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Fall 2008
Matthew Schwartz
Lecture 10:
Spinors and the Dirac Equation
1 Introduction
From non-relativistic quantum mechanics, we already know that the electron has spin
usually write it as a doublet
| i =
3 =
1 0
0 1
1
.
2
We
(1)
(2)
where B = 2m is the Bohr magneton (the size of the electrons orbital magnetic moment) and
K = xK Kp is ethe angular momentum operator. We have also written K = (1, 2, 3) to call
L
attention to the fact that these is transform as the components of a vector, just like the magnetic field Bi. Thus (
K BK ) is rotationally invariant. This is non-trivial, and only works
because
[i , j ] = 2iijkk
(4)
which are the same algebraic relations satisfied by infinitesimal rotations (we will review this
shortly).
Keep in mind that i do not change under rotations they are always given by Eq. (2) in
any frame. is changing and Bi is changing, and these changes cancel when we write (
K BK ).
We could also have written down a rotationally invariant equation of motion for
1 t ii = 0
(5)
Since i transforms like a 3-vector and so does i, this equation is rotationally invariant. It
turns out it is Lorentz invariant too. In fact, this is just the Dirac equation!
If we write
= (122, 1, 2, 3)
(6)
Then it is
= 0
(7)
which is nice and simple looking. Actually, this is the Dirac equation for a Weyl spinor, which is
not exactly the same as the equation commonly called the Dirac equation.
By the way, it does not follow that this equation is Lorentz invariant just because weve
written it as . For example,
( + m) = 0
(8)
is not Lorentz invariant. To understand these enigmatic transformation properties, we have to
know how to construct the Lorentz group out of the s and see how those act on . But
instead of just guessing the answer (or looking it up), were going to do something a little more
general, and motivate what kinds of transformation properties are possible.
1
Section 2
(9)
(10)
Where is a combination of rotations and boosts. We saw that we could write a Lorentz transformation as the product of 3 rotations and 3 boosts:
1
0
0
0
1
1
0 cos xy sin xy
cos
sin
1
xz
xz
=
0 sin x y cosx y 0
1
cosx z sin x z
sin
cos
sin
xz cos xz
0
0
0
1
xz
xz
cosh y
sinh y
coshx sinhx
coshz
sinhz
sinhx coshx
1
1
sinh y
1
1
cosh y
1
sinhz
coshz
1
(11)
(12)
This is a particular representation. of the Lorentz group. That is, it is one embedding of the
group into a set of matrices.
The group itself is a mathematical object independent of any particular representation. To
extract the group away from its representations, it is easiest to look at infinitesimal transformations. We can always write these group elements as
= exp(iii) = 1 + iii +
(13)
General representations
0
0
0
0 1
0
1
0
, 2 = V13 = i
, 3 = V23 = i
1 = V12 = i
1 0
0
0 1
0
1
0
1 0
0 1
0
1
0
1
1 0
0
0
, 5 = V02 = i
, 6 = V03 = i
4 = V01 = i
(14)
0
0
0
0
0
1
0
The s and the V s are just different notations for the same objects. The generators satisfy:
which means
[V , V ] = i(V V V + V)
[V01 , V12 ] = iV02 ,
(15)
(16)
So now we can define the Lorentz group as the set of transformations generated by these generators.
Another representation or the Lorentz generators is given
J = i(x x )
(17)
These are the classical generators of angular momentum generalized to include time. You can
check that J satisfy the commutation relations of the Lorentz algebra.
Technically, we say the generators make up the Lorentz Algebra so(1,3) which generates the
Lorentz Group SO(1, 3). A common convention is to use lowercase letters for the names of algebras and uppercase letters for groups. As another technicality, we note that it is possible for two
different groups to have the same algebra. For example, the Proper Orthonchronous Lorentz
group and the Lorentz Group have the same algebra, but the Lorentz group has in addition the
discrete symmetries time reversal and parity reversal. Its a small difference, but its a difference
and the groups are not identical.
3 General representations
There is a very nice way to study the representations of the Lorentz group. Start with the rotation generators Ji and the boost generators K j . For example, you could take J1 = V23 , K1 = V01 ,
etc. as a particular representation of this basis. These satisfy
[Ji , J j ] = iijkJk
(18)
[Ji , K j ] = iijkKk
(19)
[Ki , K j ] = iijkJk
(20)
where ijk is defined by 123 = 1 and being antisymmetric in all of its indices (it is called the
totally antisymmetric tensor .) As is probably clear to you already, [Ji , J j ] = iijkJk is the
algebra for rotations, so(3) so the Ji generate the subgroup of rotations in 3D.
Now take the linear combinations
1
Ji+ = (Ji + iKi)
2
(21)
1
Ji = (Ji iKi)
2
(22)
Section 3
which satisfy
[Ji+, J j+] = iijkJk+
(23)
[Ji, J j] = iijkJk
(24)
[Ji+, J j] = 0
(25)
So we have found 2 commuting subgroups of the Lorentz group. The algebra of the J s is the
3D rotation algebra, so(3), more commonly called so(2). So we have shown that
so(1, 3) = su(2) su(2)
(26)
(technically, it should really be sl(2, R) = so(1, 1) not su(2), but these algebras are the same up
to some is, and physicists usually just say su(2).).
The names so(n) and su(n) stand for special orthogonal algebra and special unitary algebra.
Orthogonal means it preserves a norm defined with transpose: V TV is invariant under SO(n).
Unitary means it preserves a norm defined with adjoint V V is invariant under SU(n). Special
means the determinant is 1, which just normalizes the elements and gets rid of phases.
The decomposition so(3, 1) = su(2) su(2) makes studying the representations very easy. We
already know what the representations are of su(2), since this is the algebra of Pauli matrices,
which generates the 3D rotation group SO(3) (so(3) = su(2)). The representations are characterized by a quantum number j, and have 2j + 1 elements, labeled by m = jz, So representations of
the Lorentz group are characterized by two numbers A and B. The (A, B) representation has
(2A + 1)(2B + 1) degrees of freedom.
K = JK + + JK , where I now use the vector superscript to
The regular rotation generators are J
call attention the fact that the spins must be added vectorially (remember Clebsch-Gordon coefficients?). The bottom line is that each (A, B) representation contains particles of spin J = A +
B , A + B 1, , |A B |. For example,
rep of su(2) su(2)
(A, B) = (0, 0)
1
(A, B) = ( , 0)
2
1
(A, B) = (0, )
2
1 1
(A, B) = ( , )
2 2
(A, B) = (1, 0)
(A, B) = (1, 1)
(27)
J = 1, 0
J =1
J = 2, 1, 0
So we see that the regular 4D vector representation A contains spins 1,0 so it corresponds to
1 1
the ( 2 , 2 ) representation of the Lorentz group.
(28)
h |i | |
Since the group element is the exponential of the generator = ei, unitarity requires that =
, that is, that be Hermetian. Looking back at our explicit 4D representation for the Lorentz
generators, we see that the rotations
0
0
0
0
0
1
0 1
, J3 = i
, J2 = i
J1 = i
0 1
0
1 0
1 0
1
0
0
Spin
1
2
representation
0 1
0
1
1 0
K1 = i
, K2 = i 1
0
0
0
0
K3 = i
1
0
0
(29)
(30)
where the i are the rotation angles and i the boosts angles. These are real numbers. If we
took the basis i = J , then the corresponding is would have to be complex. So the representations of the Lorentz group are determined by the algebra su(2) su(2), but since the angles
are real, the corresponding representations of the Lorentz group are not unitary.
3.2 summary
In summary, the irreducible representations of the Lorentz group are characterized by two spins
(A, B). Physical particles are characterized by mass, m and spin j. Fields generally describe
particles of many spins, and one has to make sure that a physical theory only has causally propagating particles of the spins we want.
4 Spin
1
2
representation
Now that we know that the irreducible representations of the Lorentz group are characterized by
1
two spins, (A, B), how do we find the explicit representations? In particular, what do the ( 2 , 0)
1
and (0, 2 ) representations look like? We need to find 2x2 matrices that satisfy
[Ji+, J j+] = iijkJk+
(31)
[Ji, J j] = iijkJk
(32)
[Ji+, J j] = 0
(33)
(34)
i j
, ] = iij k k
2
2 2
(35)
{i , j } = i j + ji = 2ij
(36)
rescaling we find
[
Another useful fact is that
Thus we can set Ji+ = 2 . This is the ( 2 , ). What about Ji? This should be the (, 0), so the
1
obvious thing to do is just take the trivial representation Ji = 0. So the ( 2 , 0) representation is
1
( , 0):
2
Ji+ =
i
,
2
Ji = 0
(37)
Section 4
Ji+ = 0,
Ji =
i
2
(38)
K = JK + + JK
What does this mean for actual Lorentz transformations? Well, the rotations are J
K
and the boosts are K = i(J J+ ) so
1
( , 0):
2
1
(0, ):
2
Ji =
i
,
2
Ji =
i
,
2
Ki = i
Ki = i
i
2
i
2
(39)
(40)
Since the Pauli matrices are Hermetian i = i we see that the rotations are Hermetian but the
boosts are anti-Hermetian. This is the same as what we found for the vector representation.
Also notice that these two representations are complex conjugates of each other. In contrast, the
vector representation was real .
1
Explicitly, if L is a ( 2 , 0) spinor, known also as a left-handed Weyl spinor, then under rotations angles i and boost angles i
1
Similarly,
Infinitesimally,
L e 2
(iii +ii)
1
1
L = (1 + iii + ii + )L
2
2
(41)
1
1
R eiii iiR = (1 + iii ii + )R
2
2
(42)
1
L = (ii + i)iL
2
(43)
1
R = (ii i)iR
2
(44)
Note again the angles i and i are real numbers. Although we mapped Ji or Ji+ to 0, we still
have non-trivial action of all the Lorentz generators. So these are faithful irreducible representations of the Lorentz group. Similarly
1
L = ( ii + i)L i
2
(45)
R
= ( ii i)L i
2
(46)
(47)
However, we can see from the above that this is not Lorentz invariant:
1
1
L L = (L) [(ii + i)iL] + [(L) ( ii + i)i]L
2
2
i
= LiL 0
2
(48)
(49)
This is just the manifestation of the fact that the representation is not unitary because the
boost generators are anti-Hermetian. If we allow ourselves two fields, L and R, we can write
1
(RL) = R ( ii i)i L + R (ii + i)i L = 0
(50)
2
2
Spin
1
2
representation
Which is great. However, this term is not real. But then we can just add the Hermetian conjugate, so
m R
L + L R
(51)
is ok.
What about kinetic terms? We could try
R
L + L R
(52)
fields. Then we see that this is just the Lagrangian for a couple of scalars. So its not enough to
declare the Lorentz transformation properties of something, the Lagrangian has to force those
transformation properties. In the same way, a vector field is just 4 scalars until we contract it
with in the Lagrangian.
To proceed, lets look at
L jL
(53)
1
1
L jL = L j [(ii + i)iL] + [L ( ii + i)i] jL
2
2
(54)
This transforms as
ii
L( ji ji)L + i L (i j + ji)L
2
2
= ii jkL kL + jL L
(55)
(56)
i
iL
2 L
L jL = iijkL kL + jL L
(57)
(58)
Similarly,
R
R =
i
iL
2 L
R
jR = iijkL kL + jL L
(59)
(60)
(61)
V j = jV0 + i ij kVk
(62)
(63)
= (1, K ),
= (1, K )
L = iL L + iR
R + m R
L + L R
= R
L
(64)
(65)
(66)
(67)
Section 5
(68)
L = ( m)
(69)
5 Dirac matrices
Expanding them out, the Dirac matrices are
1
0 i
0 =
i =
1
i 0
Or,
0
1
0
1
0
1
0 1
, 1 =
0 =
1
0
1 0
1
0
1
0
0
i
0
1
0 i
0
1
, 3 =
2 =
i 0
0
i
0
1
0
They satisfy
(70)
(71)
(72)
{ , } = 2
(73)
In the same way that the algebra of the Lorentz group is more fundamental than any particular
representation, the algebra of the s is more fundamental than any particular representation of
them. We say the s form the Dirac algebra, which is a special case of a Clifford algebra. This
particular form of the Dirac matrices is known as the Weyl representation.
The Lorentz generators are
i
S = [ , ]
(74)
4
They satisfy the Lorentz algebra for any s satisfying the Clifford algebra. That is, you can
derive from { , } = 2 that
[S , S ] = i(S S S + S)
(75)
1
1
1
S12 =
1
2
i
S01 =
2
0 1
,
, S23 = 1 1 0
0 1
0
1
2
1
1 0
1 0
0 1
0 1
1
1 0
1
, S02 = 1 1 0
, S03 = i
0 1
0 1
1
2
2
1 0
1 0
1
0 1
i
1 0
S13 =
(76)
(77)
(78)
These are block diagonal. These are the same generators we used for the ( 2 , 0) and (0, 2 ) representations above. It makes it clear that the Dirac representation is reducible, it is the sum of a
left-handed and a right-handed spinor representation.
Rotations
i
0
0
i
0
, 2 =
3 =
0 =
, 1 =
2 0
0
i 1
2 0
0 i 3
(79)
6 Rotations
Now lets see what happens when we rotate by an angle in the xy plane. We use
= exp(ix yV12 )
(80)
How do we exponentiate a matrix? The standard trick is to first diagonalizing it with a unitary
transformation, do the rotation, then transform back. This unitary transformation is like
choosing a direction, except it is purely mathematical as the direction must be complex!
First, for the vector representation
0
0
0 1
1
= U 1
U
V12 = i
(81)
1 0
1
0
0
So,
exp( ix y)
U
(82)
(xy) = exp(ix yV12 ) = U 1
exp(ixy)
0
(2) = 1
(83)
That is, we rotate 360 degrees and were back to where we started.
For the spinor representation
s = exp(i S )
(84)
So,
1
S12 =
2
(xy) = exp(ixyS12 ) =
1
1
1
1
(85)
exp( 2 xy )
exp( 2 xy )
exp( 2 xy )
exp( 2 xy )
(2) =
1
1
(86)
(87)
10
Section 7
Thus a 2 rotation does not bring us back where we started! If we rotate by 4 it would. So we
1
say spinors are spin 2 . What does this mean physically? I have no idea. There are plenty of
1
physical consequences of spinors being spin 2 , but this business of rotating by 2 is not actually
a physical thing you can do.
As an aside, note that the factor of 2 is determined by the normalization of the matrices,
which is set by the Lie Algebra. For each representation by itself, this would be arbitrary, but it
is important for expressions which combine the representations to be invariant.
7 Lorentz Invariants
The matrices themselves transform nicely under the Lorentz group.
s1 s = (V )
(88)
where the s are the Lorentz transformations acting on each individually, as a matrix, and
the V is the vector representation which mixes up the Lorentz indices. That is, writing out the
matrix indices , this means
(s1) (s) = (V )
(89)
where refers to which matrix, and and index the elements of that matrix.
Then the equation
really means
{ , } = 2
(90)
+ = 2
(91)
S
=
4
V V = V V = V { , }V
To be invariant, it must be that transforms in the vector representation.
Next consider
s (s)
(92)
(93)
(94)
(95)
For this to be invariant, we would need s = s1, that is, for the representation of the Lorentz
group to be unitary. The spinor representation, like any other representation is not unitary,
because the boost generators are anti-Hermetian.
It is useful to study the properties of the Lorentz generators from the Dirac algebra itself,
without needing to choose a particular basis for the . First note that
{ , } = 2
02 = 1,
i2 = 1
(96)
(S ) =
Which implies
i
[ , ]
4
i = i
Sij
= Sij
ih i ih i
, = ,
4
4
S0i
= S0i
(97)
(98)
(99)
11
Lorentz Invariants
Again, we see that the rotations are unitary and the boosts are not. You can see this from the
explicit representations above. But because we showed it algebraically, it is true in ANY representation.
Now, observe that one of the Dirac matrices is Hermetian, 0 (0 is the only Hermetian
Dirac matrix because the metric signature is (1,-1,-1-,1)). Moreover
0 i0 = i = i,
= 0 0
0S
0 = 0
0 0 0 = 0 = 0
i i
ih
ih i
, 0 = 0 0, 0 0 = [ , ] = S
4
4
4
0) = exp( i S ) = s1
(0s0) = 0exp(i S ) 0 = exp( i 0S
(100)
(101)
(102)
(103)
Then, finally,
0 s 0(s) = 0s1s = 0
(104)
(105)
(106)
(107)
(108)
(i m) = 0
(109)
(i m ) = 0
(110)
(111)
= ( 2 + m2)
(112)
(113)
It is in this sense that people sometimes say the Dirac equation is the square-root of the KleinGordon equation.
We can integrate the Lagrangian by parts to derive the equations of motion for :
So,
L = (i m) = i ( m)
(114)
i m = 0
(115)
12
Section 8
(116)
where the derivative acts to the left. This makes the conjugate equation look more like the original Dirac equation.
(117)
(118)
(i + e A m) = 0
(119)
Now we try to reproduce the Klein Gordon equation for a scalar field coupled to A .
[(i + eA )2 m2
(120)
0 = (i + eA + m)(i + eA m)
(121)
2
= (i + eA )(i + eA ) m
(122)
1
1
2
{i + eA , i + eA }{ , } + [i + eA , i + eA ][ , ] m
4
4
(123)
2
(i + eA ) + F [ , ] m
4
So we get
(124)
(125)
e
( ieA ) + m
2
2
Fij = i jkBk
K + i EK )K
(B
K iEK )K
(B
(127)
!)
=0
(128)
13
Dirac spinors, what we have been using, are 4 component complex fields in the ( 2 , 0) (0, 2 )
representation of the Lorentz group. Lets return for a moment to thinking about the 2-component fields.
In the Weyl basis, the matrices have the form
0
=
(129)
0
and Lorentz generators are block diagonal
(ii + i)i
=
(ii i)i
(130)
We can write our spinor as the left and right helicity parts
=
The Dirac equation is
meaning
L
R
(131)
(132)
(i + eA )R = mL
(133)
(i + e A )L = mR
(134)
m i D
iD m
L
R
So the electron mass mixes the left and right handed states.
In the absence of a mass, this implies
0 = i R = (E + K Kp )R
0 = i L = (E K Kp )L
(135)
(136)
So the left and right handed states are eigenstates of the operator K Kp with opposite eigenvalue.
This operator projects the spin on the momentum direction. We call spin projected on the
direction of motion the helicity, so the left and right handed states have opposite helicity. Since
the mass mixes left and right handed states, massive fermions are not eigenstates of helicity.
This makes ssene in the electrons rest frame, there is no direction of motion so helicity is not
well definedl in the massless limit, there is no rest frame, and a left-handed electron can never
turn into a right-handed electron, and a right-handed electron can never turn into a left-handed
electron, even in the presence of electromagnetic fields.
The fact that projection of spin on the direction of momentum is a good quantum number
for massless particles works for massless particles of any spin. For any spin, we will always find
KKp )s = 0, where JK are the rotation generators of spin s. For spin 1/2, JK = K2 . For pho(E sJ
tons, the rotation generators are listed in section 2. For example, Jz = V23 has eigenvalues 1
with eigenstates (0, i, 1, 0) and (0, i, 1, 0). These are the states of circularly polarized light in
the z direction. They are helicity eigenstates. So massless particles always have two helicity
states. It is true for spin 1/2 and spin 1, as we have seen, it is true for gravitons (spin 2),
Rarita-Schwing fields (spin 3/2) and spins s > 2 (although, as we have seen, it is impossible to
have interacting theories with massless fields of spin s > 2).
We have seen that the L and R states
14
Section 10
Using
=
The Lagrangian
L
R
0 =
R
L
(137)
L = (i + e A m)
(138)
L = iL D L + iR
D R m(L R + R
L)
(139)
becomes
Which is what we derived in the beginning. Note that L and R by themselves must be massless . To right down a mass term, we need both a L and a R.
It is helpful to be able to project out the left or right handed Weyl spinors from a Dirac
spinor. We can do that with the 5 matrix
5 = i 0 1 2 3
(140)
=
So
PR =
1 + 5
=
2
0
1
,
,
PL =
(141)
1 5
=
2
1
0
(142)
(143)
(144)
1
L = ( ii + i)L i
2
(145)
L L = iL L 0
(146)
This just indicates that the boosts are not unitary transformations.
To get something new, recall that for the Pauli matrices, 1 and 3 are real, and 2 is imaginary.
1 0
0 i
0 1
(147)
, 3 =
, 2 =
1 =
0 1
i 0
1 0
We can see that
1 = 1,
2 = 2,
3 = 3
(148)
1T = 1,
2T = 2,
3T = 3
(149)
iT2 = 2i
1
1
T
T T
T
(L
2) = (ii + i)L
i 2 = ( ii i) L
2 i
2
2
(150)
(151)
15
Majorana fermions
is Lorentz invariant.
The only problem is that 2 =
T
L
2 L =
1 2
so this is just
i
(152)
1
2
= i(1 2 2 1)
(153)
(154)
This is an example of the spin-statistics theorem. I think its the simplest way to see the
connection between anti-symmetrization and Lorentz invariance.
You know it from quantum mechanics. Fermions come in anti-symmetric states. It may look
more familiar if we use arrows for the 1 and 2 states:
1
|i = (|i|i |i|i)
2
(155)
We see that wavefunctions are antisymmetric to the exchange of particles. This is the Pauli
exclusion principle. Here we see that it follows simply from Lorentz invariance.
Obviously if the fermion components commute this is just zero. So fermion components cant
be regular numbers, they must be anticommuting numbers. Such things are called Grassman
numbers and satisfy a Grassman algebra. We will see that its easy to make the quantum fields
anti-commute, by demanding that the creation and annihilation operators anti-commute, a p a q =
a qa p ,. And well rederive spin-statistics from properties of the S-matrix. But here we are
seeing that if we are to make any sense of spinors classically, or in any way at all, they must
anticommute.
11 Majorana fermions
If we allow fermions to be Grassman numbers, then we can write down a Lagrangian for a single
Weyl spinor with a mass term
m
T
L
2 L)
(156)
L = iL L + i (L 2 L
2
These kinds of mass terms are called Majorana masses. Note that this mass term breaks the
symmetry under ei, since
T
T i
T
L
2 L L
e 2eiL = e2iL
2 L
(157)
L + m2 L
=0
(158)
i2 L
0 2
i2 R
L
i2 = i
=
i2 L
2 0
R
(160)
16
Section 12
(161)
We call c the charge conjugate fermion. A Majorana fermion is its own charge conjugate.
Since it is real, it is als its own antiparticle.
Finally, note that in the Weyl basis 2 is imaginary and 0, 1 and 3 are real. Of course, we
we could just as well have taken 3 imaginary and 2 real, but its conventional to pick out 2.
We can also define a new representation of the matrices by = 2 2. This satisfies the
Dirac Algebra because 22 = 1. Now define
c = i2
= i2 c
(162)
(163)
( i + e A m) = 0
(164)
2( i + e A m)2 c = 0
(165)
(166)
(i eA m)c = 0
So c has the oppisite charge from , which is another reason that Majorana fermions cant be
charged.
11.1 summary
In summary,
We have seen three types of spinors
We are not sure if the neutrino is a Majorana or a Dirac spinor. Weyl spinors play a very
important role in supersymmetry, and in the theory of the Weak interactions. But for QED, we
can just stick with Dirac spinors.
(167)
L = ( + ieA )( ieA )] + m2
(168)
(169)
( + ieA )2 + m2 = 0
(170)
So we see that and have opposite charge, and we interpret them as particle and antiparticle. Recall that when we quantized the field , it created a particle and destroyed and antiparticle, and vice-versa for . But at the classical level, we can just think of as particle and
as antiparticle.
17
(171)
(172)
In the rest frame, p20 = m2, so p0 = m. The solution with p0 = m is confusing. It is a legitimate solution to the equation of motion, but it says that these particles are going backward in
time! But note that
= peip0 t
= peip0 t
(173)
So we can just as easily interpret these solutions as anti-particles going forward in time. Obviously this interpretation is easier to swallow, but Feynman spent some time showing that there
really is no physically distinguishable difference.
Now back to spinors. The Dirac equation is
(i + e A m) = 0
(174)
( i eA m) = 0
(175)
(176)
u and v are the polarizations. With this Ansatz, the Dirac equation becomes
m p
u (p) = 0
p m
(177)
Since the spinor also satisfies ( + m2) = 0, it follows that p2 = m2. We already know that the
negative frequency solutions p0 = m are not a problem since the antiparticles
= ue ipx
(178)
have positive frequency. Still, it is somewhat convenient to keep talking about p0 < 0 for now.
For p0 < 0 we call the polarizations v (p). Then the solutions are
p,s(x) = us(p)eipx ,
p0 > 0
(179)
p,s(x) = vs(p)eipx ,
p0 < 0
(180)
1 1
1 1
us = 0
and
1 1
1 1
vs = 0
(181)
s
s
s
s
(182)
(183)
18
Section 12
Now lets boost in the z-direction. Peskin and Schroeder do the actual boost. But well just
solve the equations again in the boosted frame and match the normalization. If p = (E , 0, 0, pz)
then
E + pz
0
E pz
0
(184)
, p =
p =
0
E pz
0
E + pz
xy 0
x2
0
y2
0 xy 0
(i m) =
(185)
u (p) = 0
y2
0 xy 0
0
x2
0 xy
The solutions are
x1
x 0
1 y2
0 y
= 1
(186)
us = u (p) =
y 0
m
m y1
0 x
x2
Check
xy + x2 y 2 = 0,
(187)
Note also that in the rest frame pz = 0 in the rest frame, x2 = y 2 = m so we are back to the
states.
So the solutions in the pz frame are
Using
us(p) =
p =
E pz
0
0
E + pz
E + pz
0
0
E pz
s
,
!
s
!
0
E pz
0
E pz
vs(p) =
p =
0
E pz
0
E + pz
E + pz
0
0
E pz
s
!
0
E + pz
0
E pz
(188)
(189)
p s
,
p s
vs(p) =
p s
p s
(190)
where the square root of a matrix means diagonalize it and then take the square root. In practice, we will always pick p along the z axis, so we dont really need to know how to make sense
of these formulas. But they are useful because they are explicitly Lorentz covariant so we can
manipulate them cleanly.
p s 0 1
= us (p)0us (p) =
1 0
p s
=2
s
E pz
0
0
E + pz
E + pz
0
0
E pz
= 2mss
p s
p s
(191)
(192)
s s
(193)
19
p s
p s
us us =
(194)
= 2Es s = 2Ess
p s
p s
us(p)us(p) = p + m
(195)
s=1
s=1
2
X
1
0
and =
0
1
vs(p)vs(p) = p m
usvs =
s=1
2
X
(196)
usvs = 0
(197)
s=1
[i(p)]i (p) =
p p
m2
(inner product)
us(p)us(p) = p + m
(outer product)
(198)
(199)
s=1
So when we sum Lorentz indices or internal spinor indices, we use an inner product and get a
number. When we sum over polarizations/spins, we get a matrix.
s
s
,
vs =
s
s
(200)
(201)
(202)
s
s
(203)