Which blotting procedure is used to identify RNA?
Which blotting procedure is used to identify RNA?
Northern Blot
[...]
How much net ATP is produced via the malate-aspartate How much net ATP is produced via the malate-aspartate
shuttle in aerobic metabolism at the heart and liver?
shuttle in aerobic metabolism at the heart and liver?
32
[...]

salvage pathway that involves intellectual disability and
dystonia.

involves intellectual disability and dystonia.
How do FADH2 and NADH levels change when the

electron transport chain is inhibited?
How do FADH2 and NADH levels change when the

electron transport chain is inhibited?
Increase
[...]
This is pretty obvious, but think of the consequences:

Inhibition of the TCA cycle, decreased ATP
production, and decreased O2 utilization.
disorder that presents with central and peripheral
demyelination, ataxia and dementia.

central and peripheral demyelination, ataxia and
dementia.

microdeletion disorder that is associated with
hypercalcemia that has an increased sensitivity to
vitamin D.

that is associated with hypercalcemia that has an
increased sensitivity to vitamin D.

microdeletion disorder that is associated with distinctive
"elfin" facies.

that is associated with distinctive "elfin" facies.
Which important gene on Chromosome 7 is deleted in

Williams Syndrome?
Which important gene on Chromosome 7 is deleted in

Williams Syndrome?
Elastin
[...]
GLUT2 is a carbohydrate transporter located at the

basolateral membrane of GI epithelium that moves
glucose and fructose from the cell into the blood.
[...] is a carbohydrate transporter located at the

basolateral membrane of GI epithelium that moves
glucose and fructose from the cell into the blood.
Oral contraceptives are a type of hormonal drug that can

cause Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) deficiency.
[...] are a type of hormonal drug that can cause Vitamin

B6 (Pyridoxine) deficiency.
What is the GI complication seen in Vitamin B7 (Biotin)

deficiency?
What is the GI complication seen in Vitamin B7 (Biotin)

deficiency?
Enteritis
[...]
How does the activity of HMG-CoA reductase in

cholesterol synthesis change with Thyroxine regulation?

cholesterol synthesis change with Thyroxine regulation?
Increase
[...]

Gluconeogenesis change with ATP regulation?

Gluconeogenesis change with ATP regulation?
Increase
[...]
How do lactate levels change in Cori Disease?
How do lactate levels change in Cori Disease?
Normal
[...]
This is a very key point. There is no lactic acidosis in

Cori Disease.
How does the hydrogen content of stool change in
Lactase deficiency?
How does the hydrogen content of stool change in

Lactase deficiency?
Increase (i.e. decreased pH)
[...]
This is a nice tie into Lactulose, an osmotic laxative

that acidifies the GI lumen to treat hyperammonemia.
It's essentially the same MOA here where Lactose
stays in the GI lumen due to the lactase deficiency.
Where in the body is the very large reserve pool of
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) stored?
Where in the body is the very large reserve pool of

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) stored?
Liver
[...]
What type of organisms have a higher rate of recurrent

infection and granuloma formation in Chronic
Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
What type of organisms have a higher rate of recurrent

infection and granuloma formation in Chronic
Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
Catalase-positive organisms
[...]
The major Catalase-positive bugs: Staphs N'

Enterobacteriaceae Are Listed Catalase Positive.
[Staphylococcus, Neisseria, Enterobacteria,
Aspergillus, Listeria, Candida, Pseudomonas (and
TB!)]
What enzyme is deficient in Galactokinase Deficiency?
What enzyme is deficient in Galactokinase Deficiency?
Galactokinase, duh.
[...]
Which metabolic shuttle is involved in Fatty Acid

Synthesis?

Synthesis?
Citrate Shuttle
[...]
This is important to remember because Citrate

inhibits glycolysis. Hence, when Citrate is high the
body is essentially saying "Stop burning sugar, brah.
I'm gonna make fat. How about you use that G6P to
make glycogen or NADPH via the HMP shunt
instead?".
Which endocrine complication is associated
with Hypertriglyceridemia (Type IV Familial
Dyslipidemia)?
Which endocrine complication is associated

with Hypertriglyceridemia (Type IV Familial
Dyslipidemia)?
Pancreatitis
[...]
Which structural form of chromatin is sterically

inaccessible?
Which structural form of chromatin is sterically

inaccessible?
Heterochromatin
[...]

cholesterol synthesis change with insulin regulation?

cholesterol synthesis change with insulin regulation?
Increase
[...]
How do increased ATP levels influence Gluconeogenesis? How do increased ATP levels influence Gluconeogenesis?
Activation
[...]
Gluconeogenesis only occurs in high energy states

(high ATP and high NADH) because Oxaloacetate
must be converted to Malate in the TCA cycle.
Malate then leaves to gluconeogenesis via the malate
shuttle.
Mosaicism is a genetic term defined as the presence of
genetically distinct cell lines the same individual due to
mitotic errors after fertilization.
[...] is a genetic term defined as the presence of genetically

distinct cell lines the same individual due to mitotic errors
after fertilization.
McCune-Albright Syndrome is lethal if the mutation is

somatic, but survivable if mosaic.
Williams Syndrome is an autosomal chromosome disorder [...] is an autosomal chromosome disorder that involves a
that involves a congenital microdeletion of the long arm of congenital microdeletion of the long arm of chromosome
chromosome 7, including the elastin gene.
7, including the elastin gene.
Degradation?
[...]

Degradation?
Carnitine Shuttle
Involves 2 key enzymes:
Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase 1
(CPT1) and Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase 2
(CPT2).
What is the largest type of RNA?
What is the largest type of RNA?
mRNA
[...]
What does TPP carry when it is in its activated form?
What does TPP carry when it is in its activated form?
Aldehydes
[...]
Aspirin is an NSAID that can act as an uncoupling agent,

thereby causing fevers in an overdose.
[...] is an NSAID that can act as an uncoupling agent,

thereby causing fevers in an overdose.
What type of eukaryotic RNA Polymerase makes

mRNA?
What type of eukaryotic RNA Polymerase makes

mRNA?
RNA Polymerase II
[...]

Which osmotic laxative is used to treat hyperammonemia? Which osmotic laxative is used to treat hyperammonemia?
Lactulose (or Levulose)
[...]
Lactulose acidifies the gut, thereby trapping NH4+ in

the lumen and decreasing its absorption.
Which type of RNA Polymerase functions to open DNA Which type of RNA Polymerase functions to open DNA
at promoter sites?
at promoter sites?
RNA Polymerase II
[...]
What is the most abundant amino acid in collagen?
What is the most abundant amino acid in collagen?
Glycine
[...]
Which glycogen storage disorder is considered a milder Which glycogen storage disorder is considered a milder
form of Von Gierke Disease (Glycogen Storage Disorder form of Von Gierke Disease (Glycogen Storage Disorder
Type I)?
Type I)?
Cori Disease
[...]
Gluconeogenesis is intact and there are normal lactate

levels.
What is the MOA of Fomepizole in the treatment of
methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning?
What is the MOA of Fomepizole in the treatment of

methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning?
Competitive inhibition of alcohol dehydrogenase
[...]
Branched Chain Ketoacid Dehydrogenase is an enzyme [...] is an enzyme involved in the metabolism of branched
involved in the metabolism of branched chain amino acids chain amino acids and involves the same cofactors as
and involves the same cofactors as pyruvate
pyruvate dehydrogenase.
dehydrogenase.
Remember, those cofactors are Tender Love & Care
For Nancy (Thiamine, Lipoic Acid, CoA, FAD, NAD)
What is the genetic inheritance of Wilson Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Wilson Disease?
AR
[...]

that is associated with microcephaly and
holoprosencephaly.
[...] is an autosomal trisomy that is associated with

microcephaly and holoprosencephaly.
Bite Cells are a pathological form of RBCs that form as a [...] are a pathological form of RBCs that form as a result
result of the phagocytic removal of Heinz bodies by
of the phagocytic removal of Heinz bodies by splenic
splenic macrophages in G6PD Deficiency.
macrophages in G6PD Deficiency.
What gene is defective in Cystic Fibrosis?
What gene is defective in Cystic Fibrosis?
CFTR on chromosome 7
[...]
What is the rate-determining enzyme of Glycogenolysis?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of Glycogenolysis?
Glycogen phosphorylase
[...]
Which isoform of Hexokinase is inhibited by glucose-6phosphate feedback?
Which isoform of Hexokinase is inhibited by glucose-6phosphate feedback?
Hexokinase
[...]

cholesterol synthesis change with cholesterol regulation?

cholesterol synthesis change with cholesterol regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Carnitine Deficiency is a disorder of fatty acid breakdown [...] is a disorder of fatty acid breakdown that involves the
that involves the inability to transport long-chain fatty inability to transport long-chain fatty acids into the
acids into the mitochondria, thereby resulting in toxic
mitochondria, thereby resulting in toxic accumulation.
accumulation.
Neurofibromatosis Type 2 (NFT2) is an autosomal
dominant neurological tumour disorder that presents with
bilateral acoustic schwannomas, juvenile cataracts,
meningiomas and ependymomas.
[...] is an autosomal dominant neurological tumour

disorder that presents with bilateral acoustic
schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas and
ependymomas.
Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase 1 is an enzyme involved in [...] is an enzyme involved in the carnitine shuttle that adds
the carnitine shuttle that adds Carnitine to Acyl-CoA
Carnitine to Acyl-CoA molecules, thereby allowing it to
molecules, thereby allowing it to cross the mitochondrial
cross the mitochondrial membrane.
membrane.
Huntington Disease is an autosomal dominant neurological [...] is an autosomal dominant neurological disorder that
disorder that presents with progressive dementia,
presents with progressive dementia, choreiform
choreiform movement, and caudate atrophy.
movement, and caudate atrophy.
Also involves decreased levels of GABA and ACh in
the brain.

the Golgi to the ER?

the Golgi to the ER?
COPI
[...]
i.e. COPI goes backwards

Lactic acidosis is a complication of ethanol metabolism
due to an increase in the NADH:NAD ratio which drives
the conversion of pyruvate to lactate.
[...] is a complication of ethanol metabolism due to an

increase in the NADH:NAD ratio which drives the
conversion of pyruvate to lactate.
What type of collagen is found in the cornea?
What type of collagen is found in the cornea?
Type I
[...]
Isodisomy is a type of Uniparental Disomy can be caused

by a meiosis II error.
[...] is a type of Uniparental Disomy can be caused by a

meiosis II error.
How many calories per gram are obtained from fats?
How many calories per gram are obtained from fats?
9 kcal/g
[...]
How do Glycogen levels change in glycogen storage

disorders?
How do Glycogen levels change in glycogen storage

disorders?
Increase
[...]
Lol. Just making sure you're still alive.

Also, keep in mind of where glycogen is made/stored:
Liver and muscle. Hence, it is these 2 tissues that are
affected in these disorders. Glycogen storage disorders
can be sorted into liver, muscle or mixed types.
Which water soluble vitamin is used to treat dyslipidemia
as it lowers the levels of VLDL and raises HDL?
Which water soluble vitamin is used to treat dyslipidemia

as it lowers the levels of VLDL and raises HDL?
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
[...]
Diphyllobothrium latum is a tapeworm that can cause

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency through
malabsorption.
[...] is a tapeworm that can cause Vitamin B12

(Cobalamin) deficiency through malabsorption.
What is the Vmax of Hexokinase compared to

Glucokinase?
What is the Vmax of Hexokinase compared to

Glucokinase?
Lower
[...]
Which lipoprotein functions to deliver

dietary triglycerides to peripheral tissue?
Which lipoprotein functions to deliver

dietary triglycerides to peripheral tissue?
Chylomicrons
[...]
It also delivers cholesterol to the liver as chylomicron

remnants, which are mostly depleted of their
triacylglycerols.
Ribavirin is an anti-viral drug that inhibits IMP
dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in de novo purine
synthesis.
[...] is an anti-viral drug that inhibits IMP dehydrogenase,

an enzyme involved in de novo purine synthesis.

tissue disorder that involves a Fibrillin-1 gene mutation.

that involves a Fibrillin-1 gene mutation.
Presents with long extremities, pectus excavatum,

hypermobile joints, arachnodactyly, floppy mitral
valve and lens subluxation.
Which nucleoside triphosphate is bound to each - and - Which nucleoside triphosphate is bound to each - and tubulin heterodimer in microtubules?
tubulin heterodimer in microtubules?
GTP
[...]
Each dimer has 2 GTP bound.

ApoA-I is an apolipoprotein that functions to elevate
LCAT.
[...] is an apolipoprotein that functions to elevate LCAT.
What is the genetic inheritance of Hunter Syndrome?
What is the genetic inheritance of Hunter Syndrome?
XLR
[...]
How does Glucagon action influence the activity of

Pyruvate kinase?
How does Glucagon action influence the activity of

Pyruvate kinase?
Inhibition; via phosphorylation
[...]
Maple Syrup Urine Disease is a disorder of amino acid

[...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that occurs
metabolism that occurs due to a deficiency in Branched due to a deficiency in Branched Chain alpha-Ketoacid
Chain alpha-Ketoacid dehydrogenase.
dehydrogenase.
Remember, BCKDH is one of the enzymes that
requires Tender Love & Care For Nancy:
Thiamine (B1)
Lipoic Acid
CoA (B5)
FAD (B2)
NAD (B3)
that presents with downward and inward lens
subluxation.

with downward and inward lens subluxation.
Acetate is a metabolite of alcohol metabolism that can

cause metabolic acidosis when it accumulates.
[...] is a metabolite of alcohol metabolism that can cause

metabolic acidosis when it accumulates.
Where in the cell does the HMP Shunt occur?
Where in the cell does the HMP Shunt occur?
Cytoplasm
[...]
No ATP is used or produced.

in Glycogenolysis with Insulin regulation?
in Glycogenolysis with Insulin regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Insulin activated Protein Phosphatase 1, which then

dephosphorylates Glycogen phosphorylase, thereby
inactivating it.
[...] is a taxol anti-cancer drug that targets microtubules.
Paclitaxel is a taxol anti-cancer drug that targets

microtubules.
What is the genetic inheritance of Ornithine
Transcarbamylase Deficiency (OTCD)?

Transcarbamylase Deficiency (OTCD)?
XLR
[...]
How many calories per gram are obtained from Protein?
How many calories per gram are obtained from Protein?
4 kcal/g
[...]
What mutation is commonly seen in the CFTR gene in

Cystic Fibrosis?
What mutation is commonly seen in the CFTR gene in

Cystic Fibrosis?
Phe508 deletion; CFTR gene; chromosome 7
[...]
What trace element sees an impairment in absorption and What trace element sees an impairment in absorption and
transport in Menkes Disease?
transport in Menkes Disease?
Copper
[...]
Procollagen is an intermediate of collagen synthesis that is [...] is an intermediate of collagen synthesis that is made by
made by the glycosylation of pro-alpha-chain
the glycosylation of pro-alpha-chain hydroxylysine
hydroxylysine residues and hydrogen/disulfide bond
residues and hydrogen/disulfide bond interactions.
interactions.
Procollagen is a triple helix of 3 collagen alphachains that comes together via hydrogen and disulfide
bond interactions following glycosylation of proalpha-chain hydroxylysine.
How do increased Ca levels affect Pyruvate
Dehydrogenase activity?
How do increased Ca levels affect Pyruvate

Increase
[...]
Where in the body does Ketolysis occur?
Where in the body does Ketolysis occur?
Renal cortex, muscle and brain
[...]
The liver is unable to peform Ketolysis because it

lacks Thiophorase (Succinyl-CoA Acetoacetate
Transferase), and is hence unable to activate its own
ketones.
Ketolysis involves the activation of Hydroxybutyrate
to Acetoacetate and subsequent NADH production.
Which chromosomal pairs are commonly involved in
Robertsonian Translocations?
Which chromosomal pairs are commonly involved in

Robertsonian Translocations?
13; 14; 15; 21; 22
[...]
Karyotyping is a laboratory technique that obtains

metaphase chromosomes and then stains, orders and
numbers them according to morphology, size, arm-length
ratio and banding pattern.
[...] is a laboratory technique that obtains metaphase

chromosomes and then stains, orders and numbers them
according to morphology, size, arm-length ratio and
banding pattern.
Can be performed on a sample of blood, bone

marrow, amniotic fluid, or placental tissue.
Which lipoprotein is secreted by intestinal epithelial cells

only?
Which lipoprotein is secreted by intestinal epithelial cells

only?
Chylomicrons (with ApoB48)
[...]
Which water soluble vitamin is used as an ancillary

treatment for Methemoglobinemia by reducing Fe3+ to
Fe2+?
Which water soluble vitamin is used as an ancillary

treatment for Methemoglobinemia by reducing Fe3+ to
Fe2+?
[...]
Pernicious anaemia is a type of anaemia that

causes Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency through antiintrinsic factor antibodies.
[...] is a type of anaemia that causes Vitamin B12

(Cobalamin) deficiency through anti-intrinsic factor
antibodies.
How does Glucagon influence Phosphofructokinase-2

activity?
How does Glucagon influence Phosphofructokinase-2

activity?
Inactivation, by activating protein kinase A and subsequent

phosphorylation of PFK-2
[...]
Thereby causes less glycolysis and more

gluconeogenesis in the fasting state.
Pyocyanin is a protein found in Pseudomonas
aeruginosa that functions to generate ROS that kill
competing microbes.
[...] is a protein found in Pseudomonas aeruginosa that

functions to generate ROS that kill competing microbes.
in the TCA cycle with ADP regulation?
in the TCA cycle with ADP regulation?
Increase
[...]

associated with ostium primum-type atrial septal defects.

with ostium primum-type atrial septal defects.
Where in the cell does translation occur?
Where in the cell does translation occur?
Cytosol
[...]
S-GLUT1 is a Na cotransporter on the luminal

[...] is a Na cotransporter on the luminal membrane of
membrane of GI epithelium that moves galactose and GI epithelium that moves galactose and glucose into the
glucose into the cell with Na.
cell with Na.
Griseofulvin is an anti-fungal agent that targets
microtubules.
[...] is an anti-fungal agent that targets microtubules.

the TCA cycle?

the TCA cycle?
Citrate Is Krebs' Starting Substrate For Making

Oxaloacetate
[...]
Pyruvate carboxylase is an enzyme involved in pyruvate

metabolism that converts pyruvate into oxaloacetate,
which can go on to replenish the TCA cycle or feed
gluconeogenesis.

converts pyruvate into oxaloacetate, which can go on to
replenish the TCA cycle or feed gluconeogenesis.
Alkaptonuria is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that [...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that involves
involves deficiency of Homogentisate Oxidase in the deficiency of Homogentisate Oxidase in the degradative
degradative pathway of tyrosine to fumarate.
pathway of tyrosine to fumarate.
The disorder is benign.
How do Aldolase levels change in Duchenne Muscular
Dystrophy?
How do Aldolase levels change in Duchenne Muscular

Dystrophy?
Increase
[...]
What ocular complications are seen in Myotonic Muscular What ocular complications are seen in Myotonic Muscular
Dystrophy Type 1?
Dystrophy Type 1?
Cataracts
[...]

heterozygosity?

heterozygosity?
2pq
[...]
GLUT5 is a carbohydrate transporter found at the

luminal membrane of the GI tract that allows
fructose to be absorbed.
[...] is a carbohydrate transporter found at the luminal

membrane of the GI tract that allows fructose to be
absorbed.
How do free beta-hCG levels change in the first trimester How do free beta-hCG levels change in the first trimester
of Down Syndrome?
of Down Syndrome?
Increase
[...]
What is the rate-determining enzyme of Glycolysis?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of Glycolysis?
Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
[...]
Emphysema is a COPD that can be caused by an 1antitrypsin deficiency.
[...] is a COPD that can be caused by an 1-antitrypsin

deficiency.
Deficiency of 1-antitrypsin causes an excess of

Elastase deficiency and too much breakdown of
elastin.
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Friedrich Ataxia?
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Friedrich Ataxia?
GAA
[...]
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can cause Vitamin B9

(Folic Acid) deficiency.
[...] is an anticonvulsant that can cause Vitamin B9 (Folic

Acid) deficiency.

cholesterol synthesis change with glucagon regulation?

cholesterol synthesis change with glucagon regulation?
Decrease
[...]
What type of glycosidic bond is seen in glycogen

branches?

branches?
alpha-(1,6)
[...]
NAD+ is a coenzyme molecule developed from Niacin

that acts as the limiting reagent in alcohol metabolism.
[...] is a coenzyme molecule developed from Niacin that

acts as the limiting reagent in alcohol metabolism.
What is the genetic inheritance of Familial Adenomatous

Polyposis (FAP)?
What is the genetic inheritance of Familial Adenomatous

Polyposis (FAP)?
Autosomal Dominant
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Neurofibromatosis Type What is the genetic inheritance of Neurofibromatosis Type
1 (NFT1; von Recklinghausen Disease)?
1 (NFT1; von Recklinghausen Disease)?
AD
[...]

presents with severe fasting hypoglycemia due to a
Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency.

severe fasting hypoglycemia due to a Glucose-6phosphatase deficiency.
Menkes Disease is a connective tissue disorder that

involves growth retardation and hypotonia due to
[...] is a connective tissue disorder that involves growth

retardation and hypotonia due to impaired copper
absorption and transport.
How do serum alanine levels change in Pyruvate

Dehydrogenase deficiency?
How do serum alanine levels change in Pyruvate

Dehydrogenase deficiency?
Increase
[...]
The excess pyruvate gets shunted to alanine by ALT.

von Hippel-Lindau Disease is an autosomal dominant
[...] is an autosomal dominant tumour disorder that is
tumour disorder that is characterized by the development characterized by the development of numerous tumours as
of numerous tumours as a result of deletion of the
a result of deletion of the VHL tumour suppressor gene.
VHL tumour suppressor gene.
Which mode of genetic inheritence affects many
generations and both males and females somewhat
equally?
Which mode of genetic inheritence affects many

generations and both males and females somewhat
equally?
Autosomal Dominant
[...]
Which 2 enzyme deficiencies can cause Homocystinuria? Which 2 enzyme deficiencies can cause Homocystinuria?
Cystathionine Synthase or Homocysteine
Methyltransferase (Methionine Synthase)
[...]
A deficiency in either can cause Homocystinuria

Which water soluble vitamin facilitates iron absorption by Which water soluble vitamin facilitates iron absorption by
reducing it to the Fe2+ state?
reducing it to the Fe2+ state?
[...]
How do increased Insulin levels influence Lipoprotein

Lipase (LPL) activity?
How do increased Insulin levels influence Lipoprotein

Lipase (LPL) activity?
Increase
[...]
[...] is a Urea Cycle enzyme disorder that presents with

elevated carbamoyl phosphate.
Ornithine Transcarbamylase Deficiency is a Urea Cycle

enzyme disorder that presents with elevated carbamoyl
phosphate.
Which 2 amino acids are abundant in Elastin?
Which 2 amino acids are abundant in Elastin?
Proline; Glycine
[...]
In their nonhydroxylated forms (compare to collagen

that has hydroxyproline residues).
glycogenesis with cortisol regulation?

glycogenesis with cortisol regulation?
Increase
[...]
Which race has a higher prevalence of G6PD Deficiency? Which race has a higher prevalence of G6PD Deficiency?
Blacks; Middle Easterns
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Albinism?
What is the genetic inheritance of Albinism?
AR
[...]
Which cellular organelle is the site of synthesis of secretory Which cellular organelle is the site of synthesis of secretory
(exported) proteins?
(exported) proteins?
Rough ER
[...]
Any cells that are highly secretory are rich in RER.

Meconium ileus is a GI complication of Cystic Fibrosis
commonly seen in newborns.
[...] is a GI complication of Cystic Fibrosis commonly

seen in newborns.
Which chromosome undergoes a microdeletion in Williams Which chromosome undergoes a microdeletion in Williams
Syndrome?
Syndrome?
Chromosome 7; including the elastin gene
[...]
Excessive ingestion of raw egg whites is a potential cause Excessive ingestion of [...] is a potential cause of Vitamin
of Vitamin B7 (Biotin) due to Avidin's ability to bind to
B7 (Biotin) due to Avidin's ability to bind to Biotin.
Biotin.
In general, Vitamin B7 (Biotin) deficiency is quite rare
and the only other cause is antibiotic use.
What is the genetic inheritance of Hereditary Hemorrhagic What is the genetic inheritance of Hereditary Hemorrhagic
Telangiectasia?
Telangiectasia?
AD
[...]
Which water soluble vitamine is important in the synthesis Which water soluble vitamine is important in the synthesis
of nitrogenous bases in DNA and RNA?
of nitrogenous bases in DNA and RNA?
[...]
Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a metabolic enzyme that links [...] is a metabolic enzyme that links glycolysis to the TCA
glycolysis to the TCA cycle and requires Vitamin B1
cycle and requires Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) as a cofactor.
(Thiamine) as a cofactor.
Which mode of genetic inheritence often involves defects

in structural genes?
Which mode of genetic inheritence often involves defects

in structural genes?
Autosomal Dominant
[...]
NAD+ and NADP+ are nicotinamides that function as

universal electron acceptors.
[...] and NADP+ are nicotinamides that function as

NAD+ and NADP+ are nicotinamides that function as

NAD+ and [...] are nicotinamides that function as

Which water soluble vitamin is required by Transaminases Which water soluble vitamin is required by Transaminases
and hence in the transport of ammonia by Alanine and
and hence in the transport of ammonia by Alanine and
Glutamate?
Glutamate?
[...]
Aspartate = Oxaloacetate + NH2

Alanine = Pyruvate + NH2
Glutamate = alpha-Ketoglutarate + NH2
What is the genetic inheritance of Lesch-Nyhan
Syndrome?

Syndrome?
XLR
[...]
A lariat-shaped intermediate is an intermediate that is

generated when an intron is excised and 2 exons are
joined.
A [...] is an intermediate that is generated when an intron is

excised and 2 exons are joined.
What is the rate-determining enzyme of Glycogenesis?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of Glycogenesis?
Glycogen synthase
[...]
Which water soluble vitamin is necessary for the

hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis?
Which water soluble vitamin is necessary for the

hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis?
[...]
How does an increased NAD+:NADH ratio affect

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase activity?
How does an increased NAD+:NADH ratio affect

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase activity?
Increase
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Classic Galactosemia?
What is the genetic inheritance of Classic Galactosemia?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
What is the primary role of Glycogenolysis at the liver?
What is the primary role of Glycogenolysis at the liver?
Maintenant of blood glucose
[...]
Glycogenolysis only lasts a short time. Soon after,

gluconeogenesis takes over to keep blood glucose
levels maintained.
What is the genetic inheritance of Maple Syrup Urine

Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Maple Syrup Urine

Disease?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Which apolipoprotein is released by the gut or found in the Which apolipoprotein is released by the gut or found in the
diet?
diet?
ApoB-48
[...]
Seen in exogenous lipids.

What type of collagen is mutated in the Classical type of
What type of collagen is mutated in the Classical type of

Type V
[...]
What enzyme is deficient in the lysosomal storage disorder What enzyme is deficient in the lysosomal storage disorder
Krabbe Disease?
Krabbe Disease?
Galactocerebrosidase
[...]
Alkaptonuria is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that

presents with dark connective tissue and brown
pigmented sclerae.

with dark connective tissue and brown pigmented
sclerae.
Fructose Intolerance is a disorder of fructose metabolism [...] is a disorder of fructose metabolism that presents with
that presents with an accumulation of Fructose-1an accumulation of Fructose-1-Phosphate, thereby
Phosphate, thereby causing a decrease in available
causing a decrease in available phosphate.
phosphate.
This in turn results in inhibition of glycogenolysis and
gluconeogenesis.
What teratogenic effects are yielded by vitamin A (Retinol) What teratogenic effects are yielded by vitamin A (Retinol)
when it is in excess amounts?
when it is in excess amounts?
Cleft palate; cardiac abnormalities
[...]
How do lactate levels change in Pyruvate Dehydrogenase How do lactate levels change in Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
deficiency?
deficiency?
Increase
[...]
The excess pyruvate gets made into lactate via LDH,

thereby causing lactic acidosis.
salvage pathway that involves a deficiency of HGPRT, an involves a deficiency of HGPRT, an enzyme that converts
enzyme that converts Hypoxanthine to IMP and Guanine
Hypoxanthine to IMP and Guanine to GMP.
to GMP.
Thereby results in increased Uric Acid production
Which major glycogen storage disorder is associated with Which major glycogen storage disorder is associated with
muscle damage?
muscle damage?
McArdle Disease
McArdle = Muscle
[...]
How do homocysteine levels change in Vitamin B12

How do homocysteine levels change in Vitamin B12

Increase
[...]
alpha-amanitin is a toxin found in Amanita

phalloides (death cap mushrooms) that inhibits RNA
Polymerase II.
[...] is a toxin found in Amanita phalloides (death cap

mushrooms) that inhibits RNA Polymerase II.
And also causes severe hepatotoxicity.

What is the rate limiting enzyme in the HMP shunt?
What is the rate limiting enzyme in the HMP shunt?
G6PD (Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase)
[...]
Which enzyme is deficient in Cori Disease?
Which enzyme is deficient in Cori Disease?
Debranching enzyme (alpha-1,6-Glucosidase)
[...]
Mnemonic to remember Anderson and Cori Disease:

"AB,CD"
inhibited by the immunosuppressant Mycophenolate?

inhibited by the immunosuppressant Mycophenolate?
IMP Dehydrogenase
[...]
What autoantibodies in pernicious anaemia cause Vitamin What autoantibodies in pernicious anaemia cause Vitamin
B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency?
B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency?
Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
[...]
What diagnostic test is used to diagnose Cystinuria?
What diagnostic test is used to diagnose Cystinuria?
Urinary cyanide-nitroprusside test
[...]
Down Syndrome is an autosomal trisomy disorder that is [...] is an autosomal trisomy disorder that is associated
associated with increased nuchal translucency and a with increased nuchal translucency and a hypoplastic
hypoplastic nasal bone in a first trimester ultrasound.
nasal bone in a first trimester ultrasound.
Which type of DNA repair functions to repair bulky helix- Which type of DNA repair functions to repair bulky helixdistorting lesions?
distorting lesions?
Nucleotide excision repair
[...]

synthase for every molecule of NADH?

synthase for every molecule of NADH?
2.5 (so we just use ~3 in calculations)
[...]
Steve had sex with NADia H. 3 times during frosh

week and got an STI.
(True story. Will never forget the regret on Steve's
face. Will also never forget this mnemonic.)

involves a deficiency of Glucocerebrosidase (betaGlucosidase) and a subsequent accumulation of
Glucocerebroside.

deficiency of Glucocerebrosidase (beta-Glucosidase)
and a subsequent accumulation of Glucocerebroside.
Gaucher = "GGG"
the Golgi to lysosomes?

the Golgi to lysosomes?
Clathrin
[...]
Carnitine Deficiency is a disorder of fatty acid breakdown

that presents with weakness and hypotonia.
[...] is a disorder of fatty acid breakdown that presents

with weakness and hypotonia.
Ligamenta Flava are ligaments rich in elastin that connect [...] are ligaments rich in elastin that connect vertebrae.
vertebrae.
They have relaxed and stretched conformations.
Hypophosphatemic Rickets is an X-linked dominant
disorder that was formerly known as Vitamin D-Resistant
Rickets.
[...] is an X-linked dominant disorder that was formerly

known as Vitamin D-Resistant Rickets.
Hunter Syndrome is a lysosomal storage disorder that

involves a deficiency of iduronate sulfatase.

deficiency of iduronate sulfatase.
What is the genetic inheritance of Von Gierke Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Von Gierke Disease?
Autosomal recessive
[...]

cholesterol to peripheral tissue?

cholesterol to peripheral tissue?
LDL
[...]
What is the most common gene mutated in Autosomal

Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)?
What is the most common gene mutated in Autosomal

Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)?
PKD1 on Chromosome 16 (85% of cases)
[...]
Chromosome 16; 16 letters

Which vitamin deficiencies are commonly seen in Cystic
Fibrosis patients?
Which vitamin deficiencies are commonly seen in Cystic

Fibrosis patients?
Vitamin A, D, E, K; i.e. the fat soluble vitamins
[...]
Remember, there is pancreatic insufficiency and

malabsorption.
In which direction does DNA Polymerase I have
In which direction does DNA Polymerase I have

5' to 3'; it removes RNA primers in this direction
[...]
Compare that to DNA Polymerase III which has 3' to

5' exonuclease activity.
Which water soluble vitamin is a constituent of NAD+ and Which water soluble vitamin is a constituent of NAD+ and
NADP+?
NADP+?
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
[...]
NAD and NADP are both used in redox reactions.

What type of collagen is found in the basal lamina?
What type of collagen is found in the basal lamina?
Type IV
[...]
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Myotonic Dystrophy? What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Myotonic Dystrophy?
CTG
[...]
Gonadal Mosaicism is a type of genetic mosaicism where

the mutation is only in egg or sperm cells.
[...] is a type of genetic mosaicism where the mutation is

only in egg or sperm cells.
Pseudohypertrophy is a feature of Duchenne Muscular

Dystrophy that typically presents at the calf muscles due to
fibrofatty replacement of muscle.
[...] is a feature of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy that

typically presents at the calf muscles due to fibrofatty
replacement of muscle.
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)?
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)?
[...]
Which type of cytoskeletal filament is involved with

structure?

structure?
Intermediate filaments
[...]
How does Mevalonate, an intermediate in cholesterol

synthesis, influence HMG CoA Reductase expression?
How does Mevalonate, an intermediate in cholesterol

synthesis, influence HMG CoA Reductase expression?
Repression
[...]
HMG-CoA is converted into Mevalonate

Arachidonic Acid is an omega-6 fatty acid.
Arachidonic Acid is an omega-[...] fatty acid.
How do serum PAPP-A (Pregnancy-associated plasma

protein A) levels change in the first trimester of Down
Syndrome?
How do serum PAPP-A (Pregnancy-associated plasma

protein A) levels change in the first trimester of Down
Syndrome?
Decrease
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Kartagener Syndrome

What is the genetic inheritance of Kartagener Syndrome

AR
[...]
Leflunomide is a DMARD drug that inhibits

Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in
[...] is a DMARD drug that inhibits Dihydroorotate

Dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in pyrimidine
synthesis.
How does Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) deficiency affect

the immune system?
How does Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) deficiency affect

the immune system?
Weakened
[...]
How do carbamoyl phosphate levels change in Carbamoyl How do carbamoyl phosphate levels change in Carbamoyl
Phosphate Synthetase I deficiency?
Phosphate Synthetase I deficiency?
Decrease
[...]
This card isn't entirely stupid because it reinforces the

connection with orotic aciduria. Because Carbamoyl
Phosphate levels are low, there will be no Orotic
Aciduria via de novo pyrimidine synthesis.

Autosomal dominant
[...]
What amino acid is Serotonin derived from?
What amino acid is Serotonin derived from?
Tryptophan
[...]
Which B-vitamin is the only one that does not wash out
easily from the body?
Which B-vitamin is the only one that does not wash out
easily from the body?
Vitamin B12; Cobalamin
[...]
It is stored in the liver

Which metabolic shunt is a vital source of ribose for
nucleotide synthesis and glycolytic intermediates?
Which metabolic shunt is a vital source of ribose for

nucleotide synthesis and glycolytic intermediates?
HMP Shunt (Pentose Phosphate Pathway)
[...]
What type of cell contains the intermediate filament Glial

Fibrillary Acid Protein (GFAP)?
What type of cell contains the intermediate filament Glial

Fibrillary Acid Protein (GFAP)?
Neuroglia
[...]
Allelic heterogeneity is a genetic phenomenon where

different mutations in the same locus produce the same
phenotype.
[...] is a genetic phenomenon where different mutations in

the same locus produce the same phenotype.
e.g. beta-thalassemia
Which laboratory technique is used to diagnose
chromosomal imbalances?
Which laboratory technique is used to diagnose

chromosomal imbalances?
Karyotyping
[...]
in fatty acid synthesis change with glucagon regulation?
in fatty acid synthesis change with glucagon regulation?
Decrease
[...]
[...] is a familial dyslipidemia that presents with corneal
arcus.

corneal arcus.
Transcarbamylase (OTC) Deficiency?

Transcarbamylase (OTC) Deficiency?
X-linked Recessive
[...]
Fluorescence in situ hybridization is a laboratory technique [...] is a laboratory technique used to specifically localize
used to specifically localize genes and directly visualize
genes and directly visualize anomalies at the molecular
anomalies at the molecular level, especially when
level, especially when microdeletions are too small to be
microdeletions are too small to be visualized by
visualized by karyotyping.
karyotyping.
Fluorescence = gene is present. No fluorescence =
gene is absent and has been deleted.
Which metabolic pathway functions to get rid of any
excess nitrogen (NH3) generated by amino acid
catabolism?
Which metabolic pathway functions to get rid of any

excess nitrogen (NH3) generated by amino acid
catabolism?
Urea Cycle
[...]
What is the polyadenylation signal on mRNA?
What is the polyadenylation signal on mRNA?
AAUAAA
[...]
How does Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency affect

glucose breakdown?
How does Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency affect

glucose breakdown?
Impairs it; the resultant ATP depletion is worsened by

glucose administration
[...]
Remember the 2 important enzymes in glucose

breakdown that require Thiamine. Highly aerobic
tissues such as the heart and brain are affected first
(i.e. Wernicke-Korsakoff).
This is also why we always administer Thiamine
before glucose.
Against which fat soluble vitamin is Warfarin an
antagonist?
Against which fat soluble vitamin is Warfarin an

antagonist?
Vitamin K
[...]
Which enzyme in lysosomes degrades a small amount of Which enzyme in lysosomes degrades a small amount of
glycogen?
glycogen?
alpha-1,4-glucosidase (Acid Maltase)
[...]
Ergosterol is a sterol molecule that is uniquely found in

fungal plasma membranes.
[...] is a sterol molecule that is uniquely found in fungal

plasma membranes.
the ER to the Golgi?
[...]

the ER to the Golgi?
COPII
i.e. COPII goes forward
How do increased NADH levels influence
Gluconeogenesis?
How do increased NADH levels influence

Gluconeogenesis?
Activation
[...]
Gluconeogenesis only occurs in high energy states

(high ATP and high NADH) because Oxaloacetate
must be converted to Malate in the TCA cycle.
Malate then leaves to gluconeogenesis via the malate
shuttle.
How does an increase in NADH levels influence the TCA How does an increase in NADH levels influence the TCA
cycle?
cycle?
Inhibitions
[...]
Increased NADH = high energy state = inhibition of

Krebs.
NADH acts as a competitive inhibitor.
The Spliceosome is a protein complex that performs premRNA splicing.
The [...] is a protein complex that performs pre-mRNA

splicing.
How does an increase in NAD+ levels influence the TCA How does an increase in NAD+ levels influence the TCA
cycle?
cycle?
Activation
[...]
High NAD+ = low energy state = activated Krebs.

involves a deficiency of alpha-Galactosidase A.

deficiency of alpha-Galactosidase A.
Menkes Disease is a connective tissue disorder that is

caused by impaired copper absorption and transport.
[...] is a connective tissue disorder that is caused by

Remember, Lysyl Oxidase, the enzye responsible for

cross-linking tropocollagen into collagen fibrils,
requires Copper as a cofactor. Hence there will be
decreased collagen.
What is the rate-determining enzyme of the HMP shunt?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of the HMP shunt?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
[...]
Locus Heterogeneity is a genetic phenomenon that occurs [...] is a genetic phenomenon that occurs when mutations
when mutations at different loci can produce a similar
at different loci can produce a similar phenotype.
phenotype.
e.g. albinism
Which blotting procedure is used to identify protein?
Which blotting procedure is used to identify protein?
Western blot
[...]
Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked disorder affecting the

methylation and expression of the FMR1 gene.
[...] is an X-linked disorder affecting the methylation and

expression of the FMR1 gene.
How does the activity of Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase in How does the activity of Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase in
Gluconeogenesis change with acetyl-CoA regulation?
Gluconeogenesis change with acetyl-CoA regulation?
Increase
[...]
This is especially true in fasting states when acetylCoA levels are elevated.
Maple Syrup Urine Disease is a disorder of branched [...] is a disorder of branched chain amino acid metabolism
chain amino acid metabolism that involves severe CNS
that involves severe CNS defects, intellectual
defects, intellectual disability and death.
disability and death.
Which enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during
translation by transferring the growing polypeptide to the
amino acid present in the A site?
Which enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during

translation by transferring the growing polypeptide to the
amino acid present in the A site?
rRNA (Ribozyme)
[...]
Which enzyme in muscle activates Glycogen

Phosphorylase when it is bound to Ca?
Which enzyme in muscle activates Glycogen

Phosphorylase when it is bound to Ca?
Calmodulin
[...]
Gaucher Cells are a pathological cell seen in Gaucher

Disease that are described as lipid-laden macrophages
resembling crumpled tissue paper.
[...] are a pathological cell seen in Gaucher Disease that

are described as lipid-laden macrophages resembling
crumpled tissue paper.
Visualized with a PAS stain.

Adipose tissue can only make Glycerol-3-Phosphate by
reducing Dihydroxyacetone Phosphate (DHAP), a
glycolytic intermediate.
Adipose tissue can only make Glycerol-3-Phosphate by

reducing [...], a glycolytic intermediate.
Hence, adipose tissue requires increased glucose

uptake via the GLUT4 transporter in order for there
to be spare DHAP available for making and storing
triglycerides. This is part of why excess sugar intake
becomes fat.
Also this is why diabetics will have hyperlipidemia.
Which mitochondrial enzyme receives electrons from
FADH2 in the electron transport chain?
Which mitochondrial enzyme receives electrons from

FADH2 in the electron transport chain?
Complex II (aka Succinate Dehydrogenase)
[...]
Which type of DNA repair functions to repair

spontaneous/toxic deamination?
Which type of DNA repair functions to repair

spontaneous/toxic deamination?
Base excision repair
[...]
Where in the body is the small reserve pool of Vitamin B9 Where in the body is the small reserve pool of Vitamin B9
(Folic Acid) stored?
(Folic Acid) stored?
Liver
[...]
What is the treatment for Cystinuria?
What is the treatment for Cystinuria?
Urinary alkalinization and chelators that increase the

solubility of cystine stones
[...]
Agents include Potassium Citrate and Acetazolamide.

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) is a water soluble vitamin that is used
to treat dyslipidemia as it functions to lower the levels of
VLDL and raise HDL.
[...] is a water soluble vitamin that is used to treat

dyslipidemia as it functions to lower the levels of VLDL
and raise HDL.
Arsenic is a metalloid element that inhibits lipoic acid, a

key cofactor of Pyruvate Dehydrogenase, Acetaldehyde
DH, alpha-Ketoglutarate DH, and Branched-Chain
Ketoacid DH.
[...] is a metalloid element that inhibits lipoic acid, a key

cofactor of Pyruvate Dehydrogenase, Acetaldehyde DH,
alpha-Ketoglutarate DH, and Branched-Chain Ketoacid
DH.
Presents with vomiting, rice-water stools and garlic

breath.
Lipoic acid is the Love in Tender Love & Care For
Nancy.
How do methylmalonic acid levels change in Vitamin B9
(Folic Acid) deficiency?
How do methylmalonic acid levels change in Vitamin B9

(Folic Acid) deficiency?
No change; they stay normal
[...]
Increase in B12 deficiency

What type of cytoskeletal filament is involved in muscle
contraction?
What type of cytoskeletal filament is involved in muscle

contraction?
Actin & Myosin
[...]
How many ATP molecules are made per Acetyl-CoA

molecule that enters the TCA cycle?
How many ATP molecules are made per Acetyl-CoA

molecule that enters the TCA cycle?
10
[...]
Which eukaryotic ribosomal subunit assembles with the

initiator tRNA molecule?
Which eukaryotic ribosomal subunit assembles with the

initiator tRNA molecule?
40S
[...]
60S subunit and mRNA molecule arrive after,

triggering the disassembly of the initiation factors.
Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy Type 1 is a muscular
dystrophy caused by CTG trinucleotide repeats in the
DMPK gene, thereby causing abnormal expression of
myotonin protein kinase.
Abnormal myotonin protein kinase deficiency caues
myotonia, muscle wasting, frontal balding, cataracts,
testicular atrophy and arrhythmia.
[...] is a muscular dystrophy caused by CTG trinucleotide

repeats in the DMPK gene, thereby causing abnormal
expression of myotonin protein kinase.
Which essential amino acids are both ketogenic and

glucogenic?
Which essential amino acids are both ketogenic and

glucogenic?
Isoleucine; Phenylalanine; Threonine; Tryptophan
[...]
How do Inhibin A levels change in the quad screen

How do Inhibin A levels change in the quad screen

Decrease (or normal)
[...]
Everything decreases in Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy

18)
Which nucleus in the thalamus is damaged in WernickeKorsakoff Syndrome?
Which nucleus in the thalamus is damaged in WernickeKorsakoff Syndrome?
Medial Dorsal Nucleus
[...]
Which 2 sources provide the Ammonia that enters the

Urea Cycle?
Which 2 sources provide the Ammonia that enters the

Urea Cycle?
The gut via Glutaminase; Glutamate via Glutamate

Dehydrogenase
[...]
A dehydrogenase is a type of enzyme that catalyzes

oxidation-reduction reactions.
A [...] is a type of enzyme that catalyzes oxidationreduction reactions.
Which lipoprotein functions to transport cholesterol from Which lipoprotein functions to transport cholesterol from
liver to tissues?
liver to tissues?
LDL
[...]
How many rings are found in purines?
How many rings are found in purines?
[...]
Hunter Syndrome is a lysosomal storage disorder that [...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that presents similar to
presents similar to Hurler Syndrome, but lacks corneal
Hurler Syndrome, but lacks corneal clouding.
clouding.
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication makes
RNA primers on which DNA Polymerase III can
initiate replication?
Which enzyme involved with DNA replication makes

RNA primers on which DNA Polymerase III can
initiate replication?
Primase
[...]
Which water soluble vitamin is used as a cofactor for

Homocysteine Methyltransferase?

Homocysteine Methyltransferase?
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
[...]
It transfers a methyl group as methylcobalamin.
enzyme deficiencies?
enzyme deficiencies?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
N-acetylglutamate is a cofactor that is required by

Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I in the Urea Cycle.
[...] is a cofactor that is required by Carbamoyl Phosphate

Synthetase I in the Urea Cycle.
Hence, N-acetylglutamate deficiency will cause

hyperammonemia.
Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I familial dyslipidemia) is a
familial dyslipidemia that can be caused by a deficiency of
Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL).
[...] is a familial dyslipidemia that can be caused by a

deficiency of Lipoprotein Lipase (LPL).

Aspartate via AST with B6?

Aspartate via AST with B6?
Oxaloacetate
[...]
How does Insulin influence Glycogenesis?
How does Insulin influence Glycogenesis?
Activation
[...]
Insulin activates Glycogen Synthase.

Insulin activated Protein Phosphatase 1 which
dephosphorylates Glycogen Phosphorylase, thereby
inactivating it.
Which fat soluble vitamin is used as a treatment for AML- Which fat soluble vitamin is used as a treatment for AMLM3?
M3?
Vitamin A
[...]
Cystinuria is disorder of amino acid metabolism that can

involve hexagonal cystine stones in the urine due to
excess cystine content.
[...] is disorder of amino acid metabolism that can involve

hexagonal cystine stones in the urine due to excess
cystine content.
Cystine is made of 2 cysteine molecules connected by a

disulfide bond.
Which structural form of chromatin is sterically accessible? Which structural form of chromatin is sterically accessible?
Euchromatin
[...]
Subacute Combined Degeneration is a neurological

complication of Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) deficiency and
involves degeneration of the dorsal columns, lateral
corticospinal tracts and spinocerebellar tracts due to
abnormal myelin.
[...] is a neurological complication of Vitamin B12

(Cobalamin) deficiency and involves degeneration of the
dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts and
spinocerebellar tracts due to abnormal myelin.
Prolonged B12 deficiency can cause irreversible nerve

damage.
Which fat soluble vitamin is essential for normal
differentiation of epithelial cells into specialized tissue?
Which fat soluble vitamin is essential for normal

differentiation of epithelial cells into specialized tissue?
Vitamin A (Retinol)
[...]
e.g. pancreatic cells; mucous-secreting cells
Which fat soluble vitamin is able to enhance the

anticoagulant effects of Warfarin?
Which fat soluble vitamin is able to enhance the

anticoagulant effects of Warfarin?
Vitamin E (Tocopherol/Tocotrienol)
[...]
Essential Fructosuria is an asymptomatic disorder of [...] is an asymptomatic disorder of fructose metabolism

fructose metabolism as Hexokinase is able to perform the as Hexokinase is able to perform the same function as
same function as Fructokinase, hence Fructose is not
Fructokinase, hence Fructose is not trapped in cells.
trapped in cells.
The symptoms that appear are benign (fructosuria;
fructosemia).
Disorders of fructose metabolism generally cause
milder symptoms than analogous disorders of
galactose metabolism.
Which enzyme in the Urea Cycle requires Nacetylglutamate as a cofactor?
Which enzyme in the Urea Cycle requires Nacetylglutamate as a cofactor?
Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I
[...]
Axonemal Dynein is an ATPase found in microtubules that

causes bending of the cilium by differential sliding of the 9
peripheral doublets.
[...] is an ATPase found in microtubules that causes

bending of the cilium by differential sliding of the 9
peripheral doublets.
What chromosomal deletion is seen in Velocardiofacial

Syndrome?
What chromosomal deletion is seen in Velocardiofacial

Syndrome?
22q11
[...]
Codominance is a genetic term defined as both alleles

contributing to the phenotype of a heterozygote.
[...] is a genetic term defined as both alleles contributing to

the phenotype of a heterozygote.
e.g. AB blood group; alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

A phosphatase is a type of enzyme that removes
phosphate groups from substrates.
A [...] is a type of enzyme that removes phosphate groups

from substrates.
How many kcal of energy is obtained from 1g of protein? How many kcal of energy is obtained from 1g of protein?
4 kcal
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Autosomal Dominant

Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)?
What is the genetic inheritance of Autosomal Dominant

Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)?
Autosomal Dominant
[...]
Just checking if you're still awake.

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase is a mitochondrial enzyme that [...] is a mitochondrial enzyme that links glycolysis and the
links glycolysis and the TCA cycle by converting pyruvate
TCA cycle by converting pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
to acetyl CoA.
Pyruvate + NAD + CoA --> Acetyl-CoA + CO2 +
NADH
This reaction is irreversible
What is the genetic inheritance of Hypophosphatemic

Rickets?
What is the genetic inheritance of Hypophosphatemic

Rickets?
X-linked Dominant
[...]
What type of collagen is found in tendons?
What type of collagen is found in tendons?
Type I
[...]
Which intermediate of the TCA cycle can be made from

Alanine by AST with B6?
Which intermediate of the TCA cycle can be made from

Alanine by AST with B6?
Pyruvate
[...]
Osteomalacia is a bone disorder caused by Vitamin D

deficiency in adults.
[...] is a bone disorder caused by Vitamin D deficiency in

adults.
Involves bone pain and muscle weakness.

Ketoacidosis is a complication of Von Gierke Disease that [...] is a complication of Von Gierke Disease that arises
arises due to Acetyl CoA being shunted towards
due to Acetyl CoA being shunted towards ketogenesis.
ketogenesis.
Marfan Syndrome is a connective tissue disorder that is
[...] is a connective tissue disorder that is caused by a
caused by a defect in fibrillin, a glycoprotein that forms a defect in fibrillin, a glycoprotein that forms a sheath around
sheath around elastin.
elastin.
What is the rate-determining enzyme of the Urea cycle?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of the Urea cycle?
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
[...]
Which type of disease is highly associated with Anti-U1

RNP antibodies?
Which type of disease is highly associated with Anti-U1

RNP antibodies?
Mixed connective tissue disease
[...]
What are the 2 acidic amino acids?
What are the 2 acidic amino acids?
Aspartate; Glutamate
[...]
Both are negatively charged at body pH.

What amino acid is Dopamine derived from?
What amino acid is Dopamine derived from?
[...]
What is the treatment for the lysosomal storage disorder

Gaucher Disease?
What is the treatment for the lysosomal storage disorder

Gaucher Disease?
Recombinant glucocerebrosidase
[...]
i.e. the deficient enzyme

How many kcal of energy is obtained from 1g of
carbohydrate?
How many kcal of energy is obtained from 1g of

carbohydrate?
4 kcal
[...]
What type of cardiac septal defect is seen in Cri-du-chat

Syndrome?
What type of cardiac septal defect is seen in Cri-du-chat

Syndrome?
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
[...]
What enzyme is deficient in Pompe Disease?
What enzyme is deficient in Pompe Disease?
Alpha-1,4-glucosidase (Acid Maltase)
[...]
Found in lysosomes.
What amino acid is Melatonin derived from?
What amino acid is Melatonin derived from?
Tryptophan via Serotonin
[...]
Hereditary Spherocytosis is an autosomal dominant

hematological disorder that involves spheroid
erythrocytes due to a spectrin or ankyrin defect.
[...] is an autosomal dominant hematological disorder that

involves spheroid erythrocytes due to a spectrin or
ankyrin defect.
Causes hemolytic anaemia, increases MCHC.

What is the genetic inheritance of Neurofibromatosis Type What is the genetic inheritance of Neurofibromatosis Type
2 (NFT2)?
2 (NFT2)?
AD
[...]
Antimycin A is an electron transport inhibitor that directly

inhibits the ETC at Complex III.
[...] is an electron transport inhibitor that directly inhibits

the ETC at Complex III.

synthesis.
"RACCO" from left to right.
Which enzyme is responsible for the accuracy of amino
acid selection for protein synthesis?
Which enzyme is responsible for the accuracy of amino

acid selection for protein synthesis?
Aminoacyl-tRNA Synthetase
[...]
The enzyme's selectivity/action and the binding of the

charged tRNA moc to the appropriate codon is what
provides accuracy.
What B-vitamin is Cobalamin
What B-vitamin is Cobalamin
B12
[...]
Hypoglycemia is a complication of ethanol metabolism due

to the increased NADH:NAD ratio driving the conversion
of oxaloacetate to malate, thereby preventing
gluconeogenesis.
[...] is a complication of ethanol metabolism due to the

increased NADH:NAD ratio driving the conversion of
oxaloacetate to malate, thereby preventing
gluconeogenesis.
We correct the hypoglycemia with IV thiamine before

glucose as thiamine is a required cofactor for glucose
metabolism.
What is the genetic inheritance of Homocystinuria?
What is the genetic inheritance of Homocystinuria?
Autosomal recessive (all types are AR)
[...]
How does ethanol metabolism affect gluconeogenesis?
How does ethanol metabolism affect gluconeogenesis?
Inhibition due to increased NADH:NAD ratio
[...]
Malignant Carcinoid Syndrome is a neoplastic syndrome

that can cause Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency though an
increase in tryptophan metabolism.
[...] is a neoplastic syndrome that can cause Vitamin B3

(Niacin) deficiency though an increase in tryptophan
metabolism.
Remember, Tryptophan can be converted to serotonin

and melatonin in addition to niacin. If serotonin
production increases, less tryptophan is available to be
made into niacin.
The silencer is a DNA site where negative regulators (gene The [...] is a DNA site where negative regulators (gene
repressors) bind.
repressors) bind.
Can be close to, far from or within the gene it
regulates.
Which enzyme involved in de novo pyrimidine synthesis is Which enzyme involved in de novo pyrimidine synthesis is
inhibited by the antineoplastic Methotrexate (MTX)?
inhibited by the antineoplastic Methotrexate (MTX)?
Dihydrofolate Reductase
[...]
Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked trinucleotide repeat

disorder affecting the FMR1 gene that presents with a
long face, large jaw and large everted ears.
[...] is an X-linked trinucleotide repeat disorder affecting

the FMR1 gene that presents with a long face, large
jaw and large everted ears.

Phosphate, a cofactor used in transamination?

Phosphate, a cofactor used in transamination?
[...]
What cardiac complications are seen in Myotonic

What cardiac complications are seen in Myotonic

Arrhythmia
[...]
How does the risk of Autosomal Recessive disorders

change in cosanguineous families?
How does the risk of Autosomal Recessive disorders

change in cosanguineous families?
Increased
[...]
Galactokinase Deficiency is a disorder of galactose

metabolism that may initially present as failure to track
objects or to develop a social smile.
[...] is a disorder of galactose metabolism that may initially

present as failure to track objects or to develop a social
smile.
How does the risk of Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

(ALL) change in Down Syndrome?
How does the risk of Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

(ALL) change in Down Syndrome?
Increase
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Ehlers-Danlos

Syndrome?
What is the genetic inheritance of Ehlers-Danlos

Syndrome?
Can be AD or AR
[...]
A(n) [...] genetic code is one where most amino acids are
coded by multiple codons.
A(n) degenerate/redundant genetic code is one where

most amino acids are coded by multiple codons.
The exception is Methionine (AUG) and Tryptophan
(UGG)
Vitamins with which type of solubility have more common Vitamins with which type of solubility have more common
toxicity?
toxicity?
Fat soluble due to accumulation in body fat stores
[...]
How many kcal of energy is obtained from 1g of fat?
How many kcal of energy is obtained from 1g of fat?
9 kcal
[...]
Where in the body is ethanol metabolised?
Where in the body is ethanol metabolised?
Liver only
[...]
Cori Disease is a glycogen storage disease that involves

deficiency of Debranching Enzyme (alpha-1,6glucosidase).
[...] is a glycogen storage disease that involves deficiency

of Debranching Enzyme (alpha-1,6-glucosidase).
Mnemonic to remember Anderson and Cori Disease:

"AB,CD"
Which gene is associated with Multiple Endocrine
Neoplasia (MEN) 2A and 2B?
Which gene is associated with Multiple Endocrine

Neoplasia (MEN) 2A and 2B?
ret
[...]
What does CoA carry when it is in its activated form?
What does CoA carry when it is in its activated form?
Acyl groups
[...]
Dornase Alfa is a recombinant human DNAse used to

treat Cystic Fibrosis as it clears the leukocytic debris in
thick mucous secretions.
[...] is a recombinant human DNAse used to treat Cystic

Fibrosis as it clears the leukocytic debris in thick mucous
secretions.
Which molecular motor protein transports cargo in an

anterograde direction towards the positive (+) end of
the microtubule?
Which molecular motor protein transports cargo in an

anterograde direction towards the positive (+) end of
the microtubule?
Kinesin
[...]
Western Blot is a blotting procedure that is used to identify [...] is a blotting procedure that is used to identify protein
protein by electrophoresis and labelling of proteins with
by electrophoresis and labelling of proteins with
antibodies.
antibodies.
Used to confirm HIV after a positive ELISA.
Fava Beans are a type of bean that can trigger hemolytic
anaemia in G6PD deficiency.
Infection can also trigger hemolytic anaemia as the
free radicals generated from the inflammatory
response can diffuse into RBCs and cause oxidative
damage.
[...] are a type of bean that can trigger hemolytic anaemia

in G6PD deficiency.
What kind of diet is known to induce Vitamin B12

What kind of diet is known to induce Vitamin B12

Vegan
[...]
Due to the lack of animal products in the diet.

What is the treatment for Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
What is the treatment for Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Less phenylalanine and more tyrosine in the diet
[...]
Robertsonian Translocation is a chromosomal

translocation that that involves the fusion of the long arms
of 2 acrocentric chromosomes at the centromere and the
loss of the 2 short arms.
[...] is a chromosomal translocation that that involves the

fusion of the long arms of 2 acrocentric chromosomes at
the centromere and the loss of the 2 short arms.
Nonreciprocal translocation
Can be balanced or unbalanced
One of the most common
Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic imprinting disorder that [...] is a genetic imprinting disorder that can result due to
can result due to maternal uniparental disomy.
maternal uniparental disomy.
2 maternally imprinted genes are received, hence there
is no paternal gene. This is synonymous to paternal
gene deletion/mutation.
What type of DNA repair involves the bringing together of What type of DNA repair involves the bringing together of
2 ends of DNA fragments to repair double-stranded
2 ends of DNA fragments to repair double-stranded
braks?
braks?
Nonhomologous End Joining Repair
[...]
There is no requirement for homology.

Where in the cell does fatty acid oxidation (betaoxidation) occur?
Where in the cell does fatty acid oxidation (betaoxidation) occur?
Mitochondria
[...]

that is associated with cleft lip and cleft palate.
[...] is an autosomal trisomy that is associated with cleft

lip and cleft palate.
Pompe Disease is a glycogen storage disorder that

involves cardiomyopathy.
[...] is a glycogen storage disorder that involves

cardiomyopathy.
Along with systemic findings, hepatomegaly and

muscle weakness there is early death.
On which chromosome is the gene implicated in
Huntington Disease found?
On which chromosome is the gene implicated in

Huntington Disease found?
Chromosome 4
[...]
Hunting 4 food (chromosome 4)

in Glycogenolysis with AMP regulation?
in Glycogenolysis with AMP regulation?
Increase
[...]

that presents with progressive neurodegeneration,
hepatosplenomegaly and cherry-red spot on the
macula.

progressive neurodegeneration,
hepatosplenomegaly and cherry-red spot on the
macula.
Which Histone proteins are part of the nucleosome core? Which Histone proteins are part of the nucleosome core?
H2A; H2B; H3; H4
[...]
All appear twice in the octamer.

What is the MOA of Lactulose in the treatment of
Hyperammonemia?
What is the MOA of Lactulose in the treatment of

Hyperammonemia?
Trapping of NH4+ ions in the GI tract by acidifying the

lumen
[...]
In which ribosomal binding site do aminoacyl-tRNA

molecules bind to?
In which ribosomal binding site do aminoacyl-tRNA

molecules bind to?
A site; except for the initiator methionine-tRNA which

slides into the P site
[...]
A site = Arriving Amino-acyl tRNA

Globoid Cells?

Globoid Cells?
Krabbe Disease
[...]
How does DNA Methylation at CpG islands influence

gene transcription?
How does DNA Methylation at CpG islands influence

gene transcription?
Repression
[...]
Methylation mutes DNA.

Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase is an enzyme
involved in branched chain amino acid metabolism that
requires Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) as a cofactor.
[...] is an enzyme involved in branched chain amino acid

metabolism that requires Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) as a
cofactor.

inhibited by the antineoplastic 6-Mercaptopurine (6MP)? inhibited by the antineoplastic 6-Mercaptopurine (6MP)?
PRPP Amidotransferase
[...]
Cholesterol ester transfer protein (CETP) is an enzyme [...] is an enzyme found in HDL that mediates the transfer
found in HDL that mediates the transfer of cholesterol of cholesterol esters to other lipoprotein particles (such as
esters to other lipoprotein particles (such as VLDL, IDL,
VLDL, IDL, LDL).
LDL).
As IDL becomes richer and richer in cholesterol via
CETP action, it becomes LDL.
with fair skin or partial albinism due to decreased
tyrosine production.
Phenylketonuria is a disorder of amino acid metabolism

that presents with fair skin or partial albinism due to
decreased tyrosine production.
Remember, a significant amount of Tyrosine is made
from Phenylalanine, whose metabolism is impaired in
PKU.
Also remember that DA, NE, Epinephrine, Melanin are
all derived from Tyrosine.
How does Histone methylation influence DNA
transcription?
How does Histone methylation influence DNA

transcription?
Repression; typically reversible; Histone Methylation

Mostly Make DNA Mute
[...]
Edwards Syndrome is an autosomal trisomy that is

[...] is an autosomal trisomy that is associated with rockerassociated with rocker-bottom feet and micrognathia.
bottom feet and micrognathia.
Micrognathia = small jaw
Acetylaldehyde dehydrogenase is an enzyme involved in [...] is an enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism that uses
alcohol metabolism that uses the same cofactors as
the same cofactors as pyruvate dehydrogenase.
pyruvate dehydrogenase.
For Nancy: (Thiamine, Lipoic Acid, CoA, FAD, NAD)
This is also a brilliant tie into thiamine deficiency and
Wernicke-Korsakoff in alcoholism. All of that alcohol
needs to be metabolised, that means all available
thiamine needs to be used. As a consequence, there
will be less PDH activity, less acetyl CoA and
subsequent Wernicke-Korsakoff.
Which major lysosomal storage disorder presents with
both hepatosplenomegaly and cherry-red macula?
Which major lysosomal storage disorder presents with

both hepatosplenomegaly and cherry-red macula?
Niemann-Pick Disease
[...]
Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I familial dyslipidemia) is a [...] is a familial dyslipidemia that can be caused by altered
familial dyslipidemia that can be caused by altered ApoCApoC-II function.
II function.
Remember, ApoC-II activates Lipoprotein Lipase.
How do BUN levels change in Urea Cycle disorders?
How do BUN levels change in Urea Cycle disorders?
Decrease
[...]
Less Urea is being made, hence BUN is lower.

Methylmalonyl-CoA Mutase?

Methylmalonyl-CoA Mutase?
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
[...]
Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous immune disorder that

involves increased activation of Vitamin D by epithelioid
macrophages.
[...] is a granulomatous immune disorder that involves

increased activation of Vitamin D by epithelioid
macrophages.
Scurvy is a connective tissue disorder characterized by

impaired collagen synthesis that results from a deficiency
of Vitamin C.
[...] is a connective tissue disorder characterized by

impaired collagen synthesis that results from a deficiency
of Vitamin C.
Galactokinase Deficiency is a disorder of galactose

metabolism that involves a hereditary deficiency of
Galactokinase.
[...] is a disorder of galactose metabolism that involves a

hereditary deficiency of Galactokinase.
Thereby results in the accumulation of Galactitol, a

the reducing form of Galactose.
Where in the cell does the HMP shunt occur?
Where in the cell does the HMP shunt occur?
Cytoplasm
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Cori Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Cori Disease?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
What chromosomal deletion is seen in DiGeorge

Syndrome?
What chromosomal deletion is seen in DiGeorge

Syndrome?
22q11
[...]
How does Glucagon affect Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

activity?
How does Glucagon affect Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

activity?
Inhibition
[...]
Which enzyme involved in de novo pyrimidine synthesis

(specifically dTMP) is inhibited by 5-Fluorouracil?
Which enzyme involved in de novo pyrimidine synthesis

(specifically dTMP) is inhibited by 5-Fluorouracil?
Thymidylate Synthase
[...]
Which molecular motor protein is found in cilia and causes Which molecular motor protein is found in cilia and causes
bending of the cilium?
bending of the cilium?
Axonemal Dynein (via ATP hydrolysis)
[...]
What chromosomal trisomy is seen in Patau Syndrome?
What chromosomal trisomy is seen in Patau Syndrome?
Trisomy 13
[...]
What is the Hardy-Weinberg value for the frequency of What is the Hardy-Weinberg value for the frequency of
an X-linked recessive disorder in males?
an X-linked recessive disorder in males?
q
[...]
In which layer of sun-exposed skin is Cholecalciferol

(Vitamin D3) formed?
In which layer of sun-exposed skin is Cholecalciferol

(Vitamin D3) formed?
Stratum basale
[...]
What enzyme is defective or absent in Lesch-Nyhan
Syndrome?
[...]
What enzyme is defective or absent in Lesch-Nyhan

Syndrome?
HGPRT
Fatty Acid Synthase is an enzyme in fatty acid synthesis

[...] is an enzyme in fatty acid synthesis that makes
that makes Palmitate through 7 rounds of reaction (via 7
Palmitate through 7 rounds of reaction (via 7 ATP) by
ATP) by adding 2 carbons from Acetyl CoA to a growing adding 2 carbons from Acetyl CoA to a growing fatty acid
fatty acid chain.
chain.
This reaction also uses NADPH.
Only carbons from Acetyl CoA are added.
Palmitate is essentially a storage form of 8 acetyl-CoA
mocs (2 C each).
How many carbons are in the essential fatty acid Linoleic How many carbons are in the essential fatty acid Linoleic
Acid?
Acid?
18:2
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Hemophilia B?
What is the genetic inheritance of Hemophilia B?
XLR
[...]
Uniparental Disomy is a genetic phenomenon that involves

[...] is a genetic phenomenon that involves offspring
offspring receiving 2 copies of a chromosome from 1
receiving 2 copies of a chromosome from 1 parents and
parents and no copies from the other parent.
no copies from the other parent.
The individual is euploid, not aneuploid.
Most UPD occurrences yield normal phenotypes.
Always consider UPD in an individual manifesting a
recessive disorder when only one parent is a carrier.
Which metabolic process is the secondary source of
energy in the fastic state (between meals)?
Which metabolic process is the secondary source of

energy in the fastic state (between meals)?
Hepatic gluconeogenesis; Adipose release of FFA
[...]
Glucagon and NE stimulate the use of fuel/energy

reserves.
purine synthesis change with GMP regulation?

purine synthesis change with GMP regulation?
Decrease
[...]
Pellagra is a Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency disorder that

presents with diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and
possibly death.
[...] is a Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency disorder that

presents with diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and
possibly death.
The 3 (or 4) D's of Pellagra.

What is the most common vitamin deficiency in the United What is the most common vitamin deficiency in the United
States?
States?
[...]
Seen in alcoholism and pregnancy

Linolenic Acid is an omega-[...] fatty acid.
Linolenic Acid is an omega-3 fatty acid.

i.e. fish oil.
Which enzyme is deficient in Alkaptonuria?
Which enzyme is deficient in Alkaptonuria?
Homogentisate Oxidase
[...]
Found in the degradative pathway of tyrosine to

fumarate.
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome is a neurological disorder
caused by Vitamin B1 deficiency and involves a classic
triad of confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia.
[...] is a neurological disorder caused by Vitamin B1

deficiency and involves a classic triad of confusion,
ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia.
Cherry-red spot on the macula is an ocular complication

of lysosomal storage disorders affecting the CNS and is
described as the macula appearing on a very pale
background retina with neurons full of sphingolipids.
[...] is an ocular complication of lysosomal storage

disorders affecting the CNS and is described as the
macula appearing on a very pale background retina with
neurons full of sphingolipids.
Here's a good mnemonic: Cherry-red is hyphenated,

so is Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs
Incomplete Penetrance is a genetic phenomenon described
as not all individuals with a mutant genotype having a
mutant phenotype.
[...] is a genetic phenomenon described as not all

individuals with a mutant genotype having a mutant
phenotype.
e.g. BRCA1 mutations do not always cause

breast/ovarian cancer.
What does ATP carry when it is in its activated form?
What does ATP carry when it is in its activated form?
Phosphoryl groups
[...]
Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is an enzyme involved

in the TCA cycle that requires Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) as a
cofactor.
[...] is an enzyme involved in the TCA cycle that

In which portion of the small intestine is Vitamin B9 (Folic In which portion of the small intestine is Vitamin B9 (Folic
Acid) absorbed?
Acid) absorbed?
Jejunum
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Huntington Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Huntington Disease?
AD
[...]

influence the activity of Pyruvate kinase?

influence the activity of Pyruvate kinase?
Activation
[...]
Remember, F1,6BP is an upstream metabolite in

glycolysis. Do not confuse that with F2,6BP which is
an allosteric activator of PFK-1.
links (i.e. linear glycogen)?
[...]

links (i.e. linear glycogen)?
alpha-(1,4)
What is the genetic inheritance of Hemophilia A?
What is the genetic inheritance of Hemophilia A?
XLR
[...]
Heinz Bodies are intracellular inclusions of oxidized

hemoglobin that precipitate within RBCs in G6PD
Deficiency.
[...] are intracellular inclusions of oxidized hemoglobin that

precipitate within RBCs in G6PD Deficiency.
Mitochondrial Myopathies are a group of rare myopathies

that often show "ragged red fibers" on a muscle biopsy.
[...] are a group of rare myopathies that often show

"ragged red fibers" on a muscle biopsy.
Also present with myopathy, lactic acidosis and CNS

disease.
Secondary to a failure in oxidative phosphorylation
Cholecalciferol (D3) is the form of Vitamin D that is
consumed in milk.
[...] is the form of Vitamin D that is consumed in milk.
FAD+ is a flavin nucleotide made from Vitamin B2 that

functions as a universal electron acceptor.
[...] is a flavin nucleotide made from Vitamin B2 that

functions as a universal electron acceptor.
Painful muscle cramps is a complication of McArdle

[...] is a complication of McArdle Disease that arises due
Disease that arises due to the significant glycogen buildup
to the significant glycogen buildup in muscles.
in muscles.
There is no lactic acidosis in McArdle Disease as
glucose is unavailable due to a glycogen
phosphorylase deficiency. Hence, no glucose is
available to be made into Lactate via Anaerobic
Glycolysis. Therefore, this muscle cramping has
nothing to do with lactate.
What is the 2nd line treatment of Lesch-Nyhan
Syndrome?
What is the 2nd line treatment of Lesch-Nyhan

Syndrome?
Febuxostat; via inhibition of Xanthine Oxidase
[...]
What gene is affected in Fragile X Syndrome?
What gene is affected in Fragile X Syndrome?
FMR1
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Carbamoyl Phosphate

Synthetase I deficiency?
What is the genetic inheritance of Carbamoyl Phosphate

Synthetase I deficiency?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
What is the Hardy-Weinberg equation?
What is the Hardy-Weinberg equation?
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
[...]
Also, p + q = 1
What is the only glycogen storage disorder that affects

both the liver and muscle?
What is the only glycogen storage disorder that affects

both the liver and muscle?
Pompe Disease
[...]
What is the most abundant protein in the human body?
What is the most abundant protein in the human body?
Collagen
[...]

homozygosity for allele p?

homozygosity for allele p?
p2
[...]

presents with myoglobinuria with red urine following
strenuous exercise.

myoglobinuria with red urine following strenuous
exercise.
Transketolase is an enzyme involved in the HMP shunt

that requires Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) as a cofactor.
[...] is an enzyme involved in the HMP shunt that

What B-vitamin is Pyridoxine (PLP)?
What B-vitamin is Pyridoxine (PLP)?
B6
[...]
What type of collagen is found in the lens of the eye?
What type of collagen is found in the lens of the eye?
Type IV
[...]

presents with arrhythmia due to electrolyte abnormalities.

arrhythmia due to electrolyte abnormalities.
Which water soluble vitamin deficiencies can cause

Homocystinuria?
Which water soluble vitamin deficiencies can cause

Homocystinuria?
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine), B9 (Folate) and B12

(Cobalamin)
[...]
Notice how B12 and B6 are both needed as cofactors.

Vitamin B9 is needed to drive Methionine Synthase as
N5-Methyl-THF.
Remember, Methionine Synthase is the only enzyme
that can reactivate folate (N5-Methyl-THF to THF).
Fluorescence in situ hybridization is a laboratory technique [...] is a laboratory technique that uses fluorescent DNA
that uses fluorescent DNA or RNA probes to bind to or RNA probes to bind to specific gene sites of interest on
specific gene sites of interest on chromosomes.
chromosomes.
Used to specifically localize genes and directly
visualize anomalies at the molecular level, especially
when microdeletions are too small to be visualized by
karyotyping.
How does vitamin A deficiency affect the immune system? How does vitamin A deficiency affect the immune system?
Causes immunosuppression
[...]
Which Urea Cycle enzyme disorder is associated with

orange crystals in the urine if it is left to dry?
Which Urea Cycle enzyme disorder is associated with

orange crystals in the urine if it is left to dry?
[...]
Thermogenin is an uncoupling agent found in brown fat.
[...] is an uncoupling agent found in brown fat.
Dominant Negative Mutation is a genetic phenomenon that [...] is a genetic phenomenon that involves a heterozygote
involves a heterozygote producing a nonfunctional altered producing a nonfunctional altered protein that prevents the
protein that prevents the normal gene product from
normal gene product from functioning.
functioning.
e.g. Mutation of a transcription factor at its allosteric
site; hence, the nonfunctioning mutant can still bind
DNA and prevent the wild-type transcription factor
from binding
Which pyrimidine is found solely in DNA?
Which pyrimidine is found solely in DNA?
Thymine
[...]

Syndrome?

Syndrome?
X-linked recessive
[...]
Which enzyme breaks down Elastin?
Which enzyme breaks down Elastin?
Elastase
[...]
Inhibited by 1-antitrypsin
What does SAM carry when it is in its activated form?
What does SAM carry when it is in its activated form?
CH3 groups
[...]
What type of cytoskeletal filament is involved in adherens What type of cytoskeletal filament is involved in adherens
junctions?
junctions?
Actin; Myosin
[...]

converts Hypoxanthine to Xanthine?

converts Hypoxanthine to Xanthine?
Xanthine Oxidase
[...]
What is the rate-determining enzyme of cholesterol

synthesis?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of cholesterol

synthesis?
HMG-CoA Reductase
[...]
What is the 1st line treatment of Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome? What is the 1st line treatment of Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome?
Allopurinol; via inhibition of Xanthine Oxidase
[...]
Which pyrimidine is found solely in RNA?

[...]
Which pyrimidine is found solely in RNA?

Uracil
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Huntinton Disease??
What trinucleotide repeat is seen in Huntinton Disease??
CAG
[...]
Glossitis is an oral complication of Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

deficiency that primarily affects the tongue.
[...] is an oral complication of Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

deficiency that primarily affects the tongue.
Which gene is deleted/mutated in von Hippel-Lindau

Disease?
Which gene is deleted/mutated in von Hippel-Lindau

Disease?
VHL on chromosome 3p; tumour suppressor
[...]
Which breath smell is associated with Ketosis?
Which breath smell is associated with Ketosis?
Fruity Odour
[...]
Which major lysosomal storage disorder affects the CNS Which major lysosomal storage disorder affects the CNS
only?
only?
Tay-Sachs Disease
[...]
Hence there is progressive neurodegeneration and

cherry-red macula.
Fastic hypoglycemia, jaundice and cirrhosis are hepatic [...], jaundice and cirrhosis are hepatic complications of
complications of Fructose Intolerance that arise due to the Fructose Intolerance that arise due to the extensive liver
extensive liver damage seen.
damage seen.
Fastic hypoglycemia, jaundice and cirrhosis are hepatic
Fastic hypoglycemia, [...] and cirrhosis are hepatic
complications of Fructose Intolerance that arise due to the complications of Fructose Intolerance that arise due to the
Fastic hypoglycemia, jaundice and cirrhosis are hepatic
Fastic hypoglycemia, jaundice and [...] are hepatic
complications of Fructose Intolerance that arise due to the complications of Fructose Intolerance that arise due to the
How many rings are found in Pyrimidine nucleotides?
How many rings are found in Pyrimidine nucleotides?
[...]
Which cellular organelle functions to modify Noligosaccharides on asparagine residues?
Which cellular organelle functions to modify Noligosaccharides on asparagine residues?
Golgi apparatus
[...]

presents with hyperammonemia and lactic acidosis due hyperammonemia and lactic acidosis due to the liver
to the liver failure that arises.
failure that arises.
Von Gierke Disease is essentially a genetic cause of
liver failure due to the Glucose-6-phosphatase
deficiency.
Which lipoprotein functions to mediate reverse

cholesterol transport from peripheral tissue to the liver
and steroidogenic tissue?
Which lipoprotein functions to mediate reverse

cholesterol transport from peripheral tissue to the liver
and steroidogenic tissue?
HDL
[...]
Which apolipoprotein functions to mediate lipoprotein

remnant uptake?
Which apolipoprotein functions to mediate lipoprotein

remnant uptake?
ApoE
[...]
Cori Disease is a glycogen storage disorder that is

considered a milder form of Von Gierke Disease
(Glycogen Storage Disorder Type I) with normal lactate
levels.
[...] is a glycogen storage disorder that is considered a

milder form of Von Gierke Disease (Glycogen Storage
Disorder Type I) with normal lactate levels.
Gluconeogenesis is intact.
Hartnup Disease is an autosomal recessive metabolic
[...] is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder that can
disorder that can cause Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency by
cause Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency by decreasing
decreasing tryptophan absorption.
tryptophan absorption.
The mutation in SLC6A19, a Na-dependent neutral
amino acid transporter, yields a decrease in
Tryptophan asborption.
On which chromosome is the CFTR gene found (Cystic
Fibrosis)?
On which chromosome is the CFTR gene found (Cystic

Fibrosis)?
Chromosome 7
[...]
How does MCHC change in Hereditary Spherocytosis?
How does MCHC change in Hereditary Spherocytosis?
Increased
[...]
Tay-Sachs Disease, Niemann-Pick Disease and Gaucher [...], Niemann-Pick Disease and Gaucher Disease are
Disease are lysosomal storage disorders that have
lysosomal storage disorders that have increased incidence
increased incidence in Ashkenazi Jews.
in Ashkenazi Jews.
Tay-Sachs Disease, Niemann-Pick Disease and Gaucher
Tay-Sachs Disease, [...] and Gaucher Disease are
in Ashkenazi Jews.
Tay-Sachs Disease, Niemann-Pick Disease and Gaucher Tay-Sachs Disease, Niemann-Pick Disease and [...] are
in Ashkenazi Jews.
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a disorder of amino acid
metabolism that presents with a characteristic musty body
with a characteristic musty body odour.
odour.
Which metabolic process is the major source of energy in Which metabolic process is the major source of energy in
the fasting state (between meals)?
the fasting state (between meals)?
Hepatic glycogenolysis
[...]
Glucagon and NE stimulate use of fuel/energy

reserves.
[...] are protein kinases that regulate the cell cycle and are
constitutively expressed in the cell but left inactive.
CDKs (Cyclin-Dependent Kinases) are protein kinases

that regulate the cell cycle and are constitutively expressed
in the cell but left inactive.
What amino acid is Urea derived from?
What amino acid is Urea derived from?
Arginine
[...]
Which nucleoside triphosphate is used in translation

for initiation and elongation?
Which nucleoside triphosphate is used in translation

for initiation and elongation?
GTP
[...]
GTP = tRNA Gripping and Going places

The promoter is a DNA site where RNA polymerase and The [...] is a DNA site where RNA polymerase and other
other transcription factors can bind to DNA.
transcription factors can bind to DNA.
Peripheral neuropathy and convulsions are both
neurological complications of Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
deficiency.
[...] and convulsions are both neurological complications

of Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) deficiency.
Peripheral neuropathy and convulsions are both

neurological complications of Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
deficiency.
Peripheral neuropathy and [...] are both neurological

complications of Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) deficiency.
Which organelle is involved in the catabolism of very-long- Which organelle is involved in the catabolism of very-longchain and branched-chain fatty acids?
chain and branched-chain fatty acids?
Peroxisome
[...]
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) is an autosomal

dominant endocrine disorder that involves familial tumours
of endocrine glands.
[...] is an autosomal dominant endocrine disorder that

involves familial tumours of endocrine glands.
Anti-U1 RNP antibodies are autoantibodies against RNPs [...] are autoantibodies against RNPs (Ribonucleoproteins)
(Ribonucleoproteins) that are highly associated with mixed that are highly associated with mixed connective tissue
connective tissue disease.
disease.
NADP+ regulation?

NADP+ regulation?
Increase
[...]
How do increased Citrate levels influence Fructose-1,6bisphosphatase activity in gluconeogenesis?
How do increased Citrate levels influence Fructose-1,6bisphosphatase activity in gluconeogenesis?
Activation
[...]
Which enzyme is responsible for charging tRNA molecules
with amino acids?
[...]
Which enzyme is responsible for charging tRNA molecules

with amino acids?
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
It scrutinizes amino acids before and after it binds to
tRNA, if the match is incorrect the bond is hydrolyzed
and the AA is released.
The AA-tRNA bond contains enough energy to form a
peptide bond.
A mischarged (i.e. incorrectly matched) tRNA will still
read the same codon (via the tRNA anticodon) but will
provide the wrong AA.
What bone complications are seen when there is an excess What bone complications are seen when there is an excess
of Vitamin A?
of Vitamin A?
Osteoporosis
[...]
Methrotrexate (MTX) is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits [...] is an antineoplastic drug that inhibits Dihydrofolate
Dihydrofolate Reductase in humans, thereby decreasing Reductase in humans, thereby decreasing dTMP levels.
dTMP levels.
Sorbitol is the alcohol counterpart of Glucose formed by
[...] is the alcohol counterpart of Glucose formed by
Aldose Reductase and stands as an alternative method of Aldose Reductase and stands as an alternative method of
trapping glucose in the cell.
trapping glucose in the cell.
Some tissues are able to then convert Sorbitol into
Fructose via Sorbitol Dehydrogenase.
Other tissue that do not have the above enzyme are at
risk for intracellular sorbitol accumulation, thereby
causing osmotic damage (e.g. cataracts, retinopathy,
peripheral neuropathy). This is especially seen in
hyperglycemia.
Galactitol can cause similar problems via Aldose
Reductase.
Which transmembrane proteins does Dystrophin bind to in Which transmembrane proteins does Dystrophin bind to in
muscle?
muscle?
Alpha- and Beta-Dystroglycan
[...]
How does an increase in ADP levels affect Pyruvate

How does an increase in ADP levels affect Pyruvate

Increase
[...]

pyrophosphate, a cofactor used in Glycogen
Phosphorylase?

pyrophosphate, a cofactor used in Glycogen
Phosphorylase?
[...]

an X-linked recessive disorder in females?

an X-linked recessive disorder in females?
q2
[...]
[...] is a metabolite of alcohol metabolism that is toxic and
forms adducts with proteins, thereby causing damage.
Acetaldehyde is a metabolite of alcohol metabolism that is

toxic and forms adducts with proteins, thereby causing
damage.
What is the most common Urea Cycle disorder?
What is the most common Urea Cycle disorder?
Ornithine Transcarbamylase deficiency (OTCD)
[...]
Cri-du-chat Syndrome is a congenital chromosomal

microdeletion that involves high-pitched crying/mewing.
[...] is a congenital chromosomal microdeletion that

involves high-pitched crying/mewing.
Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) is a

[...] is a laboratory technique used to detect the presence
laboratory technique used to detect the presence of either of either a specific antigen (direct) or specific antibody
a specific antigen (direct) or specific antibody (indirect) in
(indirect) in a patient's blood.
a patient's blood.
Used widely to detect specific antibodies (esp. antiHIV).
Specificity and sensitivity both approach 100%, but
false results still occur.
Which receptor does LDL bind to at target cells for
Which receptor does LDL bind to at target cells for

LDL Receptor (ApoB100 Receptor)
[...]
The target cell is basically any cell that can use

cholesterol.
Infertility is a complication of Kartagener Syndrome
(Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia) that arises in females due to
dysfunctional fallopian tube cilia.
[...] is a complication of Kartagener Syndrome (Primary

Ciliary Dyskinesia) that arises in females due to
dysfunctional fallopian tube cilia.
What is the most common etiology of Down Syndrome

(Trisomy 21)?
What is the most common etiology of Down Syndrome

(Trisomy 21)?
Meiotic Nondisjunction of homologous chromosomes
[...]
Associated with increased maternal age

What is the genetic inheritance of Hypertriglyceridemia
(Type IV Familial Dyslipidemia)?
What is the genetic inheritance of Hypertriglyceridemia

(Type IV Familial Dyslipidemia)?
Autosomal dominant
[...]

movement?

movement?
Microtubules
[...]

involves an accumulation of GM2 Ganglioside.
[...] is a lysosomal storage disorder that involves an

accumulation of GM2 Ganglioside.

What is the Km of Glucokinase compared to Hexokinase?
[...]
What is the Km of Glucokinase compared to Hexokinase?

Higher; by 100x
Hence, Glucokinase has a lower affinity for glucose.
This is very important, as in hypoglycemic situations,
we do not want the liver or pancreatic beta-cells to be
using too much Glc. Conversely, this ensures that the
liver and pancreatic beta-cells are more inclined to
utilize glucose when it is available in higher
concentrations. Both of the above points exist so that
the liver does not take glucose away from tissue and
store it when we don't need it to; and so that the
pancreatic beta-cells don't make and secrete insulin
when glucose levels are low.
alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is an enzyme complex
[...] is an enzyme complex that converts alphathat converts alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA in the
ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA in the TCA cycle and
TCA cycle and requires the same cofactors as pyruvate requires the same cofactors as pyruvate dehydrogenase.
dehydrogenase.
For Nancy (Thiamine; Lipoic Acid; CoA; FAD; NAD)
What is the rate-determining enzyme of ketogenesis?
What is the rate-determining enzyme of ketogenesis?
HMG-CoA synthase
[...]
Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) Deficiency is a disorder of [...] is a disorder of the purine salvage pathway that results
the purine salvage pathway that results in Severe
in Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID).
Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID).
The increase in ATP and dATP causes inhibition of
Ribonucleotide Reductase, thereby resulting in
dereased DNA synthesis and low Lymphocyte count.
Foam cells are a pathological cell seen in Niemann-Pick
Disease that are described as lipid-laden macrophages.
[...] are a pathological cell seen in Niemann-Pick Disease

that are described as lipid-laden macrophages.
Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NFT1) is an autsomal

dominant neurocutaneous disorder characterized by cafeau-lait spots and cutaneous neurofibromas.
[...] is an autsomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder

characterized by cafe-au-lait spots and cutaneous
neurofibromas.
100% penetrance
Kartagener Syndrome (Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia) is an
autosomal recessive disorder that involves immotile cilia
due to a dynein arm defect.
[...] is an autosomal recessive disorder that involves

immotile cilia due to a dynein arm defect.
Which enzyme is defective in I-Cell Disease, thereby

resulting in defective protein trafficking/secretion?
Which enzyme is defective in I-Cell Disease, thereby

resulting in defective protein trafficking/secretion?
Phosphotransferase
[...]
Hence, Mannose residues cannot be phosphorylated on

glycoproteins. Thereby results in proteins entering the
default secretory pathway (extracellular secretion)
instead of being sent to lysosomes.
Remember, the lysosomal trafficking signal is
mannose-6-phosphate.
N-acetylcysteine is a mucolytic agent used to treat the

[...] is a mucolytic agent used to treat the mucous plugs
mucous plugs seen in Cystic Fibrosis by cleaving disulfide seen in Cystic Fibrosis by cleaving disulfide bonds within
bonds within mucous glycoproteins.
mucous glycoproteins.
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is a connective tissue disorder
[...] is a connective tissue disorder that presents with
that presents with hyperextensible skin, tendency to bleed hyperextensible skin, tendency to bleed and hypermobile
and hypermobile joints due to faulty collagen cross-linking.
joints due to faulty collagen cross-linking.
Which mode of genetic inheritence is commonly
associated with disorders more severe in males?
Which mode of genetic inheritence is commonly

associated with disorders more severe in males?
X-linked recessive
[...]
Females must be homozygous to be affected.

Sons of heterozygous mothers (carriers) have a 50%
chance of being affected.
What is the typical blood cholesterol for a patient
What is the typical blood cholesterol for a patient
heterozygous for Familial Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa heterozygous for Familial Hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa
~ 300 mg/dL
[...]
Which enzyme is defective in Von Gierke Disease?
Which enzyme is defective in Von Gierke Disease?
Glucose-6-phosphatase
[...]
Remember, only the liver expresses Glucose-6phosphatase.

Of the glycogen storage disorders, Von Gierke is
basically the only one with really shitty biochemistry.
Cystathionine?
Cystathionine?
[...]
Hypophosphatemic Rickets is an X-linked dominant

disorder that results in increased phosphate wasting at the
proximal tubule.
[...] is an X-linked dominant disorder that results in

increased phosphate wasting at the proximal tubule.
Yields a rickets-like presentation.

Which phase of the cell cycle involves DNA and Histone Which phase of the cell cycle involves DNA and Histone
Synthesis?
Synthesis?
S Phase
[...]
Alkalosis and Hypokalemia are possible complications of

Cystic Fibrosis due to the loss of H2O and Na from the
extracellular fluid and resultant K+ and H+ wasting.
Alkalosis and [...] are possible complications of Cystic

Fibrosis due to the loss of H2O and Na from the
The loss of H2O and Na from the ECF is analogous to

the patient taking a loop diuretic.
Alkalosis and Hypokalemia are possible complications of [...] and Hypokalemia are possible complications of Cystic
Cystic Fibrosis due to the loss of H2O and Na from the
Fibrosis due to the loss of H2O and Na from the
+
+
extracellular fluid and resultant K and H wasting.
The loss of H2O and Na from the ECF is analogous to
the patient taking a loop diuretic.
What is the genetic inheritance of I-Cell Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of I-Cell Disease?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Which vitamin is a constituent of visual pigments (Retinal)? Which vitamin is a constituent of visual pigments (Retinal)?
Vitamin A (Retinol)
[...]
Retinol = Vitamin A; Retin-A; Retinal

Which cellular organelle functions as the distribution
Which cellular organelle functions as the distribution
center for proteins and lipids from the ER to the vesicles center for proteins and lipids from the ER to the vesicles
and plasma membrane?
and plasma membrane?
Golgi Apparatus
[...]

by Cyanide and CO?

by Cyanide and CO?
Complex IV (Cytochrome Oxidase)
[...]
How does regulation by Fructose-6-phosphate affect

Glucokinase activity?
How does regulation by Fructose-6-phosphate affect

Glucokinase activity?
Inhibition
[...]
What is the mRNA start codon?
What is the mRNA start codon?
AUG
[...]
How much net ATP is produced in anaerobic glycolysis? How much net ATP is produced in anaerobic glycolysis?
2/moc Glc
[...]
Dystrophin is a structural protein found in muscle that

functions to connect the intracellular cytoskeleton to the
transmembrane proteins alpha- and beta-dystroglycan,
which subsequently are attached to the ECM.
[...] is a structural protein found in muscle that functions to

connect the intracellular cytoskeleton to the
transmembrane proteins alpha- and beta-dystroglycan,
which subsequently are attached to the ECM.
Hence, the loss of dystrophin in Duchenne Muscular

Dystrophy results in myonecrosis
What amino acid is NE and Epinephrine derived from?
What amino acid is NE and Epinephrine derived from?
[...]
Which protein phosphatase enzyme is involved in the

regulation of Glycogen Synthase and Glycogen
Phosphorylase by Insulin?
Which protein phosphatase enzyme is involved in the

regulation of Glycogen Synthase and Glycogen
Phosphorylase by Insulin?
Protein Phosphatase 1
[...]
The [...] is an organelle that functions as sorting centers for

material from outside the cell or from the Golgi.
The endosome is an organelle that functions as sorting

centers for material from outside the cell or from the Golgi.
Thereby either sending material to the lysosomes for
degradation, the membrane for secretion or back to
the Golgi for further use.
How does an increase of ADP levels influence the TCA
cycle?
How does an increase of ADP levels influence the TCA

cycle?
Activation
[...]
Increased ADP = low energy state = activation of

Krebs
ADP and ATP act as allosteric regulators.
Edwards Syndrome is an autosomal trisomy associated
with a prominent occiput.
[...] is an autosomal trisomy associated with a prominent

occiput.
Which nicotinamide electron donor is a product of the

HMP shunt?
Which nicotinamide electron donor is a product of the

HMP shunt?
NADPH
[...]
Nyctalopia is a visual deficit seen in Vitamin A deficiency

and is described as night blindness.
[...] is a visual deficit seen in Vitamin A deficiency and is

described as night blindness.
Which type of collagen is found in cartilage?
Which type of collagen is found in cartilage?
Type II
[...]
Cartwolage
A silent mutation is a type of mutation that involves a
nucleotide substitution for the same (synonymous)
amino acid.

substitution for the same (synonymous) amino acid.
Maltose is a disaccharide that consists of Glucose and

Glucose.
[...] is a disaccharide that consists of Glucose and

Glucose.

disorder Hurler Syndrome?

disorder Hurler Syndrome?
alpha-L-iduronidase
[...]
Alopecia is a cutaneous complication of vitamin A

deficiency and involves loss of hair.
[...] is a cutaneous complication of vitamin A deficiency

and involves loss of hair.
Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) is a water soluble vitamin that [...] is a water soluble vitamin that increases the risk of iron
increases the risk of iron toxicity in predisposed
toxicity in predisposed individuals.
individuals.
i.e. those people with transfusions and hereditary
hemochromatosis
Which mode of genetic inheritence will never occur from
father to son?
Which mode of genetic inheritence will never occur from

father to son?
X-linked Recessive or Dominant (i.e. any X-linked

transmission)
[...]
And mitochondrial as well.
What is the genetic inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis?
What is the genetic inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis?
AR
[...]

that can be due to a deficiency of Cystathionine synthase.
[...] is a disorder of amino acid metabolism that can be

due to a deficiency of Cystathionine synthase.
Tx: decreased methionine, increased cysteine,

increased B12 and increased B9 (folate) in the diet.
tissue disorder that involves cystic medial necrosis of the
aorta, thereby leading to aortic incompetence and aortic
dissection.

that involves cystic medial necrosis of the aorta, thereby
leading to aortic incompetence and aortic dissection.
Myeloperoxidase is an enzyme involved in the respiratory

burst that gives sputum its blue-green colour.
[...] is an enzyme involved in the respiratory burst that

gives sputum its blue-green colour.

presents with painful muscle cramps due to glycogen
accumulation in muscle.

painful muscle cramps due to glycogen accumulation in
muscle.
disorder that involves high plasma levels of lysosomal
that involves high plasma levels of lysosomal
enzymes due to a Phosphotransferase defect.
enzymes due to a Phosphotransferase defect.
glycogenesis with Insulin regulation?

glycogenesis with Insulin regulation?
Increase
[...]
Osteogenesis Imperfecta is a genetic bone disorder that [...] is a genetic bone disorder that involves severe skeletal
involves severe skeletal deformities, limb shortening and
deformities, limb shortening and multiple fractures in a
multiple fractures in a child due to defective Type I
child due to defective Type I collagen production.
collagen production.
In the right image, there are bilateral proximal femur

fractures; the right femue is pinned and healing while
the left femur has healed
Cri-du-chat Syndrome is an autosomal chromosome
disorder caused by a congenital microdeletion of the
short arm of chromosome 5.
[...] is an autosomal chromosome disorder caused by a

congenital microdeletion of the short arm of
chromosome 5.
i.e. 46,XX,5p- or 46,XY,5pWhich type of collagen has defective production in

Ostegenesis Imperfecta, Type I?
Which type of collagen has defective production in

Ostegenesis Imperfecta, Type I?
Type I
[...]
What are the 3 basic amino acids?
What are the 3 basic amino acids?
Arginine; Lysine; Histidine
[...]
What kind of charge is on DNA?
What kind of charge is on DNA?
Negative
[...]
What kind of charge is on histone proteins?
[...]
What kind of charge is on histone proteins?

Positive
How many times does DNA loop around a histone
octamer?
How many times does DNA loop around a histone

octamer?
Twice
[...]
Which 2 basic amino acids are Histones particularly rich

in?
Which 2 basic amino acids are Histones particularly rich

in?
Lysine; Arginine
[...]
Which Histone protein functions to bind to both the

nucleosome and the linker DNA, thereby stabilizing the
chromatin?
Which Histone protein functions to bind to both the

nucleosome and the linker DNA, thereby stabilizing the
chromatin?
H1
[...]
What gene is mutated in Familial Adenomatous Polyposis What gene is mutated in Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
(FAP)?
(FAP)?
APC on chromosome 5
[...]
"People use A PC to FAP."

Chromosome 5; 5 letters in polyp.
Which bacteria is the most common cause of otitis media Which bacteria is the most common cause of otitis media
in children?
in children?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
[...]
Doxycycline is a Tetracycline antibiotic that is entirely

fecally eliminated and hence can be used in patients with
renal failure.
[...] is a Tetracycline antibiotic that is entirely fecally

eliminated and hence can be used in patients with renal
failure.
Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with a

"blueberry muffin" rash?
Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with a

"blueberry muffin" rash?
Rubella; CMV
[...]
Which trematode (fluke) is associated with portal

hypertension?
Which trematode (fluke) is associated with portal

hypertension?
Schistosoma mansoni; Schistosoma japonicum
[...]
Schistosoma is often called a liver fluke.

[...] is a the bacterial cause of Leprosy that likes cool
temperatures, thereby resulting in infection of the skin
and superficial nerves.
Mycobacterium leprae is a the bacterial cause of

Leprosy that likes cool temperatures, thereby resulting
in infection of the skin and superficial nerves.
This leads to a "glove and stocking" loss of
sensation.
This is also means that Mycobacterium leprae cannot
be grown in vitro.
What is the prophylactic treatment for endocarditis with
surgical/dental procedures?
What is the prophylactic treatment for endocarditis with

surgical/dental procedures?
Penicillins
[...]
What type of diarrhea is caused by Clostridium

perfringens?
What type of diarrhea is caused by Clostridium

perfringens?
Watery
[...]
Also causes gas gangrene.

What is the MOA of the antimycobacterial Pyrazinamide? What is the MOA of the antimycobacterial Pyrazinamide?
Uncertain mechanism; Acidifies the intracellular
environment via converstion to Pyrazinoic Acid
[...]
Effective in the acidic pH of phagolysosomes (i.e.

where phagocytosed TB is found in macrophages).
Which gram-negative bacillus is a common antecedent to Which gram-negative bacillus is a common antecedent to
Guillain-Barre Syndrome and reactive arthritis?
Guillain-Barre Syndrome and reactive arthritis?
Campylobacter jejuni
[...]
Tinea Corporis is a cutaneous mycosis of the body that

presents with a ringworm.
[...] is a cutaneous mycosis of the body that presents with

a ringworm.
What is the gram stain of Streptococcus?
What is the gram stain of Streptococcus?
Positive
[...]
What is the MOA of Oxacillin?
What is the MOA of Oxacillin?
Inhibition of Transpeptidase, thereby inhibition

peptidoglycan cross-linking
[...]
What is the treatment for Tinea Versicolour?
What is the treatment for Tinea Versicolour?
Topical Miconazole; Selenium Sulfide (Selsun)
[...]
Mononucleosis is a disease caused by EBV that is also

[...] is a disease caused by EBV that is also commonly
commonly referred to as "kissing disease" as it is often referred to as "kissing disease" as it is often seen in teens
seen in teens and young adults.
and young adults.
The bacterial capsule is normally made of polysaccharides, The bacterial capsule is normally made of polysaccharides,
except in Bacillus anthracis whose capsule contains Dexcept in [...] whose capsule contains D-glutamate.
glutamate.
What is the treatment for Strongyloides stercoralis?
What is the treatment for Strongyloides stercoralis?
Albendazole; or Ivermectin
[...]
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC) is a strain of

Escherichia coli that invades the intestinal mucosa,
thereby causing necrosis and inflammation and subsequent
dysentery.
[...] is a strain of Escherichia coli that invades the

intestinal mucosa, thereby causing necrosis and
inflammation and subsequent dysentery.
Erythema marginatum is a cutaneous complication of

Rheumatic Fever that is described as an annular,
nonpruritic rash with erythematous borders.
[...] is a cutaneous complication of Rheumatic Fever that is

described as an annular, nonpruritic rash with
erythematous borders.
Commonly seen at the trunk and limbs.

CMV is a Herpesvirus that causes retinitis in HIV
patients that presents with cotton-wool spots on
fundoscopy.
[...] is a Herpesvirus that causes retinitis in HIV patients

that presents with cotton-wool spots on fundoscopy.
May present with esophagitis.

What is the MOA of Protease Inhibitor HAART drugs?
What is the MOA of Protease Inhibitor HAART drugs?
Inhibition of HIV-1 Protease
[...]
All protease inhibitors end in -navir.

Cryptosporidium is a GI protozoal pathogen that is
diagnosed by visualizing oocysts on an acid-fast stain.
[...] is a GI protozoal pathogen that is diagnosed by

visualizing oocysts on an acid-fast stain.
How is Erlichiosis (Erlichia chaffeensis) transmitted?
How is Erlichiosis (Erlichia chaffeensis) transmitted?
Lone Star ticks
[...]
HSV-1 is a Herpesvirus that is latent in trigeminal

ganglia.
[...] is a Herpesvirus that is latent in trigeminal ganglia.
Trichomoniasis is a common vaginal infection that presents

with frothy, grey-green, foul-smelling discharge.
[...] is a common vaginal infection that presents with

frothy, grey-green, foul-smelling discharge.
Paracoccidioidomycosis is a systemic mycosis that

presents with budding yeast with a "captain's wheel"
formation that is much larger than RBCs.
[...] is a systemic mycosis that presents with budding

yeast with a "captain's wheel" formation that is much
larger than RBCs.
Alpha toxin is an exotoxin from Clostridium

perfringens that degrades phospholipids, thereby causing
myonecrosis ("gas gangrene") and hemolysis.
[...] is an exotoxin from Clostridium perfringens that

degrades phospholipids, thereby causing myonecrosis
("gas gangrene") and hemolysis.
The hemolysis is a "double zone" of hemolysis on

blood agar.
Saber shin is a morphological feature of Congenital
Syphilis that presents as a sharp anterior bowing of the
tibia.
[...] is a morphological feature of Congenital Syphilis that

presents as a sharp anterior bowing of the tibia.
How is Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm)
transmitted?
[...]
How is Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm)

transmitted?
Fecal-oral
Eggs are visible in feces under the microscope.
Rifabutin is a Rifamycin antimycobacterial that is favoured
for use in patients with HIV due to less cytochrome P450
stimulation.
[...] is a Rifamycin antimycobacterial that is favoured for

use in patients with HIV due to less cytochrome P450
stimulation.
Cereulide is an enterotoxin from Bacillus cereus that

causes the Emetic type of Bacillus cereus food
poisoning.
[...] is an enterotoxin from Bacillus cereus that causes the

Emetic type of Bacillus cereus food poisoning.
Naegleria fowleri is a CNS protozoal pathogen that

[...] is a CNS protozoal pathogen that causes a rapidly
causes a rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis and is diagnosed fatal meningoencephalitis and is diagnosed by amoebas in
by amoebas in the spinal fluid.
the spinal fluid.
Which serological antigen from EBV is seen in latent

infection?
Which serological antigen from EBV is seen in latent

infection?
Epstein-Barr Nuclear Antigen (EBNA)
[...]
Rubella is an infective disorder caused by a Togavirus that

was formerly known as German (3-day) Measles.
[...] is an infective disorder caused by a Togavirus that

was formerly known as German (3-day) Measles.
Genetic/antigenic drift is a genetic phenomenon that yields

flu epidemics.
[...] is a genetic phenomenon that yields flu epidemics.
Involves minor changes based on random mutations.

Sudden genetic shifts are more deadly that gradual
genetic drifts.
Which species of Viridans Streptococci is known to cause Which species of Viridans Streptococci is known to cause
subacute bacterial endocarditis at damaged valves?
subacute bacterial endocarditis at damaged valves?
Streptococcus sanguinis
[...]
Sanguis = blood = heart = endocarditis

What is the etiology of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
What is the etiology of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Rickettsia rickettsii
[...]
All Rickettsiae are Obligate intracellular organism as

they require CoA and NAD+. They cannot synthesize
ATP.
Pertussis Toxin is an exotoxin from Bordetella
pertussis that overactivates adenylate cyclase by disabling
the Gi subunit, thereby impairing phagocytosis.
[...] is an exotoxin from Bordetella pertussis that

overactivates adenylate cyclase by disabling the
Gi subunit, thereby impairing phagocytosis.
Permits the survival of the microbe.

Valganciclovir is the prodrug form of Ganciglovir that has [...] is the prodrug form of Ganciglovir that has better oral
better oral bioavailability.
bioavailability.
Cholera Toxin is an exotoxin from Vibrio cholerae that
causes voluminous "rice-water" diarrhea due to
overactivation of adenylate cyclase through permanent
activation of the Gs subunit.
[...] is an exotoxin from Vibrio cholerae that causes

voluminous "rice-water" diarrhea due to overactivation
of adenylate cyclase through permanent activation of the
Gs subunit.
What is the etiology of Legionnaires' Disease?
What is the etiology of Legionnaires' Disease?
Legionella pneumophila
[...]
Neonatal Conjunctivitis is an ocular infection seen in

neonates due to Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection during
childbirth.
[...] is an ocular infection seen in neonates due to

Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection during childbirth.
Which pet animals are associated with

Campylobacter infection?
Which pet animals are associated with

Campylobacter infection?
Puppies
[...]
What is the MOA of Acyclovir/Famciclovir/Valacyclovir? What is the MOA of Acyclovir/Famciclovir/Valacyclovir?

Guanosine analog; Inhibition of viral DNA Polymerase,
thereby causing chain termination
[...]
It is only phosphorylated in infected cells, hence there

are very few adverse effects.
What is the etiology of Anaplasmosis?
What is the etiology of Anaplasmosis?
Anaplasma spp.
[...]
Which Hepatitis is most commonly associated with

chronic hepatitis and subsequent cirrhosis or
carcinoma?
Which Hepatitis is most commonly associated with

chronic hepatitis and subsequent cirrhosis or
carcinoma?
HCV
[...]
1st
[...]
HDV is a Deltavirus that causes hepatitis when there is an [...] is a Deltavirus that causes hepatitis when there is an
HBV co-infection.
HBV co-infection.
The F+ plasmid is a bacterial plasmid that contains genes The [...] is a bacterial plasmid that contains genes required
required for sex pilus and conjugation.
for sex pilus and conjugation.
Kaposi Sarcoma is a cancer caused by HHV-8 in HIV
patients that presents with superficial neoplastc
proliferations of vasculature.
[...] is a cancer caused by HHV-8 in HIV patients that

presents with superficial neoplastc proliferations of
vasculature.
Biopsy will reveal lymphocytic inflammation.

Do not confuse Kaposi Sarcoma with Bacillary
Angiomatosis which is caused by Bartonella henselae.
Which form of Leprosy is characterized by low cellmediated immunity with a humoral Th2 response?
Which form of Leprosy is characterized by low cellmediated immunity with a humoral Th2 response?
Lepromatous
[...]
Parvovirus B19 is a ssDNA virus that causes Rheumatoid

Arthritis-like symptoms in adults.
[...] is a ssDNA virus that causes Rheumatoid Arthritislike symptoms in adults.

What is the only DNA virus with ssDNA?
[...]
What is the only DNA virus with ssDNA?

Parvoviridae
The rest of the DNA viruses are dsDNA.
Parvovirus B19 is a ssDNA virus that causes pure RBC
aplasia.
[...] is a ssDNA virus that causes pure RBC aplasia.
What is the etiology of Malaria?
What is the etiology of Malaria?
Plasmodium spp.
[...]
What is the vector for Epidemic Typhus (Rickettsia

prowazeki)?
What is the vector for Epidemic Typhus (Rickettsia

prowazeki)?
Human Body Louse
[...]
What is the MOA of Raseltegravir (HAART drug)?
What is the MOA of Raseltegravir (HAART drug)?
Inhibition of HIV Integrase, thereby inhibiting HIV genome

insertion into the host cell genome
[...]
Ceftaroline is a 5th generation cephalosporin used to treat

MRSA.
[...] is a 5th generation cephalosporin used to treat

MRSA.
Esophagitis is a GI complication that is often seen

alongside CMV Retinitis in HIV patients.
[...] is a GI complication that is often seen alongside CMV

Retinitis in HIV patients.
CAMP Factor is a protein produced by Streptococcus

[...] is a protein produced by Streptococcus
agalactiae (Group B Strep) that functions to enlargen the agalactiae (Group B Strep) that functions to enlargen the
area of hemolysis yielded by Staphylococcus aureus.
area of hemolysis yielded by Staphylococcus aureus.
CAMP cAMP.
What is the MOA of Ribavirin?
What is the MOA of Ribavirin?
Inhibition of Inosine Monophosphate Dehydrogenase,

thereby inhibiting guanine nucleotide synthesis
[...]
How does Rifampin influence cytochrome P450 activity? How does Rifampin influence cytochrome P450 activity?
Increase
[...]
Rubella is a ToRCHeS infection that presents with a

classic triad of Patent Ductus Arteriosus,
cataracts and deafness.
[...] is a ToRCHeS infection that presents with a classic

triad of Patent Ductus Arteriosus, cataracts and
deafness.
There may be pulmonary artery hypoplasia instead of

PDA.
There may be a "blueberry muffin" rash as well.
Which diagnostic test is used to determine the prognosis of Which diagnostic test is used to determine the prognosis of
HIV infection?
HIV infection?
HIV PCR/viral load test; determines the amount of viral
RNA in the plasma
[...]
Which organ is responsible for clearing opsonized

encapsulated bacteria?
Which organ is responsible for clearing opsonized

encapsulated bacteria?
Spleen
[...]
Hence, aplenics have decreased opsonizing and

clearing ability, thereby giving them a significantly
increased risk for severe infection. Such patients
should receive S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae and N.
meningitidis vaccinations.
What type of hemolysis is associated with Group D Strep What type of hemolysis is associated with Group D Strep
(and Enterococcus faecalis)?
(and Enterococcus faecalis)?
Gamma-hemolysis
[...]
Why dont Mycobacteria gram stain well?
Why dont Mycobacteria gram stain well?
Rich lipid content in cell wall
[...]
Detected by Carbolfuschin in an acid-fast stain.

How it Anaplasmosis (Anaplasma spp.) transmitted?
How it Anaplasmosis (Anaplasma spp.) transmitted?
Ixodes tick (which lives on deer and mice)
[...]
What is the oxygen dependency of Pseudomonas

aeruginosa?

aeruginosa?
Obligate aerobe
[...]
What is the only DNA virus that does not have an

icosahedral shape?
What is the only DNA virus that does not have an

icosahedral shape?
Poxvirus
[...]
Which antibody is HBV is indicative of an acute or

recent infection?
Which antibody is HBV is indicative of an acute or

recent infection?
Anti-HBcAg IgM
[...]
Mulberry molars are a morphological feature of Congenital [...] are a morphological feature of Congenital Syphilis that
Syphilis that are described as multiple rounded
are described as multiple rounded rudimentary enamel
rudimentary enamel cusps on the permanent first molars.
cusps on the permanent first molars.
Dapsone and Rifampin are 2 anti-mycobacterial drugs
used to treat the Tuberculoid form of Leprosy.
[...] and Rifampin are 2 anti-mycobacterial drugs used to

treat the Tuberculoid form of Leprosy.
The Tuberculoid form is treated with a 6 month

regimen of Dapson and Rifampin.
Dapsone and Rifampin are 2 anti-mycobacterial drugs
used to treat the Tuberculoid form of Leprosy.
The Tuberculoid form is treated with a 6 month
regimen of Dapson and Rifampin.
Dapsone and [...] are 2 anti-mycobacterial drugs used to

treat the Tuberculoid form of Leprosy.
What is the etiology of Sporotrichosis?
What is the etiology of Sporotrichosis?
Sporothrix schenckii
[...]
What is the Bacitracin sensitivity of Group A Strep

(Streptococcus pyogenes)?
What is the Bacitracin sensitivity of Group A Strep

Sensitive
[...]
"B-BRAS"
Rotavirus is a dsRNA virus that causes destruction and
atrophy of GI villi that leads to a decrease in Na
absorption and a loss of K.
[...] is a dsRNA virus that causes destruction and

atrophy of GI villi that leads to a decrease in Na
absorption and a loss of K.
What is the MOA of Cholera Toxin from Vibrio

cholerae?
What is the MOA of Cholera Toxin from Vibrio

cholerae?
Overactivation of Adenylate Cyclase by permanently

activating the Gs subunit via ADP ribosylation
[...]
This thereby causes an increase in Cl secretion and

H2O effluc at the gut.
Which virulence factor from Escherichia coli allows it to Which virulence factor from Escherichia coli allows it to
cause septic shock?
cause septic shock?
LPS endotoxin
[...]
What is the gram stain of Corynebacterium?
What is the gram stain of Corynebacterium?
Positive
[...]
GI motility issues is a GI complication of Macrolide

antibiotic administration.
[...] is a GI complication of Macrolide antibiotic

administration.
What is the prophylactic treatment for gonococcal or

chlamydial conjunctivitis in newborns?
What is the prophylactic treatment for gonococcal or

chlamydial conjunctivitis in newborns?
Erythromycin ointment
[...]
Which form of Leprosy presents diffusely over the skin

with leonine (lion-like) facies?
Which form of Leprosy presents diffusely over the skin

with leonine (lion-like) facies?
Lepromatous
[...]
Which species of Neisseria ferments glucose

and maltose?
Which species of Neisseria ferments glucose

and maltose?
Neisseria meningitidis
[...]
MeninGococcus = Maltose and Glucose
Blocks translocation at the 50S ribosomal subunit
[...]
Bone marrow suppression is a hematological complication

of NRTI HAART drugs that can be reversed with GCSF drugs and Erythropoietin.
[...] is a hematological complication of NRTI HAART

drugs that can be reversed with G-CSF drugs and
Erythropoietin.
What class of antibiotic is Neomycin?
What class of antibiotic is Neomycin?
Aminoglycoside
[...]
What is the etiology of African Sleeping Sickness?
What is the etiology of African Sleeping Sickness?
Trypanosoma brucei rhodiense; Trypanosoma brucei

gambiense
[...]
Mucormycosis is an opportunistic fungal infection that

presents with headache, facial pain, and a black
necrotic eschar on the face.
[...] is an opportunistic fungal infection that presents with

headache, facial pain, and a black necrotic eschar on
the face.
There may be cranial nerve involvement as well.

How is Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii) transmitted? How is Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii) transmitted?
Cysts in meat; Oocysts in cat feces; Transplacental
[...]
Tinea Cruris is cutaneous mycosis of the groin.
[...] is cutaneous mycosis of the groin.
Which cardiac conduction disorder is seen in late Lyme

Disease?
Which cardiac conduction disorder is seen in late Lyme

Disease?
AV nodal block
[...]
Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with malignant Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with malignant
Otitis Externa in diabetics?
Otitis Externa in diabetics?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
[...]
Which HBV antigen is indicative of high

transmissibility?
Which HBV antigen is indicative of high

transmissibility?
HBeAg
[...]
What is the catalase expression of Escherichia coli?
What is the catalase expression of Escherichia coli?
Positive
[...]
Heat-stable Toxin (ST) is an exotoxin from

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) that
overactivates Guanylate cyclase, thereby
decreasing NaCl and H2O resorption at the gut.
[...] is an exotoxin from Enterotoxigenic Escherichia

coli (ETEC) that overactivates Guanylate cyclase, thereby
decreasing NaCl and H2O resorption at the gut.
Increased cGMP = decreased NaCl and H2O

resorption = watery diarrhea

aeruginosa?

aeruginosa?
Aerobic
[...]
Pseudomonas AERuginosa = AERobic

What is the etiology of Babesiosis?
What is the etiology of Babesiosis?
Babesia spp.
[...]
What is the prophylactic treatment

for Pneumocystis pneumonia and toxoplasmosis in an
HIV patient with < 100 CD4+ cells/mm3?

for Pneumocystis pneumonia and toxoplasmosis in an
HIV patient with < 100 CD4+ cells/mm3?
TMP-SMX
[...]
Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) is a visceral protozoal

infection that presents with spiking fever,
hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia.
[...] is a visceral protozoal infection that presents with

spiking fever, hepatosplenomegaly and
pancytopenia.
Chloramphenicol is a protein synthesis

inhibiting antibiotic that has limited use due to toxicities
but is still used widely in developing countries due to its
low cost.
[...] is a protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic that has

limited use due to toxicities but is still used widely in
developing countries due to its low cost.
Which Herpesvirus is associated with characteristic Owl's Which Herpesvirus is associated with characteristic Owl's
Eye inclusions in infected cells?
Eye inclusions in infected cells?
CMV
[...]
Mycoplasma spp. is a bacterial species that contains

sterols in their cell membrane.
[...] is a bacterial species that contains sterols in their cell

membrane.
What is the etiology of Psittacosis?
What is the etiology of Psittacosis?
Chlamydophila psittaci
[...]
How does opening pressure change in Fungal or TB

meningitis?
How does opening pressure change in Fungal or TB

meningitis?
Increase
[...]
Giant Cell Pneumonia is a rare respiratory sequelae of

Measles that is seen in the immunosuppressed.
[...] is a rare respiratory sequelae of Measles that is seen

in the immunosuppressed.
What food source is associated with Salmonella food

poisoning?
What food source is associated with Salmonella food

poisoning?
Poultry, meat, eggs
[...]
Where in the body is Staphylococcus

epidermidis normally found?
Where in the body is Staphylococcus

epidermidis normally found?
Nose
[...]
What is the MOA of NNRTI HAART drugs?
[...]
What is the MOA of NNRTI HAART drugs?

Binding to and inhibition of Reverse Transcriptase at a
different site than NRTIs
They do not require phosphorylation to be active.
What is the treatment for Mycobacterium tuberculosis? What is the treatment for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Rifampin; Isoniazid; Pyrazinamide; Ethambutol
[...]
"RIPE" for treatment.

Which agar is required to culture Haemophilus
influenzae?
Which agar is required to culture Haemophilus

influenzae?
Chocolate agar
[...]
Chocolate agar contains the required Factor V

(NAD+) and Factor X (Hematin)
IFN-beta is an Interferon used to treat Multiple Sclerosis.
[...] is an Interferon used to treat Multiple Sclerosis.
Giardiasis is a GI protozoal infection that presents with [...] is a GI protozoal infection that presents with bloating,
bloating, flatulence, and foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea.
flatulence, and foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea.
Streptolysin O is an exotoxin made by Streptococcus
pyogenes that functions to lyse RBCs, thereby
contributing to beta-hemolysis.
[...] is an exotoxin made by Streptococcus pyogenes that

functions to lyse RBCs, thereby contributing to betahemolysis.
How does vaginal or nasal tampon use influence the risk of How does vaginal or nasal tampon use influence the risk of
getting Toxic Shock Syndrome?
getting Toxic Shock Syndrome?
Increase
[...]
Hemolytic anaemia is a hematological complication of

Penicillin G and V use.
[...] is a hematological complication of Penicillin G and V

use.
Which Herpesvirus is associated with Cowdry Type A

inclusions on a cell smear?
Which Herpesvirus is associated with Cowdry Type A

inclusions on a cell smear?
HSV-1; HSV-2
[...]
Where in the body is Non-enterococcal Group D

Streptococci (Streptococcus bovis) normally found?
Where in the body is Non-enterococcal Group D

Streptococci (Streptococcus bovis) normally found?
GI
[...]
Toxoplasmosis is a CNS protozoal infection that presents [...] is a CNS protozoal infection that presents with brain
with brain abscesses in HIV patients, that are seen as
abscesses in HIV patients, that are seen as ringring-enhancing brain lesions on CT/MRI.
enhancing brain lesions on CT/MRI.
Which 2 Hepatitis viruses are transmitted fecal-orally?
Which 2 Hepatitis viruses are transmitted fecal-orally?
HAV; HEV
[...]
"The vowels hit your bowels."

They are naked viruses and do not rely on an
envelope, hence they are not destroyed by the gut.
Trichomoniasis is an STD caused by Trichomonas
vaginalis that presents with vaginitis and strawberry
cervix.
[...] is an STD caused by Trichomonas vaginalis that

presents with vaginitis and strawberry cervix.
Which cytokines are involved in the induction of Toxic

Shock Syndrome by superantigen exotoxins?
Which cytokines are involved in the induction of Toxic

Shock Syndrome by superantigen exotoxins?
IFN-gamma; IL-2
[...]
Thereby inducing fever, rash and shock.

Staphylococcus, Haemophilus influenzae
and Streptococcus pneumoniae are bacterial species
associated with postviral pneumonia.
[...], Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus

pneumoniae are bacterial species associated with
postviral pneumonia.

Staphylococcus, [...] and Streptococcus pneumoniae

are bacterial species associated with
postviral pneumonia.

Staphylococcus, Haemophilus influenzae and [...] are

bacterial species associated with postviral pneumonia.
What is the Bacitracin sensitivity of Group B Strep

(Streptococcus agalactiae)?
What is the Bacitracin sensitivity of Group B Strep

Resistant
[...]
"B-BRAS"
What is the urease expression of Proteus?
What is the urease expression of Proteus?
Positive
[...]
Which toxin from Clostridium tetani causes Tetanus?
Which toxin from Clostridium tetani causes Tetanus?
Tetanospasmin
[...]
Remember, tetanospasmin cleaves SNARE proteins

involved in neurotransmission. It prevents the release
of GABA and Glycine, 2 inhibitory neurotransmitters,
thereby causing spastic paralysis, trismus and risus
sardonicus.
What type of nucleic acid is found in Calicivirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Calicivirus?
Positive ssRNA
[...]
Please edit this note and add some cloze deletions.

()
What is the mechanism of resistance towards
Fluoroquinolone antibiotics?
What is the mechanism of resistance towards

Fluoroquinolone antibiotics?
Mutation in DNA Gyrase; Plasmid-mediated resistance;

Development of efflux pumps
[...]
How is VZV transmitted?
How is VZV transmitted?
Respiratory secretions
[...]
Which viral gene in HIV codes for the surface

glycoproteins gp120 and gp41?
Which viral gene in HIV codes for the surface

glycoproteins gp120 and gp41?
env
[...]
The protein codes for gp160 which is cleaved into

gp120 and gp41.
Which area of the lung is the Ghon focus usually found in
Primary Tuberculosis?
Which area of the lung is the Ghon focus usually found in

Primary Tuberculosis?
Middle
[...]
How is Chagas Disease (Trypanosoma cruzi)

transmitted?
How is Chagas Disease (Trypanosoma cruzi)

transmitted?
Reduviid bug (aka the "kissing bug") feces
[...]
The bug bite is painless.

Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus are 2 [...] and Necator americanus are 2 species of intestinal
species of intestinal nematodes that are referred to as
nematodes that are referred to as hookworm.
hookworm.
Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus are 2
species of intestinal nematodes that are referred to as
hookworm.
Ancylostoma duodenale and [...] are 2 species of

intestinal nematodes that are referred to as hookworm.
What is the etiology of Primary and Secondary

Tuberculosis?
What is the etiology of Primary and Secondary

Tuberculosis?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
[...]
Which bug is associated with red "currant jelly"

sputum?
Which bug is associated with red "currant jelly"

sputum?
Klebsiella
[...]
CMV is a ToRCHeS infection that presents with hearing

loss, seizures, petechial rash and a "blueberry
muffin" rash.
[...] is a ToRCHeS infection that presents with hearing

loss, seizures, petechial rash and a "blueberry
muffin" rash.
Which Herpesvirus is associated with infecting an organ

transplant recipient?
Which Herpesvirus is associated with infecting an organ

transplant recipient?
CMV
[...]
Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction is a flu-like syndrome that [...] is a flu-like syndrome that presents after antibiotics are
presents after antibiotics are administered in a patient due administered in a patient due to widespread release of
to widespread release of pyrogens from killed bacteria.
pyrogens from killed bacteria.
Cotrimazole and Miconazole are Azole antifungals that are [...] and Miconazole are Azole antifungals that are used
used topically for fungal infections.
topically for fungal infections.
Cotrimazole and Miconazole are Azole antifungals that are Cotrimazole and [...] are Azole antifungals that are used
used topically for fungal infections.
topically for fungal infections.
Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted protoza [...] is a sexually transmitted protoza that is diagnosed by
that is diagnosed by the visualization of mobile
the visualization of mobile trophozoites on a wet mount.
trophozoites on a wet mount.
Escherichia coli and Proteus mirabilis are 2

nocosomial bacterial infections that have urinary
catheterization as a risk factor.
[...] and Proteus mirabilis are 2 nocosomial bacterial

infections that have urinary catheterization as a risk factor.
Escherichia coli and Proteus mirabilis are 2

nocosomial bacterial infections that have urinary
catheterization as a risk factor.
Escherichia coli and [...] are 2 nocosomial bacterial

infections that have urinary catheterization as a risk factor.
Ecthyma Gangrenosum is a cutaneous disorder caused by

Pseudomonas sp. that is described as rapidly progressive,
necrotic cutaneous lesions.
[...] is a cutaneous disorder caused by Pseudomonas

sp. that is described as rapidly progressive, necrotic
cutaneous lesions.
Typically seen in immunocompromised patients.

What is the oxidase expression of Vibrio cholerae?
What is the oxidase expression of Vibrio cholerae?
Positive
[...]
A transposon is a segment of DNA that can "jump" from

one location to another via excision and reintegration.
A [...] is a segment of DNA that can "jump" from one

location to another via excision and reintegration.
Through this, genes can be transferred from plasmid

to chromosome and vice versa.
Excision can include flanking chromosomal DNA
which can be incorporated into a plasmid and
transferred to another bacterium. This is a way
antibiotic resistance can be transmitted.
Mumps virus is a Paramyxovirus that causes Mumps.
[...] is a Paramyxovirus that causes Mumps.
What kind of bacteria yield a positive urinary nitrite

test?
What kind of bacteria yield a positive urinary nitrite

test?
Gram-negative bacteria
[...]
This is important. Gram-positive bacteria will not

yield a positive nitrite test.
Shiga-like Toxin (SLT) is an exotoxin from
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) that
inactivates the 60S ribosome by removing adenine from
rRNA.
[...] is an exotoxin from Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia

coli (EHEC) that inactivates the 60S ribosome by
removing adenine from rRNA.
Includes the O157:H7 strain.

How is HDV transmitted?
How is HDV transmitted?
Parenteral
[...]
The Hepatitis Worm: A-B-C-D-E

The ends have fecal-oral transmission (A = mouth; E
= anus).
Everything else in between (BCD) is transmitted
parenterally.
The live, attenuated flu vaccine is the flu vaccine that
contains a temperature-sensitive mutant that replicated in
the nose, but not the lungs.
Administered intranasally.
The [...] flu vaccine is the flu vaccine that contains a

temperature-sensitive mutant that replicated in the nose,
but not the lungs.
Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is an intestinal

nematode that is associated with causing anal pruritis.
[...] is an intestinal nematode that is associated with

causing anal pruritis.
Which bug is associated with causing pneumonia in cystic Which bug is associated with causing pneumonia in cystic
fibrosis patients and causing burn infections?
fibrosis patients and causing burn infections?
[...]
What is the mechanism of resistance for Macrolide

antibiotics?
What is the mechanism of resistance for Macrolide

antibiotics?
Methylation of the 23S rRNA-binding site, thereby

preventing binding of the drug
[...]
Chlamydophila pneumoniae and Chlamydophila

psittaci are 2 Chlamydiae organisms that cause atypical
pneumonia via aerosol transmission.
[...] and Chlamydophila psittaci are 2 Chlamydiae

organisms that cause atypical pneumonia via aerosol
transmission.
Chlamydophila pneumoniae and Chlamydophila

psittaci are 2 Chlamydiae organisms that cause atypical
pneumonia via aerosol transmission.
Chlamydophila pneumoniae and [...] are 2 Chlamydiae

organisms that cause atypical pneumonia via aerosol
transmission.
How do CSF protein levels change in bacterial meningitis? How do CSF protein levels change in bacterial meningitis?
Increase
[...]
Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime and Ceftazidime are 3rd

generation Cephalosporins that are used to treat serious
gram-negative infections that are resistant to other
beta-lactams.
[...], Cefotaxime and Ceftazidime are 3rd generation

Cephalosporins that are used to treat serious gramnegative infections that are resistant to other betalactams.

beta-lactams.
Ceftriaxone, [...] and Ceftazidime are 3rd generation


beta-lactams.
Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime and [...] are 3rd generation

Primaquine is an antiplasmodial drug that is added onto

Malarial treatment in Plasmodium vivax/ovale infection
to eliminate dormant hypnozoites.
[...] is an antiplasmodial drug that is added onto Malarial

treatment in Plasmodium vivax/ovale infection to
eliminate dormant hypnozoites.
You must test for G6PD Deficiency first.

What is the treatment for Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
What is the treatment for Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
Doxycycline
[...]
IFN-alpha is an Interferon used to treat Condyloma

Accuminatum.
[...] is an Interferon used to treat Condyloma

Accuminatum.
Which electrolyte imbalance is seen in the labs of a patient Which electrolyte imbalance is seen in the labs of a patient
with Legionella pneumophila?
with Legionella pneumophila?
Hyponatremia
[...]
Which special culture media/agar is used to isolate
Bordetella pertussis?
[...]

Bordetella pertussis?
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
BORDETella.
What type of pigment is associated with Actinomyces
spp?
What type of pigment is associated with Actinomyces

spp?
Yellow "sulfur granules"
[...]
What is the etiology of Shingles?
What is the etiology of Shingles?
VZV (Varicella-zoster)
[...]
West Nile Virus (WNV) is an Arbovirus and Flavivirus

that causes West Nile.
[...] is an Arbovirus and Flavivirus that causes West Nile.
Congenital Toxoplasmosis is a CNS protozoal infection

that presents with a classic triad of chorioretinitis,
hydrocephalus and intracranial calcifications.
[...] is a CNS protozoal infection that presents with a

classic triad of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and
intracranial calcifications.
What CD4+ cell count is associated with Streptococcus

pneumoniae pneumonia in HIV patients?
What CD4+ cell count is associated with Streptococcus

pneumoniae pneumonia in HIV patients?
< 200 cells/mm3
[...]
What is the treatment for Clostridium difficile?
What is the treatment for Clostridium difficile?
Metronidazole; Oral Vancomycin
[...]
For recurring cases, fecal transplant may prevent a

relapse.
Protein A is a virulence factor expressed by
Staphylococcus aureus that binds to the Fc region of
IgG thereby preventing opsonization and phagocytosis.
[...] is a virulence factor expressed by Staphylococcus

aureus that binds to the Fc region of IgG thereby
preventing opsonization and phagocytosis.
Nystatin is a topical antifungal that is used as a "swish

and swallow" treatment for oral Candidiasis.
[...] is a topical antifungal that is used as a "swish and

swallow" treatment for oral Candidiasis.
Also administered topically for diaper rash or vaginal

candidiasis.
Which Streptococcus species is associated with an
increase in ASO titers?
Which Streptococcus species is associated with an

increase in ASO titers?
Streptococcus pyogenes
[...]
ASO titers are indicative of recent S. pyogenes

infection.
What is the MOA of Heat-labile Toxin from
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)?
[...]
What is the MOA of Heat-labile Toxin from

Overactivation of adenylate cyclase, thereby increasing
cAMP levels and increasing Cl secretion and H2O efflux
in the gut
What is the cause of Bubonic Plague?
What is the cause of Bubonic Plague?
Yersinia pestis
[...]
What is the most common nocosomial wound infection?
What is the most common nocosomial wound infection?
Staphylococcus aureus
[...]
What is the empirical treatment for infants,

immunocompromised patients and the elderly with
suspected meningitis from Listeria monocytogenes?
What is the empirical treatment for infants,

immunocompromised patients and the elderly with
suspected meningitis from Listeria monocytogenes?
Ampicillin
[...]
Leukopenia, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia are

hematological complications of Ganciclovir.
[...], neutropenia and thrombocytopenia are hematological

complications of Ganciclovir.
Ganciclovir is more toxic to host enzymes than

Acyclovir.
Leukopenia, [...] and thrombocytopenia are hematological


Acyclovir.
Leukopenia, neutropenia and [...] are hematological


Acyclovir.
Endotoxin is a virulence factor found in gram[...] is a virulence factor found in gram-negative bacteria
negative bacteria made of lipopolysaccharide (LPS), made of lipopolysaccharide (LPS), the structural part of
the structural part of bacteria.
bacteria.
It is released when the bacteria is lysed.
Streptolysin O is an exotoxin from Streptococcus
pyogenes that functions to degrade the cell membrane.
[...] is an exotoxin from Streptococcus pyogenes that

functions to degrade the cell membrane.
Pseudomembranous colitis is a GI complication of

Aminopenicillin use (Amoxicillin/Ampicillin) that results
from overgrowth of Clostridium difficile in the GI tract.
[...] is a GI complication of Aminopenicillin use

(Amoxicillin/Ampicillin) that results from overgrowth of
Clostridium difficile in the GI tract.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a species of Neisseria that has

no vaccine due to rapid antigenic variation of pilus
proteins.
[...] is a species of Neisseria that has no vaccine due to

rapid antigenic variation of pilus proteins.
Measles virus is a virus that affects unimmunized children

[...] is a virus that affects unimmunized children and
and presents with a rash that is preceded by cough,
presents with a rash that is preceded by cough, coryza,
coryza, conjunctivitis and Koplik spots on the buccal conjunctivitis and Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa.
mucosa.
The rash that is seen starts at the head and moves
down.
Coryza = rhinitis.
Subcutaneous nodules is a cutaneous complication of

Rheumatic Fever.
[...] is a cutaneous complication of Rheumatic Fever.
What is the MOA of Cholera toxin from Vibrio cholerae? What is the MOA of Cholera toxin from Vibrio cholerae?
Permanent activation of the Gs subunit leading to
overactivity of Adenylate Cyclase and increased cAMP
[...]
Which stain is used to visualize fungi (e.g. Pneumocystis)? Which stain is used to visualize fungi (e.g. Pneumocystis)?
Silver stain
[...]
Which age group is more commonly affected by

mycoplasmal pneumonia (Mycoplasma pneumoniae)?
Which age group is more commonly affected by

mycoplasmal pneumonia (Mycoplasma pneumoniae)?
< 30 y/o
[...]
There are frequent outbreaks in military recruits and

prisons.
Which diagnostic test is used to monitor the effect of drug Which diagnostic test is used to monitor the effect of drug
therapy in HIV infection?
therapy in HIV infection?
HIV PCR/viral load test; determines the amount of viral
RNA in the plasma
[...]
Which trematode (fluke) is associated with

hematuria and bladder cancer?
Which trematode (fluke) is associated with

hematuria and bladder cancer?
Schistosoma haematobium
[...]
What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate in the What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate in the
nucleus?
nucleus?
Poxvirus
[...]
It carries its own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

Botulism is a neurological disorder caused by Clostridium
sp. and is characterized by flaccid paralysis due
to inhibition of stimulatory neurotransmitter
release (ACh) at the neuromuscular junction.
[...] is a neurological disorder caused by Clostridium

sp. and is characterized by flaccid paralysis due
to inhibition of stimulatory neurotransmitter
release (ACh) at the neuromuscular junction.
What is the treatment for pinworm (Enterobius

vermicularis)?
What is the treatment for pinworm (Enterobius

vermicularis)?
Bendazoles or Pyrantel pamoate
[...]
BENDazoles are used on worms because they are

BENDy.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Neisseria meningitidis?
[...]

Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Neisseria meningitidis?
Thayer-Martin (VPN) media
To connect to Neisseria, please use your VPN client:
V = Vancomycin which inhibits gram-positive
organisms
P = Polymyxin which inhibits gram-negative
organisms except for Neisseria
N = Nystatin which inhibits fungi
What type of HAART is Indinavir?
What type of HAART is Indinavir?
Protease inhibitor
[...]
What is the clinical use for Aminoglycosides?
What is the clinical use for Aminoglycosides?
Severe gram-negative rod infections
[...]
Synergistic with beta-lactams.

Remember, they are ineffective against anerobes.
Tinea Unguium (Onychomycosis) is a cutaneous mycosis
that is seen at the fingernails.
[...] is a cutaneous mycosis that is seen at the fingernails.
What is the 3rd most common cause of UTI?
What is the 3rd most common cause of UTI?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
[...]
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is a strain of

Escherichia coli that produces both heat-labile and heatstable enterotoxins.
[...] is a strain of Escherichia coli that produces both

heat-labile and heat-stable enterotoxins.
Does not cause inflammation and is not invasive.

Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) is a strain of [...] is a strain of Escherichia coli that produces a ShigaEscherichia coli that produces a Shiga-like toxin that
like toxin that causes Hemolytic Uremia Syndrome
causes Hemolytic Uremia Syndrome (HUS).
(HUS).
The toxin alone causes necrosis and inflammation,
thereby causing dysentery.
What class of antibiotic is Amikacin?
What class of antibiotic is Amikacin?
Aminoglycoside
[...]
How do lymphocyte levels change in Fungal or TB

meningitis?
How do lymphocyte levels change in Fungal or TB

meningitis?
Increase
[...]
Mucor spp. is a species of opportunistic fungus that can

cause Mucormycosis and presents as irregular, broad,
nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles.
[...] is a species of opportunistic fungus that can cause

Mucormycosis and presents as irregular, broad,
nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles.
Which 2 gases are often produced in tissue by obligate

anaerobic bacteria?
Which 2 gases are often produced in tissue by obligate

anaerobic bacteria?
CO2; H2
[...]
Pneumonia is a respiratory complication of

Staphylococcus aureus infection that commonly arises
after an influenza virus infection.
[...] is a respiratory complication of Staphylococcus

aureus infection that commonly arises after an influenza
virus infection.
What is the clinical use of Terbinafine?
What is the clinical use of Terbinafine?
Dermatophytoses (especially, Onychomycosis)
[...]
Valacyclovir is the prodrug form of Acyclovir that has

better oral bioavailability.
[...] is the prodrug form of Acyclovir that has better oral

bioavailability.
How is Campylobacter jejuni transmitted?
How is Campylobacter jejuni transmitted?
Fecal-oral
[...]
Which HBV antigen indicates the presence of an

Hepatitis B infection?
Which HBV antigen indicates the presence of an

Hepatitis B infection?
HBsAg (surface)
[...]
Ribavirin is an antiviral agent that is used to treat RSV and

HCV by inhibiting Inosine Monophosphate
Dehydrogenase.
[...] is an antiviral agent that is used to treat RSV and

HCV by inhibiting Inosine Monophosphate
Dehydrogenase.
Which opportunistic fungus is associated with "soap

bubble" lesions in the brain?
Which opportunistic fungus is associated with "soap

bubble" lesions in the brain?
Cryptococcus neoformans
[...]
Morulae are berry-like cytoplasmic inclusions seen in the [...] are berry-like cytoplasmic inclusions seen in the
monocytes of a patient with Ehrlichiosis or Anaplasmosis. monocytes of a patient with Ehrlichiosis or Anaplasmosis.
What is the cause of Elephantiasis?
What is the cause of Elephantiasis?
Wuchereria bancrofti
[...]
Which demographic shows a high prevalence of

Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)?
Which demographic shows a high prevalence of

Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)?
Surfers; Tropics
[...]
Hence Hawaii is a big hot spot.

Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoa that causes CNS
[...] is a protozoa that causes CNS abscesses in HIV
abscesses in HIV patients that present as ring-enhancing patients that present as ring-enhancing lesions on imaging.
lesions on imaging.
Which envelope protein on HIV functions to allow
attachment to host CD4+ T cells?
Which envelope protein on HIV functions to allow

attachment to host CD4+ T cells?
gp120; the docking glycoprotein
[...]
Which serotype of Neisseria meningitidis lacks a

vaccine?
Which serotype of Neisseria meningitidis lacks a

vaccine?
Type B
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Hepadnavirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Hepadnavirus?
dsDNA
[...]
Gardnerella vaginalis is a pleomorphic bacillus that

causes a vaginosis that presents with a gray vaginal
discharge that has a fishy smell.
[...] is a pleomorphic bacillus that causes a vaginosis that

presents with a gray vaginal discharge that has a
fishy smell.
Associated with sexual activity, but is not sexually

transmitted.
What is the treatment for Actinomyces spp. infection?
What is the treatment for Actinomyces spp. infection?
Penicillin
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Nevirapine?
What type of HAART drug is Nevirapine?
NNRTI
[...]
How does Salmonella disseminate in the body?
How does Salmonella disseminate in the body?
Hematogenously
[...]
Which enzyme in Mycobacteria is required to activate

Isoniazid?
Which enzyme in Mycobacteria is required to activate

Isoniazid?
Catalase-peroxidase; encoded by KatG
[...]
What is a positive urinary nitrite test indicative of?
What is a positive urinary nitrite test indicative of?
Gram-negative bacterial UTI
[...]
Where is Group B Strep (Streptococcus agalactiae)

normally found in the body?
Where is Group B Strep (Streptococcus agalactiae)

normally found in the body?
Vagina
[...]
Streptococcus VAGalactiae
Pregnant women are screened for Streptococcus
agalactiae at 35-37 weeks of gestation. Patients with
a positive culture receive intrapartum penicillin
prophylaxis.
Which Herpesvirus causes Mononucleosis with a
negative Monospot test?
Which Herpesvirus causes Mononucleosis with a

negative Monospot test?
CMV
[...]
What is the gram stain of Bacteroides?
What is the gram stain of Bacteroides?
Negative
[...]
What is the etiology of Herpes Labialis?
What is the etiology of Herpes Labialis?
HSV-1
[...]
What colour colonies do lactose-fermenting enteric

bacteria yield on MacConkey agar?
What colour colonies do lactose-fermenting enteric

bacteria yield on MacConkey agar?
Pink
[...]
"MaConKEE'S"
- Citrobacter
- Klebsiella
- Enterobacter
- Escherichia
- Serratia (weak fermenter)
Diphtheria toxin is an exotoxin from Corynebacterium
diphtheriae that inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF2),
thereby inhibiting protein synthesis.
[...] is an exotoxin from Corynebacterium

diphtheriae that inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF2),
thereby inhibiting protein synthesis.
Which amino acid is a key component of the bacterial

capsule in Bacillus anthracis?
Which amino acid is a key component of the bacterial

capsule in Bacillus anthracis?
D-glutamate
[...]
Which penicillin-binding protein does Aztreonam bind to in Which penicillin-binding protein does Aztreonam bind to in
order to prevent peptidoglycan cross-linking?
order to prevent peptidoglycan cross-linking?
Penicillin-binding protein 3
[...]
What is the MOA of Aztreonam?
What is the MOA of Aztreonam?
Prevention of peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to

penicillin-binding protein 3
[...]
Synergistic with aminoglycosides.

"Blueberry Muffin" appearance is a cutaneous feature of
Congenital Rubella that is indicative of extramedullary
hematopoiesis.
[...] is a cutaneous feature of Congenital Rubella that is

indicative of extramedullary hematopoiesis.
Roseola is a viral disorder caused by HHV-6 that presents

with a macular rash over the body that appears after
several days of high fever.
[...] is a viral disorder caused by HHV-6 that presents

with a macular rash over the body that appears after
several days of high fever.
Can present with febrile seizures and usually affects

infants.
Reactive arthritis is a musculoskeletal complication of
Chlamydia.
[...] is a musculoskeletal complication of Chlamydia.
Clavulanic Acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is often [...] is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is often administered
administered with Ampicillin and Amoxicillin as they are
with Ampicillin and Amoxicillin as they are penicillinase
penicillinase sensitive.
sensitive.
What type of HAART drug is Abacavir (ABC)?
What type of HAART drug is Abacavir (ABC)?
NRTI
[...]
What is the reservoir for Yellow Fever Virus?
What is the reservoir for Yellow Fever Virus?
Monkeys; Humans
[...]
Fluoroquinolones are a class of antibiotics that can

possible cause tendonitis, tendon ruptue, leg
cramps and myalgias.
[...] are a class of antibiotics that can possible cause

tendonitis, tendon ruptue, leg cramps and myalgias.
In which 2 shapes are viral caspids typically found?
In which 2 shapes are viral caspids typically found?
Icosahedral; Helical
[...]
Which viral enzyme monophosphorylates

Which viral enzyme monophosphorylates
Acyclovir/Famciclovir/Valacyclovir, thereby activating it? Acyclovir/Famciclovir/Valacyclovir, thereby activating it?
Thymidine kinase
[...]
Anti-HAV IgG is an immunoglobulin against HAV that

protects against HAV reinfection.
[...] is an immunoglobulin against HAV that protects

against HAV reinfection.
How is Babesiosis (Babesia spp.) transmitted?
How is Babesiosis (Babesia spp.) transmitted?
Ixodes tick
[...]
This is the same vector as Borrelia burgdorferi which

causes Lyme Disease.
Co-infection is common.
Which CD4+ cell count is associated with Cryptococcus Which CD4+ cell count is associated with Cryptococcus
neoformans meningitis in HIV patients?
neoformans meningitis in HIV patients?
< 50 cells/mm3
[...]
Which bacteria is commonly associated with causing

sepsis and meningitis in newborns?
Which bacteria is commonly associated with causing

sepsis and meningitis in newborns?
Group B Strep (Streptococcus agalactiae)
[...]
Which exotoxin from Clostridium perfringens functions

as a phospholipase, thereby causing myonecrosis (gas
gangrene) and hemoylsis?
Which exotoxin from Clostridium perfringens functions

as a phospholipase, thereby causing myonecrosis (gas
gangrene) and hemoylsis?
Alpha-toxin
[...]
Phospholipase, lecithinase activity.

PERFringens PERForates a gangrenous leg.
What is the most common bacterial STD in the United
States?
What is the most common bacterial STD in the United

States?
Chlamydia trachomatis
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Stavudine (d4T)?
What type of HAART drug is Stavudine (d4T)?
NRTI
[...]
Nocardia spp. is a gram-positive, filamentous bacteria

that causes pulmonary infections in the
immunocompromised and cutaneous infections after
trauma in the immunocompetent.
[...] is a gram-positive, filamentous bacteria that causes

pulmonary infections in the immunocompromised and
cutaneous infections after trauma in the immunocompetent.
What culture/agar is required to grow Legionella

pneumophila?
What culture/agar is required to grow Legionella

pneumophila?
Charcoal yeast extract with iron and cysteine
[...]
Legionella is clinically detected by the presence of

antigen in the urine.
Probenecid is a drug that must be co-administered with
the antiviral Cidofovir to decrease its nephrotixicity.
[...] is a drug that must be co-administered with the

antiviral Cidofovir to decrease its nephrotixicity.
IV saline is also given.

Trismus is a feature of Tetanus that is also referred to as
Lockjaw
[...] is a feature of Tetanus that is also referred to as

Lockjaw
What is the vector for Rocket Mountain Spotted Fever

(Rickettsia rickettsii)?
What is the vector for Rocket Mountain Spotted Fever

(Rickettsia rickettsii)?
Dermacentor ticks
[...]
Why doesn't Legionella pneunophila gram stain well?
Why doesn't Legionella pneunophila gram stain well?
Primarily intracellular organism
[...]
Legionella requires a silver stain.

HSV-2 is a Herpesvirus that is latent in sacral ganglia.
[...] is a Herpesvirus that is latent in sacral ganglia.
Which stain is used to visualize acid-fast organisms

(Mycobacterium, Nocardia)?
Which stain is used to visualize acid-fast organisms

(Mycobacterium, Nocardia)?
Ziehl-Neelsen (carbol fuschin) stain
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Emtricitabine (FTC)?
What type of HAART drug is Emtricitabine (FTC)?
NRTI
[...]
The capsule is a bacterial structure that functions as an

anti-phagocytic virulence factors.
The [...] is a bacterial structure that functions as an antiphagocytic virulence factors.
Actinomyces spp. and Nocardia spp. are both grampositive bacteria that form long, branching filaments
resembling fungi.
[...] and Nocardia spp. are both gram-positive bacteria

that form long, branching filaments resembling fungi.
Actinomyces spp. and Nocardia spp. are both grampositive bacteria that form long, branching filaments
resembling fungi.
Actinomyces spp. and [...] are both gram-positive

bacteria that form long, branching filaments resembling
fungi.
What type of diarrhea is caused by EHEC?
What type of diarrhea is caused by EHEC?
Bloody
[...]
e.g. O157:H7; makes a Shiga-like toxin
Mumps is an infectious disorder caused by

Paramyxoviruses that presents with parotitis,
orchitis and aseptic meningitis.
[...] is an infectious disorder caused by Paramyxoviruses

that presents with parotitis, orchitis and aseptic
meningitis.
"Mumps can make your parotid glands and testes as

big as POM-poms."
Parotitis, Orchitis and aseptic Meningitis.
The orchitis can cause sterility, especially after
puberty.
Strongyloides stercoralis is an intestinal nematode that
[...] is an intestinal nematode that causes an intestinal
causes an intestinal infection that presents with vomiting,
infection that presents with vomiting, diarrhea and
diarrhea and epigastric pain that may mimic peptic epigastric pain that may mimic peptic ulcer-like pain.
ulcer-like pain.
What stain is required to properly visualize Legionella
pneumophila?
What stain is required to properly visualize Legionella

pneumophila?
Silver stain
[...]
Which exotoxin from Pseudomonas aeruginosa functions Which exotoxin from Pseudomonas aeruginosa functions
to inactivate EF-2 via ADP Ribosylation?
to inactivate EF-2 via ADP Ribosylation?
Exotoxin A
[...]
What type of immune response is seen once

Salmonella invades the intestinal mucosa?
What type of immune response is seen once

Salmonella invades the intestinal mucosa?
Monocytic response
[...]
How is Lyme Disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)

transmitted?
How is Lyme Disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)

transmitted?
via the Ixodes tick
[...]
Tetanus is a neurological disorder caused by Clostridium

sp. and is characterized by spastic paralysis due to
inhibition of inhibitory neurotransmitter
release (GABA; Glycine) from Renshaw cells of the
spinal cord.
[...] is a neurological disorder caused by Clostridium

sp. and is characterized by spastic paralysis due to
inhibition of inhibitory neurotransmitter
release (GABA; Glycine) from Renshaw cells of the
spinal cord.
What is the MOA of Isoniazid (INH)?
What is the MOA of Isoniazid (INH)?
Decreases the synthesis of mycolic acid
[...]
Typhoid Fever is a fever caused by Salmonella typhi that [...] is a fever caused by Salmonella typhi that presents
presents with rose spots on the abdomen, fever,
with rose spots on the abdomen, fever, headache and
headache and diarrhea.
diarrhea.
How is HSV-2 transmitted?
Sexual contact; Perinatally
[...]
What is the treatment for Loa loa?
What is the treatment for Loa loa?
Diethylcarbamazine
[...]
The cestodes are a class of parasite that are referred to as

tapeworms.
The [...] are a class of parasite that are referred to as

tapeworms.
Bacillary Angiomatosis is a dermatologic disorder caused

by Bartonella henselae in HIV patients and presents with
superficial vascular proliferation.
[...] is a dermatologic disorder caused by Bartonella

henselae in HIV patients and presents with superficial
vascular proliferation.
Biopsy reveals neutrophilic inflammation.

Amoebiasis is a GI protozoal infection that is diagnosed by
cysts with up to 4 nuclei in the stool.
[...] is a GI protozoal infection that is diagnosed by

cysts with up to 4 nuclei in the stool.
IV or IM
[...]
Erythema Infectiosium (Fifth Disease) is a cutaneous

[...] is a cutaneous complication of Parvovirus B19
complication of Parvovirus B19 infection that presents as a infection that presents as a "slapped cheeks" rash in
"slapped cheeks" rash in children.
children.
How does opening pressure change in bacterial
meningitis?
How does opening pressure change in bacterial

meningitis?
Increase
[...]
Lymphogranuloma Venereum is an STD caused by

Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1-L3 that presents
with infection of lymphatics, painless genital
ulcers and painful lymphadenopathy (buboes).
[...] is an STD caused by Chlamydia

trachomatis serotypes L1-L3 that presents with
infection of lymphatics, painless genital ulcers and
painful lymphadenopathy (buboes).
What is the treatment for Vaginal Candidiasis

(Vulvovaginitis)?
What is the treatment for Vaginal Candidiasis

(Vulvovaginitis)?
A topical azole
[...]
What is the MOA of Exotoxin A from Pseudomonas

aeruginosa?
What is the MOA of Exotoxin A from Pseudomonas

aeruginosa?
Inactivation of elongation factor 2 (EF2) via ADP

ribosylation, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis and
causing cell death
[...]
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with Cephalosporin Which vitamin deficiency is associated with Cephalosporin
use?
use?
Vitamin K
[...]
Remember, Vitamin K is made by GI flora.

Pseudomembranous colitis is a possible complication of
Clindamycin use due to resultant Clostridium
difficile overgrowth.
[...] is a possible complication of Clindamycin use due to

resultant Clostridium difficile overgrowth.
Also causes fever and diarrhea.

Coccidiomycosis is a systemic mycosis that presents with
spherules that are much larger than RBCs.
[...] is a systemic mycosis that presents with

spherules that are much larger than RBCs.
What is the urease expression of Nocardia spp?

[...]
What is the urease expression of Nocardia spp?

Positive
Parvovirus B19 is a ssDNA virus that causes aplastic

crises in sickle cell disease.
[...] is a ssDNA virus that causes aplastic crises in sickle

cell disease.
How is HEV transmitted?
How is HEV transmitted?
Fecal-oral; especially with waterborne epidemics
[...]

= anus).
parenterally.
Hutchinson teeth is a morphological feature of Congenital [...] is a morphological feature of Congenital Syphilis that
Syphilis that is described as teeth that are
is described as teeth that are notched, smaller and more
notched, smaller and more widely spaced than normal.
widely spaced than normal.
What class of antibiotic is Minocycline?
What class of antibiotic is Minocycline?
Tetracycline
[...]
Enterobius vermicularis is a species of intestinal

nematode that is also referred to as pinworm.
[...] is a species of intestinal nematode that is also referred

to as pinworm.
What type of immunity is induced by

Killed/Inactivated Vaccines?
What type of immunity is induced by

Killed/Inactivated Vaccines?
Humoral immunity only
[...]
HBV is a Hepadnavirus that causes acute or chronic

hepatitis.
[...] is a Hepadnavirus that causes acute or chronic

hepatitis.
Not a retrovirus, but has reverse transcriptase.

What type of hemolysis is associated with Streptococcus What type of hemolysis is associated with Streptococcus
bovis?
bovis?
Gamma-hemolysis
[...]
What is the etiology of Genital Herpes?
What is the etiology of Genital Herpes?
HSV-2; less commonly HSV-1
[...]
Respiratory droplets; saliva
[...]
Which viruses cause most diarrhea?
Which viruses cause most diarrhea?
Rotavirus; Norovirus
[...]
Candida albicans is an opportunistic fungus that causes

[...] is an opportunistic fungus that causes oral
oral thrush/esophagitis in HIV patients that presents with thrush/esophagitis in HIV patients that presents with fluffy
fluffy white cottage-cheese lesions.
white cottage-cheese lesions.
Chlamydia is an STD caused by Chlamydia

trachomatis that presents with urethritis, cervicitis and
PID.
[...] is an STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis that

presents with urethritis, cervicitis and PID.
Rhinovirus is a Picornavirus that is acid labile and hence

[...] is a Picornavirus that is acid labile and hence is
is destroyed by stomach acid and doesn't cause GI
destroyed by stomach acid and doesn't cause GI infection.
infection.
Typhus is a Rickettsial disease that presents with a rash [...] is a Rickettsial disease that presents with a rash that
that starts centrally and spreads out, but spares the starts centrally and spreads out, but spares the palms
palms and soles.
and soles.
RMSF (R. ricketsii) = palms/soles/wRists
Typhus (R. typhi; R. prowazekii) = Trunk
What type of HAART drug is Raltegravir?
What type of HAART drug is Raltegravir?
Integrase inhibitor
[...]
A High-frequency recombination (Hfr) cell is a bacterial A [...] is a bacterial cell whose F+ plasmid has become
cell whose F+ plasmid has become incorporated into incorporated into the bacterial chromosomal DNA.
the bacterial chromosomal DNA.
Hence when the plasmid DNA is replicated, some
flanking chromosomal DNA is likely to be as well.
Therefore, plasmid and chromosomal genes are
transferred.
What class of antibiotic is Tobramycin?
What class of antibiotic is Tobramycin?
Aminoglycoside
[...]
What is the etiology of AIDS?
What is the etiology of AIDS?
HIV
[...]
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is a Retrovirus that

causes AIDS.
[...] is a Retrovirus that causes AIDS.
Shiga Toxin (ST) is an exotoxin from Shigella spp. that [...] is an exotoxin from Shigella spp. that inactivates the
inactivates the 60S ribosomal subunit by removing adenine 60S ribosomal subunit by removing adenine from rRNA.
from rRNA.
Thereby causes GI mucosal damage, dysentery and
possibly hemolytic uremia syndrome (HUS).
What is the MOA of Echinocandin antifungals
(Caspofungin; Micafungin; Anidulafungin)?
What is the MOA of Echinocandin antifungals

(Caspofungin; Micafungin; Anidulafungin)?
Inhibition of fungal cell wall synthesis by inhibiting the

synthesis of beta-glucan
[...]
What type nucleic acid is found in Paramyxovirus?
What type nucleic acid is found in Paramyxovirus?
Negative ssRNA
[...]
Which dsDNA virus is associated with febrile

pharyngitis, pneumonia and conjunctivitis?
Which dsDNA virus is associated with febrile

pharyngitis, pneumonia and conjunctivitis?
Adenovirus
[...]
Which Hepatitis virus is associated with asymptomatic,

acute hepatitis?
Which Hepatitis virus is associated with asymptomatic,

acute hepatitis?
HAV
[...]
Which type Reovirus is the #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in

children?
Which type Reovirus is the #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in

children?
Rotavirus
[...]
Which protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic is known

to treat anaerobes above the diaphragm?
Which protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic is known

to treat anaerobes above the diaphragm?
Clindamycin
[...]
What is the gram stain of Enterobacter?
What is the gram stain of Enterobacter?
Negative
[...]
Which Chlamydiae organism is known to cause Follicular Which Chlamydiae organism is known to cause Follicular
Conjunctivitis?
Conjunctivitis?
[...]
Preferential inhibition of viral DNA polymerase
[...]
Toxoplasmosis is a CNS protozoal infection that is

diagnosed via tachyzoites on biopsy.
[...] is a CNS protozoal infection that is diagnosed via

tachyzoites on biopsy.
What type of diarrhea is seen in Giardiasis?
What type of diarrhea is seen in Giardiasis?
Fatty, foul-smelling diarrhea
[...]
What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in
teens?
teens?
[...]
Which viral gene in HIV codes for its Aspartate Protease? Which viral gene in HIV codes for its Aspartate Protease?
pol
[...]
What is the oxygen dependency of Nocardia spp.?
Aerobe
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Polyomavirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Polyomavirus?
dsDNA
[...]
Kernicterus is a CNS complication of Sulfonamide use [...] is a CNS complication of Sulfonamide use that is seen
that is seen in infants and arises due to hyperbilirubinemia.
in infants and arises due to hyperbilirubinemia.
What type of diarrhea is associated with Campylobacter What type of diarrhea is associated with Campylobacter
jejuni?
jejuni?
Bloody diarrhea
[...]
What is the etiology of Roseola?
HHV-6
[...]
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative nocosomial [...] is a gram-negative nocosomial bacterial infection that
bacterial infection that has respiratory therapy
has respiratory therapy equipment as a risk factor.
equipment as a risk factor.
Think of Pseudomonas "air"-uginosa when air or
burns are involved.
What is the prophylactic treatment for Syphilis?
What is the prophylactic treatment for Syphilis?
Benzathine Penicillin G
[...]
How is EBV transmitted?
How is EBV transmitted?
Respiratory secretions; Saliva
[...]
What colour colonies do Klebsiella spp. yield on

MacConkey Agar?
What colour colonies do Klebsiella spp. yield on

MacConkey Agar?
Pink
[...]
Due to lactose fermentation.

What type of antibiotic is Erythromycin?
What type of antibiotic is Erythromycin?
Macrolide
[...]
What type nucleic acid is found in Deltavirus?
What type nucleic acid is found in Deltavirus?
Negative ssRNA
[...]
What is the etiology of Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kalaazar)?
What is the etiology of Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kalaazar)?
Leishmania donovani
[...]
What is the Oxidase expression of Helicobacter pylori?
What is the Oxidase expression of Helicobacter pylori?
Positive
[...]
What is the most common cause of UTI?
What is the most common cause of UTI?
Escherichia coli
[...]
What is the treatment for intestinal infection caused by What is the treatment for intestinal infection caused by
the larvae of Taenia solium?
the larvae of Taenia solium?
Praziquantel
[...]
Trimethoprim is a folate synthesis inhibiting antibiotic [...] is a folate synthesis inhibiting antibiotic that causes
that causes megaloblastic anaemia, leukopenia, and
megaloblastic anaemia, leukopenia, and
granulocytopenia as complications.
granulocytopenia as complications.
TMP Treats Marrow Poorly.
HCV is a Flavivirus that causes hepatitis.
[...] is a Flavivirus that causes hepatitis.
What is the pregnancy category of Tetracycline

antibiotics?
What is the pregnancy category of Tetracycline

antibiotics?
X; Contraindicated
[...]
What is the MOA of Piperacillin?
What is the MOA of Piperacillin?
Inhibition of Transpeptidase, thereby inhibiting the crosslinking of peptidoglycan
[...]
Which opportunistic fungus is associated with a pneumonia Which opportunistic fungus is associated with a pneumonia
that yields a diffuse, bilateral chest x-ray?
that yields a diffuse, bilateral chest x-ray?
Pneumocystis jirovecii
[...]
Which 2 bacteria are the most common causes of Pelvic

Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
Which 2 bacteria are the most common causes of Pelvic

Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
Chlamydia tranchomatis (subacute; often undiagnosed);

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
[...]
What is the MOA of the antiprotozoal Chloroquine?
What is the MOA of the antiprotozoal Chloroquine?
Blocks the detoxification of heme into hemozoin, thereby

allowing for toxic heme accumulation in the plasmodia
[...]
What is the gram stain of Salmonella?
What is the gram stain of Salmonella?
Negative
[...]
What is the only Picornavirus that does not infect the GI

tract?
What is the only Picornavirus that does not infect the GI

tract?
Rhinovirus
[...]
This is because it is acid-labile and destroyed in the

stomach.
Which species of Viridans Streptococci commonly causes Which species of Viridans Streptococci commonly causes
dental caries?
dental caries?
Streptococcus mutans
[...]
What is the treatment for Plasmodium

falciparum Malaria?
What is the treatment for Plasmodium

falciparum Malaria?
Artemether/Lumefrantrine or Atovaquone/Proguanil
[...]
What is the etiology of Erlichiosis?
What is the etiology of Erlichiosis?
Erlichia chaffeensis
[...]
Azoles are a class of antifungals that are used for

local and less serious systemic mycoses.
[...] are a class of antifungals that are used for local and
less serious systemic mycoses.
What colour colonies do Serratia spp. yield on

MacConkey Agar?
What colour colonies do Serratia spp. yield on

MacConkey Agar?
Pink
[...]

What is the urease expression of Helicobacter pylori?
What is the urease expression of Helicobacter pylori?
Positive
[...]
2nd
[...]
How do CSF glucose levels change in fungal/TB

meningitis?
How do CSF glucose levels change in fungal/TB

meningitis?
Decrease
[...]
Which form of Leprosy is limited to a few hypoesthetic, Which form of Leprosy is limited to a few hypoesthetic,
hairless skin plaques?
hairless skin plaques?
Tuberculoid
[...]
Cholera Toxin is an exotoxin from Vibrio cholerae that [...] is an exotoxin from Vibrio cholerae that overactivates
overactivates Adenylate Cyclase through permanent
Adenylate Cyclase through permanent activation of the
activation of the Gs subunit via ADP ribosylation, thereby Gs subunit via ADP ribosylation, thereby increasing Cl
increasing Cl secretion and H2O efflux at the gut.
secretion and H2O efflux at the gut.
Yields "rice-water" diarrhea.
What colour pigment is associated with Serratia
marcescens?
What colour pigment is associated with Serratia

marcescens?
Red
[...]
What is the treatment for Cysticercosis (eggs of Taenia

solium)?
What is the treatment for Cysticercosis (eggs of Taenia

solium)?
Praziquantel
[...]
Onchocerca volvulus is a tissue nematode associated

with causing hyperpigmented skin and river blindness.
[...] is a tissue nematode associated with causing

hyperpigmented skin and river blindness.
Black fly bite; Black skin nodules; "Black" sight.

Allergic reaction to the microfilaria is possible.
Which nematodes are associated with microcytic
anaemia?
[...]
Which nematodes are associated with microcytic

anaemia?
Ancylostoma duodenale; Necator americanus
What foods are associated with acquisition of Listeria
monocytogenes?
What foods are associated with acquisition of Listeria

monocytogenes?
Unpasteurized dairy; deli meats
[...]
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Group A Strep

What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Group A Strep

Beta-hemolysis
[...]
Catalase-negative
Bacitracin sensitive
The trematodes are a class of parasite that are referred to The [...] are a class of parasite that are referred to as the
as the flukes.
flukes.
What is the etiology of Tularemia?
What is the etiology of Tularemia?
Francisella tularensis
[...]
The lack of which enzyme in premature infants results in

Grey Baby Syndrome following Chloramphenicol use?
The lack of which enzyme in premature infants results in

Grey Baby Syndrome following Chloramphenicol use?
UDP-Glucuronyl Transferase
[...]
Histoplasmosis is a systemic mycosis that presents with

macrophages filled with Histoplasma, as they are
smaller than RBCs.

macrophages filled with Histoplasma, as they are
smaller than RBCs.
Histo Hides in macrophages

The periplasm is a bacterial structure that is described as
the space between the cytoplasmic membrane and the
other membrane in gram-negative bacteria.
The [...] is a bacterial structure that is described as the

space between the cytoplasmic membrane and the other
membrane in gram-negative bacteria.
Many hydrolytic enzymes are found here, especially

beta-lactamase.
Which fat soluble vitamin is used to prevent severe
exfoliative dermatitis in malnourished children with
Measles?
Which fat soluble vitamin is used to prevent severe

exfoliative dermatitis in malnourished children with
Measles?
Vitamin A
[...]
Aztreonam is a Monobactam antibiotic that is used in

patients with penicillin allergy or in patients with renal
insufficiency that cannot tolerate aminoglycosides.
[...] is a Monobactam antibiotic that is used in patients

with penicillin allergy or in patients with renal
insufficiency that cannot tolerate aminoglycosides.
Which bacterial subunit is targeted by Clindamycin?
Which bacterial subunit is targeted by Clindamycin?
50S
[...]
What type nucleic acid is found in Rhabdovirus?
What type nucleic acid is found in Rhabdovirus?
Negative ssRNA
[...]
How does Griseofulvin influence P450 activity?
How does Griseofulvin influence P450 activity?
Increase
[...]
Especially increases Warfarin metabolism.

Congenital Syphilis is a form of syphilis that presents with [...] is a form of syphilis that presents with saber shin and
saber shin and saddle nose.
saddle nose.
Congenital syphilis can be prevented by early
treatment in the mother, as placental transmission
typically occurs after the first trimester.
Measles is an infectious disorder caused by a
Paramyxovirus that presents with characteristic Koplik
spots on the oral/buccal mucosa.
[...] is an infectious disorder caused by a Paramyxovirus

that presents with characteristic Koplik spots on the
oral/buccal mucosa.
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella

and Staphylococcus sp. are baceria known to cause
pneumonia in alcoholics and/or IV drug users.
[...], Klebsiella and Staphylococcus sp. are baceria

known to cause pneumonia in alcoholics and/or IV drug
users.

Streptococcus pneumoniae, [...] and Staphylococcus

sp. are baceria known to cause pneumonia in alcoholics
and/or IV drug users.

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella and [...] are

baceria known to cause pneumonia in alcoholics and/or IV
drug users.
Which "group" of Streptococcus bacteria are known to Which "group" of Streptococcus bacteria are known to
cause pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis mainly in babies? cause pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis mainly in babies?
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Strep)
[...]
Group B is for the Babies.

Rubella virus is a Togavirus that causes Rubella.
[...] is a Togavirus that causes Rubella.
What is the MOA of the antifungal Terbinafine?
What is the MOA of the antifungal Terbinafine?
Inhibition of Squalen Epoxidase
[...]
Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in sexually Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in sexually
active patients, albeit rarely?
active patients, albeit rarely?
[...]
Osteomyelitis is quite rare. Septic arthritis is far more

common.
Which bug is associated with branching rods in an oral Which bug is associated with branching rods in an oral
infection with sulfur-containing granules?
infection with sulfur-containing granules?
Actinomyces israelii
[...]
Which form of Leprosy presents with a "glove and

stocking" distribution of digit deformation?
Which form of Leprosy presents with a "glove and

stocking" distribution of digit deformation?
Lepromatous
[...]
This is due to sensory loss and repeates trauma in the

extremities.
Remember, Mycobacterium leprae likes cooler
temperatures and hence infects the skin and
superficial nerves at the extremities.
What is the prophylactic treatment for meningococcal
infection?

infection?
Ciprofloxacin
[...]
Ciprofloxacin = DOC
Rifampin = DOC in children
HIV is a ToRCHeS infection that presents with recurrent [...] is a ToRCHeS infection that presents with recurrent
infections and diarrhea in neonates.
infections and diarrhea in neonates.
Pyrazinamide is an antimycobacterial that is effective in the [...] is an antimycobacterial that is effective in the acidic
acidic pH of phagolysosomes, where engulfed MTB is pH of phagolysosomes, where engulfed MTB is found in
found in macrophages.
macrophages.
Heat-labile toxin and Heat-stable toxin are 2 exotoxins
from Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) that can
cause watery diarrhea by increasing fluid secretion at the
GI epithelium.
[...] and Heat-stable toxin are 2 exotoxins from

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) that can cause
watery diarrhea by increasing fluid secretion at the GI
epithelium.
Heat-labile toxin and Heat-stable toxin are 2 exotoxins

from Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) that can
cause watery diarrhea by increasing fluid secretion at the
GI epithelium.
Heat-labile toxin and [...] are 2 exotoxins from

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) that can cause
watery diarrhea by increasing fluid secretion at the GI
epithelium.
A conjugate vaccine is a type of vaccine that contains

A [...] is a type of vaccine that contains polysaccharide
polysaccharide bacterial capsule antigens conjugated to a bacterial capsule antigens conjugated to a carrier protein,
carrier protein, thereby enhancing its immunogenicity by thereby enhancing its immunogenicity by promoting T-cell
promoting T-cell activation and class switching.
activation and class switching.
A polysaccharide antigen alone cannot be presented to
T-cells.
Such vaccines exist for Pnemococcus, Meningococcus
and H. influenzae type B.
Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1) is a superantigen [...] is a superantigen exotoxin from Staphylococcus
exotoxin from Staphylococcus aureus that brings MHC aureus that brings MHC II and T-cell receptors in close
II and T-cell receptors in close proximity to the antigen
proximity to the antigen binding site, thereby causing
binding site, thereby causing overwhelming IFN-gamma
overwhelming IFN-gamma and IL-2 release.
and IL-2 release.
Thereby causing shock.
What is the treatment for Chagas Disease (Trypanosoma What is the treatment for Chagas Disease (Trypanosoma
cruzi)?
cruzi)?
Nifurtimox
[...]
Tertiary Syphilis is a type of Syphilis that presents with

gummas, tabes dorsalis, general paresis, aortitis and
Argyll-Robertson pupil.
[...] is a type of Syphilis that presents with gummas,

tabes dorsalis, general paresis, aortitis and ArgyllRobertson pupil.
[...] is a glycopeptide antibiotic that is used to treat
MRSA.
Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that is used to

treat MRSA.
What type of motility does Salmonella have?
What type of motility does Salmonella have?
Flagella
[...]
"Salmon can swim" (i.e. Salmonella has a flagella)

Shigella does not have a flagella.
Where in the body are Viridans Streptococci normally
found?
Where in the body are Viridans Streptococci normally

found?
Oropharynx
[...]
What is the cause of Chickenpox?
What is the cause of Chickenpox?
VZV (Varicella-Zoster)
[...]
EBV is a Herpesvirus that can give rise to atypical

lymphocytes (Downey Cells) on a peripheral blood
smear.
[...] is a Herpesvirus that can give rise to atypical

lymphocytes (Downey Cells) on a peripheral blood
smear.
The atypical cells are not B cells. They are reactive

cytotoxic T cells.
What food source is associated with Vibrio
parahaemolyticus food poisoning?

parahaemolyticus food poisoning?
Contaminated seafood
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Lopinavir?
What type of HAART drug is Lopinavir?
Protease inhibitor
[...]
Where in the cell do RNA viruses normally replicate?
Where in the cell do RNA viruses normally replicate?
Cytoplasm, except for Influenza virus and Retroviruses
[...]
Rash and Hepatotoxicity are 2 complications that are

common to all NNRTI HAART drugs.
[...] and Hepatotoxicity are 2 complications that are

Rash and Hepatotoxicity are 2 complications that are

Rash and [...] are 2 complications that are common to all

NNRTI HAART drugs.
Chloroquine is an antiplasmodial drug used as initial

treatment for Malaria that acts by blocking
Plasmodium heme polymerase.
[...] is an antiplasmodial drug used as initial treatment for

Malaria that acts by blocking Plasmodium heme
polymerase.
How does Rifabutin influence cytochrome P450 activity? How does Rifabutin influence cytochrome P450 activity?
No effect
[...]
Which viral protein in HIV functions as the matrix protein?

[...]
Which viral protein in HIV functions as the matrix protein?

p17
cause cystitis and pyelonephritis?
cause cystitis and pyelonephritis?
Fimbriae
[...]
The glycocalyx is a bacterial structure consisting of

polysaccharides that mediates adherence to surfaces,
especially foreign surfaces
The [...] is a bacterial structure consisting of

polysaccharides that mediates adherence to surfaces,
especially foreign surfaces
Such as indwelling catheters.

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Group B Streptococcus
(Streptococcus agalactiae) are 2 species of
Streptococcus that are encapsulated.
[...] and Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus

agalactiae) are 2 species of Streptococcus that are
encapsulated.
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Group B Streptococcus

(Streptococcus agalactiae) are 2 species of
Streptococcus pneumoniae and [...] are 2 species of

Tinea Capitis is a cutaneous mycosis that affects the head [...] is a cutaneous mycosis that affects the head and scalp.
and scalp.
Weil Disease (Icterohemorrhagic Leptospirosis) is a
severe form of Leptospirosis that presents with
jaundice and azotemia from liver and renal dysfunction.
[...] is a severe form of Leptospirosis that presents with

jaundice and azotemia from liver and renal dysfunction.
Also involves fever, hemorrhage and anaemia.

How is CMV transmitted?
Congenitally; Transfusion; Sexual Contact; Saliva; Urine;

Transplant
[...]
Cowpox is a dsDNA Poxvirus that yields "milkmaid

blisters".
[...] is a dsDNA Poxvirus that yields "milkmaid blisters".
Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in Sickle

Cell patients?
Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in Sickle

Cell patients?
Salmonella sp.
[...]
African Sleeping Sickness is a CNS protozoal infection

that presents with enlarged lymph nodes, recurring
fever, somnolence and coma.
[...] is a CNS protozoal infection that presents with

enlarged lymph nodes, recurring fever,
somnolence and coma.
The recurring fever is due to antigenic variation.

What is the pregnancy rating of Fluoroquinolones?
What is the pregnancy rating of Fluoroquinolones?
X; Contraindicated due to possible damage to cartilage
[...]
Fluoroquinolones are also contraindicated in nursing

mothers and children < 18 y/o.
Eosinophilia is an immunological complication of

Macrolide antibiotics.
[...] is an immunological complication of Macrolide

antibiotics.
Erythemia Chronicum Migrans is an initial cutaneous [...] is an initial cutaneous feature of Lyme Disease that is
feature of Lyme Disease that is described as an expanding
described as an expanding "bull's eye", red,
"bull's eye", red, target rash.
target rash.
Other initial features include flu-like symptoms and

facial nerve palsy.
How is Strongyloides stercoralis transmitted?
How is Strongyloides stercoralis transmitted?
Larvae in the soil penetrate the skin
[...]
What type of gastrointestinal ulcer is most commonly

associated with Helicobacter pylori?
What type of gastrointestinal ulcer is most commonly

associated with Helicobacter pylori?
Duodenal
[...]
The louse is an insect that serves as the vector for

The [...] is an insect that serves as the vector for Borrelia
Borrelia recurrentis (Relapsing Fever) as it has variable recurrentis (Relapsing Fever) as it has variable surface
surface antigens.
antigens.
The antigen variability makes it recurrent.
How is Q Fever (Coxiella burnetti) transmitted?
How is Q Fever (Coxiella burnetti) transmitted?
Aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid
[...]
What type of diarrhea is caused by Clostridium difficile? What type of diarrhea is caused by Clostridium difficile?
Watery
[...]
Also causes Pseudomembranous colitis.

Occassionally causes bloody diarrhea.
Which stain is used to diagnose Whipple Disease
(Tropheryma whipplei)?
Which stain is used to diagnose Whipple Disease

(Tropheryma whipplei)?
PAS stain
[...]
Lipid A is a component of the outer membrane in gramnegative bacteria that induces TNF and IL-1.
[...] is a component of the outer membrane in gramnegative bacteria that induces TNF and IL-1.
What is the most common serotype

of Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)?
What is the most common serotype

of Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)?
O157:H7
[...]
HIV-1 Protease is an HIV viral enzyme that is required for [...] is an HIV viral enzyme that is required for virion
virion assembly as it cleaves the polypeptide products of assembly as it cleaves the polypeptide products of HIV
HIV mRNA into their functional parts.
mRNA into their functional parts.
Hence, protease inhibitors prevent maturation of new
viruses.
Echinocandins are a class of antifungal agents that function [...] are a class of antifungal agents that function to inhibit
to inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting the synthesis of
cell wall synthesis by inhibiting the synthesis of betabeta-glucan.
glucan.
Caspofungin; Micafungin; Anidulafungin
What colour pigment is associated with Pseudomonas
aeruginosa?
What colour pigment is associated with Pseudomonas

aeruginosa?
Blue-green
[...]
What type of hemolysis is associated with the formation of What type of hemolysis is associated with the formation of
a green ring around colonies on blood agar?
a green ring around colonies on blood agar?
Alpha-hemolysis
[...]
What is the gram stain of Shigella?
What is the gram stain of Shigella?
Negative
[...]
What is the mechanism of resistance for Vancomycin?
What is the mechanism of resistance for Vancomycin?
Bacterial modification of D-Ala-D-Ala to D-Ala-D-Lac
[...]
Aspergillomas are masses of Aspergillosis fumigatus that

are commonly seen in lung cavities, especially after
Tuberculosis.
[...] are masses of Aspergillosis fumigatus that are

commonly seen in lung cavities, especially after
Tuberculosis.
Which type of hepatitis is characterised by AST > ALT?
Which type of hepatitis is characterised by AST > ALT?
Alcoholic hepatitis
[...]
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is a genitourinary

disorder caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and
Neisseria gonorrheae that presents with purulent
cervical discharge.
[...] is a genitourinary disorder caused by Chlamydia

trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrheae that presents
with purulent cervical discharge.
How is HBV transmitted?
How is HBV transmitted?
Parenteral
[...]

= anus).
parenterally.
African Sleeping Sickness is a CNS protozoal infection
caused by Trypanosoma brucei subspecies that is
diagnosed by a blood smear.
[...] is a CNS protozoal infection caused by

Trypanosoma brucei subspecies that is diagnosed by a
blood smear.
Chronic Granulomatous Disease is an immune disorder

[...] is an immune disorder that involves a deficiency of
that involves a deficiency of NADPH Oxidase and
NADPH Oxidase and subsequent recurrent infections with
subsequent recurrent infections with catalase-positive
catalase-positive organisms.
organisms.
Which Streptococcus species is known to cause

Rheumatic Fever?

Rheumatic Fever?
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep)
[...]
Systemic mycoses is a broad type of mycosis commonly

caused by dimorphic fungi.
[...] is a broad type of mycosis commonly caused by

dimorphic fungi.
All of them can cause pneumonia and can disseminate.

All can mimic TB (granuloma formation), but unlike
TB, there is no person-to-person transmission.
Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) is an intestinal
nematode that can be diagnosed via the Scotch Tape
test.
[...] is an intestinal nematode that can be diagnosed via the

Scotch Tape test.
Lulz, this is literally what it sounds like. Take scotch

tape and see if you can pull off pinworm eggs from the
anal area.
How do CSF glucose levels change in bacterial
meningitis?
How do CSF glucose levels change in bacterial

meningitis?
Decrease
[...]
Pulmonary Anthrax is a type of Anthrax that is obtained

via inhalation of spores.
[...] is a type of Anthrax that is obtained via inhalation of

spores.
Large Cell Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma is a Non-Hodgkin

Lymphoma that is seen in HIV patients, often on the
oropharynx (Waldeyer Ring).
[...] is a Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma that is seen in HIV

patients, often on the oropharynx (Waldeyer Ring).
May be associated with EBV.

What is the gram stain of Nocardia?
What is the gram stain of Nocardia?
Positive; also weakly acid fast
[...]
Which form of Syphilis is associated with CN VIII

(Vestibulocochlear Nerve) Deafness?
Which form of Syphilis is associated with CN VIII

(Vestibulocochlear Nerve) Deafness?
Congenital syphilis
[...]
Where in the lung does reactivation of Tuberculosis

normally occur?
Where in the lung does reactivation of Tuberculosis

normally occur?
Upper lobe
[...]
Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacteria that

can be used to grow Haemophilus influenzae due to its
ability to provide Factor V (NAD+).
[...] is a gram-positive bacteria that can be used to grow

Haemophilus influenzae due to its ability to provide
Factor V (NAD+).
What is the initial treatment for Malaria (Plasmodium

spp.)?
What is the initial treatment for Malaria (Plasmodium

spp.)?
Chloroquine
[...]
Blocks Plasmodium heme polymerase.
Diptheria Toxin is an exotoxin from Corynebacterium

diphtheriae that causes pharyngitis with
pseudomembranes in the throat and severe
lymphadenopathy ("bull neck").
[...] is an exotoxin from Corynebacterium

diphtheriae that causes pharyngitis with
pseudomembranes in the throat and severe
lymphadenopathy ("bull neck").
What is the urease expression of Staphylococcus

epidermidis?

epidermidis?
Positive
[...]
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) is a Paramyxovirus that [...] is a Paramyxovirus that causes bronchiolitis in babies.
causes bronchiolitis in babies.
What is the etiology of Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease?
What is the etiology of Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease?
Coxsackievirus Type A
[...]
What is the mechanism of resistance to

Acyclovir/Famciclovir/Valacyclovir?
What is the mechanism of resistance to

Mutated Thymidine Kinase
[...]
Nalidixic Acid is a quinolone antibiotic that functions to

inhibit DNA Gyrase (Topoisomerase II) and
Topoisomerase IV.
[...] is a quinolone antibiotic that functions to inhibit DNA

Gyrase (Topoisomerase II) and Topoisomerase IV.
VDRL is a non-specific test for Syphilis that involves many [...] is a non-specific test for Syphilis that involves many
false positive test results.
false positive test results.
Anaemia (and Aplastic Anaemia) are dosedependent hematological complications of
Chloramphenicol use.
[...] are dose-dependent hematological complications of

Chloramphenicol use.
What is the Novobiocin sensitivity of Staphylococcus

saprophyticus?

saprophyticus?
Resistant
[...]
"NO StRESs"
How is Cryptococcus neoformans infection acquired?
How is Cryptococcus neoformans infection acquired?
Inhalation; spreads to the meninges hematogenously
[...]
What is the gram stain of Klebsiella?
What is the gram stain of Klebsiella?
Negative
[...]
Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic is used before bowel

surgery?
Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic is used before bowel

surgery?
Neomycin
[...]
Which antimycobacterial drug is used as prophylaxis for

Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Which antimycobacterial drug is used as prophylaxis for

Isoniazid
[...]
What is the mechanism of resistance to Chloroquine in

Plasmodium falciparum?
What is the mechanism of resistance to Chloroquine in

Plasmodium falciparum?
Membrane pump that decreases intracellular concentration

of the drug
[...]
cause pneumonia and neonatal meningitis?
cause pneumonia and neonatal meningitis?
K capsule
[...]
What is the toxicity of bacterial endotoxins?
What is the toxicity of bacterial endotoxins?
Low; fatal doses are on the order of hundreds of

micrograms
[...]
What food is associated with Brucella spp. infection?
What food is associated with Brucella spp. infection?
Unpasteurized dairy
[...]
Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that are

[...] are a class of antibiotics that are ineffective against
ineffective against anaerobic bacteria as they require anaerobic bacteria as they require O2 to enter bacterial
O2 to enter bacterial cells.
cells.
AminO2glycosides require O2 to enter bacteria.
How is Toxoplasma gondii transmitted?
How is Toxoplasma gondii transmitted?
Cat feces; ingestion of undercooked meat
[...]
Sydenham Chorea is a neurological complication of

[...] is a neurological complication of Rheumatic Fever that
Rheumatic Fever that involves rapid, involuntary muscle
involves rapid, involuntary muscle movements.
movements.
How is Tularemia (Francisella tularensis) transmitted?
How is Tularemia (Francisella tularensis) transmitted?
Rabbits, ticks, deer fly
[...]
What is the clinical use of Vancomycin?
What is the clinical use of Vancomycin?
Gram-positive only; Multidrug resistant organisms

(MRSA, Enterococci, Clostridium difficile)
[...]
Vancomycin is given as an oral dose in

Pseudomembranous Colitis.
What is the gram stain of Francisella?
What is the gram stain of Francisella?
Negative
[...]
What is the catalase expression of Pseudomonas?
What is the catalase expression of Pseudomonas?
Positive
[...]
Which nematode is associated with perianal pruritis?
Which nematode is associated with perianal pruritis?
Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)
[...]
Which Rhabdovirus (negative ssRNA) is shaped like a

bullet?
Which Rhabdovirus (negative ssRNA) is shaped like a

bullet?
Rabies
[...]
Which class of antimycobacterial is used as

chemoprophylaxis in contact of children with
Haemophilus influenzae type B?
Which class of antimycobacterial is used as

chemoprophylaxis in contact of children with
Haemophilus influenzae type B?
Rifamycins (Rifampin; Rifabutin)
[...]
What is the incubation period for HDV when it is

superinfected on top of HBV?
What is the incubation period for HDV when it is

superinfected on top of HBV?
Short
[...]
Which bacterial ribosomal subunit is targeted by

Aminoglycosides?

Aminoglycosides?
30 S
[...]
Norovirus is a Calicivirus that causes viral gastroenteritis.
[...] is a Calicivirus that causes viral gastroenteritis.
Elephantiasis is a complication of Wucheria

[...] is a complication of Wucheria bancrofti infection that
bancrofti infection that involves a blockage of lymphatic
involves a blockage of lymphatic vessels.
vessels.
Takes 9 months to 1 year after an infectious bite to
becomes symptomatic.
What is the vaginal pH in Bacterial Vaginosis?
What is the vaginal pH in Bacterial Vaginosis?
> 4.5
[...]

Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

Tellurite agar; Loffler medium
[...]
What is the treatment for Echinococcus

granulosus (hydatid cysts)?
What is the treatment for Echinococcus

granulosus (hydatid cysts)?
Albendazole
[...]
What is the MOA of Heat-stable Toxin from

What is the MOA of Heat-stable Toxin from

Overactivation of Guanylate cyclase, thereby causing

increased cGMP levels and a decrease in NaCl and H2O
resorption at the gut
[...]
Kuru is an acquired form of spongiform encephalopathy

that is caused by prions.
[...] is an acquired form of spongiform encephalopathy

that is caused by prions.
Spongiform encephalopathy is characterized by

dementia, ataxia and death.
Which species of Clostridium often causes infection

following antibiotic use, especially clindamycin or
ampicillin?
Which species of Clostridium often causes infection

following antibiotic use, especially clindamycin or
ampicillin?
Clostridium difficile
[...]
HBV is a viral nocosomial infection that has working at a [...] is a viral nocosomial infection that has working at a
renal dialysis unit as a risk factor.
renal dialysis unit as a risk factor.
Nafcillin, Oxacillin and Dicloxacillin are beta-lactamase
[...], Oxacillin and Dicloxacillin are beta-lactamase
resistant penicillins that resist penicillinase action due to a resistant penicillins that resist penicillinase action due to a
bulky R-group that blocks access to the beta-lactam ring. bulky R-group that blocks access to the beta-lactam ring.
Nafcillin, [...] and Dicloxacillin are beta-lactamase
Nafcillin, Oxacillin and [...] are beta-lactamase
What generation Cephalosporin is Ceftaroline?
What generation Cephalosporin is Ceftaroline?
5th
[...]
Indinavir is an HIV Protease inhibitor that is associated

with hematuria and nephropathy.
[...] is an HIV Protease inhibitor that is associated with

hematuria and nephropathy.
What is the gram stain of Treponema?
What is the gram stain of Treponema?
Negative
[...]
Which exotoxin from Bacillus cereus causes the emetic

type of Bacillus cereus food poisoning?
Which exotoxin from Bacillus cereus causes the emetic

type of Bacillus cereus food poisoning?
Cereulide
[...]
Catalase and/or Superoxide dismutase are enzymes

involved with the detoxification of ROS that are often
absent in obligate anaerobes.
[...] and/or Superoxide dismutase are enzymes involved

with the detoxification of ROS that are often absent in
obligate anaerobes.
Catalase and/or Superoxide dismutase are enzymes

involved with the detoxification of ROS that are often
absent in obligate anaerobes.
Catalase and/or [...] are enzymes involved with the

detoxification of ROS that are often absent in obligate
anaerobes.
Which species of Pneumocystis causes

Pneumocystis Pneumonia?
Which species of Pneumocystis causes

Pneumocystis Pneumonia?
Pneumocystis jirovecii
[...]
A diffuse interstitial pneumonia seen in the

immunocompromised, especially AIDS.
Most infections are asymptomatic.
Diagnosed by lung biopsy or lavage.
Dementia is a CNS complication seen in HIV that is
directly associated with HIV and must be differentiated
from other causes.
[...] is a CNS complication seen in HIV that is directly

associated with HIV and must be differentiated from other
causes.
Rhagades are a facial malformation seen in congenital

[...] are a facial malformation seen in congenital Syphilis
Syphilis that are described as linear scares at the angle that are described as linear scares at the angle of the
of the mouth.
mouth.
Which ribosomal subunits make up bacterial ribosomes?
Which ribosomal subunits make up bacterial ribosomes?
30S; 50S
[...]
How is Neisseria gonorrhoeae transmitted?
How is Neisseria gonorrhoeae transmitted?
Sexually
[...]
Hairy Leukoplakia is a dermatological infection caused by [...] is a dermatological infection caused by EBV in HIV
EBV in HIV patients that commonly presents on the lateral patients that commonly presents on the lateral tongue.
tongue.
What is the treatment for Schistosomiasis (Schistosoma)? What is the treatment for Schistosomiasis (Schistosoma)?
Praziquantel
[...]
Itraconazole is an Azole antifungal agent that is used to

treat Blastomyces, Coccidioides and
Histoplasma infection.
[...] is an Azole antifungal agent that is used to treat

Blastomyces, Coccidioides and Histoplasma infection.
Woolsorters' Disease is a type of pulmonary anthrax that

is obtained from the inhalation of spores from
contaminated wool.
[...] is a type of pulmonary anthrax that is obtained from

the inhalation of spores from contaminated wool.
Klebsiella spp. is a gram-negative intestinal flora that

grows very mucoid colonies due to an abundance of
polysaccharide capsules.
[...] is a gram-negative intestinal flora that grows very

mucoid colonies due to an abundance of polysaccharide
capsules.
Babesiosis is a hematological protozoal infection that is [...] is a hematological protozoal infection that is diagnosed
diagnosed by a "Maltese cross" in RBCs in a peripheral by a "Maltese cross" in RBCs in a peripheral blood
blood smear.
smear.
(1) shows a ring form in the RBC, which is also seen in

Malaria. So be sure to either look for the Maltese
cross or double check the transmission/presentation to
confirm that it is Babesiosis.
What is the MOA of Azole antifungals?
What is the MOA of Azole antifungals?
Inhibition of Ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting the

Cytochrome P450 enzyme that converts Lanosterol to
Ergosterol
[...]
Scarlet Fever is a toxigenic complication of Streptococcus

pyogenes infection that involves a scarlet rash with
sandpaper-like texture, a strawberry tongue and
circumoral pallor.
[...] is a toxigenic complication of Streptococcus

pyogenes infection that involves a scarlet rash with
sandpaper-like texture, a strawberry tongue and
circumoral pallor.
Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker Syndrome is an
[...] is an inherited spongiform encephalopathy caused by
inherited spongiform encephalopathy caused by prions.
prions.
[...] is a gram-negative obligate aerobe that is often seen
as a complication in diabetes.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative obligate

aerobe that is often seen as a complication in diabetes.
Which gram-negative intestinal flora is associated with red Which gram-negative intestinal flora is associated with red
"currant jelly" sputum?
"currant jelly" sputum?
Klebsiella spp.
[...]
What is the most common etiology of Mononucleosis?
What is the most common etiology of Mononucleosis?
EBV
[...]
Candida albicans is a dimorphic fungi that commonly

causes vulvovaginitis, especially in diabetics and
following antibiotic use.
[...] is a dimorphic fungi that commonly causes

vulvovaginitis, especially in diabetics and following
antibiotic use.
IgA Protease is a protein secreted by Neisseria spp. that [...] is a protein secreted by Neisseria spp. that functions
functions to cleave secreted host IgA.
to cleave secreted host IgA.
Giardiasis is a protozoal GI infection that is diagnosed by
trophozoites or cysts in the stool.
[...] is a protozoal GI infection that is diagnosed by

trophozoites or cysts in the stool.
Enfuvirtide is an HAART drug that binds to gp41,

thereby inhibiting viral entry.
[...] is an HAART drug that binds to gp41, thereby

inhibiting viral entry.
Which Streptococcus species is considered Group B

Strep?
Which Streptococcus species is considered Group B

Strep?
Streptococcus agalactiae
[...]
Rabies is a Rhabdovirus that travels to and infects the

[...] is a Rhabdovirus that travels to and infects the CNS
CNS by migrating in a retrograde fashion up nerve axons.
by migrating in a retrograde fashion up nerve axons.
What is a positive urinary leukocyte esterase
test indicative of?
What is a positive urinary leukocyte esterase

test indicative of?
Bacterial UTI
[...]
Which stain is used to best visualize Chlamydia?
Which stain is used to best visualize Chlamydia?
Giemsa stain
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Togavirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Togavirus?
Positive ssRNA
[...]
What is the most common nocosomial UTI infection?
What is the most common nocosomial UTI infection?
Escherichia coli
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Zidovudine (ZDV; AZT)?
What type of HAART drug is Zidovudine (ZDV; AZT)?
NRTI
[...]
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Group B Strep

What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Group B Strep

Beta-hemolysis
[...]
Catalase-negative
Bacitracin resistant.
What colour colonies do lactose fermenting bacteria yield What colour colonies do lactose fermenting bacteria yield
on Eosin-Methylene Blue (EMB) agar?
on Eosin-Methylene Blue (EMB) agar?
Purple/black
[...]
Escherichia coli grows purple colonies with a green

sheen.
What form of Syphilis is associated with Charcot joint
(Neuropathic arthropathy)?
What form of Syphilis is associated with Charcot joint

(Neuropathic arthropathy)?
Tertiary Syphilis; Neurosyphilis
[...]
Charcot joint involves progressive degeneration of a

weight bearing joint due to decreased peripheral
sensation/proprioception/motor control (e.g.
Neurosyphilis).
What is the treatment for Leishmaniasis?
What is the treatment for Leishmaniasis?
Sodium stibogluconate
[...]
What class of antibiotic is Gentamicin?
What class of antibiotic is Gentamicin?
Aminoglycoside
[...]
Negative stranded RNA viruses must bring along

an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase in order to
transcribe their negative strand in positive strand RNA
(mRNA)
Negative stranded RNA viruses must bring along an [...] in

order to transcribe their negative strand in positive strand
RNA (mRNA)
What is the incubation period for HEV?
What is the incubation period for HEV?
Short
[...]
What is the gram stain of Borrelia?
What is the gram stain of Borrelia?
Negative
[...]
Zanamivir and Oseltamivir are antiviral agents that treat [...] and Oseltamivir are antiviral agents that treat Influenza
Influenza A and B by inhibiting neuraminidase, thereby A and B by inhibiting neuraminidase, thereby inhibiting
inhibiting release of progeny viruses.
release of progeny viruses.
Zanamivir and Oseltamivir are antiviral agents that treat Zanamivir and [...] are antiviral agents that treat Influenza
Influenza A and B by inhibiting neuraminidase, thereby A and B by inhibiting neuraminidase, thereby inhibiting
inhibiting release of progeny viruses.
release of progeny viruses.
Cefepime is a 4th generation Cephalosporin that has

increased activity against Pseudomonas and grampositives.
[...] is a 4th generation Cephalosporin that has increased

activity against Pseudomonas and gram-positives.
Primary Syphilis is a type of Syphilis that presents with

localized, painless chancres.
[...] is a type of Syphilis that presents with localized,

painless chancres.
Sorry, but you knew there was going to be a dick pic

when it came to Syphilis...
What is the etiology of River Blindness?
What is the etiology of River Blindness?
Onchocerca volvulus
[...]
Botulism is a neurological disorder caused by the

Botulinum toxin from Clostridium botulinum that
presents with flaccid paralysis or as Floppy Baby
Syndrome in infants.
[...] is a neurological disorder caused by the Botulinum

toxin from Clostridium botulinum that presents with
flaccid paralysis or as Floppy Baby Syndrome in
infants.
Which chemical compound found in the core of bacterial

spores functions to contribute to their heat resistance?
Which chemical compound found in the core of bacterial

spores functions to contribute to their heat resistance?
Dipicolinic Acid
[...]
Spores must be autoclaved to be killed (steamed at

121 C for 15 min).
Spore forming gram-positives in soil:
- Bacillus anthracis
- Clostridium perfringens
- Clostridium tetani
Other spore forming bactera:
- Bacillus cereus
- Clostridium botulinum
- Coxiella burnetti
The killed viral flu vaccine is the form of flu vaccine that is The [...] flu vaccine is the form of flu vaccine that is most
most frequently used.
frequently used.
Chloramphenicol?

Chloramphenicol?
50S
[...]
How is Taenia solium transmitted?
How is Taenia solium transmitted?
Ingestion of larvae encysted in undercooked pork;

Ingestion of eggs
[...]
Basically just remember "via ingestion" and

"undercooked pork" for the larvae.
What is the etiology of Travelers' Diarrhea?
What is the etiology of Travelers' Diarrhea?
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
[...]
Watery diarrhea.
ETEC = Travelers' Diarrhea
[...] is a species of bacteria that causes UTI. Some strains
produce a red pigment.
Serratia marcensens is a species of bacteria that causes

UTI. Some strains produce a red pigment.
Often nocosomial and drug resistant.
Pontiac Fever is a fever caused by Legionella
pneumophila that presents as a mild flu-like syndrome.
[...] is a fever caused by Legionella pneumophila that

presents as a mild flu-like syndrome.
Mucormycosis is an opportunistic fungal infection that

presents with rhinocerebral and frontal lobe
abscesses.
[...] is an opportunistic fungal infection that presents with

rhinocerebral and frontal lobe abscesses.
How is pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis) transmitted? How is pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis) transmitted?
Fecal-oral
[...]
Which viral gene in HIV codes for its Integrase?
Which viral gene in HIV codes for its Integrase?
pol
[...]
What is the MOA of the antifungal Amphotericin B?
What is the MOA of the antifungal Amphotericin B?
Binds to Ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, thereby

forming a membrane pore that allows the leakage of
electrolytes
[...]
Ampho"tear"-icin "tears" a hole into the fungal

membrane by forming a pore.
Which bacteria is the most common cause of meningitis?
Which bacteria is the most common cause of meningitis?
[...]
Trimethoprim is a folate synthesis inhibiting antibiotic [...] is a folate synthesis inhibiting antibiotic that is used
that is used as a treatment and prophylaxis for
as a treatment and prophylaxis for Pneumocytis
Pneumocytis jirovecii pneumonia.
jirovecii pneumonia.
What type of nucleic acid is found in Herpesviruses?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Herpesviruses?
dsDNA
[...]
What is the MOA of Zanamivir and Oseltamivir?
What is the MOA of Zanamivir and Oseltamivir?
Inhibition of Neuraminidase, thereby decreasing the

release of progeny viruses
[...]
What is the etiology of Q Fever?
What is the etiology of Q Fever?
Coxiella burnetti
[...]
How is HHV-8 transmitted?
How is HHV-8 transmitted?
Sexual contact
[...]
What is the only bacterium with a polypeptide capsule?
What is the only bacterium with a polypeptide capsule?
Bacillus anthracis
[...]
It contains D-glutamate
Which serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis are
associated with blindness due to Follicular Conjunctivitis, associated with blindness due to Follicular Conjunctivitis,
especially in Africa?
especially in Africa?
A; B; C
[...]
ABC = Africa; Blindness; Conjunctivitis/Chronic

infection
What is the treatment for Giardiasis?
What is the treatment for Giardiasis?
Metronidazole
[...]
Inhibition of translocation, by binding to the 23S rRNA

of the 50S subunit
[...]
Septic Arthritis is a musculoskeletal complication of

Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection.
[...] is a musculoskeletal complication of Neisseria

gonorrhoeae infection.
What is the treatment for Syphilis?
What is the treatment for Syphilis?
Penicillin G
[...]
Which CD4+ cell count is associated with opportunistic

Histoplasma capsulatum infections in HIV patients?
Which CD4+ cell count is associated with opportunistic

Histoplasma capsulatum infections in HIV patients?
< 100 cells/mm3
[...]
Aspergillosis is an opportunistic fungal infection that is

commonly seen in patients with Chronic Granulomatous
Disease.
[...] is an opportunistic fungal infection that is commonly

seen in patients with Chronic Granulomatous Disease.
Also seen in the immunocompromised.

What type of media is required to culture Vibrio
cholerae?
What type of media is required to culture Vibrio

cholerae?
An alkaline media
[...]
Which viral protein in HIV functions as the capsid protein? Which viral protein in HIV functions as the capsid protein?
p24
[...]
Haemophilus influenzae type B is a species of

Haemophilus that is encapsulated.
[...] is a species of Haemophilus that is encapsulated.
IFN-alpha is an Interferon used to treat Renal Cell

Carcinoma.
[...] is an Interferon used to treat Renal Cell Carcinoma.
Why doesn't Treponema gram stain well?
Why doesn't Treponema gram stain well?
Too thin to be visualized
[...]
Treponemes require dark-field microscopy and

fluorescent antibody staining.
How do AST levels change in Hepatitis?
How do AST levels change in Hepatitis?
Increase
[...]
Aminoglycosides are a type of protein synthesis

inhibiting antibiotic that require O2 for uptake, hence
they are ineffective against anerobes.
[...] are a type of protein synthesis inhibiting

antibiotic that require O2 for uptake, hence they are
ineffective against anerobes.
What is the etiology of Cat Scratch Disease?
What is the etiology of Cat Scratch Disease?
Bartonella spp.
[...]
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Viridans

streptococci (e.g. Streptococcus mutans)?
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Viridans

streptococci (e.g. Streptococcus mutans)?
Alpha-hemolysis
[...]
Catalase-negative
Optochin resistant
What is the treatment for Acyclovir-resistant HSV?
What is the treatment for Acyclovir-resistant HSV?
Foscarnet or Cidofovir
[...]
Papillomavirus, Polyomavirus and Hepadnavirus are the [...], Polyomavirus and Hepadnavirus are the only 3 DNA
only 3 DNA viruses that have circular genomes.
viruses that have circular genomes.
The remaining DNA viruses are all linear.
Papillomavirus, Polyomavirus and Hepadnavirus are the
Papillomavirus, [...] and Hepadnavirus are the only 3

DNA viruses that have circular genomes.

Papillomavirus, Polyomavirus and Hepadnavirus are the Papillomavirus, Polyomavirus and [...] are the only 3 DNA
viruses that have circular genomes.
Cutaneous Anthrax is a type of anthrax that presents with
boil-like lesions and ulcers with black eschars.
[...] is a type of anthrax that presents with boil-like

lesions and ulcers with black eschars.
The boils/ulcers are painless but necrotic.

Very uncommonly does cutaneous anthrax progress to
bacteremia and death.
Transformation is a bacterial genetic process through with
naked DNA is taken up from the environment.
Especially seen with Streptococcus pneumoniae,
Haemophilus influenzae type B and Neisseria spp.
(SHiN).
[...] is a bacterial genetic process through with naked

DNA is taken up from the environment.

saprophyticus?

saprophyticus?
Positive
[...]
What is the catalase expression of Staphylococcus spp.? What is the catalase expression of Staphylococcus spp.?
Positive
[...]
How do CSF glucose levels change in viral meningitis?
How do CSF glucose levels change in viral meningitis?
Normal; viruses do not use glucose, remember?
[...]
Gynecomastia is a hormonal complication of Azole

[...] is a hormonal complication of Azole antifungal use due
antifungal use due to inhibition of testosterone synthesis.
to inhibition of testosterone synthesis.
Especially seen with Ketoconazole.
What is the prophylactic treatment for postsurgical
Staphylococcus aureus infection?
What is the prophylactic treatment for postsurgical

Staphylococcus aureus infection?
Cefazolin
[...]
What is the MOA of Metronidazole?
What is the MOA of Metronidazole?
Formation of free radical toxic metabolites in the cell that

damage DNA
[...]
Bactericidal and antiprotozoal.

Which immunoglobulin against HAV indicates
active Hepatitis A?
Which immunoglobulin against HAV indicates

active Hepatitis A?
Anti-HAV IgM
[...]
What type of stain is used to visualize Legionella?
What type of stain is used to visualize Legionella?
Silver stain
[...]
What type of diarrhea is caused by most protozoa?
What type of diarrhea is caused by most protozoa?
Watery
[...]
e.g. Giardia, Cryptosporidium

Cough, Coryza and Conjuncitivits is a triad of symptoms
referred to as the "Three C's of Measles."
[...], Coryza and Conjuncitivits is a triad of symptoms

Cough, Coryza and Conjuncitivits is a triad of symptoms

Cough, [...] and Conjuncitivits is a triad of symptoms

Cough, Coryza and Conjuncitivits is a triad of symptoms Cough, Coryza and [...] is a triad of symptoms referred to
as the "Three C's of Measles."
What type of Anthrax presents with cutaneous ulcers with What type of Anthrax presents with cutaneous ulcers with
black eschars?
black eschars?
Cutaneous Anthrax
[...]
Shiga Toxin (ST) is an exotoxin from Shigella spp. that

can enhance cytokine release, thereby causing Hemolytic
Uremia Syndrome (HUS).
[...] is an exotoxin from Shigella spp. that can enhance

cytokine release, thereby causing Hemolytic Uremia
Syndrome (HUS).
What is the etiology of Gonorrhea?
Neisseria gonorrheae
[...]
What is the treatment for Neisseria meningitidis?
What is the treatment for Neisseria meningitidis?
Ceftriaxone (or Penicillin G)
[...]
Tinea Versicolour is a cutaneous mycosis that involves

[...] is a cutaneous mycosis that involves damage to
damage to melanocytes and subsequent hyper- or
melanocytes and subsequent hyper- or hypopigmented
hypopigmented patches due to acids produced from patches due to acids produced from degradation of lipids.
degradation of lipids.
Caused by Malassezia furfur; Malassezia globosa;
Malassezia sympodialis
Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC) is a strain of
Escherichia coli that adheres to the apical surface of
GI epithelium, flattens villi and thereby causes
malabsorption.
[...] is a strain of Escherichia coli that adheres to the

apical surface of GI epithelium, flattens villi and
thereby causes malabsorption.
Causes watery diarrhea, typically in children.

EPEC = Pediatric patients
Coxsackievirus is a Picornavirus that causes aseptic
meningitis, herpangina, hand-foot-mouth disease,
myocarditis and pericarditis.
[...] is a Picornavirus that causes aseptic meningitis,

herpangina, hand-foot-mouth disease, myocarditis and
pericarditis.
Terbinafine is an antifungal agent that is associated with

taste disturbance as a side effect.
[...] is an antifungal agent that is associated with taste

disturbance as a side effect.
Which Streptococcus species is considered Group A

Strep?
Which Streptococcus species is considered Group A

Strep?
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Coronaviruses?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Coronaviruses?
Positive ssRNA
[...]
Endotoxin is a virulence factor found in the outer cell

membrane of most gram-negative bacteria.
[...] is a virulence factor found in the outer cell

membrane of most gram-negative bacteria.

aerobe that is often seen in burn wounds.
[...] is a gram-negative obligate aerobe that is often seen in

burn wounds.
Whooping cough is a respiratory disorder caused by

Pertussis Toxin from Bordetella pertussis and involves a
cough on expiration and a "whoop" on inspiration.
[...] is a respiratory disorder caused by Pertussis Toxin

from Bordetella pertussis and involves a cough on
expiration and a "whoop" on inspiration.
Typically affects children.

Toxin may not actually be a cause of the cough.
Can cause a "100-day cough" in adults.
Which bacteria often causes subacute Pelvic

Inflammatory Disease (PID) and hence often goes
undiagnosed?
Which bacteria often causes subacute Pelvic

Inflammatory Disease (PID) and hence often goes
undiagnosed?
[...]
Ribavirin is an antiviral agent that is avoided in pregnancy [...] is an antiviral agent that is avoided in pregnancy as it
as it is teratogenic.
is teratogenic.
What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
Metronidazole
[...]
What is the treatment for Naegleria fowleri infection?
What is the treatment for Naegleria fowleri infection?
Amphotericin B has been effective for a few survivors
[...]
Tropheryma whipplei is a bacteria that causes Whipple [...] is a bacteria that causes Whipple Disease and yields a
Disease and yields a positive PAS test.
positive PAS test.
What is the reservoir for Salmonella typhi?
What is the reservoir for Salmonella typhi?
Humans only
[...]
It can remain in the gallbladder and cause a carrier

state.
What is the treatment for Nocardia spp. infection?
What is the treatment for Nocardia spp. infection?
Sulfonamides
[...]
e.g. Sulfamethoxazole (SMX)

Rotavirus is a dsRNA Reovirus that is a major cause of
acute diarrhea in the USA during the winter, especially in
day-care centers and kindergartens.
[...] is a dsRNA Reovirus that is a major cause of acute

diarrhea in the USA during the winter, especially in daycare centers and kindergartens.
ROTA = Right Out The Anus

What is the etiology of Syphilis?
What is the etiology of Syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
[...]

associated with Neonatal Pneumonia (Staccato Cough)?

associated with Neonatal Pneumonia (Staccato Cough)?
D-K
[...]
[...]
[...] is an exotoxin from Enterotoxigenic Escherichia
coli (ETEC) that overactivates adenylate cyclase, thereby
causing increased Cl secretion and H2O efflux at the gut.
Heat-labile toxin (LT) is an exotoxin from Enterotoxigenic

Escherichia coli (ETEC) that overactivates adenylate
cyclase, thereby causing increased Cl secretion and H2O
efflux at the gut.
Increased cAMP = increased Cl secretion and H2O
efflux = watery diarrhea
Which opportunistic fungus causes Cryptococcal
Meningitis and Cryptococcosis?
Which opportunistic fungus causes Cryptococcal

Meningitis and Cryptococcosis?
Cryptococcus neoformans
[...]
What is the MOA of the antifungal Flucytosine?
What is the MOA of the antifungal Flucytosine?
Inhibition of DNA and RNA biosynthesis via conversion

to 5-Fluorouracil by Cytosine Deaminase
[...]
What is the cause of Chlamydia?
What is the cause of Chlamydia?
Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K
[...]
Staphylococcus epidermidis is a Staphylococcus species [...] is a Staphylococcus species that commonly infects
that commonly infects prosthetic devices and intravenous prosthetic devices and intravenous catheters by producing
catheters by producing adherent biofilms.
adherent biofilms.
Component of normal skin flora.
Contaminates blood cultures.
Novobiocin sensitive.
Cilastatin is a drug that is always co-administered with
Carbapanem antibiotics in order to decrease the
inactivation of the drug in the renal tubules.
[...] is a drug that is always co-administered with

Carbapanem antibiotics in order to decrease the
inactivation of the drug in the renal tubules.
Hydrogen sulfide is a chemical compound with a

characteristic smell of rotten eggs. It is made by
Salmonella, but not Shigella.
[...] is a chemical compound with a characteristic smell of

rotten eggs. It is made by Salmonella, but not Shigella.
What is the vector for Endemic Typhus (Rickettsia

typhi)?
What is the vector for Endemic Typhus (Rickettsia

typhi)?
Fleas
[...]
Which cestode (tapeworm) is associated with liver hydatid Which cestode (tapeworm) is associated with liver hydatid
cysts?
cysts?
Echinococcus granulosus
[...]
Which type of bacteria are treated by Penicillin G and V? Which type of bacteria are treated by Penicillin G and V?
Mostly gram-positive(Streptococcus pneumoniae;
Streptococcus pyogenes; Actinomyces); Also Neisseria
meningitidis and Treponema pallidum
[...]
What is the etiology of Epidemic Typhus?
What is the etiology of Epidemic Typhus?
Rickettsia prowazekii
[...]
EPidemic = Prowazeki
What type nucleic acid is found in Filovirus?
What type nucleic acid is found in Filovirus?
Negative ssRNA
[...]
Linezolid is a protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic that acts [...] is a protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic that acts at
at the 50S ribosomal subunit to treat MRSA and VRE.
the 50S ribosomal subunit to treat MRSA and VRE.
Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli,
and Listeria monocytogenes are bacteria that all cause
meningitis in neonates.
[...], Escherichia coli, and Listeria monocytogenes are

bacteria that all cause meningitis in neonates.

Streptococcus agalactiae, [...], and Listeria

monocytogenes are bacteria that all cause meningitis in
neonates.

Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli, and [...] are
bacteria that all cause meningitis in neonates.
Beta-galactosidase is an enzyme produced by
Escherichia coli that breaks down lactose into glucose
and galactose.
[...] is an enzyme produced by Escherichia coli that

breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose.
Parotitis is a feature of Mumps that presents with a

swollen neck and parotid glands.
[...] is a feature of Mumps that presents with a swollen

neck and parotid glands.
What is the oxygen dependency of Clostridium?
What is the oxygen dependency of Clostridium?
Obligate anaerobe
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Darunavir?
What type of HAART drug is Darunavir?
Protease inhibitor
[...]
What is the etiology of meningococcemia?
What is the etiology of meningococcemia?
[...]
What is the MOA of Penicillin?
What is the MOA of Penicillin?
Inhibition of Transpeptidase, thereby inhibiting

peptidoglycan cross-linking; Activation of autolytic
enzymes
[...]
Gardnerella vaginalis is a pleomorphic, gram-variable [...] is a pleomorphic, gram-variable bacillus that yields a
bacillus that yields a nonpainful vaginosis.
nonpainful vaginosis.
The nonpainful point is important as vaginitis presents
with pain.
Parainfluenzavirus is a Paramyxovirus that causes Croup.
[...] is a Paramyxovirus that causes Croup.

Which antibody against HBV indicates immunity to
Hepatitis B?
[...]
Which antibody against HBV indicates immunity to

Hepatitis B?
Anti-HBsAg antibodies
Which immunoglobulin against HAV indicates prior

infection or vaccination to HAV?
Which immunoglobulin against HAV indicates prior

infection or vaccination to HAV?
Anti-HAV IgG
[...]
Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol are the

4 antimycobacterial drugs used to treat tuberculosis.
[...], Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol are the 4

antimycobacterial drugs used to treat tuberculosis.

Rifampin, [...], Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol are the 4


Rifampin, Isoniazid, [...] and Ethambutol are the 4


Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and [...] are the 4

Which form of Syphilis presents with stroke without

hypertension?
Which form of Syphilis presents with stroke without

hypertension?
Tertiary Syphilis
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Ritonavir?
What type of HAART drug is Ritonavir?
Protease inhibitor
[...]
What is the prophylactic treatment for pregnant women

carrying Group B Strep (Streptococcus agalactiae)?
What is the prophylactic treatment for pregnant women

carrying Group B Strep (Streptococcus agalactiae)?
Ampicillin
[...]
Rickettsia spp. and Chlamydia spp. are obligate

intracellular, pleomorphic, gram-negative bacteria that
cannot make their own ATP.
[...] and Chlamydia spp. are obligate intracellular,

pleomorphic, gram-negative bacteria that cannot make
their own ATP.
Rickettsia spp. and Chlamydia spp. are obligate

intracellular, pleomorphic, gram-negative bacteria that
cannot make their own ATP.
Rickettsia spp. and [...] are obligate intracellular,

pleomorphic, gram-negative bacteria that cannot make
their own ATP.
Q Fever is a Rickettsial disorder caused by Coxiella

burnetti that presents as pneumonia.
[...] is a Rickettsial disorder caused by Coxiella

burnetti that presents as pneumonia.
What Hippurate Test result is yielded by Streptococcus

agalactiae (Group B Strep)?
What Hippurate Test result is yielded by Streptococcus

agalactiae (Group B Strep)?
Positive
[...]
The Hippurate Test gauges whether or not the

organism can hydrolyze hippurate.
Haemophilus influenzae?
[...]

Chocolate agars with Factors V (NAD) and X (Heme)
Exfoliatin is an exotoxin from Staphylococcus aureus that [...] is an exotoxin from Staphylococcus aureus that
causes Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS). causes Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS).
Which exotoxin from Staphylococcus aureus causes
rapid-onset food poisoning?

rapid-onset food poisoning?
Staphylococcal enterotoxins
[...]
Incubation period is very short (2-6 hrs) due to the

toxins being pre-formed. The enterotoxin is heat stable
and hence is not destroyed by cooking.
Penicillinase is a type of beta-lactamase bacteria seen in
bacteria that cleaves beta-lactam rings and causes
Penicillin resistance.
[...] is a type of beta-lactamase bacteria seen in bacteria

that cleaves beta-lactam rings and causes Penicillin
resistance.
Which morphological type of fungi are known to cause

Systemic Mycoses?
Which morphological type of fungi are known to cause

Systemic Mycoses?
Dimorphic fungi; except for Coccidiomycosis (spherule in

tissue, not yeast)
[...]
Remember, Dimorphic fungi are:

- Mold in the Cold (20 C)
- Yeast in the Heat (37 C)
Listeria monocytogenes is a gram-positive facultative
intracellular bacteria that forms "rocket tails" via
manipulation of actin filaments, thereby allowing them to
move through the cytoplasm and cell-to-cell without
entering the ECF.
[...] is a gram-positive facultative intracellular bacteria that

forms "rocket tails" via manipulation of actin filaments,
thereby allowing them to move through the cytoplasm and
cell-to-cell without entering the ECF.
This way, Listeria is able to avoid antibodies.

How is Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) transmitted?
How is Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) transmitted?
Sandfly
[...]
All Leishmania are transmitted via the sandfly.

What type of HAART drug is Maraviroc?
What type of HAART drug is Maraviroc?
Fusioin inhibitor (inhibition at the entry)
[...]
What is the treatment for all Chlamydiae infections?
What is the treatment for all Chlamydiae infections?
Azithromycin (favoured Abx due to one-time treatment);

Doxycycline
[...]
What is the treatment for African Sleeping Sickness?
What is the treatment for African Sleeping Sickness?
Suramin for blood-borne disease or Melarsoprol for CNS

penetration
[...]
"It sure is nice to go to sleep. Melatonin can help with

that."
How do Na levels change in Rotavirus infection?
How do Na levels change in Rotavirus infection?
Decrease due to a decrease in Na absorption (due to

villous destruction and atrophy)
[...]
Where in the body is Staphylococcus aureus normally

found?
Where in the body is Staphylococcus aureus normally

found?
Nose
[...]
Tinea Pedis is cutaneous mycosis of the foot.
[...] is cutaneous mycosis of the foot.
The PAS (Periodic-acid Schiff) stain is a diagnostic stain The [...] is a diagnostic stain that stains for glycogen and
that stains for glycogen and mucopolysaccharides.
mucopolysaccharides.
PASs the sugar (glycogen).
How is Ochocerca volvulus transmitted?
How is Ochocerca volvulus transmitted?
Female blackfly bite
[...]
Where in the body are Group D Streptococci

(Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium)
normally found?
Where in the body are Group D Streptococci

(Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium)
normally found?
Colon
[...]
Group D streptococci include:

Enterococcal
Non-enterococcal (Streptococcus bovis)
Chloroquine is an antiprotozoal that functions to block the
[...] is an antiprotozoal that functions to block the
detoxification of heme into hemozoin, thereby allowing for detoxification of heme into hemozoin, thereby allowing for
toxic heme accumulation.
toxic heme accumulation.
Protein A is a virulence factor from Staphylococcus
aureus that binds to the Fc portion of IgG, thereby
inhibiting complement activation and phagocytosis.
[...] is a virulence factor from Staphylococcus aureus that

binds to the Fc portion of IgG, thereby inhibiting
complement activation and phagocytosis.
What is the treatment for Helicobacter pylori infection?
What is the treatment for Helicobacter pylori infection?
Triple therapy: PPI + Clarithromycin +

Amoxicillin/Metronidazole
[...]
What CD4+ cell count is associated Mycobacterium

avium-intracellulare infection in HIV patients?
What CD4+ cell count is associated Mycobacterium

avium-intracellulare infection in HIV patients?
< 50 cells/mm3
[...]
What type of microscopy is required to visualize

What type of microscopy is required to visualize
Treponema pallidum in the fluid from Syphilis chancres? Treponema pallidum in the fluid from Syphilis chancres?
Dark-field microscopy
[...]
[...] and Piperacillin are antipseudomonal penicillins used

to treat Pseudomonas spp. infections and gram-negative
rods.
Ticarcillin and Piperacillin are antipseudomonal penicillins

used to treat Pseudomonas spp. infections and gramnegative rods.
Extended spectrum.
Beta-lactamase sensitive.
Used with beta-lactamase inhibitors.
Ticarcillin and Piperacillin are antipseudomonal penicillins Ticarcillin and [...] are antipseudomonal penicillins used
used to treat Pseudomonas spp. infections and gram- to treat Pseudomonas spp. infections and gram-negative
negative rods.
rods.
Extended spectrum.
Beta-lactamase sensitive.
Used with beta-lactamase inhibitors.
What is the treatment for life-threatening Malaria?
IV Quinidine
[...]
However you must test for G6PD deficiency first.

What is the gram stain of Pseudomonas?
What is the gram stain of Pseudomonas?
Negative
[...]

associated with Neonatal Conjunctivitis?

associated with Neonatal Conjunctivitis?
D-K
[...]
Neonatal disease is typically acquired during

childbirth through the birthing canal.
Which systemic mycosis involves intracellular yeast that
are smaller than RBCs?
Which systemic mycosis involves intracellular yeast that

are smaller than RBCs?
Histoplasmosis
[...]
What is the mechanism of resistance for Tetracycline

antibiotics?
What is the mechanism of resistance for Tetracycline

antibiotics?
An increase in efflux or decrease in uptake of the drug by

bacterial pumps
[...]
Which major strain of Echerichia coli does not ferment

Sorbitol?
Which major strain of Echerichia coli does not ferment

Sorbitol?
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
[...]
This is how you differentiate EHEC from other

Escherichia coli strains.
What is the coagulase expression of Staphylococcus
aureus?
What is the coagulase expression of Staphylococcus

aureus?
Positive
[...]
Coagulase helps Staphylococcus aureus form fibrin

clots around itself, forming a sort of abscess.
What is the etiology of Chickenpox?
What is the etiology of Chickenpox?
VZV (Varicella-zoster)
[...]
Sexual contact; organ transplantation
[...]
Flushing is a complication of Echinocandin use that results [...] is a complication of Echinocandin use that results due
due to widespread histamine release.
to widespread histamine release.
GI upset is also an adverse effect.
Mycobacteria is a bacterial species that contains mycolic [...] is a bacterial species that contains mycolic acid in its
acid in its cell wall.
cell wall.
Which stain is used to visualize Tropheryma whipplei?
Which stain is used to visualize Tropheryma whipplei?
PAS stain
[...]
The nematodes are a class of parasite that are referred to

as roundworms.
The [...] are a class of parasite that are referred to as

roundworms.
What is the gram stain of Yersinia?
What is the gram stain of Yersinia?
Negative
[...]
Kaposi Sarcoma is a neoplasm of endothelial cells caused [...] is a neoplasm of endothelial cells caused by HHV-8
by HHV-8 that presents with dark/violaceous, flat and that presents with dark/violaceous, flat and nodular
nodular skin lesions that represent endothelial growths.
skin lesions that represent endothelial growths.
The GI and Lungs can also be affected.

Hookworm is an intestinal nematode that causes intestinal [...] is an intestinal nematode that causes intestinal infection
infection that yields anaemia due to blood being sucked that yields anaemia due to blood being sucked from
from the intestinal walls.
the intestinal walls.
Remember, Hookworm = Ancylostoma duodenale &
Necator americanus
Cryptococcus neoformans is an opportunistic fungus that
causes meningitis in HIV patients.
[...] is an opportunistic fungus that causes meningitis in

HIV patients.
India-ink stain will reveal a yeast with narrow-based

budding and large capsule.
Campylobacter jejuni is a comma or S-shaped gramnegative bacillus that grows at 42 C.
[...] is a comma or S-shaped gram-negative bacillus that

grows at 42 C.
CAMPylobacter likes the hot CAMPfire.

What is the incubation period for HDV when it causes
co-infection with HBV?
What is the incubation period for HDV when it causes

co-infection with HBV?
Long
[...]

histolytica)?

histolytica)?
Metronidazole
[...]
What is the vaginal pH in Vaginal Trichomoniasis?
What is the vaginal pH in Vaginal Trichomoniasis?
> 4.5
[...]
Pruritis is a cutaneous complication of Chloroquine use

that is especially seen in dark-skinned individuals.
[...] is a cutaneous complication of Chloroquine use that is

especially seen in dark-skinned individuals.
What type of antibiotic is Clarithromycin?
What type of antibiotic is Clarithromycin?
Macrolide
[...]
How does HDV influence the risk of Hepatocellular

Carcinoma?
How does HDV influence the risk of Hepatocellular

Carcinoma?
Increase
[...]
Tertiary Syphilis is a form of Syphilis that presents with

Gummas (chronic granulomas that form).
[...] is a form of Syphilis that presents with

Gummas (chronic granulomas that form).
How does Shigella disseminate in the body?
How does Shigella disseminate in the body?
Cell to cell
[...]
It does not spread hematogenously (Salmonella does).

What is the gram stain of Proteus?
What is the gram stain of Proteus?
Negative
[...]
Western Equine Encephalitis Virus (WEEV) is an

Arbovirus and Togavirus that causes Western Equine
Encephalitis.
[...] is an Arbovirus and Togavirus that causes Western

Equine Encephalitis.
Tetracyclines are a class of protein synthesis

[...] are a class of protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotics
inhibiting antibiotics that are effective against intracellular that are effective against intracellular organisms by virtue of
organisms by virtue of their ability to accumulate
their ability to accumulate intracellularly.
intracellularly.
e.g. Rickettsia spp., Chlamydiae spp.
How is Bubonic Plague (Yersinia pestis) transmitted?
How is Bubonic Plague (Yersinia pestis) transmitted?
Fleas
[...]
Bacillus anthracis is a gram-positive, spore-forming rod

that causes Anthrax via the anthrax toxin.
[...] is a gram-positive, spore-forming rod that causes

Anthrax via the anthrax toxin.
Risus Sardonicus is a feature of Tetanus that is described

as facial spasms that often follow trismus (lockjaw).
[...] is a feature of Tetanus that is described as facial

spasms that often follow trismus (lockjaw).
Which stain is used to visualize Cryptococcus

neoformans?
Which stain is used to visualize Cryptococcus

neoformans?
India ink
[...]
Mucicarmine can also be used to stain think

polysaccharide capsule red.
What is the oxygen dependency of Actinomyces?
Obligate anerobe
[...]
What is the gram stain of Helicobacter?
What is the gram stain of Helicobacter?
Negative
[...]
What type of diarrhea is caused by ETEC?
What type of diarrhea is caused by ETEC?
Watery
[...]
Causes Traveler's diarrhea.

Produces both a heat-labile and heat-stable toxin.
Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus (LCMV) is an
Arenavirus that causes Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis.
[...] is an Arenavirus that causes Lymphocytic

Choriomeningitis.
How is Roseola (HHV-6) transmitted?
How is Roseola (HHV-6) transmitted?
Saliva
[...]
Which enzyme in fungi converts Flucytosine into 5Fluorouracil?
Which enzyme in fungi converts Flucytosine into 5Fluorouracil?
Cytosine Deaminase
[...]
What is the treatment for Toxoplasmosis?
Sulfadiazine and Pyrimethamine
[...]
Which Plasmodium species is associated with a quartan Which Plasmodium species is associated with a quartan
(72 hrs) cycle of fever?
(72 hrs) cycle of fever?
Plasmodium malariae
[...]
HSV-1 is a Herpesvirus that causes temporal lobe

encephalitis.
[...] is a Herpesvirus that causes temporal lobe

encephalitis.
Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis in the

USA.
Erythromycin and other Macrolides?

Erythromycin and other Macrolides?
50S
[...]
Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) is a visceral protozoal

infection that is diagnosed by the visualization of
macrophages containing amastigotes.
[...] is a visceral protozoal infection that is diagnosed by

the visualization of macrophages containing
amastigotes.
Which bugs are associated with infection in patients with

Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
Which bugs are associated with infection in patients with

Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
Catalase positive microbes; especially Staphylococcus

aureus
[...]
What is the treatment for Lyme Disease?
What is the treatment for Lyme Disease?
Doxycycline; Ceftriaxone
[...]


Lowenstein-Jensen agar
[...]
Fine (Rubella) Rash is a cutaneous feature of Rubella that

involves fine macules that starts on the face and
spreads centrifugally to involve the trunk and
extremities.
[...] is a cutaneous feature of Rubella that involves fine

macules that starts on the face and spreads
centrifugally to involve the trunk and extremities.
Amoebiasis is a GI protozoal infection that presents with a [...] is a GI protozoal infection that presents with a liver
liver abscess that is full of an "anchovy paste"
abscess that is full of an "anchovy paste" exudate.
exudate.
What is the gram stain of Serratia?
What is the gram stain of Serratia?
Negative
[...]
What is the etiology of Cysticercosis and

Neurocysticercosis?
What is the etiology of Cysticercosis and

Neurocysticercosis?
The eggs of Taenia solium
[...]
Snuffles is a feature of congenital syphilis that is described [...] is a feature of congenital syphilis that is described as
as nasal discharge full of syphilis spirochetes.
nasal discharge full of syphilis spirochetes.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Eaton agar (as Mycoplasma requires cholesterol)
[...]
What is the clinical use of Echinocandin antifungals?
What is the clinical use of Echinocandin antifungals?
Invasive Aspergillosis; Candida spp.
[...]
How do antibiotics influence the duration of fecal excretion How do antibiotics influence the duration of fecal excretion
of Salmonella?
of Salmonella?
Prolongation
[...]
What is the second most common cause of UTI in sexually What is the second most common cause of UTI in sexually
active women?
active women?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
[...]
Griseofulvin is an antifungal agent that interferes with

microtubule function, thereby disrupting mitosis.
[...] is an antifungal agent that interferes with microtubule

function, thereby disrupting mitosis.
What is the oxygen dependency of Bacteroides?
[...]
What is the oxygen dependency of Bacteroides?

Obligate anaerobe
What type of microscopy is required to visualize the

Spirochete Treponema?
What type of microscopy is required to visualize the

Spirochete Treponema?
Dark-field microscopy
[...]
Which form of Leprosy is characterized by high cellmediated immunity with a largely Th1 immune
response?
Which form of Leprosy is characterized by high cellmediated immunity with a largely Th1 immune
response?
Tuberculoid
[...]
What is the etiology of Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic

Fever?
What is the etiology of Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic

Fever?
Bunyaviruses
[...]
Which are also Arboviruses.

Amoebiasis is a GI protozoal infection that presents with
RUQ pain.
[...] is a GI protozoal infection that presents with RUQ

pain.
The RUQ pain is often due to GI ulceration and

potential colonic rupture.
Inhibition of DNA Gyrase (Topoisomerase II) and

Topoisomerase IV
[...]
Must not be taken with antacids.

Linezolid?

Linezolid?
50S
[...]
Where in the body is Streptococcus mutans normally

found in the body?
Where in the body is Streptococcus mutans normally

found in the body?
Dental plaque
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Parvovirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Parvovirus?
ssDNA
[...]
Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease is a viral disorder caused by

Coxsackievirus Type A that presents with a vesicular
rash on the palms and soles and vesicles/ulcers on
the oral mucosa.
[...] is a viral disorder caused by Coxsackievirus Type A

that presents with a vesicular rash on the palms and
soles and vesicles/ulcers on the oral mucosa.
Poliovirus is a virus that affects unimmunized children that [...] is a virus that affects unimmunized children that causes
causes meningitis and can also lead to myalgia and
meningitis and can also lead to myalgia and paralysis.
paralysis.
What toxicity is associated with HAART Fusion
Inhibitors?
What toxicity is associated with HAART Fusion

Inhibitors?
Skin reaction at the injection site
[...]
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Streptococcus

pneumoniae?
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Streptococcus

pneumoniae?
Alpha-hemolysis
[...]
Catalase-negative
Optochin sensitive
Macrolides are a class of protein synthesis
inhibiting antibiotics that treat gram-positive cocci in
patients that are allergic to penicillins.

that treat gram-positive cocci in patients that are allergic to
penicillins.
They also treat STDs (Chlamydia)

Besides ingestion of contaminated food, how is Listeria
monocytogenes transmitted?
Besides ingestion of contaminated food, how is Listeria

monocytogenes transmitted?
Transplacentally; vaginally during childbirth
[...]
Listeria monocytogenes can cause amnionitis,

septicemia and spontaneous abortion in pregnant
women.
Mucormycosis is an opportunistic fungal infections that
involves proliferation of fungi in the blood vessel walls due
to an excess of ketones and glucose.
[...] is an opportunistic fungal infections that involves

proliferation of fungi in the blood vessel walls due to an
excess of ketones and glucose.
From there the penetrate the cribiform plate and enter

the brain.
Where in the body is Escherichia coli normally found?
Where in the body is Escherichia coli normally found?
Colon
[...]
What generation Cephalosporin is Ceftazidime?
What generation Cephalosporin is Ceftazidime?
3rd
[...]
Which diagnostic test is used to detect EBV infection?
Which diagnostic test is used to detect EBV infection?
Monospot Test
[...]
Heterophile antibodies are detected by agglutination

of sheep or horse RBCs.
Positive result = EBV infection.
Botulinum Toxin is an exotoxin from Clostridium
botulinum that cleaves SNARE proteins required for
neurotransmitter release.
[...] is an exotoxin from Clostridium botulinum that

cleaves SNARE proteins required for neurotransmitter
release.
What food source is associated with Bacillus cereus food What food source is associated with Bacillus cereus food
poisoning?
poisoning?
Reheated rice
[...]
HHV-6
[...]
What is the treatment for the leprematous form of

Mycobacterium leprae?
What is the treatment for the leprematous form of

Dapsone + Rifampin + Clofazimine
[...]
Corynebacterium spp. is a gram-positive, club

shaped bacteria that yields black colonies on cystinetellurite agar.
[...] is a gram-positive, club shaped bacteria that yields

black colonies on cystine-tellurite agar.
It also has metachromatic (blue and red) granules and

a positive Elek test for the toxin.
The reformulated flu vaccine is the flu vaccine that contains The [...] flu vaccine is the flu vaccine that contains the viral
the viral strains most likely to appear during the flu season.
strains most likely to appear during the flu season.
aka "the flu shot"
Clonorchis sinensis is a species of trematode that causes
biliary tract inflammation and subsequent formation of
pigmented gallstones.
[...] is a species of trematode that causes biliary tract

inflammation and subsequent formation of pigmented
gallstones.
What is the gram stain of Pasteurella?
What is the gram stain of Pasteurella?
Negative
[...]
What is the treatment for Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kalaazar)?
What is the treatment for Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kalaazar)?
Amphotericin B, Sodium Stibogluconate
[...]
What is the catalase expression of Aspergillus?
What is the catalase expression of Aspergillus?
Positive
[...]
Metronidazole is a DNA damaging antibiotic that causes

disulfirm-like reactions with alcohol use.
[...] is a DNA damaging antibiotic that causes disulfirmlike reactions with alcohol use.
Severe flushing, tachycardia, hypotension.

What CD4+ cell count is associated with
Cryptosporidium spp. infection in HIV patients?

Cryptosporidium spp. infection in HIV patients?
< 200 cells/mm3
[...]
What is the MOA of Trimethoprim?
What is the MOA of Trimethoprim?
Inhibition of Dihydrofolate Reductase, thereby inhibiting

folate synthesis
[...]
Isoniazid (INH) is an antimycobacterial drug that causes

neurotoxicity and hepatotoxicity.
[...] is an antimycobacterial drug that causes

neurotoxicity and hepatotoxicity.
"INH Injures Neurons and Hepatocytes."
Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with

pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients?
Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with

pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients?
[...]
Chronic pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients is

associated with biofilms, an area in which
Pseudomonas is a star.
Echinococcus granulosus is a cestode that yields
hydatid cysts in the liver, thereby causing anaphylaxis if
the antigens are released.
[...] is a cestode that yields hydatid cysts in the liver,

thereby causing anaphylaxis if the antigens are released.
Surgeons kills the cysts by injecting ethanol before

removal.
Aztreonam is a Monobactam antibiotic that precents
peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to penicillinbinding protein 3.
[...] is a Monobactam antibiotic that precents

peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to penicillinbinding protein 3.
Resistant to beta-lactamases
M Protein is a virulence factor expressed by Group A
Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes) species that
functions to prevent phagocytosis.
[...] is a virulence factor expressed by Group A

Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes) species that
functions to prevent phagocytosis.
Ethambutol is an antimycobacterial that is associated with [...] is an antimycobacterial that is associated with optic
optic neuropathy, specifically red-green colour
neuropathy, specifically red-green colour blindness, as
blindness, as a side effect.
a side effect.
What is the MOA of Ampicillin?
What is the MOA of Ampicillin?

[...]
Where in the United States does Rocky Mountain Spotted Where in the United States does Rocky Mountain Spotted
Fever primarily manifest?
Fever primarily manifest?
South Atlantic states, especially North Caroline
[...]
Which species of Neisseria ferments glucose only?
Which species of Neisseria ferments glucose only?
[...]
Gonococcus = Glucose only

Klebsiella is a gram-negative instestinal bacteria that
causes lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics when
aspirated.
[...] is a gram-negative instestinal bacteria that causes

lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics when
aspirated.
Also a cause of nocosomial UTIs.

What type of diarrhea does Campylobacter
jejuni cause?
What type of diarrhea does Campylobacter

jejuni cause?
Bloody; especially in children
[...]
What is the urease expression of Klebsiella spp.?
What is the urease expression of Klebsiella spp.?
Positive
[...]
Vibrio cholerae is a comma-shaped gram-negative

[...] is a comma-shaped gram-negative bacillus that
bacillus that produces a profuse rice-water diarrhea via an produces a profuse rice-water diarrhea via an enterotoxin
enterotoxin that permanently activates the Gs subunit,
that permanently activates the Gs subunit, thereby
thereby increasing cAMP.
increasing cAMP.
Endemic in developing nations.
Prompt oral rehydration is necessary.
Chagas Disease is a visceral protozoal infection that
presents with dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon and
megaesophagus.
[...] is a visceral protozoal infection that presents with

dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon and
megaesophagus.
Which Streptococcus species is known to cause Scarlet

Fever?
Which Streptococcus species is known to cause Scarlet

Fever?
[...]
Secondary Syphilis is a type of Syphilis that presents with

fever, lymphadenopathy, skin rashes and condylomata
lata.
[...] is a type of Syphilis that presents with fever,

lymphadenopathy, skin rashes and condylomata lata.
GI distress, skin rash and seizures are 3 common

complications of Carbapanem administration when they
are in high plasma levels.
[...], skin rash and seizures are 3 common complications

of Carbapanem administration when they are in high
plasma levels.
The significant side effects limit the use of

Carbapanem's to life-threatening infections or after
other drugs have failed.
GI distress, [...] and seizures are 3 common complications
of Carbapanem administration when they are in high
plasma levels.
GI distress, skin rash and [...] are 3 common


What type nucleic acid is found in Arenavirus?
What type nucleic acid is found in Arenavirus?
Negative ssRNA
[...]
Which animal is the host for Schistosoma spp.?
Which animal is the host for Schistosoma spp.?
Snails
[...]
Neuromuscular Blockade is a neurological complication of [...] is a neurological complication of Aminoglycoside use

Aminoglycoside use that presents at the neuromuscular
that presents at the neuromuscular junction.
junction.
Which species of Neisseria is often found intracellularly in Which species of Neisseria is often found intracellularly in
neutrophils?
neutrophils?
[...]
What is the MOA of Enfuvirtide (HAART Fusion

inhibitor)?
What is the MOA of Enfuvirtide (HAART Fusion

inhibitor)?
Binds to gp41, thereby inhibiting viral entry
[...]
Live attenuated vaccine is a type of vaccine that is

dangerous to give to immunocompromised patients or their
close contacts.
[...] is a type of vaccine that is dangerous to give to

immunocompromised patients or their close contacts.
The exception is MMR, which can be given to HIV+

patients who do not show signs of immunodeficiency.
Which viral gene in HIV codes for the p24 capsid protein? Which viral gene in HIV codes for the p24 capsid protein?
gag
[...]
Tertiary Syphilis is a form of Syphilis that presents with

aortitis that occurs due to destruction of the vasa
vasorum.
[...] is a form of Syphilis that presents with aortitis that

occurs due to destruction of the vasa vasorum.
Echovirus is a Picornavirus that causes aseptic meningitis.
[...] is a Picornavirus that causes aseptic meningitis.
Marburg virus is a Filovirus that causes Marburg

Hemorrhagic Fever.
[...] is a Filovirus that causes Marburg Hemorrhagic

Fever.
Ribavirin is an antiviral agent that inhibits Inosine

[...] is an antiviral agent that inhibits Inosine
Monophosphate Dehydrogenase, thereby inhibiting the Monophosphate Dehydrogenase, thereby inhibiting the
synthesis of guanine nucleotides.
synthesis of guanine nucleotides.
Which class of immunoglobulin is found in high levels as
cold agglutinins in atypical pneumonia caused by
Which class of immunoglobulin is found in high levels as

cold agglutinins in atypical pneumonia caused by
IgM
[...]
Yes, I know this is a terribly worded question. Just

remember that IgM titers are elevated in M.
pneumoniae infection.
Which nerve palsy is a potential initial symptom of Lyme Which nerve palsy is a potential initial symptom of Lyme
Disease?
Disease?
Facial Nerve Palsy
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Picornavirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Picornavirus?
Positive ssRNA
[...]
Binds to Ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane and forms

a membrane pore, thereby allowing the leakage of
electrolytes
[...]
Hantavirus is a Bunyavirus that causes hemorrhagic fever

and pneumonia.
[...] is a Bunyavirus that causes hemorrhagic fever and

pneumonia.
How are Picornaviruses transmitted?
How are Picornaviruses transmitted?
Fecal-oral; all are enteroviruses except for Rhinovirus
[...]
Cilastatin is a drug that is always co-administered with

Carbapanem antibiotics that inhibits renal
dehydropeptidase I.
[...] is a drug that is always co-administered with

Carbapanem antibiotics that inhibits renal
dehydropeptidase I.
This decreases the inactivation of the Carbapanem

antibiotic in renal tubules.
Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA) is a
pulmonary disorder caused by Aspergillosis
fumigatus that is associated with asthma and cystic
fibrosis.
[...] is a pulmonary disorder caused by Aspergillosis

fumigatus that is associated with asthma and cystic
fibrosis.
May cause bronchiectasis and eosinophilia.

Osteomyelitis is an infectious disorder of the bone that
often yields a subtle lesion on x-ray, but a more
prominent lesion on MRI.
[...] is an infectious disorder of the bone that often yields a

subtle lesion on x-ray, but a more prominent lesion on
MRI.
To which co-receptor does HIV bind to in late

infection to enter T cells?
To which co-receptor does HIV bind to in late

CXCR4
[...]
Alongside CD4.
The Reticulate body is the morphological form of
Chlamydiae that replicates inside the target host cell by
fission.
The [...] is the morphological form of Chlamydiae that

replicates inside the target host cell by fission.
Reticulate body = Replicates into elementary bodies

The outer membrane is a bacterial structure in gramnegative bacteria that functions as the major surface
antigen.
The [...] is a bacterial structure in gram-negative bacteria

that functions as the major surface antigen.
Retinopathy is an ocular complication of Chloroquine use.
[...] is an ocular complication of Chloroquine use.
What is the treatment for Trypanosoma brucei?
What is the treatment for Trypanosoma brucei?
Suramin + Melarsoprol
[...]
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a lancet-shaped

Streptococcus species that is associated with sepsis in
sickle cell anaemia and splenectomy.
[...] is a lancet-shaped Streptococcus species that is

associated with sepsis in sickle cell anaemia and
splenectomy.
Encapsulated.
IgA Protease positive.
What is the etiology of Brucellosis?
What is the etiology of Brucellosis?
Brucella spp.
[...]
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are 3 [...], Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are 3 species of
species of Dermatophytes that cause cutaneous mycosis Dermatophytes that cause cutaneous mycosis that present
that present as pruritic lesions with a central clearing, as pruritic lesions with a central clearing, resembling a ring.
resembling a ring.
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are 3 Microsporum, [...] and Epidermophyton are 3 species of
resembling a ring.
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are 3 Microsporum, Trichophyton and [...] are 3 species of
resembling a ring.
Mononucleosis is a complication of EBV infection that
presents with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis and
lymphadenopathy.
[...] is a complication of EBV infection that presents with

fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis and
lymphadenopathy.
Lymphadenopathy is especially seen at the posterior

cervical nodes.
What is the oxidase expression of Pseudomonas
aeruginosa?
What is the oxidase expression of Pseudomonas

aeruginosa?
Positive
[...]
What is the treatment for Chloroquineresistant Malaria?
What is the treatment for Chloroquineresistant Malaria?
Mefloquine or Atovaquone/Proguanil
[...]
The Tzanck test is a diagnostic test used to identify HSV The [...] is a diagnostic test used to identify HSV through a
through a smear of an opened skin vesicle.
smear of an opened skin vesicle.
A positive tzanck smear will show multinucleated

giant cells.
Bacterial Vaginosis is a type of vaginal infection that
[...] is a type of vaginal infection that presents with a thin,
presents with a thin, white discharge with a fishy odour.
white discharge with a fishy odour.
What type of immunity is induced by Live Attenuated
Vaccines?
What type of immunity is induced by Live Attenuated

Vaccines?
Humoral and cell-mediated immunity
[...]
Some live attenuated vaccines have reverted back to

virulence, but on very rare occasions.
Live vaccines do not require boosters.
What is the toxicity of bacterial exotoxins?
What is the toxicity of bacterial exotoxins?
High; fatal doses are on the order of 1 ug
[...]
How is Pneumocystis jirovecii acquired?
How is Pneumocystis jirovecii acquired?
Inhalation
[...]
Koplik Spots are a mucosal feature of Measles that is

described as bright red spots with blue-white
centers that precede the measles rash by 1-2 days.
[...] are a mucosal feature of Measles that is described as

bright red spots with blue-white centers that precede
the measles rash by 1-2 days.
What colour colonies do Citrobacter spp. yield on

MacConkey Agar?
What colour colonies do Citrobacter spp. yield on

MacConkey Agar?
Pink
[...]

Which Herpesvirus is the most common cause of sporadic Which Herpesvirus is the most common cause of sporadic
encephalitis in the USA?
encephalitis in the USA?
HSV-1
[...]
Chagas Disease is a visceral protozoal infection that is [...] is a visceral protozoal infection that is diagnosed by
diagnosed by the visualization of Trypanosoma cruzi on a the visualization of Trypanosoma cruzi on a peripheral
peripheral blood smear.
blood smear.
What is the treatment for Diphyllobothrium

latum infection?
What is the treatment for Diphyllobothrium

latum infection?
Praziquantel
[...]
Which drugs are used as prophylaxis for Pneumocystis

jirovecii infection?
Which drugs are used as prophylaxis for Pneumocystis

jirovecii infection?
Dapsone; Atovaquone
[...]
O polysaccharide is a component of the outer membrane

of gram-negative bacteria that functions as the surface
antigen.
[...] is a component of the outer membrane of gramnegative bacteria that functions as the surface antigen.
Congenital Rubella is a serious ToRCHeS infection that

presents with a "blueberry muffin" appearance that is
indicative of extramedullary hematopoeisis.
[...] is a serious ToRCHeS infection that presents with a

"blueberry muffin" appearance that is indicative of
extramedullary hematopoeisis.
What is the treatment for Clonorchis sinensis infection?
What is the treatment for Clonorchis sinensis infection?
Praziquantel
[...]
What CD4+ cell count is associated with oral thrush

caused by Candida albicans in HIV patients?
What CD4+ cell count is associated with oral thrush

caused by Candida albicans in HIV patients?
< 400 cells/mm3
[...]
What is the gram stain of Bacillus?
What is the gram stain of Bacillus?
Positive
[...]
Which 2 Hepatitis viruses do not yield carrier status?
Which 2 Hepatitis viruses do not yield carrier status?
A and E
[...]
Didanosine (ddI) is an NRTI HAART drug that is

associated with pancreatitis.
[...] is an NRTI HAART drug that is associated with

pancreatitis.
Actinomyces spp. is a gram-positive, filamentous bacteria

that causes oral/facial abscesses that drain through the
sinus tracts.
[...] is a gram-positive, filamentous bacteria that causes

oral/facial abscesses that drain through the sinus tracts.
Which Spirochete is found in water contaminated with

animal urine?
Which Spirochete is found in water contaminated with

animal urine?
Leptospira interrogans
[...]
What type of immune response is seen when

Shigella invades the intestinal mucosa?
What type of immune response is seen when

Shigella invades the intestinal mucosa?
PMN Infiltration
[...]
Polymyxin is an antibiotic used in Thayer-Martin (VPN) [...] is an antibiotic used in Thayer-Martin (VPN) media
media that inhibits gram-negative organisms except for that inhibits gram-negative organisms except for Neisseria.
Neisseria.
associated with chronic infection?

associated with chronic infection?
A; B; C
[...]
Which 2 species of intestinal nematode are hookworms?
Which 2 species of intestinal nematode are hookworms?
Ancylostoma duodenale; Necator americanus
[...]
Edema Factor toxin is an exotoxin from Bacillus

anthracis that is likely responsible for the characteristic
edematous borders of black eschars seen in cutaneous
anthrax.
[...] is an exotoxin from Bacillus anthracis that is likely

responsible for the characteristic edematous borders of
black eschars seen in cutaneous anthrax.
What animals are the reservoir for Yersinia pestis?
What animals are the reservoir for Yersinia pestis?
Rats; Prairie Dogs
[...]
How is Diphyllobothrium latum transmitted?
How is Diphyllobothrium latum transmitted?
Ingestion of larvae from raw freshwater fish
[...]
Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a bacteria that affects

unimmunized children and causes a pharyngitis that
presents wth a grayish oropharyngeal exudate that
forms "pseudomembranes".
[...] is a bacteria that affects unimmunized children and

causes a pharyngitis that presents wth a grayish
oropharyngeal exudate that forms
"pseudomembranes".
The pseudomembranes may obstruct the airway. They

also cause throat pain.
St. Louis Encephalitis Virus (SLEV) is an Arbovirus and
Flavivirus that causes St. Louis Encephalitis.
[...] is an Arbovirus and Flavivirus that causes St. Louis

Encephalitis.
How is Yersinia enterocolitica transmitted?
How is Yersinia enterocolitica transmitted?
Pet feces; Contaminated Milk; Pork
[...]
[...]

Obligate aerobe
How is Schistosoma transmitted?
How is Schistosoma transmitted?
Via snails; cercariae penetrate the skin
[...]
What is the only gram-positive bacteria to produce

lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?
What is the only gram-positive bacteria to produce

lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?
Listeria monocytogenes
[...]
What is the incubation period for HBV?
What is the incubation period for HBV?
Long (months)
[...]
What is the vaginal pH in Vulvovaginal Candidiasis?
What is the vaginal pH in Vulvovaginal Candidiasis?
Normal (4.0-4.5)
[...]
Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in

diabetics and IV drug users?
Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in

diabetics and IV drug users?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (and Serratia sp.)
[...]
Tubulointerstitial Nephritis is a renal complication of

Sulfonamide antibiotic use.
[...] is a renal complication of Sulfonamide antibiotic use.
3rd
[...]
"Glove and Stocking" sensation loss is a neurological

[...] is a neurological complication of Leprosy due to
complication of Leprosy due to preferrential infection of preferrential infection of the skin and superficial nerves by
the skin and superficial nerves by Mycobacterium leprae.
Mycobacterium leprae.
Remember, this is because Mycobacterium leprae likes
cool temperatures (i.e. the surface and extremities of
the body).
Legionnaires' Disease is a respiratory disorder caused by
Legionella pneumophila that presents with severe
pneumonia, fever, GI and CNS symptoms.
[...] is a respiratory disorder caused by Legionella

pneumophila that presents with severe pneumonia,
fever, GI and CNS symptoms.
Rabies virus is a Rhabdovirus that causes Rabies.
[...] is a Rhabdovirus that causes Rabies.
How does pregnancy affect the risk for obtaining a UTI?
How does pregnancy affect the risk for obtaining a UTI?
Increase
[...]
Conjunctivitis is an ocular complication of Chlamydia.
[...] is an ocular complication of Chlamydia.
Facial Nerve Palsy is a neurological symptom seen in

late Lyme Disease that presents alongside
encephalopathy and polyneuropathy.
[...] is a neurological symptom seen in late Lyme Disease

that presents alongside encephalopathy and
polyneuropathy.
What food source is associated with Escherichia

coli O157:H7 food poisoning?
What food source is associated with Escherichia

coli O157:H7 food poisoning?
Undercooked meat
[...]
Complementation is a viral genetic phenomenon where a

nonmutated virus complements a mutated virus by
making a functional protein that serves for both viruses.
[...] is a viral genetic phenomenon where a

nonmutated virus complements a mutated virus by
making a functional protein that serves for both viruses.
In this case, the mutated virus has a

nonfunctional version of the protein,
Which antibody against HBV will be present in a patient
that is immunized against HBV?
Which antibody against HBV will be present in a patient

that is immunized against HBV?
Anti-HBsAg
[...]

[...] is an STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (L1;
Chlamydia trachomatis (L1; L2; L3) that presents with
L2; L3) that presents with swollen, painful inguinal
swollen, painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate into lymph nodes that ulcerate into "buboes" in its later
"buboes" in its later stages.
stages.
HAV is a Picornavirus that causes Acute Viral Hepatitis.
[...] is a Picornavirus that causes Acute Viral Hepatitis.
Which stain is required to visualize all

Mycobacterium spp.?
Which stain is required to visualize all

Mycobacterium spp.?
Acid-fast
[...]
Where in the body is Actinomyces normally found?
Where in the body is Actinomyces normally found?
Oral cavity
[...]
Which Plasmodium species is associated with dormant

hypnozoites in the liver?
Which Plasmodium species is associated with dormant

hypnozoites in the liver?
Plasmodium vivax; Plasmodium ovale
[...]
Nocardia spp. is a gram-positive, filamentous bacteria

that is normally found in soil.
[...] is a gram-positive, filamentous bacteria that is

normally found in soil.
What is the postexposure treatment for Rabies?
What is the postexposure treatment for Rabies?
Wound cleaning and vaccination rabies immune globulin
[...]
Coronavirus is a Coronavirus that causes the common

cold and SARS.
[...] is a Coronavirus that causes the common cold and

SARS.
Hemolytic anaemia is a hematological complication of

Sulfonamide use in patients that have G6PD Deficiency.
[...] is a hematological complication of Sulfonamide use in

patients that have G6PD Deficiency.
What is the gram stain of Gardnerella?
What is the gram stain of Gardnerella?
Variable
[...]
Which cancer is associated with Clonorchis

sinensis infection?
Which cancer is associated with Clonorchis

sinensis infection?
Cholangiocarcinoma
[...]
What is the MOA of Shiga-like Toxin (SLT)

from Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)?
What is the MOA of Shiga-like Toxin (SLT)

from Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)?
Inactivation of the 60S ribosomal subunit by remocing

adenine from rRNA
[...]
Results in enhanced cytokine release and Hemolytic

Uremia Syndrome (HUS).
Mucormycosis is an opportunistic yeast infection that is [...] is an opportunistic yeast infection that is mostly seen in
mostly seen in ketoacidotic diabetic and leukemic patients.
ketoacidotic diabetic and leukemic patients.
The fungi proliferate in the blood vessel wall when
there is an excess of ketones and glucose. From there
they penetrate the cribiform plate and enter the brain.
Typically caused by Mucor sp. and Rhizopus spp.
How is Giardiasis transmitted?
How is Giardiasis transmitted?
Cysts in water
[...]
What is the urease expression of Ureaplasma spp?
What is the urease expression of Ureaplasma spp?
Positive
[...]
What type of cancer is associated with bacteremia and

subacute endocarditis caused by Nonenterococcal Group D Streptococci (Streptococcus
bovis)?
What type of cancer is associated with bacteremia and

subacute endocarditis caused by Nonenterococcal Group D Streptococci (Streptococcus
bovis)?
Colon cancer
[...]
Bovis in the Blood = Cancer in the Colon.

Guanosine analog; Inhibition of viral DNA Polymerase,

thereby causing chain termination
[...]
Which bacteria is associated with surgical wound

infections?
Which bacteria is associated with surgical wound

infections?
[...]
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a [...] is a form of Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to
form of Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to
methicillin and nafcillin due to altered penicillin-binding
methicillin and nafcillin due to altered penicillin-binding
proteins.
proteins.
MRSA is an important cause of serious nocosomial
and community-acquired infections.
What is the gram stain of Leptospira?
What is the gram stain of Leptospira?
Negative
[...]
Which diagnostic test is used as a presumptive, ruleout test for HIV infection?
Which diagnostic test is used as a presumptive, ruleout test for HIV infection?
ELISA
[...]
Sensitive; high false-positive rate; low threshold.

Tetanospasmin is an exotoxin from Clostridium
tetani that cleaves SNARE proteins required for
neurotransmitter release.
[...] is an exotoxin from Clostridium tetani that cleaves

SNARE proteins required for neurotransmitter release.
Where in the lungs does Mycobacterium tuberculosis

reactivate?
Where in the lungs does Mycobacterium tuberculosis

reactivate?
The lung apices due to high PO2 levels
[...]
Reactivation typically occurs after immune

compromise or TNF-alpha inhibitor use.
Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with CNVIII
deafness?
Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with CNVIII

deafness?
Syphilis
[...]
What is the most important global cause of infantile

gastroenteritis?
What is the most important global cause of infantile

gastroenteritis?
Rotavirus
[...]
dsRNA Reovirus
ROTA = Right Out The Anus
Which encapsulated microbes are associated with
infections in asplenic patients?
Which encapsulated microbes are associated with

infections in asplenic patients?
Streptococcus pneumoniae >> Haemophilus

influenzae Type B > Neisseria meningitidis
[...]
"SHiN"
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Neisseria meningitidis
Poliovirus is a Picornavirus that causes Polio.
[...] is a Picornavirus that causes Polio.
Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is used in Thayer-Martin

(VPN) media as it inhibits gram-positive orgnanisms.
[...] is an antibiotic that is used in Thayer-Martin (VPN)

media as it inhibits gram-positive orgnanisms.
What type of HAART is Fosamprenavir?
What type of HAART is Fosamprenavir?
Protease inhibitor
[...]
How does Mycoplasma pneumoniae gram stain?

[...]
How does Mycoplasma pneumoniae gram stain?

It doesn't; There is no cell wall
Toxic Shock Syndrome?

Toxic Shock Syndrome?
Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1)
[...]
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacteria

that causes UTI and is associated with a blue-green
pigment and fruity odor.
[...] is a gram-negative bacteria that causes UTI and is

associated with a blue-green pigment and fruity odor.
Usually nocosomial and drug resistant.

What type of HAART drug is Atazanavir?
What type of HAART drug is Atazanavir?
Protease inhibitor
[...]
Anaerobe
[...]
Rabies is a CNS disorder caused by a Rhabdovirus that

[...] is a CNS disorder caused by a Rhabdovirus that
presents with agitation, photophobia and hydrophobia. presents with agitation, photophobia and hydrophobia.
Disease progression:
Fever, Malaise --> Agitation, Photophobia,
Hydrophobia --> Paralysis, Coma --> Death.
Toxin A is an enterotoxin from Clostridium difficile that [...] is an enterotoxin from Clostridium difficile that binds
binds to the brush border of the gut.
to the brush border of the gut.
Which Aminopenicillin has greater oral bioavailability?
Which Aminopenicillin has greater oral bioavailability?
Amoxicillin
[...]
AmOxicillin has greater Oral bioavailability.

Which organisms are typically not covered by
Cephalosporins?
Which organisms are typically not covered by

Cephalosporins?
Listera, Atypicals (Chlamydia, Mycoplasma), MRSA

and Enterococci
[...]
The exception is Ceftaroline (5th gen) which covers

MRSA.
"LAME"
- Listeria
- Atypicals (Chlamydia, Mycoplasma)
- MRSA
- Enterococci
What is the clinical use of Zanamivir and Oseltamivir?
What is the clinical use of Zanamivir and Oseltamivir?
Treatment and prevention of Influenza A and B
[...]
What is the etiology of Reiter Syndrome?
What is the etiology of Reiter Syndrome?
[...]
Fluconazole is an Azole antifungal that is used for chronic

suppression of cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS
patients and candidal infections of all types.
[...] is an Azole antifungal that is used for chronic

suppression of cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS
patients and candidal infections of all types.
The outer membrane is a bacterial structure seen in gramnegative bacteria that is the site of endotoxin
(lipopolysaccharide; LPS).
The [...] is a bacterial structure seen in gramnegative bacteria that is the site of endotoxin
(lipopolysaccharide; LPS).
How does Asplenia influence the risk of obtaining severe

Babesiosis?
How does Asplenia influence the risk of obtaining severe

Babesiosis?
Increase
[...]
How is Histoplasmosis commonly transmitted?
How is Histoplasmosis commonly transmitted?
Bird or bat droppings
[...]
Haemophilus influenzae Type B is a bacteria that affects

unimmunized children that causes epiglottitis which
presents with an edematous "cherry red"
epiglottis and a "thumbprint sign" on xray.
[...] is a bacteria that affects unimmunized children that

causes epiglottitis which presents with an edematous
"cherry red" epiglottis and a "thumbprint sign" on
xray.
The edematous epiglottis can cause difficulty

breathing.
Seizures are a neurological complication of Roseola due to [...] are a neurological complication of Roseola due to the
the high fevers that can last for several days.
high fevers that can last for several days.
How is Clonorchis sinensis transmitted?
How is Clonorchis sinensis transmitted?
Undercooked fish
[...]
Rheumatic Fever and acute glomerulonephritis are 2

immunological complications of pharyngitis caused by
Streptococcus pyogenes.
[...] and acute glomerulonephritis are 2 immunological

complications of pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus
pyogenes.
"Strep PHaryngitis can become Rheumatic PHever

and glomerulonePHritis."
Rheumatic Fever and acute glomerulonephritis are 2
immunological complications of pharyngitis caused by
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Rheumatic Fever and [...] are 2 immunological

complications of pharyngitis caused by Streptococcus
pyogenes.
"Strep PHaryngitis can become Rheumatic PHever

and glomerulonePHritis."
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Staphylococcus
aureus?
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Staphylococcus

aureus?
Beta-hemolysis
[...]
Catalase-positive
Coagulase-positive
Lipodystrophy is a complication of HIV Protease
inhibitors that affects fat tissue.
[...] is a complication of HIV Protease inhibitors that

affects fat tissue.
What is the gram stain of Bordetella?
[...]
What is the gram stain of Bordetella?

Negative
What type of nucleic acid is found in Flavivirus??
What type of nucleic acid is found in Flavivirus??
Positive ssRNA
[...]
Which HBV antigen is indicative of active viral

replication?
Which HBV antigen is indicative of active viral

replication?
HBeAg
[...]
A second, different antigenic determinant from the

HBV core.
What is the treatment for all disorders caused by
Rickettsia spp.?
What is the treatment for all disorders caused by

Rickettsia spp.?
Doxycycline
[...]
Cord Factor is a virulence factor in virulent

Mycobacterium sp. that inhibits macrophage
maturation and induces the release of TNF-alpha.
[...] is a virulence factor in virulent Mycobacterium

sp. that inhibits macrophage maturation and induces
the release of TNF-alpha.
Condyloma Acuminata is an STD caused by HPV6 or [...] is an STD caused by HPV6 or HPV11 that presents
HPV11 that presents with genital warts and koilocytes.
with genital warts and koilocytes.
Clindamycin is a protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic [...] is a protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic that is
that is known to treat anearobic infections above the
known to treat anearobic infections above the diaphragm
diaphragm (e.g. aspiration pneumonia, lung abscesses, oral
(e.g. aspiration pneumonia, lung abscesses, oral
infections).
infections).
- Bacteroides spp.
- Clostridium perfringens
What is the etiology of Subacute Sclerosing
Panencephalitis (SSPE)?
What is the etiology of Subacute Sclerosing

Panencephalitis (SSPE)?
Measles virus
[...]
Occurs years later.

Arrhythmia is a cardiac complication of Macrolide
[...] is a cardiac complication of Macrolide antibiotic use
antibiotic use that is caused by a prolonged QT interval.
that is caused by a prolonged QT interval.
Which is the only Spirochete that can be visualized using
anilin dyes (Wright or Giemsa) in light microscopy?
Which is the only Spirochete that can be visualized using

anilin dyes (Wright or Giemsa) in light microscopy?
Borrelia
[...]
Remember, Borrelia is the biggest spirochete.

Chlamydia trachomatis (L1, L2, L3) that
initially presents with small, painless ulcers on the
genitals.
[...] is an STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (L1,

L2, L3) that initially presents with small, painless
ulcers on the genitals.
Which sex is more commonly affected by UTIs?
[...]
Which sex is more commonly affected by UTIs?

Females
They have shorter urethras that are colonized by fecal
flora.
Which special culture media/agar other than MacConkey Which special culture media/agar other than MacConkey
agar is used to isolate Escherichia coli?
agar is used to isolate Escherichia coli?
Eosin-Methylene Blue (EMB) as a green-metallic sheen
[...]
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare is a species of

Mycobacterium that is more drug resistant than
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
[...] is a species of Mycobacterium that is more drug

resistant than Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Hence it requires Azithromycin/Clarithromycin +

Ethambutol Rifabutin/Ciprofloxacin
HCV is a Hepatitis virus that increases the risk of
Hepatocellular Carcinoma by causing chronic
inflammation.
[...] is a Hepatitis virus that increases the risk of

Hepatocellular Carcinoma by causing chronic
inflammation.
What is the MOA of Alpha Toxin from Clostridium

perfringens?
What is the MOA of Alpha Toxin from Clostridium

perfringens?
Phospholipase (Lecithinase) action, thereby leading to

degradation of tissue and cell membranes
[...]
Granulomatosis Infantiseptica is a complication of

[...] is a complication of fetomaternal listeriosis (Listeria
fetomaternal listeriosis (Listeria monocytogenes) seen in
monocytogenes) seen in neonates that involves the
neonates that involves the formation of pyogenic
formation of pyogenic granulomas distributed over the
granulomas distributed over the whole body.
whole body.
How is Loa loa transmitted?
How is Loa loa transmitted?
Deer fly; Horse fly; Mango fly
[...]
What is the etiology of Amoebiasis?
What is the etiology of Amoebiasis?
Entamoeba histolytica
[...]
Blastomycosis is a systemic mycosis that is endemic in

states east of the Mississippi River and Central
America.
[...] is a systemic mycosis that is endemic in states east

of the Mississippi River and Central America.
Zidovudine (ZDV; AZT) is an NRTI HAART drug that is

used for general prophylaxis.
[...] is an NRTI HAART drug that is used for general

prophylaxis.
What type of nucleic acid is found in Hepevirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Hepevirus?
Positive ssRNA
[...]
IFN-gamma is an interferon used to treat Chronic

Granulomatous Disease.
[...] is an interferon used to treat Chronic Granulomatous

Disease.
Pyrimethamine
[...]
Which vitamin deficiency is caused by Diphyllobothrium Which vitamin deficiency is caused by Diphyllobothrium
latum?
latum?
Vitamin B12
[...]
The worm competes with Vitamin B12 in the

intestines.
Causes megaloblastic anaemia.
Which NNRTI HAART drug is associated with vivid
dreams and CNS toxicity?
Which NNRTI HAART drug is associated with vivid

dreams and CNS toxicity?
Efavirenz
[...]
Photosensitivity is a cutaneous complication of

Sulfonamide use.
[...] is a cutaneous complication of Sulfonamide use.
Histoplasma capsulatum is an opportunistic fungus that is [...] is an opportunistic fungus that is known to cause
known to cause systemic disease in HIV patients that systemic disease in HIV patients that involves low-grade
involves low-grade fevers, cough,
fevers, cough, hepatosplenomegaly and tongue
hepatosplenomegaly and tongue ulceration.
ulceration.
CD4+ < 100 cell/mm3
What is the treatment for Onchocerca volvulus infection What is the treatment for Onchocerca volvulus infection
(e.g. river blindness)?
(e.g. river blindness)?
Ivermectin
[...]
IVERmectin is given for rIVER blindness.

Where does Chagas Disease predominantly occur?
Where does Chagas Disease predominantly occur?
South America
[...]

Necrotizing Fasciitis?

Necrotizing Fasciitis?
[...]
What is the treatment for CMV retinitis in

immunocompromised patients when Ganciclovir fails?
What is the treatment for CMV retinitis in

immunocompromised patients when Ganciclovir fails?
Foscarnet or Cidofovir
[...]
Which dsDNA virus is associated with causing Acute

Hemorrhagic Cystitis?
Which dsDNA virus is associated with causing Acute

Hemorrhagic Cystitis?
Adenovirus
[...]
Actinomyces israelii is a gram-positive, anaerobic,

filamentous bacteria that yields a yellow "sulfur"
granular pigment composed of filaments of bacteria.
[...] is a gram-positive, anaerobic, filamentous bacteria that

yields a yellow "sulfur" granular pigment composed of
filaments of bacteria.
What is the treatment for the tuberculoid form of

What is the treatment for the tuberculoid form of

Dapsone + Rifampin
[...]
What food source is associated with Clostridium

botulinum food poisoning?

botulinum food poisoning?
Improperly canned foods
[...]
A sign will be bulging cans due to the gas production.

What type of diarrhea is seen in Amoebiasis?
What type of diarrhea is seen in Amoebiasis?
Bloody diarrhea (dysentery)
[...]
The Spirochetes are a group of bacteria that are spiralshaped with axial filaments.
The [...] are a group of bacteria that are spiral-shaped

with axial filaments.
BLT
It includes Borrelia (big), Leptospira, Treponema.
Primary B-cell CNS Lymphoma is a Lymphoma often
associated with EBV in that can present as focal or
multiple lesions, thereby differentiating it from
Toxoplasmosis.
[...] is a Lymphoma often associated with EBV in that can

present as focal or multiple lesions, thereby differentiating
it from Toxoplasmosis.
Which stain is used to visualize Helicobacter pylori?
Which stain is used to visualize Helicobacter pylori?
Silver stain
[...]
Malassezia spp. is a fungus that commonly causes

[...] is a fungus that commonly causes cutaneous mycosis
cutaneous mycosis and has a "Spaghetti and meatball" and has a "Spaghetti and meatball" appearance.
appearance.
Malassezia furfur; Malassezia globosa; Malassezia

sympodialis
Which bacteria is the most common cause of
Osteomyelitis?
Which bacteria is the most common cause of

Osteomyelitis?
[...]
If no other information is available about the patient,

always assume that Staphylococcus aureus is the
cause.
Nystatin is an antifungal used in Thayer-Martin (VPN)
media that inhibits fungi.
[...] is an antifungal used in Thayer-Martin (VPN) media

that inhibits fungi.
Argyll-Robertson pupil is a feature of Tertiary Syphilis

that is described as a pathological pupil that shows
accommodation but does not react to light.
[...] is a feature of Tertiary Syphilis that is described as a

pathological pupil that shows accommodation but does
not react to light.
i.e. the pupil constricts to focus on a near object, but

does not contrict when exposed to bright light.
aka Prostitute Pupil (lol, no lie, it's on page 142 of
first aid)
IFN-alpha is an Interferon used to treat chronic hepatitis [...] is an Interferon used to treat chronic hepatitis B and
B and C.
C.
What is the gram stain of Actinomyces?
What is the gram stain of Actinomyces?
Positive; also filamentous
[...]

used to kill Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli,
Listeria monocytogenes, Proteus mirabilis,
Salmonella and Shigella and enterococci.
[...] and Amoxicillin are aminopenicillins that are used to

kill Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli, Listeria
monocytogenes, Proteus mirabilis, Salmonella and
Shigella and enterococci.
"Aminopenicillins HELPSS kill enterococci"

Ampicillin and Amoxicillin are aminopenicillins that are Ampicillin and [...] are aminopenicillins that are used to kill
used to kill Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli,
Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli, Listeria
Listeria monocytogenes, Proteus mirabilis,
monocytogenes, Proteus mirabilis, Salmonella and
Salmonella and Shigella and enterococci.
Shigella and enterococci.
"Aminopenicillins HELPSS kill enterococci"
What is the treatment for mucosal Haemophilus
influenzae infections?
What is the treatment for mucosal Haemophilus

influenzae infections?
Amoxicillin (+/- Clavulanate)
[...]
What is the clinical use of Fluoroquinolone antibiotics?
What is the clinical use of Fluoroquinolone antibiotics?
Gram-negative rods of urinary and GI tracts (including

Pseudomonas); Neisseria
[...]
What is the gram stain of the Zoonotic bacteria?
What is the gram stain of the Zoonotic bacteria?
Negative
[...]
What is the clinical use of IFN-gamma?
What is the clinical use of IFN-gamma?
Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)
[...]
Which activated complement protein is chemotactic for

neutrophils?
Which activated complement protein is chemotactic for

neutrophils?
C5a
[...]
What is the MOA of Streptolysin O from Streptococcus What is the MOA of Streptolysin O from Streptococcus
pyogenes?
pyogenes?
Degradation of the cell membrane, thereby causing cell
lysis
[...]
How is HAV transmitted?
How is HAV transmitted?
Fecal-Oral
[...]

= anus).
parenterally.
Exotoxins are secreted virulence factors from bacteria that
induce a high-titer antibody response called antitoxins.
Toxoids can hence be used as vaccines.
Endotoxin on the other hand is poorly antigenic and
no toxoids/vaccines are available.
[...] are secreted virulence factors from bacteria that

induce a high-titer antibody response called antitoxins.
How is Yellow Fever (Yellow Fever Virus) transmitted?
How is Yellow Fever (Yellow Fever Virus) transmitted?
Aedes mosquito
[...]
Eastern Equine Encephalitis Virus (EEEV) is an Arbovirus

and Togavirus that causes Eastern Equine Encephalitis.
[...] is an Arbovirus and Togavirus that causes Eastern

Equine Encephalitis.
What is the clinical use for Sulfonamide antibiotics

(Sulfamethoxazole (SMX); Sulfisoxazole; Sulfadiazine)?
What is the clinical use for Sulfonamide antibiotics

(Sulfamethoxazole (SMX); Sulfisoxazole; Sulfadiazine)?
Gram-negative; Gram-positive; Nocardia; Chlamydia
[...]

inhibiting antibiotics that treat atypical pneumonias
(Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella).

that treat atypical pneumonias (Mycoplasma, Chlamydia,
Legionella).
Hemagglutinin is an antigen from Influenza virus that

functions to promote viral entry.
[...] is an antigen from Influenza virus that functions to

promote viral entry.
Which Herpesvirus is associated with

Keratoconjunctivitis?
Which Herpesvirus is associated with

Keratoconjunctivitis?
HSV-1
[...]
Chloramphenicol is a protein synthesis

inhibiting antibiotic that is used to treat
meningitis (Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria
meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae).
[...] is a protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic that is

used to treat meningitis (Haemophilus influenzae,
Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae).
Pulmonary Anthrax is a type of Anthrax that presents with

flu-like symptoms that rapidly progress to fever,
pulmonary hemorrhage, mediastinitis and shock.
[...] is a type of Anthrax that presents with flu-like

symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary
hemorrhage, mediastinitis and shock.
Toxin B is a cytotoxin from Clostridium difficile that

[...] is a cytotoxin from Clostridium difficile that causes
causes cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization, cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization, thereby
thereby causing pseudomembranous colitis and
causing pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea.
diarrhea.
DIfficile causes DIarrhea.
Which HPV strains cause Condyloma Acuminata?
Which HPV strains cause Condyloma Acuminata?
HPV6; HPV11
[...]
How do CSF protein levels change in viral meningitis?
How do CSF protein levels change in viral meningitis?
Normal or Increase
[...]
What is the MOA of Griseofulvin?
What is the MOA of Griseofulvin?
Intereference with microtubules, thereby disrupting mitosis
[...]
Which species of Neisseria has a polysaccharide capsule? Which species of Neisseria has a polysaccharide capsule?
Gonococcus does not have a polysaccharide capsule.
[...]
What is the treatment for Mycoplasma

pneumoniae infection?
What is the treatment for Mycoplasma

pneumoniae infection?
Macrolide, Doxycycline, or Fluoroquinolone
[...]
Penicillins are ineffective as there is no cell wall.

Which water soluble vitamin deficiency is able to present
with Neurotoxicity and Drug-induced SLE caused by
Isoniazid (INH)?
Which water soluble vitamin deficiency is able to present

with Neurotoxicity and Drug-induced SLE caused by
Isoniazid (INH)?
[...]
Blastomycosis is a systemic mycosis that presents with

broad-base budding.
[...] is a systemic mycosis that presents with broad-base

budding.
Causes inflammatory lung disease and can

disseminate to skin and bone.
Forms granulomatous nodules.
Blasto buds broadly.
Which Herpesvirus is associated with endemic Burkitt
Lymphoma?
Which Herpesvirus is associated with endemic Burkitt

Lymphoma?
EBV
[...]
Which Plasmodium species is associated with very

severe Malaria?
Which Plasmodium species is associated with very

severe Malaria?
Plasmodium falciparum
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Poxvirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Poxvirus?
dsDNA
[...]
What is the etiology of Scarlet Fever?
What is the etiology of Scarlet Fever?
[...]
What is the gram stain of Neisseria?
What is the gram stain of Neisseria?
Negative
[...]
Neisseria is also basically the only clinically relevant

gram-negative coccus.
The spore is a bacterial structure that is resistance to
dehydration, heat and chemicals due to its keratin-like
coat and composition of peptidoglycan and dipicolinic
acid.
The [...] is a bacterial structure that is resistance to

dehydration, heat and chemicals due to its keratin-like
coat and composition of peptidoglycan and dipicolinic
acid.
Which pleomorphic, gram-variable rod is known to be

involved in vaginosis?
Which pleomorphic, gram-variable rod is known to be

involved in vaginosis?
Gardnerella vaginalis
[...]

Pneumocystis pneumonia?

Pneumocystis pneumonia?
< 200 cells/mm3
[...]
Which bacteria is the most common cause of sinusitis?
Which bacteria is the most common cause of sinusitis?
[...]
Pancarditis is a cardiac complication of Rheumatic Fever

that involves inflammation of all 3 layers of the heart.
[...] is a cardiac complication of Rheumatic Fever that

involves inflammation of all 3 layers of the heart.
4th
[...]
Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with hot tub

folliculitis?
Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with hot tub

folliculitis?
[...]
Tetracyclines are a class of antibiotics that are avoided in [...] are a class of antibiotics that are avoided in pregnancy
pregnancy as they cause teeth discolouration and inhibit as they cause teeth discolouration and inhibit bone
bone growth.
growth.
Which systemic mycosis involves buds that are the same
size as RBCs?
Which systemic mycosis involves buds that are the same

size as RBCs?
Blastomycosis
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Reovirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Reovirus?
dsRNA
[...]
What is the gram stain of Escherichia coli?
What is the gram stain of Escherichia coli?
Negative
[...]
The Diarrheal type of Bacillus cereus food poisoning

presents with watery, nonbloody diarrhea and GI
pain within 8-18 hrs of consumption.
The [...] type of Bacillus cereus food poisoning presents

with watery, nonbloody diarrhea and GI pain within 818 hrs of consumption.
How do CSF lymphocyte levels change in viral meningitis? How do CSF lymphocyte levels change in viral meningitis?
Increase
[...]
Which pigment made by Pseudomonas aeruginosa gives

it its blue-green pigment?
[...]
Which pigment made by Pseudomonas aeruginosa gives

it its blue-green pigment?
Pyocyanin
Interferons are glycoproteins normally synthesized by
virus-infected cells that exhibit a wide range of antiviral
and antitumoual properties.
[...] are glycoproteins normally synthesized by virusinfected cells that exhibit a wide range of antiviral and
antitumoual properties.
Epiglottitis is a complication of Haemophilus

influenzae infection that often presents as a "cherry red"
epiglottis in children.
[...] is a complication of Haemophilus

influenzae infection that often presents as a "cherry red"
epiglottis in children.
HaEMOPhilus influenzae:
- Epiglottitis
- Meningitis
- Otitis media
- Pneumonia
H. influenzae does not cause the flu. That is the
influenza virus.
What is the treatment for Vaginal Trichomoniasis?
What is the treatment for Vaginal Trichomoniasis?
Metronidazole
[...]
The sexual partner must be treated as well.

Gonorrhea is an STD caused by Neisseria
gonorrheae that presents with urethritis, cervicitis,
prostatitis and a creamy purulent discharge.
[...] is an STD caused by Neisseria gonorrheae that

presents with urethritis, cervicitis, prostatitis and a
creamy purulent discharge.
What food source is associated with Staphylococcus

aureus food poisoning?
What food source is associated with Staphylococcus

aureus food poisoning?
Meats; Mayonnaise; Custard
[...]
Involves preformed enterotoxins

Catalase is an enzyme found in many bacteria that
[...] is an enzyme found in many bacteria that degrades
degrades H2O2 before it can be made into antimicrobial H2O2 before it can be made into antimicrobial products by
products by Myeloperoxidase.
Myeloperoxidase.
Remember, Myeloperoxidase in phagocytes makes
HOCl from H2O2.
3rd
[...]
How is Bacillary Angiomatosis (Bartonella spp.)

transmitted?
How is Bacillary Angiomatosis (Bartonella spp.)

transmitted?
Cat scratch
[...]
Bartonella also causes cat scratch disease.

Which Staphylococcus species is the 2nd most
common cause of uncomplicated UTI in young women?
[...]
Which Staphylococcus species is the 2nd most

common cause of uncomplicated UTI in young women?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Escherichia coli is the most common.
Which type of hemolysis is associated with the formation
of a clear area of hemolysis on blood agar?
Which type of hemolysis is associated with the formation

of a clear area of hemolysis on blood agar?
Beta-hemolysis
[...]

Legionella?

Legionella?
Charcoal yeast agar (buffered with cysteine and iron)
[...]
Which Hepatitis virus is commonly associated with causing Which Hepatitis virus is commonly associated with causing
needle pricks in health care workers?
needle pricks in health care workers?
HBV
[...]
What is the catalase expression of Serratia?
What is the catalase expression of Serratia?
Positive
[...]
How is Neisseria meningitidis transmitted?
How is Neisseria meningitidis transmitted?
Respiratory and Oral secretions
[...]
What type of odour is associated with Pseudomonas

aeruginosa?
What type of odour is associated with Pseudomonas

aeruginosa?
Grape-like odour
[...]
1st
[...]
Which cancer is a possible complication of chronic

Schistosoma haematobium infection?
Which cancer is a possible complication of chronic

Schistosoma haematobium infection?
Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
[...]
Presents with painless hematuria.

CMV is a Herpvesvirus that causes interstitial pneumonia [...] is a Herpvesvirus that causes interstitial pneumonia in
in HIV patients.
HIV patients.
Associated with owl eye inclusions.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is a species of Klebsiella that is
encapsulated.
[...] is a species of Klebsiella that is encapsulated.
What is the etiology of Chancroid?
What is the etiology of Chancroid?
Haemophilus ducreyi
[...]
How are Arboviruses transmitted?
How are Arboviruses transmitted?
Arthropods (mosquitoes; ticks)
[...]
Pertussis Toxin is an exotoxin from Bordetella

pertussis that causes whooping cough.
[...] is an exotoxin from Bordetella pertussis that causes

whooping cough.
Red Man Syndrome is a cutaneous complication of

Vancomycin that presents with diffuse flushing around
the body.
[...] is a cutaneous complication of Vancomycin that

presents with diffuse flushing around the body.
Can be prevented by antihistamine prophylaxis and a

slow infusion rate of Vancomycin.
The Elementary body is the morphological form of
Chlamydiae that is infectious and enters the host cell
via endocytosis.
The [...] is the morphological form of Chlamydiae that is

infectious and enters the host cell via endocytosis.
Elementary = Is "enfectious" and enters target host

cell via endocytosis
Trimethoprim is a folate synthesis inhibiting antibiotic [...] is a folate synthesis inhibiting antibiotic that is used
that is used as prophylaxis for Toxoplasmosis.
as prophylaxis for Toxoplasmosis.
What is the etiology of Tinea Versicolour?
What is the etiology of Tinea Versicolour?
Malassezia spp.
[...]
Malassezia furfur; Malassezia globosa; Malassezia

sympodialis
Occurs in hot, humid weather.
What is the treatment for Respiratory Syncytial Virus
(RSV) infection?
What is the treatment for Respiratory Syncytial Virus

(RSV) infection?
Ribavirin
[...]
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a lancetshaped Streptococcus species that is associated with

"rusty" sputum.
[...] is a lancet-shaped Streptococcus species that is

associated with "rusty" sputum.
Encapsulated
IgA Protease positive.
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is a zoonotic infection
caused by Rickettsia rickettsii that presents with a rash
that typically starts at the wrists and ankles and then
spreads to the trunk, palms and soles.
[...] is a zoonotic infection caused by Rickettsia

rickettsii that presents with a rash that typically starts at
the wrists and ankles and then spreads to the trunk,
palms and soles.
Which Mycobacteria species causes pulmonary TBlike symptoms (but not TB)?
Which Mycobacteria species causes pulmonary TBlike symptoms (but not TB)?
Mycobacterium kansasii
[...]
TB-like symptoms include fever, night sweats, weight

loss and hemoptysis.
What is the clinical use of Monobactams (Aztreonam)?
What is the clinical use of Monobactams (Aztreonam)?
Gram-negative rods only
[...]
Monobactams are ineffective against gram-positives

and anerobes.
Dextrans is a virulence factor from Streptococcus
sanguinis that binds to fibrin-platelet aggregates on
damaged heart valves, thereby allowing for bacterial
endocarditis.
[...] is a virulence factor from Streptococcus sanguinis

that binds to fibrin-platelet aggregates on damaged heart
valves, thereby allowing for bacterial endocarditis.
Which receptor does EBV use to enter B cells?
Which receptor does EBV use to enter B cells?
CD21 (C3d; CR2)
[...]
"You must be 21 to drink at the Epstein-Barr"

Rifampin and Rifabutin are rifamycin
antimycobacterials that function to inhibit DNADependent RNA Polymerase.
[...] and Rifabutin are rifamycin antimycobacterials that

function to inhibit DNA-Dependent RNA Polymerase.
Rifampin and Rifabutin are rifamycin

antimycobacterials that function to inhibit DNADependent RNA Polymerase.
Rifampin and [...] are rifamycin antimycobacterials that

function to inhibit DNA-Dependent RNA Polymerase.
Which Carbapanem antibiotic has a decreased risk of

causing seizures?
Which Carbapanem antibiotic has a decreased risk of

causing seizures?
Meropenem
[...]
Meropenem is also stable to renal dehydropeptidase I

What is the MOA of Botulinum toxin from Clostridium
botulinum?
What is the MOA of Botulinum toxin from Clostridium

botulinum?
Cleavage of SNARE proteins required for

neurotransmitter release
[...]
Which bug is associated with dog or cat bites?
Which bug is associated with dog or cat bites?
Pasteurella multocida
[...]
How is Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica) transmitted? How is Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica) transmitted?
Cysts in water
[...]
How does opening pressure change in viral meningitis?
How does opening pressure change in viral meningitis?
Normal or Increased
[...]
What toxicity is associated with the antifunal Flucytosine? What toxicity is associated with the antifunal Flucytosine?
Bone Marrow Suppression
[...]
Ototoxicity is a CNS complication of Aminoglycoside use,

especially when they are used with loop diuretics.
[...] is a CNS complication of Aminoglycoside use,

especially when they are used with loop diuretics.
Pott Disease is a possible complication of extrapulmonary

[...] is a possible complication of extrapulmonary
Tuberculosis that involves spread of infection to vertebral Tuberculosis that involves spread of infection to vertebral
bodies.
bodies.
What is the treatment for vaginosis caused by
Gardnerella vaginalis?
What is the treatment for vaginosis caused by

Gardnerella vaginalis?
Metronidazole
[...]
The anaerobic overgrowth of bacteria seen alongside

the vaginosis can be treated with Clindamycin.
How is Visceral Larva Migrans (Toxocara canis)
transmitted?
How is Visceral Larva Migrans (Toxocara canis)

transmitted?
Fecal-oral
[...]
How is Malaria (Plasmodium spp.) transmitted?
How is Malaria (Plasmodium spp.) transmitted?
Anopheles mosquito
[...]
Inhibition of viral DNA polymerase by binding to the

pyrophosphate-binding site of the enzyme
[...]
Cysticercosis and Neurocysticercosis are 2 complications

of infection with the eggs of Taenia solium.
[...] and Neurocysticercosis are 2 complications of

infection with the eggs of Taenia solium.
This is very important. Only the eggs of Taenia solium

cause Cysticercosis. The larvae cause intestinal
infection.
Cysticercosis and Neurocysticercosis are 2 complications Cysticercosis and [...] are 2 complications of infection with
of infection with the eggs of Taenia solium.
the eggs of Taenia solium.
This is very important. Only the eggs of Taenia solium
cause Cysticercosis. The larvae cause intestinal
infection.
erythema nodosum ("Desert bumps") and
arthralgias ("Desert rheumatism").
[...] is a systemic mycosis that presents with erythema

nodosum ("Desert bumps") and arthralgias ("Desert
rheumatism").
What type of diarrhea is caused by Campylobacter spp.? What type of diarrhea is caused by Campylobacter spp.?
Bloody
[...]
Comma or S-shaped organisms that can grow at 42 C

Which Plasmodium species is associated with Malaria
that has a tertian (48 hour) cycle of fever?

that has a tertian (48 hour) cycle of fever?
Plasmodium vivax; Plasmodium ovale
[...]
Tertian cycle includes fever on the first and third day,

hence fevers are actually 48 hours apart.
Kaposi Sarcoma is a neoplasm of endothelial cells that is
caused by HHV-8 in HIV/AIDS and transplant patients.
[...] is a neoplasm of endothelial cells that is caused by

HHV-8 in HIV/AIDS and transplant patients.
Quinidine (USA); Quinine (rest of the world); or

Artesunate
[...]
IgA Protease is a protein made by Haemophilus

influenzae that functions to cleave secreted host IgA.
[...] is a protein made by Haemophilus influenzae that

functions to cleave secreted host IgA.
CMV is a Herpesvirus that is latent in mononuclear cells.
[...] is a Herpesvirus that is latent in mononuclear cells.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease is a sporadic type of

spongiform encephalopathy caused by prions that is
characterized by rapidly progressive dementia.
[...] is a sporadic type of spongiform encephalopathy

caused by prions that is characterized by rapidly
progressive dementia.

Arbovirus is a group of viruses that are transmitted by
arthropods (e.g. mosquitoes, ticks).
[...] is a group of viruses that are transmitted by

arthropods (e.g. mosquitoes, ticks).
Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC) is a strain of

Escherichia coli that clinically presents similar to
Shigella infection.
[...] is a strain of Escherichia coli that clinically presents

similar to Shigella infection.
What is the primary clinical use of Tetracycline antibiotics? What is the primary clinical use of Tetracycline antibiotics?
Borrelia burgdorferi; Mycoplasma pneumoniae;
Intracellular bugs such as Rickettsia and Chlamydiae
[...]
Also used to treat acne

The Tuberculoid form of Leprosy is the form limited to a
few hypoesthetic, hairless skin plaques.
The [...] form of Leprosy is the form limited to a few

hypoesthetic, hairless skin plaques.

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?
Exfoliatin
[...]
What is the etiology of Leprosy (Hansen Disease)?
What is the etiology of Leprosy (Hansen Disease)?
Mycobacterium leprae
[...]
Acid-fast.
Loves cool temperatures.
Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity and Thrombophlebitis are 3
possible complications associated with Vancomycin use.
[...], Ototoxicity and Thrombophlebitis are 3 possible

complications associated with Vancomycin use.
However in general, Vancomycin is well tolerated.

"It is however, NOT trouble free."
- Nephrotoxicity
- Ototoxicity
- Thrombophlebitis
Nephrotoxicity, [...] and Thrombophlebitis are 3 possible


- Nephrotoxicity
- Ototoxicity
- Thrombophlebitis
Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity and [...] are 3 possible

- Nephrotoxicity
- Ototoxicity
- Thrombophlebitis
Which neurotransmitter's release is prevented by the
Tetanospasmin toxin from Clostridium tetani?

Tetanospasmin toxin from Clostridium tetani?
GABA; Glycine
[...]
Tetanus = spastic paralysis. Hence, there must be a

lack of inhibitory neurotransmitters.
Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in patients Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in patients
that have received cat and dog bites?
that have received cat and dog bites?
Pasteurella multocida
[...]
What is the etiology of Progressive Multifocal

Leukoencephalopathy (PML)?
What is the etiology of Progressive Multifocal

Leukoencephalopathy (PML)?
JC virus infection in HIV
[...]
Where does HIV replicate during the latent phase of an

untreated infection?
Where does HIV replicate during the latent phase of an

untreated infection?
Lymph nodes
[...]
Which exotoxin from Clostridium difficile causes

cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization?
Which exotoxin from Clostridium difficile causes

cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization?
Toxin B
[...]
Thereby causes pseudomembranous colitis and

diarrhea.
Yersinia enterocolitica is a gram-negative bacteria that [...] is a gram-negative bacteria that causes a mesenteric
causes a mesenteric adenitis that can mimic Crohn Disease adenitis that can mimic Crohn Disease or Appendicitis in
or Appendicitis in its presentation.
its presentation.
What type of diarrhea is caused by Salmonella?
What type of diarrhea is caused by Salmonella?
Bloody
[...]
Flagellar motility; reservoir is in animals, especially

poultry and eggs.
What is the Optochin sensitivity of Streptococcus
pneumoniae?
What is the Optochin sensitivity of Streptococcus

pneumoniae?
Sensitive
[...]
"OVeRPaSs"

infection in children?

infection in children?
Rifampin
[...]
What is the treatment for Hookworm (Ancylostoma

duodenale; Necator americanus)?
What is the treatment for Hookworm (Ancylostoma

duodenale; Necator americanus)?
[...]
Delavirdine and Efavirenz are the 2 NNRTI HAART

drugs that are contraindicated in pregnancy.
[...] and Efavirenz are the 2 NNRTI HAART drugs that

are contraindicated in pregnancy.
Delavirdine and Efavirenz are the 2 NNRTI HAART

drugs that are contraindicated in pregnancy.
Delavirdine and [...] are the 2 NNRTI HAART drugs that

are contraindicated in pregnancy.
Efavirenz is an NNRTI HAART drug that is associated

with vivid dreams and CNS toxicity.
[...] is an NNRTI HAART drug that is associated with

vivid dreams and CNS toxicity.
Proteus spp. and Klebsiella spp. are 2 gram-negative

bacteria known to cause UTIs that yield a positive
urinary urease test.
[...] and Klebsiella spp. are 2 gram-negative bacteria

known to cause UTIs that yield a positive urinary
urease test.
Proteus spp. and Klebsiella spp. are 2 gram-negative

bacteria known to cause UTIs that yield a positive
urinary urease test.
Proteus spp. and [...] are 2 gram-negative bacteria

known to cause UTIs that yield a positive urinary
urease test.
What type of diarrhea is caused by EIEC?
What type of diarrhea is caused by EIEC?
Bloody
[...]
Due to invasion of the colonic mucosa

Which Herpesvirus is associated with Hodgkin
Lymphoma?
Which Herpesvirus is associated with Hodgkin

Lymphoma?
EBV
[...]
What is the etiology of Pontiac Fever?
What is the etiology of Pontiac Fever?
Legionella pneumophila
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Papillomavirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Papillomavirus?
dsDNA
[...]
Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with saddle

nose and a short maxilla?
Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with saddle

nose and a short maxilla?
Syphilis
[...]
Tetracyclines are a class of protein synthesis

inhibiting antibiotics that cause teeth discolouration and that cause teeth discolouration and inhibition of bone
inhibition of bone growth in children.
growth in children.
What is the etiology of Lyme Disease?
What is the etiology of Lyme Disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
[...]
What is the treatment for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
What is the treatment for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Beta-lactam ( Aminoglycoside)
[...]
What is the catalase expression of Staphylococcus

aureus?
What is the catalase expression of Staphylococcus

aureus?
Positive
[...]
Amphotericin B is an antifungal agent that is used in

serious, systemic mycoses.
[...] is an antifungal agent that is used in serious, systemic

mycoses.
Edema Factor is an exotoxin from Bacillus anthracis that

mimics Adenylate Cyclase, thereby increasing cAMP
levels.
[...] is an exotoxin from Bacillus anthracis that mimics

Adenylate Cyclase, thereby increasing cAMP levels.
Alpha Toxin is an exotoxin from Clostridium

[...] is an exotoxin from Clostridium perfringens that acts
perfringens that acts as a phospholipase (Lecithinase) that as a phospholipase (Lecithinase) that degrades tissue and
degrades tissue and cell membranes.
cell membranes.
Cell wall/membrane is a bacterial structure seen in gram- [...] is a bacterial structure seen in gram-positive bacteria
positive bacteria that functions as the major surface
that functions as the major surface antigen.
antigen.
Amphotericin B is an antifungal drug that requires
subsequent K and Mg supplementation due to altered
renal tubule permeability.
[...] is an antifungal drug that requires subsequent K and

Mg supplementation due to altered renal tubule
permeability.
What is the etiology of Sandfly/Rift Valley Fevers?
What is the etiology of Sandfly/Rift Valley Fevers?
Bunyaviruses
[...]

Metronidazole is a DNA damaging antibiotic that yields a
metallic taste.
[...] is a DNA damaging antibiotic that yields a metallic

taste.
What is the treatment for systemic mycoses?
What is the treatment for systemic mycoses?
Amphotericin B
[...]
What is the treatment for Cryptosporidium?
What is the treatment for Cryptosporidium?
Prevention; via filtering of city water supplies
[...]
What colour pigment is associated with Actinomycess

israelii?
What colour pigment is associated with Actinomycess

israelii?
Yellow "sulfur" granules composed of filaments of bacteria
[...]
Israel has yellow sand.

Which 2 Hepatitis viruses do not increase the risk for
Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)?
Which 2 Hepatitis viruses do not increase the risk for

Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)?
HAV; HEV
[...]
What is the etiology of Toxoplasmosis?
What is the etiology of Toxoplasmosis?
Toxoplasma gondii
[...]
Which Systemic Mycosis is endemic in Mississippi and

the Ohio River valleys?
[...]
Which Systemic Mycosis is endemic in Mississippi and

the Ohio River valleys?
Histoplasmosis
Causes pneumonia.
Which viral gene in HIV codes for its Reverse
Transcriptase?
Which viral gene in HIV codes for its Reverse

Transcriptase?
pol
[...]
Remember, Reverse Transcriptase is an RNAdependent DNA Polymerase which synthesizes

dsDNA from RNA. The formed dsDNA integrates into
the host genome.
What is the etiology of Syphilis??
What is the etiology of Syphilis??
Treponema pallidum
[...]
What is the oxygen dependency of Mycobacterium

tuberculosis?
What is the oxygen dependency of Mycobacterium

tuberculosis?
Obligate aerobe
[...]
Rifamycins (Rifampin; Rifabutin) is a class of

antimycobacterials that yield orange-red bodily fluids.
[...] is a class of antimycobacterials that yield orange-red

bodily fluids.
A non-hazardoud side effect.

To which co-receptor does HIV bind to enter
Macrophages?
To which co-receptor does HIV bind to enter

Macrophages?
CCR5
[...]
Alongside CD4.
Homozygous CCR5 mutation = immunity.
Heterozygous CCR5 mutation = slower disease
course.
Which Hepatitis virus is a defective virus that is
dependent on HBV co-infection or superinfection?
Which Hepatitis virus is a defective virus that is

dependent on HBV co-infection or superinfection?
HDV
[...]
Superinfection yields a worse prognosis.

What is the MOA of Tetanospasmin toxin from
Clostridium tetani?
What is the MOA of Tetanospasmin toxin from

Clostridium tetani?
Cleavage of SNARE proteins required for

neurotransmitter release
[...]
Arrhythmia is a possible cardiac complication of

Fluoroquinolone administration that often involves a
prolonged QT interval.
[...] is a possible cardiac complication of

Fluoroquinolone administration that often involves a
prolonged QT interval.
Conidiophore is a structural form of Aspergillosis

[...] is a structural form of Aspergillosis fumigatus that is
fumigatus that is described as radiating chains of spores.
described as radiating chains of spores.
Rubella virus is a virus that affects unimmunized children

[...] is a virus that affects unimmunized children and
and presents with a rash that begins at the head and presents with a rash that begins at the head and moves
moves down with postauricular lymphadenopathy.
down with postauricular lymphadenopathy.
How do ALT levels change in Hepatitis?
How do ALT levels change in Hepatitis?
Increase
[...]
Obstructive crystalline nephropathy and Acute Renal

[...] and Acute Renal Failure are 2 renal complications of
Failure are 2 renal complications of
Acyclovir/Famciclovir/Valacyclovir use if the patient is not
hydrated properly.
hydrated properly.
Obstructive crystalline nephropathy and Acute Renal
Obstructive crystalline nephropathy and [...] are 2 renal
Failure are 2 renal complications of
complications of Acyclovir/Famciclovir/Valacyclovir use if
the patient is not hydrated properly.
hydrated properly.
Which vaginal infection is associated with Clue Cells?
Which vaginal infection is associated with Clue Cells?
Bacterial vaginosis
[...]
Secondary Syphilis is a form of Syphilis that presents as a

disseminated disease with a maculopapular rash on the
palms and soles.
[...] is a form of Syphilis that presents as a disseminated

disease with a maculopapular rash on the palms and
soles.
Secondary = Systemic
Shiga-like Toxin (SLT) is an exotoxin
from Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) that
can cause Hemolytic Uremia Syndrome (HUS) by
enhancing cytokine release.
[...] is an exotoxin from Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia

coli (EHEC) that can cause Hemolytic Uremia Syndrome
(HUS) by enhancing cytokine release.
Especially the O157:H7 strain.

EHEC does not invade host cells like Shigella.
What is the treatment for Chagas Disease?
What is the treatment for Chagas Disease?
Benznidazole or Nifurtimox
[...]
Antibodies to M Protein, a virulence factor from

Antibodies to [...], a virulence factor from Streptococcus
Streptococcus pyogenes, enhances host defenses against pyogenes, enhances host defenses against the bacteria but
the bacteria but can give rise to Rheumatic Fever.
can give rise to Rheumatic Fever.
What is the clinical use of Metronidazole?
What is the clinical use of Metronidazole?
Anaerobes; Enteric infections
[...]
"OP is a PhAGGET":
- Helicobacter pylori (in triple therapy)
- Anaerobes (Bacteroides, Clostridium difficile)
- Giardia lamblia
- Gardnerella vaginalis
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Trichomonas vaginalis
[...] is a protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotic that is
used to treat Rocky Mountain Spotted
Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii).
Chloramphenicol is a protein synthesis inhibiting

antibiotic that is used to treat Rocky Mountain Spotted
Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii).
Doxycycline (tetracyclines) can also be used.
Which stain (other than Gram) is required to visualize
Nocardia spp.?
Which stain (other than Gram) is required to visualize

Nocardia spp.?
Acid Fast; Nocardia is weakly acid fast
[...]

causes diaper rash.
[...] is a dimorphic fungi that commonly causes diaper

rash.
Clarithromycin is an antibiotic that is avoided in pregnancy

as it causes embryotoxicity.
[...] is an antibiotic that is avoided in pregnancy as it

causes embryotoxicity.
Where in the cell do DNA viruses replicate?
Where in the cell do DNA viruses replicate?
Nucleus, except for Poxvirus
[...]
What CD4 percentage is needed to make a diagnosis of

AIDS?
What CD4 percentage is needed to make a diagnosis of

AIDS?
< 14%
[...]
AIDS can also be diagnosed by the presence of an

AIDS-defining condition (Pneumocystis pneumonia) in
an HIV+ patient.
2nd
[...]
Which vector transmits Lyme Disease (Borrelia

burgdorferi)?
Which vector transmits Lyme Disease (Borrelia

burgdorferi)?
Ixodes tick
[...]
What type of diarrhea is caused by Entamoeba

histolytica?
What type of diarrhea is caused by Entamoeba

histolytica?
Bloody (Amoebic Dysentery)
[...]

perfringens food poisoning?

perfringens food poisoning?
Reheated meat dishes
[...]

spherules filled with endospores.

spherules filled with endospores.
Influenza Virus is an Orthomyxovirus that causes the flu.
[...] is an Orthomyxovirus that causes the flu.
What is the most common complication of Shingles?
What is the most common complication of Shingles?
Post-herpetic Neuralgia
[...]
Which disorder is associated with ASO (Anti-Streptolysin Which disorder is associated with ASO (Anti-Streptolysin
O) antibodies?
O) antibodies?
Rheumatic fever
[...]
Remember, Streptolysin O is from Streptococcus

pyogenes.
Campylobacter jejuni is a comma or S-shaped gram- [...] is a comma or S-shaped gram-negative bacillus that
negative bacillus that is a major cause of bloody diarrhea, is a major cause of bloody diarrhea, especially in children.
especially in children.
Which stain is used to visualize Legionella?
Which stain is used to visualize Legionella?
Silver stain
[...]
HEV is a Hepevirus that causes hepatitis.
[...] is a Hepevirus that causes hepatitis.
The Emetic type of Bacillus cereus food poisoning

presents with nausea and vomiting within 1-5 hrs of
consumption.
The [...] type of Bacillus cereus food poisoning presents

with nausea and vomiting within 1-5 hrs of consumption.
Which Herpesvirus is associated with Gingivostomatitis?
Which Herpesvirus is associated with Gingivostomatitis?
HSV-1
[...]
Cerebral Malaria is a severe form of Malaria that presents

[...] is a severe form of Malaria that presents with
with occlusion of capillaries in the brain by parasitized
occlusion of capillaries in the brain by parasitized RBCs.
RBCs.
Caused by Plasmodium falciparum
Which demographic is commonly affected by Primary
Tuberculosis?
Which demographic is commonly affected by Primary

Tuberculosis?
Non immune host (i.e. children); Immunocompromised
[...]
The capsule is a bacterial structure external to

peptidoglycan that protects the bacteria from
phagocytosis.
The [...] is a bacterial structure external to peptidoglycan

that protects the bacteria from phagocytosis.
Where are Viridans Streptococci normally found in the

body?
Where are Viridans Streptococci normally found in the

body?
Oropharynx
[...]
"Viridans Strep live in the mouth because they are not

afraid of-the-chin (optochin resistant)"
[...], Cefaclor and Cefuroxime are 2nd generation
Cephalosporins that are used to treat gram-positive cocci,
Haemophilus influenzae, Enterobacter aerogenes,
Neisseria spp, Proteus mirabilis, Escherichia coli,
Klebsiella pneumoniae and Serratia marcescens.
Cefoxitin, Cefaclor and Cefuroxime are 2nd generation

2nd generation Cephalosporins are "HEN PEcKS":
- Enterobacter aerogenes
- Neisseria spp.
- Proteus mirabilis
- Escherichia coli
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Serratia marcescens
Cefoxitin, [...] and Cefuroxime are 2nd generation
Cephalosporins that are used to treat gram-positive cocci, Cephalosporins that are used to treat gram-positive cocci,
- Neisseria spp.
- Proteus mirabilis
- Escherichia coli
Cefoxitin, Cefaclor and [...] are 2nd generation
Cephalosporins that are used to treat gram-positive cocci, Cephalosporins that are used to treat gram-positive cocci,
- Neisseria spp.
- Proteus mirabilis
- Escherichia coli
What type of HAART drug is Saquinavir?
What type of HAART drug is Saquinavir?
Protease inhibitor
[...]
Flucytosine is an antifungal agent that inhibits DNA and

RNA biosynthesis by conversion to 5-Fluorouracil by
Cytosine Deaminase.
[...] is an antifungal agent that inhibits DNA and RNA

biosynthesis by conversion to 5-Fluorouracil by Cytosine
Deaminase.
Griseofulvin is an antifungal agent that is avoided in

pregnancy as it is teratogenic.
[...] is an antifungal agent that is avoided in pregnancy as

it is teratogenic.
How do the level of PMNs change in bacterial meningitis? How do the level of PMNs change in bacterial meningitis?
Increase
[...]
[...] is the pathological form of prions that resists protease

PrPsc is the pathological form of prions that resists
protease degradation and hence facilitates the conversion degradation and hence facilitates the conversion of more
of more normal PrPc prions into the infective, transmissible normal PrPc prions into the infective, transmissible form.
form.
Paracoccidioidomycosis is a systemic mycosis that is
endemic in Latin America.
[...] is a systemic mycosis that is endemic in Latin

America.
Which special culture media/agar is used to isolate fungi?
Which special culture media/agar is used to isolate fungi?
Sabouraud agar
[...]
Sab is a fun-guy!
Coccidiomycosis is a systemic mycosis that is endemic in
the Southwestern United States and California.
[...] is a systemic mycosis that is endemic in the

Southwestern United States and California.
Causes pneumonia and meningitis.

Can disseminate to bone and skin.
Escherichia coli is a species of Escherichia that is
encapsulated.
[...] is a species of Escherichia that is encapsulated.
Encephalopathy (Progressive Multifocal

Leukoencephalopathy; PML) is a CNS disorder seen in
HIV patients that involves the reactivation of latent JC
virus and subsequent demyelination.
[...] is a CNS disorder seen in HIV patients that involves

the reactivation of latent JC virus and subsequent
demyelination.
Plasmodium falciparum is a species of Plasmodium that [...] is a species of Plasmodium that yields very severe
yields very severe malaria that presents with parasitized
malaria that presents with parasitized RBCs that
RBCs that occlude capillaries in the brain,
occlude capillaries in the brain, kidneys and lungs.
kidneys and lungs.
How do antibiotics influence the duration of fecal excretion How do antibiotics influence the duration of fecal excretion
of Shigella?
of Shigella?
Shortening
[...]
Pseudomembranous pharyngitis is a feature of Diphtheria

that involves a grayish-white membrane forming in the
pharynx.
[...] is a feature of Diphtheria that involves a grayishwhite membrane forming in the pharynx.
There is also lymphadenopathy, myocarditis and

arrhythmias.
What type of food is associated with Bacillus cereus food What type of food is associated with Bacillus cereus food
poisoning?
poisoning?
Rice
[...]
Hence "Reheated Rice Syndrome".

Spores survive the cooking of rice.
Keeping rice warm results in germination of the spores
and subsequent enterotoxin formation.
What is the MOA of Chloroquine in the treatment of
Malaria?
What is the MOA of Chloroquine in the treatment of

Malaria?
Blocking of Plasmodium heme polymerase
[...]
What class of antibiotic is Tetracycline?
What class of antibiotic is Tetracycline?
Tetracycline
[...]
(lol)
What is the Urease expression of Helicobacter pylori?
What is the Urease expression of Helicobacter pylori?
Positive
[...]
A Urease breath test or fecal antigen test can be used

for diagnosis.
Chandelier Sign is a complication of Pelvic Inflammatory
Disease (PID) that presents as cervical motion tenderness.
[...] is a complication of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

(PID) that presents as cervical motion tenderness.
What is the MOA of Rifamycin antimycobacterials

(Rifampin; Rifabutin)?
What is the MOA of Rifamycin antimycobacterials

(Rifampin; Rifabutin)?
Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
[...]
What is the prophylactic treatment for Mycobacterium

What is the prophylactic treatment for Mycobacterium
avium-intracellulare in an HIV patient with < 50 CD4+ avium-intracellulare in an HIV patient with < 50 CD4+
cells/mm3?
cells/mm3?
Azithromycin
[...]
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome is a rare complication of

pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) caused by Neisseria
gonorrhoeae that involves inflammation of the liver
capsule and formation of adhesions.
[...] is a rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease

(PID) caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae that involves
inflammation of the liver capsule and formation of
adhesions.
What type of nucleic acid is seen in all segmented viruses? What type of nucleic acid is seen in all segmented viruses?
RNA
[...]
What is the incubation period for Rabies?
What is the incubation period for Rabies?
Weeks to months before symptoms arise
[...]
Parvovirus B19 is a ssDNA virus that causes "slapped

[...] is a ssDNA virus that causes "slapped cheeks"
cheeks" rash (erythema infectiosum; fifth disease) in rash (erythema infectiosum; fifth disease) in children.
children.
Which gram-positive, filamentous bacteria is associated
with yellow "sulfur granules"?
Which gram-positive, filamentous bacteria is associated

with yellow "sulfur granules"?
Actinomyces spp.
[...]
Which antibody against HBV is indicative of low

transmissibility?
Which antibody against HBV is indicative of low

transmissibility?
Anti-HBeAg
[...]
Fever/chills is a complication of Amphotericin B

administration that is described as "shake and bake".
[...] is a complication of Amphotericin B administration

that is described as "shake and bake".
What is the MOA of Amoxicillin?
What is the MOA of Amoxicillin?

[...]
Naegleria fowleri is a CNS protozoal pathogen that

causes rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis.
[...] is a CNS protozoal pathogen that causes rapidly

fatal meningoencephalitis.
What is the etiology of Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth

Disease)?
What is the etiology of Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth

Disease)?
Parvovirus B19
[...]
What is the gram stain of Bartonella?
What is the gram stain of Bartonella?
Negative
[...]
Lipoteichoic Acid is a component of the cell

wall/membrane of gram-positive bacteria that induces
TNF and IL-1.
[...] is a component of the cell wall/membrane of grampositive bacteria that induces TNF and IL-1.
What is the gram stain of the Enteric bacteria?
What is the gram stain of the Enteric bacteria?
Negative
[...]
Latex agglutination test is a diagnostic test used to detect

the polysaccharide capsular antigen of Cryptococcus
neoformans.
[...] is a diagnostic test used to detect the polysaccharide

capsular antigen of Cryptococcus neoformans.
Specific test.
How does diabetes affect the risk for obtaining a UTI?
How does diabetes affect the risk for obtaining a UTI?
Increase
[...]
Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome is a complication of

meningococcemia that is described as adrenal gland
failure due to hemorrhaging into the adrenal glands.
[...] is a complication of meningococcemia that is

described as adrenal gland failure due to
hemorrhaging into the adrenal glands.
What group of bacteria are associated with Aspiration

Pneumonia?
What group of bacteria are associated with Aspiration

Pneumonia?
Anaerobic bacteria
[...]
Ascaris lumbricoides is a species of intestinal nematode [...] is a species of intestinal nematode that is also referred
that is also referred to as giant roundworm.
to as giant roundworm.
What is the clinical use of beta-lactamase
resistant penicillins (Nafcillin/Oxacillin/Dicloxacillin)?
What is the clinical use of beta-lactamase

resistant penicillins (Nafcillin/Oxacillin/Dicloxacillin)?
Staphylococcus aureus (except for MRSA)
[...]
"Use 'naf' to kill 'staph' "

aerobe that often causes nocosomial pneumonia.
[...] is a gram-negative obligate aerobe that often causes

nocosomial pneumonia.
What is the largest DNA virus?
What is the largest DNA virus?
Poxviruses
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Orthomyxoviruses?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Orthomyxoviruses?
Negative ssRNA
[...]
What is the treatment for local mycoses?
What is the treatment for local mycoses?
Fluconazole or Itraconazole
[...]
How is Rubella transmitted?
How is Rubella transmitted?
Respiratory droplets
[...]
Mycobacterium leprae is an acid-fast bacillus that causes [...] is an acid-fast bacillus that causes Leprosy (Hansen
Leprosy (Hansen Disease).
Disease).
Secondary Syphilis is a form of Syphilis that presents with [...] is a form of Syphilis that presents with condylomata
condylomata lata.
lata.
These can also be confirmed via dark-field microscopy
once the Treponemes have been sampled.
Secondary = Systemic
What is the etiology of Visceral Larva Migrans?
What is the etiology of Visceral Larva Migrans?
Toxocara canis
[...]
Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis at the

vertebrae?
Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis at the

vertebrae?
[...]
Remember, this is called Pott Disease

Mycoplasma, Legionella and Chlamydia are bacteria
associated with Atypical Pneumonia.
[...], Legionella and Chlamydia are bacteria associated

with Atypical Pneumonia.
Mycoplasma, Legionella and Chlamydia are bacteria

Mycoplasma, [...] and Chlamydia are bacteria

Mycoplasma, Legionella and Chlamydia are bacteria Mycoplasma, Legionella and [...] are bacteria associated
with Atypical Pneumonia.
Hemolytic Uremia Syndrome (HUS) is a
[...] is a hematological/renal complication
hematological/renal complication
of Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) infection
of Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) infection
that involves a triad of anaemia,
that involves a triad of anaemia,
thrombocytopaenia and acute renal failure.
thrombocytopaenia and acute renal failure.
Microthrombi form on endothelium that is damaged
by the Shiga-like toxin. This then causes mechanical
hemolysis and formation of schistocytes. That also
causes a decrease in renal blood flow.
Additionally, the microthrombi results
thrombocytopaenia due to the platelet usage.
Fluoroquinolones are a class of antibiotics that are avoided [...] are a class of antibiotics that are avoided in pregnancy
in pregnancy as they cause cartilage damage.
as they cause cartilage damage.
[...] is an infectious disorder caused by a Paramyxovirus
that presents with a characteristic descending
maculopapular rash.
Measles is an infectious disorder caused by a

Paramyxovirus that presents with a characteristic
descending maculopapular rash.
Discrete erythematous rash that presents late and

includes the limbs as it spreads downwards (vs.
Rubella which involves mostly the trunk and spreads
centrifugally to the extremities)
Tetracyclines are a class of protein synthesis inhibiting
antibiotics that should not be taken with milk (Ca2+),
antacids (Ca2+, Mg2+) or iron-containing preparations
(Fe2+).
[...] are a class of protein synthesis inhibiting

antibiotics that should not be taken with milk (Ca2+),
antacids (Ca2+, Mg2+) or iron-containing preparations
(Fe2+).
This is because divalent cations inhibits Tetracycline

absorption at the gut.
Bronchiectasis and eosinophilia are 2 possible
complications of Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
(ABPA).
[...] and eosinophilia are 2 possible complications of

Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA).
Bronchiectasis and eosinophilia are 2 possible

complications of Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
(ABPA).
Bronchiectasis and [...] are 2 possible complications of

Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA).
Cryptococcus neoformans is an opportunistic fungus that

presents as 5-10 um yeasts with wide capsular halos and
unequal budding.
[...] is an opportunistic fungus that presents as 5-10 um

yeasts with wide capsular halos and unequal budding.
The stain used is India Ink

Amoebiasis is a GI protozoal infection that is diagnosed by
trophozoites in the stool that contain RBCs in their
cytoplasm.
[...] is a GI protozoal infection that is diagnosed by

trophozoites in the stool that contain RBCs in their
cytoplasm.
Lassa virus is an Arenavirus that causes Lassa Fever.
[...] is an Arenavirus that causes Lassa Fever.
What type of motility does Listeria

monocytogenes have?
What type of motility does Listeria

monocytogenes have?
Tumbling
[...]
Isoniazid (INH) is an antimycobacterial that requires

bacterial catalase-peroxidase enzymes in order to
become active metabolites.
[...] is an antimycobacterial that requires bacterial

catalase-peroxidase enzymes in order to become active
metabolites.
Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that should not

be used in pregnancy as they cause ototoxicity.
[...] are a class of antibiotics that should not be used in

pregnancy as they cause ototoxicity.
Chancroid is an STD caused by Haemophilus

ducreyi that presents with painful genital ulcers and
inguinal adenopathy.
[...] is an STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi that

presents with painful genital ulcers and inguinal
adenopathy.
What is the treatment for Mucormycosis?
What is the treatment for Mucormycosis?
Amphotericin B
[...]
Saddle Nose is a morphological feature of Congenital [...] is a morphological feature of Congenital Syphilis that
Syphilis that presents with a loss of height of the nose due
presents with a loss of height of the nose due to a
to a collapsed nose bridge (nasal dorsum).
collapsed nose bridge (nasal dorsum).
Ascending Lymphangitis is a complication of

[...] is a complication of Sporotrichosis that results from
Sporotrichosis that results from local pustule/ulcer
local pustule/ulcer formation with nodules along draining
formation with nodules along draining lymphatics following
lymphatics following traumatic infection.
traumatic infection.
What is the treatment for asymptomatic passers of
Entamoeba histolytica cysts?
What is the treatment for asymptomatic passers of

Entamoeba histolytica cysts?
Iodoquinol
[...]

causes opportunistic infections and presents as
pseudohyphae/budding yeasts at 20 C and germ
tubes at 37 C.
[...] is a dimorphic fungi that commonly causes

opportunistic infections and presents as
pseudohyphae/budding yeasts at 20 C and germ
tubes at 37 C.
Pseudohyphae/budding yeast on the left.

Germ tubes on the right.
What is the MOA of Nafcillin?
What is the MOA of Nafcillin?

[...]
What is the treatment for Cryptosporidium infection in

immunocompetent hosts?
What is the treatment for Cryptosporidium infection in

immunocompetent hosts?
Nitazoxanide
[...]
What is the mechanism of Sulfonamide resistance?
What is the mechanism of Sulfonamide resistance?
Altered Dihydropteroate Synthase; Decreased uptake;

Increased PABA synthesis
[...]
Human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV) is a Retrovirus that

causes Adult T-Cell Leukemia/Lymphoma.
[...] is a Retrovirus that causes Adult T-Cell

Leukemia/Lymphoma.

Tetracyclines?

Tetracyclines?
30S
[...]
Terbinafine is an antifungal agent that inhibits Squalene

Epoxidase, thereby inhibiting Ergosterol synthesis.
[...] is an antifungal agent that inhibits Squalene Epoxidase,

thereby inhibiting Ergosterol synthesis.
Babesiosis is a hematological protozoal infection that

presents with fever and hemolytic anaemia due to
Babesia spp. infection.
[...] is a hematological protozoal infection that presents

with fever and hemolytic anaemia due to Babesia
spp. infection.
Which stain is used to visualize Plasmodium?
Which stain is used to visualize Plasmodium?
Giemsa
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Retrovirus?

[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Retrovirus?

Positive ssRNA
What is the mechanism of Chloramphenicol resistance?
What is the mechanism of Chloramphenicol resistance?
Plasmid-encoded acetyltransferases that inactivate the

drug
[...]
What is the MOA of Diphtheria Toxin from

What is the MOA of Diphtheria Toxin from

Inactivation of elongation factor 2 (EF2) via ADP

ribosylation, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis
[...]
What is the MOA of Dicloxacillin?
What is the MOA of Dicloxacillin?
[...]
Which Mycobacteria species causes disseminated, nonTB disease in AIDS patients?
Which Mycobacteria species causes disseminated, nonTB disease in AIDS patients?
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
[...]
Often resistant to multiple drugs.

Which HBV antigen is associated with the core of HBV? Which HBV antigen is associated with the core of HBV?
HBcAg
[...]
Terbinafine is an antifungal agent that is used to treat

Dermatophytoses, especially Onychomycosis.
[...] is an antifungal agent that is used to treat

Dermatophytoses, especially Onychomycosis.
What is the etiology of Bacillary Angiomatosis?
What is the etiology of Bacillary Angiomatosis?
Bartonella spp.
[...]
Pneumocystis jirovecii is an opportunistic fungus that is a

disc-shaped yeast that forms of methenamine silver
stain of lung tissue.
[...] is an opportunistic fungus that is a disc-shaped

yeast that forms of methenamine silver stain of lung
tissue.
What is the treatment for a UTI caused by Pseudomonas What is the treatment for a UTI caused by Pseudomonas
aeruginosa?
aeruginosa?
Ciprofloxacin
[...]
Primary Syphilis is a type of Syphilis that presents with

painless chancres.
[...] is a type of Syphilis that presents with painless

chancres.
What is the MOA of Tetracycline antibiotics?
What is the MOA of Tetracycline antibiotics?
Bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit, thereby preventing the

attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA mocs
[...]
What is the gram stain of Mycobacterium?

[...]
What is the gram stain of Mycobacterium?

Positive; also acid fast
What is the gram stain of Haemophilus?
What is the gram stain of Haemophilus?
Negative
[...]
IFN-alpha is an Interferon used to treat Kaposi sarcoma.
[...] is an Interferon used to treat Kaposi sarcoma.
Which Herpesvirus is associated with Neonatal Herpes?
Which Herpesvirus is associated with Neonatal Herpes?
HSV-2
[...]
What is the MOA of Maraviroc (HAART Fusion

inhibitor)?
What is the MOA of Maraviroc (HAART Fusion

inhibitor)?
Binds to CCR5 on T cells/monocytes, thereby inhibiting

interaction with gp120 and viral entry
[...]
Which bacteria are associated with a positive urinary

urease test in a UTI?
Which bacteria are associated with a positive urinary

urease test in a UTI?
Klebsiella spp.; Proteus spp.
[...]
Roseola is an infectious disorder caused by HHV-6 that

presents with high fever for several days and a
subsequent diffuse macular rash.
[...] is an infectious disorder caused by HHV-6 that

presents with high fever for several days and a
subsequent diffuse macular rash.
The pilus/fimbria is a bacterial structure that functions to

mediate the adherence of the bacteria to cell surfaces.
The [...] is a bacterial structure that functions to mediate

the adherence of the bacteria to cell surfaces.
What stain is used to visualize Cryptococcus

neoformans?
What stain is used to visualize Cryptococcus

neoformans?
India ink and mucicarmine
[...]
What is the prophylactic treatment for a history of

recurrent UTIs?
What is the prophylactic treatment for a history of

recurrent UTIs?
SMP-TMX
[...]
Which Herpesvirus is associated with Nasopharyngeal

Carcinoma?
Which Herpesvirus is associated with Nasopharyngeal

Carcinoma?
EBV
[...]
What is the MOA of Sulfonamide antibiotics?
What is the MOA of Sulfonamide antibiotics?
Inhibition of Dihydropteroate Synthase, thereby

decreasing Folate synthesis
[...]
Where in the respiratory tract does Staphylococcus

aureus commonly colonize?
Where in the respiratory tract does Staphylococcus

aureus commonly colonize?
Nose
[...]
Candida albicans is a nocosomial infection that has

hyperalimentation as a risk factor.
[...] is a nocosomial infection that has

hyperalimentation as a risk factor.
What is the clinical use of Chloroquine?
What is the clinical use of Chloroquine?
Malaria caused by Plasmodium sp. other than

[...]
The frequency of Plasmodium falciparum resistance to

Chloroquine is very high.
Dengue virus (DENV) is an Arbovirus and Flavivirus that
causes Dengue.
[...] is an Arbovirus and Flavivirus that causes Dengue.
What type of anaemia is a complication of Sulfonamide

use?
What type of anaemia is a complication of Sulfonamide

use?
Megaloblastic Anaemia
[...]
Which antimycobacterial/antibiotic drug is used as

prophylaxis for Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare?
Which antimycobacterial/antibiotic drug is used as

prophylaxis for Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare?
Azithromycin; Rifabutin
[...]
What is the treatment for Elephantiasis?
What is the treatment for Elephantiasis?
Diethylcarbamazine
[...]
Where on the body is Staphylococcus epidermidis

found?
Where on the body is Staphylococcus epidermidis

found?
Skin
[...]
G-CSF drugs and Erythropoietin are 2 drugs that are used

[...] and Erythropoietin are 2 drugs that are used to
to correct the bone marrow suppression caused by NRTI correct the bone marrow suppression caused by NRTI
HAART drugs.
HAART drugs.
G-CSF drugs and Erythropoietin are 2 drugs that are used G-CSF drugs and [...] are 2 drugs that are used to correct
to correct the bone marrow suppression caused by NRTI the bone marrow suppression caused by NRTI HAART
HAART drugs.
drugs.
What CD4+ cell count is associated with JC virus
reactivation in HIV patients?
What CD4+ cell count is associated with JC virus

reactivation in HIV patients?
< 200 cells/mm3
[...]
Which cestode (tapeworm) is associated with brain

cysts and seizures?
Which cestode (tapeworm) is associated with brain

cysts and seizures?
Taenia solium (Cysticercosis)
[...]
Which bacteria often causes acute Pelvic Inflammatory

Disease (PID)?
Which bacteria often causes acute Pelvic Inflammatory

Disease (PID)?
[...]
How does Vancomycin influence gram-negatives bacteria? How does Vancomycin influence gram-negatives bacteria?
No effect
[...]
The outer membrane layer of gram-negative bacteria

does not let Vancomycin enter.
What type of HAART drug is Efavirenz?
What type of HAART drug is Efavirenz?
NNRTI
[...]
Generalized tranduction is a type of bacterial transduction

[...] is a type of bacterial transduction that involves
that involves cleavage of bacterial DNA and partial
cleavage of bacterial DNA and partial packaging of
packaging of bacterial chromosomal DNA into
bacterial chromosomal DNA into bacteriophage capsids
bacteriophage capsids following lytic phage infection.
following lytic phage infection.
The phage then infects another bacterium,
transferring the genes.
Arthritis is a musculoskeletal complication seen in Lyme
Disease.
[...] is a musculoskeletal complication seen in Lyme

Disease.
Monoarthritis in large joints.

Migratory polyarthritis elsewhere.
Mucor spp. and Rhizopus spp. are 2 species of
opportunistic fungus that can cause Mucormycosis.
[...] and Rhizopus spp. are 2 species of opportunistic

fungus that can cause Mucormycosis.
Mucor spp. and Rhizopus spp. are 2 species of

opportunistic fungus that can cause Mucormycosis.
Mucor spp. and [...] are 2 species of opportunistic fungus

that can cause Mucormycosis.
Which subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei is from

East Africa?

East Africa?
Trypanosoma brucei rhodiense
[...]
Rhodesia was located in southeast Africa. Kind of...

w/e brah, just remember it.
What is the incubation period for HAV?
What is the incubation period for HAV?
Short (weeks)
[...]
How does Penicillin G affect gram-negative bacteria?
How does Penicillin G affect gram-negative bacteria?
No effect
[...]
Gram-negatives are resistant to Penicillin G as the

outer membrane layer inhibits entry.
What is the treatment for Sporotrichosis?
What is the treatment for Sporotrichosis?
Itraconazole or Potassium Iodide
[...]
Endotoxin is a virulence factor found in the outer cell

membrane of gram-negative bacteria that induces TNF,
IL-1 and IL-6.
[...] is a virulence factor found in the outer cell membrane

of gram-negative bacteria that induces TNF, IL-1 and
IL-6.
It also causes fever, shock, DIC.
Exotoxin A is a superantigen exotoxin from Streptococcus

[...] is a superantigen exotoxin from Streptococcus
pyogenes that brings MHC II and T-cell receptors in
pyogenes that brings MHC II and T-cell receptors in
proximity to the antigen binding site, thereby causing toxic proximity to the antigen binding site, thereby causing toxic
shock syndrome.
shock syndrome.
Vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin that is used to prevent [...] is a fat soluble vitamin that is used to prevent severe
severe exfoliative dermatitis in malnourished children exfoliative dermatitis in malnourished children infected with
infected with Measles.
Measles.
What is the etiology of Relapsing Fever?
What is the etiology of Relapsing Fever?
Borrelia recurrentis
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Lamivudine (3TC)?
What type of HAART drug is Lamivudine (3TC)?
NRTI
[...]
What agar is used to grow Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
What agar is used to grow Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
Eaton agar
[...]
Malaria is a hematological protozoal infection that presents

with fever, headache, anaemia and splenomegaly.
[...] is a hematological protozoal infection that presents

with fever, headache, anaemia and splenomegaly.
Ritonavir is an HIV Protease inhibitor that inhibits

cytochrome P450, thereby it can increase the
concentration of other drugs.
[...] is an HIV Protease inhibitor that inhibits cytochrome

P450, thereby it can increase the concentration of other
drugs.
How are the ToRCHeS infections commonly transmitted? How are the ToRCHeS infections commonly transmitted?
Transplacental in most cases
[...]
HSV-2 is commonly transmitted during delivery.

What generation Cephalosporin is Cefaclor?
What generation Cephalosporin is Cefaclor?
2nd
[...]
Where in the body is Bacteroides fragilis normally

found?
Where in the body is Bacteroides fragilis normally

found?
Colon
[...]
What is the etiology of Herpes Genitalis?
What is the etiology of Herpes Genitalis?
HSV-2
[...]
Which age group is commonly affected by meningitis

caused by Listeria monocytogenes?
Which age group is commonly affected by meningitis

caused by Listeria monocytogenes?
Neonates; Newborns
[...]
Remember, Listeria can be acquired transvaginally

during childbirth.
[...] and Cephalexin are 1st generation Cephalosporins
that are used to treat gram-positive cocci, Proteus
mirabilis, Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae
Cefazolin and Cephalexin are 1st generation

Proteus mirabilis, Escherichia coli and Klebsiella
pneumoniae
1st gen Cephalosporins "PEcK":
- Proteus mirabilis
- Escherichia coli
Cefazolin and Cephalexin are 1st generation
Cefazolin and [...] are 1st generation Cephalosporins that
Cephalosporins that are used to treat gram-positive cocci, are used to treat gram-positive cocci, Proteus mirabilis,
Proteus mirabilis, Escherichia coli and Klebsiella
Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae
pneumoniae
1st gen Cephalosporins "PEcK":
- Proteus mirabilis
- Escherichia coli
Tenofovir is an NRTI that is already a nucleotide, and
hence does not need to be phosphorylated to be
activated.
[...] is an NRTI that is already a nucleotide, and hence

does not need to be phosphorylated to be activated.
The rest are all nucleoside and require

phosphorylation.
What is the MOA of Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin
(TSST-1) from Staphylococcus aureus?
What is the MOA of Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin

(TSST-1) from Staphylococcus aureus?
Bringing of MHC II and T-cell receptors in proximity to

outside of the antigen binding site, thereby causing
overwhelming release of IFN-gamma and IL-2
[...]
And subsequent shock.

How do Cephalosporin antibiotics influence the
nephrotoxicity of Aminoglycosides?
How do Cephalosporin antibiotics influence the

nephrotoxicity of Aminoglycosides?
Increase
[...]
How can Amphotericin B nephrotoxicity be decreased?
How can Amphotericin B nephrotoxicity be decreased?
Hydration
[...]
Vulvovaginal Candidiasis is a common vaginal infection

that presents with a thick, white, "cottage cheese"
discharge.
[...] is a common vaginal infection that presents with a

thick, white, "cottage cheese" discharge.
Which stain is best used to visualize Rickettsiae?
Which stain is best used to visualize Rickettsiae?
Giemsa
[...]
What is the gram stain of the Spirochetes?
What is the gram stain of the Spirochetes?
Negative
[...]
Borrelia, Leptospira, Treponema
Which type of Syphilis is associated with Hutchinson

teeth?
Which type of Syphilis is associated with Hutchinson

teeth?
Congenital Syphilis
[...]
Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that is avoided in

pregnancy as it causes "Gray Baby" Syndrome.
[...] is an antibiotic that is avoided in pregnancy as it

causes "Gray Baby" Syndrome.
What is the etiology of Giardiasis?
What is the etiology of Giardiasis?
Giardia lamblia
[...]
In which area of the United States is Lyme Disease

common?
In which area of the United States is Lyme Disease

common?
Northeastern United States
[...]
Herpesviruses are a class of DNA viruses that acquires

[...] are a class of DNA viruses that acquires their
their envelope from the nuclear membrane. All other
envelope from the nuclear membrane. All other enveloped
enveloped viruses acquire it from the plasma membrane.
viruses acquire it from the plasma membrane.
Exotoxin A is an exotoxin from Pseudomonas
aeruginosa that inactivated elongation factor 2 (EF2)
through ADP ribosylation, thereby inhibiting protein
synthesis and causing cell death.
[...] is an exotoxin from Pseudomonas aeruginosa that

inactivated elongation factor 2 (EF2) through ADP
ribosylation, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis and
causing cell death.
Which Hepatitis virus is associated with high mortality in

pregnant women?
Which Hepatitis virus is associated with high mortality in

pregnant women?
HEV
[...]
What is the etiology of Trichomoniasis?
What is the etiology of Trichomoniasis?
Trichomonas vaginalis
[...]
Interstitial nephritis is a renal complication of beta[...] is a renal complication of beta-lactamase resistant

lactamase resistant
penicillin (Nafcillin/Oxacillin/Dicloxacillin) administration.
penicillin (Nafcillin/Oxacillin/Dicloxacillin) administration.
What is the catalase expression of Candida?
What is the catalase expression of Candida?
Positive
[...]
Cholestatic hepatitis is a hepatic complication of

Macrolide antibiotic use.
[...] is a hepatic complication of Macrolide antibiotic use.
Amoebiasis is a GI protozoal infection that presents with

flask-shaped ulcers at the GI Submucosa.
[...] is a GI protozoal infection that presents with flaskshaped ulcers at the GI Submucosa.
Entamoeba histolytica causes the ulceration.

Parvovirus B19 is a ssDNA virus that causes RBC
destruction in fetus, thereby leading to hydrops fetalis and
death.
[...] is a ssDNA virus that causes RBC destruction in

fetus, thereby leading to hydrops fetalis and death.
HSV-2 is a ToRCHeS infection that presents with

encephalitis and herpetic (vesicular) lesions.
[...] is a ToRCHeS infection that presents with

encephalitis and herpetic (vesicular) lesions.
Which momoclonal antibody is used to target the Surface Which momoclonal antibody is used to target the Surface
F protein on all Paramyxoviruses?
F protein on all Paramyxoviruses?
Palivizumab
[...]
It can prevent the pneumonia caused by RSV infection

in premature infants.
Maraviroc is an HAART drug that binds to CCR5 on T
cells/monocytes, thereby inhibiting gp120 and and
stopping viral entry.
[...] is an HAART drug that binds to CCR5 on T

cells/monocytes, thereby inhibiting gp120 and and
stopping viral entry.
How does the pH of the stomach change with

Helicobacter pylori infection?
How does the pH of the stomach change with

Helicobacter pylori infection?
More alkaline (increased pH)
[...]
What is the prophylactic treatment for gonorrhea?
What is the prophylactic treatment for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
[...]
The pilus is a bacterial structure that forms an attachment

between 2 bacteria during conjugation.
The [...] is a bacterial structure that forms an attachment

between 2 bacteria during conjugation.
Proteus mirabilis is a gram-negative bacteria that causes

UTI and is associated with struvite stones.
[...] is a gram-negative bacteria that causes UTI and is

associated with struvite stones.
Yellow Fever is an infectious disorder caused by a

Flavivirus (and Arbovirus) that presents with high fever,
black vomitus and jaundice.
[...] is an infectious disorder caused by a Flavivirus (and

Arbovirus) that presents with high fever, black
vomitus and jaundice.
Etiology is Yellow Fever Virus (but I didn't wanna

make it too easy, nom sayin?)
Asperigllus fumigatus is an opportunistic fungal species
that causes Aspergillosis and presents with septate
hyphae that branch at 45 degree angles.
[...] is an opportunistic fungal species that causes

Aspergillosis and presents with septate hyphae that
branch at 45 degree angles.
Acute angles in Aspergillosis.

Not dimorphic.
PrPsc is the beta-pleated, infective and transmissible form [...] is the beta-pleated, infective and transmissible form
of prions that is formed following the conversion from the of prions that is formed following the conversion from the
normal, predominantly alpha-helical PrPc protein.
normal, predominantly alpha-helical PrPc protein.
Why doesn't Rickettsia gram stain cell?
Why doesn't Rickettsia gram stain cell?
Intracellular parasite
[...]
Aspergillus fumigatus is an opportunistic fungus that

causes invasive Aspergillosis in HIV patients that presents
with pleuritic pain, hemoptysis and infiltrates on imaging.
[...] is an opportunistic fungus that causes invasive

Aspergillosis in HIV patients that presents with pleuritic
pain, hemoptysis and infiltrates on imaging.
What is the treatment for Herpes Zoster?
What is the treatment for Herpes Zoster?
Famciclovir
[...]
How does Listeriosis (Listeria monocytogenes)

commonly present in healthy individuals?
How does Listeriosis (Listeria monocytogenes)

commonly present in healthy individuals?
Mild gastroenteritis
[...]
What is the Oxidase expression of Campylobacter

jejuni?
What is the Oxidase expression of Campylobacter

jejuni?
Positive
[...]
Rubella and CMV are 2 ToRCHeS infections that are

associated with a "blueberry muffin" rash.
[...] and CMV are 2 ToRCHeS infections that are

Rubella and CMV are 2 ToRCHeS infections that are

Rubella and [...] are 2 ToRCHeS infections that are

What CD4+ cell count is required to make an AIDS

diagnosis?
What CD4+ cell count is required to make an AIDS

diagnosis?
200 CD4+ cells/mm3
[...]
Normal = 500-1500 cells/mm3

Surface F (fusion) protein is a surface protein found in all [...] is a surface protein found in all Paramyxoviruses that
Paramyxoviruses that causes respiratory epithelial cells to
causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form
fuse and form multinucleated cells.
multinucleated cells.
epidermidis?

epidermidis?
Sensitive
[...]
"NO StRESs"
Foscarnet is an antiviral agent that acts as a viral DNA
[...] is an antiviral agent that acts as a viral DNA
polymerase inhibitor by binding to the pyrophosphate- polymerase inhibitor by binding to the pyrophosphatebinding site of the enzyme.
binding site of the enzyme.
Which bacteria are most likely associated with a
negative urinary urease test in a UTI?
Which bacteria are most likely associated with a

negative urinary urease test in a UTI?
Escherichia coli; Enterococcus spp.
[...]
Q Fever is a Rickettsial disease that can be obtained via

aerosolized spores released from tick feces or cattle
placenta.
[...] is a Rickettsial disease that can be obtained via

aerosolized spores released from tick feces or cattle
placenta.
Pneumocystic jirovecii is an opportunistic fungus that

causes Pneumocystis pneumonia in HIV patients.
[...] is an opportunistic fungus that causes

Pneumocystis pneumonia in HIV patients.
Associated with a ground glass appearance on

imaging.
Why doesn't Chlamydia gram stain well?
Why doesn't Chlamydia gram stain well?
Intacellular; lacks muramic acid in the cell wall
[...]
Toxoplasma gondii is a ToRCHeS infection that presents [...] is a ToRCHeS infection that presents as a classic triad
as a classic triad of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and
of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and intracranial
intracranial calcifications in neonates.
calcifications in neonates.
Cryptococcus neoformans is a heavily encapsulated yest [...] is a heavily encapsulated yest that is commonly found
that is commonly found in soil and pigeon droppings.
in soil and pigeon droppings.
Inhibition of peptidoglycan formation by binding to D-AlaD-Ala on cell wall precursors
[...]
Results in inhibition of Transglycolase action.

What CD4+ cell count is indicative of moderate
immunocompromisation in HIV infection?
What CD4+ cell count is indicative of moderate

immunocompromisation in HIV infection?
< 400 CD4+ cells/mm3
[...]
Which antibiotic is associated with causing Grey Baby

Syndrome?
Which antibiotic is associated with causing Grey Baby

Syndrome?
Chloramphenicol
[...]
Trimethoprim (TMP) is an antibiotic that is often used in [...] is an antibiotic that is often used in conjunction with
conjunction with Sulfonamides, thereby causing sequential Sulfonamides, thereby causing sequential block of folate
block of folate synthesis.
synthesis.
TMP-SMX: Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is
typically used for:
- UTIs
- Shigella
- Salmonella
- Pneumocytis jirovecii pneumonia treatment and
prophylaxis
- Toxoplasmosis prophylaxis
Epstein-Barr Nuclear Antigen (EBNA) is a serological
antigen from EBV that contributes to Hodgkin's or
Burkitt's Lymphoma.
[...] is a serological antigen from EBV that contributes to

Hodgkin's or Burkitt's Lymphoma.

inhibiting antibiotics that increase the serum concentration
that increase the serum concentration of
of theophyllines and oral anticoagulants.
theophyllines and oral anticoagulants.
Which antiplasmodial drug is added onto Chloroquine in
Plasmodium vivax/ovale infection to eliminate
Hypnozoites?
Which antiplasmodial drug is added onto Chloroquine in

Plasmodium vivax/ovale infection to eliminate
Hypnozoites?
Primaquine
[...]
You must test for G6PD Deficiency first.

Sulfatides are surface glycolipids found on
Mycobacterium sp. that inhibit phagolysosomal fusion.
[...] are surface glycolipids found on Mycobacterium

sp. that inhibit phagolysosomal fusion.
Where in the United States is Babesiosis predominantly

found?
Where in the United States is Babesiosis predominantly

found?
Northeastern USA
[...]
Rhinovirus is a Picornavirus that causes the "common

cold".
[...] is a Picornavirus that causes the "common cold".
Which gram-positive bacteria causes Diphtheria through a Which gram-positive bacteria causes Diphtheria through a
potent extoxin that inhibits protein synthesis via ADP
potent extoxin that inhibits protein synthesis via ADP
ribosylation of EF-2?
ribosylation of EF-2?
Corynebactrium diphtheriae
[...]
The toxin is encoded by a beta-prophage.

Toxoid vaccine can prevent Diphtheria.
What is the treatment for Neurocysticercosis (eggs of
Taenia solium)?
What is the treatment for Neurocysticercosis (eggs of

Taenia solium)?
Albendazole
[...]
Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in patients Which bacteria is associated with Osteomyelitis in patients
that have received a prosthetic joint replacement?
that have received a prosthetic joint replacement?
Staphylococcus aureus; Staphylococcus epidermidis
[...]
Neisseria meningitidis is a species of Neisseria that is

encapsulated.
[...] is a species of Neisseria that is encapsulated.
Rubella is a viral infection that presents with a postaurical [...] is a viral infection that presents with a postaurical
lymphadenopathy and a fine truncal rash that initially lymphadenopathy and a fine truncal rash that initially
begins as a rash on the head which moves down.
begins as a rash on the head which moves down.
Which bacteria is commonly associated with
epiglottitis in pediatric patients?
Which bacteria is commonly associated with

epiglottitis in pediatric patients?
Haemophilus influenzae Type B
[...]
Sulfonamides are a class of antibiotics that are avoided in [...] are a class of antibiotics that are avoided in pregnancy
pregnancy as they cause kernicterus.
as they cause kernicterus.
Which serological antigen from EBV is produced if the
infection is active and productive?
Which serological antigen from EBV is produced if the

infection is active and productive?
Viral Capsid Antigen (VCA)
[...]
Tabes Dorsalis (Syphilitic Myelopathy) is a feature of

[...] is a feature of Tertiary Syphilis that presents
Tertiary Syphilis that presents with general paresis and with general paresis and loss of sensation due to slow
loss of sensation due to slow degeneration of the dorsal
degeneration of the dorsal column of the spinal cord.
column of the spinal cord.
Which antibiotic is known to treat anaerobic infections
below the diaphragm?
Which antibiotic is known to treat anaerobic infections

below the diaphragm?
Metronidazole
[...]
"OP is a PhAGGET":
- Helicobacter pylori (in triple therapy)
- Anaerobes (Bacteroides, Clostridium difficile)
- Giardia lamblia
- Gardnerella vaginalis
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Trichomonas vaginalis
Malaria is a hematological protozoal infection that can be

diagnosed by schizonts that contain merozoites.
[...] is a hematological protozoal infection that can be

diagnosed by schizonts that contain merozoites.

Botulinum toxin from Clostridium botulinum?

Botulinum toxin from Clostridium botulinum?
ACh
[...]
Botulism = flaccid paralysis. Hence there must be a

lack of stimulatory neurotransmitters.
Cryptosporidium spp. is a protozoa that causes GI
[...] is a protozoa that causes GI infection in HIV patients
infection in HIV patients that presents with chronic, watery
that presents with chronic, watery diarrhea.
diarrhea.
Acid fast cysts are seen in the stool.
Legionella is a bacterial nocosomial infection that has
water aerosols as a risk factor.
[...] is a bacterial nocosomial infection that has water

aerosols as a risk factor.
Reassortment is a viral genetic phenomenon that involves

the exchange of genetic segments amongst viruses with
segmented genomes.
[...] is a viral genetic phenomenon that involves the

exchange of genetic segments amongst viruses with
segmented genomes.
This is high frequency recombination.

e.g. Influenza virus; in fact, this is why there are
worldwide influenza pandemics.
Which common vaginal infection does not present with
inflammation?
Which common vaginal infection does not present with

inflammation?
Bacterial vaginosis
[...]
What type of Anthrax is obtained through the inhalation of What type of Anthrax is obtained through the inhalation of
Bacillus anthracis spores?
Bacillus anthracis spores?
Pulmonary anthrax
[...]
What is the smallest DNA virus?
What is the smallest DNA virus?
Parvovirus
[...]
IFN-alpha is an Interferon used to treat Malignant

Melanoma.
[...] is an Interferon used to treat Malignant Melanoma.
What is the MOA of all Cephalosporins?
What is the MOA of all Cephalosporins?
[...]
The Monospot Test is a diagnostic test that detects the

heterophile antibodies seen in EBV infection via
agglutination of sheep or horse RBCs.
The [...] is a diagnostic test that detects the heterophile

antibodies seen in EBV infection via agglutination of
sheep or horse RBCs.
Lipoteichoic Acid is a component of the bacteral cell wall

that is described as a combination of lipids and teichoic
acid.
[...] is a component of the bacteral cell wall that is

described as a combination of lipids and teichoic acid.
Unique to gram-positive bacteria.
How do K levels change in Rotavirus infection?
How do K levels change in Rotavirus infection?
Decrease due to K loss (as a result of GI villi destruction

and atrophy)
[...]
Which form of prions are the infective, transmissible,

pathogenic form of the protein?
Which form of prions are the infective, transmissible,

pathogenic form of the protein?
PrPsc
[...]
How do Azole antifungals influence Cytochrome P450

activity?
How do Azole antifungals influence Cytochrome P450

activity?
Decrease
[...]

Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria?

Lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria?
MacConkey Agar
[...]
Growth will appear as pink colonies as lactose

fermentation causes acidity, thereby turning the
colony pink.
Which strain of Haemophilus influenzae causes the most Which strain of Haemophilus influenzae causes the most
invasive disease?
invasive disease?
Type B
[...]
The H. influenzae vaccine contains Type B capsular

polysaccharides conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or
another protein. It is given between 2 and 18 months.
The non-typeable strains cause mucosal infections
(e.g. otitis media, conjunctivitis, bronchitis).
esophagitis caused by Candida albicans in HIV
patients?

esophagitis caused by Candida albicans in HIV
patients?
< 100 cells/mm3
[...]
Syphilis is a ToRCHeS infection that often results in

stillbirth through hydrops fetalis.
[...] is a ToRCHeS infection that often results in stillbirth

through hydrops fetalis.
Caseating Granulomas are a feature of secondary

tuberculosis described as fibrocaseous cavitary lesions
with central necrosis and multinucleated Langerhans giant
cells.
[...] are a feature of secondary tuberculosis described as

fibrocaseous cavitary lesions with central necrosis and
multinucleated Langerhans giant cells.
Central pinkish region is the necrosis.

Arrow points to the Langerhans cell.
What is the ROA of Amphotericin B in the treatment of
fungal meningitis?
What is the ROA of Amphotericin B in the treatment of

fungal meningitis?
Intrathecally
[...]
What is the incubation period for HCV?
What is the incubation period for HCV?
Long
[...]
What is the gram stain of Vibrio?
What is the gram stain of Vibrio?
Negative
[...]
Which diagnostic test is used to diagnose Herpes

Encephalitis?
Which diagnostic test is used to diagnose Herpes

Encephalitis?
CSF PCR
[...]
Dapsone, Rifampin, and Clofazimine are antimycobacterial drugs used to treat the Lepromatous form
of Leprosy.
[...], Rifampin, and Clofazimine are anti-mycobacterial

drugs used to treat the Lepromatous form of Leprosy.
The Lepromatous form is treated with a 2-5 year

regimen of Dapsone, Rifampin and Clofazimine.
Dapsone, Rifampin, and Clofazimine are antimycobacterial drugs used to treat the Lepromatous form
of Leprosy.
Dapsone, [...], and Clofazimine are anti-mycobacterial

drugs used to treat the Lepromatous form of Leprosy.

Dapsone, Rifampin, and Clofazimine are antiDapsone, Rifampin, and [...] are anti-mycobacterial drugs
mycobacterial drugs used to treat the Lepromatous form
used to treat the Lepromatous form of Leprosy.
of Leprosy.
Which HBV antigen appears first in an HBV infection?
Which HBV antigen appears first in an HBV infection?
HBsAg
[...]
"SE-CES" in the order of appearance:

- SE are the antigens (HBsAg; HBeAg)
- CES are the antibodies
Which class of folate synthesis inhibiting antibiotics
displace other drugs from Albumin?
Which class of folate synthesis inhibiting antibiotics

displace other drugs from Albumin?
Sulfonamides
[...]
Yellow Fever Virus (YFV) is an Arbovirus and Flavivirus

that causes Yellow Fever.
[...] is an Arbovirus and Flavivirus that causes Yellow

Fever.
Which animal is the reservoir for Mycobacterium

leprae in the USA?
Which animal is the reservoir for Mycobacterium

leprae in the USA?
Armadillo
[...]
What is the MOA of NRTI HAART drugs?
What is the MOA of NRTI HAART drugs?
Competitively inhibit nucleotide binding to Reverse

Transcriptase, thereby terminating DNA chain elongation
[...]
NRTIs lack 3' -OH groups.
What is the gram stain of Campylobacter?
What is the gram stain of Campylobacter?
Negative
[...]
Which type of hepatitis is characterized by ALT > AST?
Which type of hepatitis is characterized by ALT > AST?
Viral
[...]
VirALT.
What is the treatment for Legionella
pneumophila infection?
What is the treatment for Legionella

pneumophila infection?
Macrolides or Quinolones
[...]
Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with Ecthyma Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with Ecthyma
Gangrenosum?
Gangrenosum?
[...]
Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare (MAC) is a

Mycobacterial species that causes Tuberculosis-like
disease in HIV patients.
[...] is a Mycobacterial species that causes Tuberculosislike disease in HIV patients.
Tendon rupture is a possible connective tissue

[...] is a possible connective tissue complication of
complication of Fluoroquinolone administration in patients Fluoroquinolone administration in patients > 60 y/o and in
> 60 y/o and in patients taking prednisone.
patients taking prednisone.
What foods are associated with Campylobacter jejuni? What foods are associated with Campylobacter jejuni?
Poultry; Meat; Unpasteurized Milk
[...]
Pseudomonas sp., Staphylococcus aureus

and Streptococcus pneumoniae are bacteria associated
with pneumonia in Cystic Fibrosis patients.
[...], Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus

pneumoniae are bacteria associated with pneumonia in
Cystic Fibrosis patients.

Pseudomonas sp., [...] and Streptococcus pneumoniae
and Streptococcus pneumoniae are bacteria associated are bacteria associated with pneumonia in Cystic Fibrosis
patients.
and Streptococcus pneumoniae are bacteria associated
Pseudomonas sp., Staphylococcus aureus and [...] are

bacteria associated with pneumonia in Cystic Fibrosis
patients.
Which dimorphic fungi commonly causes endocarditis in

IV drug users?
Which dimorphic fungi commonly causes endocarditis in

IV drug users?
Candida albicans
[...]
What is the etiology of Kaposi Sarcoma?
What is the etiology of Kaposi Sarcoma?
HHV-8
[...]
BK Virus is a dsDNA Polyomavirus that commonly

targets the kidney in transplant patients.
[...] is a dsDNA Polyomavirus that commonly targets the

kidney in transplant patients.
BK = Bad Kidney
JC = Junky Cerebrum (PML)
Clue cells are cells that feature vaginosis caused by

[...] are cells that feature vaginosis caused by Gardnerella
Gardnerella vaginalis and are described as vaginal
vaginalis and are described as vaginal epithelial cells
epithelial cells covered with Gardnerella vaginalis.
covered with Gardnerella vaginalis.
Visible under the microscope.

Cryptosporidium is a GI protozoal pathogen that causes [...] is a GI protozoal pathogen that causes severe diarrhea
severe diarrhea in AIDS.
in AIDS.
It causes mild, watery diarrhea in the
immunocompetent.
Photosensitivity is a CNS complication of Tetracycline
use.
[...] is a CNS complication of Tetracycline use.
Molluscum contagiosum is a cutaneous disorder caused by [...] is a cutaneous disorder caused by Poxviruses that
Poxviruses that presents with flesh-coloured dome
presents with flesh-coloured dome lesions with a
lesions with a central umbilicated dimple.
central umbilicated dimple.
What is the catalase expression of Listeria?
What is the catalase expression of Listeria?
Positive
[...]
What form of Syphilis is associated with broad-based

ataxia and a positive Romberg sign?
What form of Syphilis is associated with broad-based

ataxia and a positive Romberg sign?
Tertiary syphilis; Neurosyphilis
[...]
What is the gram stain of Staphylococcus?
What is the gram stain of Staphylococcus?
Positive
[...]
How is hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale; Necator

americanus) transmitted?
How is hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale; Necator

americanus) transmitted?
Larvae penetrate the skin
[...]
What is the ROA of Penicillin V?
What is the ROA of Penicillin V?
Oral
[...]
Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease) is a viral infection

caused by Parvovirus B19 that presents with a "slapped
cheek" on the face.
[...] is a viral infection caused by Parvovirus B19 that

presents with a "slapped cheek" on the face.
Parvovirus B19 can cause hydrops fetalis in pregnant

women.
Influenza virus is an enveloped orthomyxovirus with an 8segment negative ssRNA genome.
[...] is an enveloped orthomyxovirus with an 8-segment

negative ssRNA genome.
What is the etiology of Condyloma Acuminata?
What is the etiology of Condyloma Acuminata?
HPV-6; HPV-11
[...]
What is the gram stain of Listeria?
What is the gram stain of Listeria?
Positive
[...]
Chickenpox is an infectious disorder caused by VZV that [...] is an infectious disorder caused by VZV that presents
presents with a vesicular rash that begins on the trunk with a vesicular rash that begins on the trunk that
that spreads to the face and extremities.
spreads to the face and extremities.
Negri Bodies are characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions
commonly found in Purkinje cells of the
cerebellum and in hippocampal neurons in a patient
with Rabies.
[...] are characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions commonly

found in Purkinje cells of the cerebellum and in
hippocampal neurons in a patient with Rabies.
Hemolytic Anaemia is a hematological complication of

Ribavirin use.
[...] is a hematological complication of Ribavirin use.
Gray Baby Syndrome is a complication of

Chloramphenicol use in premature infants as they lack
hepatic UDP-Glucuronyl Transferase.
[...] is a complication of Chloramphenicol use in premature

infants as they lack hepatic UDP-Glucuronyl
Transferase.
What colour colonies do Enterobacter spp. yield on

MacConkey Agar?
What colour colonies do Enterobacter spp. yield on

MacConkey Agar?
Pink
[...]

Which stain is used to visualize Trypanosomes?
Which stain is used to visualize Trypanosomes?
Giemsa
[...]
Muramic Acid is a sugar acid commonly found in bacterial [...] is a sugar acid commonly found in bacterial cell walls,
cell walls, however not in Chlamydiae.
however not in Chlamydiae.
Measles virus is a Paramyxovirus that causes Measles.
[...] is a Paramyxovirus that causes Measles.
Which species of Schistosoma is associated with causing Which species of Schistosoma is associated with causing
squamous cell carcinoma if there is a chronic infection?
squamous cell carcinoma if there is a chronic infection?
Schistosoma haematobium
[...]
What is the MOA of Exotoxin A from Streptococcus

pyogenes?
What is the MOA of Exotoxin A from Streptococcus

pyogenes?
Superantigen; MHC II and TCR activation, thereby

causing massive release of IFN-gamma and IL-2
[...]
Not to be confused with Exotoxin A from

Pseudomonas aeruginosa which functions to
inactivate EF2 and protein synthesis.
Which animal is the natural reservoir for Borrelia
burdorferi?
Which animal is the natural reservoir for Borrelia

burdorferi?
Mouse
[...]
Mice are important in the tick life cycle.

Pyrazinamide is an antimycobacterial that is associated
with hyperuricemia and hepatotoxicity as side effects.
[...] is an antimycobacterial that is associated with

hyperuricemia and hepatotoxicity as side effects.
Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoa that causes vaginitis [...] is a protozoa that causes vaginitis associated with a
associated with a "strawberry cervix".
"strawberry cervix".
Malaria is a hematological protozoal infection that can be
diagnosed by a trophozoite ring form in RBCs on a
[...] is a hematological protozoal infection that can be

diagnosed by a trophozoite ring form in RBCs on a
What is the gram stain of Mycoplasma?
What is the gram stain of Mycoplasma?
None; it doesn't stain as it lacks a cell wall
[...]
HBV is a Hepatitis virus that increases the risk of

Hepatocellular Carcinoma by integrating into the host
genome, thereby acting as an oncogene.
[...] is a Hepatitis virus that increases the risk of

Hepatocellular Carcinoma by integrating into the host
genome, thereby acting as an oncogene.
Ebola virus is a Filovirus that causes Ebola.
[...] is a Filovirus that causes Ebola.
Zidovudine (ZDV; AZT) is an NRTI HAART drug that is

[...] is an NRTI HAART drug that is used in
used in pregnancy to decrease the risk of fetal
pregnancy to decrease the risk of fetal transmission.
transmission.
How is Aminopenicillin resistance achieved?
How is Aminopenicillin resistance achieved?
Penicillinase, a beta-lactamase found in bacteria
[...]
How is Legionella pneumophila transmitted?
How is Legionella pneumophila transmitted?
Aerosol from environmental water source to habitat
[...]
e.g. air conditioning unit; hot water tanks

There is no person-to-person transmission
What is the treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis?
What is the treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis?
Metronidazole
[...]
The patient's sexual partner also receives

Metronidazole as prophylaxis.
Which bug is associated with causing CN VII (Facial
Nerve) Palsy?
Which bug is associated with causing CN VII (Facial

Nerve) Palsy?
Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme Disease)
[...]
Which 3rd generation Cephalosporin is used to treat

Pseudomonas spp. infection?

Pseudomonas spp. infection?
Ceftaxidime
[...]
Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with wound

and burn infections?
Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with wound

and burn infections?
[...]
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome is a complication of Pelvic

Inflammatory Disease (PID) that presents as an infection
of the liver capsule and subsequent "violin string"
adhesions peritoneum to liver.
[...] is a complication of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

(PID) that presents as an infection of the liver
capsule and subsequent "violin string" adhesions
peritoneum to liver.
What is the etiology of Leptospirosis?
What is the etiology of Leptospirosis?
Leptospira interrogans
[...]
Leptospirosis presents with flu-like symptoms,

jaundice, photophobia with conjunctival suffusion
(erythema without exudate).
Clonorhis sinensis is a species of trematode that is
associated with cholangiocarcinoma.
[...] is a species of trematode that is associated with

cholangiocarcinoma.
How is Echinococcus granulosus transmitted?
How is Echinococcus granulosus transmitted?
Ingestion of eggs from dog feces
[...]
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Listeria

monocytogenes?
What type of hemolysis is exhibited by Listeria

monocytogenes?
Beta-hemolysis
[...]
Tumbling motility; meningitis in newborns;

unpasteurized milk.
Schistosoma spp. is a trematode that causes liver and
spleen granulomas, fibrosis and inflammation.
[...] is a trematode that causes liver and spleen

granulomas, fibrosis and inflammation.
How is Cryptosporidium transmitted?
How is Cryptosporidium transmitted?
Oocysts in the water
[...]

aerobe that is often associated with pneumonia in Cystic
Fibrosis patients.
[...] is a gram-negative obligate aerobe that is often

associated with pneumonia in Cystic Fibrosis patients.

for Pneumocystis pneumonia in an HIV patient with <
200 CD4+ cells/mm3?

for Pneumocystis pneumonia in an HIV patient with <
200 CD4+ cells/mm3?
TMP-SMX
[...]
Which antifungal agent is known to deposit in keratincontaining tissue?
Which antifungal agent is known to deposit in keratincontaining tissue?
Griseofulvin
[...]
Why doesn't Mycoplasma gram stain well?
Why doesn't Mycoplasma gram stain well?
No cell wall
[...]
Where is EBV latent?
[...]
Where is EBV latent?

B cells
EBV infects B cells.
What class of antibiotic is Azithromycin?
What class of antibiotic is Azithromycin?
Macrolide
[...]
What type of diarrhea is caused by Shigella?
What type of diarrhea is caused by Shigella?
Bloody
[...]
Produces a Shiga toxin.

Human reservoir only.
What is the MOA of Shiga Toxin (ST) from Shigella
spp.?
What is the MOA of Shiga Toxin (ST) from Shigella

spp.?
Inactivation of the 60S ribosome by removing adenine

from rRNA
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Delavirdine?
What type of HAART drug is Delavirdine?
NNRTI
[...]
Endotoxin is a virulence factor found in gram-negative

bacteria that is made of Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
[...] is a virulence factor found in gram-negative bacteria

that is made of Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Which antibody against HBV is indicative of prior

exposure or chronic infection?
Which antibody against HBV is indicative of prior

exposure or chronic infection?
Anti-HBcAg IgG
[...]
Positive during the window period.

Which fungi are associated with infections in neutropenic
patients?
Which fungi are associated with infections in neutropenic

patients?
Candida albicans; Aspergillus
[...]
Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with saber

shins?
Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with saber

shins?
Syphilis
[...]
What is the Optochin sensitivity of Viridans Streptococci What is the Optochin sensitivity of Viridans Streptococci
(Streptococcus mutans)?
(Streptococcus mutans)?
Resistant
[...]
"OVeRPaSs"
Aflatoxin is a toxin produced by Aspergillosis sp. that is
associated with causing hepatocellular carcinoma.
[...] is a toxin produced by Aspergillosis sp. that is

associated with causing hepatocellular carcinoma.
What CD4 count in AIDS patients is required before

starting prophylaxis treatment?
What CD4 count in AIDS patients is required before

starting prophylaxis treatment?
< 200 cells/mm3
[...]
What CD4+ cell count is associated with Toxoplasma

gondii infection in HIV patients?
What CD4+ cell count is associated with Toxoplasma

gondii infection in HIV patients?
< 100 cells/mm3
[...]
Which type of Bacillus cereus food poisoning has the

shortest incubation period?
Which type of Bacillus cereus food poisoning has the

shortest incubation period?
Emetic type
[...]
Emetic type = nausea and vomiting 1-5 hrs post

consumption
Diarrheal type = watery, nonbloody diarrhea with GI
pain 8-18 hrs post consumption
Besides anaerobic infections, what is the clinical use of
Clindamycin?
Besides anaerobic infections, what is the clinical use of

Clindamycin?
Invasive Group A Streptococcal infection (Streptococcus

pyogenes)
[...]
Sporothrix schenkii is a dimorphic, cigar shaped

budding yeast that lives on vegetation and causes
Sporotrichosis.
[...] is a dimorphic, cigar shaped budding yeast that

lives on vegetation and causes Sporotrichosis.
IgA Protease is a bacterial virulence factor that functions

to cleave IgA, thereby allowing for colonization of the
respiratory mucosa.
[...] is a bacterial virulence factor that functions to cleave

IgA, thereby allowing for colonization of the respiratory
mucosa.
What is the gram stain of Clostridium?
What is the gram stain of Clostridium?
Positive
[...]
How do CSF protein levels change in fungal or TB

meningitis?
How do CSF protein levels change in fungal or TB

meningitis?
Increase
[...]
Measles (Rubeola) is a viral infection caused by a

[...] is a viral infection caused by a paramyxovirus that
paramyxovirus that presents with a rash that begins at the presents with a rash that begins at the head and moves
head and moves down.
down.
The rash is preceded by cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
and Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa.
Ceftaroline is a 5th generation Cephalosporin that has
broad-spectrum coverage against gram-negative and
gram-positive organisms, including MRSA.
[...] is a 5th generation Cephalosporin that has broadspectrum coverage against gram-negative and grampositive organisms, including MRSA.
It does not cover Pseudomonas.

[...] is a poorly gram-staining bacteria that is a classic
cause of atypical "walking" pneumonia.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a poorly gram-staining

bacteria that is a classic cause of atypical
"walking" pneumonia.
Walking pneumonia is pneumonia with an insidious
onset, headache, nonproductive cough and
patchy/diffuse interstitial infiltrate.
Chest x-ray often looks worse than the patient is.
What is the etiology for Typhoid Fever?
What is the etiology for Typhoid Fever?
Salmonella typhi
[...]
Which exotoxin from Clostridium difficile functions to

bind to the brush border of the gut?
Which exotoxin from Clostridium difficile functions to

bind to the brush border of the gut?
Toxin A
[...]
Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with Hutchinson Which ToRCHeS infection is associated with Hutchinson
teeth, a congenital dental malformation involving notches, teeth, a congenital dental malformation involving notches,
widely shaped central incisors?
widely shaped central incisors?
Syphilis
[...]
What type of HAART drug is Enfuvirtide?
What type of HAART drug is Enfuvirtide?
Fusion inhibitor
[...]
What is the gram stain of Legionella?
What is the gram stain of Legionella?
Negative
[...]
What class of antibiotic is Streptomycin?
What class of antibiotic is Streptomycin?
Aminoglycoside
[...]
What is the MOA of Edema Factor toxin from Bacillus

anthracis?
What is the MOA of Edema Factor toxin from Bacillus

anthracis?
Mimicry of Adenylate Cyclase, thereby increasing cAMP

levels
[...]
Raltegravir is an Integrase inhibitor that is associated with

hypercholesterolemia.
[...] is an Integrase inhibitor that is associated with

hypercholesterolemia.
What is the First Aid mnemonic for facultative

What is the First Aid mnemonic for facultative

[...]
Loa loa is a tissue nematode that causes swelling in the [...] is a tissue nematode that causes swelling in the skin skin - worms can also be found in the conjunctiva.
worms can also be found in the conjunctiva.
How is Psittacosis (Chlamydophila psittaci) transmitted? How is Psittacosis (Chlamydophila psittaci) transmitted?
Parrots or other birds
[...]
Which systemic mycoses often shows an increase in

case rate after earthquakes?
Which systemic mycoses often shows an increase in

case rate after earthquakes?
Coccidiomycosis
[...]
This is due to spores in dust being thrown up into the

air and becoming spherules in the lungs.
Which types of HPV have available recombinant
vaccines?
Which types of HPV have available recombinant

vaccines?
HPV 6, 11, 16, 18
[...]

West Africa?

West Africa?
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
[...]
The G's are all from the West side.

What cardiovascular defects are associated with
Congenital Rubella (ToRCHeS)?
What cardiovascular defects are associated with

Congenital Rubella (ToRCHeS)?
PDA or Pulmonary Artery Hypoplasia
[...]
Specialized transduction is a type of bacterial transduction

that involves a lysogenic phage infects a bacterium and
incorporates viral DNA into the bacterial chromosome.
[...] is a type of bacterial transduction that involves a

lysogenic phage infects a bacterium and incorporates
viral DNA into the bacterial chromosome.
When phage DNA is excised, flanking bacterial genes

may be excised with it and packaged into viral
capsids.
Reiter Syndrome is a type of reactive arthritis that is
caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
[...] is a type of reactive arthritis that is caused by

Chlamydia trachomatis.
What is the pregnancy category of Aminoglycosides?
What is the pregnancy category of Aminoglycosides?
X; they are Teratogenic
[...]
Which Herpesvirus is associated with causing retinitis?
Which Herpesvirus is associated with causing retinitis?
CMV
[...]
"Sight"-o-megalovirus
vulnificus food poisoning?

vulnificus food poisoning?
Contaminated seafood
[...]
Vibrio vulnificus also causes wound infections from

contact with contaminated water or shellfish.
What is the MOA of the antimycobacterial Ethambutol?
What is the MOA of the antimycobacterial Ethambutol?
Inhibition of Arabinosyltransferase, thereby decreasing

carbohydrate polymerization of the mycobacterium cell
wall
[...]
Which Mycobacteria species is known to cause

Tuberculosis?
Which Mycobacteria species is known to cause

Tuberculosis?
[...]
Often resistant to many drugs.

What is the etiology of California Encephalitis?
What is the etiology of California Encephalitis?
Bunyaviruses
[...]

What class of antibiotic is Doxycycline?
What class of antibiotic is Doxycycline?
Tetracycline
[...]
Schistosoma haematobium is a species of

[...] is a species of Schistosoma that can lead to
Schistosoma that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder if there is chronic
the bladder if there is chronic infection.
infection.
What is the treatment for Pneumocystis jirovecii?
What is the treatment for Pneumocystis jirovecii?
TMP-SMX; Pentamidine
[...]
Which viral infection is known to cause Hydrops Fetalis? Which viral infection is known to cause Hydrops Fetalis?
Parvovirus B19
[...]
How is HCV transmitted?
How is HCV transmitted?
Parenteral
[...]

= anus).
parenterally.
meningitis and gonorrhea?

meningitis and gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
[...]
What is the only DNA Hepatitis virus?
What is the only DNA Hepatitis virus?
HBV
[...]
All others are RNA viruses.

"Thumbprint Sign" is a feature of Epiglottitis caused by
Haemophilus influenzae that is seen on a lateral neck xray.
[...] is a feature of Epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus

influenzae that is seen on a lateral neck x-ray.
Anaemia is a hematological disorder of Zidovudine

(ZDV).
[...] is a hematological disorder of Zidovudine (ZDV).
Aortitis is a complication of Tertiary Syphilis that

presents due to destruction of the vasa vasorum at
large blood vessels.
[...] is a complication of Tertiary Syphilis that presents

due to destruction of the vasa vasorum at large blood
vessels.
What type of diarrhea is caused by Vibrio cholerae?
What type of diarrhea is caused by Vibrio cholerae?
Watery
[...]
Comma-shaped organism.
Causes rice water diarrhea.
Often found in infected seafood.
Aside from puppies, how else is Campylobacter
spp. transmitted?
Aside from puppies, how else is Campylobacter

spp. transmitted?
Livestock (fecal-oral via ingestion of undercooked meat)
[...]
How is Naegleria fowleri transmitted?
How is Naegleria fowleri transmitted?
Swimming in freshwater lakes; enters CNS through the

cribiform plate
[...]

associated with Urethritis and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease associated with Urethritis and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
(PID)?
(PID)?
D-K
[...]
The D--K serotypes are associated with STD/STI (and

everything else not specific to serotypes A, B, C, L1-3)
What is the treatment for giant roundworm (Ascaris
lumbricoides)?
What is the treatment for giant roundworm (Ascaris

lumbricoides)?
[...]
Coltivirus is a dsRNA Arbovirus and Reovirus that causes

Colorado Tick Fever.
[...] is a dsRNA Arbovirus and Reovirus that causes

Colorado Tick Fever.
Clavulanic Acid, Sulbactam and Tazobactam are betalactamase inhibitors that are often added to penicillin
antibiotics to protect them from beta-lactamase action.
[...], Sulbactam and Tazobactam are beta-lactamase

inhibitors that are often added to penicillin antibiotics to
protect them from beta-lactamase action.
Clavulanic Acid, [...] and Tazobactam are betalactamase inhibitors that are often added to penicillin
Clavulanic Acid, Sulbactam and [...] are beta-lactamase

inhibitors that are often added to penicillin antibiotics to
protect them from beta-lactamase action.
What is the etiology of Undulent Fever?
What is the etiology of Undulent Fever?
Brucella spp.
[...]
Which envelope protein from HIV functions to mediate

fusion and entry?
Which envelope protein from HIV functions to mediate

fusion and entry?
gp41; the transmembrane glycoprotein
[...]
How is Trichomonas vaginalis transmitted?
How is Trichomonas vaginalis transmitted?
Sexually (it cannot exist outside the human body as it

cannot form cysts)
[...]
How is Haemophilus influenzae transmitted?
How is Haemophilus influenzae transmitted?
Aerosol
[...]
What type nucleic acid is found in Bunyavirus?
What type nucleic acid is found in Bunyavirus?
Negative ssRNA
[...]
What is the gram stain of Brucella?
What is the gram stain of Brucella?
Negative
[...]
Floppy Baby Syndrome is a form of Botulinum that is seen [...] is a form of Botulinum that is seen in babies following
in babies following ingestion of spores in honey.
ingestion of spores in honey.
BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food and honey.
In adults, the preformed toxin is ingested to cause
Botulinum.
Squamous Cel Carcinoma is a cancer caused by HPV in [...] is a cancer caused by HPV in HIV patients that often
HIV patients that often presents at the anus (in MSM's) or
presents at the anus (in MSM's) or the cervix.
the cervix.
What is the MOA of Aminoglycoside antibiotics?
What is the MOA of Aminoglycoside antibiotics?
Inhibition of the formation of the initiation complex at the

30S subunit, thereby causing misreading of mRNA;
Blocking of translocation
[...]
A (Aminoglycosides) "initiates" the Alphabet

How is Elephantiasis (Wuchereria bancrofti) transmitted? How is Elephantiasis (Wuchereria bancrofti) transmitted?
Female mosquito bite
[...]
What type of diarrhea is caused by Yersinia enterolytica? What type of diarrhea is caused by Yersinia enterolytica?
Bloody
[...]
Causes day-care outbreaks.

May also cause Pseudoappendicitis.
What type of nucleic acid is found in Adenovirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Adenovirus?
dsDNA
[...]
Babesia is a species of protozoa transmitted by the

Ixodes tick that causes a hematological infection.
[...] is a species of protozoa transmitted by the Ixodes tick

that causes a hematological infection.
Ehrlichiosis and Anaplasmosis are Rickettsial diseases that

presents with monocytes with morulae in their
cytoplasm.
[...] and Anaplasmosis are Rickettsial diseases that

cytoplasm.
Ehrlichiosis and Anaplasmosis are Rickettsial diseases that Ehrlichiosis and [...] are Rickettsial diseases that presents
with monocytes with morulae in their cytoplasm.
cytoplasm.
Shiga Toxin (ST) is an exotoxin from Shigella spp. that

causes GI mucosal damage and subsequent dysentery
due to inactivation of the 60S ribosome.
[...] is an exotoxin from Shigella spp. that causes GI

mucosal damage and subsequent dysentery due to
inactivation of the 60S ribosome.
Tetanus is a neurological disorder caused by

Tetanospasmin toxin from Clostridium tetani that
involves spasticity, risus sardonicus and "lockjaw".
[...] is a neurological disorder caused by Tetanospasmin

toxin from Clostridium tetani that involves spasticity,
risus sardonicus and "lockjaw".
What type of HAART drug is Didanosine (ddI)?
What type of HAART drug is Didanosine (ddI)?
NRTI
[...]
What is the treatment for meningitis caused by

What is the treatment for meningitis caused by

Ceftriaxone
[...]
Rifampin can be used for prophylaxis following close

contact.
Which amino acid makes up the polypeptide capsule of
Bacillus anthracis?
Which amino acid makes up the polypeptide capsule of

Bacillus anthracis?
D-glutamate
[...]
Rubella is an infectious disorder caused by a Togavirus

that presents with fever, postauricular (and other)
lymphadenopathy, arthralgia and a fine rash.
[...] is an infectious disorder caused by a Togavirus that

presents with fever, postauricular (and other)
lymphadenopathy, arthralgia and a fine rash.
Flucytosine is an antifungal agent that is used combination

with Amphotericin B to treat systemic mycoses.
[...] is an antifungal agent that is used combination with

Amphotericin B to treat systemic mycoses.
Especially meningitis caused by Cryptococcus.

What is the etiology of Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
What is the etiology of Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1-L3
[...]
What is the clinical use of IFN-beta?
What is the clinical use of IFN-beta?
Multiple sclerosis
[...]
Neuraminidase is a viral enzyme/antigen from Influenza

virus that promotes the release of progeny virions.
[...] is a viral enzyme/antigen from Influenza virus that

promotes the release of progeny virions.
Which Azole antifungal is especially known to inhibit

testosterone synthesis and cause gynecomastia?
Which Azole antifungal is especially known to inhibit

testosterone synthesis and cause gynecomastia?
Ketoconazole
[...]
[...] is a genetic phenomenon that causes flu pandemics.
Genetic/antigenic shift is a genetic phenomenon that causes

flu pandemics.
This involves the reassortment of the viral genome.
Segments undergo high-frequency recombination (like
when human flu A virus recombines with swine flu A
virus).
Sudden genetic shifts are more deadly that gradual
genetic drifts.
Toxocara canis is a tissue nematode that causes Visceral
Larva Migrans.
[...] is a tissue nematode that causes Visceral Larva

Migrans.

associated with Lymphogranuloma Venereum?

associated with Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
L1; L2; L3
[...]
What is the etiology of Chagas Disease?
What is the etiology of Chagas Disease?
Trypanosoma cruzi
[...]
Polyarthritis is a musculoskeletal feature of Rheumatic

Fever that involves inflammation at multiple joints.
[...] is a musculoskeletal feature of Rheumatic Fever that

involves inflammation at multiple joints.
Which animal bites are the most common causes of

Rabies?
Which animal bites are the most common causes of

Rabies?
Bat, raccoon and skunk
[...]
Dog bites are actually not that common in the USA.

Where in the body is Lactobacillus sp. normally found?
Where in the body is Lactobacillus sp. normally found?
Vagina
[...]
What CD4+ cell count is associated with CMV retinitis in What CD4+ cell count is associated with CMV retinitis in
HIV patients?
HIV patients?
< 50 cells/mm3
[...]
Cefazolin is a 1st generation Cephalosporin that is used

prior to surgery to prevent Staphylococcus
aureus wound infections.
[...] is a 1st generation Cephalosporin that is used prior to

surgery to prevent Staphylococcus aureus wound
infections.
Croup is a viral respiratory infection caused by

Parainfluenzavirus that involves a seal-like barking
cough.
[...] is a viral respiratory infection caused by

Parainfluenzavirus that involves a seal-like barking
cough.
Commonly seen in infants.

Palivizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets the
[...] is a monoclonal antibody that targets the surface F
surface F protein on paramyxoviruses, thereby preventing
protein on paramyxoviruses, thereby preventing
pneumonia caused by RSV infection in premature infants. pneumonia caused by RSV infection in premature infants.
What type of HAART drug is Tenofovir (TDF)?
What type of HAART drug is Tenofovir (TDF)?
NRTI
[...]
Which diagnostic test is used to confirm a positive ELISA Which diagnostic test is used to confirm a positive ELISA
test for HIV infection (i.e. a rule-in test)?
test for HIV infection (i.e. a rule-in test)?
Western blot assay
[...]
Specific; high-false negative rate; high threshold

associated with ectopic pregnancy?

associated with ectopic pregnancy?
D-K
[...]
Sporotrichosis is an opportunistic fungal infection that is [...] is an opportunistic fungal infection that is commonly
commonly acquired through traumatic introduction into the acquired through traumatic introduction into the skin,
skin, typically by a rose thorn.
typically by a rose thorn.
Hence, "Rose Gardener's" Disease.
Trauma and infection causes a local pustule or ulcer
with nodules along draining lymphatics (i.e. Ascending
Lympangitis).
There is little systemic illness.
What is the only RNA virus that has dsRNA?
What is the only RNA virus that has dsRNA?
Reoviridae
[...]
All others are ssRNA.

causes oral and esophageal thrush in the
immunocompromised.
[...] is a dimorphic fungi that commonly causes oral and

esophageal thrush in the immunocompromised.
Neonates, steroids, diabetes, AIDS.

How is Relapsing Fever (Borrelia recurrentis)
transmitted?
How is Relapsing Fever (Borrelia recurrentis)

transmitted?
Louse
[...]
Which bacteria is associated with traumatic open wound Which bacteria is associated with traumatic open wound
infection?
infection?
Clostridium perfringens
[...]
Which Herpesviruses are treated by

Which Herpesviruses are treated by

HSV; VZV
[...]
Weak activity against EBV.

No activity against CMV.
No activity against latent HSV/VZV.
Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with Diabetic Which gram-negative bacteria is associated with Diabetic
Osteomyelitis?
Osteomyelitis?
[...]
Leptospirosis is an infectious disease caused by

Leptospira interrogans that presents with flu-like
symptoms, jaundice and photophobia with
conjunctival suffusion (erythema without exudate).
[...] is an infectious disease caused by Leptospira

interrogans that presents with flu-like symptoms,
jaundice and photophobia with conjunctival
suffusion (erythema without exudate).
Which form of Leprosy (Hansen Disease) is lethal?
Which form of Leprosy (Hansen Disease) is lethal?
Lepromatous form
[...]
What type of nucleic acid is found in Flavivirus?
What type of nucleic acid is found in Flavivirus?
Positive ssRNA
[...]
What is the etiology of Endemic Typhus?
What is the etiology of Endemic Typhus?
Rickettsia typhi
[...]
Peptidoglycan is a bacterial structure that gives ripid

support to the bacteria and protects against osmostic
pressure.
[...] is a bacterial structure that gives ripid support to the

bacteria and protects against osmostic pressure.
Nephrotoxicity is a renal complication of Aminoglycoside

[...] is a renal complication of Aminoglycoside use,
use, especially when they are used alongside
especially when they are used alongside Cephalosporins.
Cephalosporins.
What is the catalase expresison of Neisseria?
What is the catalase expresison of Neisseria?
Positive
[...]
"Staph's N' Enterobacteria Are Listed Catalase

Positive"
Staphylococcus
Neisseria
Enterobacteria
Aspergillus
Listeria
Candida
Pseudmonas
(and MTB)
Which bacteria is the most common cause of pneumonia? Which bacteria is the most common cause of pneumonia?
[...]
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC) is a strain of [...] is a strain of Escherichia coli that is also referred to
Escherichia coli that is also referred to as Shiga toxinas Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli.
producing Escherichia coli.
What is the MOA of Ticarcillin?
What is the MOA of Ticarcillin?

[...]
Trichomonas vaginalis is an STD causing protozoa that

commonly causes vaginitis that presents with foulsmelling, greenish discharge.
[...] is an STD causing protozoa that commonly causes

vaginitis that presents with foul-smelling, greenish
discharge.
Do not confuse this with Gardnerella vaginalis, a

gram-variable bacteria that causes vaginosis.
Also remember the difference between Vaginitis and
Vaginosis. Vaginitis is painful.
What is the urease expression of Cryptococcus?
What is the urease expression of Cryptococcus?
Positive
[...]
Subacute endocarditis is a cardiac complication caused

by Group D Streptococci (Enterococcus
faecalis and Enterococcus faecium) following GI/GU
procedures.
[...] is a cardiac complication caused by Group D

Streptococci (Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus
faecium) following GI/GU procedures.
What is the mechanism of resistance of Aminoglycosides? What is the mechanism of resistance of Aminoglycosides?
Bacterial transferase enzymes; they inactivate the drug by
acetylation, phosphorylation or adenylation
[...]
What is the Catalase expression of Helicobacter pylori? What is the Catalase expression of Helicobacter pylori?
Positive
[...]
How is African Sleeping Sickness (Trypanosoma brucei How is African Sleeping Sickness (Trypanosoma brucei
sp.) transmitted?
sp.) transmitted?
Tsetse fly
[...]
Which apparently has a painful bite.

VZV is a Herpesvirus that is latent in dorsal root or
trigeminal ganglia.
[...] is a Herpesvirus that is latent in dorsal root or

trigeminal ganglia.
Which stain is used to best visualize Borrelia?
Which stain is used to best visualize Borrelia?
Giemsa
[...]

that has irregular fever patterns?

that has irregular fever patterns?
[...]
VDRL is a non-specific test for Syphilis that detects a

nonspecific antibody that reacts with beef cardiolipin.
[...] is a non-specific test for Syphilis that detects a

nonspecific antibody that reacts with beef cardiolipin.
To which co-receptor does HIV bind to in early
[...]
To which co-receptor does HIV bind to in early

CCR5
Alongside CD4.
Homozygous CCR5 mutation = immunity.
Heterozygous CCR5 mutation = slower disease
course.
What is the prophylactic treatment for Strep Pharyngitis in What is the prophylactic treatment for Strep Pharyngitis in
a child with prior history of Rheumatic Fever?
a child with prior history of Rheumatic Fever?
Oral Penicillin
[...]
IFN-alpha is an Interferon used to treat Hairy Cell

Leukemia.
[...] is an Interferon used to treat Hairy Cell Leukemia.
What is the MOA of Pertussis Toxin from Bordetella

pertussis?
What is the MOA of Pertussis Toxin from Bordetella

pertussis?
Overactivation of adenylate cyclase by disabling the

Gi subunit, thereby impairing phagocytosis
[...]
Occurs via ADP Ribosylation

At which temperature do most exotoxins get destroyed?
At which temperature do most exotoxins get destroyed?
60 C
[...]
The exception is staphylococcal enterotoxins.

Endotoxins are stable at 100 C for 1 hour.
What is the treatment for CMV?
What is the treatment for CMV?
Ganciclovir
[...]
JC Virus is a dsDNA Polyomavirus that causes

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) in
HIV patients..
[...] is a dsDNA Polyomavirus that causes Progressive

Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) in HIV patients..

sensitive to penicillinase but have a wider spectrum.
[...] and Amoxicillin are aminopenicillins that are

AMinoPenicillins are AMPed up penicillins.

Ampicillin and Amoxicillin are aminopenicillins that are Ampicillin and [...] are aminopenicillins that are sensitive
to penicillinase but have a wider spectrum.
AMinoPenicillins are AMPed up penicillins.
Scarlet Fever is an infection caused by Streptococcus
pyogenes that presents with an erythematous,
sandpaper-like rash with fever and sore throat.
[...] is an infection caused by Streptococcus

pyogenes that presents with an erythematous,
sandpaper-like rash with fever and sore throat.
What type of stain is required to diagnose

Cryptosporidium infection?
What type of stain is required to diagnose

Cryptosporidium infection?
Acid-fast
[...]

[...]

Blocks peptidyltransferase at the 50S ribosomal subunit
What is the treatment for Schistosoma?
What is the treatment for Schistosoma?
Praziquantel
[...]
Which Chlamydiae organism is known to cause

Which Chlamydiae organism is known to cause
nongonococcal urethritis and pelvic inflammatory disease? nongonococcal urethritis and pelvic inflammatory disease?
[...]
What colour pigment is associated with Staphylococcus

aureus?
What colour pigment is associated with Staphylococcus

aureus?
Yellow
[...]
Aureus is latin for gold.

What is the ROA of Nystatin?
What is the ROA of Nystatin?
Topical
[...]
It is too toxic for systemic use.

Which demographic is often affected by Giardiasis
(Giardia lamblia)?
Which demographic is often affected by Giardiasis

(Giardia lamblia)?
Campers/hikers
[...]
What is the treatment for Systemic Candidiasis?
What is the treatment for Systemic Candidiasis?
Fluconazole, Amphotericin B or Caspofungin
[...]
What is the treatment for Oral/Esophageal Candidiasis?
What is the treatment for Oral/Esophageal Candidiasis?
Fluconazole; Caspofungin
[...]
In which area of the Thymus does positive selection of T In which area of the Thymus does positive selection of T
cells occur?
cells occur?
Cortex
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with

Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis?

Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis?
Type III
[...]
Type I Hypersensitivity is a type of hypersensitivity that

involves a delayed response due to production of
Arachidonic Acid metabolites (e.g. leukotrienes).
[...] is a type of hypersensitivity that involves a delayed

response due to production of Arachidonic Acid
metabolites (e.g. leukotrienes).
[...] is a ribonuclease enzyme that functions to degrade

viral/host mRNA as a defense mechanism in virally
infected cells.
RNA-ase L is a ribonuclease enzyme that functions to

degrade viral/host mRNA as a defense mechanism in
virally infected cells.
When a virus infected a "primed" cell, viral nucleic
acid triggers the following enzymes and eventually
apoptosis, hence stopping viral replication:
- RNA-ase L, which degrades viral/host mRNA
- Protein Kinases that inhibit viral/host protein
synthesis
Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Crohn
Disease?
Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Crohn

Disease?
Natalizumab
[...]
C5-C9 Deficiencies are a group of complement protein

deficiencies that involve increased susceptibility to
recurrent Neisseria bacteremia.
[...] are a group of complement protein deficiencies that

involve increased susceptibility to recurrent
Neisseria bacteremia.
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with vasculitis

and systemic manifestations?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with vasculitis

and systemic manifestations?
Type III
[...]
How do serum Ca levels change in DiGeorge Syndrome? How do serum Ca levels change in DiGeorge Syndrome?
Decrease
[...]
HLA-DR, HLA-DP and HLA-DQ are the HLA loci that

are associated with MHC II.
[...], HLA-DP and HLA-DQ are the HLA loci that are
associated with MHC II.

HLA-DR, [...] and HLA-DQ are the HLA loci that are

HLA-DR, HLA-DP and [...] are the HLA loci that are
How does splenic dysfunction, asplenia or splenectomy

influence the susceptibility to infection by encapsulated
organisms?
How does splenic dysfunction, asplenia or splenectomy

influence the susceptibility to infection by encapsulated
organisms?
Increase
[...]
Splenic dysfunction = decreased IgM = decreased

complement activation = decreased C3b opsonization
= increased susceptibility to encapsulated organisms
Basiliximab is a monoclonal antibody that blocks the IL[...] is a monoclonal antibody that blocks the IL-2R,
2R, thereby causing immunosuppression and acting as a thereby causing immunosuppression and acting as a kidney
kidney transplant rejection prophylactic.
transplant rejection prophylactic.
Chronic Granulomatous Disease is a primary
immunodeficiency that involves an NADPH Oxidase
defect, thereby resulting in deceased ROS and a
subsequent lack of respiratory burst in neutrophils.
[...] is a primary immunodeficiency that involves an

NADPH Oxidase defect, thereby resulting in deceased
ROS and a subsequent lack of respiratory burst in
neutrophils.
Remember, NADPH Oxidase makes superoxide.

Which complement pathway is activated by IgG or IgM?
[...]
Which complement pathway is activated by IgG or IgM?

Classical
"GM makes classic cars."
What is the function of the complement proteins C3a, C4a What is the function of the complement proteins C3a, C4a
and C5a?
and C5a?
Anaphylaxis
[...]
The Indirect Coomb's Test is a type of Coomb's test that The [...] is a type of Coomb's test that detects antibodies
detects antibodies that can adhere to other RBCs.
that can adhere to other RBCs.
e.g. testing an Rh-negative mother for Rh-positive
antibodies
What is the genetic inheritance of Chediak-Higashi
Syndrome?
What is the genetic inheritance of Chediak-Higashi

Syndrome?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in

Arthus Reaction?

Arthus Reaction?
Type III
[...]
Which type of T cell does MHC II bind to?
Which type of T cell does MHC II bind to?
CD4+ T cells
[...]

anaphylaxis?

anaphylaxis?
Type I
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the bladder?
Which lymph node cluster drains the bladder?
Internal Iliac
[...]
Which cytokine released from all T cells functions to

support the growth and differentiation of bone marrow
stem cells (i.e. functions like GM-CSF)?
Which cytokine released from all T cells functions to

support the growth and differentiation of bone marrow
stem cells (i.e. functions like GM-CSF)?
IL-3
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the upper limbs?
Which lymph node cluster drains the upper limbs?
Axillary
[...]
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a species of Neisseria that

yield antigenic variation due to its pilus protein.
[...] is a species of Neisseria that yield antigenic variation

due to its pilus protein.
What is the diagnostic test for Type II Hypersensitivity?
[...]
What is the diagnostic test for Type II Hypersensitivity?

Indirect and direct Coombs' test
Wiskot-Aldrich Syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency [...] is a primary immunodeficiency that involves a mutation
that involves a mutation in WAS and hence presents with in WAS and hence presents with T-cells that are unable to
T-cells that are unable to reorganize their actin
reorganize their actin cytoskeleton.
cytoskeleton.
What is the target of the monoclonal antibody
Pavilizumab?

Pavilizumab?
RSV F protein
[...]
Remember, F proteins on RSV allow is to make

syncytia. Hence, Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV).
Which interferon is used to treat Chronic Granulomatous
Disease?
Which interferon is used to treat Chronic Granulomatous

Disease?
IFN-gamma
[...]
Which cell surface protein on NK cells is a unique marker Which cell surface protein on NK cells is a unique marker
for NK cells?
for NK cells?
CD56
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Pernicious What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Pernicious
Anaemia?
Anaemia?
Type II
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the liver?
Which lymph node cluster drains the liver?
Celiac
[...]
Bruton (X-linked) Agammaglobulinema is an XLR

immunodeficiency that presents with absent/scanty
lymph nodes and tonsils.
[...] is an XLR immunodeficiency that presents with

absent/scanty lymph nodes and tonsils.
Which lymph node cluster drains the jejunum and ileum? Which lymph node cluster drains the jejunum and ileum?
Superior mesenteric
[...]
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant that inhibits

[...] is an immunosuppressant that inhibits Calcineurin and
Calcineurin and yields an increased risk of diabetes and yields an increased risk of diabetes and neurotoxicity.
neurotoxicity.
Which lymphocytes are affected in DiGeorge Syndrome? Which lymphocytes are affected in DiGeorge Syndrome?
T cells
[...]
Due to the thymic aplasia.

What is the genetic inheritance of Hyper IgM Syndrome? What is the genetic inheritance of Hyper IgM Syndrome?
X-linked recessive
[...]
What protein does Sirolimus (Rapamycin) bind to before What protein does Sirolimus (Rapamycin) bind to before
inhibiting mTOR?
inhibiting mTOR?
FKBP
[...]
Which immunoglobulin isotype exists as a monomer on B Which immunoglobulin isotype exists as a monomer on B
cells or a pentamer when secreted?
cells or a pentamer when secreted?
IgM
[...]
The shape of the IgM pentamer allows it to efficiently

trap free antigens out of tissue while the humoural
response evolves.
Which cell surface receptor on B cells binds to CD40L on Which cell surface receptor on B cells binds to CD40L on
helper T cells during B cell activation?
helper T cells during B cell activation?
CD40
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with SLE?
Which HLA subtype is associated with SLE?
HLA-DR2; HLA-DR3
[...]
Which complement disorder increases the susceptibility to Which complement disorder increases the susceptibility to
Type III hypersensitivity reactions?
Type III hypersensitivity reactions?
C3 Deficiency
[...]
C3 deficiency = More Type 3 reactions

The cortex is the area of the Thymus that is dense and full The [...] is the area of the Thymus that is dense and full of
of immature T cells.
immature T cells.
What is the clinical use of the monoclonal antibody
Rituximab?

Rituximab?
B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma; Rheumatoid Arthritis;

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura; via CD20
[...]
Which cytokine released from Th2 cells functions to

promote B cell differentiation and enhance class
switching to IgA?

promote B cell differentiation and enhance class
switching to IgA?
IL-5
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Contact

Dermatitis (e.g. poison ivy; nickel allergy)?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Contact

Dermatitis (e.g. poison ivy; nickel allergy)?
Type IV
[...]
How does Chronic transplant rejection present at the

heart?

heart?
Atherosclerosis
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with Celiac Disease?
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with Celiac Disease?

HLA-DQ2/DQ8
Which autoantibody is associated with Autoimmune
Hepatitis?
Which autoantibody is associated with Autoimmune

Hepatitis?
Anti-smooth muscle
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the colon from the

splenic flexure to the upper rectum?
Which lymph node cluster drains the colon from the

splenic flexure to the upper rectum?
Inferior Mesenteric
[...]
Acute-phase Reactants are proteins/factors whose serum

concentrations change significantly in response to
inflammation.
[...] are proteins/factors whose serum concentrations

change significantly in response to inflammation.
Which lymph node cluster drains the middle third of the Which lymph node cluster drains the middle third of the
vagina?
vagina?
Internal Iliac
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Hashimoto

Thyroiditis?
Which autoantibody is associated with Hashimoto

Thyroiditis?
Antimicrosomal; Antithyroglobulin
[...]
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that is used to treat [...] is an immunosuppressant that is used to treat Crohn
Crohn Disease.
Disease.
What diagnostic test is used to diagnose the Arthus
Reaction?
What diagnostic test is used to diagnose the Arthus

Reaction?
Immunofluorescent staining
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the lower rectum to the Which lymph node cluster drains the lower rectum to the
anal canal (above the pectinate line)?
anal canal (above the pectinate line)?
Internal Iliac
[...]
Serum Amyloid A is a positive acute phase reactant

whose prolonged elevation can lead to Amyloidosis.
[...] is a positive acute phase reactant whose prolonged

elevation can lead to Amyloidosis.
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Bullous

Pemphigoid?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Bullous

Pemphigoid?
Type II
[...]
Howell-Jolly Bodies are intracellular inclusions of nuclear [...] are intracellular inclusions of nuclear remnants seen
remnants seen in RBCs following splenectomy.
in RBCs following splenectomy.
Which immunosuppressant is associated with insulin
resistance and hyperlipidemia?
Which immunosuppressant is associated with insulin

resistance and hyperlipidemia?
Sirolimus (Rapamycin)
[...]
Which cell type is the only cell that does not have MHC I Which cell type is the only cell that does not have MHC I
on its surface?
on its surface?
Mature RBCs
[...]
Which gene mutation is seen in Job Syndrome (Autosomal Which gene mutation is seen in Job Syndrome (Autosomal
Dominant hyper-IgE Syndrome)?
STAT3; causes a deficiency of Th17 cells which leads to
impaired recruitment of neutrophils to sites of infection
[...]
Chronic Rejection is a type of transplant rejection that

presents with irreversible T-cell and antibody
mediated damage.
[...] is a type of transplant rejection that presents with

irreversible T-cell and antibody mediated damage.
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Type 1 (LAD1) is a

primary immunodeficiency that presents with recurrent
bacterial skin/mucosal infections, absent pus formation and
impaired wound healing.
[...] is a primary immunodeficiency that presents with

recurrent bacterial skin/mucosal infections, absent pus
formation and impaired wound healing.

Trastuzumab?

Trastuzumab?
HER2/neu in breast cancer and some gastric cancer
[...]
"Tras-2-zumab targets HER2"

The right lymphatic duct is a major lymphatic vessel that
drains the right side of the body above the diaphragm.
The [...] is a major lymphatic vessel that drains the right

side of the body above the diaphragm.
Which lymph node cluster drains the uterus?
Which lymph node cluster drains the uterus?
Para-aortic
[...]
Which immunosuppressant is associated with

hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia?

hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia?
Cyclosporine
[...]
A(n) Syngeneic Graft is a type of graft that is received

from an identical twin or clone.
A(n) [...] is a type of graft that is received from an identical

twin or clone.
Tetany is a muscular complication of DiGeorge Syndrome

that occurs due to the hypocalcemia secondary to
[...] is a muscular complication of DiGeorge Syndrome

that occurs due to the hypocalcemia secondary to
Transferrin is a negative acute phase reactant that is

internalized by macrophages to sequester iron.
[...] is a negative acute phase reactant that is internalized

by macrophages to sequester iron.
How does IL-2 influence NK cell activity?
Increase
[...]
Sirolimus (Rapamycin) is an immunosuppressant that

works in synergy with Cyclosporine.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that works in synergy with

Cyclosporine.
What genetic defect is seen in Hyper IgM Syndrome?
What genetic defect is seen in Hyper IgM Syndrome?
CD40L; especially at Th cells
[...]
Hence class switching for B cells is defective.

Which type of T cells function to kill virus-infected cells
directly?
Which type of T cells function to kill virus-infected cells

directly?
CD8+ T cells
[...]
Which area of the lymph node enlarges in extreme cellular Which area of the lymph node enlarges in extreme cellular
immune responses (e.g. viral infection)?
immune responses (e.g. viral infection)?
Paracortex
[...]
Paracortex = T cells.
Toll-like Receptors (TLRs) are pattern recognition
receptors involved in innate immunity that recognize
pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs).
[...] are pattern recognition receptors involved in innate

immunity that recognize pathogen-associated
molecular patterns (PAMPs).
PAMPs include LPS, Flagellin, ssRNA, etc.

Which cell surface protein on macrophages is the receptor Which cell surface protein on macrophages is the receptor
for endotoxin/LPS from gram-negative bacteria?
for endotoxin/LPS from gram-negative bacteria?
CD-14
[...]
IL-4 and IL-10 are cytokines secreted by Th2 cells that

inhibits Th1 cell activity.
IL-4 and [...] are cytokines secreted by Th2 cells that

IL-4 and IL-10 are cytokines secreted by Th2 cells that [...] and IL-10 are cytokines secreted by Th2 cells that
Which lymph node cluster drains the skin below the
umbilicus (except the popliteal territory)?
Which lymph node cluster drains the skin below the

umbilicus (except the popliteal territory)?
Superficial inguinal
[...]
Which type of hypersensitivity is involved in TB skin tests? Which type of hypersensitivity is involved in TB skin tests?
Type IV
[...]
Thymus-dependent antigens are a type of antigen that

contain protein components.
[...] are a type of antigen that contain protein

components.
Immunologic memory occurs as a result of direct

contact of B cells with Th cells (via CD40 and CD40L
interaction).
Which type of helper T cell secrets IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL- Which type of helper T cell secrets IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL10 and IL-13?
10 and IL-13?
Th2
[...]
Inhibition of mTOR via binding to FKBP; thereby inhibits

IL-2 signal transduction
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with Graves Disease?
Which HLA subtype is associated with Graves Disease?
HLS-DR3
[...]
Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that is associated

with hypertension, hyperlipidemia and hyperglycemia.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that is associated with

hypertension, hyperlipidemia and hyperglycemia.
Bruton (X-linked) Agammaglobulinemia is an XLR

[...] is an XLR immunodeficiency that involves a defect in
immunodeficiency that involves a defect in BTK (Bruton BTK (Bruton Tyrosine Kinase gene), thereby resulting in a
Tyrosine Kinase gene), thereby resulting in a lack of B-cell
lack of B-cell maturation.
maturation.
How does Allopurinol influence the toxicity of

Azathioprine (6MP)?
How does Allopurinol influence the toxicity of

Azathioprine (6MP)?
Increase
[...]
6-MP is degraded by Xanthine Oxidase. Hence

Allopurinol increases its toxicity.
Glucocorticoids are a type of immunosuppressant that is
associated with central obesity and hyperglycemia.
[...] are a type of immunosuppressant that is associated

with central obesity and hyperglycemia.
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Serum

Sickness?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Serum

Sickness?
Type III
[...]
Which cell surface receptor on T cells binds to B7 on

APCs during the secondary signal in T cell activation?
Which cell surface receptor on T cells binds to B7 on

APCs during the secondary signal in T cell activation?
CD28
[...]
Neisseria is a genus of gram-negative bacterial that

commonly cause infection in complement deficiency as
there is no membrane attack complex.
[...] is a genus of gram-negative bacterial that commonly

cause infection in complement deficiency as there is no
membrane attack complex.
Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency [...] is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that presents
disorder that presents with giant granules in neutrophils
with giant granules in neutrophils and platelets.
and platelets.
There is pancytopenia and mild coagulation defects.
C1 Esterase Inhibitor Deficiency is a complement disorder
that causes Hereditary Angioedema.
[...] is a complement disorder that causes Hereditary

Angioedema.
ACE Inhibitors are contraindicated in C1 Esterase

Inhibitor Deficiency.
What is the genetic inheritance of IL-12 Receptor
Deficiency?
What is the genetic inheritance of IL-12 Receptor

Deficiency?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
How does IFN-beta influence NK cell activity?
How does IFN-beta influence NK cell activity?
Increase
[...]
Which cytokine released from macrophages functions as

an endogenous pyrogen, causing fever and acute
inflammation?
Which cytokine released from macrophages functions as

an endogenous pyrogen, causing fever and acute
inflammation?
IL-1
[...]
Which interferon is used to treat Multiple Sclerosis?
Which interferon is used to treat Multiple Sclerosis?
IFN-beta
[...]
[...] are structures found in the medulla of lymph nodes
that contain reticular cells and macrophages.
Medullary sinuses are structures found in the medulla of

lymph nodes that contain reticular cells and
macrophages.
These medullary sinuses communicate with efferent
lymphatics.
Which interferon is used to treat Malignant Melanoma?
Which interferon is used to treat Malignant Melanoma?
IFN-alpha
[...]
Hyper IgM Syndrome is an XLR primary

[...] is an XLR primary immunodeficiency that involves a
immunodeficiency that involves a defect in CD40L on Th defect in CD40L on Th cells, thereby yielding a defect in
cells, thereby yielding a defect in B-cell class switching.
B-cell class switching.
CD40L is required as a co-stimulatory factor in class
switching. Since it is defective, B-cells are "stuck"
secreted IgM (which is a default isotype expressed by
naive B-cells).
Which cytokine released from macrophages functions to
activate endothelium to express adhesion molecules?

activate endothelium to express adhesion molecules?
IL-1
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with GuillainBarre Syndrome?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with GuillainBarre Syndrome?
Type IV
[...]
Giardia lamblia is a GI protozoal infection that is often

seen in B cell deficiency due to a lack of IgA.
[...] is a GI protozoal infection that is often seen in B cell

deficiency due to a lack of IgA.
Which MHC receptor is expressed on all nucleated

cells except for RBCs?
Which MHC receptor is expressed on all nucleated

cells except for RBCs?
MHC I
[...]
Which interferon is used to treat Renal Cell Carcinoma?
Which interferon is used to treat Renal Cell Carcinoma?
IFN-alpha
[...]
Which fragment in antibodies contains the heavy chain

only?
Which fragment in antibodies contains the heavy chain

only?
Fc
[...]
Which complement proteins are involved in the formation Which complement proteins are involved in the formation
of the MAC?
of the MAC?
C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9
[...]
Which gene is defective in Bruton (X-linked)

Agammglobulinemia?
Which gene is defective in Bruton (X-linked)

Agammglobulinemia?
BTK (Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase); results in a lack of B cell

maturation
[...]
Albumin is a negative acute phase reactant whose

production is reduced to conserve amino acids for the
positive reactants.
[...] is a negative acute phase reactant whose production

is reduced to conserve amino acids for the positive
reactants.

liver?

liver?
Vanishing bile ducts
[...]
Which lymphocyte is affected in Bruton

Agammaglobulinemia?
Which lymphocyte is affected in Bruton

Agammaglobulinemia?
B-cells
[...]
Oprelvekin is a recombinant cytokine that functions as IL- [...] is a recombinant cytokine that functions as IL-11 and
11 and hence is used to treat Thrombocytopenia.
hence is used to treat Thrombocytopenia.
Omalizumab?

Omalizumab?
IgE; used to prevent allergic asthma and prevents IgE

binding to FcERI
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Graves Disease?
Which autoantibody is associated with Graves Disease?
Anti-TSH Receptor
[...]
Salmonella is a gram-negative bacteria that yiels antigenic

variation due to it having 2 flagellar variants.
[...] is a gram-negative bacteria that yiels antigenic

variation due to it having 2 flagellar variants.
Which immunoglobulin isotype is involved in Type II

Hypersensitivity?
Which immunoglobulin isotype is involved in Type II

Hypersensitivity?
IgM; IgG
[...]
A(n) allograft is a type of graft that is received from a

nonidentical individual of the same species.
A(n) [...] is a type of graft that is received from a

nonidentical individual of the same species.
Which autoantibody is associated with SLE?
Which autoantibody is associated with SLE?
Anti-cardiolipin; Anti-dsDNA; Anti-Smith; ANA

(nonspecific)
[...]
Which hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by

antibodies?
Which hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by

antibodies?
Types I, II, and III
[...]
Superantigens are bacterial toxins that function to crosslink the beta-region of TCRs on all T cells to MHC II
on APCs, thereby causing massive release of cytokines.
[...] are bacterial toxins that function to cross-link the

beta-region of TCRs on all T cells to MHC II on
APCs, thereby causing massive release of cytokines.
Especially released from Streptococcus pyogenes and

Staphylococcus aureus.
Which anti-inflammatory cytokines are produced by
regulatory T cells?
Which anti-inflammatory cytokines are produced by

regulatory T cells?
IL-10; TGF-beta
[...]
Neutralization is an immunological phenomenon performed

by antibodies that involves the prevention of bacterial
adherence to target cells/tissue.
[...] is an immunological phenomenon performed by

antibodies that involves the prevention of bacterial
adherence to target cells/tissue.
What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Cetuximab? What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Cetuximab?
Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) in stage IV
colorectal cancer, head and neck cancer
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Myasthenia

Gravis?
Which autoantibody is associated with Myasthenia

Gravis?
Anti-ACh Receptor
[...]

Denosumab?

Denosumab?
RANKL in osteoporosis; Blocking of RANKL inhibits

osteoclast maturation
[...]
Filgrastim is a recombinant cytokine that functions as a

granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) to
induce bone marrow recovery.
[...] is a recombinant cytokine that functions as a

granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) to
induce bone marrow recovery.
Which type of vaccine induces a strong and often lifelong Which type of vaccine induces a strong and often lifelong
immunity?
immunity?
Live attenuated
[...]
Which cytokine from macrophages functions to stimulate T Which cytokine from macrophages functions to stimulate T
cell differentiation into Th1 cells?
cell differentiation into Th1 cells?
IL-12
[...]
- Macrophages release IL-12 --> T cells differentiate

into Th1 cells.
- Th1 cells secrete IFN-gamma --> Activation of
macrophages
Which fragment of antibodies determines the isotype
(IgM, IgD, etc.)?
Which fragment of antibodies determines the isotype

(IgM, IgD, etc.)?
Fc
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Goodpasture

Syndrome?
Which autoantibody is associated with Goodpasture

Syndrome?
Anti-basement membrane
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the lower duodenum?
Which lymph node cluster drains the lower duodenum?
Superior Mesenteric
[...]

Calcineurin but does not cause hirsutism or gingival
hyperplasia.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that inhibits Calcineurin but

does not cause hirsutism or gingival hyperplasia.
Which autoantibody is associated with Mixed Connective Which autoantibody is associated with Mixed Connective
Tissue Disease?
Tissue Disease?
Anti-U1 RNP (Ribonucleoprotein)
[...]
Which cytokine induces the differentiation of Helper T

cells into Th1 cells?

IL-12
[...]
Epoetin alfa is a recombinant cytokine that functions as

[...] is a recombinant cytokine that functions as
Erythropoietin and is used to treat anaemia, especially in Erythropoietin and is used to treat anaemia, especially in
renal failure.
renal failure.
beta2-microglobulin is a protein that transports MHC I
molecules to the cell surface.
[...] is a protein that transports MHC I molecules to the

cell surface.
How do immunoglobulin levels change in Common

Variable Immunodeficiency?
How do immunoglobulin levels change in Common

Variable Immunodeficiency?
Decrease
[...]
There is a defect in B-cell differentiation, hence there

are fewer plasma cells and fewer immunoglobulins.
Which immunoglobulin isotypes are expressed on the
surface of mature, naive B cells?
Which immunoglobulin isotypes are expressed on the

surface of mature, naive B cells?
IgM; IgD
[...]
"We B naive MD's"

They may differentiate in germinal centers of lymph
nodes by isotype switching into plasma cells that
secrete IgA, IgE and IgG.
What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Rituximab? What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Rituximab?
CD20 in B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, Rheumaoid
Arthritis and Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
[...]
Cellular Acute Rejection is a type of Acute Transplant

Rejection that involves CTLs that become activated
against donor MHCs.
[...] is a type of Acute Transplant Rejection that involves

CTLs that become activated against donor MHCs.
Glucocorticoids are a type of immunosuppressant that

inhibits NF-kB, thereby decreasing the transcription of
many cytokines.
[...] are a type of immunosuppressant that inhibits NF-kB,

thereby decreasing the transcription of many cytokines.
Which lymph node cluster drains the anal canal below

the pectinate line?
Which lymph node cluster drains the anal canal below

the pectinate line?
Superficial inguinal
[...]
Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat

Ankylosing Spondylitis?

Ankylosing Spondylitis?
Infliximab; Adalimumab; both via TNF-alpha
[...]
Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid structures that are

[...] are secondary lymphoid structures that are
encapsulated and function to filter passing content, store encapsulated and function to filter passing content, store
lymphocyte and mediat eimmune response.
lymphocyte and mediat eimmune response.
Which immunoglobulin isotype has the lowest
concentration in serum?
Which immunoglobulin isotype has the lowest

concentration in serum?
IgE
[...]
C3 Deficiency is a complement disorder that increases the

susceptibility to Type III Hypersensitivity reactions.
[...] is a complement disorder that increases the

susceptibility to Type III Hypersensitivity reactions.
C3 deficiency = More Type 3 reactions

Where are acute-phase reactants made?
Where are acute-phase reactants made?
Liver
[...]
In both acute and chronic inflammatory states.

Parital Albinism is a cutaneous disorder seen in ChediakHigashi Syndrome that results from dysfunctional
phagosome-lysosome fusion.
[...] is a cutaneous disorder seen in Chediak-Higashi

Syndrome that results from dysfunctional phagosomelysosome fusion.
Which cell surface receptor on B cells is the receptor for

EBV?
Which cell surface receptor on B cells is the receptor for

EBV?
CD21
[...]
"You must be 21 to drink at the Epstein-Barr."

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)?

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)?
Rituximab
[...]
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is a hematological

disorder that presents with complement-mediated
lysis of RBCs due to a DAF (CD55; GPI anchored
enzyme) deficiency.
[...] is a hematological disorder that presents with

complement-mediated lysis of RBCs due to a
DAF (CD55; GPI anchored enzyme) deficiency.
Remember, DAF functions to inhibit complement

mediated cell lysis on self-cells, especially RBCs.
Which immunoglobulin isotype binds mast cells and
basophils?
Which immunoglobulin isotype binds mast cells and

basophils?
IgE
[...]
It cross-links when exposed to the allergen, thereby

causing mast cell degranulation.
Major part of type I hypersensitivity.
Mediates immunity to worms by activating
eosinophils.
What is the function of complement protein C3b?
What is the function of complement protein C3b?
Opsonization
[...]
C3b binds to bacteria.
Interferons are immunological glycoproteins synthesized by [...] are immunological glycoproteins synthesized by viralviral-infected cells that act locally on uninfected cells,
infected cells that act locally on uninfected cells, thereby
thereby "priming them" for viral defense.
"priming them" for viral defense.
When a virus infected a "primed" cell, viral nucleic
acid triggers the following enzymes and eventually
apoptosis, hence stopping viral replication:
- RNA-ase L, which degrades viral/host mRNA
- Protein Kinases that inhibit viral/host protein
synthesis
What does Cyclosporine bind to before inhibiting
Calcineurin?
What does Cyclosporine bind to before inhibiting

Calcineurin?
Cyclophilin
[...]
Natural Killer cells are cells that function in the innate

[...] are cells that function in the innate immune system by
immune system by killing cells when exposed to an
killing cells when exposed to an activation signal or an
activation signal or an absence of MHC I on the target
absence of MHC I on the target cell.
cell.
How do Thrombocyte levels change post-splenectomy?
How do Thrombocyte levels change post-splenectomy?
Increase; there is often Thrombocytosis
[...]
Arthus Reaction is a type III hypersensitivity disorder that [...] is a type III hypersensitivity disorder that results from
results from intradermal injection of antigens.
intradermal injection of antigens.
Which HLA subtype is associated with Ankylosing
Spondylitis?
Which HLA subtype is associated with Ankylosing

Spondylitis?
HLA-B27
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with Reactive Arthritis Which HLA subtype is associated with Reactive Arthritis
(Reiter Syndrome)?
(Reiter Syndrome)?
HLA-B27
[...]
Which type of hypersensitivity involves a delayed, T-cell

mediated reaction?
Which type of hypersensitivity involves a delayed, T-cell

mediated reaction?
Type IV
[...]
Which complement pathway is activated by surface

molecules on microbes?
Which complement pathway is activated by surface

molecules on microbes?
Alternative
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Arthus

Reaction?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Arthus

Reaction?
Type III
[...]
Hepcidin is a positive acute phase reactant that prevents

the release of iron bound by Ferritin.
[...] is a positive acute phase reactant that prevents the

release of iron bound by Ferritin.
Humoral Acute Rejection is a type of Acute Transplant

Rejection that presents similarly to Hyperacute rejection,
but involves antibodies that develop after
transplantation.
[...] is a type of Acute Transplant Rejection that presents

similarly to Hyperacute rejection, but involves antibodies
that develop after transplantation.
Glucocorticoids are a type of immunosuppressant that are [...] are a type of immunosuppressant that are associated
associated with osteoporosis and muscle breakdown.
with osteoporosis and muscle breakdown.
Which HLA subtype is associated with
Hemochromatosis?
Which HLA subtype is associated with

Hemochromatosis?
HLA-A3
[...]
IFN-gamma is a cytokine secreted by Th1 cell that

inhibits Th2 cell action.
[...] is a cytokine secreted by Th1 cell that inhibits Th2

cell action.
The medulla is the area of the Thymus that is pale and full The [...] is the area of the Thymus that is pale and full of
of mature T cells and Hassall corpuscles containing
mature T cells and Hassall corpuscles containing
epithelial reticular cells.
epithelial reticular cells.
Which lymphocyte is affected in Common Variable
Immunodeficiency?
Which lymphocyte is affected in Common Variable

Immunodeficiency?
B-cells
[...]
Hence there are fewer plasma cells and

immunoglobulins.
Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that is converted
into 6-MP and inhibits PRPP Amidotransferase.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that is converted into 6MP and inhibits PRPP Amidotransferase.
Which type of T cell is identified by the expression of cell Which type of T cell is identified by the expression of cell
surface markers CD3, CD4 and CD25?
surface markers CD3, CD4 and CD25?
Regulatory T cells
[...]
CD25 = alpha-chain of the IL-2 receptor

Which type of transplants are typically associated with
graft-versus-host disease?
Which type of transplants are typically associated with

graft-versus-host disease?
Bone marrow and liver transplants (as they are rich in

lymphocytes)
[...]
This is potentially beneficial in bone marrow

transplants to treat leukemia (Graft-versus-tumour
effect).
Ataxia Telangiectasia is a primary immunodeficiency that
presents with a triad of ataxia, spider angiomas and
IgA deficiency.
[...] is a primary immunodeficiency that presents with a

triad of ataxia, spider angiomas and IgA deficiency.
Spider angiomas are a type of telangiectasia.

There is also significant cerebellar atrophy.
Which interferon is used to treat Hairy Cell Leukemia?
Which interferon is used to treat Hairy Cell Leukemia?
IFN-alpha
[...]

Serum Sickness?

Serum Sickness?
Type III
[...]
In the activation of T cells, what is the secondary/costimulatory signal between the APC and T cell?
In the activation of T cells, what is the secondary/costimulatory signal between the APC and T cell?
B7 on APC to CD28 on T cell
[...]
Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Digoxin Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Digoxin
toxicity?
toxicity?
Digoxin Immune Fab
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Diffuse

Scleroderma?
Which autoantibody is associated with Diffuse

Scleroderma?
Anti-Scl-70 (Anti-DNA Topoisomerase I)
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the testes?
Which lymph node cluster drains the testes?
Para-aortic
[...]
Ferritin is a positive acute phase reactant that binds to

and sequesters iron to inhibit microbial iron scavenging.
[...] is a positive acute phase reactant that binds to and

sequesters iron to inhibit microbial iron scavenging.
associated with acne and cataracts.
with acne and cataracts.
Which cytokine released by macrophages activates NK
cells?
Which cytokine released by macrophages activates NK

cells?
IL-12
[...]
Also secreted by B cells.

How do IgG and IgM levels change in Wiskott-Aldrich
Syndrome?
How do IgG and IgM levels change in Wiskott-Aldrich

Syndrome?
Decrease to normal
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Polyomyositis and Which autoantibody is associated with Polyomyositis and
Dermatomyositis?
Dermatomyositis?
Anti-Jo-1; Anti-SRP; Anti-Mi-2
[...]
A(n) xenograft is a graft that is received from a different A(n) [...] is a graft that is received from a different species.
species.
What genetic defect is seen in Chronic Granulomatous
Disease?
What genetic defect is seen in Chronic Granulomatous

Disease?
NADPH Oxidase defect
[...]
XLR
Which cell surface receptor on T cells binds to the
antigen-MHC complex?
Which cell surface receptor on T cells binds to the

antigen-MHC complex?
TCR
[...]
Hyperacute Rejection is a type of transplant rejection that

involves widespread thrombosis of grafted vessels,
thereby leading to ischemia and necrosis.
[...] is a type of transplant rejection that involves

widespread thrombosis of grafted vessels, thereby
leading to ischemia and necrosis.
The graft has to be removed.

Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that inhibits PRPP
[...] is an immunosuppressant that inhibits PRPP
Amidotransferase and causes leukopenia, anaemia and Amidotransferase and causes leukopenia, anaemia and
thrombocytopenia.
thrombocytopenia.
Which autoantibody is associated with Drug-induced
SLE?
Which autoantibody is associated with Drug-induced

SLE?
Antihistone
[...]
Which lymphocyte is characterized by CD19, CD20,

CD21 and CD40 cell surface proteins?
Which lymphocyte is characterized by CD19, CD20,

CD21 and CD40 cell surface proteins?
B cells
[...]
Which immunological isotype is one of the two primary

opsonins in bacterial defense?
Which immunological isotype is one of the two primary

IgG
[...]

cells into Regulatory T cells?

cells into Regulatory T cells?
TGF-beta
[...]
Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Multiple Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Multiple
Sclerosis?
Sclerosis?
Natalizumab
[...]

Digoxin Immune Fab?

Digoxin Immune Fab?
Antidote for Digitoxin toxicity
[...]
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune

complexes?
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune

complexes?
Type III Hypersensitivity
[...]
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction causes

anaphylaxis?
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction causes

anaphylaxis?
Type I
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Rheumatoid

Arthritis?
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Rheumatoid

Arthritis?
Rheumatoid factor (IgM specific to the Fc region of IgG);
anti-CCP
Endotoxin/LPS is a bacterial toxin from gram-negative
[...] is a bacterial toxin from gram-negative bacteria that
bacteria that functions to directly stimulate
functions to directly stimulate macrophages by binding
macrophages by binding to the endotoxin receptor
to the endotoxin receptor CD14.
CD14.
Th cells are not involved.
Which cytokine released from Macrophages is a major
chemotactic factor for Neutrophils?
Which cytokine released from Macrophages is a major

chemotactic factor for Neutrophils?
IL-8
[...]
"Clean up on aisle 8."

Which lymph node cluster drains the colon to the splenic Which lymph node cluster drains the colon to the splenic
flexure?
flexure?
Superior mesenteric
[...]
Which type of vaccine often induces a weaker immune

response and hence requires booster shots?
Which type of vaccine often induces a weaker immune

response and hence requires booster shots?
Inactivated/killed vaccine
[...]
Which complement proteins are involved in anaphylaxis?
Which complement proteins are involved in anaphylaxis?
C3a, C4a, C5a
[...]
Granulysin is an antimicrobial protein found in the

cytotoxic granules of CD8+ T cells that functions to induce
apoptosis.
[...] is an antimicrobial protein found in the cytotoxic

granules of CD8+ T cells that functions to induce
apoptosis.
In which area of the lymph node are T cells found?
In which area of the lymph node are T cells found?
Paracortex; the region of the lymph node between follicles

and the medulla
[...]
The paracortex contains many venules through which

T and B cells enter from the blood.
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID is a primary
immunodeficiency that presents with decreased T-cell
receptor excision circles (TRECs).

decreased T-cell receptor excision circles (TRECs).
Which immunoglobulin isotype functions to neutralize

bacterial toxins and viruses?
Which immunoglobulin isotype functions to neutralize

bacterial toxins and viruses?
IgG
[...]
Which immunoglobulin isotype function to opsonize

bacteria?
Which immunoglobulin isotype function to opsonize

bacteria?
IgG
[...]
Which embryological pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the

Thymus?
Which embryological pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the

Thymus?
Epithelium of the 3rd pharyngeal pouch
[...]

Abciximab?

Abciximab?
Prevention of ischemic complications in patients

undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention
[...]
i.e. it's an antiplatelet, brah!

Medullary Cords are structures found in the medulla of
lymph nodes that consist of closely packed lymphocytes
and plasma cells.
[...] are structures found in the medulla of lymph nodes

that consist of closely packed lymphocytes and plasma
cells.

inhibits mTOR via binding to FKBP, thereby inhibiting IL2 signal transduction.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that inhibits mTOR via

binding to FKBP, thereby inhibiting IL-2 signal
transduction.
Which cytokine secreted by all T cells stimulates the

growth of all T cells?
Which cytokine secreted by all T cells stimulates the

growth of all T cells?
IL-2
[...]
Which monoclonal antibody can be used as an RSVprophylaxis for high-risk infants?
Which monoclonal antibody can be used as an RSVprophylaxis for high-risk infants?
Palivizumab
[...]
Which fragment in antibodies functions to bind antigen?
Which fragment in antibodies functions to bind antigen?
Fab
[...]
Inhibition of Calcineurin by binding to Cyclophilin
[...]
Thereby blocks T-cell activation by preventing IL-2

transcription.
Anergy is an immunological phenomenon that involves T [...] is an immunological phenomenon that involves T cells
cells becoming nonreactive without a costimulatory
becoming nonreactive without a costimulatory molecule.
molecule.
B cells also become anergic, but tolerance is less
complete than in T cells.
associated with peptic ulcers.
with peptic ulcers.
Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Breast
Cancer?
Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Breast

Cancer?
Trastuzumab (via HER2/neu)
[...]
Arthus Reaction is a type III hypersensitivity disorder that

presents with antigen-antibody complexes in the skin.
[...] is a type III hypersensitivity disorder that presents

with antigen-antibody complexes in the skin.
Which HLA subtype is associated with Goodpasture

Syndrome?
Which HLA subtype is associated with Goodpasture

Syndrome?
HLA-DR2
[...]

Natalizumab?

Natalizumab?
alpha4-integrin in MS and Crohn Disease
[...]
Alpha4-integrin is an integrin protein involved with

leukocyte adhesion.
Which immunoglobulin isotype fixes complement and is
able to cross the placenta?
Which immunoglobulin isotype fixes complement and is

able to cross the placenta?
IgG
[...]
Crossing of the plcenta provides infants with passive

immunity.
Which complement protein is involved with neutrophil
chemotaxis?
Which complement protein is involved with neutrophil

chemotaxis?
C5a
[...]
Inhibition of PRPP Amidotransferase; inhibits lymphocyte

proliferation by blocking nucleotide synthesis
[...]
Remember, AZT is the prodrug form of 6-MP.

Which interferon is used to treat chronic HBV and HCV? Which interferon is used to treat chronic HBV and HCV?
IFN-alpha
[...]

Erythroblastosis Fetalis?

Erythroblastosis Fetalis?
Type II
[...]
How do AFP levels change in Ataxia Telangiectasia?
How do AFP levels change in Ataxia Telangiectasia?
Increase
[...]
Perforin is an enzyme found in the cytotoxic granules of

CD8+ T cells that functions to deliver the content of
granules into target cells.
[...] is an enzyme found in the cytotoxic granules of CD8+

T cells that functions to deliver the content of granules into
target cells.
Ataxia Telangiectasia is a primary immunodeficiency that [...] is a primary immunodeficiency that involves a defect in
involves a defect in the ATM gene, thereby leading to
the ATM gene, thereby leading to many double stranded
many double stranded DNA breaks and arrest of the cell
DNA breaks and arrest of the cell cycle.
cycle.
In which area of the Thymus does negative selection of
T cells occur?
[...]
In which area of the Thymus does negative selection of

T cells occur?
Medulla


Type II
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Chronic Granulomatous What is the genetic inheritance of Chronic Granulomatous
Disease?
Disease?
XLR
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Pemphigus What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Pemphigus
Vulgaris?
Vulgaris?
Type II
[...]
IgA is an immunoglobulin isotype that is found as a

monomer in circulation but a dimer in secretions.
[...] is an immunoglobulin isotype that is found as a

monomer in circulation but a dimer in secretions.
Which flow cytometry test is abnormal in Chronic

Granulomatous Disease?
Which flow cytometry test is abnormal in Chronic

Granulomatous Disease?
Abnormal Dihydrorhodamine Test
[...]
How do IgE levels change in Job Syndrome (Autosomal

How do IgE levels change in Job Syndrome (Autosomal

Elevated
[...]
How do immunoglobulin levels change in Bruton (Xlinked) Agammaglobulinemia?
How do immunoglobulin levels change in Bruton (Xlinked) Agammaglobulinemia?
Decreased immunoglobulins of all classes
[...]

induce chemokine secretion to recruit leukocytes?

induce chemokine secretion to recruit leukocytes?
IL-1
[...]

Denosumab?

Denosumab?
Osteoporosis; inhibits osteoclast maturation via RANKL
[...]
Which lymphocyte deficiency tends to produce recurrent

bacterial infections?
Which lymphocyte deficiency tends to produce recurrent

bacterial infections?
B-cell deficiency
[...]
[...] are a type of antigen that lacks a peptide component
and hence cannot be presented by MHC to T cells.
Thymus-independent antigens are a type of antigen that

lacks a peptide component and hence cannot be
presented by MHC to T cells.
Weakly immunogenic or nonimmunogenic.
Vaccines often require boosters.
Which lymphoid organ is the site of T cell maturation and Which lymphoid organ is the site of T cell maturation and
differentiation?
differentiation?
Thymus
[...]
T cells = Thymus
B cells = Bone marrow
In the activation of T cells, what is the primary signal
between the APC and T cell?
In the activation of T cells, what is the primary signal

between the APC and T cell?
Antigen via MHC II on APC to TCR on CD4+ T cell;

Antigen via MHC I on APC to TCR on CD8+ T cell
[...]
MHC II <--> CD4+ T cell

MHC I <--> CD8+ T cell
Infliximab?

Infliximab?
IBD; Rheumatoid Arthritis; Ankylosing Spondylitis;

Psoriasis; via TNF-alpha
[...]
Which cytokine from Th1 cells functions to activate

macrophages?
Which cytokine from Th1 cells functions to activate

macrophages?
IFN-gamma
[...]
- Macrophages release IL-12 --> T cells differentiate

into Th1 cells.
- Th1 cells secrete IFN-gamma --> Activation of
macrophages
What is the onset of Hyperacute transplant rejection?
What is the onset of Hyperacute transplant rejection?
Minutes
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the breasts?
Which lymph node cluster drains the breasts?
Axillary
[...]
Thrombopoietin and Oprelvekin are recombinant

cytokines that are used to treat thrombocytopenia.
[...] and Oprelvekin are recombinant cytokines that are

used to treat thrombocytopenia.
Thrombopoietin and Oprelvekin are recombinant

cytokines that are used to treat thrombocytopenia.
Thrombopoietin and [...] are recombinant cytokines that

are used to treat thrombocytopenia.
Perforin and Granzyme are enzymes used by Natural

Killer cells to induce apoptosis in virally infected cells and
tumour cells.
[...] and Granzyme are enzymes used by Natural Killer

cells to induce apoptosis in virally infected cells and
tumour cells.
Perforin "perforates" the membrane.

Granzyme enters and induces apoptosis.
Perforin and Granzyme are enzymes used by Natural Perforin and [...] are enzymes used by Natural Killer cells
Killer cells to induce apoptosis in virally infected cells and to induce apoptosis in virally infected cells and tumour
tumour cells.
cells.
Perforin "perforates" the membrane.
Granzyme enters and induces apoptosis.
Which autoantibody is associated with Celiac Disease?
Which autoantibody is associated with Celiac Disease?
IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase; IgA antiendomysial
[...]
Which cytokine released from macrophages is also called Which cytokine released from macrophages is also called
osteoclast-activating factor?
osteoclast-activating factor?
IL-1
[...]
What is the function of the complement proteins C5b, C6, What is the function of the complement proteins C5b, C6,
C7, C8 and C9?
C7, C8 and C9?
Formation of the MAC and subsequent cytolysis
[...]
What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Digoxin

Immune Fab?
What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Digoxin

Immune Fab?
Digoxin; acts as an antidote for Digoxin toxicity
[...]
Type I Hypersensitivity is a type of hypersensitivity that

involves free antigens cross-linking IgE on presensitized
mast cells and basophils.
[...] is a type of hypersensitivity that involves free antigens

cross-linking IgE on presensitized mast cells and
basophils.
Thereby triggering immediate, widespread release of

vasoactive amines that act as postcapillary venules
(i.e. histamine).
The reaction is rapid due to preformed antibodies.
In which area of the lymph node does B-cell localization In which area of the lymph node does B-cell localization
and proliferation occur?
and proliferation occur?
Follicle; found in the outer cortex
[...]
Primary follicles are dense and dormant.

Secondary follicles have pale central germinal centers
and are active.
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) is a [...] is a possible neurological complication of Natalizumab
possible neurological complication of Natalizumab use in
use in patients with JC virus infection.
patients with JC virus infection.
Which cytokine released from macrophages causes fever Which cytokine released from macrophages causes fever
and stimulates the production of acute-phase proteins?
and stimulates the production of acute-phase proteins?
IL-6
[...]
Also secreted by Th2 cells.

Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis is a primary T-cell
immunodeficiency that involves noninvasive Candida
albicans infections of skin and mucous membranes.
[...] is a primary T-cell immunodeficiency that involves

noninvasive Candida albicans infections of skin and
mucous membranes.
What genetic defect is seen in Leukocyte Adhesion

Deficiency Type 1 (LAD1)?
What genetic defect is seen in Leukocyte Adhesion

LFA-1 integrin (CD18) on phagocytes
[...]
What is the onset of Chronic transplant rejection?
What is the onset of Chronic transplant rejection?
Months to years
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with Hashimoto

Thyroiditis?
Which HLA subtype is associated with Hashimoto

Thyroiditis?
HLA-DR5
[...]
Which fragment in antibodies determines the idiotype? Which fragment in antibodies determines the idiotype?
Fab
[...]
There is a unique antigen-binding pocket as only 1

antigenic specificity is expressed per B cell.
Which protein does Tacrolimus bind to in order to inhibit
Calcineurin?
Which protein does Tacrolimus bind to in order to inhibit

Calcineurin?
FKBP
[...]
The -limus drugs bind to FKBP.

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency [...] is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that involves a
disorder that involves a defect in LYST (Lysosomal
defect in LYST (Lysosomal trafficking regulator gene),
trafficking regulator gene), thereby presenting with
thereby presenting with microtubule dysfunction in
microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion.
phagosome-lysosome fusion.
Autosomal Dominant hyper-IgE Syndrome (Job

Syndrome) is a primary immunodeficiency that presents
with a deficiency of Th17 cells due to a
STAT3 mutation.
[...] is a primary immunodeficiency that presents with a

deficiency of Th17 cells due to a STAT3 mutation.
The mutation results in impaired recruitment of

neutrophils to the site of infection.
Which type of T cell is identified by the expression of the
transcription factor FOXP3?
Which type of T cell is identified by the expression of the

transcription factor FOXP3?
Regulatory T cells
[...]
What genetic defect is seen in DiGeorge Syndrome?
What genetic defect is seen in DiGeorge Syndrome?
22q11
[...]

Polyarteritis Nodosa?

Polyarteritis Nodosa?
Type III
[...]

Adalimumab?

Adalimumab?
IBD; Rheumatoid Arthritis; Ankylosing Spondylitis;

Psoriasis; via TNF-alpha
[...]
How do IgG, IgA and IgE levels change in Hyper IgM

Syndrome?
How do IgG, IgA and IgE levels change in Hyper IgM

Syndrome?
Decrease
[...]
This stems from why there is hyper-IgM.

Remember, there is a defect in class switching of B
cells - they are stuck secreting IgM due to a CD40L
defect on Th cells. As a result, no IgG, IgA or IgE is
made as no B cells are switching to those isotypes.
What type of lymphocyte is affected in Job Syndrome
(Autosomal Dominant hyper-IgE Syndrome)?
What type of lymphocyte is affected in Job Syndrome

T cells
[...]

Calcineurin by binding to FKBP, thereby inhibiting IL-2
transcription.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that inhibits Calcineurin by

binding to FKBP, thereby inhibiting IL-2 transcription.

Syndrome?

Syndrome?
X-linked recessive
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Job Syndrome (Hyper- What is the genetic inheritance of Job Syndrome (HyperIgE Syndrome)?
IgE Syndrome)?
Autosomal Dominant
[...]

Palivizumab?

Palivizumab?
Prophylaxis in RSV high-risk infants; via RSV F protein
[...]
In which area of the spleen are B cells found?
In which area of the spleen are B cells found?
Follicles within the white pulp
[...]
Aldesleukin is a recombinant cytokine that function as IL- [...] is a recombinant cytokine that function as IL-2 and is
2 and is used in renal cell carcinoma and metastatic
used in renal cell carcinoma and metastatic melanoma.
melanoma.
[...] is a type of transplant rejection that involves recipient
T cells that perceive donor MHC as recipient
MHC and subsequently react against donor antigens
that are presented.
Chronic Rejection is a type of transplant rejection that

involves recipient T cells that perceive donor MHC
as recipient MHC and subsequently react against
donor antigens that are presented.
Basically, recipient (host) T cells here think that the
donor MHC molecules are host MHC molecules.
Hence any antigens presented by the donor MHCs
trigger both cell-mediated and humoral reactions (i.e.
reaction against donor antigens).
Which lymph node cluster drains the lungs?
Which lymph node cluster drains the lungs?
Hilar
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Primary Biliary

Cirrhosis?
Which autoantibody is associated with Primary Biliary

Cirrhosis?
Antimitochondrial
[...]
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin isotype in

serum?
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin isotype in

serum?
IgG
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the prostate?
Which lymph node cluster drains the prostate?
Internal Iliac
[...]

induce differentiation into Th2 cells?

induce differentiation into Th2 cells?
IL-4
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with allergic

and atopic disorders?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with allergic

and atopic disorders?
Type I
[...]

stimulate the growth and differentiation of eosinophils?

stimulate the growth and differentiation of eosinophils?
IL-5
[...]

Alemtuzumab?

Alemtuzumab?
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) via CD52
[...]

inhibits mTOR and is non-nephrotoxic.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that inhibits mTOR and is

non-nephrotoxic.
Basiliximab is a monoclonal antibody that blocks IL-2R [...] is a monoclonal antibody that blocks IL-2R and yields
and yields edema, HTN and tremor.
edema, HTN and tremor.
In which area of the spleen are APCs and specialized B

cells found?
[...]
In which area of the spleen are APCs and specialized B

cells found?
Marginal Zone (between the red and white pulp)
This is the area where APCs present blood borne
antigens.
What type of hypersensitivity is involved in febrile
nonhemolytic transfusion reactions?
What type of hypersensitivity is involved in febrile

nonhemolytic transfusion reactions?
Type II hypersensitivity
[...]
Involves host antibodies against donor HLA antigens

and leukocytes.
Which type of T cells function to produce cytokines that
activate other cells of the immune system?
Which type of T cells function to produce cytokines that

activate other cells of the immune system?
CD4+ T cells
[...]

Bevacizumab?

Bevacizumab?
VEGF in colorectal cancer, renal cell carcinoma
[...]

immunodeficiency that presents with an absence of
CD19+ B-cells and a decrease in pro-B cells.
[...] is an XLR immunodeficiency that presents with an

absence of CD19+ B-cells and a decrease in pro-B
cells.
Opsonization is an immunological phenomenon performed

by antibodies that involves the promotion of phagocytosis.
[...] is an immunological phenomenon performed by

antibodies that involves the promotion of phagocytosis.
Which type of hypersensitivity is involved in transplant

rejection?
Which type of hypersensitivity is involved in transplant

rejection?
Type IV
[...]
Decay-accelerating factor (DAF; CD55) and C1 Esterase [...] and C1 Esterase Inhibitor are 2 proteins that function
Inhibitor are 2 proteins that function to
to prevent complement activation on self cells (such as on
prevent complement activation on self cells (such as on
RBCs).
RBCs).
Decay-accelerating factor (DAF; CD55) and C1 Esterase Decay-accelerating factor (DAF; CD55) and [...] are 2
Inhibitor are 2 proteins that function to
proteins that function to prevent complement activation
prevent complement activation on self cells (such as on
on self cells (such as on RBCs).
RBCs).
What is the most common etiology of Severe Combined
Immunodeficiency (SCID)?
What is the most common etiology of Severe Combined

Defective IL-2R gamma chain
[...]
X-linked
Which lymph node cluster drains the upper duodenum?
Which lymph node cluster drains the upper duodenum?
Celiac
[...]
Which type of T cell does MHC I bind to?
Which type of T cell does MHC I bind to?
CD8+ T cells
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Rheumatic What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Rheumatic
Fever?
Fever?
Type II
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with the arthritis of

Inflammatory Bowel Disease?
Which HLA subtype is associated with the arthritis of

Inflammatory Bowel Disease?
HLA-B27
[...]
The Direct Coomb's test is a type of Coomb's test that

detects antibodies that have adhered to the patient's
RBCs.
The [...] is a type of Coomb's test that detects antibodies

that have adhered to the patient's RBCs.
e.g. testing an Rh-positive infant of an Rh-negative

mother
Which autoantibody is associated with T1DM?
Which autoantibody is associated with T1DM?
Anti-glutamate decarboxylase
[...]
Arthus Reaction is a type III hypersensitivity that is

characterized by edema, necrosis of the skin and
complement activation.
[...] is a type III hypersensitivity that is characterized by

edema, necrosis of the skin and complement activation.
Sargramostim is a recombinant cytokine that functions as a

[...] is a recombinant cytokine that functions as a
granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor
(GM-CSF) and is used to induce bone marrow recovery. (GM-CSF) and is used to induce bone marrow recovery.
Which immunoglobulin isotypes mediate the
classical complement pathway?
Which immunoglobulin isotypes mediate the

classical complement pathway?
IgG; IgM
[...]
"GM makes classic cars."

Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Chronic Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Chronic
Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?
Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?
Alemtuzumab (via CD52)
[...]
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Type 1 (LAD1) is a [...] is a primary immunodeficiency that involves a defect in
primary immunodeficiency that involves a defect in LFA-1 LFA-1 integrin (CD18) on phagocytes, thereby resulting
integrin (CD18) on phagocytes, thereby resulting in
in impaired phagocyte migration and chemotaxis.
impaired phagocyte migration and chemotaxis.
Which interleukin's transcription is prevented by
Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus?
Which interleukin's transcription is prevented by

Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus?
IL-2
[...]
Cyclosporine binds to Cyclophilin and then inhibits

Calcineurin.
Tacrolimus binds to FKBP and then inhibits
Calcineurin.
Sirolimus binds to FKBP and then inhibits mTOR, but
inhibits IL-2 signal transduction.
Which type of T cell functions to help B cells make

antibodies?
Which type of T cell functions to help B cells make

antibodies?
CD4+ T cells
[...]
Which area of the lymph nodes are not well developed in Which area of the lymph nodes are not well developed in
patients with DiGeorge Syndrome?
patients with DiGeorge Syndrome?
Paracortex
[...]
Remember, the paracortex houses T cells. DiGeorge

syndrome involves a defect in T-cell maturation.
Which type of helper T cell secretes IFN-gamma?
Which type of helper T cell secretes IFN-gamma?
Th1
[...]
Which immunoglobulin isotype is involved in Type I

Hypersensitivity?
Which immunoglobulin isotype is involved in Type I

Hypersensitivity?
IgE
[...]
Which cell surface receptor on T cells is associated with

the TCR for signal transduction?
Which cell surface receptor on T cells is associated with

the TCR for signal transduction?
CD3
[...]
What type of lymphocyte is affected in Chronic

Mucocutaneous Candidiasis?
What type of lymphocyte is affected in Chronic

Mucocutaneous Candidiasis?
T cells
[...]
Which immunoglobulin isotype is produced in the

primary/immediate response to an antigen?
Which immunoglobulin isotype is produced in the

primary/immediate response to an antigen?
IgM
[...]
Azathioprine (AZT) is an immunosuppressant that is the

antimetabolite precursor of 6-MP.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that is the antimetabolite

precursor of 6-MP.

kidney?

kidney?
Vascular fibrosis and glomerulopathy
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with T1DM?
Which HLA subtype is associated with T1DM?
HLA-DR3; HLA-DR4
[...]
What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Infliximab? What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Infliximab?
TNF-alpha in IBD, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Ankylosing
Spondylitis, Psoriasis
[...]
Which type of lymphocyte is associated with acute and

chronic organ rejection?
Which type of lymphocyte is associated with acute and

chronic organ rejection?
T cells
[...]
Which immunoglobulin isotype crosses epithelial cells by

transcytosis?
Which immunoglobulin isotype crosses epithelial cells by

transcytosis?
IgA
[...]
What is the function of the complement protein C5a?
What is the function of the complement protein C5a?
Neutrophil chemotaxis
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Graftversus-host disease?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Graftversus-host disease?
Type IV
[...]
What is the most common primary immunodeficiency?
What is the most common primary immunodeficiency?
Selective IgA Deficiency
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the spleen?
Which lymph node cluster drains the spleen?
Celiac
[...]
Serum Sickness is a type III hypersensitivity disorder that

presents with fever, urticaria, arthralgia, proteinuria,
lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after antigen exposure.
[...] is a type III hypersensitivity disorder that presents

with fever, urticaria, arthralgia, proteinuria,
lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after antigen exposure.
Which type of hypersensitivity is involved in contact

dermatitis?
Which type of hypersensitivity is involved in contact

dermatitis?
Type IV
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Pemphigus

Vulgaris?
Which autoantibody is associated with Pemphigus

Vulgaris?
Anti-desmoglein
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with hay fever?
Which HLA subtype is associated with hay fever?
HLA-DR2
[...]
Which MHC receptor is only expressed on APCs?
Which MHC receptor is only expressed on APCs?
MHC II
[...]
Serum Sickness is a Type III Hypersensitivity disorder

[...] is a Type III Hypersensitivity disorder that involves
that involves antibodies produced rapidly to an antigen (5 antibodies produced rapidly to an antigen (5 days) forming
days) forming immune complexes that deposit in
immune complexes that deposit in membranes, thereby
membranes, thereby causing tissue damage through
causing tissue damage through complement fixation.
complement fixation.
More common that the Arthus Reaction.
Which cytokine released from macrophages induces the

differentiation of T cells to Th1 cells?
Which cytokine released from macrophages induces the

differentiation of T cells to Th1 cells?
IL-12
[...]
Also secreted by B cells.

Inhibition of Calcineurin via FKBP (FK506 Binding

Protein)
[...]
What IgA level is diagnostic of Selective IgA Deficiency? What IgA level is diagnostic of Selective IgA Deficiency?
< 7 mg/dL (with normal IgG and IgM levels)
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the pancreas?
Which lymph node cluster drains the pancreas?
Celiac
[...]
Which genetic defect is seen in Chediak-Higashi

Syndrome?
Which genetic defect is seen in Chediak-Higashi

Syndrome?
LYST (Lysosomal trafficking regulator gene)
[...]
Causes microtubule dysfunction in phagosomelysosome fusion.

In B cell activation, what is the secondary signal between In B cell activation, what is the secondary signal between
the CD4+ T cell and B cell?
CD40L on CD4+ T cell to CD40 on B cell
[...]
Which lymphocyte is characterized by CD3 and CD28

cell surface proteins?
Which lymphocyte is characterized by CD3 and CD28

cell surface proteins?
T cells
[...]
HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-C are the HLA loci

associated with MHC I.
[...], HLA-B and HLA-C are the HLA loci associated

with MHC I.

HLA-A, [...] and HLA-C are the HLA loci associated

with MHC I.

HLA-A, HLA-B and [...] are the HLA loci associated

with MHC I.
Increase
[...]
Which type of T cell functions to maintain specific

immune tolerance by suppression CD4 and CD8 T
cell effector function?
Which type of T cell functions to maintain specific

immune tolerance by suppression CD4 and CD8 T
cell effector function?
Regulatory T cells
[...]
Which cell surface protein is defective in Hyper IgM

Syndrome?
Which cell surface protein is defective in Hyper IgM

Syndrome?
CD40L on Th cells
[...]
Which gram-positive bacterial genuses often cause

recurrent pyogenic infections in Chediak-Higashi
Syndrome?
Which gram-positive bacterial genuses often cause

recurrent pyogenic infections in Chediak-Higashi
Syndrome?
Staphylococci; Streptococci
[...]
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Type 1 (LAD1) is a

primary immunodeficiency that presents with delayed
separation of the umbilical cord (> 30 days).

delayed separation of the umbilical cord (> 30 days).
Which HLA subtype is associated with the seronegative

arthropathies?
Which HLA subtype is associated with the seronegative

arthropathies?
HLA-B27
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with

limited Scleroderma (CREST Syndrome)?
Which autoantibody is associated with

limited Scleroderma (CREST Syndrome)?
Anticentromere
[...]
Which interferon is used to treat Kaposi Sarcoma?
Which interferon is used to treat Kaposi Sarcoma?
IFN-alpha
[...]
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with PPD test What type of hypersensitivity is associated with PPD test
for TB?
for TB?
Type IV
[...]
Which type of hypersensitivity involves cytotoxicity?
Which type of hypersensitivity involves cytotoxicity?
Type II
[...]
Type 2 is cy-2-toxic.
increase MHC expression and antigen presentation in all
cells?

increase MHC expression and antigen presentation in all
cells?
IFN-gamma
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Microscoptic

Polyangiitis?
Which autoantibody is associated with Microscoptic

Polyangiitis?
p-ANCA (MPO-ANCA)
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of IL-2R Gamma Chain

deficiency [and the subsequent Severe Combined
Immunodeficiency (SCID)]?
What is the genetic inheritance of IL-2R Gamma Chain

deficiency [and the subsequent Severe Combined
X-linked Recessive
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with Multiple Sclerosis? Which HLA subtype is associated with Multiple Sclerosis?
HLA-DR2
[...]
What genetic defect is seen in Ataxia Telangiectasia?
What genetic defect is seen in Ataxia Telangiectasia?
ATM gene; leads to DNA double stranded breaks and

arrest of the cell cycle
[...]
This ultimately causes a deficiency of lymphocytes. (T

and B cells).
Which immunoglobulin isotype is involved in Type III
Hypersensitivity?
Which immunoglobulin isotype is involved in Type III

Hypersensitivity?
IgG
[...]

promote B cell growth and enhance class switching to promote B cell growth and enhance class switching to
IgE and IgG?
IgE and IgG?
IL-4
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Antiphospholipid

Syndrome?
Which autoantibody is associated with Antiphospholipid

Syndrome?
Anti-cardiolipin
[...]
What is the MOA of Glucocorticoids as

immunosuppressants?
What is the MOA of Glucocorticoids as

immunosuppressants?
Inhibition of NF-kB; Thereby suppressing both B and T

cell function by decreasing the transcription of many
cytokines
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the ovaries?
Which lymph node cluster drains the ovaries?
Para-aortic
[...]
Which lymphocyte is the only lymphocyte that functions in Which lymphocyte is the only lymphocyte that functions in
the innate immune system?
the innate immune system?
Natural Killer cells
[...]
In B cell activation, what is the primary signal between

In B cell activation, what is the primary signal between

Antigen via TCR on CD4+ T cell to MHC II on B cell
[...]
TAP is a peptide transporter found in the RER that

[...] is a peptide transporter found in the RER that
functions to deliver peptide antigens for loading into MHC functions to deliver peptide antigens for loading into MHC
I before it is secreted.
I before it is secreted.
What is the onset of Acute transplant rejection?
What is the onset of Acute transplant rejection?
Weeks to months
[...]
IL-10 is an anti-inflammatory cytokine released by Th2 [...] is an anti-inflammatory cytokine released by Th2 cells
cells that inhibits the actions of activated T cells and Th1 that inhibits the actions of activated T cells and Th1 cells.
cells.
Also secreted by regulatory T cells.
Similar to TGF-beta which is also anti-inflammatory.
How do IFN-gamma levels change in Job Syndrome
How do IFN-gamma levels change in Job Syndrome

Decreased
[...]
Negative selection is a type of selection undergone by T

cells that involves the apoptosis of T cells expressing
TCRs with high affinity for self antigens.
[...] is a type of selection undergone by T cells that

involves the apoptosis of T cells expressing TCRs with
high affinity for self antigens.
Which pharyngeal pouches fail to develop in DiGeorge

Syndrome?
Which pharyngeal pouches fail to develop in DiGeorge

Syndrome?
3rd and 4th
[...]
Hence there is thymic and parathyroid aplasia.

Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that is used to
psoriasis and rheumatoid arthritis.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that is used to psoriasis and

rheumatoid arthritis.
Which lymph node cluster drains the kidneys?
Which lymph node cluster drains the kidneys?
Para-aortic
[...]
Which type of helper T cells function to recruit

eosinophils for parasite defense?
Which type of helper T cells function to recruit

eosinophils for parasite defense?
Th2
[...]
The thoracic duct is a major lymphatic vessel that drains The [...] is a major lymphatic vessel that drains 3/4 of the
3/4 of the body into the junction of the left subclavian and body into the junction of the left subclavian and internal
internal jugular veins.
jugular veins.
The Right Lymphatic Duct is what drains the
remaining 1/4 (right side of the body above the
diaphragm).
Trastuzumab?

Trastuzumab?
Breast cancer; Gastric cancer; via HER2/neu
[...]
Which cytokine released from Th1 cells has antiviral and

antitumour properties?
Which cytokine released from Th1 cells has antiviral and

antitumour properties?
IFN-gamma
[...]
[...] is a primary immunodeficiency that involves a
decreased Th1 response due to a lack of IL-12 action.
IL-12 Receptor Deficiency is a primary immunodeficiency

that involves a decreased Th1 response due to a lack of
IL-12 action.
Remember, IL-12 from macrophages activates Th1
cells (which then activate macrophages via IFNgamma).
Which autoantibody is associated with Bullous
Pemphigoid?
Which autoantibody is associated with Bullous

Pemphigoid?
Anti-hemidesmosome
[...]
What is the half-life of antibodies?
What is the half-life of antibodies?
3 weeks
[...]
How is passive immunity acquired?
How is passive immunity acquired?
Receiving preformed antibodies
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of Leukocyte Adhesion

What is the genetic inheritance of Leukocyte Adhesion

Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Which lymphocyte deficiency tends to produce more

recurrent fungal and viral infections?
Which lymphocyte deficiency tends to produce more

recurrent fungal and viral infections?
T-cell deficiency
[...]

Cetuximab?

Cetuximab?
Stage IV colorectal cancer; Head and neck cancer; via

EGFR
[...]
Which immunoglobulin isotype is the most produced

antibody overall?
Which immunoglobulin isotype is the most produced

antibody overall?
IgA
[...]
It is released into secretions (tears, saliva, mucous)

and early breast milk (colostrum).
Before it is released from epithelial cells, it picks up a
secretory component (i.e. becoming Secretory-IgA).
Which complement protein disorder causes Hereditary
Angioedema?
Which complement protein disorder causes Hereditary

Angioedema?
C1 Esterase Inhibitor Deficiency
[...]
Which type of hypersensitivity involves sensitized T-cells

that encounter antigen and then release lymphokines?
Which type of hypersensitivity involves sensitized T-cells

that encounter antigen and then release lymphokines?
Type IV
[...]
The lymphokines lead to macrophage activation.

There are no antibodies involves.
Which HLA subtype is associated with Psoriatic Arthritis? Which HLA subtype is associated with Psoriatic Arthritis?
HLA-B27
[...]
Type II Hypersensitivity is a type of hypersensitivity that [...] is a type of hypersensitivity that involves IgM or IgG
involves IgM or IgG binding to fixed antigens on "enemy" binding to fixed antigens on "enemy" cells, thereby leading
cells, thereby leading to cellular destruction.
to cellular destruction.
3 mechanisms exist:
- Opsonization leading to phagocytosis or complement
activation
- Complement-mediated lysis
- Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity,
typically by NK cells or macrophages
Which immunoglobulin isotype is deficient in Ataxia
Telangiectasia?
Which immunoglobulin isotype is deficient in Ataxia

Telangiectasia?
IgA
[...]
IgG and IgE are also decreased.

Borrelia spp. is a Spirochete that yields antigenic variation
and hence causes Relapsing Fever.
[...] is a Spirochete that yields antigenic variation and

hence causes Relapsing Fever.
What is the treatment for Severe Combined

What is the treatment for Severe Combined

Bone marrow transplantation
[...]
There is no concern for rejection.

How do IgE and IgA levels change in Wiskott-Aldrich
Syndrome?
How do IgE and IgA levels change in Wiskott-Aldrich

Syndrome?
Increased
[...]
Positive selection is a type of selection undergone by T

cells that involves the survival of T cells expressing TCRs
that are capable of binding surface self MHC molecules.
[...] is a type of selection undergone by T cells that

involves the survival of T cells expressing TCRs that are
capable of binding surface self MHC molecules.
What type of lymphocytes are affected in Severe

Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)?
What type of lymphocytes are affected in Severe

Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)?
T and B cells
[...]
Which complement protein is one of the two primary

Which complement protein is one of the two primary

C3b
[...]
C3b also helps to clear immune complexes.

Which fragment in antibodies is involved with
complement binding?
[...]
Which fragment in antibodies is involved with

complement binding?
Fc

Alemtuzumab?

Alemtuzumab?
CD52 in Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Sjogren

Syndrome?
Which autoantibody is associated with Sjogren

Syndrome?
Anti-SSA (Ro); Anti-SSB (La)
[...]
Which immunoglobulin isotype functions to fix complement Which immunoglobulin isotype functions to fix complement
but does not cross the placenta?
but does not cross the placenta?
IgM
[...]
What is the MOA of the immunosuppressant Basiliximab? What is the MOA of the immunosuppressant Basiliximab?
Binds to and blocks the IL-2R
[...]
A(n) autograft is a type of graft that is received from

oneself.
A(n) [...] is a type of graft that is received from oneself.
Which MHC receptor presents

endogenously synthesized antigens (e.g. viral)?
Which MHC receptor presents

endogenously synthesized antigens (e.g. viral)?
MHC I
[...]
Presented to CD8+ T cells

Deficiency [and the subsequent Severe Combined

Deficiency [and the subsequent Severe Combined
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
C3 Deficiency is a complement disorder that presents with

[...] is a complement disorder that presents with an
an increased risk of severem recurrent pyogenic sinus increased risk of severem recurrent pyogenic sinus and
and respiratory tract infections.
respiratory tract infections.
Which lymph node cluster drains the trachea and
esophagus?
Which lymph node cluster drains the trachea and

esophagus?
Mediastinal
[...]
Which cell surface protein on NK cells binds to the Fc

portion of IgG?
Which cell surface protein on NK cells binds to the Fc

portion of IgG?
CD16
[...]
What Nitroblue Tetrazolium (NZT) dye reduction test
result is associated with Chronic Granulomatous Disease?
[...]
What Nitroblue Tetrazolium (NZT) dye reduction test

result is associated with Chronic Granulomatous Disease?
Negative
Hyperacute Rejection is a type of transplant rejection that
involves pre-existing recipient antibodies reacting to
donor antigens via a Type II reaction.
[...] is a type of transplant rejection that involves preexisting recipient antibodies reacting to donor
antigens via a Type II reaction.
Graft-versus-host disease is a transplant rejection disorder [...] is a transplant rejection disorder that involves grafted
that involves grafted immunocompetent T cells that
immunocompetent T cells that proliferate in the
proliferate in the immunocompromised host and
immunocompromised host and eventually begin
eventually begin rejecting host cells as if they were
rejecting host cells as if they were "foreign."
"foreign."
Essentially, the transplanted, functional T cells attack
the immunocompromised host T cells.
Causes severe organ dysfunction.
Which type of helper T cells function to promote IgE
production by B cells?
Which type of helper T cells function to promote IgE

production by B cells?
Th2
[...]
Which type of hypersensitivity is not transferrable by

serum?
Which type of hypersensitivity is not transferrable by

serum?
Type IV
[...]
CD14 and CD40 are the 2 CD-cell surface proteins found [...] and CD40 are the 2 CD-cell surface proteins found
on macrophages.
on macrophages.
CD14 and CD40 are the 2 CD-cell surface proteins found CD14 and [...] are the 2 CD-cell surface proteins found
on macrophages.
on macrophages.
Lungs?

Lungs?
Bronchiolitis obliterans
[...]
Granzyme B is a serine protease found in the cytotoxic [...] is a serine protease found in the cytotoxic granules
granules of CD8+ T cells that functions to activate
of CD8+ T cells that functions to activate apoptosis inside
apoptosis inside target cells.
target cells.
Hyper IgM Syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency that
involves severe pyogenic infections early in life.
[...] is a primary immunodeficiency that involves severe

pyogenic infections early in life.
Opportunistic infections with Pneumocystis,

Cryptosporidium and CMV are also likely.
Hepcidin is a positive acute phase reactant that can cause
Anaemia of Chronic Disease when elevated for a
prolonged period.
[...] is a positive acute phase reactant that can cause

Anaemia of Chronic Disease when elevated for a
prolonged period.
What genetic defect is seen in Wiskott-Aldrich

Syndrome?
What genetic defect is seen in Wiskott-Aldrich

Syndrome?
WAS mutation; results in T cells that are unable to

reorganize their actin cytoskeleton
[...]
[...] is a positive acute phase reactant that functions as an

opsonin and fixes complement.
C-reactive protein is a positive acute phase reactant that

functions as an opsonin and fixes complement.
It is measured clinically as a sign of ongoing
inflammation.
Bevacizumab?

Bevacizumab?
Colorectal cancer; Renal cell carcinoma; via VEGF
[...]
In which area of the spleen are T cells found?
In which area of the spleen are T cells found?
Periarterial lymphatic sheath of the white pulp
[...]
Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Allergic Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Allergic
Asthma?
Asthma?
Omalizumab
[...]
Acute Rejection is a type of transplant rejection that

presents with vasculitis of grafted vessels with dense
interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate.
[...] is a type of transplant rejection that presents with

vasculitis of grafted vessels with dense interstitial
lymphocytic infiltrate.
Prevented or reversed with immunosuppressants.

Omalizumab?

Omalizumab?
Allergic asthma; prevents IgE binding to FcERI
[...]
Which organ transplant is associated with subsequent

Sirolimus (Rapamycin) use?
Which organ transplant is associated with subsequent

Sirolimus (Rapamycin) use?
Kidney transplant rejection prophylaxis
[...]
Fibrinogen is a positive acute phase reactant that

functions as a coagulation factor and promotes
endothelial repair.
[...] is a positive acute phase reactant that functions as a

coagulation factor and promotes endothelial repair.
It correlates with ESR.

Which lymph node cluster drains the stomach?
Which lymph node cluster drains the stomach?
Celiac
[...]
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) [...] is an immunological killing method performed by NK

is an immunological killing method performed by NK cells cells that involves the binding of CD16 to the Fc portion
that involves the binding of CD16 to the Fc portion of
of bound immunoglobulins.
bound immunoglobulins.
This then activates the NK cell.
Which protein is deficient in Paroxysmal Nocturnal
Hemoglobinuria?
Which protein is deficient in Paroxysmal Nocturnal

Hemoglobinuria?
DAF (CD55)
[...]
Agammaglobulinemia??
[...]

Agammaglobulinemia??
XLR
Hence there is an increased incidence in boys.
Which cytokine released by macrophages mediates septic Which cytokine released by macrophages mediates septic
shock?
shock?
TNF-alpha
[...]
It also activates endothelium, causes leukocyte

recruitment and vascular leakage.
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with acute
hemolytic transfusion reactions?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with acute

hemolytic transfusion reactions?
Type II
[...]
Which complement pathway is activated by mannose or Which complement pathway is activated by mannose or
other sugars on the microbe surface?
other sugars on the microbe surface?
Lectin
[...]
Glucocorticoids are a type of immunosuppressant that are

known to cause iatrogenic Cushing Syndrome.
[...] are a type of immunosuppressant that are known to

cause iatrogenic Cushing Syndrome.
Type III Hypersensitivity is a type of hypersensitivity that

involves antigen-antibody (IgG) complexes which activate
complement, thereby attracting neutrophils.
[...] is a type of hypersensitivity that involves antigenantibody (IgG) complexes which activate complement,
thereby attracting neutrophils.
Neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes.

Osteoporosis?

Osteoporosis?
Denosumab (via RANKL)
[...]
Common Variable Immunodeficiency is a primary

immunodeficiency with many causes that involves a
defect in B-cell differentiation.
[...] is a primary immunodeficiency with many causes that

involves a defect in B-cell differentiation.
Can be acquired in the 20s-30s.

Increased risk of autoimmune disease, bronchiectasis,
lymphoma, sinopulmonary infections.
Which immunoglobulin isotype prevents the attachment Which immunoglobulin isotype prevents the attachment
of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes?
of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes?
IgA
[...]
How do PTH levels change in DiGeorge Syndrome?
How do PTH levels change in DiGeorge Syndrome?
Decrease
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with Rheumatoid

Arthritis??
Which HLA subtype is associated with Rheumatoid

Arthritis??
HLA-DR4
[...]
There are 4 walls in the "rheum".

Which interferon is used to treat Condyloma Acuminatum? Which interferon is used to treat Condyloma Acuminatum?
IFN-alpha
[...]
How do IFN-gamma levels change in IL-12 Receptor

Deficiency?
How do IFN-gamma levels change in IL-12 Receptor

Deficiency?
Decrease
[...]
IL-12 from macrophages causes Th1 cell activation.

Activated Th1 cells release IFN-gamma which
activations macrophages.
No IL-12 action = no IFN-gamma release from Th1
cells
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with SLE?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with SLE?
Type III
[...]


IL-4
[...]
Which HLA subtype is associated with Pernicious

Anaemia?
Which HLA subtype is associated with Pernicious

Anaemia?
HLA-DR5
[...]
Remember, Pernicious Anaemia can cause Vit B12

deficiency.
Natalizumab?

Natalizumab?
Multiple Sclerosis; Crohn Disease; via alpha4-integrin
[...]
Remember, alpha4-integrin is involved with leukocyte

adhesion.
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Multiple
Sclerosis?
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Multiple

Sclerosis?
Type IV
[...]
What is the diagnostic test for Type I Hypersensitivity?
What is the diagnostic test for Type I Hypersensitivity?
Skin test for specific IgE
[...]
Which MHC receptor presents exogenously synthesized Which MHC receptor presents exogenously synthesized
proteins (e.g. bacterial proteins; viral capsid antigens)? proteins (e.g. bacterial proteins; viral capsid antigens)?
MHC II
[...]
Presents it to CD4+ T cells.

Which fragment in antibodies contains both the heavy and Which fragment in antibodies contains both the heavy and
light chains?
light chains?
Fab
[...]

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anaemia?

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anaemia?
Type II
[...]
How does IFN-alpha influence NK cell activity?
How does IFN-alpha influence NK cell activity?
Increase
[...]

nephrotoxicity?

nephrotoxicity?
Cyclosporine; Tacrolimus
[...]
Both Calcineurin inhibitors are nephrotoxic.

What type of hypersensitivity is involved in acute hemolytic What type of hypersensitivity is involved in acute hemolytic
transfusion reactions?
transfusion reactions?
Type II
[...]
Involves intravascular hemolysis (i.e. ABO blood

group incompatibility) or extravascular hemolysis (i.e.
host antibody reaction against foreign antigens on
donor RBCs).
Which lymph node cluster drains the head and neck?
Which lymph node cluster drains the head and neck?
Cervical
[...]
Which type of lymphocyte is associated with Type IV

Hypersensitivity?
Which type of lymphocyte is associated with Type IV

Hypersensitivity?
T cells
[...]
Which lymph node cluster drains the skin above the

umbilicus?
Which lymph node cluster drains the skin above the

umbilicus?
Axillary
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Wegener

Granulomatosis (i.e. granulomatosis with polyangiitis)?
Which autoantibody is associated with Wegener

Granulomatosis (i.e. granulomatosis with polyangiitis)?
c-ANCA (PR3-ANCA)
[...]

Adalimumab?

Adalimumab?
TNF-alpha in IBD, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Ankylosing

Spondylitis, Psoriasis
[...]
Which complement protein is involved with opsonization? Which complement protein is involved with opsonization?
C3b
[...]
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency

that presents with thrombocytopenic purpura,
eczema and recurrent infections.

thrombocytopenic purpura, eczema and recurrent
infections.
Which type of helper T cells function to activate

macrophages and cytotoxic T cells?
Which type of helper T cells function to activate

macrophages and cytotoxic T cells?
Th1
[...]


TGF-beta + IL-6
[...]
Which autoantibody is associated with Churg-Strauss

Syndrome?
Which autoantibody is associated with Churg-Strauss

Syndrome?
p-ANCA (MPO-ANCA)
[...]
Trypanosoma is a genus of parasite that yields antigenic

variation through programmed rearrangement of nucleic
acid.
[...] is a genus of parasite that yields antigenic variation

through programmed rearrangement of nucleic acid.
Which lymph node cluster drains the dorsolateral

foot and posterior calf?
Which lymph node cluster drains the dorsolateral

foot and posterior calf?
Popliteal
[...]

[...] is an XLR immunodeficiency that presents with
immunodeficiency that presents with recurrent bacterial
recurrent bacterial and enteroviral infections after 6
and enteroviral infections after 6 months of birth (due to months of birth (due to a decrease in maternal IgG in the
a decrease in maternal IgG in the child).
child).
Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that inhibits
Calcineurin by binding to Cyclophilin, thereby inhibiting
IL-2 transcription and T-cell activation.
[...] is an immunosuppressant that inhibits Calcineurin by

binding to Cyclophilin, thereby inhibiting IL-2 transcription
and T-cell activation.
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Idiopathic What type of hypersensitivity is associated with Idiopathic
Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
Type II
[...]
What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Abciximab? What is the target of the monoclonal antibody Abciximab?
GpIIb/IIIa in patients that need anti-platelet action
i.e. for the prevention of ischemic complications in
patients undergoing percutaneous coronary
intervention
[...]
Which immunoglobulin isotype is the main antibody

involved in the secondary/delayed response to an
antigen?
Which immunoglobulin isotype is the main antibody

involved in the secondary/delayed response to an
antigen?
IgG
[...]
Which gland secretes Prolactin?
Which gland secretes Prolactin?
Anterior pituitary
[...]
GHRH is a hormone that triggers pulsatile release of GH.
[...] is a hormone that triggers pulsatile release of GH.
Which GLUT transporter on pancreatic beta cells is

involved with Insulin regulation?
Which GLUT transporter on pancreatic beta cells is

involved with Insulin regulation?
GLUT2
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer does the Adrenal

cortex form?
From which embryological tissue layer does the Adrenal

cortex form?
Mesoderm
[...]
GLUT5 is an insulin-independent fructose transporter [...] is an insulin-independent fructose transporter that is

that is found in spermatocytes and the GI tract.
found in spermatocytes and the GI tract.
Which form of Vitamin D is made at the skin?
Which form of Vitamin D is made at the skin?
D3
[...]
How does cortisol influence IL-2 production?
How does cortisol influence IL-2 production?
Decrease
[...]
Hence it is immunosuppressive and anti-inflammatory.

Because of this, exogenous corticosteroids can cause
reactivation of TB and candidiasis.
RANKL is a receptor ligand secreted by Osteoblasts that [...] is a receptor ligand secreted by Osteoblasts that binds
binds to RANK on Osteoclasts to stimulate osteoclast to RANK on Osteoclasts to stimulate osteoclast activity.
activity.
Resulting in bone resorption.
RANKL is a receptor ligand secreted by Osteoblasts that RANKL is a receptor ligand secreted by Osteoblasts that
binds to RANK on Osteoclasts to stimulate osteoclast
binds to [...] on Osteoclasts to stimulate osteoclast
activity.
activity.
Resulting in bone resorption.
Adrenal Insufficiency is a complication of abrupt
cessation of glucocorticoids following chronic use.
[...] is a complication of abrupt cessation of

glucocorticoids following chronic use.
How do cortisol levels change in 11-beta-hydroxylase

deficiency?
How do cortisol levels change in 11-beta-hydroxylase

deficiency?
Decrease
[...]
How does TRH influence Prolactin secretion?
How does TRH influence Prolactin secretion?
Increase
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer is the posterior

pituitary formed?
From which embryological tissue layer is the posterior

pituitary formed?
Neuroectoderm
[...]
Which gland secreted Calcitonin?
Which gland secreted Calcitonin?
Parafollicular cells (C cells) of the Thyroid
[...]
How does Vitamin D influence the absorption of dietary

Ca2+ and PO43-?
How does Vitamin D influence the absorption of dietary

Ca2+ and PO43-?
Increase
[...]
How does Vitamin D influence bone resorption?
How does Vitamin D influence bone resorption?
Increase
[...]
Hence increased Ca and PO4.

How does Glucagon influence gluconeogenesis?
How does Glucagon influence gluconeogenesis?
Increase
[...]
Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with PTH? Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with PTH?
cAMP
[...]
GLUT2 is a bidirectional, insulin-independent glucose

transporter found at pancreatic beta cells, liver,
kidney and small intestines.
[...] is a bidirectional, insulin-independent glucose

transporter found at pancreatic beta cells, liver,
kidney and small intestines.
Which tetracycline antibiotic is used to treat SIADH?
Which tetracycline antibiotic is used to treat SIADH?
Demeclocycline
[...]
How does cortisol influence Lipolysis?
How does cortisol influence Lipolysis?
Increase
[...]
How does TRH from the hypothalamus influence TSH

activity?
How does TRH from the hypothalamus influence TSH

activity?
Increase
[...]
Which HPA axis hormone functions to decrease GnRH

secretion?
Which HPA axis hormone functions to decrease GnRH

secretion?
Prolactin
[...]
Which adrenergic receptor triggers an increase in Insulin Which adrenergic receptor triggers an increase in Insulin
release?
release?
beta-2
[...]
How does an increase in sex hormone-binding globulin

(SHBG) influence free testosterone levels?
How does an increase in sex hormone-binding globulin

(SHBG) influence free testosterone levels?
Decrease
[...]
In men this causes gynecomastia.

What is the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct?
What is the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct?
Foramen cecum
[...]
How does hypoglycemia influence Glucagon levels?
How does hypoglycemia influence Glucagon levels?
Increase
[...]
From which embryological tissue population does the

adrenal medulla form?
From which embryological tissue population does the

adrenal medulla form?
Neural crest cells
[...]
What is the venous drainage for the left adrenal gland?
What is the venous drainage for the left adrenal gland?
Left adrenal vein --> Left renal vein --> IVC
[...]
How does increased serum [Ca2+] influence Calcitonin

secretion?
How does increased serum [Ca2+] influence Calcitonin

secretion?
Increase
[...]
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase TSH

secretion?
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase TSH

secretion?
TRH
[...]
How do mineralocorticoid levels change in 21hydroxylase activity?
How do mineralocorticoid levels change in 21hydroxylase activity?
Decrease
[...]
What is the MOA of Propylthiouracil in the treatment of

hyperthyroidism?
What is the MOA of Propylthiouracil in the treatment of

hyperthyroidism?
Inhibition of 5'-deiodinase and peroxidase
[...]
[...] is a hormone secreted by the thyroid that functions to

increase basal metabolic rate by increasing Na/K
ATPase activity.
Thyroid hormone (T3/T4) is a hormone secreted by the

thyroid that functions to increase basal metabolic rate by
increasing Na/K ATPase activity.
Increased Na/K ATPase activity results in increased
O2 consumption, RR and body temperature.
How does GH influence insulin resistance?
How does GH influence insulin resistance?
Increase
[...]
GH is diabetogenic.
17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency is a type of congenital
adrenal hyperplasia that presents with decreased
DHT levels.
[...] is a type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia that

presents with decreased DHT levels.
Which gland secretes GH?
Which gland secretes GH?
Anterior pituitary
[...]
Which enzyme functions to convert Testosterone into

Estradiol?

Estradiol?
Aromatase
[...]
How do mineralocorticoid levels change in 17-alphahydroxylase deficiency?
How do mineralocorticoid levels change in 17-alphahydroxylase deficiency?
Increase
[...]
Which gland secretes TSH?
Which gland secretes TSH?
Anterior pituitary
[...]
How does insulin influence Na+ retention at the kidneys?
How does insulin influence Na+ retention at the kidneys?
Increased
[...]
Where is Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) secreted from?
Where is Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) secreted from?
Chief cells of the parathyroid
[...]
How does thyroid hormone influence basal metabolic

rate?
How does thyroid hormone influence basal metabolic

rate?
Increase
[...]
How do estrogens (e.g. OCPs) influence Prolactin

secretion?
How do estrogens (e.g. OCPs) influence Prolactin

secretion?
Increase
[...]
Vasopressin (ADH) is a hormone released by the

posterior pituitary that functions to regulate serum
osmolarity (V2) and blood pressure (V1).
[...] is a hormone released by the posterior pituitary that

functions to regulate serum osmolarity (V2) and blood
pressure (V1).
Demeclocycline is a drug used to treat SIADH that is

associated with abnormalities of bone and teeth.
[...] is a drug used to treat SIADH that is associated with

abnormalities of bone and teeth.
21-hydroxylase deficiency is a type of congenital adrenal

hyperplasia that presents in infancy as salt wasting or in
childhood as precocious puberty.

presents in infancy as salt wasting or in childhood as
precocious puberty.
Females will see virilization.

How do ADH levels change in primary polydipsia?
How do ADH levels change in primary polydipsia?
Decreased
[...]
How does Cortisol influence blood pressure?
How does Cortisol influence blood pressure?
Increase
[...]
Cortisol upregulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors on

arterioles, thereby increasing the sensitivity to
norepinephrine and epinephrine.
Which gland secretes Melanotropin?
Which gland secretes Melanotropin?
Anterior pituitary
[...]
Photosensitivity is a cutaneous complication of

Demeclocycline use.
[...] is a cutaneous complication of Demeclocycline use.
How does cortisol influence luekocyte adhesion?
How does cortisol influence luekocyte adhesion?
Decrease
[...]
Thereby causing neutrophilia.

This also adds to the anti-inflammatory and
immunosuppressive role of glucocorticoids.
How do K+ levels change in 21-hydroxylase deficiency?
How do K+ levels change in 21-hydroxylase deficiency?
Increase
[...]
Which enzyme is responsible for the coupling of

monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and diiodotyrosine (DIT)?
Which enzyme is responsible for the coupling of

monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and diiodotyrosine (DIT)?
Peroxidase
[...]
How does insulin influence the cellular uptake of amino

acids?
How does insulin influence the cellular uptake of amino

acids?
Increase
[...]
How does cortisol influence leukotriene and prostaglandin
synthesis?
[...]
How does cortisol influence leukotriene and prostaglandin

synthesis?
Decrease
Through this Cortisol is anti-inflammatory and
immunosuppressive.
How does insulin influence glucagon release?
How does insulin influence glucagon release?
Decrease
[...]

adrenal hyperplasia that presents with a lack of
secondary sexual development in females.

presents with a lack of secondary sexual development
in females.
Which portion of the adrenal glands secretes

Catecholamines?
Which portion of the adrenal glands secretes

Catecholamines?
Chromaffin cells of the Adrenal medulla
[...]
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to decrease

Prolactin secretion?
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to decrease

Dopamine
[...]
How does Ketoconazole influence Cholesterol Desmolase How does Ketoconazole influence Cholesterol Desmolase
activity?
activity?
Inhibition
[...]
How does cortisol influence Histamine release from mast

cells?
How does cortisol influence Histamine release from mast

cells?
Decrease
[...]
Hence it is anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive.

Which area of the adrenal cortex secretes sex hormones? Which area of the adrenal cortex secretes sex hormones?
Zona Reticularis
[...]
GFR = salt, sugar, sex

Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase betaendorphin secretion?
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase betaendorphin secretion?
CRH
[...]

adrenal hyperplasia that presents with hypertension and
hypokalemia.

presents with hypertension and hypokalemia.
Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with

Oxytocin?

Oxytocin?
IP3
[...]

hyperplasia that involves an accumulation of 17hydroxyprogesterone.

involves an accumulation of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.
Which hormones act as the primary regulatory control

factors for the Zona Glomerulosa?
Which hormones act as the primary regulatory control

factors for the Zona Glomerulosa?
Renin; Angiotensin
[...]
How do Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) levels change

in OCP use or pregnancy?

in OCP use or pregnancy?
Increased
[...]
Due to the estrogen.

How do Cortisol levels change in 21-hydroxylase
deficiency?
How do Cortisol levels change in 21-hydroxylase

deficiency?
Decrease
[...]
How does PTH influence PO43- reabsorption at the

proximal convoluted tubule?
How does PTH influence PO43- reabsorption at the

proximal convoluted tubule?
Decrease
[...]
How doe significantly reduced Mg2+ levels influence

PTH secretion?
How doe significantly reduced Mg2+ levels influence

PTH secretion?
Decrease
[...]
Mg can decrease in diarrhea, aminoglycoside use,

diuresis and alcohol abuse.
How does thyroid hormone influence gluconeogenesis?
How does thyroid hormone influence gluconeogenesis?
Increase
[...]
What is the MOA of Demeclocycline in the treatment of

SIADH?
What is the MOA of Demeclocycline in the treatment of

SIADH?
ADH antagonism
[...]
Which gland secretes ACTH?
Which gland secretes ACTH?
Anterior pituitary
[...]
Which area of the adrenal cortex secretes

Mineralocorticoids?

Mineralocorticoids?
Zona Glomerulosa
[...]
GFR = salt, sugar, sex.

Which nucleus in the Hypothalamus synthesized ADH
(Vasopressin)?
Which nucleus in the Hypothalamus synthesized ADH

(Vasopressin)?
Supraoptic Nuclei
[...]
Which gland secretes FSH?
Which gland secretes FSH?
Anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)
[...]
What is the secondary control of ADH release?
What is the secondary control of ADH release?
Hypovolemia
[...]
Which drug used to treat hyperthyroidism is used in

pregnancy?
Which drug used to treat hyperthyroidism is used in

pregnancy?
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
[...]
How does cortisol influence osteoblast activity?
How does cortisol influence osteoblast activity?
Decrease
[...]
Thereby decreasing bone formation.

How does blood pressure change in 11-beta-hydroxylase How does blood pressure change in 11-beta-hydroxylase
deficiency?
deficiency?
Increase
[...]

ACTH?

ACTH?
cAMP
[...]
Which GLUT transporter is moved to the cell membrane

following Insulin action?
Which GLUT transporter is moved to the cell membrane

following Insulin action?
GLUT4
[...]
How does hyperglycemia influence Glucagon levels?
How does hyperglycemia influence Glucagon levels?
Decrease
[...]
What is the most common tumour of the adrenal medulla
in adults?
[...]

in adults?
Pheochromocytoma
What is the function of Calcitonin?
What is the function of Calcitonin?
Decreases bone resorption of Ca2+
[...]
i.e. opposite of PTH

"CalciTONin TONes down Ca2+ levels."
How do sex hormone levels change in 17-alphahydroxylase deficiency?
How do sex hormone levels change in 17-alphahydroxylase deficiency?
Decrease
[...]
Pituitary prolactinoma is a pituitary tumour that presents

with amenorrhea and osteoporosis.
[...] is a pituitary tumour that presents with

amenorrhea and osteoporosis.
Aplasia Cutis is a possible teratogenic complication of

Methimazole.
[...] is a possible teratogenic complication of Methimazole.
Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary [...] is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary that
that inhibits ovulation in females and
inhibits ovulation in females and spermatogenesis in
spermatogenesis in males by inhibiting GnRH
males by inhibiting GnRH synthesis and release.
synthesis and release.
Hyperprolactinemia is also associated with decreased
libido.
Gigantism is an endocrine disorder caused by excess GH
secretion in children.
[...] is an endocrine disorder caused by excess GH

secretion in children.
Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with FSH? Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with FSH?
cAMP
[...]
How do sex hormone levels change in 11-betahydroxylase deficiency?
How do sex hormone levels change in 11-betahydroxylase deficiency?
Increase
[...]
Hence females will present with virilization.

Levothyroxine and Triiodithyronine are thyroxine
replacements that are used to treat hypothyroidism and
myxedema.
[...] and Triiodithyronine are thyroxine replacements that

are used to treat hypothyroidism and myxedema.
Levothyroxine and Triiodithyronine are thyroxine

Levothyroxine and [...] are thyroxine replacements that are
replacements that are used to treat hypothyroidism and
used to treat hypothyroidism and myxedema.
myxedema.
T3/T4 is a hormone secreted from the thyroid that
functions to upregulate beta-1 adrenergic receptors in
the heart.
Similar to Cortisol, it increases the sensitivity of the
tissue to catecholamines.
Through this it increases CO, HR, SV and contractility.
[...] is a hormone secreted from the thyroid that functions

to upregulate beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart.

hyperplasia that presents with increased renin activity.

presents with increased renin activity.
Prolactin is a hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary

that functions to stimulate milk production in breasts.
[...] is a hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary that

functions to stimulate milk production in breasts.
Which adrenergic receptor is upregulated by thyroid

hormone?
Which adrenergic receptor is upregulated by thyroid

hormone?
Beta-1; especially at the heart
[...]
Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that is used to treat

Prolactinoma as it inhibits prolactin secretion.
[...] is a dopamine agonist that is used to treat

Prolactinoma as it inhibits prolactin secretion.
Similarly, dopamine antagonists (antipsychotics) and

estrogens (OCPs; pregnancy) stimulate Prolactin
secretion.
How do sex hormone levels change in 21-hydroxylase
deficiency?
How do sex hormone levels change in 21-hydroxylase

deficiency?
Increase
[...]
Which Vasopressin receptor functions to regulate blood

pressure?
Which Vasopressin receptor functions to regulate blood

pressure?
V1
[...]
How does an increase in blood pH influence Albumin's

affinity for Ca2+?
How does an increase in blood pH influence Albumin's

affinity for Ca2+?
Increase
[...]
Hence, alkalosis can yield clinical manifestations of

hypocalcemia (cramps, pain, paresthesias, carpopedal
spasm).
How does PTH influence Vitamin D production?
How does PTH influence Vitamin D production?
Increase
[...]
Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with MSH? Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with MSH?
cAMP
[...]
How does insulin influence protein synthesis?
How does insulin influence protein synthesis?
Increase
[...]
How do mineralocorticoid levels change in 11-betahydroxylase deficiency?
[...]
How do mineralocorticoid levels change in 11-betahydroxylase deficiency?

Decreased aldosterone but increased 11deoxycorticosterone
There is decreased Aldosterone but accumulation of
11-deoxycorticosterone which yields an increase in
blood pressure.
How do decreased Ca2+ levels influence PTH secretion? How do decreased Ca2+ levels influence PTH secretion?
Increase
[...]
What is the treatment for Osteoporosis seen in Iatrogenic What is the treatment for Osteoporosis seen in Iatrogenic
Cushing Syndrome?
Cushing Syndrome?
Bisphosphonates
[...]
Graves Disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized

by hyperthyroidism due to the presence of thyroid
stimulating immunoglobulins.
[...] is an autoimmune disorder characterized by

hyperthyroidism due to the presence of thyroid
stimulating immunoglobulins.
Which form of vitamin D is the active form made in the

kidneys?
Which form of vitamin D is the active form made in the

kidneys?
1,25-(OH)2 Vitamin D
[...]
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase ACTH Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase ACTH
secretion?
secretion?
CRH
[...]
How does insulin influence cellular uptake of K+?
How does insulin influence cellular uptake of K+?
Increase
[...]
The thyroglossal duct is an embryological structure that

connects the descending thyroid to the tongue.
The [...] is an embryological structure that connects the

descending thyroid to the tongue.
It may persist as the pyramidal lobe of the thyroid.

Desmopressin is an ADH analog used to treat Central
Diabetes Insipidus.
[...] is an ADH analog used to treat Central Diabetes

Insipidus.
Agranulocytosis is a rare hematological complication of

Propylthiouracil and Methimazole use.
[...] is a rare hematological complication of

Propylthiouracil and Methimazole use.
Aplastic anaemia is also a possible complication.

Which cells of the pancreas secrete insulin?
Which cells of the pancreas secrete insulin?
beta cells
[...]
Found centrally.
How does cortisol influence fibroblast activity?
How does cortisol influence fibroblast activity?
Decrease
[...]
This is how is causes striae.

Which drug used to treat hyperthyroidism is associated
with hepatotoxicity?
Which drug used to treat hyperthyroidism is associated

with hepatotoxicity?
Propylthiouracil
[...]
Which cellular signalling cascade is assocaited with the

ADH V1 receptor?
Which cellular signalling cascade is assocaited with the

ADH V1 receptor?
IP3
[...]
Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with the

ADH V2-receptor?

ADH V2-receptor?
cAMP
[...]
What is the most common enzyme deficiency in Congenital What is the most common enzyme deficiency in Congenital
Adrenal Hyperplasia?
Adrenal Hyperplasia?
21-hydroxylase deficiency
[...]
How does Glucagon influence glycogenolysis?
How does Glucagon influence glycogenolysis?
Increase
[...]
Oxytocin is a posterior pituitary hormone that is used to

stimulate labour, uterine contractions and milk letdown.
[...] is a posterior pituitary hormone that is used to

stimulate labour, uterine contractions and milk letdown.
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to decrease TSH Which hypothalamic hormone functions to decrease TSH
secretion?
secretion?
Somatostatin
[...]
Somatostatin analogs are used to treat acromegaly.

Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase LH
secretion?
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase LH

secretion?
GnRH
[...]
Tonic GnRH suppresses the HPA axis.

Pulsatile GnRH triggers puberty and fertility.
How does Somatostatin influence Glucagon levels?
How does Somatostatin influence Glucagon levels?
Decrease
[...]

Angiotensin II?

Angiotensin II?
IP3
[...]
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase MSH Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase MSH
(Melanotropin) secretion?
(Melanotropin) secretion?
CRH
[...]
How do oral contraceptives (or pregnancy) influence sex How do oral contraceptives (or pregnancy) influence sex
hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) levels?
hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) levels?
Increase
[...]
Free testosterone levels decrease.

Free estrogen levels remain unchanged.
Which enzyme is responsible for the oxidation and
organification of Iodide?
Which enzyme is responsible for the oxidation and

organification of Iodide?
Peroxidase
[...]

hyperplasia that presents with hypotension and
hyperkalemia.

presents with hypotension and hyperkalemia.
How do marginally decreased Mg2+ levels influence PTH How do marginally decreased Mg2+ levels influence PTH
release?
release?
Increase
[...]
Which Vasopressin receptors function to regulate serum

osmolarity?
Which Vasopressin receptors function to regulate serum

osmolarity?
V2
[...]
How does insulin influence triglyceride synthesis?
How does insulin influence triglyceride synthesis?
Increase
[...]
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase

Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase

TRH
[...]
How does thyroid hormone influence lipolysis?
How does thyroid hormone influence lipolysis?
Increase
[...]
How does Glucagon influence ketogenesis?
How does Glucagon influence ketogenesis?
Increase
[...]
How does GH secretion change during exercise and

sleep?
How does GH secretion change during exercise and

sleep?
Increase
[...]
Which neurotransmitter secreted by the Hypothalamus

functions to tonically inhibit Prolactin secretion?
Which neurotransmitter secreted by the Hypothalamus

functions to tonically inhibit Prolactin secretion?
Dopamine
[...]
Prolactin then inhibits its own secretion via negative

feedback by triggering Dopamine release from the
hypothalamus.
What is the primary control for ADH release?
What is the primary control for ADH release?
Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
[...]
NF-kB is a transcription factor hat is often inhibited by

Glucocorticoids, thereby leading to downstream antiinflammatory and immunosuppressive effects.
[...] is a transcription factor hat is often inhibited by

Glucocorticoids, thereby leading to downstream antiinflammatory and immunosuppressive effects.
Which adrenergic receptors are upregulated by Cortisol

on arterioles?
Which adrenergic receptors are upregulated by Cortisol

on arterioles?
Alpha-1
[...]
This is how Cortisol increases blood pressure.

Which plasma protein binds to most T3/T4 in the blood?
Which plasma protein binds to most T3/T4 in the blood?
Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
[...]
GH is a hormone analog used to treat Turner Syndrome.
[...] is a hormone analog used to treat Turner Syndrome.
What type of Diabetes Insipidus is a potential complication What type of Diabetes Insipidus is a potential complication
of Demeclocycline use?
of Demeclocycline use?
Nephrogenic DI
[...]
GH is a hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary that

functions to stimulate linear growth and muscle mass
growth via IGF-1/Somatomedin secretion.
[...] is a hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary that

functions to stimulate linear growth and muscle mass
growth via IGF-1/Somatomedin secretion.

GnRH?

GnRH?
IP3
[...]
What is the most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue?
What is the most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue?
Tongue
[...]
Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with hCG? Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with hCG?
cAMP
[...]
Vasopressin (ADH) is a hormone secreted from the

[...] is a hormone secreted from the posterior pituitary that
posterior pituitary that primarily decreases serum
primarily decreases serum osmolarity by influencing
osmolarity by influencing aquaporin channel transcription in aquaporin channel transcription in principal cells of the
principal cells of the collecting duct.
collecting duct.
ADH increases urine osmolarity and decreases serum
osmolarity by inducing water retention.
What is the treatment for Central Diabetes Insipidus?
What is the treatment for Central Diabetes Insipidus?
DDAVP
[...]
Which gland secretes LH?
Which gland secretes LH?
Anterior pituitary
[...]
Which form of Vitamin D is made in the liver?
Which form of Vitamin D is made in the liver?
25-OH Vitamin D
[...]
How do ADH levels change in Central Diabetes

Insipidus?
How do ADH levels change in Central Diabetes

Insipidus?
Decrease
[...]
Which somatostatin analog is used to treat Carcinoid

tumours?
Which somatostatin analog is used to treat Carcinoid

tumours?
Octreotide
[...]
How does PTH influence PO43- resorption at bone?
How does PTH influence PO43- resorption at bone?
Increase
[...]
Which form of thyroid hormone has greater affinity for

Thyroid hormone receptors?
Which form of thyroid hormone has greater affinity for

Thyroid hormone receptors?
T3 > T4
[...]
Which plasma protein primarily binds to Cortisol?
Which plasma protein primarily binds to Cortisol?
Corticosteroid-binding globulin
[...]
How does PTH influence the reabsorption of Ca2+ in the How does PTH influence the reabsorption of Ca2+ in the
distal convoluted tubule?
distal convoluted tubule?
Increase
[...]
How does Cortisol influence ACTH secretion?
How does Cortisol influence ACTH secretion?
Decrease
[...]
What is the MOA of Methimazole in the treatment of
hyperthyroidism?
[...]
What is the MOA of Methimazole in the treatment of

hyperthyroidism?
Inhibition of Peroxidase only
Acromegaly is an endocrine disorder caused by excess

GH secretion in adults.
[...] is an endocrine disorder caused by excess GH

secretion in adults.
Which hormone from the anterior pituitary functions to

inhibit GnRH synthesis and release?
Which hormone from the anterior pituitary functions to

inhibit GnRH synthesis and release?
Prolactin
[...]
WHich cellular signalling cascade is associated with

Calcitonin?
WHich cellular signalling cascade is associated with

Calcitonin?
cAMP
[...]
Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin?
Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin?
delta cells
[...]
Found interspersed throughout the Islets of

Langerhans.
Where is most T3 made?
Where is most T3 made?
At target tissue
[...]
Thyroid follicles primarily make T4.

How does PTH influence the resorption of Ca2+ at bone? How does PTH influence the resorption of Ca2+ at bone?
Increase
[...]
Which gland secretes Oxytocin?
Which gland secretes Oxytocin?
Posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis)
[...]
Made in the hypothalamus but is shipped to the

posterior pituitary.
From which embryological layer is the anterior pituitary
formed?
From which embryological layer is the anterior pituitary

formed?
Oral ectoderm (Rathke's pouch)
[...]

GHRH?

GHRH?
cAMP
[...]
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to decrease GH

secretion?
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to decrease GH

secretion?
Somatostatin
[...]
Somatostatin analogs are used to treat acromegaly.

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst is a congenital thyroid anomaly
that presents as an anterior midline neck mass that
moves with swallowing or protrusion of the tongue.
[...] is a congenital thyroid anomaly that presents as an

anterior midline neck mass that moves with swallowing
or protrusion of the tongue.
Compare this to a Branchial Cleft Cyst which

presents with a persistant cervical cinus in the
lateral neck.
Which somatostatin analog is used to treat Glucagonoma? Which somatostatin analog is used to treat Glucagonoma?
Octreotide
[...]
How does Cortisol influence insulin resistance?
How does Cortisol influence insulin resistance?
Increase
[...]
Cortisol is diabetogenic.
How does glucose influence GH release?
How does glucose influence GH release?
Decrease
[...]

Histamine H1 receptor?

Histamine H1 receptor?
IP3
[...]
Which cellular cascade is associated with GH?
Which cellular cascade is associated with GH?
Receptor-associated tyrosine kinase
[...]
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase FSH

secretion?
Which hypothalamic hormone functions to increase FSH

secretion?
GnRH
[...]
Tonic GnRH suppresses the HPA axis.

Pulsatile GnRH triggers puberty and fertility.
GLUT4 is an insulin-dependent glucose transporter
found in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle.
[...] is an insulin-dependent glucose transporter found in

adipose tissue and skeletal muscle.
Which gland secretes Vasopressin (ADH)?
Which gland secretes Vasopressin (ADH)?
Posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis)
[...]
Made in the hypothalamus but is shipped to the

posterior pituitary.
Which cellular cascade is associated with prolactin?
Which cellular cascade is associated with prolactin?
Receptor-associated tyrosine kinases
[...]
How does decreased Ca influence Vitamin D

production?
How does decreased Ca influence Vitamin D

production?
Increase
[...]
Which bone cell secretes RANKL?
Which bone cell secretes RANKL?
Osteoblasts
[...]
Which drug used to treat hyperthyroidism is a possible

teratogen?
Which drug used to treat hyperthyroidism is a possible

teratogen?
Methimazole
[...]
Can cause aplasia cutis.

Which form of Vitamin D is ingested from plants?
Which form of Vitamin D is ingested from plants?
D2
[...]
Which zone of the adrenal cortex secretes Cortisol?
Which zone of the adrenal cortex secretes Cortisol?
Zona Fasciculata
[...]
Which enzyme converts T4 into active T3 in peripheral

tissue?
Which enzyme converts T4 into active T3 in peripheral

tissue?
5'-deiodinase
[...]
Remember, T4 is the major product of the thyroid and

is converted into the active T3.
11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency is a type of congenital
adrenal hyperplasia that presents with hypertension with
low-renin activity.

presents with hypertension with low-renin activity.
How does blood pressure change in 21-hydroxylase

deficiency?
How does blood pressure change in 21-hydroxylase

deficiency?
Decrease
[...]
GLUT1 is an insulin-independent glucose transporter

found in RBCs, brain and the cornea.
[...] is an insulin-independent glucose transporter found

in RBCs, brain and the cornea.
FSH, LH, ACTH and TSH are the anterior pituitary

hormones secreted by the basophils of the gland.
[...], LH, ACTH and TSH are the anterior pituitary


FSH, [...], ACTH and TSH are the anterior pituitary


FSH, LH, [...] and TSH are the anterior pituitary


FSH, LH, ACTH and [...] are the anterior pituitary

Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with LH?
Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with LH?
cAMP
[...]
GH and Prolaction are anterior pituitary hormones

secreted by the acidophils of the gland.
[...] and Prolaction are anterior pituitary hormones

GH and Prolaction are anterior pituitary hormones

GH and [...] are anterior pituitary hormones secreted by

the acidophils of the gland.
How do ACTH levels change in Congenital Adrenal

Hyperplasia?
How do ACTH levels change in Congenital Adrenal

Hyperplasia?
Increased
[...]
This is always the case as Cortisol levels are always

decreased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
The lack of Cortisol feedback results in elevated
ACTH levels and subsequent adrenal gland
hyperplasia.
How does blood pressure change in 17-alphahydroxylase deficiency?
How does blood pressure change in 17-alphahydroxylase deficiency?
Increase
[...]
How does GH influence Insulin release?
How does GH influence Insulin release?
Increase via insulin resistance
[...]
GH causes insulin resistance and hence insulin release.

How do Cortisol levels change in 17-alpha-hydroxylase? How do Cortisol levels change in 17-alpha-hydroxylase?
Decrease
[...]
Negative feedback of T3 and T4 to the anterior pituitary

decreases the sensitivity to TRH, thereby resulting in
decreased Thyroid hormone production.
Negative feedback of T3 and T4 to the anterior pituitary

decreases the sensitivity to [...], thereby resulting in
decreased Thyroid hormone production.
Which cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon?
Which cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon?
alpha cells
[...]
Found at the periphery.

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)?

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)?
5-alpha-reductase
[...]
PTH is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid hormone

that increases Calcitriol [1,25-(OH)2 D3] production by
activating kidney 1-alpha-hydroxylase.
[...] is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid hormone

that increases Calcitriol [1,25-(OH)2 D3] production by
activating kidney 1-alpha-hydroxylase.
Which cellular signalling cascade is involved with ANP

and NO (vasodilators)?
Which cellular signalling cascade is involved with ANP

and NO (vasodilators)?
cGMP
[...]
How do K+ levels change in 17-alpha-hydroxylase

deficiency?
How do K+ levels change in 17-alpha-hydroxylase

deficiency?
Decrease
[...]
How does decreased PO4 influence Vitamin D

production?
How does decreased PO4 influence Vitamin D

production?
Increase
[...]
Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with CRH? Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with CRH?
cAMP
[...]
How does cortisol influence Proteolysis?
How does cortisol influence Proteolysis?
Increase
[...]
How does Dopamine influence Prolactin secretion?
How does Dopamine influence Prolactin secretion?
Decrease
[...]
What is the venous drainage for the right adrenal gland?
What is the venous drainage for the right adrenal gland?
Right adrenal vein --> IVC
[...]
The right adrenal vein does not drain into the right
renal vein (unlike the left side).
in children?

in children?
Neuroblastoma
[...]
How does a decrease in sex hormone-binding globulin

influence free testosterone levels?
How does a decrease in sex hormone-binding globulin

influence free testosterone levels?
Increase
[...]
In women this causes hirsutism.

Wolff-Chaikoff Effect is a phenomenon that involves the
temporary inhibition of thyroid peroxidase due to
excess iodine levels.
[...] is a phenomenon that involves the

temporary inhibition of thyroid peroxidase due to
excess iodine levels.
How does cortisol influence gluconeogenesis?
How does cortisol influence gluconeogenesis?
Increase
[...]
How does Glucagon influence lipolysis?
How does Glucagon influence lipolysis?
Increase
[...]
PTH-related peptide (PTHrP) is a PTH-like hormone that [...] is a PTH-like hormone that functions similarly to PTH
functions similarly to PTH and is commonly seen in
and is commonly seen in paraneoplastic syndrome.
paraneoplastic syndrome.
in hepatic failure?

in hepatic failure?
Decrease
[...]
How does PTH change serum [Ca2+]?
How does PTH change serum [Ca2+]?
Increase
[...]

Gastrin?

Gastrin?
IP3
[...]
How does thyroid hormone influence glycogenolysis?
How does thyroid hormone influence glycogenolysis?
Increase
[...]
Which somatostatin analog is used to treat Gastrinoma?
Which somatostatin analog is used to treat Gastrinoma?
Octreotide
[...]
Which somatostatin analog is used to treat Esophageal

Varices?
Which somatostatin analog is used to treat Esophageal

Varices?
Octreotide
[...]
Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with TSH? Which cellular signalling cascade is associated with TSH?
cAMP
[...]

Glucocorticoids?

Glucocorticoids?
Zona Fasciculata
[...]
GFR = salt, sugar, sex

adrenal hyperplasia that presents with pseudohermaphroditism in males (ambiguous genitalia,
undescended testes).

presents with pseudo-hermaphroditism in
males (ambiguous genitalia, undescended testes).
Where in the cell is preproinsulin formed?
Where in the cell is preproinsulin formed?
RER
[...]
It is then cleaved into Proinsulin which is stored in

secretory granules.
Before exocytosis, it is cleaved into Insulin and Cpeptide.
How do beta-2 adrenergic agonists influence Insulin
release?
How do beta-2 adrenergic agonists influence Insulin

release?
Increase
[...]
How do ADH levels change in Nephrogenic Diabetes

Insipidus?
How do ADH levels change in Nephrogenic Diabetes

Insipidus?
Normal or Increased
[...]
How does Somatostatin influence GH release?
How does Somatostatin influence GH release?
Decrease
[...]
Which ligament connects the medial pole of the ovary to

the lateral aspect of the uterus?
Which ligament connects the medial pole of the ovary to

the lateral aspect of the uterus?
Ovarian Ligament
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer does the epithelial From which embryological tissue layer does the epithelial
lining of the oral cavity form?
lining of the oral cavity form?
Surface ectoderm
[...]
Which cells of the testes form the blood-testis barrier?
Which cells of the testes form the blood-testis barrier?
Formed by tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells
[...]
Functions to isolate gametes from autoimmune

attaack.
Which nerve causes male ejaculation?
Which nerve causes male ejaculation?
Pudendal nerve
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of ACE Inhibitors?
Which is the teratogenic effect of ACE Inhibitors?
Renal damage
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to Platysma muscle?
Which branchial arch gives rise to Platysma muscle?
2nd
[...]
Which androgen is associated with the growth spurt in the Which androgen is associated with the growth spurt in the
penis, sperm, muscle and RBCs?
penis, sperm, muscle and RBCs?
Testosterone
[...]
How does estrogen influence the expression of GnRH

receptors at the anterior pituitary?
How does estrogen influence the expression of GnRH

receptors at the anterior pituitary?
Increase
[...]
This enstrogen surge then stimulates an LH surge,

thereby causing ovulation.
During which week of gestation is fetal cardiac activity
visible by transvaginal ultrasound?
During which week of gestation is fetal cardiac activity

visible by transvaginal ultrasound?
[...]
Which branchial arch is associated with Treacher Collins

Syndrome?
Which branchial arch is associated with Treacher Collins

Syndrome?
1st
[...]
Which androgen is associated with differentiation of the Which androgen is associated with differentiation of the
penis, scrotum and prostate?
penis, scrotum and prostate?
DHT
[...]
Which gene important for embryogenesis is needed for

dorsal-ventral axis organization?
Which gene important for embryogenesis is needed for

dorsal-ventral axis organization?
Wnt-7
[...]
Estriol is a form of estrogen that is used as an indicator of

fetal well-being as it sees a 1000x fold increase in
pregnancy.
[...] is a form of estrogen that is used as an indicator of

fetal well-being as it sees a 1000x fold increase in
pregnancy.
Cleft lip is a congenital anomaly that is described as

[...] is a congenital anomaly that is described as failure of
failure of the fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal
the fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal
processes.
processes.
On which day following fertilization is the morula formed? On which day following fertilization is the morula formed?
3
[...]
[...] is an error in organ morphogenesis that is defined as a

series of abnormalities resulting from a single
primary embryological event.
Sequence is an error in organ morphogenesis that is

defined as a series of abnormalities resulting from a
single primary embryological event.
e.g. oligohydramnios causes Potter sequence.
From which embryological tissue layer does the epidermis From which embryological tissue layer does the epidermis
form?
form?
Surface ectoderm
[...]
Which embryological tissue population/layer gives rise to

the cardiovascular structures?

the cardiovascular structures?
Mesoderm
[...]
How long is the luteal (secretory) phase of menstruation? How long is the luteal (secretory) phase of menstruation?
14 days
[...]
Typically stays constant.

Which is the teratogenic effect of Diethylstilbestrol (DES)? Which is the teratogenic effect of Diethylstilbestrol (DES)?
Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma; Congenital Mullerian
anomalies
[...]
How do exogenous testosterones influence the size of

testicles?
How do exogenous testosterones influence the size of

testicles?
Decrease
[...]
Exogenous testosterone inhibits the hypothalamicpituitary-gonadal axis, thereby decreased

intratesticular testosterone and ultimately causing a
reduction in both testicular size and spermatogenesis.
Which Tanner stage of sexual development is associated
with breast enlargement?

with breast enlargement?
III
[...]
Which ligament connects the fundus of the uterus to the

labia majora?
Which ligament connects the fundus of the uterus to the

labia majora?
Round ligament of the uterus
[...]
Travels through the round inguinal canal above the

artery of Sampson.
Which branchial arch gives rise to Reichert Cartilage
(stapes; styloid process; lesser horn of the hyoid;
stylohyoid ligament)?
Which branchial arch gives rise to Reichert Cartilage

(stapes; styloid process; lesser horn of the hyoid;
stylohyoid ligament)?
2nd
[...]
Which branchial pouch contributes to the endoderm-lined Which branchial pouch contributes to the endoderm-lined
structures of the ear?
structures of the ear?
1st
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to the Stylohoid muscle?
Which branchial arch gives rise to the Stylohoid muscle?
2nd
[...]
How many days in the menstrual cycle is diagnostic of

polymenorrhea?

polymenorrhea?
< 21 days
[...]

oligomenorrhea?

oligomenorrhea?
> 35 days
[...]
A mutation in which gene important in embryogenesis is A mutation in which gene important in embryogenesis is
associated with appendages being found in the wrong associated with appendages being found in the wrong
locations?
locations?
Homeobox (Hox) genes
[...]
Which cells of the testes secrete Mullerian Inhibitor Factor Which cells of the testes secrete Mullerian Inhibitor Factor
(MIF)?
(MIF)?
Sertoli cells
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of either a lack or excess of Which is the teratogenic effect of either a lack or excess of
Iodine?
Iodine?
Congenital goiter; Cretinism
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of Phenytoin?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Phenytoin?
Fetal hydantoin syndrome
[...]
Involves microcephaly, dysmorphic craniofacial

features, hypoplastic nails, hypoplastic distal
phalanges, cardiac defects, IUGR and intellectual
disability.
What is the pathway of sperm during ejaculation?
What is the pathway of sperm during ejaculation?
StEVE: Seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens,

ejaculatory ducts
[...]
StEVE: Seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas

deferens, ejaculatory ducts
Disruption is an error is organ morphogenesis that is
defined as the secondary breakdown of a previously
normal tissue or structure.
e.g. amniotic band syndrome
[...] is an error is organ morphogenesis that is defined as

the secondary breakdown of a previously normal
tissue or structure.
Vitelline fistula is a congenital anomaly that occurs due to

failure of the vitelline duct to close and presents with
meconium discharge from the umbilicus.
[...] is a congenital anomaly that occurs due to failure of

the vitelline duct to close and presents with meconium
discharge from the umbilicus.
Which androgen is associated with sebaceous gland

activity?
Which androgen is associated with sebaceous gland

activity?
DHT
[...]
What is the male homolog to the labia majora?
What is the male homolog to the labia majora?
Scrotum
[...]
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the epithelial lining of Which branchial pouch gives rise to the epithelial lining of
the palatine tonsils?
the palatine tonsils?
2nd
[...]
Which embryological tissue layer gives rise to the branchial Which embryological tissue layer gives rise to the branchial
clefts?
clefts?
Ectoderm
[...]
aka Branchial grooves

Which form of estrogen is the predominant form in
menopause?
Which form of estrogen is the predominant form in

menopause?
Estrone
[...]
Formed by peripheral conversion of androgens.

Increased androgens = hirsutism.
Dichorionic diamniotic monozygotic twins are a type of
monozygotic twinning that occurs if the cleavage occurs
between 0-4 days of fertilization.
[...] are a type of monozygotic twinning that occurs if the

cleavage occurs between 0-4 days of fertilization.
What is the male equivalent to the clitoris?
What is the male equivalent to the clitoris?
Penis
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to all intrinsic muscles

of the larynx except the cricothyroid?
Which branchial arch gives rise to all intrinsic muscles

of the larynx except the cricothyroid?
6th
[...]
How does Progesterone influence myometrial excitability? How does Progesterone influence myometrial excitability?
Decrease
[...]
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the thymus?
[...]
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the thymus?

3rd (ventral wing)
The Sonic hedgehog gene is an important gene of

embryogenesis that is produced at the base of limbs in the
zone of polarizing activity.
The [...] is an important gene of embryogenesis that is

produced at the base of limbs in the zone of polarizing
activity.
How does Estrogen influence the production of steroid

hormone-binding globulin?
How does Estrogen influence the production of steroid

hormone-binding globulin?
Increase
[...]

the kidneys and adrenal cortex?

the kidneys and adrenal cortex?
Mesoderm
[...]
During which week of gestation does gastrulation occur?
During which week of gestation does gastrulation occur?
[...]
arches?
arches?
Mesoderm; neural crest
[...]
Congenital Pharyngocutaneous Fistula is a congenital

anomaly of the 2nd branchial arch that presents with
persistence of the cleft and pouch and subsequent
fistula between the tonsillar area and lateral neck.
[...] is a congenital anomaly of the 2nd branchial arch that

presents with persistence of the cleft and pouch and
subsequent fistula between the tonsillar area and
lateral neck.
Which enzyme functions to convert androgens into

estrogens in males?
Which enzyme functions to convert androgens into

estrogens in males?
Aromatase
[...]
Primarily in adipose tissue and the testes.

with thelarche (formation of the breast buds)?

with thelarche (formation of the breast buds)?
II
[...]
Bicornuate uterus is a congenital genital anomaly that

results from incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric
ducts.
[...] is a congenital genital anomaly that results from

incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts.
Complete failure of fusions results in double uterus

and vagina.
Which embryological structure gives rise to the Roung
Ligament of the Uterus?
Which embryological structure gives rise to the Roung

Ligament of the Uterus?
Gubernaculum
[...]

the spleen?

the spleen?
Mesoderm
[...]
Monochorionic monoamniotic monozygotic twins is a type

of monozygotic twinning that occurs if the cleavage occurs
8-12 days after fertilization.
[...] is a type of monozygotic twinning that occurs if the

cleavage occurs 8-12 days after fertilization.
What is the male holomog to the urethral and paraurethral What is the male holomog to the urethral and paraurethral
glands (glands of Skene)?
glands (glands of Skene)?
Prostate gland
[...]
Menopause is a hormonal disorder seen in women that is

[...] is a hormonal disorder seen in women that is
described as a decline in estrogen production due to described as a decline in estrogen production due to
age-linked decline in the number of ovarian follicles. age-linked decline in the number of ovarian follicles.
Which branch of the ANS causes male
emission (following erection)?
Which branch of the ANS causes male

emission (following erection)?
Sympathetic
[...]
via the Hypogastric Nerve

Which branchial arch gives rise to mylohyoid muscle?
Which branchial arch gives rise to mylohyoid muscle?
1st
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer does the spinal

cord form?
From which embryological tissue layer does the spinal

cord form?
Neuroectoderm
[...]
Which which weeks of gestation do teratogens only affect Which which weeks of gestation do teratogens only affect
growth and function?
growth and function?
>8
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of X-rays?
Which is the teratogenic effect of X-rays?
Microcephaly; Intellectual Disability
[...]
Which cells of the testes secrete Mullerian Inhibiting

Factor (MIF)?
Which cells of the testes secrete Mullerian Inhibiting

Factor (MIF)?
Sertoli cells
[...]
In which week of gestation does the vitelline duct

obliterate?
In which week of gestation does the vitelline duct

obliterate?
7th
[...]
[...] is a protein secreted by Sertoli cells that functions to
suppress the development of the paramesonephric
(Mullerian) duct.
Mullerian Inhibitory Factor (MIF) is a protein secreted by

Sertoli cells that functions to suppress the development of
the paramesonephric (Mullerian) duct.
Lack of MIF results in the development of both male
and female internal genitalia and male external
genitalia.
Menometrorrhagia is a disorder of the menstrual cycle that [...] is a disorder of the menstrual cycle that is described
is described as heavy, irregular menstruation at
as heavy, irregular menstruation at irregular intervals.
irregular intervals.
Which branchial cleft develops into the external auditory Which branchial cleft develops into the external auditory
meatus?
meatus?
1st
[...]
Which fetal tissue group contributes to the inner later of

chorionic villi?
Which fetal tissue group contributes to the inner later of

chorionic villi?
Cytotrophoblast
[...]

with darkening of the scrotal skin?

with darkening of the scrotal skin?
IV
[...]

the parafollicular cells of the thyroid?

the parafollicular cells of the thyroid?
Neural Crest
[...]
What does the 1st aortic arch develop into?
What does the 1st aortic arch develop into?
Part of the Maxillary Artery
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of alkylating agents?
Which is the teratogenic effect of alkylating agents?
Digit aplasia; many other abnormalities
[...]
Which branch of the ANS yields male erection?
Which branch of the ANS yields male erection?
Parasympathetic
[...]
via the Pelvic Nerve

What type of epithelium is found at the vagina?
What type of epithelium is found at the vagina?
Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
[...]
Which enzyme in Sertoli cells functions to convert

testosterone and androstenedione into estrogen?
Which enzyme in Sertoli cells functions to convert

testosterone and androstenedione into estrogen?
Aromatase
[...]
Which congenital defect is associated with Sonic

Hedgehog mutations?
Which congenital defect is associated with Sonic

Hedgehog mutations?
Holoprosencephaly
[...]

with adulthood?

with adulthood?
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to the Tensor Veli

Palatini?
Which branchial arch gives rise to the Tensor Veli

Palatini?
1st
[...]
Which subunit of hCG is unique and detected by

pregnancy tests?
Which subunit of hCG is unique and detected by

pregnancy tests?
beta
[...]
Which enzyme in Granulosa cells converts

Androstenedione into estrogens?
Which enzyme in Granulosa cells converts

Androstenedione into estrogens?
Aromatase
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of Lithium?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Lithium?
Ebstein anomaly
[...]
Involves an atrialized right ventricle.

Which cellular signalling pathway is associated with male
erection?
Which cellular signalling pathway is associated with male

erection?
[...]
What does the 4th aortic arch develop into on the left?
What does the 4th aortic arch develop into on the left?
Aortic Arch
[...]
Before which age does the onset of menopause likely

indicate Premature Ovarian Failure?
Before which age does the onset of menopause likely

indicate Premature Ovarian Failure?
40
[...]
How does estrogen change myometrial excitability?
How does estrogen change myometrial excitability?
Increase
[...]
What type of epithelium is found at the ectocervix?
What type of epithelium is found at the ectocervix?
Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer do parotid, sweat

and mammary glands form?
From which embryological tissue layer do parotid, sweat

and mammary glands form?
Surface ectoderm
[...]
Monochorionic diamniotic monozygotic twins is a type of

monozygotic twinning that occurs if the cleavage occurs 48 days after fertilization.
[...] is a type of monozygotic twinning that occurs if the

cleavage occurs 4-8 days after fertilization.

the epithelium of the gut tube?

the epithelium of the gut tube?
Endoderm
[...]
A surge of which gonadotropin is associated with the

triggering of ovulation?
A surge of which gonadotropin is associated with the

triggering of ovulation?
LH
[...]
Which lymph nodes drain the testes?
Which lymph nodes drain the testes?
Para-aortic
[...]
During which week of gestation does the heart begin to

beat?
During which week of gestation does the heart begin to

beat?
[...]
How do LH levels change in menopause?
How do LH levels change in menopause?
Increase
[...]
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the superior

parathyroids?
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the superior

parathyroids?
4th (dorsal wings)
[...]
Which ligament connects the cervix to the side wall of the Which ligament connects the cervix to the side wall of the
pelvis?
pelvis?
Cardinal ligament
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer does the optic

nerve form?
From which embryological tissue layer does the optic

nerve form?
Neuroectoderm
[...]
Monochorionic monoamniotic conjoined twins are a type [...] are a type of monozygotic twinning that occurs if the
of monozygotic twinning that occurs if the cleavage occurs cleavage occurs after 13 days following fertilization.
after 13 days following fertilization.
During which weeks of gestation does organogenesis
occur?
During which weeks of gestation does organogenesis

occur?
3-8
[...]
Which form of estrogen is made by the ovaries?
Which form of estrogen is made by the ovaries?
17-beta-estradiol
[...]
Which fat soluble vitamin is required in infants that are

exclusively fed breastmilk?
Which fat soluble vitamin is required in infants that are

exclusively fed breastmilk?
Vitamin D
[...]

the lymphatics and blood?

the lymphatics and blood?
Mesoderm
[...]
FGF is a gene important in embryogenesis that is

[...] is a gene important in embryogenesis that is produced
produced at the apical ectodermal ridge and functions to at the apical ectodermal ridge and functions to stimulate
stimulate mitosis of underlying mesoderm, thereby
mitosis of underlying mesoderm, thereby causing
causing lengthening of limbs.
lengthening of limbs.
Menorrhagia is a disorder of the menstrual cycle that is [...] is a disorder of the menstrual cycle that is described
described as heavy menstrual bleeding of > 80 mL of as heavy menstrual bleeding of > 80 mL of blood loss
blood loss or > 7 days of menses.
or > 7 days of menses.
Which fetal tissue group contributes to the outer layer of Which fetal tissue group contributes to the outer layer of
the chorionic villi?
the chorionic villi?
Syncytiotrophoblast
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of alcohol?
Which is the teratogenic effect of alcohol?
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome; Intellectual disability
[...]
Which cranial nerve is associated with the 1st branchial

arch?
Which cranial nerve is associated with the 1st branchial

arch?
CN V2 (sensory); CN V3 (motor)
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of cocaine?
Which is the teratogenic effect of cocaine?
Placental abruption; abnormal fetal growth; abortion
[...]
How does progesterone influence endometrial

hyperplasia?
How does progesterone influence endometrial

hyperplasia?
Inhibition
[...]
Aplasia is an error in organ morphogenesis that is defined

as the absence of an organ despite the presence of
primordial tissue.
[...] is an error in organ morphogenesis that is defined as

the absence of an organ despite the presence of
primordial tissue.
In aplasia, primordial tissue is present.

How does estrogen influence HDL levels?
How does estrogen influence HDL levels?
Increase
[...]
Which androgen is associated with libido?
Which androgen is associated with libido?
Testosterone
[...]
Which enzyme in Theca cells converts Cholesterol into

Androstenedione?
Which enzyme in Theca cells converts Cholesterol into

Androstenedione?
Desmolase
[...]

the dermis?

the dermis?
Mesoderm
[...]
What does the 6th aortic arch develop into?
Proximal portion of the pulmonary arteries and ductus

arteriosus
[...]
Which lymph nodes drain the proximal vagina and uterus? Which lymph nodes drain the proximal vagina and uterus?
Obturator; External Iliac; Hypogastric
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer does sensory

organs of the ear form?
From which embryological tissue layer does sensory

organs of the ear form?
Surface ectoderm
[...]
How does an increase in temperature affect testosterone How does an increase in temperature affect testosterone
production by Leydig cells?
production by Leydig cells?
No change
[...]
Temperature does not affect testosterone production.

From which embryological tissue layer does the anal canal From which embryological tissue layer does the anal canal
below the pectinate line form?
below the pectinate line form?
Surface Ectoderm
[...]
5-alpha-reductase deficiency is an enzyme deficiency that [...] is an enzyme deficiency that results in the inability to
results in the inability to convert testosterone into
convert testosterone into DHT, thereby yielding male
DHT, thereby yielding male internal genitalia but
internal genitalia but ambiguous external genitalia until
ambiguous external genitalia until puberty.
puberty.
The increase in testosterone at puberty results in
masculization.
What is the least potent androgen?
What is the least potent androgen?
Androstenedione
[...]
Which enzyme converts testosterone to DHT?
Which enzyme converts testosterone to DHT?
5-alpha-reductase
[...]

with development of the glans of the penis?

with development of the glans of the penis?
IV
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of Maternal Diabetes?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Maternal Diabetes?
Caudal regression syndrome; Congenital heart defects;

Neural tube defects
[...]
Caudal Regression Syndrome involves anal atresia to

sirenomelia.
Umbilical arteries are the blood vessels that return
deoxygenated blood from the fetal internal iliac
arteries to the placenta.
[...] are the blood vessels that return deoxygenated

blood from the fetal internal iliac arteries to the
placenta.
How does an increase in temperature affect sperm

production and inhibin secretion via Sertoli cells?
How does an increase in temperature affect sperm

production and inhibin secretion via Sertoli cells?
Decrease
[...]
Temperature increase is seen in varicocele and

cryptorchidism.
hCG is a hormone secreted by the placenta/corpus that
functions to maintain the corpus luteum in the 1st
trimester by acting like LH.
[...] is a hormone secreted by the placenta/corpus that

functions to maintain the corpus luteum in the 1st
trimester by acting like LH.
Otherwise there is a lack of luteal cell stimulation and

abortion results.
In the 2nd and 3rd trimesters, the placenta synthesizes
its own estriol and progesterone, resulting in corpus
luteum degeneration.
Which sex hormone functions to stimulate endometrial
production?
Which sex hormone functions to stimulate endometrial

production?
Estrogen
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of excess Vitamin A?
Which is the teratogenic effect of excess Vitamin A?
Spontaneous abortion; Cleft palate; Cardiac abnormalities
[...]
Extremely high risk for all 3

How does a decrease in progesterone level influence
fertility?
How does a decrease in progesterone level influence

fertility?
Decrease
[...]
Androgen-binding protein is a protein secreted by Sertoli [...] is a protein secreted by Sertoli cells that functions to
cells that functions to maintain local levels of testosterone.
maintain local levels of testosterone.
There is no 5th arch
[...]

the vagina, testes and ovaries?

the vagina, testes and ovaries?
Mesoderm
[...]
The urachus is a fetal structure that develops from the The [...] is a fetal structure that develops from the allantois
allantois that acts as a duct between the fetal bladder that acts as a duct between the fetal bladder and yolk
and yolk sac.
sac.
Which is the teratogenic effect of Thalidomide?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Thalidomide?
Phocomelia; Micromelia
[...]
i.e. limb defects

How does progesterone influence uterine smooth muscle
contraction?
How does progesterone influence uterine smooth muscle

contraction?
Inhibition
[...]

with increase in penis size and length?

with increase in penis size and length?
III
[...]
Sonic hedgehog is a gene important in embryogenesis that [...] is a gene important in embryogenesis that is involved
is involved in patterning along the anterior-posterior in patterning along the anterior-posterior axis and in
axis and in CNS development.
CNS development.
Which side of the body is more commonly affected by
varicocele?
Which side of the body is more commonly affected by

varicocele?
Left testis
[...]
Which type of twins is associated with 2 separate

amniotic sacs and 2 separate placentas?
Which type of twins is associated with 2 separate

amniotic sacs and 2 separate placentas?
Dizygotic twins
[...]
Which hormone is used to detect pregnancy as it appears Which hormone is used to detect pregnancy as it appears
early in the urine?
early in the urine?
hCG
[...]
hCG is detectable in the blood 1 week after

conception and after 2 weeks in the urine.
Homeobox (Hox) genes are genes important for
embryogenesis that is involved in segmental
organization of the embryo in the craniocaudal
direction.
[...] are genes important for embryogenesis that is involved

in segmental organization of the embryo in the
craniocaudal direction.
Cleft Palate is a congenital anomaly that involves the failure [...] is a congenital anomaly that involves the failure of
of fusion of the two lateral palatine processes or failure fusion of the two lateral palatine processes or failure of
of fusion of the lateral palatine processes with the
fusion of the lateral palatine processes with the nasal
nasal septum or medial palatine process.
septum or medial palatine process.

muscle, bone, CT and serous lining of body cavities?

muscle, bone, CT and serous lining of body cavities?
Mesoderm
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer does retina form?
From which embryological tissue layer does retina form?
Neuroectoderm
[...]
Spermatozoa are mature sperm that are able to fertilize

an egg.
[...] are mature sperm that are able to fertilize an egg.
Spermatozoon zoom to eggs.

Which branchial arch gives rise to the greater horn of the
hyoid bone?
Which branchial arch gives rise to the greater horn of the

hyoid bone?
3rd
[...]
What is the weakest form of Estrogen?
What is the weakest form of Estrogen?
Estriol
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to the muscles of facial

expression?
Which branchial arch gives rise to the muscles of facial

expression?
2nd
[...]
Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the corpus luteum

and placenta that functions to maintain pregnancy.
[...] is a hormone secreted by the corpus luteum and

placenta that functions to maintain pregnancy.
Progesterone is pro-gestation.
Which lymph nodes drain the distal vagina and vulva?
Which lymph nodes drain the distal vagina and vulva?
Superficial inguinal nodes
[...]
During which week of gestation does the primitive streak

appear?
During which week of gestation does the primitive streak

appear?
[...]
Primitive streak, notochord, mesoderm and its

organization and neural plate all begin to form in
week 3.
DiGeorge syndrome is a 22q11 deletion syndrome that
involves aberrant development of the 3rd and 4th
branchial pouches.
[...] is a 22q11 deletion syndrome that involves aberrant

development of the 3rd and 4th branchial pouches.
Therefore there is thymic and parathyroid aplasia.

What is the female remnant of the processus vaginalis?
What is the female remnant of the processus vaginalis?
None; it is obliterated
[...]
Which lymph nodes drain the ovaries?
Which lymph nodes drain the ovaries?
Para-aortic
[...]
Which branchial cleft develops into temporary cervical
sinuses?
[...]
Which branchial cleft develops into temporary cervical

sinuses?
2-4
They are obliterated by proliferation of the 2nd arch's
mesenchyme.
Persistence of the cervical sinuses results in a
branchial cleft cyst within the lateral neck.
with raised areolae?

with raised areolae?
IV
[...]
Which cells of the testes secrete androgens that stimulate

the development of the mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts?
Which cells of the testes secrete androgens that stimulate

the development of the mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts?
Leydig Cells
[...]
Which androgen is associated with deepening of the

voice?
Which androgen is associated with deepening of the

voice?
Testosterone
[...]
What type of epithelium is found at the outer surface of the What type of epithelium is found at the outer surface of the
ovary?
ovary?
Simple cuboidal epithelium (germinal epithelium covering
surface of the ovary)
[...]
On which day following fertilization does

implantation occur?
On which day following fertilization does

implantation occur?
7-10
[...]
hCG secretion begins around this time.

What is the male equivalent to the Greater Vestibular
Glands (Bartholin Glands)?
What is the male equivalent to the Greater Vestibular

Glands (Bartholin Glands)?
Bulbourethral (Cowper) glands
[...]
What is the venous drainage of the right ovary and testis? What is the venous drainage of the right ovary and testis?
Right gonadal vein --> IVC
[...]
Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the corpus luteum

and placenta that triggers the production of thick cervical
mucus which prevents sperm from entering the uterus.
[...] is a hormone secreted by the corpus luteum and

placenta that triggers the production of thick cervical
mucus which prevents sperm from entering the uterus.

with prepubescence?

with prepubescence?
[...]
During which week of gestation is the bilaminar disc (of During which week of gestation is the bilaminar disc (of
epiblast and hypoblast) formed?
epiblast and hypoblast) formed?
Week 2
[...]
2 weeks = 2 layers
Which hormone secreted by Sertoli cells functions to
inhibit FSH?
Which hormone secreted by Sertoli cells functions to

inhibit FSH?
Inhibin
[...]
hCG is a hormone secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast [...] is a hormone secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast that
that stimulated the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone
stimulated the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone
during the first trimester.
during the first trimester.
It is structurally similar to LH.
What type of epithelium is found at the fallopian tubes?
What type of epithelium is found at the fallopian tubes?
Ciliated simple columnar epithelium with peg cells
[...]
Peg cells are secretory cells of the fallopian tube

epithelium.
Which branchial arch gives rise to the levator veli
palatini?
Which branchial arch gives rise to the levator veli

palatini?
4th
[...]
Hypoplasia is a type of error in organ morphogenesis that

is defined as incomplete organ development despite
primordial tissue being present.
[...] is a type of error in organ morphogenesis that is

defined as incomplete organ development despite
primordial tissue being present.
From which embryological tissue layer does the PNS

form?
From which embryological tissue layer does the PNS

form?
Neural Crest
[...]
Malformation is an error in organ morphogenesis that is [...] is an error in organ morphogenesis that is defined as
defined as intrinsic disruption of organ formation during
intrinsic disruption of organ formation during the
the embryonic period (weeks 3-8).
embryonic period (weeks 3-8).
Which cells of the follicle/ovary secrete estrogen?
Which cells of the follicle/ovary secrete estrogen?
Granulosa cells
[...]
EstroGen = Granulosa cells

with darkening and curling of the pubic hair?

with darkening and curling of the pubic hair?
III
[...]
Which facial abnormalities are associated with Fetal

Alcohol Syndrome?
Which facial abnormalities are associated with Fetal

Alcohol Syndrome?
Smooth philtrum; Thin Upper Lip; Small Palpebral

Fissure; Hypertelorism
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer does the lens of the From which embryological tissue layer does the lens of the
eye form?
eye form?
Surface ectoderm
[...]
During which weeks of gestation do teratogens have an

"all-or-none" effect?
During which weeks of gestation do teratogens have an

"all-or-none" effect?
Before week 3
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer does olfactory

epithelium form?
From which embryological tissue layer does olfactory

epithelium form?
Surface ectoderm
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of Carbampazepine?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Carbampazepine?
Neural tube defect; Craniofacial defects; Fingernail

hypoplasia; IUGR
[...]
Which sex hormone functions to maintain the

endometrium and support implantation?
Which sex hormone functions to maintain the

endometrium and support implantation?
Progesterone
[...]
Progesterone is pro-gestation.
Umbilical Vein is the blood vesse that supplies
oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus.
[...] is the blood vesse that supplies oxygenated blood

from the placenta to the fetus.
It drains into the IVC via the liver or via the ductus
venosus.
Agenesis is an error in organ morphogenesis that is defined [...] is an error in organ morphogenesis that is defined as
as the absence of an organ due to absent primordial
the absence of an organ due to absent primordial
tissue.
tissue.
What is the most potent form of Estrogen?
What is the most potent form of Estrogen?
Estradiol > estrone > estriol
[...]
Sildenafil and Vardenafil are drugs that inhibits cGMP

breakdown and hence are used as treatment for erectile
dysfunction.
[...] and Vardenafil are drugs that inhibits cGMP

dysfunction.
Sildenafil and Vardenafil are drugs that inhibits cGMP

dysfunction.
Sildenafil and [...] are drugs that inhibits cGMP

dysfunction.
Spermiogenesis is the process through which spermatids

lose their cytoplasmic contents, gain an acrosomal cap and
form mature spermatozoon.
[...] is the process through which spermatids lose their

cytoplasmic contents, gain an acrosomal cap and form
mature spermatozoon.
Which branchial arch gives rise to the muscles of

mastication?
Which branchial arch gives rise to the muscles of

mastication?
1st
[...]
Masseter; medial and lateral pterygoids; temporalis.
How do FSH levels change in menopause?
How do FSH levels change in menopause?
Significant increase
[...]
In fact, this increase is specific for menopause as there

is a loss of negative feedback on FSH due to a
decrease in estrogen.
with pubarche (appearance of pubic hair)?

with pubarche (appearance of pubic hair)?
II
[...]
Which androgen is associated with the differentiation of Which androgen is associated with the differentiation of
the epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles and genitalia the epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles and genitalia
(except the prostate)?
(except the prostate)?
Testosterone
[...]
What is the most potent androgen?
What is the most potent androgen?
DHT > testosterone > androstenedione
[...]
Monozygotic twins are a type of twins that arise from 1

fertilized egg and 1 sperm that splits into 2 zygotes in
early pregnancy.
[...] are a type of twins that arise from 1 fertilized

egg and 1 sperm that splits into 2 zygotes in early
pregnancy.
The degree of separation between the monozygotic

twins depends on when the egg splits into 2 zygotes.
The time of the split determines the number of
chorions and the number of amnions.
Treacher Collins Syndrome is a congenital anomaly of the [...] is a congenital anomaly of the 1st branchial arch that is
1st branchial arch that is due to failure of neural crest
due to failure of neural crest cells to migrate and
cells to migrate and presents with madibular
presents with madibular hypoplasia and facial
hypoplasia and facial abnormalities.
abnormalities.
Which branchial arch gives rise to pharyngeal
constrictors and the cricothyroid muscle?
Which branchial arch gives rise to pharyngeal

constrictors and the cricothyroid muscle?
4th
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer does the CNS

form?
From which embryological tissue layer does the CNS

form?
Neuroectoderm
[...]
Vesicourachal Diverticulum is a congenital anomaly that

results from failure of the urachus to obliterate and
presents as an outpouching of the bladder.
[...] is a congenital anomaly that results from failure of the

urachus to obliterate and presents as an outpouching of
the bladder.
How does breastfeeding influence the risk of maternal

breast and ovarian cancer?
How does breastfeeding influence the risk of maternal

breast and ovarian cancer?
Decrease
[...]
What is the male homolog to the labia minora?
What is the male homolog to the labia minora?
Ventral shaft of the penis
[...]
Patent Urachus is a congenital anomaly that occurs due to [...] is a congenital anomaly that occurs due to a failure of
a failure of the urachus to obliterate and presents with
the urachus to obliterate and presents with urine
urine discharge from the umbilicus.
discharge from the umbilicus.
How does prolactin influence reproductive function?
How does prolactin influence reproductive function?
Inhibition
[...]
In which phase of the cell cycle is meiosis I in the primary In which phase of the cell cycle is meiosis I in the primary
oocyte arrested from fetal life to ovulation in puberty?
oocyte arrested from fetal life to ovulation in puberty?
Prophase I
[...]

the wall of the gut tubes?

the wall of the gut tubes?
Mesoderm
[...]
Which branchial arch is associated with a Congenital

Pharyngocutaneous Fistula?
Which branchial arch is associated with a Congenital

Pharyngocutaneous Fistula?
2nd
[...]
What is the female remnant of the gubernaculum?
What is the female remnant of the gubernaculum?
Ovarian ligament; Round ligament of the uterus
[...]
Which blood vessels are contained in the cardinal

ligament?
Which blood vessels are contained in the cardinal

ligament?
Uterine vessels
[...]
The ureter is at risk of injury during ligation of these

vessels in hysterectomy.
Spermatogonia are sperm that have yet to develop/mature.
[...] are sperm that have yet to develop/mature.
Spermatogonia are going to become mature.

Which cranial nerve is associated with the 6th branchial
arch?

arch?
Recurrent laryngeal branch of CN X
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to the thyroid, cricoid,

arytenoid, corniculate and cuneiform cartilages?
Which branchial arch gives rise to the thyroid, cricoid,

arytenoid, corniculate and cuneiform cartilages?
4-6
[...]

Odontoblasts?

Odontoblasts?
Neural Crest
[...]
Which ligament connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic
wall?
[...]
Which ligament connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic

wall?
Infundibulopelvic ligament
Which branchial pouch gives rise to mastoid air cells?
Which branchial pouch gives rise to mastoid air cells?
1st
[...]
What is the most common site of fertilization?
What is the most common site of fertilization?
Ampulla of the fallopian tube
[...]
Typically within 1 day of ovulation.

How does Estrogen influence prolactin secretion?
How does Estrogen influence prolactin secretion?
Increase
[...]

arch?

arch?
Superior laryngeal branch of CN X
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to the Tensor

Tympani muscle?
Which branchial arch gives rise to the Tensor

Tympani muscle?
1st
[...]
Epispadias is a congenital penile anomaly that is described [...] is a congenital penile anomaly that is described as a
as a superiorly displaced opening of the penile
superiorly displaced opening of the penile urethra on
urethra on the dorsal surface of the penis due to faulty the dorsal surface of the penis due to faulty positioning
positioning of the genital tubercle.
of the genital tubercle.
Associated with exstrophy of the bladder.

Which embryological structure gives rise to the Ovarian
Ligament?
Which embryological structure gives rise to the Ovarian

Ligament?
Gubernaculum
[...]
What type of epithelium is found at the endocervix?
What type of epithelium is found at the endocervix?
Simple columnar epithelium
[...]
How long is the follicular (proliferative) phase of the

menstrual cycle?
How long is the follicular (proliferative) phase of the

menstrual cycle?
Variable
[...]
Which embryological structure develops into the male

internal genitalia?
[...]
Which embryological structure develops into the male

internal genitalia?
Mesonephric (Wolffian) Duct
Develops into SEED. Does not give rise to the
prostate.
- Seminal vesicles
- Epididymis
- Ejaculatory duct
- Ductus deferens
Which form of estrogen is made by the placenta?
Which form of estrogen is made by the placenta?
Estriol
[...]
What is the MOA of Finasteride?
What is the MOA of Finasteride?
Inhibition of 5-alpha-reductase
[...]
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the middle ear cavity? Which branchial pouch gives rise to the middle ear cavity?
1st
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to anterior belly of the

digastric?
Which branchial arch gives rise to anterior belly of the

digastric?
1st
[...]
Which cranial nerve is associated with the 3rd branchial

arch?
Which cranial nerve is associated with the 3rd branchial

arch?
CN IX
[...]
Which form of estrogen is made by adipose tissue?
Which form of estrogen is made by adipose tissue?
Estrone via aromatization
[...]
Which ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes and

ovaries to the side wall of the pelvis?
Which ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes and

ovaries to the side wall of the pelvis?
Broad ligament
[...]
Composed of the mesosalpinx, mesometrium and

mesovarium.
Which blood vessels are contained in the Infundibulopelvic Which blood vessels are contained in the Infundibulopelvic
ligament?
ligament?
Ovarian vessels
Vessels must be ligated during oopherectomy to avoid
bleeding.
Ureter courses retriperitoneally, close to the vessels.
There is significant risk of injury when ligating the
vessels.
[...]
What is the only postnatal derivative of the notochord?
What is the only postnatal derivative of the notochord?
Nucleus Pulposus of the intervertebral disc
[...]
What is the average age of onset of menopause?
What is the average age of onset of menopause?
51
[...]
Earlier in smokers.
On which day following fertilization is the
blastocyst formed?
On which day following fertilization is the

blastocyst formed?
[...]
Which embryological structure develops into the female

internal genitalia?
Which embryological structure develops into the female

internal genitalia?
Paramesonephric (Mullerian) Duct
[...]
Develops into the fallopian tubes, uterus, upper

portion of the vagina.
Defects can present as primary amenorrhea despite
fully developed secondary characteristics (i.e.
functional ovaries).
Decidua Basalis is the maternal component of the
placenta that is derived from the endometrium.
[...] is the maternal component of the placenta that is

derived from the endometrium.
Hence it is maternal blood that fills the lacunae.

Which branchial arch gives rise to Stapedius muscle?
Which branchial arch gives rise to Stapedius muscle?
2nd
[...]
Which cells of the testes function to support and nourish

developing spermatozoa?
Which cells of the testes function to support and nourish

developing spermatozoa?
Sertoli cells
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of Valproic Acid?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Valproic Acid?
Neural tube defects due to inhibition of maternal folate

absorption
[...]
Craniopharyngioma is a benign tumour of Rathke's Pouch

that presents with cholesterol crystals and
calcifications.
[...] is a benign tumour of Rathke's Pouch that presents

with cholesterol crystals and calcifications.
Which cells of the testes function to regulate

spermatogenesis?
Which cells of the testes function to regulate

spermatogenesis?
Sertoli cells
[...]

the aorticopulmonary septum?

the aorticopulmonary septum?
Neural Crest
[...]
Which subunit of hCG is structurally identical to LH, FSH Which subunit of hCG is structurally identical to LH, FSH
and TSH?
and TSH?
alpha
[...]
Androstenedione is an androgen made primarily at the

adrenals.
[...] is an androgen made primarily at the adrenals.
During which week of gestation does the fetal genitalia

gain male/female characteristics?
During which week of gestation does the fetal genitalia

gain male/female characteristics?
10
[...]
Wnt-7 is an important gene in embryogenesis that is

[...] is an important gene in embryogenesis that is
produced at the apical ectodermal ridge; and is needed for produced at the apical ectodermal ridge; and is needed for
dorsal-ventral axis organization.
dorsal-ventral axis organization.
The apical ectodermal ridge is a ridge of thickened
ectoderm at the distal end of developing limbs.
Which branchial arch gives rise to the belly of the digastric Which branchial arch gives rise to the belly of the digastric
muscle?
muscle?
2nd
[...]
How does Progesterone influence body temperature?
How does Progesterone influence body temperature?
Increase
[...]
What is the venous drainage of the left ovary and testis?
What is the venous drainage of the left ovary and testis?
Left gonadal vein --> Left renal vein --> IVC
[...]
"The left gonadal vein takes the longest way."

The left spermatic vein enters the left renal vein at a
90 degree angle, hence flow is less continuous on the
left than on the right.
with flattening of the areolae?

with flattening of the areolae?
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of nicotine or CO (via

smoking)?
Which is the teratogenic effect of nicotine or CO (via

smoking)?
Low birth weight; premature labour; IUGR; ADHD
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of Tetracyclines?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Tetracyclines?
Discoloured teeth
[...]
During which week of gestation does the neural tube form During which week of gestation does the neural tube form
and close?
and close?
4
[...]
pouches?
pouches?
Endoderm
[...]

with thickening of the penis?

with thickening of the penis?
IV
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of Warfarin?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Warfarin?
Bone deformities; fetal hemorrhage; abortion;

opthalmologic abnormalities
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to Stylopharyngeus

muscle?
Which branchial arch gives rise to Stylopharyngeus

muscle?
3rd
[...]
During which week of gestation is the trilaminar disc

formed?
During which week of gestation is the trilaminar disc

formed?
[...]
3 weeks = 3 layers
Oligomenorrhea is a disorder of the menstrual cycle that is [...] is a disorder of the menstrual cycle that is defined as a
defined as a cycle > 35 days.
cycle > 35 days.
Which androgen is associated with prostate growth?
Which androgen is associated with prostate growth?
DHT
[...]
How does Progesterone influence gonadotropin activity

(LH; FSH)?
How does Progesterone influence gonadotropin activity

(LH; FSH)?
Inhibition
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of folate antagonists?
Which is the teratogenic effect of folate antagonists?
Neural tube defects
[...]
Dizygotic twins are a type of twins that arise from 2

eggs that are separately fertilized by 2 different
sperm.
[...] are a type of twins that arise from 2 eggs that are
separately fertilized by 2 different sperm.
Hence they will have 2 zygotes, 2 amniotic sacs and 2

separate placentas.
Polymenorrhea is a disorder of the menstrual cycle that is [...] is a disorder of the menstrual cycle that is defined as a
defined as a cycle < 21 days.
cycle < 21 days.
Deformation is a type of error in organ morphogenesis that
is defined as extrinsic disruption of organ
morphogenesis.
Occurs after the embryonic period.
[...] is a type of error in organ morphogenesis that is

defined as extrinsic disruption of organ
morphogenesis.
Urachal Cyst is a congenital anomaly that results from

[...] is a congenital anomaly that results from partial
partial failure of the urachus to obliterate and presents as failure of the urachus to obliterate and presents as a
a fluid-filled davity lined with uroepithelium between fluid-filled davity lined with uroepithelium between the
the umbilicus and bladder.
umbilicus and bladder.
Can lead to infection and adenocarcinoma.
What type of epithelium is found at the transformation
zone of the cervix?
What type of epithelium is found at the transformation

zone of the cervix?
Squamocolumnar junction
[...]
Which gene on the Y-chromosome produces testisdetermining factor?
Which gene on the Y-chromosome produces testisdetermining factor?
SRY
[...]
Meckel Diverticulum is a congenital anomaly that occurs

[...] is a congenital anomaly that occurs due to
due to partial failure of the vitelline duct to obliterate and
partial failure of the vitelline duct to obliterate and
presents with a patent vitelline duct portion attached to the presents with a patent vitelline duct portion attached to the
ileum.
ileum.
May have ectopic gastric mucosa or pancreatic tissue
and hence can yield melena, periumbilical pain or
ulcers.
During which weeks of gestation is the embryo extremely During which weeks of gestation is the embryo extremely
susceptible to teratogens?
susceptible to teratogens?
3-8
[...]
Which androgen is associated with balding?
Which androgen is associated with balding?
DHT
[...]
What does the 3rd aortic arch develop into?
What does the 3rd aortic arch develop into?
Common Carotid Artery; proximal portion of the Internal

Carotid Artery
[...]

the bones of the skull?

the bones of the skull?
Neural Crest
[...]
Which branchial arch gives rise to Meckel's Cartilage

(mandible, malleus, incus, spheno-mandibular ligament)?
Which branchial arch gives rise to Meckel's Cartilage

(mandible, malleus, incus, spheno-mandibular ligament)?
1st
[...]
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the eustachian tube?
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the eustachian tube?
1st
[...]
Metrorrhagia is a disorder of the menstrual cycle

described as intermenstrual bleeding with frequent but
irregular menstruation.
[...] is a disorder of the menstrual cycle described as

intermenstrual bleeding with frequent but
irregular menstruation.
Finasteride is an anti-hormone agent that inhibits 5-alphareductase.
[...] is an anti-hormone agent that inhibits 5-alphareductase.
Gubernaculum is an embryological structure described as [...] is an embryological structure described as a band of

a band of fibrous tissue that anchors the testes to the floor fibrous tissue that anchors the testes to the floor of the
of the scrotum.
scrotum.
What is the male equivalent to the vestibular bulbs?
What is the male equivalent to the vestibular bulbs?
Corpus cavernosum and spongiosum
[...]
Hypospadias is a congenital penile anomaly that is

[...] is a congenital penile anomaly that is described as an
described as an inferiorly displaced opening of the
inferiorly displaced opening of the urethra on the
urethra on the ventral side of the penis due to failure of ventral side of the penis due to failure of the urethral
the urethral folds to close.
folds to close.
More common that epispadias.

Must be fixed to prevent UTIs.
In which phase of the cell cycle is meiosis II of the
In which phase of the cell cycle is meiosis II of the
secondary oocyte arrested from ovulation to fertilization? secondary oocyte arrested from ovulation to fertilization?
Metaphase II
[...]
Mittelschmerz is a disorder of ovulation that refers to the

transient mid-cycle ovulatory pain that is classically
associated with peritoneal irritation.
[...] is a disorder of ovulation that refers to the transient

mid-cycle ovulatory pain that is classically associated
with peritoneal irritation.
Can mimic appendicitis.

What does the 2nd aortic arch develop into?
What does the 2nd aortic arch develop into?
Stapedial Artery; Hyoid Artery
[...]
Which gene important for embryogenesis is involved in

anterior-posterior axis patterning?
Which gene important for embryogenesis is involved in

anterior-posterior axis patterning?
Sonic Hedgehog
[...]
How long does spermatogenesis take?
How long does spermatogenesis take?
2 months
[...]
What does the 4th aortic arch develop into on the right? What does the 4th aortic arch develop into on the right?
Proximal part of the Right subclavian artery
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of Methimazole?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Methimazole?
Aplasia cutis congenita
[...]

the Chromaffin Cells of the adrenal medulla?

the Chromaffin Cells of the adrenal medulla?
Neural Crest
[...]
Which cranial nerve is associated with the 2nd branchial

arch?
Which cranial nerve is associated with the 2nd branchial

arch?
CN VII (facial nerve)
[...]
Which is the teratogenic effect of Aminoglycosides?
Which is the teratogenic effect of Aminoglycosides?
CN VIII toxicity
[...]
What is the male remnant of the processus vaginalis?
What is the male remnant of the processus vaginalis?
Tunica vaginalis
[...]
From which embryological tissue layer do melanocytes

form?
From which embryological tissue layer do melanocytes

form?
Neural Crest
[...]
How do GnRH levels change in menopause?
How do GnRH levels change in menopause?
Increase
[...]

luminal epithelial derivatives?

luminal epithelial derivatives?
Endoderm
[...]
e.g. lungs, liver, gallblader, pancreas, thymus,

parathyroid, thyroid follicles, eustachian tube
On which day after fertilization is the zygote formed?
On which day after fertilization is the zygote formed?
[...]
What type of epithelium is found at the uterus?
What type of epithelium is found at the uterus?
Simple columnar epithelium with long tubular glands
[...]
Which cells of the testes secrete testosterone?
Which cells of the testes secrete testosterone?
Leydig cells
[...]
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the inferior

parathyroids?
Which branchial pouch gives rise to the inferior

parathyroids?
3rd (dorsal wing)
[...]

most of the urethra?

most of the urethra?
Endoderm
[...]
How does estrogen influence LDL levels?
How does estrogen influence LDL levels?
Decrease
[...]
Which androgen is associated with closing of the

epiphyseal plates?
Which androgen is associated with closing of the

epiphyseal plates?
Testosterone (via estrogen after conversion)
[...]
How many days after fertilization does implantation occur? How many days after fertilization does implantation occur?
6 days
[...]
During which week of gestation do the upper and lower During which week of gestation do the upper and lower
limb buds begin to form?
limb buds begin to form?
4
[...]
4 weeks = 4 limbs
Which lymph nodes drain the scrotum?
Which lymph nodes drain the scrotum?
Superficial inguinal nodes
[...]
Which enzyme functions to convert Angiotensin I to

Angiotensin II?
Which enzyme functions to convert Angiotensin I to

Angiotensin II?
ACE
[...]
Which type of renal tubular acidosis is associated

with aldosterone resistance?

with aldosterone resistance?
Type 4/Hyperkalemic RTA
[...]
How does kidney function change in with a Horseshoe

Kidney?
How does kidney function change in with a Horseshoe

Kidney?
Normal
[...]
Which genital blood vessel does the ureter run under in

females?
Which genital blood vessel does the ureter run under in

females?
Uterine Artery
[...]
"Water under the bridge."

Gynecological procedures that involve manipulation
or ligation of the uterine artery may damage the
ureter.
What is the genetic inheritance of Hartnup Disease?
What is the genetic inheritance of Hartnup Disease?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
Which section of the nephron actively reabsorbs Na

and Cl, thereby making urine hypotonic?
Which section of the nephron actively reabsorbs Na

and Cl, thereby making urine hypotonic?
Early DCT
[...]
How does Alkalosis change K levels?
How does Alkalosis change K levels?
Hypokalemia
[...]
Alkalosis shifts K into cells.

Which glomerular arteriole is constricted by Angiotensin Which glomerular arteriole is constricted by Angiotensin
II action?
II action?
Efferent arteriole
[...]
This is in efforts to preserve GFR (i.e. kidney

function) in states of low blood volume (which
activates the RAAS).
Remember, decreased blood volume = decreased
RPF.
How does GFR change following a decrease in plasma
protein concentration?
How does GFR change following a decrease in plasma

protein concentration?
Increase
[...]
i.e. c decreases
Which glomerular filtration barrier acts as a negative
charge barrier?
Which glomerular filtration barrier acts as a negative

charge barrier?
Fused basement membrane with heparan sulfate
[...]
Which embryological structure gives rise to everything

from the renal collecting duct to the ureter?

from the renal collecting duct to the ureter?
Ureteric Bud via the Mesonephros
[...]
What is the equation for renal Filtration Fraction (FF)?
What is the equation for renal Filtration Fraction (FF)?
FF = GFR / RPF
[...]
i.e. the fraction of plasma filtered from the amount

of plasma that enters the kidney
How does Insulin deficiency influence K levels?
How does Insulin deficiency influence K levels?
Hyperkalemia
[...]
It brings K out of cells.

Type 4/Hyperkalemic RTA is a type of renal tubular
acidosis that involves hyperkalemia that impairs
ammoniagenesis in the PCT, thereby resulting in
decreased buffering capacity and decreased H
excretion into the urine.
[...] is a type of renal tubular acidosis that involves

hyperkalemia that impairs ammoniagenesis in the
PCT, thereby resulting in decreased buffering
capacity and decreased H excretion into the urine.
Which type of renal tubular acidosis is associated with

Amphotericin B toxicity?

Amphotericin B toxicity?
Type 1/Distal
[...]
How does RPF change following glomerular afferent

arteriole constriction?
How does RPF change following glomerular afferent

Decrease
[...]
This about this, brah. You're constricting the

incoming blood vessel, hence there will be less plasma
flowing through the glomerulus.
How does Angiotensin II influence the activity of
proximal tubule Na/H transporters?
How does Angiotensin II influence the activity of

proximal tubule Na/H transporters?
Increase
[...]
Which type of renal tubular acidosis is associated with a

defect in the proximal tubule's ability to reabsorb
HCO3?

defect in the proximal tubule's ability to reabsorb
HCO3?
Type 2/Proximal
[...]
Hence there is increased excretion of HCO3 and

metabolic acidosis.
Which type of renal tubular acidosis is associated with K- Which type of renal tubular acidosis is associated with Ksparing diuretics?
sparing diuretics?
[...]
What percentage of total body weight is

extracellular fluid?

extracellular fluid?
20%
[...]
What percentage of total body weight is water?
What percentage of total body weight is water?
60%
[...]
What is the equation for the renal excretion rate of the

substance?
What is the equation for the renal excretion rate of the

substance?
ER = Vu * Ux
[...]
What is the equation for renal clearance?
What is the equation for renal clearance?
Cx = (Ux * V)/Px
[...]
Where is Renin made?
Where is Renin made?
Kidneys
[...]
Which type of renal tubular acidosis is also referred to as Which type of renal tubular acidosis is also referred to as
proximal renal tubular acidosis?
proximal renal tubular acidosis?
Type 2
[...]
How does renal Filtration Fraction change following

constriction of the efferent arteriole?
How does renal Filtration Fraction change following

constriction of the efferent arteriole?
Increase
[...]
Which section of the nephron is defective in Liddle

Syndrome?
Which section of the nephron is defective in Liddle

Syndrome?
Collecting Duct
[...]
What is the renal clearance of Glucose?
What is the renal clearance of Glucose?
CGlc = 0
[...]
This is because Glucose is maximally reabsorbed and

not excreted in normal conditions
What protein is used to measure extracellular volume?
What protein is used to measure extracellular volume?
Inulin
[...]
Which serum electrolyte deficiency is associated with

bone loss and osteomalacia?

bone loss and osteomalacia?
Hypophosphatemia
[...]
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) is a hormone released by [...] is a hormone released by the cardiac atria in response
the cardiac atria in response to increased atrial
to increased atrial pressure that functions to increase
pressure that functions to increase GFR and Na
GFR and Na filtration without causing compensatory
filtration without causing compensatory Na reabsorption.
Na reabsorption.
The net effect is Na loss and loss of blood volume.
ANP acts in an opposite fashion of the RAAS and can
be seen as a "brake" on the RAAS.
Which cells of the JGA secrete Renin in response to
decreased renal BP or beta-1 adrenergic stimulation?
Which cells of the JGA secrete Renin in response to

decreased renal BP or beta-1 adrenergic stimulation?
JG cells
[...]
Which glomerular blood vessel is dilated by

Prostaglandins?
Which glomerular blood vessel is dilated by

Prostaglandins?
Afferent arterioles
[...]
Hence, NSAIDs will inhibit afferent arteriole

dilation.
What is the normal value for anion gap?
What is the normal value for anion gap?
8-12 mEq/L
[...]
How does renal filtration fraction change following

constriction of the ureter?
How does renal filtration fraction change following

constriction of the ureter?
Decrease
[...]

analgesic nephropathy?

analgesic nephropathy?
Type 1/Distal
[...]
Renal Tubular Acidosis isa disorder of the renal tubules

that leads to non-anion gap hyperchloremic metabolic
acidosis.
[...] isa disorder of the renal tubules that leads to nonanion gap hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.

hypokalemia?

hypokalemia?
Type 1/Distal; Type 2/Proximal
[...]
What PCO2 value is seen in metabolic alkalosis with

respiratory compensation?
What PCO2 value is seen in metabolic alkalosis with

PCO2 > 40 mmHg
[...]
What is the equation for renal blood flow (RBF)?
What is the equation for renal blood flow (RBF)?
RBF = RPF/(1-Hct)
[...]
Hct = hematocrit = the % of red blood cells in the

blood.
By which week of gestation is the ureteric bud fully
canalized?
By which week of gestation is the ureteric bud fully

canalized?
10th week
[...]
How does Angiotensin II influence ADH release from the How does Angiotensin II influence ADH release from the
posterior pituitary?
posterior pituitary?
Increase
[...]
Remember, ADH increases H2O reabsorption y

inserting aquaporin channels at the luminal
membrane of principal cells.
Where along the nephron is most of the filtered
PO4 reabsorbed?

PO4 reabsorbed?
PCT
[...]
Which section of the nephron passively reabsorbs H2O Which section of the nephron passively reabsorbs H2O
due to the renal medulla's hypertonicity?
due to the renal medulla's hypertonicity?
Thin descending limb of the Loop of Henle
[...]
Which section of the nephron functions to reabsorb Na in Which section of the nephron functions to reabsorb Na in
exchange for secreting K and H?
exchange for secreting K and H?
Collecting duct
[...]
Goverened by Aldosterone.
Type 2/Proximal RTA is a type of renal tubular acidosis
[...] is a type of renal tubular acidosis that involves
that involves defective HCO3 reabsorption at the
defective HCO3 reabsorption at the proximal tubule,
proximal tubule, thereby resulting in increased
thereby resulting in increased HCO3 excretion in the
HCO3 excretion in the urine.
urine.
The urine is eventually acidified by the alphaintercalated cells of the collecting duct as they secrete
H.
Which enzyme in the proximal tubule of the kidney
converts 25-OH Vitamin D into 1,25-(OH)2 Vitamin D
(i.e. active vitamin D)?
Which enzyme in the proximal tubule of the kidney

converts 25-OH Vitamin D into 1,25-(OH)2 Vitamin D
(i.e. active vitamin D)?
1-alpha-hydroxylase
[...]
The renal clearance of which endogenous compound is

commonly used to clinically estimate GFR?
The renal clearance of which endogenous compound is

commonly used to clinically estimate GFR?
Creatinine
[...]
Remember, CCr slightly overestimates GFR as

Creatinine is moderately secreted by the renal tubules.
Macula Densa is a component of the JGA that is
described as a NaCl sensor and part of the DCT.
[...] is a component of the JGA that is described as a

NaCl sensor and part of the DCT.
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide is a hormone released by the [...] is a hormone released by the cardiac atria in response
cardiac atria in response to an increase in blood volume to an increase in blood volume that functions to relax
that functions to relax vascular smooth muscle via
vascular smooth muscle via cGMP.
cGMP.
Thereby increasing GFR and decreasing renin levels.
Essentially, ANP acts as a "brake" on the RAAS
system. It acts in opposing fashion if blood volume
increases.
Which limb of the loop of Henle actively reabsorbs Na, Which limb of the loop of Henle actively reabsorbs Na,
K and Cl?
K and Cl?
Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
[...]
If Cx = GFR, what is the net movement of substance

x across the renal tubular epithelium?
If Cx = GFR, what is the net movement of substance

No net secretion or reabsorption
[...]
i.e. you are clearing the same amount of plasma of

substance x than you are filtering, hence substance x
must not be moving across the tubular epithelium at
all (or just not in a net value).
Which cells of the collecting duct respond to Aldosterone Which cells of the collecting duct respond to Aldosterone
by upregulating luminal K channels?
by upregulating luminal K channels?
Principal Cell
[...]
This drives the excretion of K.

Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney is a congenital renal
disorder that presents with a nonfunctional kidney
consisting of cysts and connective tissue due to
abnormal interaction between the ureteric bud and
metanephric mesenchyme.
[...] is a congenital renal disorder that presents with a

nonfunctional kidney consisting of cysts and
connective tissue due to abnormal interaction
between the ureteric bud and metanephric
mesenchyme.

defect in the ability of alpha-intercalated cells to
secrete H+?

defect in the ability of alpha-intercalated cells to
secrete H+?
Type 1/Distal RTA
[...]
Hence, new HCO3 canot be generated.

Acute Renal Failure is a possible renal complication of
NSAID use as they function to block the renalprotective synthesis of prostaglandins.
[...] is a possible renal complication of NSAID use as they

function to block the renal-protective synthesis of
prostaglandins.
Remember, prostaglandins functions to dilate the

afferent arteriole and decrease GFR.
How does Acidosis change K levels?
How does Acidosis change K levels?
Hyperkalemia
[...]
Acidosis brings K out of cells.

What is the cause of increased anion gap metabolic
acidosis?
What is the cause of increased anion gap metabolic

acidosis?
[...]
Which section of the nephron is defective in Fanconi

Syndrome?
Which section of the nephron is defective in Fanconi

Syndrome?
PCT
[...]
How does cell lysis change K levels?
How does cell lysis change K levels?
Hyperkalemia
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of the renal tubular defect

Gitelman Syndrome?

Gitelman Syndrome?
Autosomal Recessive
[...]
What is the equation for the renal reabsorption rate of a

substance?
[...]
What is the equation for the renal reabsorption rate of a

substance?
RRx = Filtered load - excretion rate = FL - ER = (GFR *
Px) - (V * Ux)
from the renal glomerulus to the distal convoluted tubule? from the renal glomerulus to the distal convoluted tubule?
Metanephros
[...]
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid that acts on the

collecting duct to insert Na channels on the luminal
membrane.
[...] is a mineralocorticoid that acts on the collecting duct

to insert Na channels on the luminal membrane.
Where along the nephron are amino acids reabsorbed?
Where along the nephron are amino acids reabsorbed?
PCT (with Na)
[...]
At which segment of the nephron does ADH act to insert At which segment of the nephron does ADH act to insert
aquaporin H2O channels into the luminal membrane?
aquaporin H2O channels into the luminal membrane?
Collecting duct
[...]
Which limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to H2O? Which limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to H2O?
Thick ascending limb
[...]
Which receptor does Angiotensin II bind to on vascular

smooth muscle to trigger vasocontriction?
Which receptor does Angiotensin II bind to on vascular

smooth muscle to trigger vasocontriction?
AT I receptors
[...]
This increases BP.

How do K levels change in Type 1, Distal renal tubular
acidosis?
How do K levels change in Type 1, Distal renal tubular

acidosis?
Hypokalemia
[...]
Which sex chromosomal disorder is associated with

Horseshoe Kidney?
Which sex chromosomal disorder is associated with

Horseshoe Kidney?
Turner Syndrome
[...]
Which enzyme converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I? Which enzyme converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I?
Renin
[...]
What is the H2O permeability of the thick ascending limb

of the loop of Henle?
[...]
What is the H2O permeability of the thick ascending limb

of the loop of Henle?
Zero
How does hyperosmolarity change K levels?
How does hyperosmolarity change K levels?
Hyperkalemia
[...]
It brings K out of the cell.

Which genital structure does the ureter run under in
males?
Which genital structure does the ureter run under in

males?
Vas Deferens
[...]
"Water under the bridge."

Where along the nephron is most of the filtered H2O
reabsorbed?
Where along the nephron is most of the filtered H2O

reabsorbed?
PCT
[...]
At which section of the nephron does PTH function to

inhibit Na/PO4 cotransport to induce PO4 excretion?
At which section of the nephron does PTH function to

inhibit Na/PO4 cotransport to induce PO4 excretion?
PCT
[...]
What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?
What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?

[...]
ADH is a hormone that acts on the V2 receptor at the

collecting duct and induces the insertion of aquaporin
H2O channels on the luminal membrane.
[...] is a hormone that acts on the V2 receptor at the

collecting duct and induces the insertion of aquaporin
H2O channels on the luminal membrane.
Which radiolabeled plasma protein is often used to

measure total plasma volume?
Which radiolabeled plasma protein is often used to

measure total plasma volume?
Albumin
[...]
How does GFR change following an increase in plasma

protein concentration (i.e. increased c)?
How does GFR change following an increase in plasma

protein concentration (i.e. increased c)?
Decreased
[...]
What is the genetic inheritance of the renal tubular disorder What is the genetic inheritance of the renal tubular disorder
Liddle Syndrome?
Liddle Syndrome?
Autosomal Dominant
[...]
From which embryological structure does the ureteric bud
develop?
[...]
From which embryological structure does the ureteric bud

develop?
Mesonephric duct
Which serum electrolyte excess is associated with
widened QRS intervals on ECG?

widened QRS intervals on ECG?
Hyperkalemia
[...]
How does Angiotensin II influence Aldosterone release

from the adrenal cortex?
How does Angiotensin II influence Aldosterone release

from the adrenal cortex?
Increase
[...]
Thereby resulting in Na retention, K excretion, H

excretion.
This increases BP by triggering H2O reabsorption.
How does RPF change following constriction of the
efferent arteriole?
How does RPF change following constriction of the

efferent arteriole?
Decrease
[...]
You're constricting the outgoing blood vessel, hence

there will be less plasma flowing through the
glomerulus.
How does a decrease in Na delivery to the macula densa How does a decrease in Na delivery to the macula densa
influence the RAAS?
influence the RAAS?
Activation
[...]
Which cells of the collecting duct respond to Aldosterone Which cells of the collecting duct respond to Aldosterone
by increasing the expression of H+ ATPases on the luminal by increasing the expression of H+ ATPases on the luminal
membrane?
membrane?
Intercalated Cells
[...]
This drives excretion of H.

What percentage of filtered Na is reabsorbed in the
collecting duct?
What percentage of filtered Na is reabsorbed in the

collecting duct?
3-5%
[...]
Where along the nephron is most of the filtered Na

reabsorbed?
Where along the nephron is most of the filtered Na

reabsorbed?
PCT (especially with glucose and amino acids)
[...]
The renal clearance of which exogenous compound is

used to estimate Effective Renal Plasma Flow (ERPF)?
[...]
The renal clearance of which exogenous compound is

used to estimate Effective Renal Plasma Flow (ERPF)?
para-aminohippuric acid (PAH)
This is because PAH is freely filtered and maximally
secreted in the PCT. Hence all PAH that enters the
kidney is excreted.
CPAH = ERPF = UPAH * V / PPAH
intracellular fluid?

intracellular fluid?
40%
[...]
What is the normal GFR?
What is the normal GFR?
~ 100 mL/min
[...]

Multiple Myeloma?

Multiple Myeloma?
Type 2/Proximal RTA
[...]
This is due to the amyloid light chains seen.

What is the etiology of Potter Sequence?
What is the etiology of Potter Sequence?
Oligohydramnios due to an inability or impairment in

urination
[...]
e.g. ARPKD, Posterior Urethral Valves, Bilateral

Renal Agenesis.
lead or aminoglycosides?

lead or aminoglycosides?
Type 2/Proximal RTA
[...]
Hypertension is a cardiovascular disorder seen in Liddle

Syndrome due to increased Na reabsorption.
[...] is a cardiovascular disorder seen in Liddle Syndrome

due to increased Na reabsorption.
Which type of renal tubular acidosis is also referred to as Which type of renal tubular acidosis is also referred to as
Distal RTA?
Distal RTA?
Type 1
[...]
What is the equation for the renal Filtered Load of a

substance?
What is the equation for the renal Filtered Load of a

substance?
FL = GFR * Px
[...]
FL is in mg/min
GFR is in mL/min
Px is in mg/mL
How does renal filtration fraction change following a

decrease in plasma protein concentration?
How does renal filtration fraction change following a

decrease in plasma protein concentration?
Increase
[...]
What is the renal clearance of Inulin?
What is the renal clearance of Inulin?
CI = CCr = GFR ~ 100 mL/min in normal conditions
[...]
This is because Inulin is neither secreted or

reabsorbed, it is freely filtered.
Same thing with creatinine but small amounts also are
secreted. Thus, creatinine slightly overestimates GFR
Which serum electrolyte deficiency is associated with U- Which serum electrolyte deficiency is associated with Uwaves on an ECG?
waves on an ECG?
Hypokalemia
[...]
Which limb of the loop of Henle functions to make urine

hypertonic?

hypertonic?
Thin descending limb of the loop of Henle
[...]
Achieved through passive reabsorption of H2O by

virtue of the medulla's hypertonicity and the limb's
impermeability to Na.
Which section of the nephron functions to convert 25-OH Which section of the nephron functions to convert 25-OH
Vitamin D into 1,25-(OH)2 Vitamin D (i.e. the active
Vitamin D into 1,25-(OH)2 Vitamin D (i.e. the active
form)?
form)?
PCT
[...]
Which cells of the collecting duct respond to ADH by

increasing the number of aquaporin channels to increase
H2O reabsorption?
Which cells of the collecting duct respond to ADH by

increasing the number of aquaporin channels to increase
H2O reabsorption?
Principal cells
[...]
Where is Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) made?
Where is Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) made?
Lungs
[...]
Where along the length of the nephron is most of the

filtered K reabsorbed?
Where along the length of the nephron is most of the

filtered K reabsorbed?
PCT
[...]
Which limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to Na?
Which limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to Na?
Thin descending limb
[...]
Which adrenergic receptors function to activate the

RAAS?
Which adrenergic receptors function to activate the

RAAS?
Beta-1
[...]
From which embryological structure do the renal tubules

(up to the distal convoluted tubule) develop?
From which embryological structure do the renal tubules

(up to the distal convoluted tubule) develop?
Metanephros
[...]
Hence, everything from the glomerulus to the distal

convoluted tubule comes from the metanephros.
Hence, everything from the collecting duct to the
ureter comes from the mesonephros (via the ureteric
bud).
How does GFR change following constriction of the
ureter?

ureter?
Decrease
[...]
This causes an increase in hydrostatic pressure at the

bowman's space.
What percentage of filtered Na is reabsorbed at the thick What percentage of filtered Na is reabsorbed at the thick
ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
10-20%
[...]
Fanconi Syndrome is a disorder of the PCT that is

associated with increased excretion of nearly all
amino acids, glucose, HCO3 and PO4.
[...] is a disorder of the PCT that is associated with

increased excretion of nearly all amino acids,
glucose, HCO3 and PO4.
May result in metabolic acidosis due to this (proximal

renal tubular acidosis).
Causes include hereditary defects, ischemia and
nephrotoxins/drugs.
Which glomerular blood vessel is dilated by ACE
Inhibitors?
Which glomerular blood vessel is dilated by ACE

Inhibitors?
Efferent arteriole as it inhibits AT2-mediated constriction
[...]
What PCO2 value is seen in metabolic acidosis with

What PCO2 value is seen in metabolic acidosis with

PCO2 < 40 mmHg
[...]

flattened T-waves on ECG?

flattened T-waves on ECG?
Hypokalemia
[...]
Arrhythmia and muscle weakness is also seen.
Which section of the nephron functions to generate and Which section of the nephron functions to generate and
secrete NH3 which acts as a buffer for secreted H+?
secrete NH3 which acts as a buffer for secreted H+?
PCT
[...]
If Cx < GFR, what is the net movement of substance

x across the tubular epithelium?
If Cx < GFR, what is the net movement of substance

x across the tubular epithelium?
Net tubular reabsorption
[...]
i.e. if you are filtering more of x into the kidney

tubules than you are clearing x from the plasma, then
x must be being reabsorbed by the kidneys
How does renal filtration fraction change following afferent How does renal filtration fraction change following afferent
No change
[...]
This about this, brah. You're constricting

the incoming blood vessel, hence there will be less
plasma flowing through the glomerulus. RPF and
GFR both decrease.
increased risk of hypophosphatemic rickets?

increased risk of hypophosphatemic rickets?
Type 2/Proximal
[...]
From which embryological structure does the renal

glomerulus develop?
From which embryological structure does the renal

glomerulus develop?
Metanephros
[...]

less concentrated?

less concentrated?
Thick ascending limb
[...]
Which kidney is typically taken during living donor

transplantation?
Which kidney is typically taken during living donor

transplantation?
Left Kidney as it has a longer renal vein
[...]
What is the pH in Type 4/Hyperkalemic renal tubular

acidosis?
What is the pH in Type 4/Hyperkalemic renal tubular

acidosis?
< 5.5
[...]
How do K levels change in Bartter Syndrome?
How do K levels change in Bartter Syndrome?
Decrease
[...]
Due to defective Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in the thick

ascending limb.
What is the equation to calculate anion gap?
What is the equation to calculate anion gap?
Anion Gap = Na - (Cl + HCO3)
[...]
Normal value is 8-12 mEq/L

At which section of the nephron does PTH increase
Ca/Na exchange, thereby driving Ca reabsorption?
At which section of the nephron does PTH increase

Ca/Na exchange, thereby driving Ca reabsorption?
Early DCT
[...]
Liddle Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder of the

collecting duct that is characterized by increased Na
reabsorption due to increased activity of epithelial
Na channels.
[...] is an autosomal dominant disorder of the collecting

duct that is characterized by increased Na
reabsorption due to increased activity of epithelial
Na channels.
What is the equation for the renal secretion rate of a

substance?
What is the equation for the renal secretion rate of a

substance?
SRx = excretion rate - filtered load = ER - FL = (V * Ux)

- (GFR * Px)
[...]
How does Angiotensin II limit reflex bradycardia?
How does Angiotensin II limit reflex bradycardia?
By affecting baroreceptor function
[...]
The normal response to any vasopressive action would

include reflex bradycardia (e.g. with alpha-1
adrenergic agonists). This response is mitigated by
AT2's action at baroreceptors.
Srsly though... look at this diagram. Is there anything
AT2 doesn't do?
How does the risk for hydronephrosis and kidney
stones change with Horseshoe Kidney?
How does the risk for hydronephrosis and kidney

stones change with Horseshoe Kidney?
Increase
[...]
What is the pH of the urine in Type 1, Distal renal tubular What is the pH of the urine in Type 1, Distal renal tubular
acidosis?
acidosis?
> 5.5
[...]

tetany, seizures and prolonged QT interval?

tetany, seizures and prolonged QT interval?
Hypocalcemia
[...]
How do adrenergics influence the RAAS?
How do adrenergics influence the RAAS?
Activation via beta-1 adrenergic receptors
[...]
How does a decrease in blood pressure influence the

RAAS?
[...]
How does a decrease in blood pressure influence the

RAAS?
Activation of JG cells
Which blood vessel carries blood out of the glomerulus?
Which blood vessel carries blood out of the glomerulus?
Efferent arteriole
[...]
At which plasma concentration of glucose does

glucosuria begin?
At which plasma concentration of glucose does

glucosuria begin?
~ 200 mg/dL
[...]
Hartnup Disease is a disorder of amino acid reabsorption

that is characterized by deficiency of neutral amino acid
transporters in the PCT and enterocytes.
[...] is a disorder of amino acid reabsorption that is

characterized by deficiency of neutral amino acid
transporters in the PCT and enterocytes.
Hence causing neutral aminoaciduria and decreased

absorption from the gut.
Results in pellagra-like symptoms due to subsequent
Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency.
With which embryological structure does the ureteric bud With which embryological structure does the ureteric bud
interact to trigger formation of the glomerulus and renal
interact to trigger formation of the glomerulus and renal
tubules?
tubules?
Metanephric mesenchyme
[...]
Which section of the nephron is defective in Barttner

Syndrome?
Which section of the nephron is defective in Barttner

Syndrome?
Thick ascending loop of Henle
[...]

nausea, malaise, stupor and coma?

nausea, malaise, stupor and coma?
Hyponatremia
[...]
Which glomerular filtration barrier is lost in

nephrotic syndrome?
Which glomerular filtration barrier is lost in

nephrotic syndrome?
The negative charge barrier (fused basement membrane

with heparan sulfate)
[...]
The renal clearance of which exogenous compound can The renal clearance of which exogenous compound can
be clinically used to calculate GFR as it is freely
be clinically used to calculate GFR as it is freely
filtered and neither secreted or reabsorbed?
filtered and neither secreted or reabsorbed?
Inulin
i.e. the amount of plasma cleared of the compound is
the same as GFR
[...]
Type 1 RTA is a type of renal tubular acidosis that is

associated with a defect in the ability of alphaintercalated cells to secrete H+, hence no new
HCO3 is generated.
[...] is a type of renal tubular acidosis that is associated

with a defect in the ability of alpha-intercalated cells
to secrete H+, hence no new HCO3 is generated.
Thereby resulting in metabolic acidosis.

What percentage of filtered Na is reabsorbed at the PCT? What percentage of filtered Na is reabsorbed at the PCT?
65-80%
[...]

tetany and Torsades de Pointes?

tetany and Torsades de Pointes?
Hypomagnesemia
[...]
During which week of gestation does the Metanephros

first appear?
During which week of gestation does the Metanephros

first appear?
Week 5
[...]
At which section of the nephron does Angiotensin II

At which section of the nephron does Angiotensin II
stimulate Na/H exchange, thereby leading to increased stimulate Na/H exchange, thereby leading to increased
Na, H2O and HCO3 reabsorption?
Na, H2O and HCO3 reabsorption?
PCT
[...]
What type of osmotic absorption is seen at the PCT of the What type of osmotic absorption is seen at the PCT of the
nephron?
nephron?
Isosmotic absorption
[...]
How do beta-adrenergic agonists change K levels?
How do beta-adrenergic agonists change K levels?
Hypokalemia
[...]
They trigger K movement into cells.

Where along the nephron is glucose reabsorbed?
Where along the nephron is glucose reabsorbed?
PCT (with Na)
[...]

efferent arteriole?
[...]

efferent arteriole?
Initial increase; decrease with substantial increase in
resistance
This one is a bit tricky. As you constrict the efferent
arteriole, you increase the hydrostatic pressure
(PC)upstream at the glomerular capillaries, hence
GFR will increase. However, as RPF continues to
decrease with increasing efferent arteriole
constriction, GFR returns to normal or decreases.
Hence, with minimal increases in efferent arteriole
resistance, PC dominates and GFR increases.
Hence, with large increases in efferent arteriole
resistance, RPF dominates and GFR decreases.
What is the Winters formula (used to predict the
respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis)?
What is the Winters formula (used to predict the

respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis)?
[...]
If the measured PCO2 differs significantly from the

predicted PCO2, then a mixed acid-base disorder is
likely present.
with hyperkalemia?

with hyperkalemia?
[...]
Angiotensin II is a hormone synthesized in response to [...] is a hormone synthesized in response to decreased BP

decreased BP that functions to constrict the efferent
that functions to constrict the efferent arteriole and
arteriole and increase Na and H2O reabsorption to increase Na and H2O reabsorption to maintain GFR
maintain GFR and FF.
and FF.
Just think of why Angiotensin II is secreted, brah.
Angiotensin II acts to preserve renal function in low
blood volume states.
It also acts to maintain circulating blood volume by
increasing both proximal and distal Na
reabsorption.
Which section of the nephron is defective in Gitelman
Syndrome?
Which section of the nephron is defective in Gitelman

Syndrome?
DCT
[...]
JG cells are a component of the JGA that are described as

modified smooth muscle of the afferent arteriole.
[...] are a component of the JGA that are described as

modified smooth muscle of the afferent arteriole.
At which section of the nephron is Mg2+ and Ca2+

reabsorbed paracellularly?
At which section of the nephron is Mg2+ and Ca2+

reabsorbed paracellularly?
Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
[...]
This occurs via a positive lumen potential generated

by K+ backleak.
How do K levels change in Liddle Syndrome?
How do K levels change in Liddle Syndrome?
Hypokalemia (due to the increased Na reabsorption)
[...]
What arterial pH is diagnostic of Alkalosis?
What arterial pH is diagnostic of Alkalosis?
> 7.4
[...]
What is the urinary pH in Type 2/Proximal renal tubular

acidosis?
What is the urinary pH in Type 2/Proximal renal tubular

acidosis?
< 5.5
[...]
How does Insulin change K levels?
How does Insulin change K levels?
Hypokalemia
[...]
Insulin activates the Na/K ATPase which moves K into

cells.
What is the normal oncotic pressure of the bowman space What is the normal oncotic pressure of the bowman space
at the glomerulus?
at the glomerulus?
bs = 0
[...]
This is because, normally, there are not plasma

proteins filtered into the glomerulus.
Which serum electrolyte excess is associated with renal Which serum electrolyte excess is associated with renal
stones, bone pain, abdominal pain and psychiatric
stones, bone pain, abdominal pain and psychiatric
overtones?
overtones?
Hypercalcemia
[...]
Psychiatric overtones = altered mental status, anxiety.

Metabolic Alkalosis is an acid-base imbalance seen in
Liddle Syndrome due to the hypokalemia that arises from
increased Na reabsorption.
[...] is an acid-base imbalance seen in Liddle Syndrome

due to the hypokalemia that arises from increased Na
reabsorption.

irritability, stupor and coma?

irritability, stupor and coma?
Hypernatremia
[...]
The ureteric bud is an embryological structure derived

The [...] is an embryological structure derived from the
from the caudal end of the mesonephric duct that gives caudal end of the mesonephric duct that gives rise to
rise to the ureter, renal pelvises, calyces and
the ureter, renal pelvises, calyces and collecting
collecting ducts.
ducts.
How does Angiotensin II influence thirst?
How does Angiotensin II influence thirst?
Increase
[...]
Remember, Angiotensin II's actions all revolve around

correcting/maintaining blood volume/pressure.
At which area of the nephron does Aldosterone govern

the reabsorption of Na in exchange for K and H?
At which area of the nephron does Aldosterone govern

the reabsorption of Na in exchange for K and H?
Collecting Duct
[...]
What is the renal clearance of para-aminohippuric acid

(PAH)?
What is the renal clearance of para-aminohippuric acid

(PAH)?
CPAH = RPF = 600 mL/min in normal conditions
[...]
This is because PAH is maximally secreted from the

blood.
What is normal arterial pH?
What is normal arterial pH?
7.4
[...]

metastatic calcifications and hypocalcemia?

metastatic calcifications and hypocalcemia?
Hyperphosphatemia
[...]
What percentage of filtered Na is reabsorbed at the early What percentage of filtered Na is reabsorbed at the early
DCT?
DCT?
5-10%
[...]

with hypoaldosteronism?

with hypoaldosteronism?
[...]
How does the renal tubular concentration of Inulin change How does the renal tubular concentration of Inulin change
along the length of the proximal tubules?
along the length of the proximal tubules?
Increase
[...]
Remember, inulin is neither reabsorbed or secreted.

Hence, its concentration increases as a result of
water being reabsorbed.
decreased deep tendon reflexes?

decreased deep tendon reflexes?
Hypermagnesemia
[...]
How do urinary Ca levels change in Bartter Syndrome?
How do urinary Ca levels change in Bartter Syndrome?
Hypercalciuria
[...]
Compare this to Gitelman Syndrome which has

hypocalciuria or normocalciuria.
Which glomerular blood vessel is preferentially
constricted by Angiotensin II?
[...]
Which glomerular blood vessel is preferentially

constricted by Angiotensin II?
Efferent arteriole
Hence ACE Inhibitors inhibit efferent arteriole
constriction and cause efferent arteriole dilation.
Metabolic acidosis is an acid-base imbalance seen in
Fanconi Syndrome that presents due to the increased
excretion of HCO3.
[...] is an acid-base imbalance seen in Fanconi Syndrome

that presents due to the increased excretion of HCO3.
What is the cause of normal anion gap metabolic

acidosis?
What is the cause of normal anion gap metabolic

acidosis?
[...]
Bartter Syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder that [...] is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects the
affects the Na/K/2Cl cotransporter of the thick
Na/K/2Cl cotransporter of the thick ascending limb
ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
of the loop of Henle.
Hence results in hypokalemia, metabolic
alkalosis and hypocalcemia.
How does the level of K change in Type 2/Proximal renal How does the level of K change in Type 2/Proximal renal
tubular acidosis?
tubular acidosis?
Hypokalemia
[...]
How does the risk for ureteropelvic junction obstruction

change with Horseshoe Kidney?
How does the risk for ureteropelvic junction obstruction

change with Horseshoe Kidney?
Increase
[...]
At which plasma concentration of glucose are all renal

glucose transporters fully saturated?
At which plasma concentration of glucose are all renal

glucose transporters fully saturated?
~ 375 mg/dL
[...]
Which blood vessel carries blood into the glomerulus?
Which blood vessel carries blood into the glomerulus?
Afferent arteriole
[...]

Bartter Syndrome?

Bartter Syndrome?
Autosomal recessive
[...]
How does the risk for calcium phosphate kidney stones

change in Type 1, Distal renal tubular acidosis?
How does the risk for calcium phosphate kidney stones

change in Type 1, Distal renal tubular acidosis?
Increase
[...]
Due to an increase in urinary pH and increased bone

turnover.
Which glomerular filtration barrier acts as a size barrier?
Which glomerular filtration barrier acts as a size barrier?
Fenestrated capillary endothelium
[...]
What is the normal renal filtration fraction?
What is the normal renal filtration fraction?
FF = GFR / RPF = 20%
[...]
i.e. 20% of the plasma that enters the kidney is filtered

What is the renal clearance of Creatinine?
What is the renal clearance of Creatinine?
CI = CCr = GFR ~ 100 mL/min in normal conditions
[...]
This is because along with Inulin, Creatinine is

neither secreted or reabsorbed. It is purely filtered.
What is the most common type of Multicystic Dysplastic
Kidney?
What is the most common type of Multicystic Dysplastic

Kidney?
Unilateral
[...]
This type of generally asymptomatic as the

contralateral kidney undergoes hypertrophy as
compensation.
HCO3 reabsorbed?

HCO3 reabsorbed?
PCT
[...]
Which embryological structure functions as the kidneys up Which embryological structure functions as the kidneys up
to week 4 of gestation?
to week 4 of gestation?
Pronephros
[...]
At which point it degenerates.

Metabolic Alkalosis is an acid-base imbalance seen in
Bartter Syndrome due to the hypokalemia that is seen.
[...] is an acid-base imbalance seen in Bartter Syndrome

due to the hypokalemia that is seen.
Hypokalemia results due to defective function of the

Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb.
glomerular afferent arteriole?

glomerular afferent arteriole?
Decrease
[...]
This about this, brah. You're constricting

the incoming blood vessel, hence there will be less
plasma flowing through the glomerulus and less of it
will be filtered.
Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors?

Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors?
Type 2/Proximal RTA
[...]
How do beta-adrenergic antagonists change K levels?
[...]
How do beta-adrenergic antagonists change K levels?

Hyperkalemia
It brings K out of cells.
If Cx > GFR, what is the net movement of substance
If Cx > GFR, what is the net movement of substance

Net tubular secretion
[...]
i.e. if you are clearing more plasma of substance x

than you are filtering, then substance x must be being
secreted into the urine.
Which embryological structure functions as an interim
kidney for the majority of the 1st trimester?
Which embryological structure functions as an interim

kidney for the majority of the 1st trimester?
Mesonephros
[...]
After which it contributes to the male genital system.

From which embryological structure do the renal collecting From which embryological structure do the renal collecting
ducts develop?
ducts develop?
Ureteric Bud (via the Mesonephric Duct)
[...]
Gitelman Syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder of

[...] is an autosomal recessive disorder of NaCl
NaCl reabsorption at the DCT that presents with
reabsorption at the DCT that presents with hypokalemia,
hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and hypocalciuria.
metabolic alkalosis and hypocalciuria.
It is less severe than Bartter Syndrome.
What PCO2 value is seen in respiratory alkalosis?
What PCO2 value is seen in respiratory alkalosis?
PCO2 < 40 mmHg
[...]
What PCO2 value is seen in respiratory acidosis?
What PCO2 value is seen in respiratory acidosis?
PCO2 > 40 mmHg
[...]
Horseshoe kidney is a congenital renal abnormality that

involved fusion of the inferior poles of both kidneys.
[...] is a congenital renal abnormality that involved fusion

of the inferior poles of both kidneys.
Typically found low in abdomen as the horseshoe

kidney is trapped under the inferior mesenteric artery
as it ascends.
How does serum hypo-osmolarity change K levels?
How does serum hypo-osmolarity change K levels?
Hypokalemia
[...]
Drives K into cells.
Erythropoietin is a hormone released by interstitial cells [...] is a hormone released by interstitial cells in the
in the peritubular capillary bed of the kidneys in peritubular capillary bed of the kidneys in response to
response to hypoxia that functions to stimulate RBC
hypoxia that functions to stimulate RBC proliferation.
proliferation.
What is the Na permeability in the thin descending limb of What is the Na permeability in the thin descending limb of
loop of Henle?
loop of Henle?
Zero
[...]
How does renal filtration fraction change following an

increase in plasma protein concentration?
How does renal filtration fraction change following an

increase in plasma protein concentration?
Decrease
[...]
What is the treatment for Liddle Syndrome?
What is the treatment for Liddle Syndrome?
Amiloride
[...]
K-sparing diuretic.
What arterial pH is diagnostic of acidosis?
What arterial pH is diagnostic of acidosis?
< 7.4
[...]
What is the most common cause of death in Potter

Sequence?
What is the most common cause of death in Potter

Sequence?
Pulmonary hypoplasia due to compression of the chest
[...]

permanent kidney(s)?

permanent kidney(s)?
Metanephros
[...]
Potter Sequence/Syndrome is a congenital sequence that

[...] is a congenital sequence that is caused by
is caused by oligohydramnios and subsequent
oligohydramnios and subsequent compression of fetal
compression of fetal limbs, facial features and the
limbs, facial features and the chest.
chest.
Yields low-set ears and retrognathia.
What is the most common site of renal
obstruction/hydronephrosis in the fetus?
What is the most common site of renal

obstruction/hydronephrosis in the fetus?
Ureteropelvic junction
[...]
Because it is the last to canalize.

Which cells of the collecting duct respond to aldosterone
by inserting Na and Na/K pumps into the apical and
basolateral membranes respectively?
[...]
Which cells of the collecting duct respond to aldosterone

by inserting Na and Na/K pumps into the apical and
basolateral membranes respectively?
Principal cells
This drives the reabsorption of Na.
Fanconi Syndrome (e.g. Wilson Disease)?

Fanconi Syndrome (e.g. Wilson Disease)?
Type 2/Proximal
[...]
Which cells of the JGA secrete Renin in response to a

decrease in NaCl delivery to the DCT?
Which cells of the JGA secrete Renin in response to a

decrease in NaCl delivery to the DCT?
JG cells
[...]
Where along the nephron is most of the filtered Cl

reabsorbed?
Where along the nephron is most of the filtered Cl

reabsorbed?
PCT
[...]

peaked T-waves on ECG?

peaked T-waves on ECG?
Hyperkalemia
[...]
Arrhythmia and muscle weakness are also seen.

How does Digitalis change K levels?
How does Digitalis change K levels?
Hyperkalemia
[...]
It shifts K out of cells.

How do Aldosterone levels change in Liddle Syndrome?
How do Aldosterone levels change in Liddle Syndrome?
Decreased
[...]
K-sparing diuretics are a type of diuretic that causes

acidosis due to antagonism of aldosterone which
prevents K and H secretion.
[...] are a type of diuretic that causes acidosis due to

antagonism of aldosterone which prevents K and H
secretion.
The resultant hyperkalemia drives H/K exchange,

resulting in H movement out of the cell.
How do loop diuretics change urinary Ca levels?
How do loop diuretics change urinary Ca levels?
Increase
[...]
Loops diuretics decrease paracellular Ca

reabsorption thereby causing hypocalcemia.
Which loop diuretic is used for diuresis in patients
allergic to sulfa drugs?
Which loop diuretic is used for diuresis in patients

allergic to sulfa drugs?
Ethacrynic Acid
[...]
Which 2 types of diuretics cause acidosis?
Which 2 types of diuretics cause acidosis?
Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors; K-sparing diuretics
[...]
Acetazolamide is a diuretic that inhibits carbonic

anhydrase and is used to treat altitude sickness and
pseudotumour cerebri.
[...] is a diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase and is

used to treat altitude sickness and pseudotumour
cerebri.
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change glucose levels?
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change glucose levels?
Hyperglycemia
[...]
Where along the nephron do Thiazide diuretics act?
Where along the nephron do Thiazide diuretics act?
Distal tubule
[...]
Pulmonary edema is a possible pulmonary complication of

Mannitol administration.
[...] is a possible pulmonary complication of Mannitol

administration.
Dehydration as well, due to the increase in urinary

flow.
Which 2 types of diuretics cause alkalosis?
Which 2 types of diuretics cause alkalosis?
Loop; Thiazide
[...]
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change lipid levels?
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change lipid levels?
Hyperlipidemia
[...]
Loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics are 2 types of

diuretics that cause alkalosis due to K excretion
causing K movement into cells in exchange for H.
[...] and thiazide diuretics are 2 types of diuretics that

cause alkalosis due to K excretion causing K
movement into cells in exchange for H.
Also, in low K states, H is exchanged for Na in the

collecting duct instead of K.
diuretics that cause alkalosis due to K excretion
causing K movement into cells in exchange for H.
Loop diuretics and [...] are 2 types of diuretics that

cause alkalosis due to K excretion causing K
movement into cells in exchange for H.
Also, in low K states, H is exchanged for Na in the

collecting duct instead of K.
Which thiazide diuretic is used to treat Osteoporosis?
Which thiazide diuretic is used to treat Osteoporosis?
Hydrochlorothiazide
[...]
How do thiazide diuretics influence Ca levels?
How do thiazide diuretics influence Ca levels?
Increase
[...]
They decrease Ca excretion.

How do thiazide diuretics change urinary Ca levels?
How do thiazide diuretics change urinary Ca levels?
Decrease
[...]
Thiazides enhance paracellular Ca reabsorption in

the distal tubule.
Where along the nephron does Acetazolamide act?
Where along the nephron does Acetazolamide act?
Proximal tubules
[...]
What is the MOA of Enalapril?
What is the MOA of Enalapril?
ACE inhibition
[...]
What is the only diuretic that does not increase urinary What is the only diuretic that does not increase urinary
NaCl?
NaCl?
Acetazolamide
[...]
Which loop diuretic is never used to treat Gout?
Which loop diuretic is never used to treat Gout?
Ethacrynic Acid
[...]
How do thiazide diuretics change urinary K levels?
How do thiazide diuretics change urinary K levels?
Increase
[...]
Hypokalemia may result.

What diuretic is used to treat hyperaldosteronism?
What diuretic is used to treat hyperaldosteronism?
K-sparing diuretics
[...]
How do Angiotensin II antagonists change bradykinin

levels?
How do Angiotensin II antagonists change bradykinin

levels?
There is no increase
[...]
Hence there is no risk of cough or angioedema.

Angiotensin II antagonists at -sartans.
What type of diuretic is Ethacrynic Acid?
What type of diuretic is Ethacrynic Acid?
Loop diuretic
[...]
What is the MOA of Ethacrynic Acid?
What is the MOA of Ethacrynic Acid?
Inhibition of the Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in the thick

ascending limb of the loop of Henle
[...]
i.e. same as Furosemide (loop diuretic)

In doing so, it abolishes the hypertonicity of the
medulla and inhibits concentration of the urine as it
ascends out of the loop of Henle.
Inhibition of NaCl reabsorption at the early distal tubule
[...]
Triamterene and Amiloride are 2 K-sparing diuretics that

act by blocking Na channels in the collecting duct.
[...] and Amiloride are 2 K-sparing diuretics that act by

blocking Na channels in the collecting duct.
Triamterene and Amiloride are 2 K-sparing diuretics that Triamterene and [...] are 2 K-sparing diuretics that act by
act by blocking Na channels in the collecting duct.
blocking Na channels in the collecting duct.
What type of diuretic is Triamterene?
What type of diuretic is Triamterene?
K-sparing
[...]
How do ACE Inhibitors change K levels?
How do ACE Inhibitors change K levels?
Hyperkalemia
[...]
What type of diuretic is Amiloride?
What type of diuretic is Amiloride?
K-sparing
[...]
Hyperkalemia is a serum electrolyte imbalance that results [...] is a serum electrolyte imbalance that results following
following K-sparing diuretic use which can lead to
K-sparing diuretic use which can lead to arrhythmia.
arrhythmia.
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is contraindicated in
anuria or CHF.
[...] is an osmotic diuretic that is contraindicated in anuria

or CHF.
What is the MOA of Spironolactone and Eplerenone?
What is the MOA of Spironolactone and Eplerenone?
Competitive antagonism at Aldosterone receptors in the

collecting duct
[...]
Ototoxicity is a CNS complication of loop diuretics.
[...] is a CNS complication of loop diuretics.
What is the primary MOA of Furosemide?
What is the primary MOA of Furosemide?
Inhibition of the the Na/K/2Cl cotransporter at the thick

ascending limb of the loop of Henle
[...]

medulla and inhibits concentration of the urine as it
It also stimulates release of PGE (which has
vasodilatory effects on the afferent arteriole).
What is the MOA of Lisinopril?
What is the MOA of Lisinopril?
ACE Inhibition
[...]
Where along the nephron do loop diuretics act?
Where along the nephron do loop diuretics act?
Loop of Henle
[...]
lol
What is the clinical use of Mannitol?
What is the clinical use of Mannitol?
Tx of ICP/IOP; Drug overdose
[...]
Which thiazide diuretic is used to treat Nephrogenic
Diabetes Insipidus?
[...]
Which thiazide diuretic is used to treat Nephrogenic

Diabetes Insipidus?
Hydrochlorothiazide
Which K-sparing diuretic is associated with endocrine
effects such as gynecomastia and
antiandrogen effects?
Which K-sparing diuretic is associated with endocrine

effects such as gynecomastia and
antiandrogen effects?
Spironolactone
[...]
Captopril, Enalapril and Lisinopril are ACE inhibitors that

[...], Enalapril and Lisinopril are ACE inhibitors that
decrease angiotensin II levels and subsequently
decrease GFR by preventing the constriction of efferent decrease GFR by preventing the constriction of efferent
arterioles.
arterioles.
Captopril, [...] and Lisinopril are ACE inhibitors that
arterioles.
arterioles.
Captopril, Enalapril and [...] are ACE inhibitors that
arterioles.
arterioles.
Acetazolamide is a diuretic used to alkalinize the
urine or treat metabolic alkalosis as it inhibits
Carbonic Anhydrase.
[...] is a diuretic used to alkalinize the urine or treat

metabolic alkalosis as it inhibits Carbonic Anhydrase.
What is the clinical use of Furosemide?
What is the clinical use of Furosemide?
Edematous states; Hypercalcemia; HTN
[...]
Edematous states include: CHF, cirrhosis, nephrotic

syndrome, pulmonary edema
Spironolactone and Eplerenone are 2 K-sparing diuretics [...] and Eplerenone are 2 K-sparing diuretics that act as
that act as aldosterone receptor antagonists at the aldosterone receptor antagonists at the collecting duct.
collecting duct.
Spironolactone and Eplerenone are 2 K-sparing diuretics Spironolactone and [...] are 2 K-sparing diuretics that act
that act as aldosterone receptor antagonists at the
as aldosterone receptor antagonists at the collecting
collecting duct.
duct.
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that functions by
increasing renal tubuluar fluid osmolarity, thereby
increasing urine flow.
[...] is an osmotic diuretic that functions by increasing

renal tubuluar fluid osmolarity, thereby increasing
urine flow.
How does Furosemide influence Ca excretion?
How does Furosemide influence Ca excretion?
Increase
[...]
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change Ca levels?
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change Ca levels?
Hypercalcemia
[...]
What type of acid-base imbalance does Acetazolamide

cause?
What type of acid-base imbalance does Acetazolamide

cause?
Hyperchloremic Metabolic Acidosis
[...]
Remember, Acetazolamide causes

NaHCO3 diuresis and lowers HCO3 levels.
What acid-base imbalance is seen following

Hydrochlorothiazide use?
What acid-base imbalance is seen following

Hydrochlorothiazide use?
Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
[...]
Where along the nephron do Potassium-sparing Diuretics Where along the nephron do Potassium-sparing Diuretics
act?
act?
Collecting duct
[...]
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibiting diuretic

that causes acidosis as it causes decreased HCO3
reabsorption.
[...] is a carbonic anhydrase inhibiting diuretic that causes

acidosis as it causes decreased HCO3 reabsorption.
Loop diuretic
[...]
Fetal Renal Malformations are a teratogenic complication

of ACE inhibitors.
[...] are a teratogenic complication of ACE inhibitors.
What is the MOA of Captopril?
What is the MOA of Captopril?
ACE inhibition
[...]
How do ACE Inhibitors change creatinine levels?
How do ACE Inhibitors change creatinine levels?
Increase
[...]
ACE Inhibitors decrease GFR hence increase

creatinine levels.
[...] and thiazide diuretics are 2 types of diuretics that
diuretics that cause alkalosis due to volume
cause alkalosis due to volume contraction as a result of
contraction as a result of increased Angiotensin II levels.
increased Angiotensin II levels.
ATII increases Na/H exchange in the PCT thereby
leading to increased HCO3 reabsorption.
Loop diuretics and [...] are 2 types of diuretics that cause
diuretics that cause alkalosis due to volume
alkalosis due to volume contraction as a result of
contraction as a result of increased Angiotensin II levels.
increased Angiotensin II levels.
ATII increases Na/H exchange in the PCT thereby
leading to increased HCO3 reabsorption.
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change Na levels?
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change Na levels?
Hyponatremia
[...]
How do loop diuretics change K levels?
How do loop diuretics change K levels?
Hypokalemia
[...]
[...] is a sulfonamide loop diuretic that functions by

inhibiting the Na/K/2Cl cotransporter at the thick
ascending limb of loop of Henle.
Furosemide is a sulfonamide loop diuretic that functions by

inhibiting the Na/K/2Cl cotransporter at the thick
ascending limb of loop of Henle.
medulla and prevents concentration of the urine as it
Which loop diuretic is known to cause sulfa-drug allergy? Which loop diuretic is known to cause sulfa-drug allergy?
Furosemide
[...]
What is the MOA of Acetazolamide?
What is the MOA of Acetazolamide?
Inhibition of Carbonic Anhydrase
[...]
Thereby causes self-limited NaHCO3 diuresis and a

decrease in total body HCO3 stores.
How do bradykinin levels change following ACE Inhibitor How do bradykinin levels change following ACE Inhibitor
administration?
administration?
Increase
[...]
Remember, Angiotensin II also breaks down

bradykinin.
This is why patients on ACE Inhibitors will cough a
alot (i.e. ACE Inhibitor Cough).
What is the MOA of Triamterene and Amiloride?
What is the MOA of Triamterene and Amiloride?
Blockade of Na channels in the collecting duct
[...]
Which diuretic is associated with NH3 toxicity?
Which diuretic is associated with NH3 toxicity?
Acetazolamide
[...]
How do loop diuretics change urinary K levels?
How do loop diuretics change urinary K levels?
Increase
[...]
Hypokalemia can result.

What type of diuretic is Eplerenone?
What type of diuretic is Eplerenone?
K-sparing
[...]
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change uric acid levels?
How does Hydrochlorothiazide change uric acid levels?
Hyperuricemia
[...]
How do NSAIDs influence Furosemide action?
How do NSAIDs influence Furosemide action?
Inhibition
[...]
[...]

K-sparing
How do ACE Inhibitors change renin levels?
How do ACE Inhibitors change renin levels?
Increase
[...]
Due to a loss of negative feedback from Angiotensin

II.
How does Gastrin influence gastric acid secretion??
How does Gastrin influence gastric acid secretion??
Increase
[...]
Which type of inguinal hernia involves protrusion of the

bowel through the internal inguinal ring, external
inguinal ring and into the scrotum?
Which type of inguinal hernia involves protrusion of the

bowel through the internal inguinal ring, external
inguinal ring and into the scrotum?
Indirect Inguinal hernia
[...]
To which plasma protein does

unconjugated/indirect bilirubin bind?
To which plasma protein does

unconjugated/indirect bilirubin bind?
Albumin
[...]
Which abdominal muscle gives rise to the cremasteric

muscle and fascia?
Which abdominal muscle gives rise to the cremasteric

muscle and fascia?
Internal oblique
[...]
Which chromosomal trisomy is associated with duodenal Which chromosomal trisomy is associated with duodenal
atresia?
atresia?
Trisomy 21
[...]
Occurs due to a failure of the duodenum to recanalize.

Motilin is a GI hormone secreted by the small intestine that [...] is a GI hormone secreted by the small intestine that
functions to produce migratory motor complexes
functions to produce migratory motor complexes
(MMCs).
(MMCs).
Hence, motilin receptor agonists are used to
stimulate intestinal peristalsis.
Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that also acts as a
Motilin agonist, thereby stimulating intestinal peristalsis.
[...] is a macrolide antibiotic that also acts as a Motilin

agonist, thereby stimulating intestinal peristalsis.
How does Somatostatin influence gastric acid secretion?
How does Somatostatin influence gastric acid secretion?
Decrease
[...]
How does CCK influence pancreatic secretion?
[...]
How does CCK influence pancreatic secretion?

Increase
This is done indirectly.
CCK acts on neural muscarinic pathways to trigger
pancreatic secretion.
Gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP) is a parasympathetic
transmitter that triggers release of Gastrin from G cells.
[...] is a parasympathetic transmitter that triggers release of

Gastrin from G cells.
It is unaffected by Atropine which blocks ACh

action.
How do Gastrin levels change in Zollinger-Ellision
Syndrome?
How do Gastrin levels change in Zollinger-Ellision

Syndrome?
Increase
[...]
What is the site of protrustion in an Indirect Inguinal

Hernia?
What is the site of protrustion in an Indirect Inguinal

Hernia?
Internal Inguinal Ring
[...]
Indirect = Internal
Which pancreatic enzyme functions in starch digestion?
Which pancreatic enzyme functions in starch digestion?
alpha-amylase
[...]
Secreted in its active form.

How does Secretin influence gastric acid secretion?
How does Secretin influence gastric acid secretion?
Decrease
[...]
Which abdominal fascia gives rise to the internal spermatic Which abdominal fascia gives rise to the internal spermatic
fascia?
fascia?
Transversalis fascia
[...]
What structure is contained within the Falciform ligament? What structure is contained within the Falciform ligament?
Ligamentum teres hepatis
[...]
Which develops from the fetal umbilical vein.

What is the most common type of Hiatal Hernia?
What is the most common type of Hiatal Hernia?
Sliding Hiatal hernia
[...]
VIPoma is a non-alpha, non-beta islet cell pancreatic

tumour that secretes VIP, thereby causing copious
watery diarrhea, hypokalemia and achlorhydria.
[...] is a non-alpha, non-beta islet cell pancreatic

tumour that secretes VIP, thereby causing copious
watery diarrhea, hypokalemia and achlorhydria.
WDHA Syndrome:
- Watery Diarrhea
- Hypokalemia
- Achlorhydria
What is the lymphatic drainage of the rectum below the

pectinate line?
What is the lymphatic drainage of the rectum below the

pectinate line?
Superficial Inguinal Nodes
[...]
How does Somatostatin influence small intestine secretion? How does Somatostatin influence small intestine secretion?
Decrease
[...]
In which anatomical direction do arteries that supply

the GI tract branch off the abdominal aorta?
In which anatomical direction do arteries that supply

the GI tract branch off the abdominal aorta?
Anteriorly
[...]
Which artery supplies the rectum above the pectinate

line?
Which artery supplies the rectum above the pectinate

line?
Superior Rectal artery (from the IMA)
[...]
Where in the stomach are G cells found?
Where in the stomach are G cells found?
Antrum
[...]
To which compound is bilirubin conjugated?
To which compound is bilirubin conjugated?
Glucuronate
[...]
How does a decrease in pH influence pepsin activity?
How does a decrease in pH influence pepsin activity?
Increase
[...]
Pepsin is activated by gastric acid via conversion from

pepsinogen.
The gastrosplenic ligament is a GI ligament that connects
the greater curvature of the stomach to the spleen.
The [...] is a GI ligament that connects the greater

curvature of the stomach to the spleen.
Which monosaccharide transporter uptakes fructose at the Which monosaccharide transporter uptakes fructose at the
enterocyte brush border via facilitated diffusion?
enterocyte brush border via facilitated diffusion?
GLUT-5
[...]
Sliding Hiatal Hernia is a type of Hiatal hernia that involves

superior displacement of the gastroesophageal
junction, thereby yielding an "hourglass stomach."
[...] is a type of Hiatal hernia that involves superior

displacement of the gastroesophageal junction,
thereby yielding an "hourglass stomach."
Which parts of the colon are retroperitoneal?
Which parts of the colon are retroperitoneal?
Ascending and descending
[...]
Which monosaccharide transporter uptakes glucose and

galactose at the enterocyte brush border?
Which monosaccharide transporter uptakes glucose and

galactose at the enterocyte brush border?
SGLUT1 (with Na)
[...]
Cyanosis is a feature of congenital trancheoesophageal

anomalies that occurs secondary to
laryngospasm which occurs to avoid reflux-related
aspiration.
[...] is a feature of congenital trancheoesophageal

anomalies that occurs secondary to
laryngospasm which occurs to avoid reflux-related
aspiration.
How does Somatostatin influence insulin and glucagon

release?
How does Somatostatin influence insulin and glucagon

release?
Decrease
[...]
Where in the small intestine are I-cells found?
Where in the small intestine are I-cells found?
Duodenum; Jejunum
[...]
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Gastrin?
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Gastrin?
G cells
[...]
What structure is contained in the Gastrocolic Ligament?
What structure is contained in the Gastrocolic Ligament?
Gastroepiploic arteries
[...]
How does Glucose-dependent Insulinotropic Peptide

(GIP) influence insulin release?

(GIP) influence insulin release?
Increase
[...]
The Ampulla of Vater is the common opening of the

common bile duct and main pancreatic duct into the
duodenum.
The [...] is the common opening of the common bile duct

and main pancreatic duct into the duodenum.
Obstruction here can block both pancreatic and biliary

function.
How does Secretin influence gastric acid secretion??
How does Secretin influence gastric acid secretion??
Decrease
[...]
The pectinate/dentate line is an anatomical landmark at the

rectum that forms where the endoderm (i.e. hidgut)
meets the invaginating ectoderm.
The [...] is an anatomical landmark at the rectum that

forms where the endoderm (i.e. hidgut) meets the
invaginating ectoderm.
Which portion of the esophagus is retroperitoneal?
Which portion of the esophagus is retroperitoneal?
Lower 2/3
[...]
Which GI ligament separates the greater and lesser

abdominal sacs?
Which GI ligament separates the greater and lesser

abdominal sacs?
Gastrohepatic ligament
[...]
It may be cut during surgery to access the lesser sac.

Which layer of the GI wall is affected by erosions?
Which layer of the GI wall is affected by erosions?
Mucosa only
[...]
The middle colic artery anastamoses with the left colic

artery.
The [...] anastamoses with the left colic artery.
The middle colic artery anastamoses with the left colic

artery.
The middle colic artery anastamoses with the [...].
What is the venous drainage of the rectum below the

pectinate line?
What is the venous drainage of the rectum below the

pectinate line?
Inferior rectal vein to Internal pudendal vein to Internal

iliac vein to the IVC
[...]
Which abdominal muscle gives rise to the external

spermatic fascia?
Which abdominal muscle gives rise to the external

spermatic fascia?
External oblique
[...]
Gastroschisis is a congenital GI disorder that involves

extrusion of the abdominal contents through the
lateral abdominal folds.
[...] is a congenital GI disorder that involves extrusion of

the abdominal contents through the lateral abdominal
folds.
The contents are not covered by peritoneum.

Pyloric Stenosis is a congenital GI disorder that involves [...] is a congenital GI disorder that involves hypertrophy
hypertrophy of the pylorus, thereby causing obstruction
of the pylorus, thereby causing obstruction and a
and a palpable "olive" mass in the epigastric region.
palpable "olive" mass in the epigastric region.
What is the main artery that supplies derivatives of the
hindgut?

hindgut?
IMA
[...]
Includes distal 1/3 of the transverse colon to the

upper portion of the rectum.
Splenic flexure is watershed region.
How does a decrease in gastric pH influence
Somatostatin release?
How does a decrease in gastric pH influence

Somatostatin release?
Increase
[...]
Remember, Somatostatin decreases gastric acid

secretion.
The [...] is a fascial tube found 3-4 cm below the inguinal
ligament that contains the femoral vein, artery and deep
inguinal lymph nodes.
The femoral sheath is a fascial tube found 3-4 cm below

the inguinal ligament that contains the femoral vein, artery
and deep inguinal lymph nodes.
Which zone of the liver is affected 1st by viral hepatitis?
Which zone of the liver is affected 1st by viral hepatitis?
Zone 1/Periportal Zone
[...]
Which embryological structure gives rise to the pancreas? Which embryological structure gives rise to the pancreas?
Foregut
[...]
Gastrinoma is a gastrin-secreting tumour that yields high

levels of acid secretion and ulcers refractory to medical
therapy.
[...] is a gastrin-secreting tumour that yields high levels of

acid secretion and ulcers refractory to medical therapy.
The Gastrocolic ligament is a GI ligament that connects the

greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse
colon.
The [...] is a GI ligament that connects the greater

curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon.
Achalasia is a GI disorder that involves an increase in

[...] is a GI disorder that involves an increase in lower
lower esophageal sphincter (LES) resting tone due to esophageal sphincter (LES) resting tone due to loss
loss of NO secretion.
of NO secretion.
Which embryological pancreatic buds contribute to the
head of the pancreas and the main pancreatic duct?

head of the pancreas and the main pancreatic duct?
Ventral pancreatic buds
[...]
Where in the GI tract are bile acids absorbed?
Where in the GI tract are bile acids absorbed?
Terminal ileum
[...]
Where in the GI tract is iron absorbed?
Where in the GI tract is iron absorbed?
Duodenum as Fe2+
[...]
Where in the GI tract is folate absorbed?
Where in the GI tract is folate absorbed?
Jejunum; Ileum
[...]
Indirect Inguinal hernia is a type of inguinal hernia that

involves protrustion of tissue through the internal
inguinal ring, external inguinal ring and into the
scrotum.
[...] is a type of inguinal hernia that involves protrustion of

tissue through the internal inguinal ring, external
inguinal ring and into the scrotum.
Which embryological tissue layer gives rise to the spleen? Which embryological tissue layer gives rise to the spleen?
Mesoderm
The spleen arises in the mesentary of the stomach but
it is supplied by the foregut (i.e. the celiac artery).
[...]
Which type of inguinal hernia herniates lateral to the

inferior epigastric artery?
Which type of inguinal hernia herniates lateral to the

inferior epigastric artery?
Indirect
[...]
How does Tryptophan influence Gastrin release?
How does Tryptophan influence Gastrin release?
Increase
[...]
What is the venous drainage of the rectum above the

pectinate line?
What is the venous drainage of the rectum above the

pectinate line?
Superior rectal vein to Inferior Mesenteric Vein to Portal

System
[...]
What is the frequency of basal electric rhythm at the

stomach?

stomach?
3 waves/min
[...]
What are the 3 main branches of the celiac trunk?
What are the 3 main branches of the celiac trunk?
Common hepatic artery; Splenic artery; Left gastric artery
[...]
Notice the strong anastamoses between the left and

right gastric/gastroepiploic arteries.
Which zone of the liver is most sensitive to metabolic
toxins?
Which zone of the liver is most sensitive to metabolic

toxins?
Zone 3/Centrilobular Zone
[...]
Which abdominal wall fold is associated with bladder

exstrophy if it fails to close?
Which abdominal wall fold is associated with bladder

exstrophy if it fails to close?
Caudal fold
[...]
How does vagal stimulation influence Somatostatin

release?
How does vagal stimulation influence Somatostatin

release?
Decrease
[...]
Remember, the PSNS generally increases GI secretion.

Somatostatin however works to generally decrease GI
secretion. Hence, the PSNS inhibits somatostatin
release.
Femoral hernia is a type of gastrointestinal hernia that
protrudes below the inguinal ligament through the
femoral canal and below/lateral to the pubic tubercle.
[...] is a type of gastrointestinal hernia that protrudes

below the inguinal ligament through the femoral
canal and below/lateral to the pubic tubercle.
Which type of hemorrhoids are found below the

pectinate line?
Which type of hemorrhoids are found below the

pectinate line?
External hemorrhoids
[...]
Esophageal varices is a clinical manifestation of portal

[...] is a clinical manifestation of portal HTN at the
HTN at the esophagus due to portosystemic anastomoses esophagus due to portosystemic anastomoses between the
between the left gastric vein and the esophageal veins.
left gastric vein and the esophageal veins.
foregut?

foregut?
Celiac artery
[...]
Includes the pharynx and lower esophagus to the

proximal duodenum.
The superior rectal artery anastamoses with the middle
and inferior arteries.
The [...] anastamoses with the middle and inferior arteries.
The superior rectal artery anastamoses with the middle

and inferior arteries.
The superior rectal artery anastamoses with the [...].
Internal hemorrhoids are a type of hemorrhoids found

above the pectinate line that are not painful as they
receive visceral innervation.
[...] are a type of hemorrhoids found above the

pectinate line that are not painful as they receive
visceral innervation.
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Secretin?
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Secretin?
S cells
[...]
An diaphragmatic hernia is a type of hernia that involves

protrusion of abdominal structures into the
thorax through the diaphragm.
An [...] is a type of hernia that involves protrusion of

abdominal structures into the thorax through the
diaphragm.
Occurs in infants as a result of defective development

of the pleuroperitoneal membrane.
Which section of the small intestine is associated with
Crypts of Lieberkuhn?

Crypts of Lieberkuhn?
All of them (duodenum, jejunum, ileum)
[...]
:)
How does CCK influence gastric emptying?
How does CCK influence gastric emptying?
Decrease
[...]
What is the parasympathetic innervation of derivatives of

the foregut?

the foregut?
CN X (vagus)
[...]
Which abdominal wall fold is associated with

omphalocele and gastroschisis if it fails to close?
Which abdominal wall fold is associated with

omphalocele and gastroschisis if it fails to close?
Lateral fold
[...]
What are the contents of the femoral sheath?
[...]
What are the contents of the femoral sheath?

Femoral artery; Femoral vein; Deep Inguinal Lymph
Nodes
Note, it does not include the femoral nerve.
What are the contents of the inguinal (Hasselbach's)
triangle?
What are the contents of the inguinal (Hasselbach's)

triangle?
Inferior epigastric vessels; Lateral border of the rectus

abdominus; Inguinal Ligament
[...]
Which type of bilirubin is unconjugated?
Which type of bilirubin is unconjugated?
Indirect
[...]
How does a decrease in duodenal pH influence Secretin

levels?
How does a decrease in duodenal pH influence Secretin

levels?
Increase
[...]
Remember, Secretin induces pancreatic

HCO3 secretion.
Which intracellular signalling cascade is associated with
Histamine (H2) action at parietal cells?

Histamine (H2) action at parietal cells?
Gs --> cAMP --> gastric acid secretion
[...]
Pyloric Stenosis is a congenital GI disorder due to

hypertrophy of the pylorus that presents with
nonbilious projectile vomit at ~2-6 weeks old.
[...] is a congenital GI disorder due to hypertrophy of the

pylorus that presents with nonbilious projectile vomit at
~2-6 weeks old.
Occurs in 1/600 live births.

Which monosaccharide transporter transports all
monosaccharides across the basolateral
membrane of enterocytes into the blood?
Which monosaccharide transporter transports all

monosaccharides across the basolateral
membrane of enterocytes into the blood?
GLUT2
[...]
What structure is contained in the Gastrohepatic

Ligament?
What structure is contained in the Gastrohepatic

Ligament?
Gastric arteries
[...]
Hiatal Hernia is a type of diaphragmatic hernia where the [...] is a type of diaphragmatic hernia where the stomach
stomach herniates upward through the esophageal herniates upward through the esophageal hiatus of
hiatus of the diaphragm.
the diaphragm.
uncinate process of the pancreas?
[...]

uncinate process of the pancreas?
Ventral bud
Which type of hemorrhoids are found above the

pectinate line?
Which type of hemorrhoids are found above the

pectinate line?
Internal hemorrhoids
[...]
How does CCK influence sphincter of Oddi tone?
How does CCK influence sphincter of Oddi tone?
Decrease
[...]
Remember, CCK triggers gallbladder contraction, so

the sphincter of Oddi must be relaxed at the same
time.
How does Nitric Oxide influence Lower Esophageal
Sphincter (LES) tone?
How does Nitric Oxide influence Lower Esophageal

Sphincter (LES) tone?
Decrease
[...]
NO pretty much causes smooth muscle relaxation

everywhere. LES included.
What is the most common type of diaphragmatic hernia?
What is the most common type of diaphragmatic hernia?
Hiatal Hernia
[...]
Which receptor does Gastrin bind to at parietal cells to

trigger gastric acid secretion?
Which receptor does Gastrin bind to at parietal cells to

CCKB
[...]
How does Somatostatin influence gallbladder contraction? How does Somatostatin influence gallbladder contraction?
Decrease
[...]
In which layer of the GI wall is the Meissner

plexus found?
In which layer of the GI wall is the Meissner

plexus found?
Submucosa
[...]
i.e. Submucosal plexus

Which surface of hepatocytes faces the bile canaliculi?
Which surface of hepatocytes faces the bile canaliculi?
Apical surface
[...]
What are the contents of the Spermatic Cord?

[...]
What are the contents of the Spermatic Cord?

External spermatic fascia; Cremasteric muscle and fascia;
Internal spermatic fascia
Where is Urobilinogen made?
Where is Urobilinogen made?
In the gut by normal flora
[...]
Lipase, phospholipase A and colipase are pancreatic

enzymes that function in fat digestion.
[...], phospholipase A and colipase are pancreatic


Lipase, [...] and colipase are pancreatic enzymes that

function in fat digestion.

Lipase, phospholipase A and [...] are pancreatic enzymes

that function in fat digestion.

Peyer's patches (in the lamina propria and submucosa)? Peyer's patches (in the lamina propria and submucosa)?
Ileum
[...]
How does Histamine influence gastric acid secretion?
How does Histamine influence gastric acid secretion?
Increase
[...]

plicae circulares?

plicae circulares?
Jejunum; Ileum
[...]
Which hepatic enzyme functions to conjugate bilirubin with Which hepatic enzyme functions to conjugate bilirubin with
glucuronate?
glucuronate?
UDP-glucuronyl transferase
[...]
Which cells of the GI tract secrete HCO3?
Which cells of the GI tract secrete HCO3?
Mucosal cells of the stomach, duodenum, salivary glands

and pancreas
[...]
Gastrin is a GI hormone secreted from G cells that triggers [...] is a GI hormone secreted from G cells that triggers
Histamine release from Enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells Histamine release from Enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells
in order to increase gastric acid secretion.
in order to increase gastric acid secretion.
Hence, Gastrin has both direct and indirect effects
on parietal cells to govern gastric acid release.
Which type of inguinal hernia protrudes through the
inguinal (Hasselbach's) triangle?
Which type of inguinal hernia protrudes through the

inguinal (Hasselbach's) triangle?
Direct inguinal hernia
[...]
Omphalocele is a congenital GI disorder that involves the

[...] is a congenital GI disorder that involves the
persistence of herniation of abdominal contents into persistence of herniation of abdominal contents into
the umbilical cord.
the umbilical cord.
The contents are sealed by peritoneum.

How does ACh influence gastric acid secretion?
How does ACh influence gastric acid secretion?
Increase
[...]
The gastrohepatic ligament is a GI ligament that connects

the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach.
The [...] is a GI ligament that connects the liver to the

lesser curvature of the stomach.

the hindgut?

the hindgut?
Pelvic Nerve
[...]
How does GIP influence gastric acid secretion?
How does GIP influence gastric acid secretion?
Decrease
[...]
How does Phenylalanine influence Gastrin release?
How does Phenylalanine influence Gastrin release?
Increase
[...]
What is the lymphatic drainage of the rectum above the

pectinate line?
What is the lymphatic drainage of the rectum above the

pectinate line?
Internal iliac nodes
[...]
Which parts of the duodenum are retroperitoneal?
Which parts of the duodenum are retroperitoneal?
2nd-4th
[...]
How does stomach distention influence Gastrin release?
How does stomach distention influence Gastrin release?
Increase
[...]
Which type of hemorrhoids are not painful as they

receive visceral innervation from above the pectinate
line?
Which type of hemorrhoids are not painful as they

receive visceral innervation from above the pectinate
line?
Internal hemorrhoids
[...]
During which week of gestation does the midgut

return into the abdominal cavity and rotate around the
superior mesenteric artery (SMA)?
During which week of gestation does the midgut

return into the abdominal cavity and rotate around the
superior mesenteric artery (SMA)?
10th week
[...]

duodenum?

duodenum?
12 waves/min
[...]
How does an increase in fatty acids, amino acids and oral How does an increase in fatty acids, amino acids and oral
glucose influence Glucose-dependent Insulinotropic
glucose influence Glucose-dependent Insulinotropic
Peptide (GIP) release?
Peptide (GIP) release?
Increase
[...]
Oral glucose loads are used more rapidly by the body

versus equivalent IV doses due to the GIP secretion it
stimulates.
What is the vertebral level of the bifurcation of the
abdominal aorta?
What is the vertebral level of the bifurcation of the

abdominal aorta?
L4
[...]
Bi-four-cation of the abdominal aorta.

In which anatomical direction to arteries that supply non- In which anatomical direction to arteries that supply nonGI tract structures branch off the abdominal aorta?
GI tract structures branch off the abdominal aorta?
Laterally
[...]
Which metabolite of Urobilinogen gives feces its brown

colour?
Which metabolite of Urobilinogen gives feces its brown

colour?
Stercobilin
[...]
Which zone of the liver is the site of alcoholic hepatitis?
Which zone of the liver is the site of alcoholic hepatitis?
[...]
Where in the GI tract is vitamin B12 absorbed?
Where in the GI tract is vitamin B12 absorbed?
Terminal ileum
[...]
Which type of hemorroids are painful as they receive

Which type of hemorroids are painful as they receive
somatic innervation from the inferior rectal branch of somatic innervation from the inferior rectal branch of
the pudendal nerve?
the pudendal nerve?
External hemorrhoids
[...]
During which week of gestation does the midgut herniate

through the umbilical ring?
During which week of gestation does the midgut herniate

through the umbilical ring?
6th week
[...]
Anorectal varices are a feature of portal HTN that

presents at the rectum due to portosystemic anastomoses
between the superior rectal vein and the
middle/inferior rectal veins.
[...] are a feature of portal HTN that presents at the

rectum due to portosystemic anastomoses between the
superior rectal vein and the middle/inferior rectal
veins.
Where in the small intestine are K cells found?
Where in the small intestine are K cells found?
Duodenum; Jejunum
[...]
The Sphincter of Oddi is the sphincter that surrounds the

common bile duct.
The [...] is the sphincter that surrounds the common bile

duct.
The falciform ligament is a GI ligament that connects the

liver to the anterior abdominal wall.

anterior abdominal wall.
Intrinsic Factor is a protein secreted by parietal cells of the [...] is a protein secreted by parietal cells of the stomach
stomach that binds to vitamin B12 in order for it to be that binds to vitamin B12 in order for it to be absorbed
absorbed in the terminal ileum.
in the terminal ileum.
Which abdominal wall fold is associated with sternal
defects if it fails to close?
Which abdominal wall fold is associated with sternal

defects if it fails to close?
Rostral fold
[...]
Which type of inguinal hernia herniates medial to the

Inferior Epigastric Artery?
Which type of inguinal hernia herniates medial to the

Inferior Epigastric Artery?
[...]
What structures are found in the Splenorenal ligament?
What structures are found in the Splenorenal ligament?
Splenic artery; Splenic vein; Tail of the pancreas
[...]
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Intrinsic Factor?
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Intrinsic Factor?
Parietal cells of the stomach
[...]
Which cells of the GI tract secrete CCK?
Which cells of the GI tract secrete CCK?
I cells
[...]

ACh (M3) and Gastrin (CCKB) action at parietal cells?

ACh (M3) and Gastrin (CCKB) action at parietal cells?
Gq --> IP3/DAG --> increased Ca
[...]
How does Somatostatin influence gastric acid and

pepsinogen secretion?
How does Somatostatin influence gastric acid and

pepsinogen secretion?
Decrease
[...]
Which zone of the liver contains the cytochrome P450
system?
[...]
Which zone of the liver contains the cytochrome P450

system?
How do prostaglandins influence gastric acid secretion?
How do prostaglandins influence gastric acid secretion?
Decrease
[...]
This is why chronic NSAID use can result in gastric

ulcers due to increased gastric acid secretion.
Which receptor does Histamine bind to on parietal cells in Which receptor does Histamine bind to on parietal cells in
order to trigger gastric acid secretion?
order to trigger gastric acid secretion?
H2
[...]
Caput medusae are a feature of portal HTN that presents

[...] are a feature of portal HTN that presents at the
at the umbilicus due to the portosystemic anastamoses umbilicus due to the portosystemic anastamoses between
between the paraumbilical vein and the small
the paraumbilical vein and the small epigastric veins
epigastric veins of the anterior abdominal wall.
of the anterior abdominal wall.
What structures are found in the Gastrosplenic ligament?
What structures are found in the Gastrosplenic ligament?
Short Gastric vessels; Left Gastroepiploic vessels
[...]
In which layer of the GI wall is the Myenteric/Auerbach In which layer of the GI wall is the Myenteric/Auerbach
plexus found?
plexus found?
Muscularis externa
[...]
Where in the small intestine are S cells located?
Where in the small intestine are S cells located?
Duodenum
[...]
Trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase and carboxypeptidase are [...], chymotrypsin, elastase and carboxypeptidase are 4
4 pancreatic enzymes that function in protein
pancreatic enzymes that function in protein digestion and
digestion and are secreted as proenzymes in zymogen
are secreted as proenzymes in zymogen form.
form.
Trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase and carboxypeptidase are
Trypsin, [...], elastase and carboxypeptidase are 4
form.
Trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase and carboxypeptidase are Trypsin, chymotrypsin, [...] and carboxypeptidase are 4
form.
Trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase and carboxypeptidase are Trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase and [...] are 4 pancreatic
enzymes that function in protein digestion and are
secreted as proenzymes in zymogen form.
form.
Where in the GI tract is Vitamin B12 absorbed?
Where in the GI tract is Vitamin B12 absorbed?
Terminal ileum
[...]
Requires intrinsic factor.

Which embryological pancreatic bud contributes to the
Which embryological pancreatic bud contributes to the
body, tail and isthmus of the pancreas and accessory body, tail and isthmus of the pancreas and accessory
pancreatic ducts?
pancreatic ducts?
Dorsal bud
[...]
Which embryological structure develops into the GI tract

from the duodenum to the proximal 2/3 of the
transverse colon?

from the duodenum to the proximal 2/3 of the
transverse colon?
Midgut
[...]
Which type of inguinal hernia is typically seen in older

men?
Which type of inguinal hernia is typically seen in older

men?
Direct
[...]
Which type of inguinal hernia involves herniation through

the external (superficial) inguinal ring only?
Which type of inguinal hernia involves herniation through

the external (superficial) inguinal ring only?
[...]
Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS) is a [...] is a surgically places shunt that is used to treat portal
surgically places shunt that is used to treat portal HTN as HTN as it shunts blood flow from the portal vein to the
it shunts blood flow from the portal vein to the hepatic
hepatic vein.
vein.
i.e. it directly shunts the portal system into systemic
circulation
What is the vertebral level of the Superior Mesenteric
Artery (SMA)?
What is the vertebral level of the Superior Mesenteric

Artery (SMA)?
L1
[...]
What section of the GI tract secretes Motilin?
What section of the GI tract secretes Motilin?
Small intestine
[...]
Superior Mesenteric Arter (SMA) Syndrome is a

cardiovascular syndrome that occurs when the
transverse/third portion of the duodenum is
entrapped between the SMA and aorta, thereby
causing intestinal obstruction.
[...] is a cardiovascular syndrome that occurs when the

transverse/third portion of the duodenum is
entrapped between the SMA and aorta, thereby
causing intestinal obstruction.

from the pharynx to the duodenum?

from the pharynx to the duodenum?
Foregut
[...]
Paraesophageal Hernia is a type of diaphragmatic hernia

[...] is a type of diaphragmatic hernia that involves
that involves protrustion of the fundus of the stomach
protrustion of the fundus of the stomach into the
into the thorax with preservation of the gastroesophageal thorax with preservation of the gastroesophageal junction.
junction.
Which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of bile
synthesis?
Which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of bile

synthesis?
7-alpha hydroxylase
[...]
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Pepsin?
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Pepsin?
Chief cells of the stomach
[...]
Which immunoglobulin isotype is transported across the

epithelium into the gut from Peyer patches in the lamina
propria to deal with intraluminal antigens?
Which immunoglobulin isotype is transported across the

epithelium into the gut from Peyer patches in the lamina
propria to deal with intraluminal antigens?
IgA
[...]
i.e. secretory IgA

How does a decrease in stomach pH influence Gastrin
release?
How does a decrease in stomach pH influence Gastrin

release?
Decrease
[...]
Which sex is more commonly affected by Congenital

Pyloric Stenosis?
Which sex is more commonly affected by Congenital

Pyloric Stenosis?
Males
[...]
Seen in 1/600 live births.

Which somatic nerve innervates the external
hemorrhoids found below the pectinate line?
Which somatic nerve innervates the external

hemorrhoids found below the pectinate line?
Inferior Rectal Branch of the Pudendal Nerve
[...]
How do Motilin levels change in the fasting state?
How do Motilin levels change in the fasting state?
Increase
[...]
This is why we tell patients to not feed their

children if they happen to swallow something like a
coin or marble.
Fasting state = increased motilin = increased
frequency of MMCs = whatever was ingested will be
pooped out sooner.
Brunner glands (in the submucosa)?

Brunner glands (in the submucosa)?
Duodenum
[...]
The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery anastamoses

with the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
The [...] anastamoses with the inferior

pancreaticoduodenal artery.

with the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

with the [...].
How does Gastrin influence growth of the gastric mucosa? How does Gastrin influence growth of the gastric mucosa?
Increase
[...]
Which sex is more commonly affected by Indirect

Inguinal Hernia?
Which sex is more commonly affected by Indirect

Inguinal Hernia?
Males
[...]
Which submucosal glands of the duodenum secrete

HCO3?
Which submucosal glands of the duodenum secrete

HCO3?
Brunner glands
[...]
The Splenorenal ligament is a GI ligament that connects

the spleen to the anterior surface of the left kidney,
extending to the posterior abdominal wall.
The [...] is a GI ligament that connects the spleen to the

anterior surface of the left kidney, extending to the
posterior abdominal wall.
Which type of bilirubin is not water soluble?
Which type of bilirubin is not water soluble?
Indirect
[...]
Enterkinase/Enteropeptidase is a brush-border enzyme on [...] is a brush-border enzyme on the duodenal and jejunal
the duodenal and jejunal mucosa that functions to convert mucosa that functions to convert Trypsinogen into Trypsin.
Trypsinogen into Trypsin.
What is the vertebral level of the Inferior Mesenteric
Artery (IMA)?
What is the vertebral level of the Inferior Mesenteric

Artery (IMA)?
L3
[...]
Annular Pancreas is a congenital GI disorder that involves

a ring of pancreatic tissue around the duodenum due
to abnormal development of the ventral pancreatic bud.
[...] is a congenital GI disorder that involves a ring of

pancreatic tissue around the duodenum due to
abnormal development of the ventral pancreatic bud.
This can cause duodenal narrowing.

Normally, the ventral pancreatic bud goes entirely one
way around the duodenum to form the head of the
pancreas. Sometimes it can split, forming a ring.
Which parts of the pancreas are retroperitoneal?
Which parts of the pancreas are retroperitoneal?
All parts except the tail
[...]
Which receptor does ACh bind to at parietal cells to

Which receptor does ACh bind to at parietal cells to

M3
[...]
M cells are a specialized cell found in peyer patches that

sample and present antigens to immune cells.
[...] are a specialized cell found in peyer patches that

sample and present antigens to immune cells.
What structure is contained within the Hepatoduodenal

Ligament?
What structure is contained within the Hepatoduodenal

Ligament?
Portal Triad
[...]
Portal vein; Proper hepatic artery; Common bile duct.

Trypsinogen is a pancreatic enzyme that functions to
convert proenzyme/zymogens from the pancreas in its
active form.
[...] is a pancreatic enzyme that functions to convert

proenzyme/zymogens from the pancreas in its active
form.
Trypsin is its active form.

Which metabolite of Urobilinogen gives urine its yellow
colour?
Which metabolite of Urobilinogen gives urine its yellow

colour?
Urobilin
[...]
Which areas of the GI tract secrete Vasoactive Intestinal

Polypeptide (VIP)?
Which areas of the GI tract secrete Vasoactive Intestinal

Polypeptide (VIP)?
Parasympathetic ganglia in GI sphincters, gallbladder and

SI
[...]
Which type of bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronate? Which type of bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronate?
Direct
[...]

from the distal 1/3 of the colon to the anal canal
above the pectinate line?

from the distal 1/3 of the colon to the anal canal
above the pectinate line?
Hindgut
[...]
What histological type of epithelium is seen at the

esophagus?
What histological type of epithelium is seen at the

esophagus?
Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
[...]
How does Gastrin influence gastric motility?
How does Gastrin influence gastric motility?
Increase
[...]

(GIP) influence gastric acid secretion?

(GIP) influence gastric acid secretion?
Decrease
[...]
How does Secretin influence bile secretion?
How does Secretin influence bile secretion?
Increase
[...]
Which zone of the liver is affected first by ischemia?
[...]
Which zone of the liver is affected first by ischemia?

Which enzyme on the brush border of the duodenum and Which enzyme on the brush border of the duodenum and
jejunum functions to convert trypsinogen into trypsin?
jejunum functions to convert trypsinogen into trypsin?
Enterokinase/Enteropeptidase
[...]
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Gastric Acid?
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Gastric Acid?
Parietal cells of the stomach
[...]
What is the leading cause of bowel incarceration?
What is the leading cause of bowel incarceration?
Femoral hernia
[...]
What structures make up the portal triad?
What structures make up the portal triad?
Proper hepatic artery; Portal vein; Common bile duct
[...]

ileum?

ileum?
8-9 waves/min
[...]
The hepatoduodenal ligament is a GI ligament that

connects the liver to the duodenum.

duodenum.
Peyer's patches are unencapsulated lymphoid tissue

found in the lamina propria and submucosa of the
ileum.
[...] are unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in the

lamina propria and submucosa of the
ileum.
How does Vasoactive Intestinal Polypeptide (VIP)

influence relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle and
sphincters?

influence relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle and
sphincters?
Increase
[...]
Pringle maneuver is a surgical maneuver that involves

compression of the hepatoduodenal ligament
between the thumb and index finger to control
bleeding.
[...] is a surgical maneuver that involves compression of

the hepatoduodenal ligament between the thumb and
index finger to control bleeding.
How does an increase in stomach pH influence Gastrin

secretion?
How does an increase in stomach pH influence Gastrin

secretion?
Increase
[...]
Which section of the small intestine has the largest number Which section of the small intestine has the largest number
of goblet cells in the small intestine?
of goblet cells in the small intestine?
Ileum
[...]
Which type of bilirubin is water soluble?
Which type of bilirubin is water soluble?
Direct bilirubin
[...]
Which type of inguinal hernia is associated with failure of Which type of inguinal hernia is associated with failure of
the processus vaginalis to close?
the processus vaginalis to close?
Indirect inguinal hernia
[...]
Can also result in hydrocele.

The path of an indirect inguinal hernia follows the
path of descent of testes and it is covered by all 3
layers of the spermatic fascia.
What is the vertebral level of the celiac trunk?
What is the vertebral level of the celiac trunk?
T12
[...]
Which GI hormone is also known as Gastric Inhibitory

Peptide (GIP)?
Which GI hormone is also known as Gastric Inhibitory

Peptide (GIP)?
Glucose-dependent Insulinotropic Peptide (GIP)
[...]
Pancreas divisum is a congenital GI disorder that involves [...] is a congenital GI disorder that involves failure of the
failure of the ventral and dorsal pancreatic buds to
ventral and dorsal pancreatic buds to fuse at 8
fuse at 8 weeks.
weeks.
Which sex is more commonly affected by Femoral
Hernias?
Which sex is more commonly affected by Femoral

Hernias?
Females
[...]
How does Somatostatin influence pancreatic secretion?
How does Somatostatin influence pancreatic secretion?
Decrease
[...]
Which zone of the liver is affected first by ingested toxins? Which zone of the liver is affected first by ingested toxins?
Zone 1/Periportal Zone
[...]
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Glucose-dependent

Insulinotropic Peptide (GIP)?
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Glucose-dependent

Insulinotropic Peptide (GIP)?
K cells
[...]
What is the most common tracheoesophageal anomaly?

[...]
What is the most common tracheoesophageal anomaly?

Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula
Presents with drooling, choking and vomiting with
the first feeding.
Presence of a TEF will allow for air to enter the
stomach, which is noticeable on chest x-ray.
Which layer of the GI wall contains the epithelium,
lamina propria and muscularis mucosa?
Which layer of the GI wall contains the epithelium,

lamina propria and muscularis mucosa?
Mucosa
[...]

influence intestinal water and electrolyte secretion?

influence intestinal water and electrolyte secretion?
Increase
[...]
How does Gastrin influence gastric acid secretion?
How does Gastrin influence gastric acid secretion?
Increase
[...]
What is the vertebral level of the left renal artery?
What is the vertebral level of the left renal artery?
L1
[...]
The superior epigastric artery anastamoses with

the inferior epigastric artery.
The [...] anastamoses with the inferior epigastric artery.
The superior epigastric artery anastamoses with

the inferior epigastric artery.
The superior epigastric artery anastamoses with the [...].
What are the contents of the Femoral Triangle?
What are the contents of the Femoral Triangle?
Femoral nerve, artery and vein (from lateral the medial)
[...]

midgut?

midgut?
SMA
[...]
Includes distal duodenum to the proximal 2/3 of the

transverse colon.
How do Gastrin levels change in chronic PPI use?
How do Gastrin levels change in chronic PPI use?
Increase
[...]
PPI's work to decrease stomach acid (i.e. increase

stomach pH).
This in turn triggers Gastrin release.
What artery supplies the rectum below the pectinate

line?
What artery supplies the rectum below the pectinate

line?
Inferior Rectal Artery from the Internal Pudendal Artery
[...]
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Somatostatin?
Which cells of the GI tract secrete Somatostatin?
D cells
[...]
What is the site of protrusion in a Direct Inguinal

Hernia?
What is the site of protrusion in a Direct Inguinal

Hernia?
Abdominal Wall
[...]
How does CCK influence gallbladder contraction?
How does CCK influence gallbladder contraction?
Increase
[...]
External hemorrhoids are a type of hemorrhoids that are

found below the pectinate line and are painful as they
receive somatic innervation from the inferior rectal
branch of the pudendal nerve.
[...] are a type of hemorrhoids that are found below the

pectinate line and are painful as they receive somatic
innervation from the inferior rectal branch of the
pudendal nerve.
Anal Fissure is a GI disorder described as a tear in the

anal mucosa below the pectinate line.
[...] is a GI disorder described as a tear in the anal

mucosa below the pectinate line.
Presents with pain while pooping, blood on the toilet

paper.
Typically located posteriorly due to poor perfusion in
that area.
the midgut?

the midgut?
CN X (vagus)
[...]
How does Secretin influence pancreatic HCO3 secretion? How does Secretin influence pancreatic HCO3 secretion?
Increase
[...]
This is integral for duodenal digestion.

The HCO3 secretion into the duodenum neutralizes the
incoming acidic bile and allows pancreatic enzymes to
function.
The Common Hepatic Artery, Splenic Artery and Left The [...], Splenic Artery and Left Gastric artery are the 3
Gastric artery are the 3 main branches of the celiac trunk.
main branches of the celiac trunk.
The Common Hepatic Artery, Splenic Artery and Left The Common Hepatic Artery, [...] and Left Gastric artery
are the 3 main branches of the celiac trunk.
The Common Hepatic Artery, Splenic Artery and Left The Common Hepatic Artery, Splenic Artery and [...] are
the 3 main branches of the celiac trunk.
How does an increase in fatty acids and amino acids

influence CCK release?
How does an increase in fatty acids and amino acids

influence CCK release?
Increase
[...]
Suppression is a mature ego defense that involves

intentional withholding of an idea or feeling from
conscious awareness.
[...] is a mature ego defense that involves

intentional withholding of an idea or feeling from
Versus repression with involves involuntary

withdrawal.
e.g. choosing not to worry about the Step 1 until test
day (LOL YA RIGHT, BRAH)
Operant Conditioning is a type of conditioning where a
particular action is elicited because it produces a
punishment or reward.
[...] is a type of conditioning where a particular action is

elicited because it produces a punishment or reward.
Denial is an immature ego defense that involves avoiding

the awareness of some painful reality.
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves avoiding the

awareness of some painful reality.
Rationalization is an immature ego defense that involves

proclaiming logical reasons for actions that are actually
performed for other reasons, usually to avoid self-blame.
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves proclaiming

logical reasons for actions that are actually performed for
other reasons, usually to avoid self-blame.
e.g. after getting fired, the person claims the job

wasn't even important
Fixation is an immature ego defense that involves partially
remaining at a more childish level of development.
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves partially

remaining at a more childish level of development.
Regression is an immature ego defense that involves

[...] is an immature ego defense that involves turning
turning back of the maturational clock and going back to back of the maturational clock and going back to earlier
earlier modes of dealing with the world.
modes of dealing with the world.
e.g. children under stress
Acting out is an immature ego defense that involves
expressing unacceptable feelings and thoughts through
actions.
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves expressing

unacceptable feelings and thoughts through actions.
e.g. tantrums
Which type of conditioning usually deals with involuntary Which type of conditioning usually deals with involuntary
responses?
responses?
Classical Conditioning
[...]
Humour is a mature ego defense that involves

[...] is a mature ego defense that involves appreciating the
appreciating the amusing nature of an anxiety-provoking or
amusing nature of an anxiety-provoking or adverse
adverse situation.
situation.
e.g. MS2's making jokes about how much Step 1 is
going to destroy them
.... i want my life back, pls

Repression is an immature ego defense that involves
involuntary withholding of an idea or feeling from
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves involuntary

withholding of an idea or feeling from conscious
awareness.
Dissociation is an immature ego defense that involves

temporary, drastic change in personality, memory,
consciousness or motor behaviour to avoid emotional
stress.
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves temporary,

drastic change in personality, memory, consciousness or
motor behaviour to avoid emotional stress.
Extreme forms can result in Dissociative Identity

Disorder (multiple personality disorder).
Transference is a psychological phemonenon where the
patient projects feeling about formative or other important
persons onto the physician.
[...] is a psychological phemonenon where the patient

projects feeling about formative or other important
persons onto the physician.
e.g. the physician is seen as a parent.

Countertransference is a psychological phenomenon
where the physician projects feelings about formative or
other important persons onto the patient.
[...] is a psychological phenomenon where the

physician projects feelings about formative or other
important persons onto the patient.
e.g. patient reminds the physician of a younger sibling.

Projection is an immature ego defense that involves
attributing an unacceptable internal impulse to an
external source.
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves attributing

an unacceptable internal impulse to an external
source.
e.g. a man who wants to be with another woman

thinking his wife is cheating on him
Identification is an immature ego defense that involves
modeling behaviour after another person who is more
powerful (though not necessarily admired)
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves modeling

behaviour after another person who is more powerful
(though not necessarily admired)
e.g. abusee indentifying with the abuser

Sublimation is a mature ego defense that involves
[...] is a mature ego defense that involves replacing of an
replacing of an unacceptable wish with a course of action unacceptable wish with a course of action that is similar to
that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one's
the wish but does not conflict with one's value system.
value system.
Reaction formation is an immature ego defense that
involves replacing a warded-off idea or feeling by an
unconsciously derived emphasis on its opposite.
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves replacing a

warded-off idea or feeling by an unconsciously derived
emphasis on its opposite.
Classical conditioning is a type of conditioning where a

natural response is elicited by a conditioned or
learned stimulus that was presented with an
unconditioned stimulus.
[...] is a type of conditioning where a natural response is

elicited by a conditioned or learned stimulus that was
presented with an unconditioned stimulus.
e.g. Pavlov's dog.

Natural response = salivation
Conditioned Stimulus = bell
Unconditioned stimulus = food
Isolation (of affect) is an immature ego defense that
involves separating feelings from ideas and events.
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves separating

feelings from ideas and events.
e.g. described murder is graphic detail with no

emotional response
Ego Defenses are unconscious mental processes used to
resolve conflict and prevent undesirable feelings.
[...] are unconscious mental processes used to resolve

conflict and prevent undesirable feelings.
Splitting is an immature ego defense that involves the belief [...] is an immature ego defense that involves the belief that
that people are either all good or bad at different times due people are either all good or bad at different times due to
to an intolerance of ambiguity.
an intolerance of ambiguity.
e.g., A patient says that all nurses are cold/insensitive but
all doctors are warm/friendly.
[...] is a mature ego defense that involves alleviating of
guilty feelings by unsolicited generosity towards others.
Altruism is a mature ego defense that involves alleviating

of guilty feelings by unsolicited generosity towards others.
e.g. mafia boss making a large donation to charity
Displacement is an immature ego defense that involves
transferring avoided ideas and feelings to some neutral
person or object.
[...] is an immature ego defense that involves transferring

avoided ideas and feelings to some neutral person or
object.
i.e. mother yells at her child because her husband

yelled at her
Which type of conditioning deals with voluntary
responses?
Which type of conditioning deals with voluntary

responses?
Operant Conditioning
[...]
Which ego defense is commonly associated with

Borderline Personality Disorder?
Which ego defense is commonly associated with

Borderline Personality Disorder?
Splitting
[...]
e.g. a patient says that all nurses are cold and

insensitive but that doctors are warm and friendly

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What are the 2 major clinical consequences of

What are the 2 major clinical consequences of

Atherosclerosis and Acute Pancreatitis

Darifenacin is a selective [...] blocker.

Tachyphylaxis is used to describe an acute, rapid

[...] is used to describe an acute, rapid development of

Pilocarpine is a direct muscarinic agonist with a receptor

Pilocarpine is a direct muscarinic agonist with a receptor

Donepezil is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor.

Donepezil is a reversible [...] inhibitor.

Scopolamine is a muscarinic blocker.

Scopolamine is a [...] blocker.

Carbachol can be used to treat [...].

Carbachol is a carbon copy of Acetylcholine

Physostigmine is a reversible [...] inhibitor.

Neostigmine is reversible cholinesterase inhibitor.

Neostigmine is reversible [...] inhibitor.

Drug induced SLE is commonly seen in patients who are

Drug induced SLE is commonly seen in patients who are

Drug induced SLE is commonly seen in patients who are

Benzotropine is a muscarinic blocker.

Benzotropine is a [...] blocker.

Nicotine activates nicotinic receptors.

Nicotine activates [...] receptors.

Acetylcholine is a direct muscarinic agonist that acts on

Acetylcholine is a direct muscarinic agonist that acts on

Pralodoxime is a cholinesterase reactivator.

Pralodoxime is a [...] reactivator.

Physostigmine is used to treat open angle glaucoma.

Physostigmine is used to treat [...].

Atropine is a competitive muscarinic blocker.

Atropine is a competitive [...] blocker.

It blocks all muscarinics.

Large doses of nicotine result in [...].

Muscarine is a direct muscarinic agonist with a receptor

Muscarine is a direct muscarinic agonist with a receptor

Bethanechol is a direct muscarinic agonist that has a

Bethanechol is a direct muscarinic agonist that has a

Acetylcholine can be used to treat open angle glaucoma.

Acetylcholine can be used to treat [...].

Carbachol is a direct muscarinic agonist that has a

Carbachol is a direct muscarinic agonist that has a

Homatropine is a muscarinic blocker.

Homatropine is a [...] blocker.

Edrophonium is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor.

Edrophonium is a reversible [...] inhibitor.

What is the treatment for Lead toxicity?

What is the treatment for Lead toxicity?

EDTA; Dimercaprol; Succimer; Penicillamine

How does Norepinephrine change blood pressure?

How does Norepinephrine change blood pressure?

This is through alpha-1 mediated vasoconstriction and

What is the common suffix for viral DNA polymerase

What is the hematological toxicity of Primaquine?

Norepinephrine and phenylephrine are the adrenergics of

[...] and phenylephrine are the adrenergics of choice to

Neurogenic, septic, etc shock

How does St. John's Wort influence cytochrome p450

Clearance (CL) is a pharmacokinetic measure that is

[...] is a pharmacokinetic measure that is defined as the

Carvidilol is a(n) a1-beta adrenergic blocker.

Carvidilol is a(n) [...] adrenergic blocker.

Which adrenergic is the drug of choice to treat